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(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

PHASE : MLJ,MLK,MLQ,MAZG,MAZJ,MAZK,MAZL,MAZM
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG)
TEST DATE : 03 - 03 - 2019
TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS-03
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3? = 180 720
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 LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
(PHASE : MLJ,MLK,MLQ,MAZG,MAZJ,MAZK,MAZL,MAZM)

ALLEN MAJOR TEST DATE : 03 - 03 - 2019

SYLLABUS – 03

PHYSICS : Thermal Physics (Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat

Transfer, KTG & Thermodynamics), Oscillations (SHM, Damped
and Forced Oscillations & Resonance), Wave Motion and
Doppler's Effect.
CHEMISTRY : Classification & Nomenclature, Isomerism, Reaction Mechanism-I,

Reaction Mechanism-II, Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry

and Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis of Organic Compounds.

BIOLOGY : Human Physiology : (i) Digestion and Absorption (ii) Breathing and

Exchange of Gases (iii) Body Fluids and circulation

(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination

(v) Locomotion and Movement (vi) Neural Control and Coordination,

Eye & Ear (vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration

(viii) Animal Kingdom, Cockroach, Earthworm, Frog

(ix) Structural Organisation in Animal (Animal tissue)

 HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation 1. a
with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. T
The minimum time taken by the particle to travel
half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position (1) T/2 (2) T/4
is :-
(3) T/8 (4) T/12
(1) T/2 (2) T/4 (3) T/8 (4) T/12
2. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the 2.
pressure is found to be inversely proportional
to the fourth power of the volume. Then, the
:-
ratio of specific heats is :-
(1) 1 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.67 (4) 1.4 (1) 1 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.67 (4) 1.4
3. Figure shows graphs of pressure vs density for 3. T1 T2
an ideal gas at two temperature T1 and T2 :- :-
(1) T1 < T2 p (1) T1 < T2 p
T1 T1
(2) T1 > T2 T2 (2) T1 > T2 T2

(3) T1 = T2 (3) T1 = T2
 
(4) any of the three is possible (4)
4. Two identical rectangular strips, one of copper 4.
and other of steel, are rivetted, together to form
a bimetallic strip (copper > steel). On heating, ( > ) :-
this strip will :- (1)
(1) remain straight
(2)
(2) bend with copper on outer side
(3) bend with steel on outer side (3)
(4) get twised (4)
5. A calorimeter contains 0.2 kg of water at 30°C. 5. 30°C 0.2 kg 60°C
0.1 kg of water at 60°C is added to it, the 0.1
mixture is well stirred and the resulting 35°C
temperature is found to be 35°C. The thermal
capacity of the calorimeter is :
(1) 6300 J/K (2) 1260 J/K (1) 6300 J/K (2) 1260 J/K

(3) 4200 J/K (4) None of these (3) 4200 J/K (4)
6. An observer moves towards a stationary source 6.
of sound with a speed 1/5 th of the speed of 1/5
sound. The wavelength and frequency of the  f
sound emitted are  and f respectively. The
apparent frequency and wavelength recorded (1) 1.2f, 1.2
by the observer are respectively :–
(2) 1.2f, 
(1) 1.2f, 1.2 (2) 1.2f,  (3) f, 1.2
(3) f, 1.2 (4) 0.8f, 0.8 (4) 0.8f, 0.8
7. In a long cylindrical tube, the water level is 7.
adjusted and the air column above it is made
to vibrate in unison with a vibrating tuning fork
kept at the open end. Maximum sound is heard
when the air column lengths are equal to :- :-

  3  3   3  3
, , , , (1) , , (2) , ,
(1) (2) 4 2 4 4 2
4 2 4 4 2

 3 5  3 5  3 5  3 5
, , , , (3) , , (4) , ,
(3) (4) 2 2 2 4 4 4
2 2 2 4 4 4
8. A liquid with coefficient of volume expansion 8. L
L is filled in a container of a material having S ,
the coefficient of volume expansion S. If the :-
liquid over flow on heating then :-
(1) L < S
(1) L < S
(2) L > S
(2) L > S
(3) L = S (3) L = S

(4) None (4)

9. The potential energy of a particle of mass 0.1kg, 9. x- 0.1kg
moving along x-axis, is given by U = 5x(x – 4)J U = 5x(x – 4)J x
where x is in metres. If particle is executing
simple harmonic motion then its time period :-
2 5 2 5
(1) sec (2) sec (1) sec (2) sec
5 2 5 2

 5  5
(3) sec (4) sec (3) sec (4) sec
5  5 
10. Change in temperature of the medium 10. :-
changes:- (1)
(1) Frequency of sound waves (2)
(2) Amplitude of sound waves
(3)
(3) Wavelength of sound waves
(4) Loudness of sound waves (4)
11. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot 11. 227°C 127°C
cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal
6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount
of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal (kcal )
to :–
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.2
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.2
12. At antinodes :- 12. :-
(1) Pressure is maximum and velocity is (1)
minimum
(2)
(2) Pressure is minimum and velocity is maximum
(3) Pressure and velocity both are maximum (3)
(4) Pressure and velocity both are minimum (4)
13. The temperature of an ideal gas is –68°C. To 13. –68°C
what temperature should it be heated so that the
average translational KE of the molecules be :-
doubled :- (1) 547°C (2) 137°C
(1) 547°C (2) 137°C
(3) –136°C (4) 410°C (3) –136°C (4) 410°C

14. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive 14.

waves given by y 1 = 4 sin(500t) and y1= 4 sin(500t) y2= 2 sin(506t)
y2= 2 sin(506t). These tuning forks are held
near the ear of a person. The person will hear

(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between (1) 3

maxima and minima equal to 4. 4
(2) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between (2) 3
maxima and minima equal to 9. 9
(3) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between (3) 6
maxima and minima equal to 4. 4
(4) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between (4) 6
maxima and minima equal to 9. 9
15. The amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M. 15. 4 cm
is 4 cm. At the mean position the speed of the 16 cm/sec.
particle is 16 cm/sec. The distance of the
8 3 cm/sec. :-
particle from the mean position at which the
(1) 2 3 cm
speed of particle becomes 8 3 cm/sec. will be -
(2) 3 cm
(1) 2 3 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 1 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm (4) 2 cm
16. Two identical piano wires, kept under the same 16. (piano)
tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 T 600 Hz
Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one
of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 6 :-
beats/s when both the wires oscillate together
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02
would be :-
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04
17. The maximum energy in the thermal radiation 17. (hot source)
from a hot source occurs at a wavelength of 11 × 10 –5

11 × 10 –5 cm. According to Wien's law, the ( )

temperature of the source (on kelvin scale) will
n
be n times the temperature of another source
(on Kelvin scale) for which the wavelength at 5.5 × 10–5 n
maximum energy is 5.5 × 10–5 cm. The value :-
of n is :- (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1/2 (4) 1 (3) 1/2 (4) 1
18. The figure below shows a snap photograph of 18. x-
a simple harmonic progressive wave,
progressing in the negative X-axis, at a given P
instant. The direction of the velocity of the
:-
particle at the stage P on the figure is :-

