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Time : 3 Hrs. Max.Marks : 720
Test - 5
Top-80 (for AIPMT-2014)
Objective Type Questions
Topics covered :
Physics : Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatics Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity
Chemistry : d-and f-block elements, Co-ordination compounds & Qualitative analysis
Botany : Respiration in Plants; Plant growth and Development
Zoology : Human reproduction & Reproductive Health: Reproductive system in male and female,
menstrual cycle, Production of gametes, fertilization, implantation, Embryo development,
pregnancy and parturition. Reproductive health – birth control, contraception and sexually
transmitted diseases

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. Electric field at a perpendicular distance r from a (1) q1 and q2 only (2) q3, q4 and q5 only
uniform infinite line charge distribution is E. Electric (3) q1, q3 and q5 only (4) All charges
field at distance 2r from the distribution will be
4. A long rod of uniform linear charge density λ is
E inserted into a cube of side a. Maximum electric
(1) E (2) flux through the cube is
2
E λa 2λa
(3) 2E (4) (1) (2)
4 ε0 ε0
2. A charge Q is kept at the centre of cube of sides
a. Another charge Q is kept at the centre of sphere 3λ a
(3) (4) Zero
of radius a. Ratio of electric flux emerging out of ε0
the cube to the sphere is 5. A charge Q is kept in the cavity inside an
(1) 1 : 1 (2) π : 1 uncharged metal as shown in figure.
Electric flux through the Gaussian surface S inside
(3) 1 : π (4) 4 : π the metal shown in figure is
3. Electric flux through the Gaussian surface S as
q1 + q2
shown in figure is . Electric field E on the
ε0 Q
Gaussian surface is due to
S
q4
Q
S (1) (2) Zero
q1 q2 ε0
q3
2Q Q
(3) ε0 (4) 2ε
q5 0

–1–
6. Four charges each of charge Q are kept at four
corners of a regular pentagon. Distance of centre
of pentagon from a corner is a. Electric field at
centre of the pentagon is
10. Two air filled capacitors P and Q each of capacity
C are connected in series across battery of
potential V. Now a dielectric of constant 2 fills the
space between plates of capacitor Q. Charge
passed through A during the insertion process is
C C

Q a Q P Q
a O
a
a
A
Q Q V
4Q 2Q CV
(1) (2) (1) CV (2)
4πε0 a 2
4πε0 a2 2

3Q Q 2CV CV
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4πε0 a 2
4πε0 a 2
3 6

7. Figure shows two concentric spherical metal shells 11. Seven capacitors each of capacity C are connected
A and B of radii a and b respectively. A is charged as shown in figure. Capacity between terminals A
to Q and B is earthed. Electric field outside the and B is
sphere B at distance r from centre is

B C
A C C
a
b C
C
A
B
C C
Q
(1) Zero (2) 3
4πε0 r 2 (1)
2
C (2) 2 C

Q Q 2C
(3) (4) (3) (4) C
4πε0 b 2 4πε0 a2 3
8. A parallel plate capacitor is charged such that 12. Equipotential surfaces in a region are as shown in
electric field between the plates is E at steady figure. If EA and EB are electric fields at A and B
respectively, then which of the following must be
state. When the capacitor is disconnected from the
incorrect?
battery and plates are pulled apart to double their
separation, then new electric field between plates will be

E E
(1) (2)
4 2 A B
(3) E (4) Zero

9. Three identical capacitors each of capacity C are V1

V2
joined as shown in the figure. Capacity between V3
V4
terminals A and B is
(1) EA = EB
(2) EA > EB
A C C C B
(3) V1 – V2 = V2 – V3 = V3 – V4
C
(1) C (2) V1 + V3
3
(4) V2 =
2
(3) 3C (4) 9C

–2–
13. If electrostatic potential at distance r from the
Qq Qq
centre of short dipole at an axial point is V, then (3) (4)
electrostatic potential at distance r from centre of 4πε0 R 2
6π ε0R 2
2

the short dipole at an equatorial point is

20. If potential in a region is given by V = xy, then
V magnitude of electric field at a point having position
(1) (2) 2 V G
2 vector r = xi + y j is proportional to
(3) Zero (4) Infinity
1 1
14. A small electric dipole is placed at origin with its (1) (2)
dipole moment directed along positive y-axis. The r2 r
direction of electric field at (3, 0, 0) is along (3) r (4) r0
(1) Positive y-axis (2) Negative y-axis
21. Two electric charges of 2 μC and 32 μC are kept
(3) Positive x-axis (4) Negative x-axis fixed at a distance of 20 cm. The position of point
15. If current through a conductor at any instant at which net electric force on any another charge
is i = 2 + 3t, then what is the charge transferred is zero, is
between t = 0 to t = 3 second? 2 μC 20 cm 32 μC
(1) 19.5 C (2) 16 C A B
(3) 25 C (4) 3 C (1) 4 cm from 32 μC (2) 16 cm from 32 μC
16. What will be the electric flux through an area of
10 m2 kept in y–z plane where an electric field 20 20
JG (3) cm from 2 μC (4) cm from 32 μC
3 3
E = 2i + 3j − 4k is present?
22. There are two metallic plates having plate area A
(1) 30 unit (2) 20 unit
and separation between them d. They are joined
(3) 15 unit (4) 40 unit together by a conducting wire. The capacitance of
17. A current is flowing through a conductor, which is the arrangement is given by
in the shape of truncated cone. If V1 and V2 be the
A
drift speed at section (1) and section (2), then

