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PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Review Questions
4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at room temperature. Which of the following is most
likely not a gas at room temperature?
a. Cl2 b. HCl c. LiCl d. H2 e. CH4
6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit Pascal (pa)?
a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the pressure of a gas ad its volume was ________________.
a. Amadeo Avogadro
b. Lord Kelvin
c. Jacques Charles
d. Robert Boyle
e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
15. For which of the following changes is not clear whether the volume of a particular sample of an ideal gas will increase or
decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the pressure
e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure
16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context of gases, refers to ____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
d. 273 K and 1 pascal
e. 273 K and 1 torr
DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 3 of 15>
17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M),
density (d) and mass (g).
a. M = dRT
PV
b. M = gRT
PV
c. M = PT
GRV
d. M = gV
RT
e. M = RT
Gv
18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular mass (M),
density (d) and mass (g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
a. NH3 b. CH4 c. Ar d. HBr e. HCl
20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas _________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass
21. The statement, “For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure.” Is
known as:
a. Avogadro’s law b. Boyle’s law c. Charle’s law d. Graham’s law e. Kelvin’s law
23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is an example:
a. Avogadro’s Hypothesis b. Dalton’s law c. Graham’s law
d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the room might soon perceive an
odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry b. ideality c. effusion
d. diffusion e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing:
a. Avogadro’s hypothesis b. Dalton’s law c. Graham’s law
d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at standard temperature and
pressure?
a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d. N2 e. Kr
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
a. CH4 b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2 e. He
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a
property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface tension
d. triple point e. viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity b. polarizability c. resistivity
d. viscosity e. wetability
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external pressure is called the :
a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point
d. sublimation point e. thermal point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following conditions could exist:
(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid’s meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid from its vapor by increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the volume of the container is decreased,
which of the following has occurred once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower b. the temperature is higher c. the pressure is higher
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point e. none of these
42. Under which of the following conditions will vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low molecular mass
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the normal boiling point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure b. strength of forces between molecules c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation e. none of these answers
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases b. vaporization rate increases c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases e. none of these
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic properties of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for essentially every atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
b. All lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of data necessary to determine the atomic mass of a metal?
a. Avogadro’s number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal and the length of the unit cell edge
c. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge and the type of lattice
d. Avogadro’s number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius
of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals from crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the radius is an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and the number of nearest neighbors of a metal
atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest neighbors
b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest neighbors
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal to the number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable
c. Metals are ductile d. Metals break easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 7 of 15>
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure includes no electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the structure but the total of the attractions is greater
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high d. Their densities are high
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass c. the structure d. the chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23…C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped semiconductor bonded to a region of P
doped semiconductor) with a flowing current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following statements
is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of thermally generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines with an electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be incorporated into the lattice?
a. P b. A1 c. C d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and Cl are known, then the density can be
calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous b. crystalline c. glasses d. metals e. none of these
68. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains many sharply defined spots. The
specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. plastic e. liquid
DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 8 of 15>
69. A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The resulting diffraction pattern contains three diffuse rings close to primary
x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous b. crystalline c. amorphous d. polycrystalline e. colloidal
71. Which of the following symmetry elements can be found in an equilateral triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation c. as mirror line or plane d. all of these e. none of these
72. About half of all the crystals studied so far belong to the ______ crystal system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic c. cubic d. triclinic e. monoclinic
73. The crystal system with the minimum symmetry requirement of one 4-fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic b. cubic c. tetragonal d. triclinic e. trigonal
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points within a crystal that have the same environment in the same
orientation is called the
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system
d. crystal lattice e. symmetry pattern
78. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the _________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a≠ b ≠ c, alpha = gamma = 90, ß ≠ 90--- describe the _______ unit cell
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic d. hexagonal e. trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___
other unit cell
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. none of these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following correctly relates the atomic radius r of the
metal to the length of an edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a_ b. r = a√2 c. r = a√3
2 4 4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information e. none of these
DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 9 of 15>
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. all of these e. none of these
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with cations occupying positions exactly between
pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. none of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe d. NH4I e. MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 1 e. 2
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The substance readily conducts electricity
when molten. This substance is most likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent c. ionic d. metallic e. it could be more than one of these
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as close together as possible is called a ____
arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed c. face-centered d. dense e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic d. all of these e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination number of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon atoms
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8
100.Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to three others?
a. As b. Bi c. N d. P e. Sb
103.The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular position in the lattice to an interstitial site is
called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect c. F-center d. site defect e. berthollide
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical reaction and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9
DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 11 of 15>
113.If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original volume the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of the reaction?
a. Halved b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products
118. At 25C , the half –life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the
specific rate constant is
a. ln 2 b. (1/5.7)hr-1
c. (ln2/5.7)-1hr-1 d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant, the reaction is of
a. zero order b. first order
c. second order d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper b. Einstein
c. Grotthus d. Lambert
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) –1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure b. temperature
c. concentration d. catalyst
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V b. 0.059V
c. –0.059V d. 0.030V
132. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022 b. 3.04 x 103
21
c. 9.47 x 10 d. 1.91 x 1025
133. A possible advantage to using the half reaction method for balancing oxidation-reduction equation is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
138. A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss of mass of anode is
a. 0.180g b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g d. 11.8g
139. The following reaction does not occur spontaneously (all ions at 1m concentration; all gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Cl-
b. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH - concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl 2 gas are
produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3mole b. 1.00 x 10-2mole
-2
c. 5.00 x 10 mole c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
142. If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with platinum electrodes) one would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming brown
143. When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolyzed, a product formed at the cathode is
a. Na b. H+
c. OH- d. Cl2
144. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere, the volume of ozygen produced at STP
at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter d. 1.16 ml
146. If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped into a solution containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the products of the reaction
will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
++ ++
c. Fe , Cu and Co d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials and the variation of electrode
potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous d. Electrophotometer
DAY 1: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES – Physical Chemistry <Page 14 of 15>
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
150. Four colorless salt solutions are placed in separate test-tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in each.. which solution
finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2 b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3 d. Cd (NO3)2
151. When an electric current is passed through a cell containing an electrolyte, positive ions move towards the cathode and
negative ions towards the anode. What will happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode and negative ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn +2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn = -.76; E for Cu+2 l
Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. –0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. –0.34 – (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. –0.76 – (+0.34) = -1.10V
153. One Faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in series containing solutions of Ag +, Ni+2 and
Cr+3 respectively. The amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr (At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver Nickel Chromium
a. 108g 29.5g 17.5g
b. 108g 59g 52.0g
c. 108g 108g 108g
d. 108g 117.5g 166g
155. The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are given
(i) CO2+ + 2e Co 0.28V
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg 0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic electrode Co is found to be –ve and Hg
electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. –ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of the solution is lost after some time. This
is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the heterogeneous system in equilibrium are
called
a. phases b. components
c. degrees of freedom d. none of the above
160. What is the degree of freedom of a system consisting of a gaseous mixture of carbon dioxide and nitrogen?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3 b. 1
c. 1 d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3