       
(1) PA (2) PB (3) PC (4) PD (1) PA (2) PB (3) PC (4) PD
19. A plank with a small block on top of it is under 19. 2s
going vertical SHM. Its period is 2 sec. The
minimum amplitude at which the block will ?
separate from plank is : (g = 10 m/s2) (g = 10 m/s2)
10 2 20  10 2 20 
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4) (1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
 20  10  20 2 10
20. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. 20.
The radius of the circle, the period, sense of
revolution and the initial position are indicated P
on the figure. The simple harmonic motion of x-
the x-projection of the radius vector of the
:-
rotating particle P is:-
y
y
P (t = 0)
P (t = 0) T = 30s
T = 30s
B
B x
x O
O

 2t   2t 
(1) x(t)  Bsin   (1) x(t)  Bsin  
 30   30 

 t   t 
(2) x(t)  Bcos   (2) x(t)  Bcos  
 15   15 

 t    t  
(3) x(t)  Bsin    (3) x(t)  Bsin   
 15 2   15 2 

 t    t  
(4) x(t)  Bcos    (4) x(t)  Bcos   
 15 2   15 2 
21. The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a 21. 5 P, T V
pressure P and temperature T, when occupying :–
a volume V, will be :– (1) PV = 5 RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT
(1) PV = 5 RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT
(3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (5/32)RT
(3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (5/32)RT
where R is the gas constant. R
22. A body cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10 minutes. If 22. 10 60°C 50°C
the room temperature is 25°C and assuming 25°C
Newton's law of cooling to hold good, the 10
temperature of the body at the end of the next 10
:-
minutes will be :-
(1) 38.5°C (2) 40°C (3) 42.85°C (4) 45°C (1) 38.5°C (2) 40°C (3) 42.85°C (4) 45°C
23. Ideal monoatomic gas is taken through a 23. dQ = 2dU
process dQ = 2dU. The heat capacity of 1 mole 1 :-
for the process is :-(where dQ is heat supplied ( dQ dU ) :-
and dU is change in internal energy) :-
(1) 5R (2) 3R (3) R (4) 2R
(1) 5R (2) 3R (3) R (4) 2R
24. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple 24. t
harmonic motion in water with a period t, while
the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air. t0
Neglecting frictional force of water and given (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3
that the density of the bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg/m3. ?
What relationship between t and t0 is true?
(1) t = t0 (2) t = t0/2
(1) t = t0 (2) t = t0/2
(3) t = 2t0 (4) t = 4t0 (3) t = 2t0 (4) t = 4t0
25. A particle is executing S.H.M. Its potential 25. S.H.M.
energy is displacement graph is given by
PE 24,0 PE 24,0

–2,0 +2,0 –2,0 +2,0

The value of restoring force constant is :-

(1) 12 N/m (2) 24 N/m (1) 12 N/m (2) 24 N/m
(3) 6 N /m (4) 48 N/m (3) 6 N /m (4) 48 N/m
26. Two particles A and B of equal masses are 26. A B, k1 k2
suspended from two massless springs of spring
constants k 1 and k 2 , respectively. If the A B
maximum velocities, during oscillations are
equal, the ratio of amplitudes of A and B is-
(1) k1 / k 2 (2) k1/k2
(1) k1 / k 2 (2) k1/k2

(3) k 2 / k1 (4) k2/k1 (3) k 2 / k1 (4) k2/k1

Key Filling
27. Calculate the surface temperature of the planet, 27.
if the energy radiated by unit area in unit time
5.67 × 104 :-
is 5.67 × 104 watt : (Planet may be assumed to
( )
black body)
(1) 1273°C (2) 1000°C (1) 1273°C (2) 1000°C
(3) 727°C (4) 727 K (3) 727°C (4) 727 K
28. A wave pulse on a string has the dimension shown 28.
in figure. The waves speed is v = 1 cm/s. v = 1 cm/s O
If point O is a free end. The shape of wave at time t=3s
t = 3 s is :

2cm
2cm

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

29. Two thermometers X and Y have ice points 29. X Y 15° 25°
marked at 15° and 25° and steam points 75° 125°
marked as 75° and 125° respectively. When X 60°
thermometer X measures the temperature of a Y
bath as 60° on it, what would thermometer Y ?
read when it is used to measure the temperature
(1) 60° (2) 75°
of the same bath ?
(3) 100° (4) 90°
(1) 60° (2) 75° (3) 100° (4) 90°
30. The transverse displacement of a string 30.
(clamped at its both ends) is given by  2 
 2  y(x, t) = 0.6 sin  x  cos (120 t)
y(x, t) = 0.6 sin  x  cos (120 t)  3 
 3  x y t sec.
where x and y are in metre and t in second. The
1.5 m 3.0 × 10–2 kg
length of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is
3.0 × 10–2 kg the tension in the string will be :- :-
(1) 648 N (2) 1248 N (3) 324 N (4) 162 N (1) 648 N (2) 1248 N (3) 324 N (4) 162 N
31. A wave travels on a light string.The equation 31.
of the wave is Y = A sin (kx – t + 30°).It is Y = A sin (kx – t + 30°)
reflected from a heavy string tied to an end of (x = 0 )
the light string at x = 0. If 64% of the incident 64%
energy is reflected the equation of the reflected
wave is
(1) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx – t + 30° + 180°)
(1) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx – t + 30° + 180°)
(2) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30° + 180°)
(2) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30° + 180°)
(3) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t – 30°) (3) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t – 30°)
(4) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30°) (4) Y = 0.8 A sin (kx + t + 30°)
32. Two rods of same material have same length 32.
and area. The heat Q flows through them for 12
12 minutes when they are jointed in series. If Q
now both the rods are joined in parallel, then Q
the same amount of heat Q will flow in :- :-
(1) 24 min (2) 3 min (1) 24 (2) 3
(3) 12 min (4) 6 min (3) 12 (4) 6
33. The relation that converts temperature in celsius 33.
scale to temperature in fahrenheit scale is :- :-
5 o 5 o 5 o 5 o
(1) toF = (t C – 32o) (2) toF = t C + 32 (1) toF = (t C – 32o) (2) toF = t C + 32
9 9 9 9
9 o 9 o 9 o 9 o
(3) toF = t C + 32 (4) toF = (t C + 32o) (3) toF = t C + 32 (4) toF = (t C + 32o)
5 5 5 5
34. Variation of time period of a simple pendulum 34. ?
with its length is :-
T T
T T
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
 
 

T T T T

(3) (4) (3) (4)

   

35. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Ga' 35. A B " "
are slightly out of tune and produce beats of 6 Hz
frequency 6 Hz. The tension in the string A is
A 3 Hz
slightly reduced and the beat frequency is
found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the original A 324 Hz B
frequency of A is 324 Hz, what is the :-
frequency of B :-
(1) 324 Hz (2) 360 Hz
(1) 324 Hz (2) 360 Hz
(3) 330Hz (4) 318 Hz (3) 330Hz (4) 318 Hz
36. A ball of thermal capacity 10 cal/°C is heated 36. 10 /°C
to the temperature of furnace. It is then
transferred into a vessel containing water. The (contents)
water equivalent of vessel and the contents is 200
200 gm. The temperature of the vessel and its
10°C 40°C
contents rises from 10°C to 40°C. What is the
temperature of furnace? ?
(1) 640°C (2) 64°C (1) 640°C (2) 64°C
(3) 600°C (4) 100°C (3) 600°C (4) 100°C