d
1 2
A
ε0 A
(1) (2) Infinite
d
(1) V1 = V2 (2) V1 > V2 ε0 A
(3) V1 < V2 (4) Any of these (3) Zero (4)
d
18. 25 cells of emf 2 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω
23. If the potential at the centre of a hollow metallic
are connected in series, in such a way that 5 cells
charged spherical shell having charge Q and radius
are wrongly connected. The potential difference
R is taken to be zero, then the potential at its
across the combination in open circuit is
surface is given by
(1) 30 V (2) 15 V
(3) 40 V (4) 50 V KQ
(1) Zero (2)
R
19. Charge Q is distributed uniformly over a conducting
ring of radius R. A charge q is kept at its center. −KQ 3 KQ
What will be the force on the charge q? (3) (4)
R 2 R
++ 24. Figure shows a combination of infinite resistors.
Find equivalent resistance between A and B
1Ω 1Ω 1Ω
+q A
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω to ∞
B
(1) 2 Ω (2) Infinite
qQ
(1)
8π2ε0 R 2
(2) Zero (3) (1 + 5 ) Ω (4) (3 + )
11 Ω

–3–
25. A parallel plate capacitor is charged through a cell (1) 3 (2) Zero
having emf E. Now the cell is removed and
separation between plates of capacitor increased 2
(3) 2 (4)
then 3
(1) Capacitance will increase 30. Four charges are kept at the four corners of a
square of side l. The dipole moment of the
(2) Potential remains constant
arrangement is
(3) Charge will decrease –q –q
l
(4) Energy stored will increase
26. A charge Q is divided in two parts and kept at a
distance r so that force between them is l l
maximum. What is the electrostatic potential
energy between them in this situation?

Q2 Q2 +q l +q
(1) (2)
16πε0 r 4πε0 r (1) Zero (2) 2ql

Q2 (3) 2 2 ql (4) 4ql

(3) (4) Zero
8πε0 r 31. The electric potential due to a uniformly charged
ring of radius R having charge Q at a distance
27. A charge Q is kept at the center of a sphere and
flux through the sphere is φ. Now the sphere is 3 R on its axis is
changed into irregular shape then flux through new 1 Q 1 Q
arrangement will be (1) (2)
4πε0 R 4πε0 3R
(1) φ (2) Less than φ
1 Q
(3) More than φ (4) Cannot be calculated (3) (4) Zero
4πε0 2R
28. Five equal resistors R are connected as shown in
32. What is the potential of point B?
figure. What is the equivalent resistance between
A and B?
6V 1Ω
A B
R R
3Ω
R

R R 2Ω

B
(1) 6 V (2) 5 V
3R
(1) R (2) (3) Zero (4) 3 V
4
33. The capacitor shown in the figure is in steady
R state. The energy stored in capacitor is
(3) (4) 2R
2
R R
29. Three equal charges are kept at the three corners
of an equilateral triangle. When any charge is
released, its instantaneous acceleration at that time
1 Q2 p I R C
is then the value of p is (M = mass of
4πε0 l 2M (1) Zero (2) CI2R2
each charge) (3) 2CI2R2 (4) 4CI2R2
Q
34. Two point charges q1 and q2 are kept at a distance r.
JG
If force on q1 due to q2 is F , then force on q2 due
l l to q1 is (|q1|>|q2|)
JG JG
(1) −F (2) F
JG
JG F
Q l Q (3) −2F (4)
2
–4–
35. The potential difference across a cell of emf 20 V 41. The electric potential at the surface of a uniformly
and internal resistance 1 Ω is found to be 22 V, charged non-conducting sphere is taken to be zero
then current passing through cell is in a particular situation. If charge is Q and radius
(1) 2 A, cell is charging of sphere is R, then potential at centre and at large
distance is given by
(2) 2 A, cell is discharging
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, infinite
(3) 1 A, cell is charging
1 Q −Q 3Q
(4) 1 A, cell is discharging (3) , (4) 8πε R ,Zero
8πε0 R 4πε0 R 0
36. When temperature increases, the resistivity of 42. A uniform electric field having magnitude E0 and
copper direction along positive X-axis exists. If electric
(1) Increases potential V is zero at x = 0, then the value of
electric potential at X = x will be
(2) Decreases
(1) xE0 (2) – xE0
(3) First increases then decreases
(3) x2E0 (4) – x2E0
(4) Remains constant
43. Variation of electric potential along x-axis is shown
37. Two identical metal plates are given positive in the figure. Select correct statement regarding
charges Q1 and Q2 (<Q1). If they are now brought electric field
close together to form a parallel plate capacitor of
capacitance C, then the potential difference across V
capacitor is