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

37. A wave equation is 37.
y = 10–4 sin (60 t + 2x) y = 10–4 sin (60 t + 2x)
Where x and y are in metres and t is in sec. x y t
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Frequency of wave is 50  hertz (1) 50 
(2) The wave travels with a velocity 300 m/s (2) 300 m/s x
in the negative direction of x-axis.
(3) Wavelength of the waves is  metre. (3) 
(4) All of the above (4)
38. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen 38. 3 5
and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. T
Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total :-
internal energy of the system is :-
(1) 4 RT
(1) 4 RT
(2) 15 RT
(2) 15 RT
(3) 9 RT (3) 9 RT

(4) 11 RT (4) 11 RT
39. A loaded spring vibrate with a peirod T. The 39. T
spring is divided into nine equal parts and the
same load is suspended from one of these part.
The new period is :- :-
(1) T (2) 3T (1) T (2) 3T
(3) T/3 (4) T/9 (3) T/3 (4) T/9
40. A train, standing in a station-yard, blows a 40. 400 Hz
whistle of frequency 400 Hz in still air. The
wind starts blowing in the direction from the 10 ms –1
yard to the station with a speed of 10 ms–1 then
value of frequency and speed of sound for
340 ms–1 :-
observer will be
(the speed of sound in still air is 340 ms–1) :- (1) 400 Hz, 340 m/sec
(1) 400 Hz, 340 m/sec (2) > 400 Hz, 340 m/sec
(2) > 400 Hz, 340 m/sec
(3) 400 Hz, 350 m/sec
(3) 400 Hz, 350 m/sec
(4) < 400 Hz, 330 m/sec (4) < 400 Hz, 330 m/sec
41. Four identical copper cylinders are painted. If 41.
they are all heated to the same temperature and
left in vacuum, which will cool most ?
rapidly ?
(1)
(1) Painted shiny white
(2) Painted rough black (2)

(3) Painted shiny black (3)

(4) Painted rough white (4)
42. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs 42. L m1
vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2
m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A
transverse pulse of wavelength 1 is produced 1
at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength 2 2/1
of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope
is 2. The ratio 2/1 is :-
m1
m1 (1)
(1) m2
m2

m1  m 2
m1  m 2 (2)
(2) m2
m2

m2 m2
(3) (3) m1
m1

m1  m 2 m1  m 2
(4) (4) m1
m1

43. A taut string at both ends vibrates in its n th 43. n

overtone. The distance between adjacent Node
and Antinode is found to be 'd'. If the length d L
of the string is L, then :-
(1) L = 2d (n + 1) (1) L = 2d (n + 1)
(2) L = d (n + 1) (2) L = d (n + 1)
(3) L = 2dn (3) L = 2dn
(4) L = 2d (n – 1) (4) L = 2d (n – 1)

44. 10 gm of ice at –20°C is added to 10 gm of 44. –20°C 10 gm 50°C 10 gm

water at 50°C. Specific heat of water = 1 cal/ = 1 cal/gm-°C,
gm-°C, specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/gm-°C. = 0.5 cal/gm-°C
Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/gm. Then resulting = 80 cal/gm. :
temperature is :
(1) –20°C
(1) –20°C
(2) 15°C
(2) 15°C
(3) 0°C
(3) 0°C
(4) 50°C
(4) 50°C
45. Two waves coming from two coherent sources, 45.
having different intensities interfere their ratio of
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is
25
25. The intensities of the sources are in the ratio?
(1) 25 : 1
(1) 25 : 1
(2) 25 : 16 (2) 25 : 16
(3) 9 : 4 (3) 9 : 4
(4) 5 : 1 (4) 5 : 1
46. Which of the following method is used to 46.
separated the aniline from aniline-water
mixture :- (1)
(1) Simple distillation
(2)
(2) Distillation at reduced pressure
(3) Steam distillation (3)
(4) Fractional distillation (4)
47. CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO and CH 3–CH–CH3 are :- 47. CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO CH 3–CH–CH3 :-
CHO CHO
(1) Position isomer (2) Metamer (1) (2)
(3) Chain isomer (4) None (3) (4)
48. Which of the following is most reactive 48. SN1
towards SN1.
CH2–Cl CH2–Cl
CH2–Cl CH2–Cl

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
H CH3
H CH3
CH2–Cl CH2–Cl
CH2–Cl CH2–Cl

(3) (4) (3) (4)

OCH3 NO2
OCH3 NO2

49. In which of the following addition of HBr in 49.

presence of peroxide does not occur according ?
to anti markovnikov's rule ? (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(2) Ph–CH=CH–Ph
(2) Ph–CH=CH–Ph
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 C=C
(3) C=C (3)
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
(4) All of these (4)
O O
50. Reagent Cl 50. Reagent Cl
H–CC–H H–C–CH H–CC–H H–C–CH
Cl Cl
reagent will be :- :-
(1) Baeyer's reagent (1) Baeyer's reagent
(2) HOCl (2) HOCl
(3) CCl3–C–H (3) CCl3–C–H
O O
(4) Cl2/CCl4 (4) Cl2/CCl4

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

51. Which of the following compound gives red 51.
precipitate on treatment with Ammonical :-
cuprous chloride solution :-
(1) (2)
(1) Ethylene (2) Acetylene
(3) Benzene (4) But-2-yne (3) (4) -2
52. In the following compounds 52.
OH OH OH OH OH OH OH OH
NO NO
2 2

NO2 NO2
NO2 NO2
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
The order of acidity is : :
(1) III > IV > I > II (2) I > IV > III > II (1) III > IV > I > II (2) I > IV > III > II
(3) II > I > III > IV (4) IV > II > III > I (3) II > I > III > IV (4) IV > II > III > I
53. The correct order of decreasing basic strengths 53. x, y z
of x, y and z is

NH N H N NH N H N
, , , ,
(x) (z) (x) O (z)
O
(y) (y)
(1) x > y > z (1) x > y > z
(2) x > z > y (2) x > z > y
(3) y > x > z (3) y > x > z
(4) y > z > x (4) y > z > x
54. Which of the following does not decolourise 54.
reddish brown solution of Br2/CCl 4 ? ?
(1) Styrene (1) Styrene
(2) Cyclopropane (2) Cyclopropane
(3) Cyclohexene (3) Cyclohexene
(4) Cyclohexane (4) Cyclohexane

HBr HBr
55. CH3–C=CH–CH3 A (Major) 'A' is: 55. CH3–C=CH–CH3 A ( ) 'A' :
Peroxide Peroxide
CH3 CH3

Br Br
(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3 (2) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 (1) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3 (2) CH3–C–CH2–CH3
CH3 Br CH3 CH3 Br CH3

Br Br
(3) CH2–C=CH–CH3 (4) CH3–C—CH–CH 3 (3) CH2–C=CH–CH3 (4) CH3–C—CH–CH 3
Br CH3 CH3 Br Br CH3 CH3 Br
56. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution 56.
of :- :-
(1) Soil (2) Water (3) Noise (4) Air (1) (2) (3) (4)
57. Which statement is correct for following 57.
species :-

(I) (II)
N
(I) (II) H
N H
H
H (1)I II
(1)I & II are aromatic (2)I II
(2)I & II are antiaromatic
(3)I II
(3)I is aromatic and II is antiaromatic
(4) I is non-aromatic and II is anti-aromatic (4) I II
58. Arrange the following in correct increasing 58.
order of boiling point :- :-
CH3 CH3
(a) CH–CH2–Br (a) CH–CH2–Br
CH3 CH3

(b) CH3–CH2–CH2 CH2 (b) CH3–CH2–CH2 CH2

Br Br

CH3 CH3
(c) CH 3–C–CH3 (c) CH 3–C–CH3
Br Br
(1) b < a < c (1) b <a<c
(2) a < b < c (2) a <b<c
(3) c < a < b (3) c <a<b
(4) c < b < a (4) c <b<a
59. What is the final rearranged carbocation of 59.
given species 
CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH 3

CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH 3 CH3
CH3

 (1) CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH3
(1) CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3
CH3

 (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH 2–CH 3
(2) CH3–CH–CH–CH 2–CH 3
CH3
CH3
 
(3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH2 (3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH2

CH3 CH3

(4) No rearrangement is possible (4)

 CH3 CH3

(i) BH 3,THF (i) BH 3,THF

60. A Product 'A' is :- 60. A 'A' :-
(ii) H 2O 2, OH (ii) H 2O 2, OH

H CH3 H CH3
CH3 H CH3 H
OH OH OH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3
OH OH
H H
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)

61. The molecular formula of 3rd member of ester 61. :-

homologous series will be :- (1) C3H6O2 (2) C4H8O2
(1) C3H6O2 (2) C4H8O2 (3) C4H10O (4) C5H9O2 (3) C4H10O (4) C5H9O2
NaOH NaOH
62. A 2,2-Dimethyl butane. A is :- 62. A 2,2-Dimethyl butane. A :-
+CaO +CaO
(1) 3,3-Dimethyl pentanoic acid (1) 3,3-Dimethyl pentanoic acid
(2) 4,4-Dimethyl pentanoic acid (2) 4,4-Dimethyl pentanoic acid
(3) 2,3,3-Trimethyl butanoic acid (3) 2,3,3-Trimethyl butanoic acid
(4) All of above (4)
63. The distillation technique most suited for 63.
separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap :
industry is : (1)
(1) Distillation under reduced pressure
(2)
(2) Simple distillation
(3) Fractional distillation (3)
(4) Steam distillation (4)

64. HBr 64. HBr

A (Major) A is :- A ( )A :-
CCl4 CCl4

(1) (1)
Br Br
Br Br
(2) (2)

(3) (3)
Br Br

(4) Br (4) Br
 Hg (i) NaCN Hg2+ (i) NaCN
CC–H CC–H
2+

65. A 65. A
H2SO4 (ii) HCl B H2SO4 (ii) HCl B
'B' is :- 'B' :-
OH O OH O
(1) C–CH3 (2) C–CH3 (1) C–CH3 (2) C–CH3
CN CN
CN CN
OH OH
CH–CH3 CH–CH3
(3) CH2–C–H (4) (3) CH2–C–H (4)
CN CN
66. I.U.P.A.C. name of the compound 66. I.U.P.A.C.
O O
C C
O O
C C
O O
(1) Benzoic anhydride (1) Benzoic anhydride
(2) Cyclohexane 1,2 dioic anhydride (2) Cyclohexane 1,2 dioic anhydride
(3) Hexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride (3) Hexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride
(4) Cyclohexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride (4) Cyclohexane 1,2 dicarboxylic anhydride
O O

67.
NH2–NH2/OH
67. ?
NH2–NH2/OH

? 
OH OH
product is :- :-
O O
O O

(1) (2) (1) (2)

NH2 NH2

(3) (4) (3) (4)

OH OH

68. Total number of stereoisomer of compound 68.

CH3–CH=CH–CH2 –CH=CH–CH3 CH3–CH=CH–CH2 –CH=CH–CH3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 8
69. Which of the following does not give white 69. NaHSO3
crystal with NaHSO3 ? ?
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Benzaldehyde (1) (2)
(3) Acetophenone (4) Acetone (3) (4)
70. Major product of the following reaction 70. :-
CH3 CH3
H H
CH3 CH3
Br2 'A' is :- Br2 'A' :-
A A
H2O H2 O
(Major) (eq[; mRikn)

CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
H OH H OH H OH H OH
(1) CH 3 (2) CH 3 (1) CH 3 (2) CH 3

Br Br Br Br
CH 3 CH 3
H Br H Br
(3) CH 3 (4) None (3) CH 3 (4)
OH OH
71. Which of the following compound has correct 71. (IUPAC :–
IUPAC numbering :– 1 2 3 4 5
1 2 3 4 5 (1) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3
(1) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3
Et Me
Et Me
4 3 2 1
4 3 2 1 (2) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
(2) CH3 – CH 2 – CH – CH3
CHO
CHO
3 2 1
3 2 1 (3) CH3 – CH – CH – NH2
(3) CH3 – CH – CH – NH2
CH3
CH3
1 2 3 4 5
1 2 3 4 5 (4) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3
(4) CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3
Br Cl
Br Cl
72. The major product of following reaction will be 72. :-

product

CH3 –CH2–OH/H CH3–CH2 –OH/H

O O

(1) (1)
O OCH2–CH3 O OCH2–CH3
OCH2–CH3 OCH2–CH3
(2) (2)
O O
O–CH2–CH3 O–CH2–CH3

(3) (3)
O O
(4) None of these (4)
73. Compound which never exist diastereomeric 73. :–
pair :–
Me
Me
H Cl
H Cl (1)
(1) Cl H
Cl H
Me
Me

Me Me

H OH H OH
(2) (2)
H OH H OH

Me Me

CH3 Me CH3 Me
(3) C=C=C=C (3) C=C=C=C
H H H H
Me Me Me Me
(4) C=C=C (4) C=C=C
H H H H
74. The correct order of acid strength in the following 74.

OH OH OH OH
Me Me Me Me Me Me
(I) (II) (I) (II)

OH OH OH OH
Me Me Me Me

(III) (IV) (III) (IV)

NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2

OH OH
OH OH

(V) (VI) Me Me (V) (VI) Me Me

Me Me NO2 Me Me NO2

(1) III > IV > VI > V > II > I (1) III > IV > VI > V > II > I
(2) III > IV > VI > V > I > II (2) III > IV > VI > V > I > II
(3) III > IV > V > VI > I > II (3) III > IV > V > VI > I > II

(4) IV > III > VI > V > I > II (4) IV > III > VI > V > I > II
 (i) BH 3,THF (i) Ag2O (i) BH3,THF (i) Ag2O
75. CH3–CC–CH3 A B 75. CH3–CC–CH3 A B
(ii) CH 3COOH (ii) H3O
 (ii) CH 3COOH (ii) H3O


A & B are respectively :- A B :-

CH3 CH3
OH H OH
H & H
(1) & H OH (1) OH
CH3 CH3

CH3 CH3
H OH H OH
& H (2) & H OH
(2) OH
CH3 CH3

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

H OH HO H H OH HO H
& + & +
(3) HO H H OH (3) HO H H OH

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(4) & (4) &

O O

76. Find the product "X" :- 76. "X" :-

+ Br–Cl 
3
"X"
Anhy. AlCl + Br–Cl 
Anhy. AlCl3
"X"

Cl Cl

(1) (1)

Cl Cl

(2) (2)

Br Br

Br Br

(3) (3)