Q1 + Q2 Q1 + Q2
(1) (2)
2C C
x
(0,0)
A B C
Q1 − Q2 Q1 − Q2 (1) x component of electric field is maximum at B
(3) (4)
2C C (2) x component of electric field at A is along
38. When separation between two charges is negative x-axis
increased, the electric potential energy of the (3) x component of electric field at C is along
charges negative x-axis
(1) Increases (4) All of these
(2) Decreases 44. Large number of capacitors each of 8 μF, 250 V
(3) Remains same are available. The minimum number of capacitors
(4) May increase or decrease needed to form a network of 16 μF which can be
operated at 1000 V, is
39. What is the equivalent capacitance between points
A and B in the figure shown? (1) 16 (2) 32
12 μF (3) 48 (4) 4
A 45. Each of the four plates is having plate area A and
9 μF 10 μF 5 μF
separatioin between any two plate is d. Dielectric
is filled between plates 2 and 3 having dielectric
8 μF
constant K1 and between 3 and 4 having dielectric
B
constant K2. The equivalent capacitance between
(1) 4 μF (2) 6 μF P and Q if K1 = 2 and K2 = 3 is
(3) 42 μF (4) 9 μF 1
40. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by P
connecting it to a battery of potential V0. The 2
capacitor is disconnected from the battery and K1
3
then reconnected with same battery with polarity K2 Q
reversed. The heat energy developed in the 4
connecting wire is
3ε0 A 2ε0 A
1 (1) (2)
(1) CV02 (2) CV02 2d 3d
2
(3) 2CV02 (4) Zero 6ε0 A 3 ε0 A
(3) (4)
3d 5 d
–5–
 CHEMISTRY
46. The valence shell electronic configuration of 56. CFSE value for d 5 configuration in weak field ligand
La (Z = 57) is is (in tetrahedral complex)
(1) 4f 15d1 6s1 (2) 5d 0 6s 2
(1) 0 (2) 20 Dq
(3) 5d 16s 2 (4) 4f 1 5d1 6s 2
(3) 12 Dq (4) 6 Dq
47. Which one of the following transition metal has the
least melting point? 57. Which one of the following relations is correct?
(1) Mn (2) Pd 5 4
(1) Δt ≈ Δ0 (2) Δt ≈ Δ0
(3) Cd (4) W 9 9
48. Which one of the following transition metals has 9 9
(3) Δt ≈ Δ (4) Δt ≈ Δ
minimum value for oxidation potential? 4 0 5 0
(1) Zn (2) Cu 58. Which one of the following is the strongest ligand?
(3) Fe (4) Mn (1) F(–) (2) NH3
49. Which one of the following ions is colourless?
(3) CO (4) H2O
(1) Zn2⊕ (2) Cd2⊕
59. Which one of the following statements is correct
(3) Hg2⊕ (4) All of these
about chromyl chloride test?
50. Which one of the following statements about
Cr2O7– – unit is correct? (1) This test is used to detect the presence of
–
Cl ion
(1) Cr2O7– – unit has one peroxy linkage
(2) In this test red vapours of CrOCl2 is formed
(2) Cr 2O 7– – has two tetrahedral units joined
through Cr— O — Cr (3) Chromyl chloride dissolves in NaOH(aq) to give
(3) The Cr — O — Cr bond angle is equal to Na2Cr2O5
109°28′ (4) The oxidation state of Cr in chromyl chloride is
(4) All of these +4
51. The brown coloured complex formed during the test 60. Which one of the following Lanthanides does not
of nitrate ions has the formula occur in nature?
(1) [Fe(CN)5NO]2(–) (2) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2⊕ (1) Pr(Z = 59) (2) Nd(Z = 60)
(3) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4(–) (4) All of these
(3) Lu(Z = 71) (4) Pm(Z = 61)
52. In the complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2⊕ the oxidation state
61. Which of the following statement is not correct?
of iron is
(1) +4 (2) +3 (1) No lanthanoide forms oxocations

(3) +2 (4) +1 (2) All actinoids are radioactive

53. Which one of the following pairs of elements has (3) K2Cr2O7 reacts with SO2 gas to form SO42–
almost the same size due to Lanthanide ions
contraction?
(4) KMnO4 works as oxidising agent in acidic
(1) Zr & Hf (2) Nb & W medium but reducing agent in alkaline medium
(3) Mo & Ta (4) All of these 62. Which one of the following is not an organometallic
54. Which one of the following is diamagnetic in compounds?
nature?
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2(–) (2) [Ni(CO)4]
(1) La3⊕ (2) Lu3⊕
(3) CH3MgBr (4) Ferrocene
(3) Ce4⊕ (4) All of these
63. The complex showing spin-only magnetic moment
55. Which one of the following complexes can show
1.732 B.M is
geometrical isomerism?
(1) [NiCl4]2(–) (2) [Ti(H2O)6]3⊕
(1) [PtCl2(NH3)2] (2) [Cr(ox)3]3(–)
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3⊕ (4) All of these (3) [Ni(CN)4]2(–) (4) [Co(NH3)6]3⊕

–6–
64. Select the incorrect statement about central metal 71. Complexes [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] +3 and [CoF 6 ] –3 are
ion in complex compounds respectively
(1) It must have empty orbitals (1) Inner orbital, inner orbital
(2) It acts as Lewis acid (2) Outer orbital, outer orbital
(3) d-block elements form outer orbital complexes (3) Inner orbital, outer orbital
only (4) Outer orbital, inner orbital
(4) Central metal ion donate pair of electron from 72. Three arrangements are shown for the complex
a filled d-orbital into vacant Anti-bonding π∗ [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+. Pick up the correct statement
orbitals of carbon monoxide
65. The oxidation state of Fe in complex Cl Cl
[Fe(C2O4) (H2O)3 Cl] is
(1) + 2 (2) + 3 Cl NH3
(3) + 4 (4) + 5 en en
Co Co
66. The formula of sodium nitro prusside is
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
NH3 NH3
(2) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
(3) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] NH3 Cl
(4) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2] I II
Cl
67. Which of the following pairs of name and formula
of complexes, is not correct?
NH3
(1) Tetra ammine copper (II) sulphate... [Cu(NH3)4]
SO4 Co
en
(2) Diammine silver (I) chloride ...[Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(3) Potassium hexacyanido ferrate NH3
(III) – K4[Fe(CN)6]
Cl
(4) Potassium ammine pentachlorido platinate
III
(IV)– K[Pt(NH3)Cl5] (1) I and II are linkage isomers
68. On adding AgNO 3 solution to a solution of (2) II and III are identical
[Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl, the percentage of total chloride ion
(3) I and III are ionisation isomers
precipitated is
(4) II and III are geometrical isomers
(1) 100 (2) 75
73. The bond length in CO is 1.128 Å. What will be the
(3) 50 (4) 25 bond length of CO in Fe(CO)5?
69. Which statement is incorrect? (1) 1.158 Å (2) 1.128 Å
(1) Ni(CO)4 – Paramagnetic (3) 1.05 Å (4) 1.118 Å