Cl Cl

(4) (4)
Br Br
 18 18
 
77. 
X
(i) CH3COO OH
77. 
X
(i) CH3COO OH

(ii) H3O (ii) H3O

The probable structure of ‘X’ is ‘X’

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

78. Which is most stable conformers of succinic 78.

acid in basic medium :- :-
(1) Anti (1)
(2) Gauche (2)
(3) Partially eclipsed (3)
(4) Fully eclipsed (4)

O O
(i) CH3MgBr NH2–C–NH–NH2 (i) CH3MgBr NH2–C–NH–NH2
79. CH3–CN A B 79. CH3–CN A B
(ii) H /H2O
+
pH=4.5 (ii) H+/H2O pH=4.5

'B' is :- 'B' :-
O O
(1) CH 3–C–CH3 (1) CH 3–C–CH3
O O
(2) CH3–C=N–NH–C–NH2 (2) CH3–C=N–NH–C–NH2
CH3 CH3
O O
(3) CH3–C=N–C–NH–NH2 (3) CH3–C=N–C–NH–NH2
CH3 CH3
(4) CH3–C–NH–NH 2 (4) CH3–C–NH–NH 2
O O
 Cl CO3H Cl CO3H
(i) (i)
80. A (Major) 80. A ( )
(ii) H /H2O (ii) H /H2O
+ +

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

'A' is 'A'

(1) (1)

CH3 H OH CH3 CH3 H OH CH3

(2) (2)

CH3 OH OH CH3 CH3 OH OH CH3

(3) (3)

CH 3 OHCH3 OH CH 3 OHCH3 OH

(4) (4)

CH 3 H CH3 H CH 3 H CH3 H

81. Which is the correct order of rate of nitration? 81.

?
H D T
H H D D T T H D T
H H D D T T
H H D D T T
H D T H H D D T T
H D T
(A) (B) (C)
(A) (B) (C)
(1) A > B > C (2) A < B < C (1) A > B > C (2) A < B < C
(3) A = B = C (4) B > A > C (3) A = B = C (4) B > A > C

CH3 CH3
NBS / h
82. NBS / h
Products 82.

Which product will not formed in reaction

Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)

Br Br

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Br Br Br Br
83. Which of the following compound is chiral ? 83. ?

COOH COOH
H OH H OH
(1) (1)
H OH H OH

COOH COOH

Cl Br Cl Br

(2) (2)

H H

(3) Br C C
(3) Br
Cl Cl
H H

COOH COOH COOH COOH

(4) (4)
NO2 NO 2 NO2 NO 2

84. Correct order of reactivity with CH3MgBr is :- 84. CH3MgBr

O O
(i) Ph–C–Ph (ii) Ph–C–H
O O
(iii) CH3–C–H (iv) CH 3–C–CH3
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(2) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(4) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
85. Which one of the carbanion's is most stable? 85.
:-
O O
(i) Ph–C–Ph (ii) Ph–C–H
O O
(iii) CH3–C–H (iv) CH 3–C–CH3
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(2) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(4) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CN CHO CN CHO

CH2 CH2 CH2

CH2

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO2 NO2
 CH3 CH2–CH3
86. are :- 86. rFkk :-
CH3
(1) Chain isomer (1)
(2) Position isomer (2)
(3) Functional group isomer (3)
(4) Metamer (4)
87. Which is not suitable to obtain by Wurtz reaction? 87. ?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

88. During the estimation of sulphur 0.157 gm 88. 0.157
organic compound gives 0.4813 gm barium 0.4813
sulphate the % of sulphur in compound will be: :
(1) 24.10% (2) 42.10% (1) 24.10% (2) 42.10%
(3) 40% (4) 14.42% (3) 40% (4) 14.42%
OH OH

H /H2O H /H2O
+

89.
+

Alkene (Product) 89. Alkene ( )

Which of the following alkene does not give ?

desired product :-
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

90. Which of the following is incorrect reaction ? 90. ?

CH3OH/H+ CH3 OCH3 CH3OH/H+ CH3 OCH3

(1) CH3–C–CH3 C (1) CH3–C–CH3 C
(excess) CH3 OCH3 (excess) CH3 OCH3
O O

CH3OH/H+ CH3 O–H CH3OH/H+ CH3 O–H

(2) CH3–C–CH3 C (2) CH3–C–CH3 C
CH3 O–CH3 CH3 O–CH3
O O

(3) CH2=CH–NO2 HBr CH3–CH–NO2 (3) CH2=CH–NO2 HBr CH3–CH–NO2

Br Br
HBr CH –CH –CCl HBr CH –CH –CCl
(4) CH2=CH–CCl3 2 2 3 (4) CH2=CH–CCl3 2 2 3

Br Br
91. In the diagram of multipolar myelinated neuron 91.
given below, different parts have been indicated
by alphabetes; choose the answers in which
these alphabetes have been correctly matched
with the parts which they indicates:-
C D F C D F

E G G
B B E
A A

(1) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, (1) A = ,B= ,

C = Nucleus, D = Dendrites, C= ,D= ,
E = Naked portion of axon, E= ,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier F= ,G=
(2) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, (2) A= ,B= ,
C = Naked portion of axon, C= ,
D = Dendrites, E = Nucleus, D= ,E= ,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier F= ,G=
(3) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, (3) A = ,B= ,
C = Naked portion of axon, C= ,
D = Nucleus, E = Dendrites, D= ,E= ,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier F= ,G=
(4) A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, (4) A = ,B= ,
C = Dendrites, D = Nucleus, C= , D= ,
E = Naked portion of axon, E= ,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier F= ,G=
92. The spot where no image is formed is known 92.
as blind spot because it has
(1) Nerves but no cones (1)
(2) Nerves and rods (2)
(3) No cones, rods and nerves (3)
(4) Cones and rods but contains no photochemical (4)
substance within them
93. Cretinism is due to 93.
(1) Excess growth hormone (1)
(2) Absence of insulin
(2)
(3) Excess adrenaline
(4) Hyposecretion of thyroid in childhood (low (3)
Thyroxine) (4)


94. Lateral appendages, parapodia which help in 94.
swimming is present in:- :-

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

95. African sleeping sickness is caused by which 95.

protozoan parasite:-
(1)
(1) Trypanosoma gambiense
(2)
(2) Leishmania donovoni
(3)
(3) Giardia intestinalis
(4) Trichomonas vaginalis (4)

96. Which of the following is not a product of 96.

exocrine gland? ?
(1) Earwax (2) Saliva (1) (2)
(3) Mucous (4) Hormones (3) (4)
97. Given these lung volumes: 97.
A  Tidal volume = 500 ml A = 500 ml
B  Residual volume = 1000 ml B = 1000 ml
C  Inspiratory reserve volume = 2500 ml C (IRV) = 2500 ml
D  Expiratory reserve volume = 1000 ml D (ERV) = 1000 ml
The vital capacity is :
(1) 3000 ml (2) 6000 ml (1) 3000 (2) 6000
(3) 4000 ml (4) 5000 ml (3) 4000 (4) 5000
98. Which of these substances is not required for 98.
normal red blood cell production ?
(1) Folate (2) Iron (1) (2)
(3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin B12 (3) K (4) B12
99. In infants, rennin acts on milk protein and 99. (Rennin)
converts:-
(1) Caseinogen to casein (1)
(2) Paracasein to caseinogen (2)
(3) Casein to paracasein (3)
(4) Caseinogen to paracasein (4)
100. Find the incorrect statement regarding 100.
mechanism of urine formation in man:-
(1) Tubular secretion also takes place in PCT
(1)
(2) Aldosterone induces greater reabsorption
of sodium (2) Na
(3) The countercurrent mechanism helps in (3)
dilution the urine
(4) The glomerular Filtration rate is about
125 ml/min (4) 125