(2) [Ni(CN)4]–2 – Diamagnetic 74. What kind of isomerism is exhibited by octahedral

[Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl?
(3) Ni(dmg)2 – Diamagnetic
(1) Geometrical and ionisation
(4) [NiCl4]–2 – Paramagnetic
(2) Geometrical and linkage
70. What is wrong about the given compound? (3) Linkage only
K[Pt(η2 – C2H4)Cl3] (4) Geometrical only
(1) It is called Zeise’s salt 75. The co-ordination number and the oxidation state
(2) It is π bonded complex of element ‘E’ in the complex [E(en)(C 2O 4)2 ] –
respectively
(3) Oxidation number of Pt is +4
(1) 4 and +2 (2) 4 and +3
(4) Four ligands surround, the Pt ion
(3) 6 and +3 (4) 6 and +2

–7–
76. Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative
Monodentate ligand X– to form a paramagnetic
complex [NiX 4 ] –2 . The number of unpaired
electrons in the nickel and geometry of this
complex ion are, respectively
(1) One, tetrahedral (2) Two, tetrahedral
(3) One, square planar (4) Two square planar
77. Consider the following statements
According to the Werner’s theory
A. Ligands are connected to the metal ions by
ionic bonds
B. Secondary valencies have directional properties
C. Secondary valencies are non-ionisable
(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) B and C are correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) A and B are correct
78. Complexes [Co(NH3)5SO4] Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
can be distinguished by
(1) Conductance measurement
(2) Using BaCl2
(3) Using AgNO3
(4) All of these
79. The melting point of zinc is less as compared to
those of the other elements of 3d series because
(1) The d-orbitals are completely filled
(2) The d-orbitals are partially filled
(3) Strong metallic bonding in Zn
83. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the
fact that
(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have same oxidation state
84. The ability of d-block elements to form complexes
is due to
(1) Small and highly charged ions
(2) Vacant orbital to accept lone pair of electrons
from ligands
(3) They have complete d-subshell
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct
85. Water soluble salt among AgNO3, AgF and AgCl
are
(1) AgF, AgNO3
(2) AgF only
(3) AgF, AgNO3, AgCl
(4) All are insoluble in water
86. Which is not true about KMnO4?
(1) Its solution is purple in colour
(2) It oxidises KI into KIO3 in basic medium
(3) MnO4– changes to Mn+2 in basic medium
(4) It is self indicator in Fe+2 or C2O4–2 titration
87. Generally transition metals act as catalyst
because of

(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Variable valancy

80. First IE of 5d series elements are higher than
those of 3d and 4d series elements. This is due to
(1) Bigger size of atoms of 5d series elements
(2) Greater effective nuclear charge is experienced
by valence electrons because of the weak
shielding of the nucleus by 4f electrons in 5d
series
(3) More screening in 5d series
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Large surface area for chemisarption
(3) Paired d-electrons
(4) Both (1) & (2)
88. Magnetic moments of Cr (Z = 24), Mn+ (Z = 25)
and Fe+2 (Z = 26) are x, y and z respectively.
Which of the following order is correct?
(1) x < y < z
(2) x = y < z

81. Which of the following acts as oxidizing agent? (3) z < x = y

(1) MnO4–/H+ (2) Ce4+ (4) x = y = z

(3) Cr2O72–/H+ (4) All of these 89. The EAN of nickel in K2[Ni(CN)4] is
82. The oxidation number is changed in which of the (1) 35 (2) 34
following case? (3) 36 (4) 38
(1) SO2 gas is passed into Cr2O7–2/H+ 90. Which of the following complexes can exhibit
(2) Aqueous solution of CrO4–2 is acidified geometrical isomerism?
(3) K2Cr2O7 reacts with NaCl (1) Ma2b2 (2) Ma4
(4) Cr2O7–2 solution is made alkaline (3) Ma5b (4) Ma6

–8–
 BOTANY
91. All of the following statements are concerned with 98. Which of the following pathway/cycle does not use
plant growth, except ATP?
(1) Localised (1) Aerobic glycolysis
(2) Open ended (2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(3) There is increase in number of parts (3) Anaerobic glycolysis
(4) It is not indeterminate (4) More than one option is correct
92. Which of the following is the correct statement? 99. A five carbon compound of Krebs cycle which
undergoes oxidative decarboxylation is
(1) The low ratio of cytokinin to auxin promotes
root system (1) α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) The high ratio of auxin to cytokinin promotes (2) Citric acid
shoot system (3) Succinic acid
(3) Both auxins and gibberellins promote (4) Malic acid
femaleness in plants
100. Which of the following ETC inhibitors prevents flow
(4) More than one option is correct of electrons from cyt a3 to O2?
93. Identify the incorrect match (1) Cyanide
(1) Flowering in pineapple – Auxin and Ethylene (2) Antimycin A

(2) Stomatal opening – Ethylene and ABA (3) Rotenone

(3) Abscission – ABA and Ethylene (4) Dinitrophenol

(4) Sex expression – Auxin and Cytokinin
94. Find incorrect statement in relation to effects of
red and far-red lights on plant growth
(1) Far red light stimulates seed germination
always
(2) Red light inhibits flowering in short day plants
(3) Far red light stimulates flowering in SDP
(4) Red light causes epicotyl hook to unbend
95. From the complete oxidation of one molecule of a
10 carbon fatty acid, the number of ATP molecules
gained as net are
(1) 36 (2) 78
(3) 38 (4) 129
96. Pyruvic acid, produced by glycolysis, is oxidized
into acetyl coenzyme A. This reaction is called as
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Oxidative carboxylation
(4) Photophosphorylation
97. RQ value for the anaerobic respiration is
(1) Infinite
101. A change from anaerobic to aerobic condition
decreases rate of sugar breakdown and CO 2
evolution. It is called as
(1) Enhancement effect
(2) Warburg effect
(3) Kutusky effect
(4) Pasteur effect
102. Breaking down of C-C bonds of complex
compounds like carbohydrates, lipids and proteins
release considerable amount of energy in the
process of cellular respiration. This released
energy
(1) Can be used directly for the cellular
metabolism
(2) Cannot be used indirectly for cell activities
(3) Is used to synthesise ATP
(4) Does not increase or maintain the cellular
temperature
103. Select wrong statement w.r.t. gas exchange in
plants
(1) Each plant part takes care of its own gas
exchange needs
(2) Plants do not present great demands for gas
exchange

(2) One (3) Transport of gases from one plant part to

another occurs in large amount
(3) Less than unity
(4) Large volumes of gases are exchanged only
(4) Zero during photosynthesis

–9–
104. How many net molecules of ATP and ADP are 111. Select odd one feature w.r.t. complex IV of ETS
yielded in the process of glycolysis respectively?
(1) Cytochrome oxidase
(1) 2 & 2
(2) Containing cytochrome a and a3
(2) 4 & 2
(3) Having two copper centre
(3) 4 & 4
(4) Present as extrinsic protein
(4) 2 & 0
112. Which multiprotein complex on inner mitochondrial
105. How many redox equivalents are removed from 2
membrane can easily be removed on giving the
molecules of 3 PGAL in glycolysis?
temperature?
(1) 4 (2) 1
(1) Complex I
(3) 2 (4) 3
(2) Complex III
106. Fermentation is brought by
(3) Complex IV
(1) All microscopic organisms
(4) Head piece of complex V
(2) Many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryote
113. How many ATP molecule will be produced from 6
(3) Microscopic eukaryotic organism like pairs of H+ in ETS by oxidative phosphorylation?
Saccharomyces only
(1) 6 ATP (2) 3 ATP
(4) All prokaryotes and few eukaryotes
(3) 4 ATP (4) 2 ATP
107. Which statement is correct w.r.t. the conversion of
pyruvic acid into latic acid? 114. A B C D E F G
Juve- Senes- Seed- Seed- Death Matur- Flowe-
(1) Occur in all kind of muscles in human
nile cence ling germi- ation ring
nation
(2) Can be caused by both bacteria and fatigue
skeletal muscles under anaerobic condition
The above given are developmental stages of plants.
(3) Reducing equivalent of glycolysis is not used The correct sequence of developmental stages are
in this
(1) A → D → C → F → G → B → E
(4) In muscles it is brought by pyruvic acid
(2) D → C → A → F → G → B → E
decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase
(3) D → C → A → G → F → B → E
108. First decarboxylation-dehyrogenation activity in
respiration occurs in oxidation of (4) C → D → A → F → G → B → E

(1) 3-PGAL → 1, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid 115. Select correct option w.r.t. examples of limited and
unlimited growth in the following plant parts organs
(2) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
Fruit Shoot Leaf Root Flower
(3) Citric acid → α-ketoglutaric acid apex apex

(4) α-Ketoglutaric acid → Succinic acid 1. Limited Unlimited Limited Unlimited Unlimited
2. Limited Unlimited Unlimited Unlimited Limited
109. The first substrate entrant in TCA cycle is _______ 3. Limited Unlimited Limited Unlimited Limited
compound and needs the _________enzyme 4. Unlimited Unlimited Limited Unlimited Unlimited

(1) 2 C, citrate synthase 116. Select the main characteristic w.r.t. phases of
(2) 4 C, pyruvate dehydrogenase growth in plant

(3) 3 C, pyruvate decarboxylase Formative Elongation Maturation

phase phase phase
(4) 3 C, citrate synthase 1. Presence of Protoplasmic Formation of sieve
plastid modification tube
110. GTP is formed in the catabolism of
2. Presence of Development of Formation of
(1) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid proplastid central vacuole treachery element

3. Large Reduced intercellular Cell enlargement

(2) Fumaric acid → Malic acid intercellular space
space
(3) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid 4. Prominent Dense cytoplasm Increased
nucleus vacuolation
(4) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid

– 10 –
117. Which of these cannot be done by application of Which one statement is incorrect to above given
IAA in plants? figure?
(1) Abscission in old leaves
(1) Requires photoperiod less than the critical
(2) Apical dominance
(3) Root initiation in stem cutting (2) Examplified by sugarbeet and radish
(4) Hedge making (3) FR light can stimulate flowering
118. Match the column w.r.t. PGR and contribution of
scientist (4) Pfr form of phytochrome induces flowering
Column-I Column-II 123. A scientist is doing the experiment on SDP to
PGR Scientist contribution initiate flowering. Which experiment of light
a. Auxin (i) Yabuta induction will initiate the flowering in SDP?
b. GA (ii) Skoog and Miller (1) R
c. CK (iii) Cousins
(2) R – FR – R
d. Ethylene (iv) Went
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) FR
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) R – FR – R – FR – R
119. Phytohormone which can be used to increase
length of grape stalks and improvement in shape of 124. Biennial ⎯⎯
A
→ Annual plant
fruit is
This conversion can be brought by A that can be
(1) CK (2) GA
(3) NAA (4) ABA (1) GA only
120. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. abscisic acid (2) GA and vernalisation
(1) Acts as an inhibitor of plant metabolism
(3) Vernalisation only
(2) In most situation acts as an antagonist to
GAs (4) Photoperiodism
(3) Has its role in seed maturity and dormancy
but no role in seed development 125. Choose the correct option w.r.t. following chart
(4) Promotes flowering in some short day plants in
non-photoinductive periods
121. Choose odd one w.r.t. functions of gibberellins Fats Carbohydrate Protein

(1) Hastens maturity in juvenile conifers X Y Glucose

(2) Bolting in rosette plants Glucose-6-phosphate
P
(3) Apical hook formation in dicot seedings
(4) Stimulate stem elongation Fructose – 1, 6-bisphosphate
122.
A B

Above
C

No Flowering Critical D
photoperiod Krebs cycle

(1) X-fatty acids, D – Pyruvic acid

Below
(2) P-Polypeptide, C – Acetyl CoA
(3) Y - Glycerol, B – Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Flowering
(4) B - DHAP, D – Fatty acid

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126. Membrane associated respiratory enzyme in 132. In case of aerobic respiration the reduced
bacteria is coenzymes produced during glycolysis and TCA
cycle are oxidized during ETS . Which of the following
(1) Phosphofructokinase
statement is incorrect for ETS and oxidative
(2) Hexokinase phosphorylation?

(3) Succinate dehydrogenase (1) Cytochrome c is a mobile electron carrier

between complex III and complex IV
(4) Pyruvate kinase
(2) Ubiquinol receives electrons from both complex
127. Find odd one w.r.t. developmental plasticity I and complex III
(1) Larkspur (2) Coriander (3) The role of oxygen is limited to the terminal
stage of the process
(3) Cotton (4) Buttercup
(4) Energy of oxidation-reduction is utilized to
128. Phytohormone which promote nutrient mobilisation, produce proton gradient
also helps in
133. Leaf A has area of 5 cm2 and leaf B has area of
(1) Induce flowering in mango 50 cm2. Both leaves show an increase of 10 cm2 in
their area after 72 hours. Which of the following
(2) Fruit thinning of cotton
statement is correct?
(3) Production of new leaves and chloroplasts
(1) Absolute growth of both leaves are different
(4) Seed development & dormancy
(2) Both the leaves have lateral meristem at their
129. Which phytohormone is used to speed up the tip
malting process in brewing industry?
(3) Relative growth of leaf ‘A’ is higher
(1) GA3 (2) ABA
(4) Relative growth of both leaves are equal
(3) Zeatin (4) Auxin
134. Which of the following process is an example of
130. Select the correct statement w.r.t. arithmetic dedifferentiation?
growth
(1) Formation of interfascicular cambium
(1) Both daughter cells divide and differentiate
(2) Formation of phellogen
(2) On plotting the length of organ against time, a
(3) Formation of wound meristem
linear curve is obtained
(4) More than one option is correct
(3) Mathematically, it is expressed as L0 = Lt + rt
135. Cytokinins are mostly synthesised in
(4) Mathematically, it is expressed as W1=W0 ert
131. How many ATP are synthesized per sucrose (1) Root and shoot apices and mature leaves
molecule (gross synthesis) in aerobic respiration (2) Root and developing fruits
through substrate level phosphorylation?
(3) Shoot tip, pith of stem and mature fruits
(1) 10 (2) 12
(4) Maturing fruits and all chloroplasts containing
(3) 30 (4) 76 parts of plants

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following induces the completion of 137. During human gestation, a female took thalidomide
the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte? as a remedy to avoid morning sickness. The child
(1) Fertilizin and antifertilizin reaction was born with an abnormality like ______

(2) Contact of sperm with the zona pellucida of the (1) Phocomelia
ovum (2) Microcephaly
(3) Entry of sperm into the perivitelline space and
(3) Spine bifida
binding to secondary oocyte membrane
(4) Capacitation (4) Hare-cleft lip

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138. In megalecithal eggs, the type of cleavage pattern 143. Women are often blamed for giving birth to
is daughters. Choose a reason that proves the above
(1) Holoblastic equal statement wrong.
(2) Holoblastic anequal (1) 80% haploid gametes produced by females
(3) Meroblastic have sex chromosome X
(4) Superficial (2) 70% sperms carry X chromosome
139. Secretion of milk is inhibited in non-pregnant phase
(3) 20% ova produced by males have Y
by A and during lactational period by B
chromosome
. Identify A and B
(1) PIH, Inhibitory peptide (4) 50% sperms carry Y chromosome
(2) Dopamine, Inhibitory peptide 144. Delivery of foetus is called parturition and its signal
(3) PIH, Dopamine is initiated by
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Fully developed foetus and placenta
140. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. contraceptive
(2) Oxytocin from maternal and foetal pituitary
method shown in figure for family planning.
(3) Cortisol from foetal adrenal gland and oxytocin
Tied and cut
from maternal pituitary
(4) CRH and oxytocin from maternal hypothalamus
and pituitary
145. Vigorous contractions of the uterus at the end of
pregnancy cause expulsion of foetus. These
muscular contractions are associated with