101. Neurons are classified on the basis of 101.

(1) Number of nucleus present (1)
(2) Number of processes arising from the cell body (2)
(3) Number of nissl's granules present (3)
(4) Number of branches in axon (4)
102. Vitamin A is necessary for the proper 102. A
physiological function of eye because
(1) It is necessary for nerve impulses in (1)
choroid (2) A
(2) Rhodopsin is made up of vitamin A (3) A
(3) Oxidation of rhodopsin requires vitamin A
(4) Vitamin A is necessary for formation of (4) A
Bipolor neuron
103. Parathormone is secreted during 103.
(1) Increased blood calcium level (1)
(2) Decreased blood calcium level (2)
(3) Increased blood sugar level (3)
(4) Decreased blood sugar level (4)
104. Which of the following is balance organ in 104.
arthropoda & mollusca ? ?
(1) Radula (2) Mantle (1) (2)
(3) Statocyst (4) Nephridia (3) (4)
105. Function of cnidoblast is :- 105. :-
(1) Anchorage (1)
(2) Offence (capture of prey) (2)
(3) Defence (3)
(4) All (4)
106. Which of the following is an example of loose 106.
connective tissue?
(1) Adipose tissue (2) Tendon (1) (2)
(3) Ligament (4) Bone (3) (4)
107. The chemosensitive area :- 107.
(1) is located in pons (1)
(2) Stimulates the respiratory centre when (2) pH
blood pH increases
(3) Stimulates the respiratory centre when (3) CO2
carbondioxide level increases
(4) Stimulates the respiratory centre when (4) O2
blood oxygen level increases
108. Critical count of thrombocyte is :- 108. :-
(1) 40,000/mm 3
(2) 4000/mm 3
(1) 40,000/mm 3
(2) 4000/mm3
(3) 400000/mm 3 (4) 10000/mm 3 (3) 400000/mm 3 (4) 10000/mm 3
109. If pH of the stomach is made 7. which 109. pH 7
component of food would be affected ?
(1) Starch (2) Protein (1) (2)
(3) Lactose (4) Sucrose (3) (4)
110. Podocytes occurs in :- 110.
(1) PCT (1)
(2) Loop of Henle (2)
(3) Inner wall of bowman's capsule (3)
(4) DCT (4)
111. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from 111.
(1) Effector organs to central nervous system (1)
(2) Receptors to central nervous system (2)
(3) Central nervous system to muscles (3)
(4) Central nervous system to receptors (4)
112. Sensation of hearing is produced as a result of the 112.
(1) Presence of the helicotrema (1)
(2) Vibrations set in the external auditory meatus (2)
(3) Vibrations of the ear ossicles (3)
(4) Nerve impulses are generated by the hair (4)
cells of the organ of corti
113. Which one of given below is not an example 113.
of antagonistic hormone :- :-
(1) Insulin and glucagon (1)
(2) M.S.H and melanin (2) M.S.H
(3) Calcitonin and parathormone (3)
(4) Melatonin and M.S.H (4) M.S.H
114. Water vascular system is absent in:- 114. :-
(1) Asterias (2) Sycon (1) (2)
(3) Antedon (4) Echinus (3) (4)
115. Which larva show neoteny? 115. ?
(1) Tornaria (2) Axolotl (1) (2)
(3) Tadpole (4) Trochophore (3) (4)
116. Skeletal muscles are :- 116. :-
(1) Unstriated, voluntary (1)
(2) Unstriated, involuntary (2)
(3) Striated, Voluntary (3)
(4) Striated, Involuntary (4)
117. Carbondioxide is mostly transported in the 117.
blood :-
(1) as crystals (1)
(2) Bound to blood protein (2)
(3) Bound to heme portion of haemoglobin (3)
(4) In the form of bicarbonates (4)
118. Given below are the structures of the conduction 118.
system of the heart :- (a)
(a) Internodal pathway (b)
(b) AV node
(c)
(c) Bundle of His
(d)
(d) Purkinje fibres
(e) (SA node)
(e) SA node
Choose the correct sequence that an action
potential passes through them (first to last)
(1) b, e, a, c, d (2) e, a, b, c, d (1) b, e, a, c, d (2) e, a, b, c, d
(3) e, b, c, d, a (4) a, b, c, d, e (3) e, b, c, d, a (4) a, b, c, d, e
119. Which of the following process need not take 119.
place when we eat glucose ?
(1) Ingestion (1)
(2) Absorption (2)
(3) Digestion (3)
(4) Assimilation (4)
120. Reabsorption of choride ions (Cl ) from the
–
120.
glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule of
mammal is carried out by :-
(1)
(1) Osmosis
(2)
(2) Active transport
(3) Diffusion (3)
(4) Pinocytosis (4)
121. The hind brain consists of 121.
(1) Pons + cerebellum (1) +
(2) Hypothalamus + cerebellum (2) +
(3) Medulla oblongata + cerebrum (3) +
(4) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum + pons (4) + +
122. In mammalian ear, a membranous structure 122.
which separate the scala vestibuli and scala
media is (1)
(1) Basilar membrane
(2)
(2) Reissner’s membrane
(3)
(3) Otolith membrane
(4) Tectorial membrane (4)
123. A health disorder that results from the deficiency 123.
of thyroxine in adults and characterised by
(i) a low metabolic rate, (i)
(ii) increase in body weight and, (ii)
(iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is (iii)
(1) Cretinism (2) Myxoedema (1) (2)
(3) Simple goitre (4) Dwarfism (3) (4)

124. 124.

Observe the above figure carefully and identify

that this figure is shown by which phylum :-
(1) Aschelminthes (1)
(2) Annelida (2)
(3) Platyhelminthes (3)
(4) Mollusca (4)
125. Which one of the following is ectoparasite and 125.
their mouth is circular without jaw?
(1) Petromyzon (2) Lamprey (1) (2)
(3) Myxine (4) All (3) (4)
126. Which of the statement is correct about muscle 126.
contraction?
(1) 'I' bands : length increases (1) 'I'
(2) 'A' band : get reduced (2) 'A'
(3) 'H' zone : will be increased (3) 'H'
(4) shortening of the sarcomere (4)
127. The rate of diffusion of a gas across the 127.
respiratory membrane increase when :-
(1) Respiratory membrane becomes thicker (1)
(2) Surface area of the respiratory membrane
(2)
decreases
(3)
(3) Partial pressure gradient of the gas across
the respiratory membrane increases
(4) Diffusion membrane become dry (4)
128. Parasympathetic nerve fibres are part of ........ 128. ........
nerves and releases........... in heart :- ...........
(1) Cardiac, Acetylcholine respectively (1) Acetylcholine
(2) Cardiac, norepinephrine respectively (2)
(3) Vagus, Acetylcholine respectively (3) Acetylcholine
(4) Vagus, norepinephrine respectively (4)
129. Wisdom tooth in human is :- 129.
(1) 3rd molar and 4 in number (1) 4
(2) 3rd molar and 2 in number (2) 2
(3) 2nd molar and 4 in number (3) 4
(4) 2nd molar and 2 in number (4) 2
130. Ketonuria is due to :- 130.
(1) Diabetes mellitus (1)
(2) Diabetes insipidus (2)
(3) High blood pressure (3)
(4) Intake of excess sugar (4)
131. Nissl’s granules are present in the ....... and 131. ....... .......
contain.......
(1) Muscle cells and deoxyribo nucleic acid (1) DNA
(2) Mast cells and RNA (2) RNA
(3) Osteocytes and DNA (3) DNA
(4) Neuron and RNA (4) RNA
132. Which one of the following is the correct 132
difference between rod cells and cone cells of
our retina ?
Rod cells Cone Cells
(1)
(1) Number Low High
(2)
(2) Visual pigment Iodopsin Rhodopsin
contained
(3)
(3) Overall function Vision in poor Colour vision and
light vision in bright light