A. Tube is cut and tied through a small incision (1) Multi unit smooth muscles of myometrium
in the abdomen.
(2) Striated muscles of endometrium
B. This technique is highly effective but its
reversibility is very poor. (3) Single unit smooth muscles of myometrium
C. This method blocks zygote transport and (4) Striated muscles of myometrium
thereby prevent conception.
D. This sterlisation procedure in female is called 146. Non-cellular primary membrane around secondary
castration. oocyte of mammals is
E. It affects FSH, estrogen and progesterone level (1) Theca externa
in the body.
(2) Corona radiate
(1) A, B, D, & E (2) A, B, C & D
(3) Only A & B (4) Only B & C (3) Theca interna
141. Inability to conceive or produce children even after (4) Zona pellucida
two years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is
called 147. Which of the following is not applicable to early
human placenta?
(1) Impotence
(2) Infertility (a) Haemochorial
(3) Abortion (b) Diffuse type
(4) Both (1) & (2) (c) Deciduate type
142. Which method of female contraceptive creates a
latex sheath barrier that prevents male and female (d) Metadiscoidal
gamete from meeting physically? (e) Haemoendothelial
(1) Femshield
(f) Discoidal
(2) Vaults
(1) d, e, f (2) a, b, c
(3) Progestasert
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) d only (4) d, e only

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148. Select the mismatch between features of 152. Male accessory glands and their functions are
embryonic development at corresponding weeks of listed in the table below. Match the columns and
pregnancy. select the correct option
Column I Column II
Duration of Feature
pregnancy a. Seminal vesicle (i) Secretes watery
alkaline fluid
(1) 12 weeks – Distinctly developed containing fibrinolysin
external organs b. Prostate gland (ii) Secretes mucus for
lubricating urethra
(2) 8 weeks – Quickening
c. Bulbourethral (iii) Secretes fibrinogens
(3) 20 weeks – Appearance of hair on head (1) a(i), b(ii), c(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(4) 24 weeks – Appearance of Lanugo (3) a(ii), b(i), c(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iii)
153. Mark the incorrect match regarding hormone listed
149. Choose the correct combination of labelling the
and corresponding function
hormonal control of female reproductive system
(1) Luteinising hormone–Stimulates ovulation
Hypothalamus (2) Progesterone–Implantation and maintenance of
A pregnancy
Anterior (3) Oxytocin–Signal for parturition
Pituitary
(4) Prolactin–Lactation after child birth
B
Ovary 154. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
about menstruation?
C (1) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is
menarche
D (2) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood
is lost
A B C D
(3) The menstrual fluid can clot
1. GnRH TSH LH Uterus (4) At menopause, there is an abrupt increase in
Oestrogen/ gonadotrophic hormones
2. GnRH LH/FSH Progesteron Uterus
155. What happens during fertilisation in humans?
3. GnRH STH LH Uterus
(1) Cells of corona radiata trap all sperms except
4. GnRH ACTH LH Uterus
one

150. Which of the following are derivatives of endoderm? (2) Only those sperms nearest to the ovum
penetrate zona pellucida
(1) Dermis, notochord (3) Secretions of an acrosome helps sperm
nucleus to enter cytoplasm of ovum
(2) Ciliary muscle, retina
(4) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum
(3) Adrenal cortex, malleus lose their tails

(4) Thymus, parathyroid, liver
151. Ovulation in the human female normally takes
place during which phase of the menstrual cycle?
(1) At the end of follicular phase
(2) At the beginning of proliferative
(3) Just before the end of luteal phase
(4) At the mid secretory phase
156. Which of the following statements about morula is
incorrect?
(1) Has more cytoplasm and more DNA than
uncleaved zygote
(2) Has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an
uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(3) Has far less cytoplasm and less DNA than in
uncleaved zygote
(4) Has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm
and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

– 14 –
157. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
human reproductive system get blocked, the
gametes will not be transported from
(1) Epididymis to rete testis
(2) Seminiferous tubule to epididymis
(3) Vas deferens to penile urethra
(4) Epididymis to tubuli recti
158. Which of the following represents correct
sequence of events during spermatogenesis and
their genetic content?
(1) Spermatogonia (2n) → Primary spermatocyte
(2n) → Secondary spermatocyte (n) →
Spermatid (n) → Spermatozoa (n)
(2) Spermatozoa (2n) → Spermatogonia (2n) →
Spermatocyte (2n) → Spermatocyte (n) →
Spermatid (n) → sperm (n)
(3) Spermatogonia (2n) → Secondary
spermatocyte (2n) → Primary Spermatocyte
(n) → Spermatozoa (n) → Spermatid (n)
(4) Spermatozoa (2n) → Spermatogonia (2n) →
Spermatocyte (n) → Spermatocyte (n) →
Spermatid (n) → Sperms (n)
159. The technique that involves fertilization of egg
outside the female body, followed by its insertion
into the oviduct is
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
(3) IUT (4) IUI
160. Which of the following extraembryonic membrane
is highly specialised to facilitate the transfer of
nutrients, gases and wastes between embryo and
the mother's body
(1) Amnio (2) Chorion
(3) Allantois (4) Both (2) & (3)
161. Emergency contraceptives may be effective in
preventing pregnancy if used within 72 hours of
(1) Fertilisation (2) Implantation
(3) Coitus (4) Menstruation
162. In a survey done by an NGO after implementation
of family planning program, it was found that
reproductive rate had distinctly fallen out. Which of
the following contraceptive measures can be given
major credit for achieving the same?
(1) Oral contraceptive
(2) IUD
(3) IUT
(4) Both (2) & (3)
– 15 –
163. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer
is recommended for those females
(1) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
passage of sperms
(2) Who cannot produce an ovum
(3) Who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilisation
(4) Who can not retain the foetus inside uterus
164. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. hepatitis B
and genital herpes
(1) Hepatitis can be transmitted via placenta while
genital herpes cannot
(2) They are not completely curable diseases even
if detected early
(3) Are called venereal disease and can be
classified as sexually transmitted disease
(4) Causative agents of both disease are virus
165. Which is a direct point of difference between mode
of action of oral contraceptive and intrauterine
devices?
(1) Inhibition of ovulation
(2) Inhibition of implantation
(3) Alter quality of cervical mucus
(4) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
166. Which of the following can provide contraception for
longest duration if used once?
(1) Norplant (2) Depo-provera
(3) Implanon (4) Centchroman
167. Using amniocentesis, a doctor detected presence
of Klinefelter's syndrome in the foetus at 20 weeks
stage in a pregnant female? Choose the correct
statement in the above context w.r.t. options
available with the mother.
(1) MTP cannot be legally performed at this stage
(2) MTP cannot be safely performed at this stage
(3) MTP will definitely lead to birth of twins in the
subsequent pregnancy
(4) All of these
168. What is the term given to cavity of tertiary follicle
formed during proliferative phase of menstrual cycle
in a reproductively mature female?
(1) Antrum (2) Liquor folliculi
(3) Discus proligerous (4) Amniotic cavity
169. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from
beginning of menstrual cycle is
(1) Luteal hormone, progesterone, FSH, estrogen
(2) Estrogen, progesterone, luteal hormone, follicle
stimulating hormone
(3) FSH, estrogen, luteal hormone, progesterone
(4) GnRH, estrogen, FSH, progesterone
170. The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called
morula. This stage of human embryo is
(1) Smaller than fertilised egg
(2) Same size as fertilised egg
(3) Two times of fertilised egg
(4) Four times of fertilised egg
171. A cross-section at the midpoint of human sperm
will show
(1) Proximal centriole, mitochondria and 9 + 2
arrangement of microtubules
(2) Distal centriole, mitochondria and manchette
(3) Mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of
microtubules
(4) Distal centiol and flagella
172. Removal of ovary during first trimester in a pregnant
female will lead to abortion due to
(1) Decline in LH levels
(2) Rise in hCG levels
(3) Decline in hCG levels
(4) Decline in progesterone levels
173. Which of the following is not a cause for
amenorrhea in non pregnant, non-lactating female?
(1) High prolactin (2) Poor health
(3) Anorexia (4) Stress
174. Which of the following functions is not performed
by sustentacular cells?
(1) Providing nourishment to germ cells
(2) Secretion of inhibin
(3) Secretion of androgen binding protein
(4) Secretion of Androgens
175. Complete maturity and mobility with respect to
fertility of sperms is attained
(1) During spermiogenesis
(2) During spermiation
(3) During storage of sperms in epididymis
(4) In females reproductive tract
– 16 –
176. Eggs released by left human ovary in a year are
__(a)__. Number of eggs released by a mother
when she gives birth to fraternal twins is __(b)__
while birth of 6 identical children requires__(c)__
fertilisation event. Choose the option that fills the
blanks suitably.
(a) (b) (c)
(1) 1 1 6
(2) 12 1 1
(3) 6-7 2 1
(4) 2 2 3
177. The secretory phase of uterine cycle runs parallel
to which phase of ovarian cycle and lasts for how
many days?
(1) Luteal phase and 6 days
(2) Follicular phase and 6 days
(3) Follicular phase and 14 days
(4) Luteal phase and 14 days
178. Choose the incorrect statement from the
statements given below.
(1) Before parturition, hPL is involved in
differentiation and function of mammary
glands
(2) Colostrum provides short lived immunity to the
newly born
(3) lgA are secretory antibodies that provide
resistance to new born babies
(4) Prolactin is called milk let down hormone as it
enhances milk formation in pregnant females
and causes contraction of smooth muscles in
mammary ducts
179. Saheli is a new contraceptive for female use.
Select the incorrect statement in its regard.
(1) It modifies estrogen receptors preventing its
action on endometrium
(2) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow
(3) Non-steroidal preparation
(4) Inhibits ovulation
180. Which of the following has not played a significant
role in increasing the Indian population in last
decade?
(1) Decline in death rate
(2) Decline in infant mortality rate
(3) Decline in maternal mortality rate
(4) Decrease in number of people in reproductive
age
 Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 Hrs. Test - 5 Max.Marks : 720

Top-80 (for AIPMT-2014)

Answers
1. (2) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (4) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146. (4)
3. (4) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (4) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (2)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149 (2)
6. (4) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (1) 115. (3) 151. (1)
8. (3) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (1) 154. (3)
11. (1) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (1)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (1) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (4)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (2) 166. (1)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (1)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171 (3)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (3) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (4)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (1) 105. (1) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (4) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (1) 180. (4)

– 17 –