(4) Disitribution More concentrated Evenly distributed all (4)

in centre of retina over retina
133. Erythropoeitin is secreted from :- 133. :-
(1) Kidney (2) Pancreas (1) (2)
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Pituitary gland (3) (4)
134. Which of the following is not a chordate 134.
character?
(1) Presence of notochord (1)
(2) Ventral heart
(2)
(3) Central nervous system is ventral, solid &
double (3)
(4) Pharynx perforated by gill slits (4)
135. Which cell junctions help to stop substances 135.
from leaking across a tissue?
(1) Adhering junctions (1)
(2) Tight junction (2)
(3) Gap junction (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
136. Correctly match column-I with column-II. 136. -I -II :-

Column-I Column-II -I -II

A oxygen storing
(A) Myasthenia gravis (i) (A) (i)
pigment

(B) Muscular dystrophy (ii) Rapid spasm in muscles (B) (ii)

Progressive degeneration
(C) Myoglobin (iii) (C) (iii)
of skeletal muscle

(D) Tetany (iv) Auto immune disorder (D) (iv)

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D(ii) (1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iv) (2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D(iv) (3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iii) (4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D(iii)
137. C-shaped hyaline cartilage provide supports:- 137. C- (hyaline)
(1) Ventral side of trachea only (1)
(2) Lateral side of trachea only (2)
(3) Dorsal side of trachea only (3)
(4) both ventral and lateral side of trachea (4)
138. Find the incorrect statement related to 138.
lymphatic system :- (1)
(1) It remove excess fluid from tissue
(2)
(2) Absorbs fat from digestive tract
(3)
(3) Defends the body against microorganism
and other foreign substances
(4) Lymph is red in color due to small number (4)
of RBCs
139. In humans, sphincter of oddi is associated with:- 139.
(1) Pyloric stomach (1)
(2) Oesophagus (2)
(3) Hepato-pancreatic duct (3)
(4) Common hepatic duct (4)
140. Glomerular filtrate consists of :- 140.
(1) All the constituents of blood (1)
(2) All the constituents of blood except blood cells (2)
(3) Excess water, waste products and IgG (3) IgG
(4) All the constituents of blood except blood (4)
corpuscles and larger proteins
141. An action potential in the nerve fibre is 141. (axon)
produced when positive and negative charges
on the outside and the inside of the axon (action potential)
membrane are reversed,because
(1) more potassium ions enter the axon as (1) Na+
compared to sodium ions leaving it K+
(2) more sodium ions enter the axon as (2) K+
compared to potassium ions leaving it Na
+

(3) all potassium ions leave the axon (3) K+

(4) all sodium ions enter the axon (4) Na+
142. Hormones may be 142.
(1) Amino acid derivatives (1)
(2) Peptides (2)
(3) Steroids (3)
(4) All the above (4)
143. In the heart of frog, ventricle opens into a sac 143.
like:- :-
(1) Sinus venosus on dorsal side (1)
(2) Conus arteriosus on ventral side (2)
(3) Sinus venosus on ventral side (3)
(4) Conus arteriosus on dorsal side (4)
144. Select a fish which does not have air bladder:- 144. :-
(1) Flying fish (2) Dog fish (1) (2)
(3) Sea horse (4) Labeo (3) (4)
145. Observe the given figure of a tissue: 145.

Find out incorrect one for the above figure : :

(1) Made up of more than one layer (1)
(2) Cover dry surface of skin (2)
(3) Found on moist surface of buccal cavity (3)
(4) Composed of a single layer of cell (4)
146. Which type of joint is shown by the flat skull 146.
bones? (1) (2)
(1) Saddle joint (2) Fibrous joint
(3) Synovial joint (4) Cartilageneous joint (3) (4)
147. Find the correct match related to disorder of 147.
respiratory system :-
(1) Asthma  It is a difficulty in breathing (1) 
causing wheezing due to inflammation in
nasal cavity
(2) Emphysema  It is a chronic disorder in
(2) 
which alveolar wall are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is increases
(3) Occupational respiratory disorders  long
(3) 
exposure can give rise to inflammation
leading to fibrosis and thus causing
serious lung damage
(4) Tachypnea  Slow breathing rate (4) 
148. Neutrophils are :- 148.
(1) Largest granulocytes in blood (1)
(2) Most abundant agranylocytes in blood (2)
(3) Phagocytic in nature (3)
(4) Releases histamine, heparin and serotonin (4)
149. Arrange the correct sequence of enzymes 149.
which act on food in different regions of
alimentary canal :- (A)
(A) Pepsin (B)
(B) Ptyalin
(C)
(C) Carboxypeptidase
:-
Option:-
(1) A, C, B (2) B, A, C (1) A, C, B (2) B, A, C
(3) B, C, A (4) A, B, C (3) B, C, A (4) A, B, C
150. Part of nephron, impermeable to salt is :- 150.
(1) Descending limb of loop of henle (1)
(2) Ascending limb of loop of henle (2)
(3) Distal convoluted tubule (3)
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule (4)
151. Which of the following statement is correct 151.
about Node of Ranvier ? ?
(1) Axolemma is discontinuous (1)
(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous (2)
(3) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are (3)
discontinuous
(4) Covered by myelin sheath (4)
152. Receptors for protein hormones are located 152.
(1) In cytoplasm (1)
(2) On cell surface (2)
(3) In nucleus (3)
(4) On endoplasmic reticulum (4)
153. Given below as a figure of alimentary canal of 153. :-
cockroach:-

(A)
(A)

A :-
Find out location of labelled A.
(1)
(1) Between midgut and hindgut
(2) Between pharynx and hindgut (2)
(3) Between foregut and hindgut (3)
(4) Between foregut and midgut (4)
154. Find out incorrect match:- 154. :-
(1) Naja – Non poisonous snake (1) –
(2) Bungarus – Poisonous snake (2) –
(3) Python – Non poisonous snake (3) –
(4) Vipera – Poisonous snake (4) –
155. Fluid connective tissue is:- 155. :-
(1) Blood (1)
(2) Bones (2)
(3) Tendon (3)
(4) Ligament (4)
156. The regulatory protein of skeletal muscles 156. 'F'
whose filaments run close to the 'F' Actin :-
through out is :- (1)
(1) Myosin
(2)
(2) Meromyosin
(3) Troponin (3)
(4) Tropomyosin (4)
157. O 2 can bind with haemoglobin in __(i)__ 157. ___(i)___
manner to form __(ii)__ __(ii)__
Find the option which fills above blanks
correctly:-
(1) (I) Irreversible (II) Oxyhaemoglobin (1) (I) (II)
(2) (I) Reversible (II) Methaemoglobin (2) (I) (II)
(3) (I) Irreversible (II) Methaemoglobin (3) (I) (II)
(4) (I) Reversible (II) Oxyhaemoglobin (4) (I) (II)
158. Coronary artery arises from the :- 158.
(1) Pulmonary vein and supply the heart (1)
(2) Pulmonary artery and supply the heart (2)
(3) Aorta and supply the wall of heart (3) (Aorta)
(4) Inferior vena cava and supply the wall of (4)
heart
159. Which one is correctly matched ? 159.
(1) Vit. E - Thiamine (1) Vit. E -
(2) Vit. A - Calciferol (2) Vit. A -
(3) Vit. B12 - Cyanocobalamine (3) Vit. B12 -
(4) Vit. D - Riboflavin (4) Vit. D -
160. Which one of the following statement is 160.
false? (1)
(1) Presence of glucose in urine is glycosuria (2)
(2) Presence of excess urea in blood is haematuria
(3) Presence of ketone bodies in urine is ketonuria. (3)
(4) Damage of glomerular basement membrane (4)
is known as glomerulonephritis.
161. Which one of the following statement is correct? 161. ?
(1) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but (1)
not vice versa

(2) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity (2)

and nervous system regulates endocrine
glands

(3) Neither hormones control neural activity (3)

nor the neur ons cont rol endocr ine
activity

(4) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, (4)

but not vice verse
162. Hormone released by posterior lobe of pituitary 162.
gland is concerned with
(1) Metabolism of carbohydrates (1)
(2)
(2) Stimulation of thyroid
(3)
(3) Secondary sexual characters
(4) Contraction of uterus (4)
163. The ventral surface of earthworm is distinguished 163.
by the presence of :-
(1) Dorsal blood vessel (1)
(2) Clitellum (2)
(3) Genital opening (3)
(4) Prostomium (4)
164. Which is not a character of animals of class- 164.
Aves? (1)
(1) Pneumatic bones
(2)
(2) Presence of feathers
(3)
(3) Air sac connected to lungs
(4) External fertilisation (4)
165. The epitheliun of proximal convoluted tubules 165. (PCT)
(PCT) of nephron in the kidney has:- :-
(1) Cilia (1)
(2) Stereocilla (2)
(3) Microvilli (3)
(4) Flagella (4)
166. Which option is correct for the region labelled 166. A, B, C, D
as A, B, C, D in the given diagram? ?

D D
A A

B B
C C

(1) A - Femur, B - Fibula, C - Tibia, D - Pubis (1) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-

(2) A - Humerus, B - Tibia, C - Fibula, D - Ilium (2) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-
(3) A - Femur, B - Tibia, C - Fibula, D - Ischium (3) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-
(4) A - Femur, B - Radius, C - Ulna, D - Ischium (4) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-

Time Management is Life Management

167. The partial pressure of O 2 in deoxygenated 167. O2
blood is :-
(1) 104 mmHg (2) 45 mmHg (1) 104 mmHg (2) 45 mmHg
(3) 40 mmHg (4) 95 mmHg (3) 40 mmHg (4) 95 mmHg
168. Find the correct statement related to circulatory 168.
system:- (1)
(1) Closure of the semilunar valve produces
the first heart sound
(2)
(2) Closure the atrioventricular valves produces
the second heart sound
(3) The SA node is located in the right atrium (3)
(4) The tricuspid valve present in between the (4)
left atrium and ventricle
169. Which of the following vitamin is water soluble 169.
as well as antioxidant ?
(1) Vit. E (1) Vit. E
(2) Vit. A (2) Vit. A
(3) Vit. D (3) Vit. D
(4) Vit. C (4) Vit. C
170. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and 170.
secreted by :-
(1) Macula densa cell (1) Macula Densa
(2) Kupffer's cells (2)
(3) Liver cells (3)
(4) Juxta-Glomerular cells (4) JG-
171. Which part of human brain is concerned with 171. -
the regulation of body temperature?
(1) cerebellum (1)

(2) cerebrum (2)

(3) hypothalamus (3)

(4) medulla oblongata (4)

172. The function of glucagon hormone is 172.

(1) To increase glycogenesis (1)

(2) To decrease blood sugar level (2)

(3) To release glucose from liver cells and (3)

glycogenolysis promotion

(4) To increase the absorption of fatty acids (4)

into the cell
173. Non-chordates include :- 173. :-
(1) Porifera to Tunicates (1)
(2) Annelida to echinodermata (2)
(3) Ctenophora to cephalochordata (3)
(4) Porifera to echinodermata (4)
174. Match the column A with column B and 174. A B C :-
Column C:-
dkWye-A dkWye-B dkWye-C
Column-A Column-B Column-C
v.Mçtd@
Oviparous/ tUrq
Animals Fertilisation
fu"kspu
viviparous
tjk;qt
(1) (i) ckg~; (a) tjk;qt
(1) (i) External (a) Viviparous

(2) (ii) vkUrfjd (b) v.Mçtd

(2) (ii) Internal (b) Oviparous

(3)
(3)

(4)
(4)

(1) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-i-b, 4-ii-a (1) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-i-b, 4-ii-a
(2) 1-i-a, 2-ii-b, 3-i-a, 4-ii-b (2) 1-i-a, 2-ii-b, 3-i-a, 4-ii-b
(3) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-ii-a, 4-i-b (3) 1-ii-a, 2-i-b, 3-ii-a, 4-i-b
(4) 1-i-b, 2-ii-a, 3-ii-b, 4-i-a (4) 1-i-b, 2-ii-a, 3-ii-b, 4-i-a
175. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in 175.
the body :- :-
(1) Epithelial tissue (1)
(2) Nervous tissue (2)
(3) Connective tissue (3)
(4) Muscular tissue (4)
176. Scapula is a large triangular bone located in the 176.
dorsal part of thorax between:- :-
(1) 2nd and 3rd ribs (1) 2nd 3rd
(2) 2nd and 7th ribs (2) 2nd 7th
(3) 11th and 12th ribs (3) 11th 12th
(4) 7th and 10th ribs (4) 7th 10th
177. A thin elastic cartilaginous flap which prevent 177.
the entry of food into the larynx is :-
(1) Thyroid cartilage (1)
(2) Cricoid cartilage (2)
(3) Epiglottis cartilage (3)
(4) Corniculate cartilage (4)
178. The state of heart when it is not pumping 178.
blood effectively enough to meet the need of
the body is known as :-
(1) Angina pectoris (1)
(2) Heart failure (2)
(3) Cardiac arrest (3)
(4) Myocardial infarction (4)
179. Ileocaecal valve is present between :- 179.
(1) Colon and rectum (1)
(2) Large and small intestine (2)
(3) Stomach and small Intestine (3)
(4) Cardiac part of stomach and fundus. (4)
180. Maintenance of medullary osmolarity of 180.
kidney is due to :-
(1) Rebsorption in loop of henle and collecting duct (1)
(2) Reabsorption in PCT only
(2)
(3) Reabsorption in DCT only
(3)
(4) Secretion of descending LOH and collecting
duct (4) LOH
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /