Bankers Adda Puzzles PDF

1 Adda247 | No.
1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

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Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions carefully.
Seven persons i.e. P, B, Z, D, F, I, and R are reading different novels i.e. Tom Jones, Harry Potter, Le Rouge,
Madame Bovary, Le pere, Moby-Dick and Pride Prejudice, but not in same order. Also they like different
Novelist i.e. Robert Black, J. K. Rowling, Kingsley, Judy, Robert Boge, Elizabeth Von, and Daisy Ashford but
not in same order.
D reads Le pere novel but does not like Robert Boge. The one who reads Le Rouge, likes Daisy Ashford. B
likes Judy. The one, who reads Harry Potter is F, who does not like Robert Boge and Kingsley. I likes
Elizabeth Von. The one who likes Robert Boge is not R. D does not like Robert Black. Z reads Madame
Bovary but does not like J. K. Rowling and Robert Black. The one who likes Robert Boge, is not Z. The one
who reads Tome jones, likes Robert Boge. The one who reads Pride Prejudice is not F. B does not read Pride
Prejudice.
Q1. Who among the following likes Robert Black?

(a) I
(b) B
(c) Z
(d) F
(e) D
Q2. Who reads Le Rouge?

(a) R
(b) D
(c) P
(d) I
(e) Z
Q3. Who among the following likes J.K. Rowling?

(a) P
(b) I
(c) D
(d) R
(e) B
Q4. The one who reads Moby-dick, is?

(a) R
(b) B
(c) P
(d) I
(e) D
Q5. Who among the following likes Kingsley and reads Pride prejudice respectively?
(a) Z, P
(b) I, F
(c) Z, I
(d) Z, B
(e) D, F
2 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q6. John’s house is situated in North direction from his uncle’s office at the distance of 100m.His
uncle’s house is situated in west from his uncle’s office at the distance of 200m.Kabir is the friend
of John, Kabir lives at 100m far in the east direction from John’s house .Kabir’s Office is in south
direction from his house at the distance of 100m.How far is Uncle’s house from Kabir’s office?
(a) 200m
(b) 300m
(c) 400m
(d) 500m
(e) none of these
Directions (7–9): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A poll was held in a particular constituency last month. Rakesh, who is a voter of that constituency, walked
40 metres towards east from his home and took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right
turn and walked 30 metres. Finally he took a right turn and reached the polling station, which was 10
metres away from the previous point.
Q7. In which direction was the polling station located from the starting point?
(a) South
(b) Southeast
(c) Northeast
(d) Northwest
(e) East
Q8. What was the total distance covered by Rakesh to reach the polling station?
(a) 100m
(b) 40m
(c) 80m
(d) 60m
(e) 50m
Q9. In which direction was the polling station located from its
first turning point?
(a) South-west
(b) north-west
(c) North-east
(d) south-east
(e) None of these
Q10. Ravi started from his house towards North. After covering
a distance of 8 km, he turned towards left and covered a distance
of 6 km. What is the shortest distance now from his house?
(a) 10 km.
(b) 16 km.
(c) 14 km
(d) 2 km.
(e) None of these.

Directions (11-15): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons i.e. G, Z, B, R, O, M, D and X are living in eight storey building. Lowermost floor is numbered
1st floor and Top most floor is numbered 8th floor. They belong to different cities of India. These cities are
Chennai, Pune, Delhi, Kanpur, Lucknow, Patna, Kolkata and Goa. The one who belongs to Goa lives on odd
numbered floor. There are three people between the one who belongs to Goa and G. O lives immediate
below the floor on which G lives and belongs to Patna. There are two people between the one who belongs
to Kanpur and O. M lives on even numbered floor but above 5th floor. There are same numbers of people
living between M to D and M to Z who belongs to Chennai. X lives immediate above the floor on which Z
lives. O lives on even numbered floor but below from 5th floor. The one who belongs to Goa does not live
on 1st floor. The one who lives on even numbered floor belongs to Delhi, but that person is not M. R does
not belong to Goa and Kolkata. The one who belongs to Lucknow lives above the floor on which G lives.
Q11. How many people live between the one who belongs to Delhi and Z?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c)Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Q12. Who among the following lives immediate below the one who belongs to Patna?
(a) R
(b) B
(c) D
(d) Z
(e) X
Q13. Who among the following belongs to Kolkata?

(a) D
(b) X
(c) G
(d) R
(e) O
Q14. How many people live above the floor on which the one who belongs to Kanpur lives?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c)Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Q15. M belongs to which of the cities?

(a) Lucknow
(b) Kanpur
(c) Goa
(d) Patna
(e) None of these
Q16. There are 30 students in a class and the ratio of Boys and Girls are 2:3. All of them are sitting
in a row. A’s rank is 6th from the top and he is a boy. There are only 5 boys sitting in between A and
D, who is a girl and is 16th from the top. Then how many girls are sitting between A and D?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 4
(d) Can’t be determine
(e) None of these
Q17. In a row of students facing North, Piya is 16th from the left end. Nine students sit between Piya
and Riya. then what could be the minimum number of students possible to be in the row if Piya does
not sit at any end?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 2
(d) 26
(e) Cannot be determined
Q18. In a row of students facing North, Rahul is 14th from the left end. Five students sit between
Rahul and Sam. What is the position of Sam from the left end, if Sam does not sit to the right of
Rahul?
(a) Sixth from the left end
(b) Seventh from the left end
(c) Eight from the left end
(d) Twentieth from the left end
Q19. In a row of 55 students Karan’s position is 39th from the left and Mayank’s position is 36th
from right then how many students are there between them?
(a) 19
(b) 17
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 18
Q20. There are 23 students in a class. Sumit ranks fourth among the boys in the class. Shivani ranks
fifth among the girls in the class. Sumit is one rank below Shivani in the class. No two students hold
the same rank in the class. What is Shivani’s rank in the class?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) 5th
(c) 8th
(d) 7th
(e) None of these
Directions (21-25): In each of the questions below. Some statements are given followed by
conclusions/group of conclusions numbered as I and II. You have to assume all the statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which
of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
(e) If both I and II follow
Q21. Statements:
Some Sharp are Pen. All Pen are Pages. No Pen is Clipboard.
Conclusions:
I. Some Sharp are not clipboard
II. All Pages are Clipboard
Q22. Statements:
All Dolls are Beautiful. Some Toys are Beautiful. All Toys are Classic.
Conclusions:
I. Some Beautiful are Classic
II. No Beautiful are classic
Q23. Statements:
All Bottle are Glass. No Bottle is Plate. All Plate are Steel
Conclusions:
I. Some Glass are not Plate
II. Some Steel are not Bottle
Q24. Statements:
All Mouse are CPU. No CPU is Phone. Some Phone are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some keys are CPU
II. No Mouse is Phone
Q25. Statements:
All red are Blue. All Blue are Green. No Blue is Brown.
Conclusions:
I. Some Brown are Green
II. Some Brown can be red
Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight students i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them
sit at four corners of the square while four sits in the middle of each of the four sides. The one who sits at
the four corners face the center of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. They
all belongs to different school i.e. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T but not necessarily in the same order. A sit second
to the left of the one who belongs to school N. H belongs to school P and sits third to the right of D. The one
who belongs to school O sits second to the left of the one who belongs to school M. The one who is from
school T sits third to the left of the one who is from school S. Only one student sits between G, who is from
school S and E. E sits second to the left of H. A is not the immediate neighbour of H. Only two person sits
between B and A. C does not belongs to school T. B does not belongs to school R. The one who belongs to
school Q does not face inside.
Q26. Four of the given five belongs to a group find the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) N
(d) P
(e) Q
Q27. Who among the following sits third to the right of C?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) F
(d) G
(e) None of these
Q28. Who among the following belongs to school Q?

(a) B
(b) F
(c) G
(d) D
(e) E
Q29. F belongs to which of the following school?

(a) N
(b) S
(c) P
(d) R
(e) None of these
Q30. Who among the following faces D?

(a) The one who belongs to school Q
(b) The one who belongs to school M
(c) The one who belongs to school O
(d) The one who belongs to school R
(e) None of these
Directions (31-35): Study the following information to answer

the given questions:
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people
each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent
persons. In row-1, G, O, U, N, K and P are sitting and all of them are
facing South. In row-2, Z, Y, H, B, M and R are sitting and all of them
are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each
member of a row faces another member of the other row. R sits third
to the right of B. B faces P and P does not sit at any of the extreme
ends of the lines. N sits third to the right of U. H faces K. The one
facing K sits third to the right of Z. O and Z does not sit at the extreme
ends of the lines. M is not an immediate neighbour of B and P is not
an immediate neighbour of N.

Q31. How many persons are seated between M and H?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Q32. Who among the following represent the persons sitting at extreme ends of the rows?
(a) H, P
(b) M, G
(c) N, H
(d) U, Y
(e) B, G
Q33. Who sits third to the right of G?

(a) U
(b) K
(c) O
(d) N
(e) P
Q34. Which of the following person faces the one who sits diagonally opposite to the one, who sits
second to the right of Y?
(a) Z
(b)R
(c) M
(d) K
(e) O
Q35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
(a) O, M
(b) G, Y
(c) U,B
(d) P, Z
(e) K, Y
Directions (36-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
In a certain code language
‘rabbit is very carrot’ is written as ‘jla jta jja jsa’,
‘love drinks are rabbit’ is written as ‘jja jpa jra jda’
and ‘pigeon is very love’ is written as ‘jda jta jfa jla’.
Q36. What is the code for ‘carrot’?

(a) jsa
(b) jda
(c) jja
(d) jla
(e) None of these
Q37. ‘rabbit love pigeon’ can be coded as
(a) jsa jja jra
(b) jfa jja jda
(c) jda jra jta
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Q38. What is the code for ‘drinks’?

(a) jra
(b) jpa
(c) Either jra or jpa
(d) jda
(e) None of these
Q39. Which of the following is the code for ‘pigeon’?

(a) jta
(b) jda
(c) jla
(d) jfa
(e) None of these
Q40. What does ‘jta’ stand for?

(a) rabbit
(b) carrot
(c) pigeon
(d) love
(e) None of these
Directions (41-45): Each of the questions below consists of question and two statements numbered
I, and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II are
not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are
not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both statement I and statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question.
Q41. On which day of the year did P celebrates his marriage anniversary?
I. P’s sister correctly remembers that his marriage anniversary is before 20th but after 17th of January.
II. P’s brother remembers that his anniversary is after 18th but before 21st of January.

Q42. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest?
I. Weight of Q is 77kg, which is less than the sum of the weights of P and R. Both S and R weighs less than
50kg.
II. P’s weight is more than that of both S and T but less than that of R who is the second heaviest.
Q43. Among A, B, C, D and E, who is the third highest scorer?

I. C scored more than A and E, but less than B, who is not the top scorer.
II. E scored more than only A.
Q44. Who among the R, O, L, E and S is the shortest?

I. L is taller than O and S but shorter than E.
II. E is not the tallest.
Q45. What is P’s rank in a class of 40?

I. A, who is 4th from the top in the class, is above K by 24 ranks. K is the below from P by 7 ranks.
II. M, whose rank is between P and Z, is 30th from the bottom. A scored more than P.
Directions (46-50): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends i.e. B, C, L, M, K, P, S and T who have seated around a circular table and faces outside
the centre. They are conducting debate on different topic in which these Modi government has failed. The
topics are Farmers, Education, Inflation, Pakistan, Employment, Social Justice, law and order and Rural
development.
M does not sit with P. The one who is opposing the Modi’s stand on Pakistan sits opposite to K. The one
who is opposing for the employment of young Indians sits 3rd right of the one who is opposing on rural
development. L sits with S but he is immediate neighbor of T. T sits opposite to the one who is opposing on
Inflation. S does not doing the debate on Social Justice policy. P sits immediate right of the one who is doing
debate on rural development. There is one friend between P and T but T does not sit with K. M who sits
opposite to B and doing debates on law and order of whole country. The one who is doing debates on
education policy of Modi government sits immediate right of the one who is opposing for Social Justice
policy of this government. K is doing debates on rural development policy.
Q46. Who among the following, doing debate on farmers?

(a) P
(b) L
(c) S
(d) B
(e) C
Q47. Who sits 2nd left of the one who is opposing the Pakistan
policy of this government?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) P
(d) M
(e) C

Q48. Who sits opposite to S?
(a) P
(b) K
(c) T
(d) M
(e) B
Q49. Who among the following is immediate neighbors of C?

(a) B, T
(b) M, K
(c) L, S
(d) B, P
(e) None of these
Q50. Who among the following sits opposite to the one who is doing the debate on Employment?
(a) K
(b) P
(c) M
(d) C
(e) None of these
Directions (51-55): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Q51. Statements: M<N, N>O, O=P, P≥Q

Conclusions:
(1) N>Q (2) M>Q
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Either conclusion 1 or 2 follows
(d) Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follow
(e) Both conclusion 1 and 2 follows
Q52. Statements: A>B, B=C, C≤X, X=Y

Conclusions:
(1) C>Y (2) C≥B
Q53. Statements: A=B, B≥C, C≥D, D<E

Conclusions:
(1) D=A (2) B≥D
Q54. Statements: A≥B, B≥C, C=D, D<E
Conclusions:
(1) A≥E (2) E=C
Q55. Statements: A=E, E<C, C>B, B=D

Conclusions:
(1) C>D (2) B<A
Directions (56-60): In each of the following below is given a group of letters followed by four
combinations of digits/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and
mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, mark (e), i.e. ‘None of these’, as the answer-
Letter C D F A U Q K M G I V W S O L
Digit/ # 2 7 µ % 3 & 9 1 @ 5 © 6 8 $
Symbol
Conditions:
(i) If first letter is vowel and last letter is consonant then both are coded with the code of the consonant.
(ii) If both the first and the last letter of the group are vowels, their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the
vowel.
(iv) If both second and fourth letter is vowel then both are coded as the code of second letter.
Q56.QFDWVI
(a) @%72©µ
(b) @%72©@
(c) %72µ@
(d) @72©5@
(e) None of these
Q57.OCGSMK
(a) &#961&
(b) &#169&
(c) 8#169&
(d) &#1698
(e) None of these

Q58.ASVQKU
(a) %65&3µ
(b) 65&7&µ
(c) %653&µ
(d) 65&79&
(e) None of these
Q59.DOWIML
(a) 82©89$
(b) 28©89$
(c) 8376©$
(d) $897©2
(e) None of these
Q60.MFCLGD
(a) 79#$21
(b) 97#$21
(c) 97$#12
(d) 97#$12
(e) None of these
Directions (61–65): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and % are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is greater than or equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is equal to Q’.
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Q61. Statements:
I # A ; A & B & C* D@ E; B&F ;E#H ;G&D
Conclusions: I. A&D II. D#H
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Either I or II is true
(e) Both I and II are true
Q62. Statements:
S & R & L; L & M @ N * O % P & Q ; N # T
Conclusions: I. T&Q II. T%Q
(a) Both I and II are true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(e) Neither I nor II true

Q63. Statements:
V#P;S%U;W%R;P&Q*R@S%T
Conclusions: I. T @ W II. R* V
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Neither I nor II
(e) Both I and II are true
Q64. Statements:
N* T * R % J & C ; L # J ; R & F # M ; N # S
Conclusions: I. F # S II. N % J
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
Q65. Statements:
F # L ; H * C # G ;A & B # C * D @ E % F
Conclusions: I. A @ L II. A & L
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
Q66. If “SOUL” is coded as “5#7$”, “FREELS” is coded as “29@@$5”, then “OURSELF” will be coded as
?
(a) #759@$2
(b) #795@2$
(c) #9572$@
(d) #795@$2
(e) None of these
Q67. How many pairs of letters are there in the word” PARTICLE” which have as many letters
between them in the word as in alphabetical series?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Q68. If all the alphabets are rearranged within itself as they appear in the English dictionary in the
word “MISUNDERSTANDING” then which of the following will be fourth to the left of the twelfth from
the left end?
(a) G
(b) N
(c) M
(d) I
(e) None of these
Q69. How many such pair of numbers are there in the given number “91487536” (Both backward
and forward) same as far as according to numeric series?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) None of these.
Q70. If 2 is subtracted from each odd number and 1 is added to each even in the number ‘83526794’,
then which among the following digits will appear twice in the new number thus formed?
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 3 and 5
(c) 3, 5 and 7
(d) 1, 5 and 9
(e) None of these
Directions (71-75): Study the information and answer the following questions:
Eight boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.
All boxes contain different number of coins viz. 5, 18, 25, 30, 35, 48, 50 and 60 (not necessarily in the same
order).
Three boxes are placed between box O and box M, which contains 48 coins. N contains 50 coins and is
placed immediately above O. There is only one box which is placed between box N and box Q, which
contains 60 coins. Box P contains 5 coins and it is placed somewhere below box S. Only two boxes are
placed between box S and box T, which contains 25 coins. The box which contains 50 coins is not placed
below the box which contains 48 coins. Box S has less coins than box T. The box which contains highest
number of coins is not placed on top. Box R contains more coins than box O. The box which contains 35
coins will not be placed on top. Box T is placed at the bottom. Only one box is between Q and S.
Q71. How many boxes are placed between box P and box S?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Q72. Box which is placed at the bottom contains how many coins?
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 18
(d) 25
(e) None of these
Q73. Which among the following boxes is placed at the top?

(a) Box R
(b) Box N
(c) Box O
(d) Box P
(e) None of these
Q74. Which box is placed immediately above the box which contains 35 coins?
(a) Box O
(b) Box S
(c) The box which contains 50 coins
(d) The box which contains 60 coins
(e) None of these
Q75. How many coins did Box O contains?

(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 25
Q76. How many pairs of letters are there in the word” SCHEDULE” which have as many letters
between them in the word as in alphabetical series?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Q77. If all the alphabets are rearranged within itself as they appear in the English dictionary in the
word “DEFAULTER” then which of the following will be seventh from the left end?
(a) F
(b) L
(c) T
(d) R
(e) None of these
Q78. How many letter/letters will remain in the same position in the word ‘LUNCHBOX’ when they
are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than Three
(e) None
Q79. Pointing to a lady, Sameer said, “She is the only sister of my father’s only grandson”. How is
that lady related to Sameer?
(a) Daughter
(b) Niece
(c) Sister
(d) Mother

Q80. In a certain code ‘CLASS’ is written as ‘47#99’ and ‘SHAPE’ is written as ‘93#65’. How is
‘PALACE’ written in that code?
(a) 6#74#5
(b) 6#7#54
(c) 6##745
(d) 6#7#45
(e) None of these
Directions (81-83): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In a family of seven members there are four female members. T is the mother of M. P is the brother of M. G
is grandfather of P. H is mother-in-law of T. V is brother of S, who is sister-in-law of T.
Q81. How is H related to P?

(a) Mother
(b) Grandmother
(c) Sister
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) None of these
Q82. How is M related to S?

(a) Niece
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Either (a) or (b)
(e) None of these
Q83. How is V related to G?

(a) Son
(b) Father
(c) Brother
(d) Father-in-law
(e) None of these
Directions (84-85): Study the following information and answer the given questions
In a park J, K, L, M and N are playing a game. All are facing north. K is 50m to the right of M. J is 70m to the
south of K. L is 50m to the west of M. N is 95m to the north of J.
Q84. Who among the following is to the southeast of the person who is to the left of M?
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) N

Q85. If a kid walks from L, meets K followed by J and then N, how many metres does he walk if he
travels the straight line distance all through?
(a) 195m
(b) 235m
(c) 210m
(d) 265m
(e) 170m
Directions (86-90): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges
them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 87 power 13 tide fish 25 around 36 58 union 79 ice
Step I: 131 87 power tide fish around 36 58 union 79 ice 252
Step II: around 131 87 power tide 36 58 union 79 ice 252 fish
Step III: 363 around 131 87 power tide union 79 ice 252 fish 584
Step IV: ice 363 around 131 87 tide union 79 252 fish 584 power
Step V: 795 ice 363 around 131 tide union 252 fish 584 power 876
Step VI: tide 795 ice 363 around 131 252 fish 584 power 876 union
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each
of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input for the questions.
Input: quiz 9 rough 71 guest 19 deep 43 57 sanctity 94 light
Q86. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?

(a) X
(b) VIII
(c) IX
(d) VI
(e) None of these
Q87. What will the addition of the numbers which is second from the left end in step II and 5th
from the right end in step IV?
(a) 312
(b) 210
(c) 190
(d) 185
(e) None of these
Q88. Which of the following would be the difference of the numbers which is 2nd from left end in
step IV and 2nd from right end in Step II?
(a) 290
(b) 183
(c) 193
(d) 241
(e) None of these

Q89. Which of the following element will be 6th from the left of 3rd from the right end in step V?
(a) 91
(b) deep
(c) 433
(d) light
(e) None of these
Q90. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be on 4th position (from the left)?
(a) sanctity
(b) 91
(c) 71
(d) rough
(e) None of these
Q91. In a family of seven members, E is daughter-in-law of N. M is married man. G is niece of C and

both are unmarried. C is the only sibling of N. D is brother-in-law of F who is not a sibling of G. How
is F related to D?
(a) Sister-in-law
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Uncle
(d) Aunt
(e) Can’t be determined
Directions (92-95): These questions are based on the following set of numbers.
438 254 619 783 941
Q92. If all the digits in the number are rearranged in ascending order within itself, then which
among the following will be the sum of second digit of the lowest number and the third digit of the
highest number?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) None of these
Q93. If in each number, the first and the third digits are
interchanged, then which among the following number will be
difference of the first digit of the highest number and last digit
of the second lowest number?
(a) 0
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) 8

Q94. If the difference of the highest number and the lowest number is rearranged within itself in
descending order, then which among the following will be the third digit?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9
(e) 5
Q95. A person starts from point A, walks 10 m in south direction. Then he takes two consecutive left
turns and walked 8m and 16m respectively. Then takes two consecutive right turns and walks 4 m
and10 m respectively. What is the shortest distance from point A to the final point.
(a) 20 km
(b) 3√10 km
(c) 4√10 km
(d) 4√5 km
(e) 10 km
Directions (96-100): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer as
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
Q96. Statements:
M≥D<N<P<R
Conclusions: I. M < R II. R ≥ M
Q97. Statements:
S<B, H ≤ R > F > A = B
Conclusions: I. H < B II. R > B
Q98. Statements:
H > R ≥ S = T; U ≥ R
Conclusions: I. H > T II. S ≤ U
Q99. Statements:
H≤S>Q;Z<Q
Conclusions: I. H > Z II. H ≤ Z
Q100.Statements:
RH>K;L=T<R;A>L
Conclusions: I. H > L II. K > T

Directions (101-105): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons are sitting around a rectangular table such that three each sit on the longer side and one each
on the shorter side. Some of them face towards the center of the table and some face away from the table.
B does not sit opposite to the one who is 2nd to the right of A. H either sits at the shorter side or in the
middle of the longer side. E and B face same direction. Only one person sits between E and G when counted
from the right of E. B sits 3rd to the right of H. G faces F. Two persons sit between B and F. A and D sit 2nd
left to each other. A is 2nd right to C but none of them sits next to B. E is one of the neighbor of C. D and G
faces same direction. H faces center.
Q101. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of A?

(a) E
(b) F
(c) C
(d) B
(e) none of these
Q102. How many persons are sitting between H and B when counted form left to H?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Q103. Which of the following not true regarding C?

(a) A sits opposite to C
(b) F sits immediate right to C
(c) C faces towards the center of the table
(d) B sits 2nd to the right of C
(e) none of these
Q104. Who among the following sits 4th to the right of the one who sits opposite to D?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) C
(d) B
(e) none of these
Q105. Who among the following sits opposite to H?

(a) E
(b) F
(c) C
(d) B
(e) none of these

Directions (106–110): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements.
Give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Q106. How is P related to Mr X?

I. P is the grandson of X’s father.
II. X has no sisters but has several friends and each of his friends is the only son in his respective family.
Q107. In which direction was the tourist train XYZ running?

I. A person P sitting in the train saw that his image fell exactly on his right but the image of his brother Q
sitting opposite him fells on his left.
II. The train was not moving towards South.
Q108. What is the code for ‘X’ in a code language in which the word ‘MIXER’ is written as ‘>)=’ ?
I. In the code language STRIP, MAPRO and ASTER are written as ‘=@$ <’ ‘(#@>’and ‘$<*#’ respectively.
II. In the code language MISER is written as ‘> $ * = ’.
Q109. In which year was P born?

I. P at present is 25 years younger to his mother.
II. P’s brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.
Q110. How many matches did India win in a series of ten matches against Australia?
I. When the fifth match was being played India had won all the previous matches.
II. Only one of the matches ended in a draw but the result of the matches played immediate before and
immediate after the match drawn were in India’s favour whereas all the matches played after the seventh
match were in India’s favour.
Directions (111-115): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
There are eight employees i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who are born in eight different months of a same year.
Months start from March to October consecutive. C is born in June. There is only one employee whose birth
month is between C and B. E is born in last month of given data. H is born just before the month on which
A is born but after C’s born month. F is younger than C but older than A. G is Younger than D.

Q111. Who among the following is younger than A?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) F
(d) E
(e) H
Q112. How many employees are older than F?

(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
(e) No one
Q113. If G’s born month is interchanged with A’s born month, then G is older than which among the
following employees?
(a) H
(b) B
(c) E
(d) F
(e) D
Q114. How many employees born between B and G?

(a) No one
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Q115. Which of the following month D is born?

(a) August
(b) June
(c) May
(d) March
(e) None of these
Directions (116-120): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
‘Q + R’ means ‘Q is father of R’
‘Q ÷ R’ means ‘R is brother of Q’
‘Q × R’ means ‘Q is husband of R’
‘Q – R’ means ‘Q is sister of R’
Q116. In the expression Q + R × P – S ÷ T, how is S related to R?

(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Nephew
(d) Brother

Q117. In the expression Q + R – S + T ÷ M, how is M related to Q?
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Grandson
(e) None of these
Q118. Which of the following expressions shows that K is sister of M?

(a) J + K – L + N ÷ M
(b) J × K – L ÷ N ÷ M
(c) J + L – K ÷ M + N
(e) None of these
Q119. Which of the following is true for the given expression?

‘J + K – L + N ÷ M’
(a) K is aunt of N and M
(b) K is father of M
(c) N is sister of M
(d) J is father of N
(e) None of these
Q120. What will come in place of the question mark (?) to make the expressions I < H as well as K ≥
J definitely true?
J = Y ≤ I? K < H
(a) ≥
(b) <
(c) >
(d) ≤
(e) None of these
Directions (121-122): Read the following information carefully and answer the question which
follows:
IF ‘A × B’ means ‘A is son of B’
IF ‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
IF ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
IF ‘A - B’ means ‘A is Father of B’
Q121. What will come in the place of the question mark, to

establish that M is mother of J in the expression?
‘J + K – L ? M’
(a) +
(b) ×
(c) –
(d) ÷
(e) Either (a) or (b)

Q122. Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in the question?
J ÷ K × L - M + N’ ?
(a) K is brother of N
(b) J is daughter-in-law of M
(c) J is daughter-in-law of N
(d) N is daughter of L
(e) None is true
Directions (123-125): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Point S is 40 m towards the North of Point P. Point Q is 15 m towards the West of point S. Point U is 25 m
towards the West of point S. Point T is 20 m towards the South of point Q. Point R is 15 m towards the East
of point T. Point V is 15 m towards the West of point P.
Q123. Which of the following points are in a straight line?

(a) S, T, P
(b) T, V, R
(c) S, Q, V
(d) T, V, Q
(e) U, Q, R
Q124. P is in which direction with respect to R?

(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
(d) West
Q125. If a person walks 10 m towards East from point U and then takes a right turn, which of the
following points would he reach first?
(a) V
(b) S
(c) T
(d) P
(e) R
Directions (126–130): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below
it—
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around a square table facing the centre not necessarily in
the same order. Each one of them has a different item in his/her purse viz. Rose, Cigar, Cap, Candy, Teddy,
Sandwich, Water bottle and Pen. Two persons are sitting on each side facing the other two.
V sits second to the right of the one who has candy. The one who has a water bottle is an immediate
neighbour of the one who has candy. S and the one having a rose are immediate neighbours of each other.
U does not have a rose. Only one person sits between T and Q, when counted clockwise from Q. R sits third
to left of the one who has a pen. The one who has a sandwich sits second to left of the person having a
teddy. Two people sit between the one who has a Water bottle and U, when counted clockwise from the
person who has the water bottle. T and P are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither T nor P is an
immediate neighbour of either U or the one who has a Candy in his purse. The one who has a cap sits
second to the right of Q, who has a cigar.
Q126. Who amongst the following has a Water bottle?
(a)R
(b)W
(c)Q
(d)P
(e)S
Q127. If U has a sister amongst the given eight persons sitting around the table, then which of the
following could definitely not be her sister?
(a)R
(b)W
(c)Q
(d)P
(e)S
Q128. Who amongst the following has a Cigar?

(a)W
(b)T
(c)R
(d)S
(e)Q
Q129. Who amongst the following sit exactly between U and the person who has a water bottle?
(a)W and the person who has a Rose.
(b)V and S.
(c)R and the person who has a Cap.
(d)R and S
(e)The persons who have a Teddy and a Cigar.
Q130. Who amongst the following sits seventh to left of U?

(a)T
(b)R
(c)V
(d) The one who sits to the immediate right of the one carrying a teddy.
(e) None of these
Directions (131-135): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words
and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: soul 63 bag 51 92 66 dancer light 86 read

Step I: bag soul 63 51 66 dancer light 86 read 92
Step II: dancer bag soul 63 51 66 light read 92 86
Step III: light dancer bag soul 63 51 read 92 86 66
Step IV: read light dancer bag soul 51 92 86 66 63
Step V: soul read light dancer bag 92 86 66 63 51
Step VI: 36 6 9 6 1 2 5 3 9 6
And step V is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out
in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below;
Input: 41 do provoke 21 79 mouth cat loud 29 apple 83 44

Q131. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
(a) IV
(b) V
(c) VI
(d) VII
(e) None of these
Q132. Which Step number would be the following output?

loud do cat apple provoke 21 mouth 29 83 79 44 41
(a) III
(b) II
(c) VII
(d) IV
(e) There will be no such step
Q133. Which of the following would be the step I?

(a) apple 41 do cat provoke 21 mouth loud 79 29 83 44
(b) apple cat 21 provoke do 41 mouth loud 29 83 44 79
(c) apple 41 do provoke 21 44 mouth cat loud 79 83 29
(d) apple 41 do provoke 44 21 cat mouth loud 29 79 83
(e) None of these
Q134. In step V, which of the following word/number would be on the 6th position (from the right)?
(a) 44
(b) 21
(c) 79
(d) provoke
(e) apple
Q135. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?

(a) 35 36 36 15 1 6 2 7 8 5 1 3
(b) 35 35 36 15 1 6 2 7 4 5 2 3
(c) 35 36 36 15 1 6 2 7 8 5 2 3
(d) 36 36 36 15 1 6 2 7 8 5 2 3
(e) None of these
Directions (136-140): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q136. Who among P, Q, R and S is sitting next to P if all persons are sitting in a straight line facing
north?
I. P does not sit next to S who does not sit next to the extreme right.
II. None sit to the left of P and on the right of Q, while only one person sits between R and Q.
Q137. What is the code for ‘those’ if in a certain code language ‘those lovely red roses’ is written as
‘pe so la ti’?
I. ‘ni jo ke pe’ means ‘stopped at red light’.
II. ‘ba di ti ga’ means ‘roses are very pretty and ‘fo hi la’ means ‘lovely day outside’.
Q138. What is Sandeep’s rank from the top in a class of 50 students?

I. Aman is 6 ranks below Sandeep and is twenty-ninth from the bottom.
II. Alok is 4 ranks above Sandeep and is thirty-fifth from the bottom.
Q139. How many sisters does Anushka have?

I. The only brother of Anushka’s father has only one niece.
II. The son of the husband of Anushka’s mother has three siblings.
Q140. In which month of the year was Sanjana born?

I. Her mother correctly remembers that Sanjana was born after June and before September.
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after March and before August.
Directions (141-145): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
There are 8 persons i.e. A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z who have seated in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D sits in row
1 and faces North. W, X, Y and Z sits in row 2 and faces South. They like different colours i.e. Blue, Black,
White, Yellow, Red, Violet, Green, and Grey.
A sits 2nd right of the one who likes Grey color. There is only one person seated to the left of the one who
likes Grey color. The one who faces A, likes White colour and sits immediate left of W. There is one person
sitting between W and the one who likes Red color. X and Y sit together but Y does not like Red. The one
who likes Blue colour, faces the one who likes Grey colour. There is only one person sits between B and C,
who likes Green color. B sits at extreme end. The one who faces C likes Black colour. A does not like Violet
colour.
Q141. Who among the following likes White color?

(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) W
(e) D
Q142. Who among the following sits immediate left of the one who likes Grey color?
(a) No one
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) W

Q143. How many persons sits right of X?
(a) No one
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Q144. If Y interchanges his position with B, then who will seat 2nd right of Y?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) A
(d) No one
(e) X
Q145. Who among the following likes Yellow color?

(a) X
(b) Y
(c) A
(d) W
(e) D
Directions (146-150): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code,
‘za la ka ga’ is code for ‘Ram wants to go’,
‘za fa sa na’ is code for ‘Sita wants the Shahrukh’,
‘na la da sa’ is a code for ‘Sita Ram looks Shahrukh’,
‘wa sa za da’ is code for ‘looks Shahrukh wants delhi’.
Q146. Which of the following is the code for ‘looks’?

(a) sa
(b) da
(c) la
(d) na
(e) None of these
Q147. What does the code ‘wa’ stand for ?

(a) to
(b) Ram
(c) looks
(d) delhi
(e) wants
Q148. Which of the following is the code for ‘sita’?

(a) sa
(b) wa
(c) za
(d) na
(e) fa
Q149. What is the code of ‘wants’ in the code language?
(a) za
(b) ka
(c) la
(d) ga
Q150. Which of the following is the code for ‘go’?

(a) la
(b) Can’t be determined
(c) za
(d) ga
(e) ka
Directions (151-155): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.
There are seven friends i.e. Preeti, Suman, Vipul, Raman, Kamal, Vijay and Rahul living in a seven storey
building such that the ground floor is numbered one and 1st floor is numbered 2 and so on up to top floor
which is numbered 7. They all are using different brands of mobile such as - Lenovo K6, Moto E 4, I-Phone
7, Mi-Note 4, Moto G5, Nokia 6 and Samsung Young, but not necessarily in the same order. Vijay lives on an
even number floor but above 2nd floor and he is not using Mi-Note 4 and I-Phone 7. Suman uses Samsung
Young and lives on an even number floor. Preeti does not using MI-Note 4 and Nokia 6. Rahul is using
Lenovo K6 and lives above Vijay on an odd numbered floor. There are three friends living between the floor
on which Rahul lives and the one who like Moto G5. Kamal is using Nokia 6 and stays on an odd number
Floor but above Suman. Vipul lives on 3rd numbered Floor. Suman lives immediately above of the floor in
which Preeti lives. There are two floors gap between the one who uses Lenovo K6 and the one who uses
Mi-Note 4. Kamal does not use I-Phone 7 and Moto E 4. The one who likes Moto G5 does not live on 1st
Floor.
Q151. Raman stays on which of the following floor?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Seventh
Q152. Preeti uses which of the following mobile?

(a) Moto E4
(b) Samsung Young
(c) Moto G 5
(d) None of these

Q153. Who among the following stays on 5th floor?
(a) Raman
(b) Kamal
(c) Preeti
(d) Suman
(e) Vijay
Q154. Vijay uses which of the following Mobile?

(a) Mi-Note 4
(b) Samsung Young
(c) Moto E 4
(d) Moto G 5
(e) None of these
Q155. If in a certain way 7th floor is related to Vijay and in the same way 3rd floor is related to Suman
then following the same pattern, which of the following floor number is related to Kamal?
(a) 5th
(b) 6th
(c) 3rd
(d) 2nd
(e) 1st
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions
Mark answer (a) if only conclusion I follows.
Mark answer (b) if only conclusion II follows.
Mark answer (c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Mark answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Mark answer (e) if both conclusions I and II follow.
Q156. Statements: A ≥ B = C; B < D ≤ E

Conclusions: I. D > A II. E > C
Q157. Statements: L > U ≥ K; Z < U < R

Conclusions: I. L > Z II. K < R
Q158. Statements: Y < J = P ≥ R > I

Conclusions: I. J > I II. Y < R
Q159. Statements: V ≥ K > M = N; M > S; T < K

Conclusions: I. T < N II. V = S
Q160. Statements: F ≤ X < A; R < X ≤ E

Conclusions: I. F ≤ E II. R < F

Directions (161-165): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
In a certain code language,
‘neeraj aniket saurabh prashant’ is coded as ‘la pa zi ta’
‘gopal aniket saurabh neeraj’ is coded as ‘pa zi la sa’
‘swati saurabh meena guneet’ is coded as ‘na hi ga pa’
‘neeraj priyanka vidushi swati’ is coded as ‘zi mi jo ga’
Q161. How will ‘neeraj gopal swati’ be coded in the given language?
(a) zi la sa
(b) zi sa ga
(c) sa mi jo
(d) pa zi mi
(e) None of these
Q162. How will ‘swati saurabh guneet’ be coded in the given language?
(a) zi la sa
(b) zi sa ga
(c) sa mi jo
(d) pa zi mi
(e) None of these
Q163. What does ‘pa’ stand for?

(a) gopal
(b) swati
(c) saurabh
(d) priyanka
(e) None of these
Q164. Which of the following will be coded as ‘na hi la’ in the given language?
(a) aniket saurabh guneet
(b) meena guneet aniket
(c) gopal aniket swati
(d) meena neeraj swati
(e) None of these
Q165. Which of the following will be coded as ‘la’ in the given

language?
(a) aniket
(b) swati
(c) gopal
(d) guneet
(e) None of these
Directions (166-170): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
There are seven cricket players i.e. R, S, T, V, W, X and Y, who plays together for world XI team in a charity
match. They all scored different number of centuries (100’s) in One day internationals (ODI) i.e. 15, 17, 19,
25, 27, 49 and 64 but not necessarily in the same order. They all are sitting in row such that only three of
them facing south and rest are facing north.
R sits third to the left of X and sits at the corner. T, who scored 17 hundred’s in one day internationals, is
sitting on the immediate right of Y, who faces south direction. R scored 27 centuries in his career. There
are more than three players sit between the player, who scored 15 centuries and the one, whose number
of centuries is a perfect cube of odd number. The difference between the centuries scored by S and Y, is
twice the difference of centuries scored by R and V. Immediate neighbor of S faces same direction. S sits
2nd to the right of T, who faces opposite to R (i.e. If R is facing north then T faces south direction and vice
versa). S faces north direction and sits 2nd to the right of R. Y does not score 15 centuries. X scored 64
centuries in his one-day career. V faces south direction. The one, who scored 49 and the one, who scored
19 centuries are immediate neighbors.
Q166. Who among the following score 49 centuries in his ODI career?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) T
(d) V
(e) None of these
Q167. Who among the following pair of persons sit at the end of the row?
(a) RW
(b) SV
(c) RV
(d) ST
(e) None of these
Q168. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of V?

(a) X
(b) S
(c) W
(d) T
(e) None of these
Q169. Who among the following score 19 centuries in ODI’s?

(a) W
(b) S
(c) R
(d) T
(e) None of these
Q170. How many centuries do Y scores in his ODI career?
(a) 15
(b) 27
(c) 49
(d) None of these
(e) 25
Directions (171-175): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q171. Statements:
Some A are B.
All B are D.
All D are E.
Conclusions:
I. At least some D are A.
II. All E being A is a possibility.
III. Some D are not A.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Only III follows
(e) None follows
Q172. Statements:
Some M are not N.
Some P are N.
Some R are M.
Conclusions:
I. All P are M is a possibility.
II. All N can be R.
III. No M is N.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Both II and III follows
(c) Both I and III follow
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None of these
Q173. Statements:
Only A are C.
No A is B.
Some D are B.
Conclusions:
I. Some D can never be C
II. Some A are C.
III. Some D are not C.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Both II and III follows
(e) None of these
Q174. Statements:
Some A are B.
All D are E.
All B are D.
Conclusions:
I. At least some D are not A.
II. All E are A.
III. Some E are A.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) None of these
Q175. Statements:
No M is Q.
Some R are M.
Some Q are R.
Some S are R.
Conclusions:
I. Some R are not Q
II. Some R are not M
III. All S are R is a possibility
(a) Both I and III follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only II and either I or III follow
(d) All follow
(e) None of these
Direction (176-178): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Ravi starts walking 12km in the East direction from point X and reaches at point A. After that he turns 225°
clockwise and walks 15000m to reach at point Y and then Ravi turns 135° clockwise and walks 9km to
reach at point Z. At last he turns 45° in his right and walks 3km.
Q176. What is the direction of Ravi’s last position with respect to point X?
(a) North-West
(b) North- East
(c) South- East
(e) None of these
Q177. What is the total distance covered by Ravi from his first turn to his final position?
(a) 27km
(b) 26km
(c) 27000m
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) None of these
Q178. What is the direction of point X with respect to point Z?

(a) North-West
(b) South- East
(c) South- West
(e) None of these
Directions (179-180): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Five persons L, M, N, O and P are of different age. L is elder than only P. N is younger than only M.
Q179. Who among the following is elder than N?

(a) L
(b) M
(c) Can’t be determined
(d) O
(e) P
Q180. Suppose if M’s age is 32 years and O’s age is 25 years, then what can be the probable age of
N?
(a) 27 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 24 years
(e) None of These

below:
There are five bikes i.e. Bajaj, Hero, Honda, TVS and Yamaha. Each bike has different mileage. Yamaha has
a mileage greater than Hero and less than TVS. Honda’s mileage is less than only one bike. The bike which
has 2nd lowest mileage is 50. Hero’s mileage is not lowest.
Q181. Which among the following has highest mileage?

(a) Bajaj
(b) Hero
(c) Honda
(d) TVS
(e) Yamaha
Q182. Which among the following has 2nd lowest mileage?

(a) Bajaj
(b) Hero
(c) Honda
(d) TVS
(e) Yamaha
Q183. Which among the following is most likely to have mileage of 45?
(a) Bajaj
(b) Hero
(c) Honda
(d) TVS
(e) Yamaha
below:
In a certain code language:
‘meeting is in morning’ written as ‘im cd dv ch’
‘healthy walk is important’ written as ‘md im ev em’
‘morning walk is healthy’ written as ‘ev em im cd’
‘important talk in meeting’ written as ‘md dv ch ef’
Q184. What is the code for ‘important’ in the given code

language?
(a) ev
(b) em
(c) im
(d) md
(e) None of these

Q185. Which of the following is coded as ‘em’ in the given code language?
(a) walk
(b) morning
(c) healthy
(d) Either (a) or (c)
(e) None of these
Q186. If ‘in healthy way’ is coded as ‘ch em nf’ in the given code language, then what is the code for
‘way walk’?
(a) ev ef
(b) ev nf
(c) nf cd
(e) None of these
Q187. What is the code for ‘healthy talk in morning’ in the given code language?
(a) ev ef ch cd
(b) em ef dv cd
(c) em ef md cd
(d) Either (a) or (b)
(e) None of these
Q188. Which of the following is coded for ‘is’ in the given code language?
(a) im
(b) cd
(c) ev
(d) em
(e) None of these
below:
From point A, Virat walks 10m towards east and reach at point P. Then, he turns towards left and walks
8m to reach point Q. Then, he turns to his right and walks 6m to reach point R. Finally, he turns towards
south and walk 7m and reach at point D.
Q189. In which direction is point D with respect to A?

(a) North
(b) East
(c) West
(d) North-east
(e) North-west
Q190. Which among the following is the distance between point P and R?
(a) 6m
(b) 7m
(c) 8m
(d) 9m
(e) 10m

below:
There are eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W working in a different bank viz. State Bank of India,
Punjab National Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, Canara Bank, Dena Bank, Central Bank, United Bank and
Union Bank (but not necessarily in same order). All are sitting in a circular table and facing to the center. Q
sits 3rd to the right of P. The person who works in Union Bank is an immediate neighbor of V. There is one
person sits between Q and the person who works in State Bank of India. The persons who work in Punjab
National Bank and Central Bank are immediate neighbors of the person who works in State Bank of India.
The person who works in Punjab National Bank is not an immediate neighbor of Q. V sits immediate right
of the person who faces P. V and S are immediate neighbors of U. The person who works in Canara Bank is
neither an immediate neighbor of V nor R’s. R sits immediate right of T. There is one-person gap between
the persons who work in United Bank and Indian Overseas Bank. The person who works in Dena Bank is
not an immediate neighbor of the person who works in United Bank. V doesn’t work in Canara Bank.
Q191. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of T?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(e) U
Q192. How many persons are sitting between S and W when counted clockwise direction from W?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) None
Q193. Who among the following sits immediate left of V?

(a) Q
(b) R
(c) S
(d) U
(e) W
Q194. Who among the following faces the person who works in Indian Overseas Bank?
(a) The person who works in Punjab National Bank
(b) The person who works in State Bank of India
(c) The person who works in Central Bank
(d) The person who works in Dena Bank
(e) None of these
Q195. Who among the following is an immediate neighbor of U?

(a) The person who works in Punjab National Bank
(b) The person who works in Dena Bank
(c) The person who works in Canara Bank
(d) The person who works in State Bank of India
(e) The person who works in Central Bank
Directions (196-200): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below-
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. They live on a separate floor each of an eight-floor building but not
necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1 and so on until the topmost floor is
numbered 8.
U lives in an odd numbered floor. Four persons live between T and S who lives one of the floor below the
floor on which U lives but not immediate below. R lives on the floor numbered which is multiple of 2 but
not on 6th floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. More than two persons live between V and S. Q lives
immediate above the floor on which W lives. R does not live below U. P lives on an odd numbered floor
below T.
Q196. Who lives on the floor just above V?

(a) U
(b) P
(c) No one
(d) R
(e) T
Q197. How many persons live between S and V?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Five
(d) Three
(e) Four
Q198. Which of the following pairs live on the first floor and the topmost floor respectively?
(a) R, Q
(b) P, R
(c) U, V
(d) S, P
(e) V, R
Q199. Who among the following lives on the fourth floor?

(a) Q
(b) S
(c) P
(d) T
(e) V
Q200. Which of the following combination is true?

(a) First floor-S
(b) Fourth floor-T
(c) Third floor-W
(d) Sixth floor- R
(e) Second floor- P

Directions (201-205): These questions are based on the following six numbers.
843 158 425 674 362 568
Q201. If we add 2 to the second digit of each number and subtract 1 from the first digit of each
number, then which of the given will become the lowest number?
(a) 362
(b) 568
(c) 158
(d) 425
(e) 843
Q202. If all the digits in each of the numbers are written in increasing order within the number,
then which of the given number will become the second highest?
(a) 674
(b) 568
(c) 425
(d) 362
(e) 158
Q203. If the first two digits of each number are interchanged, then which of the following number
will become the second lowest number?
(a) 674
(b) 158
(c) 568
(d) 843
(e) 362
Q204. In each number, if we subtracted 1 in second digit and then interchange with last digit, then
which among these number will be 2nd lowest number?
(a) 425
(b) 158
(c) 674
(d) 362
(e) 843
Q205.If we replace all the even digits in each number with zero, then which of the following number
will become the second lowest?
(a) 674
(b) 425
(c) 843
(d) 158
(e) 568

Direction (206-208): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point R is 10m to the south of T. Point U is 3m to the east of R. Point V is 5m to the south of U. Point W is
6m to the west of V. Point S is 10m to the north of W. Point Q is 6m to the east of S. Point P is 5m to the
north of Q.
Q206. Which of the following represents the direction of point U with respect to point S?
(a) South-east
(b) North-west
(c) South-west
(d) West
(e) North-east
Q207. How far and in which direction is point T from point P?

(a) 5m south
(b) 3m east
(c) √34m west
(d) 3m west
(e) 5m north
Q208. What is the shortest distance between point S and point R?

(a) √5m
(b) √34m
(c) 16m
(d) 3√5m
(e) 4m
Q209. A person started walking towards South from point X. After walking 48m he took a right turn
and walked 7m. Then he took a right turn and walked 24m. Again he took a right turn and walked
14m and stopped at point Y. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point?
(a) 50m North-east
(b) 15m North
(c) 25m South-east
(d) 50m North
(e) 10m South-east
Q210. House A is towards East of house M. House B is towards North of house A. House C is towards
South of house B. Towards which direction is house C from house M?
(a) East
(b) South-east
(c) North-east
(d) Data inadequate
(e) North

Directions (211-215) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are published in same month of the different years- 2010, 2016, 2012,
2001, 2005, 2014 and 2019 but not necessarily in the same order.
Book Q published on an odd numbered year. Only three books published in between Q and U. Book R
published 4 years after the year in which S published. V published on the year which is completely divisible
by 3. T published on an even numbered year before U. P published one of the years before Q.
Q211. How many books published in between S and V?

(a) None
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Q212. Book P published on which of the following year?

(a) 2005
(b) 2012
(c) 2001
(d) 2019
(e) 2016
Q213. Which of the following book was published before R but after S?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) U
(e) V
Q214. Book R published after how many years with respect to book Q published?
(a) 10 years
(b) 9 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 2 years
(e) 5 years
Q215. Which of the following book was published immediate after U published?
(a)P
(b)Q
(c)R
(d)S
(e)V

Directions (216-218): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are six boxes M, N, O, P, Q and R each box is of different weight. Each box is of different colours i.e.
Yellow, Green, Blue, Brown, Grey and White (not necessarily in same order).
Box R is heavier than P. Brown colour box is the 3rd heaviest box. Box N is not the lightest box. Box O is
heavier than box M. Weight of Box N is less than box M. Box Q is heavier than N but not the heaviest. Box M
and P are not green colour. Box N is grey colour. Box M is neither yellow nor white. Box O is blue colour,
but it is not the heaviest box. White colour box is heavier than yellow box but not heavy as green colour
box.
Q216. Which of the following box is the heaviest box?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) O
(d) R
(e) N
Q217. Which of the following box is yellow colour?

(a) R
(b) M
(c) P
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Q218. Which of the following box is second lightest box?

(a) Grey colour box
(b) M
(c) Blue colour box
(d) P
(e) Q
Direction (219-220): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
There are seven members S, T, U, V, W, X and Y in a family among them only 3 females. S is married to V. W
is grandson of V who has two children. U is sister in law of Y who is unmarried. X is brother in law of S who
is mother in law of U.
Q219. How X is related to Y?

(a) Uncle
(b) Brother
(c) Mother
(d) Sister
(e) Grandson
Q220. Who among the following is the father of W?
(a) U
(b) T
(c) X
(d) Y
(e) None of these
statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given
statements and select the appropriate answer. Give answer-
(a) If only conclusion II is true
(b) If only conclusion I is true
(c) If both conclusions I and II are true.
(d) If either conclusion I or II is true
(e) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
Q221. Statements: A>G<J, I≤D, J<O=K>D.

Conclusions: I. G>D II. O>I
Q222. Statements: P≥W≤Z, W>K, Q>O<Z

Conclusions: I. W>Q II. Z>K
Q223. Statements: B≥L<J>O, E>Y<L

Conclusions: I. B>Y II. J>Y
Q224. Statements: T>O<A<Q≥M>N<V

Conclusions: I. T>N II. A>M
Q225. Statements: B>Q≥R, Z>T≥R>J

Conclusions: I. B > J II. Z > Q

NAUKRI ASPIRANT TEAM
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Solutions
Solution (1-5):
Persons Novel Novelist
P Tome Jones Robert boge
I Pride Prejudice Elizabeth
R Le Rouge Daisy Ashford
B Moby-Dick Judy
Z Madame Bovary Kingsley
D Le pere J.K. Rowling
F Harry Potter Robert Black
S1. Ans.(d)
S2. Ans.(a)
S3. Ans.(c)
S4. Ans.(b)
S5. Ans.(c)
S6. Ans.(b)
Sol.
AD=CB
AD+DE= 100m+200m=300m
Solution (7-9):
S7. Ans.(b)
S8. Ans.(a)
S9. Ans.(a)

S10. Ans. (a)
Sol.
Required distance = AC
= √(8)2 + (6)2
= √64 + 36
= √100
= 10 Km.
Solution (11-15):
Floor Person Cities
8 D Delhi
7 B Goa
6 M Lucknow
5 X Kanpur
4 Z Chennai
3 G Kolkata
2 O Patna
1 R Pune
S11. Ans.(c)
S12. Ans.(a)
S13. Ans.(c)
S14. Ans.(c)
S15. Ans.(a)
S16. Ans. (c)

Sol. Total no. of student=30
Boys: Girls=2:3, So Boys=12 and Girls=18
A’s rank is 6th from the top and D, who is a girl and is 16th from the top.
There are only 5 boys sitting in between A and D
So, there will be 4 girls in between A and D.
S17. Ans.(b)
S18. Ans.(c)
S19. Ans.(e)
Sol. Karan’s position is 39th from the left
Mayank’s position from the left is (55-36+1= 20th) from the left
Hence, there are 18 students between them

S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. Shivani’s rank is 8th, as there are 3 boys and 4 girls before Shivani.
S21. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S22. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S23. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S24. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S25. Ans.(d)
Sol.

Solutions (26-30):
S26. Ans.(c)
S27. Ans.(d)
S28. Ans.(a)
S29. Ans.(e)
S30. Ans.(c)
Solution (31-35):
S31. Ans.(c)
S32. Ans.(b)
S33. Ans.(e)
S34. Ans.(c)
S35. Ans.(b)
Solution (36-40):
Word Code
Rabbit Jja
Carrot Jsa
Is/very jla/jta
Love Jda
Drinks/are jpa/jra
Pigeon jfa
S36. Ans.(a)
S37. Ans.(b)
S38. Ans.(c)
S39. Ans.(d)
S40. Ans.(e)

S41. Ans.(e)
Sol. 19th January
S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. From statement II, R>P> (S, T), Since R is the second heaviest, it means Q is the heaviest.
S43. Ans.(a)
Sol. From I, D>B>C>A, E. Hence C is third highest scorer.
Statements II is not sufficient, some more information are needed.
S44. Ans.(d)
Sol. From I, E>L>O and S
From II, At least one person is taller than E.
So, data insufficient
S45. Ans.(a)
Sol. From I,
A’s rank= 4th from top
K’s rank= 28th from top
P’s rank= 21st from top.
Solution (46-50):
S46. Ans.(c)
S47. Ans.(a)
S48. Ans.(a)
S49. Ans.(b)
S50. Ans.(d)
S51. Ans.(a)
S52. Ans.(d)
S53. Ans.(b)
S54. Ans.(d)
S55. Ans.(a)

S56. Ans.(d)
Sol. By using condition (iii), the code will be @72©5@
S57. Ans.(b)
Sol. By using condition (i), the code will be&#169&
S58. Ans.(c)
Sol. By using condition (ii), The code will be %653&µ
S59. Ans.(b)
Sol. By using condition (iv), the code will be28©89$
S60. Ans.(d), No Condition Applied

Sol. The code will be 97#$12.
S61. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. A&D(True) II. D#H(True)
S62. Ans.(b)
Sol. I.T&Q(True) II. T%Q(False)
S63. Ans.(c)
Sol. I. T@W (False) II. R*V(False)
S64. Ans.(b)
Sol. I. F@S(True) II. N%J(False)
S65. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. A@L(False) II. A&L(False)
S66. Ans.(d)
Sol.
O U R S E L F
# 7 9 5 @ $ 2
S67. Ans(b)
Sol.
S68. Ans.(c)

S69. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S70. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Solutions (71-75):
Box No. Box No. of coins
8 N 50
7 O 30
6 Q 60
5 R 35
4 S 18
3 M 48
2 P 5
1 T 25
S71. Ans.(b)
S72. Ans.(d)
S73. Ans.(b)
S74. Ans.(d)
S75. Ans.(b)
S76. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S77. Ans.(d)

S78. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only X
S79. Ans.(e)
Sol. She can be Sameer’s niece or daughter.
S80. Ans.(d)
Solutions (81-83):
S81. Ans.(b)
S82. Ans.(a)
S83. Ans.(a)
Solutions (84-85):
S84. Ans.(a)
S85. Ans.(d)

Solutions (86-90):
Logic: - There are six numbers and six words in the input. In the first step the numbers are arranged in
ascending order from both the ends and a natural number starting from 1,2,3….and so on is also placed
with it at unit place. After that in second step the words are arranged in alphabetical order from both the
ends. And then again number are arranged in third step and words are arranged in forth step and so on.
Input: quiz 9 rough 71 guest 19 deep 43 57 sanctity 94 light
Step I: 91 quiz rough 71 guest deep 43 57 sanctity 94 light 192
Step II: deep 91 quiz rough 71 43 57 sanctity 94 light 192 guest
Step III: 433 deep 91 quiz rough 71 sanctity 94 light 192 guest 574
Step IV: light 433 deep 91 rough 71 sanctity 94 192 guest 574 quiz
Step V: 715 light 433 deep 91 rough sanctity 192 guest 574 quiz 946
Step VI: rough 715 light 433 deep 91 192 guest 574 quiz 946 sanctity
S86. Ans.(d)
S87. Ans.(d)
S88. Ans.(d)
S89. Ans.(b)
S90. Ans.(b)
S91. Ans(e)
Sol.
S92. Ans.(c)
S93. Ans.(d)
S94. Ans.(b)
S95. Ans.(c)
Sol.
√122 + 42 = 4 √10m
S96. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. M < R (false) II. R ≥ M(false)

S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. I. H < B (false) II. R > B (true)
S98. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. H > T (true) II. S ≤ U (true)
S99. Ans.(c)
Sol. I. H > Z (false) II. H ≤ Z (false)
S100. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. H > L (true) II. K > T (false)
Solutions (101-105):
S101. Ans.(c)
S102. Ans.(d)
S103. Ans.(d)
S104. Ans.(e)
S105. Ans.(a)
S106. Ans.(d)
Sol. From I: We get P is either nephew or son of Mr. X so we can’t say the exactly relation between P and X.
From II: The information does not give the clue to reach answer.
So both I and II is not sufficient to answer the question.
S107. Ans. (d)

Sol. We do not have any information about the position of sun and also the position of the person gives no
clue about the direction of moving train.
S108. Ans. (c)

Sol. From I: The symbol >, *, = and  have been used with some other symbols while coding STRIP, MAPRO
and ASTER, Note that these word do not consist of the letter X obviously the code for X is the symbol ‘)’.
From II: The four letters M, I , E and R are present in both the words MIXER and MISER and the four symbol
which are common in the codes of both the words are > , * , = and . Thus we can conclude that code for the
letter is the symbol ‘)’.

S109. Ans. (e)
Sol. From both I and II we get that P is (35-25) = 10 years older than his brother,
Who was born in 1964, So, P was born in 1954.
S110. Ans.(d)
Sol. From I: We get that India won the matches first, second, third and fourth.
From II: We get that the India won the matches eighth, ninth and tenth.
But these two statements even together do not tell about the result of the matches fifth, sixth and seventh.
Directions (111-115):
Month Employees
March D
April B
May G
June C
July F
August H
September A
October E
S111. Ans.(d)
S112. Ans.(a)
S113. Ans.(c)
S114. Ans.(a)
S115. Ans.(d)
S116. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S117. Ans. (c)

Sol.
S118. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S119. Ans. (a)
Sol.
S120. Ans. (d)
S121. Ans.(e)
Sol. J is the daughter of K and K is the father of L. So for M to be mother of J, M should be the mother of L.
Hence the question mark can be replaced by either × or +.
S122. Ans.(c)
Sol. Here L and N are husband and wife. M is their daughter, K is their son and J is their daughter-in-law.
Hence only (c) is true.
Solution (123-125):
S123. Ans.(d)
S124. Ans.(a)
S125. Ans.(c)
Solution (126-130):

S126. Ans.(e)
S127. Ans.(a)
S128. Ans.(e)
S129. Ans.(c)
S130. Ans.(d)
Solution (131-135):
The machine arranges a word and a number in each step. Words are arranged in alphabetical order in such
a way that word with the smallest starting alphabet is place at the left end in each step. Similarly, the
numbers are arranged in decreasing order in such a way that the highest number is placed at the rightmost
end in one step, followed by the second largest number in second step and so on.
In the final step all the words are converted into a numerical value which denotes the sum of the values of
its vowels. For Ex. EAT= 1(A)+5(E)=6. Similarly, all the two-digit number are converted into their digital
sum. For Ex. 83→8+3→11→1+1=2
Input : 41 do provoke 21 79 mouth cat loud 29 apple 83 44
Step I : apple 41 do provoke 21 79 mouth cat loud 29 44 83
Step II : cat apple 41 do provoke 21 mouth loud 29 44 83 79
Step III : do cat apple 41 provoke 21 mouth loud 29 83 79 44
Step IV : loud do cat apple provoke 21 mouth 29 83 79 44 41
Step V : mouth loud do cat apple provoke 21 83 79 44 41 29
Step VI : provoke mouth loud do cat apple 83 79 44 41 29 21
Step VII : 35 36 36 15 1 6 2 7 8 5 2 3
S131. Ans.(d)
S132. Ans.(d)
S133. Ans.(e)
S134. Ans.(b)
S135. Ans.(c)
S136. Ans.(b)
Sol. From I=we cannot find anything.
From II= we get P R S Q
S137. Ans.(e)
Sol. From I= red → pe
From II= roses → ti
Lovely → la
So, the code for ‘those’ is “so”.
S138. Ans.(c)
Sol. Either I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
From I= 50-35+1= 16th
From II= 50-31+1=20th

S139. Ans.(d)
Sol. Even from both the statements, we cannot predict about the
sister(s) of Anushka.
S140. Ans.(e)
Sol. Sanjana was born in “July”.
Solution (141-145):
S141. Ans.(c)
S142. Ans.(b)
S143. Ans.(a)
S144. Ans.(b)
S145. Ans.(c)
Solution (146-150):
Word Code
wants za
Ram la
Shahrukh sa
Sita na
looks da
the fa
Delhi wa
to ka/ga
go ga/ka
S146. Ans.(b)
S147. Ans.(d)
S148. Ans.(d)
S149. Ans.(a)
S150. Ans.(b)

Step1: From the given definite conditions: - Vijay lives on an even number floor but above 2nd floor and he
is not using Mi-Note 4 and I-Phone 7. Rahul is using Lenovo K6 and lives above Vijay on an odd numbered
floor. There are three friends living between the floor on which Rahul lives and the one who like Moto G5.
The one who likes Moto G5 does not live on 1st Floor. So, from these given statements there is two
possibility in which Vijay either sits on the 4th floor or on the 6th floor.
Case 1:
Floor Friends Mobile
7 Rahul Lenovo k6
6
5
4 Vijay
3 Moto G5
2
1
Case 2:
7 Rahul Lenovo k6
6 Vijay
5
4
3 Moto G5
2
1
Step 2: It is given that, Vipul lives on 3rd numbered Floor. There are two floors gap between the one who
uses Lenovo K6 and the one who uses Mi-Note 4. Vijay does not use I Phone7 and MI Note4, so from these
Case 1 is eliminated and hence we have to continue with case 2.
Case 2:
7 Rahul Lenovo k6
6 Vijay
5
4 Mi-Note 4
3 Vipul Moto G5
2
1
Step 3: Now it is given that Suman uses Samsung Young and lives on an even number floor, Suman lives
immediately above of the floor in which Preeti lives. Preeti does not using MI-Note 4 and Nokia 6, hence
Preeti stays on first floor and uses I phone 7. Nokia 6 user stays on 5th floor as it is given that Kamal is
using Nokia 6 and stays on odd numbered Floor but above Suman. Hence, we get our final arrangement.
7 Rahul Lenovo k6
6 Vijay Moto E 4
5 Kamal Nokia 6
4 Raman Mi-Note 4
3 Vipul Moto G5
2 Suman Samsung Young
1 Preeti I Phone 7
S151. Ans.(d)
S152. Ans.(d)
S153. Ans.(b)
S154. Ans.(c)
S155. Ans.(b)
S156. Ans. (b)

Sol. 𝐈. D > B ≤ A(FALSE) II. E ≥ D > B = C(TRUE)
S157. Ans. (e)

Sol. 𝐈. L > U > Z(TRUE) II. R > U ≥ K(TRUE)
S158. Ans. (a)

Sol. 𝐈. J = P ≥ R > I(TRUE) II. Y < J = P ≥ R(FALSE)
S159. Ans. (d)

Sol. I. T < K > M = N (FALSE) II. V ≥ K > M > S (FALSE)
S160. Ans. (a)

Sol. I. F ≤ X ≤ E (TRUE) II. R < X ≥ F (FALSE)
Words Code
Neeraj zi
Aniket la
Saurabh pa
Prashant ta
Gopal sa
Swati ga
Meena na/hi
Guneet na/hi
Priyanka mi/jo
Vidushi mi/jo

S161. Ans.(b)
S162. Ans.(e)
S163. Ans.(c)
S164. Ans.(b)
S165. Ans.(a)
Step1: From the given definite conditions: - X score 64 centuries in his one-day career. R sits third to the
left of X and sits at the corner so there will be two possible cases of X and R sitting positions. S faces north
direction and sits 2nd to the right of R. So, there are two possible cases occur-
Case 1:
Case 2:
Step 2: From the given other conditions: - T, who scored 17 hundred’s in one day internationals is sitting
on the immediate right of Y. S sits 2nd to the right of T, who faces opposite to R. Immediate neighbor of S
faces same direction. V faces south direction.
Case 1:
Case 2:
Step 3: Now it is given that Y faces south direction, so case-2 will be eliminated. Y does not score 15
centuries and there are more than three players sit between the player who scored 15 centuries and the
one whose number of centuries is a perfect cube of odd number which is R so from these conditions it is
clear that V scores 15 hundred in his one-day international career and W sits on the immediate left of S.
The difference between the centuries scored by S and Y is twice the difference of centuries scored by R and
V. So, the difference of centuries of R and V is twelve. The one who scores 49 centuries and the one who
scores 19 centuries are immediate neighbors, S score 49 centuries and W score 19 centuries in their career
and Y scores 25 centuries. Hence, we get our final sitting arrangement.

S166. Ans.(b)
S167. Ans.(c)
S168. Ans.(d)
S169. Ans.(a)
S170. Ans.(e)
S171. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S172. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S173. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S174. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S175. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S176. Ans.(b)
Sol. North-East
S177. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total distance= 15+9+3 = 27km
S178. Ans.(c)
Sol. South-West
S179. Ans.(b)
Sol. M > N > O > L > P
S180. Ans.(a)
Sol. M > N > O > L > P
32 25
S181. Ans.(d)
S182. Ans.(b)
S183. Ans.(a)
WORDS CODE
is im
morning cd
Walk/ ev / em
healthy
important md
Meeting / in dv / ch
talk ef
S184. Ans.(d)
S185. Ans.(d)
S186. Ans.(b)
S187. Ans.(d)
S188. Ans.(a)

S189. Ans.(d)
S190. Ans.(e)
Direction (191-195):
From the given arrangement, Q sits 3rd to the right of P. There is one person sits between Q and the person
who works in State Bank of India. Here, we get two possibilities i.e. Case 1 and Case 2. The persons who
work in Punjab National Bank and Central Bank are immediate neighbors of the person who works in State
Bank of India. The person who works in Punjab National Bank is not an immediate neighbor of Q.
From the given arrangement, V sits immediate right of the person who faces P. V and S are immediate
neighbors of U. R sits immediate right of T. The person who works in Union Bank is immediate neighbor of
V. Here, Case 2 is ruled out and we get another possibility i.e. Case 1a.

From the given arrangement, the person who works in Canara Bank is neither an immediate neighbor of V
nor R’s. V doesn’t work in Canara Bank. There is one-person gap between the persons who work in United
Bank and Indian Overseas Bank. The person who works in Dena Bank is not an immediate neighbor of the
person who works in United Bank. Here, Case 1 is ruled out.
So, final arrangement will be: -
S191. Ans.(b)
S192. Ans.(d)
S193. Ans.(e)
S194. Ans.(b)
S195. Ans.(c)
Solution (196-200):
FLOOR PERSONS
8 R
7 T
6 V
5 U
4 Q
3 W
2 S
1 P
S196. Ans.(e)
S197. Ans.(d)
S198. Ans.(b)
S199. Ans.(a)
S200. Ans.(c)

S201. Ans.(c)
S202. Ans.(a)
S203. Ans.(d)
S204. Ans.(d)
S205. Ans.(b)
Solution (206-208):
S206. Ans.(a)
S207. Ans.(d)
S208. Ans.(b)
S209. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S210. Ans.(d)
Years Books
2001 P
2005 Q
2010 S
2012 T
2014 R
2016 U
2019 V

S211. Ans.(d)
S212. Ans.(c)
S213. Ans.(a)
S214. Ans.(b)
S215. Ans.(e)
S216. Ans.(d)
S217. Ans.(c)
S218. Ans.(a)
Directions (219-220):
S219. Ans.(a)
S220. Ans.(b)
S221. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. G>D (False) II. O>I (True)
S222. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. W>Q(False) II. Z>K (True)
S223. Ans.(c)
Sol. I. B>Y(True) II. J>Y (True)
S224. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. T>N (False) II. A>M (False)
S225. Ans.(b)
Sol. I. B > J (True) II. Z > Q (False)

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence
to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Global warming is caused by an acute heating of the earth’s atmosphere as a result of energy being
trapped.
(B) Cattle and other animals that produce methane can also contribute significantly to global warming,
much of this has been a problem because of human animal farming which produces hundreds of cattle for
the meat industry.
(C) Greenhouse gasses such as carbon dioxide and methane can cause the atmosphere to build up, leading
to solar radiation becoming trapped within the earth like within a greenhouse, hence the name.
(D) Global warming is also largely a result of the release of methane from cracks in the earth, landfill sites
and through natural gas leaks.
(E) Once these greenhouse gasses are released, they can contribute to the buildup of the atmosphere and
work to trap more solar radiation within the earth.
Q1. Which is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q2. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q3. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q4. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q5. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (6-10): In the following questions, first and third sentences are fixed at their respective
positions. Rearrange the other sentences (B), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Deforestation means cutting down the forests that are home to the large chunks of oxygen giving trees,
plants and numerous wild animals and birds.
(B) In an attempt to expand the agriculture sector and meet the demands of the people, we humans are
cutting the forests.
(C) One of the main purposes of cutting vast forest areas is to use the land for agriculture.
(D) Human beings are cutting down forests around the world for various purposes.
(E) This can only be done if we have enough land for agriculture.
(F) Forests are also being cut to build towns and cities to accommodate people and for setting up offices
and factories.
(G) With the growing population there is a need to grow more crops to satisfy the demands of the people.
Q6. Which is SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) G
Q7. Which is FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) G
Q8. Which is LAST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) G

Q9. Which is FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) G
Q10. Which is SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) G
Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) However, the changes that have occurred from the mid to the late 20th century are more apparent.
(B) Climate change refers to a change in the global climate pattern.
(C) Besides, there are several natural forces such as solar radiation, variation in the orbit and volcanic
eruptions that have been influencing the climatic conditions of the Earth since centuries.
(D) Our planet has witnessed changes in the climatic pattern over the centuries.
(E) The level of carbon dioxide has increased exceedingly in the atmosphere and this has led to major
change in the climate on the Earth.
Q11. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q12. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q13. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q14. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q15. Which is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (16-30): In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given which is divided into
FOUR parts such that the parts are jumbled and they do not make a meaningful sentence. Rearrange
the following parts to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence and choose the
correct rearrangement from the options given below each question.
Q16. when the snobby customer (A)/ I could not hold my tongue (B)/ in front of me tried to abase
(C)/ the salesperson by screaming at her (D)
(a) ABCD
(b) BACD
(c) DCAB
(d) CDAB
(e) None of the above
Q17. had worked today (A)/after noticing the tidiness of (B)/the children’s playroom, the family
(C)/ realized that their maid (D)
(a) BCDA
(b) BADC
(c) ABDC
(d) DCBA
Q18. with confidence they automatically (A)/ considered him a serious contender (B)/ when the
interviewers saw their (C) / next candidate stride into the room (D)
(a) CDBA
(b) DCBA
(c) CDAB
(d) ACDB

Q19. bank officer granted her (A)/ since Marie was ill and (B)/ temporarily unable to work, the (C)/
forbearance on her car loan (D)
(a) BCAD
(b) BADC
(c) BACD
(d) DCBA
Q20. restaurant’s new lemon cake (A)/ the ambient commercial (B)/ people to try the (C)/ has
convinced many (D)
(a) BADC
(b) BCDA
(c) BDCA
(d) DCBA
Q21. the king would not (A)/ until the opposing ruler made (B)/ even discuss terms for peace (C)/
amends for his advances. (D)
(a) ABDC
(b) ACBD
(c) CBDA
(d) DCBA
Q22. even begin to make amends (A)/ feeling his crimes (B)/ was not sure how he could (C)/ were
too serious, he (D)
(a) BDCA
(b) ACDB
(c) BACD
(d) DCBA
Q23. attentive eye is very helpful (A)/ as a clothing designer, my (B)/others would not notice (C)/
in detecting subtle patterns that (D)
(a) BCAD
(b) DCBA
(c) DCAB
(d) BADC

Q24. be a conformist, I go out (A)/ as someone who refuses to (B)/
frequently chosen (C)/ of my way to take the path less (D)
(a) ACDB
(b) ADCB
(c) BADC
(d) DCBA
Q25. with my retentive (A)/ mind, I can (B)/ important historical

dates (C)/easily remember (D)
(a) ABDC
(b) ADCB
(c) ACDB
(d) ACBD
Q26. runner shot to the finish (A)/ with a vibrant burst (B)/ line and claimed the prize (C)/ of vigor,
the marathon (D)
(a) ACDB
(b) BDAC
(c) DCBA
(d) DACB
Q27. her autoimmune disease (A)/ the young woman (B)/read that a vegetarian (C)/diet was
curative for (D)
(a) ACDB
(b) BDCA
(c) BCDA
(d) BDAC
Q28. although she usually (A)/ clothing, the vibrant patterns of (B)/ the dashiki drew her attention
(C)/ preferred neutral colored (D)
(a) ACBD
(b) ADBC
(c) DBCA
(d) DCBA

Q29. when a new player took a cheap (A)/our fellowship with our (B)/ shot towards another player
(C)/ rival soccer team became strained (D)
(a) BCDA
(b) DCBA
(c) ACDB
(d) BDAC
Q30. willpower to move forward (A)/ he had sufficient (B)/ the race, but no (C)/energy to complete
(D)
(a) BDCA
(b) BCDA
(c) DCBA
(d) BCAD
Directions (31-35): Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed.
Over the decades, man has come up with several unique and resourceful inventions. The computer and
machines have begun to control and replace the important functions earlier performed by man. We have
grown extremely dependent on artificial intelligence. However, it is widely believed that artificial
intelligence cannot replace human intelligence, as man is the creator of machines.
Human brain can work constantly and more efficiently to create and make use of something wisely.
Humans are capable of learning, grasping, understanding the concept of various things. Humans are
curious to discover and create new things. Humans are multi-talented whereas machines are not. Artificial
intelligence is also created by human brains and their functions are limited.
Machines are superior to humans in terms of speed and accuracy. Calculators for example work more
accurately and speedily than human brains to make calculations. Human brain programs the functioning
of any kind of machine. Human brains develop naturally by observing, experimenting, learning and
discovering, but the improvement in machinery is possible only when its mechanical brain is fed by
humans. Also, there is no emotional intelligence in machines. Emotions play a major role in developing
human brain. Thus, the capacity of machines is limited whereas humans are always experimenting,
creating, inventing and discovering more and more.
Q31. According to the given passage what has man become increasingly dependent on?
(a) Gramophones
(b) Machine language
(c) Artificial Intelligence
(d) Assembly Language
(e) All of the above

Q32. What are the capabilities of humans that are mentioned in
the passage?
(a) Humans are curious to discover and create new things.
(b) Humans are multi-talented.
(c) Humans are capable of learning, grasping, understanding the
concept of various things.
(d) None of the above
Q33. How is the improvement in machinery possible?

(a) When its mechanical brain is fed by humans
(b) When its mechanical brain is sold by humans
(c) When its mechanical brain is rolled by humans
(d) When its mechanical brain is fired by humans
Q34. Which of the following is SIMILAR to the word WISELY given in BOLD?
(a) foolishly
(b) thrash
(c) intelligently
(d) stupidly
(e) mean
Q35. Which of the word is OPPOSITE to the word LIMITED given in BOLD?
(a) short
(b) wise
(c) brief
(d) residue
(e) unbounded
Directions (36-40): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper
(A) It can be used for various purposes later rather than allowing it to run off the gutters.
(B) Rain water harvesting improves the supply of water throughout the year.
(C) Rain water harvesting refers to the collection and storage of water for reuse.
(D) It can be used for irrigation, gardens, domestic purposes and livestock.
(E) It can also be used as drinking water and groundwater storage.
Q36. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q37. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q38. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q39. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q40. Which of the following is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (41-45): In the following questions two columns are given containing three
sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column
the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not
connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and
contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s)
in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination or none of them
connects, mark (e), i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
Q41.
A. The popular celebrity receives an D. car accidents in the congested city.
innumerable
B. On rainy days, there are multiple E. will be worsen the air quality in the city.
C. Pollution coming from the factory F. amount of fan mail each week.

(a) A- F and B-D
(b) A-F
(c) C-D
(d) C-D and B-F
Q42.
A. Although multiple tickets were sold for D. trash daily was done for the betterment
the event, of the park.
B. Because the bank continues to raise E. only a few patrons showed due to bad
interest rates, weather.
C. Planting trees and picking up F. fewer people can secure the steep loans.
(a) A-F
(b) A-E, B-F and C-D
(c) C-F
(d) B-E
Q43.
A. It was obvious that the garage was an D. I need to find another place to procure my
attachment to the house because it was medicine.
added
B. Although few knew of her greatness E. a few years after the house is originally
during her lifetime, Emily Dickinson built.
C. Since the drugstore is closed, F. is now regard as one of the best poets.
(a) B-F
(b) A-E
(c) B-F and C-E
(d) C-D
Q44.
A. The tired man’s eyes hung heavily D. the buildings being flooded or destroyed.
B. The coastal area was the most heavily hit, E. providing warmth during the winter
with many of months.
C. Turning the thermometer up will cause F. as he tried too fight his sleep.
the heat in the room to intensify,
(a) A-E
(b) A-F
(c) B-D and C-E
(d) B-F

Q45.
A. Oddly, the youngest person in the class D. from her extreme tall father.
was the tall with a height of over six feet.
B. The fashion industry was E. class was the tallest with a height of over six feet.
C. Her towering height was inherited F. experiencing a revival of the 80s style.
(a) A-E
(b) C-D
(c) B-F
(d) A-E and B-F
Directions (46-55): Given below is a passage filled with the blanks. Each blank is then followed by
five choices and each choice has two options. You must choose the option in which both the words
of the option fit in the blank given.
The removal of the top soil by human and natural --------46------- is termed as soil erosion. Destruction of
trees speed soil erosion. The poor ------47------ of agricultural land and overgrazing of pastures enhance
the rate of soil erosion. If a sloping land is -------48------- the water runs down furrows. The natural drainage
system is damaged and soil erosion is increased. The natural agents of erosion are -----49------ rain-water,
sun-rays and wind. The top soils on river beds are ------50------ away by rivers and streams. Overflowing
rain-water washes away mud and dust. Weak soil is also blown away by wind and damaged by sun-rays.
As a result of soil erosion millions of hectares of land have -------51-------- unproductive and barren. The
earth’s crust is -----52------ and fertility is lost. To prevent soil erosion steps must be taken to plant trees
and -------53------- forests. The agricultural land must be maintained --------54------- and the drainage
system must be improved. Moreover the pastures should be used in a restricted way. If we take these -----
------55--------- we can surely have a remedy for the damages already done by soil erosion.
Q46. (a) goods

(b) methodical
(c) agents
(d) lampoon
(e) nuance
Q47. (a) maintenance

(b) lodge
(c) surviving
(d) obstruct
(e) forbid
Q48. (a) calmed

(b) graze
(c) ploughed
(d) gauge
(e) relaxing

Q49. (a) overflowing
(b) residue
(c) residing
(d) mitigate
(e) mud
Q50. (a) took

(b) grow
(c) take
(d) carry
(e) carried
Q51. (a) becoming

(b) became
(c) become
(d) boiling
(e) be
Q52. (a) filtered

(b) emulsification
(c) destroy
(d) destruct
(e) decayed
Q53. (a) malicious

(b) protect
(c) nullify
(d) reduction
(e) stride
Q54. (a) collapse

(b) due
(c) full
(d) properly
(e) frankly
Q55. (a) rule

(b) method
(c) measures
(d) hazard
(e) mold

Directions (56-60): Given below is a passage filled with the blanks. Each blank is then followed by
five choices and each choice has two options. You must choose the option in which both the words
of the option fit in the blank given.
Cleanliness is not a work which we should do forcefully. It is a good habit and healthy way of our ------56-
------ life. All type of cleanliness is very necessary for our good health -------57------ it is personal cleanliness,
surrounding cleanliness, environment cleanliness, pet animal cleanliness or work place cleanliness (like
school, college, office, etc..). We all should be highly -----58------ about how to maintain cleanliness in our
daily lives. It is very simple to include cleanliness in our habit. We should never --------59--------- with
cleanliness, it is as necessary as food and water for us. It should be practiced from the childhood which can
only be -------60------- by each parent as a first and foremost responsibility.
Q56. (a) healthy

(b) due
(c) man
(d) torture
(e) symbolic
Q57. (a) thought

(b) though
(c) whether
(d) beside
(e) bewildered
Q58. (a) symbol

(b) obscene
(c) malicious
(d) frustrate
(e) aware
Q59. (a) compromise

(b) loose
(c) gone
(d) residue
(e) guilt
Q60. (a) start

(b) initiated
(c) guide
(d) malnutrition
(e) sign

Directions (61-65): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The existence of life on Mars has been a subject of study since more than a century. Scientists have been
trying to collate evidences to figure out whether life has ever existed on this planet or is it inhabited with
people presently or if there is any possibility of life on Mars in the future. The research done until now hints
that there has never been any life on Mars nor is it inhabited with people currently. However, the possibility
of life on the red planet cannot be ruled out completely.
Research shows that surface liquid water was present on Mars during the ancient Noachian period. This
made for a habitable atmosphere for microorganisms. However, whether microorganisms ever penetrated
on the planet is still a question. Research on the subject is still going on. Today, water on Mars exists in its
solid state that is in the form of ice. Some of it also exists as vapour in the planet’s atmosphere.
Scientists have been trying to conduct research on Mars by way of telescopes, spacecrafts and rovers that
are helpful in collecting evidences about the condition and nature of this planet. It is interesting and
exciting to learn that life on this planet may be possible as its atmosphere is quite similar to Earth.
Q61. What have researches showed about the existence of life on Mars?
(a) They have hinted that there has been life on Mars till now
(b) They have hinted that there has been no life on Mars till now
(c) They have hinted that Mars is not inhabited with people
(d) All of the above
(e) Both (c) and (b)
Q62. According to a Research mentioned in the above passage, what was present on Mars during
the Noachian Period?
(a) Viscosity
(b) Horse Power
(c) Surface Tension
(d) Surface liquid water
Q63. With the help of which devices are scientists able to do researches on Mars, as mentioned in
the above passage?
(a) screwdrivers, rovers and rockets
(b) gears, spacecrafts and telescopes
(c) rovers, spacecrafts and telescopes
(d) parachutes, balloons and telescopes
Q64. Which is most OPPOSITE to the word PENETRATED given in BOLD?

(a) encroach
(b) insert
(c) retreat
(d) invade
(e) seep

Q65. Which is most SIMILAR to the word INHABITED give in BOLD?
(a) withdraw
(b) fierce
(c) disowned
(d) owned
(e) cult
Directions (66-75): In each of the following questions, a word has been used in sentences in THREE
different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentences in which the usage of the word is
CORRECT or APPROPRIATE.
Q66. REMATCH
(i) Although the defeated boxer wanted a rematch after being beaten, the now reigning champion refused
to face him in the ring again.
(ii) The losing contestant demanded a rematch since he believed that he was cheated and wanted a second
chance to prove himself.
(iii) Algebra has always been a major rematch for me, and I really have to struggle through it even when
I’m motivated.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (ii) and (i)
Q67. COWARDLY
(i) He had behaved like a cowardly recruit who mutilates himself to escape military service.
(ii) The Management was feeble and cowardly.
(iii) It was cowardly of you not to admit your mistake.
(a) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (i)
Q68. BREVITY
(i) The relief agency will brevity the food among several countries.
(ii) During the meeting, we must encourage brevity so everyone will have time to speak.
(iii) The president made his points with praiseworthy brevity.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (ii)

Q69. DISCREET
(i) If you want to be discreet, do not drive a flashy car.
(ii) He seemed an amiable discreet man.
(iii) The total sales of the company didn't discreet to more than a few million dollars.
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (iii) and (ii)
Q70. SYMPATHIZE
(i) I sympathize, but I don't know how to help.
(ii) Don't always rely on others to understand and sympathize.
(iii) Because my mother loves to wear bright colors, she never makes a sympathize arrival.
(a) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (i) and (ii)
Q71. SCRUTINY
(i) The colonel led a successful raid against a scrutiny base.
(ii) Young people are supposed to scrutiny against the Establishment.
(iii) Careful scrutiny of the company's accounts revealed a whole series of errors.
(a) Only (iii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (iii) and (i)
Q72. HARMONY
(i) The company is under harmony by the Inland Revenue.
(ii) This design aims for harmony of form and function.
(iii) We must try to live in peace and harmony with ourselves and
those around us.
(a) Only(i)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)

Q73. PUZZLING
(i) The spelling of English is often puzzling.
(ii) The choir sings in four-part puzzling.
(iii) This whole business is very puzzling.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Only (iii)
Q74. DEBUT
(i) She made her professional stage debut in Swan Lake.
(ii) Her new detective series will be her debut on the small screen.
(iii) Their debut album was recorded in 1991.
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (i)
Q75. EXTINCT
(i) Tomorrow's weather will be extinct with bright periods.
(ii) Dinosaurs have been extinct for millions of years.
(iii) England and Wales will start extinct.
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (i) and (iii)
Directions (76-90): In each of the following sentences, there is a blank space. Below each such
sentence, there are five options with one word each. Fill up the blank with the word that makes the
sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Q76. The loud cheers had -------------- out his shouts.

(a) baking
(b) brevity
(c) full
(d) drown
(e) gulp

Q77. So ---------------------- was the mood of the meeting that a decision was soon reached.
(a) cooling
(b) amiable
(c) nostalgia
(d) gasp
(e) grinning
Q78. The walls of the ------------------ are always scoured.

(a) furnace
(b) door
(c) chair
(d) furniture
(e) great
Q79. Just then the door opened and the cat --------------- out, with the dog chasing it.
(a) gazed
(b) mocked
(c) googled
(d) run
(e) whipped
Q80. I signed a ----------------- against the proposed closure of the local hospital today.
(a) dealing
(b) court
(c) petition
(d) dealer
(e) mockery
Q81. Payments will be made for a ----------------------- number of months.

(a) quantity
(b) speculation
(c) specified
(d) quality
(e) gratified
Q82. Because we cannot always be honest with ----------------------, sometimes we need others to help
us see our inherent flaws.
(a) themselves
(b) oneself
(c) yourselves
(d) ourselves
(e) neither

Q83. Everyone knows jumping out of an airplane is an ----------------- that comes with an inherent
risk.
(a) all
(b) authorization
(c) force
(d) amplitude
(e) activity
Q84. The person who returned the stolen necklace to the police showed a great deal of ---------------.
(a) probity
(b) honest
(c) lethargy
(d) kind
(e) shameless
Q85. The effects of the Chinese invention of gunpowder are ---------------------, never to be reversed
or forgotten as long as humanity persists.
(a) ever
(b) everlasting
(c) never
(d) foreseen
(e) henceforth
Q86. While I am naturally shy, my sister has the ---------------- ability to charm everyone she meets.
(a) own
(b) inhabitant
(c) inheritance
(d) talented
(e) innate
Q87. The audience was ---------------- moved by the speaker’s tragic tale of her life as an orphan from
childhood.
(a) vastly
(b) hugely
(c) greatly
(d) mesmerized
(e) largely
Q88. The opposing football team was totally -------------------- by

our far more skilled and experienced players.
(a) goose
(b) loose
(c) lost
(d) conquered
(e) brave

Q89. Only a diamond expert can see the ------------ difference between a real diamond and a fake one.
(a) glue
(b) notorious
(c) grind
(d) subtle
(e) brightened
Q90. The scientist had a pragmatic approach towards --------------- with the water crisis.
(a) cause
(b) deal
(c) dealing
(d) handling
(e) casting
Directions (91-105): In each of the questions given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which
is then followed by five options which then try to decipher its meaning. Choose the option which
gives the correct meaning of the phrases.
Q91. A hot potato

(a) Speak of an issue to mock someone.
(b) To burn a potato field
(c) Heat potatoes
(d) Speak of an issue which no one talks about.
(e) Speak of an issue which many people are talking about and which is usually disputed.
Q92. Actions speak louder than words

(a) People’s intentions can be judged by how they sing.
(b) People's intentions can be judged better by what they do than what they say.
(c) People’s intentions can be judged better by how they depict their emotions.
(d) People who love to write can speak well
Q93. At the drop of a hat

(a) Without any hats
(b) Without any emotions
(c) Without any hesitation
(d) Without any loopholes
Q94. Be glad to see the back of

(a) To love cooking
(b) To be happy to see one’s loved ones
(c) Be happy when a person is back
(d) Be happy when a person leaves.

Q95. Best of both worlds
(a) To visit two different countries
(b) To have to move back and forth
(c) To have all the advantages
(d) To love travelling
Q96. Can't judge a book by its cover

(a) Cannot judge something primarily on appearance.
(b) Cannot judge paper by cover
(c) Can judge a person by his appearance
(d) A good book should always have a good looking cover
Q97. Cross that bridge when you come to it

(a) Deal with a problem as soon as you face it
(b) Deal with a problem if and when it becomes necessary, not before.
(c) Cross the bridge slowly
(d) Deal with a problem patiently
Q98. Devil's Advocate

(a) To be defensive
(b) To fear a devil
(c) To provoke a devil
(d) To fight with a criminal
(e) To present a counter argument
Q99. Don't count your chickens before the eggs have hatched
(a) To collect eggs of a chicken
(b) To make false promises
(c) To make future plans before something has even happened
(d) Don't make plans for something that might not happen
Q100. Feel a bit under the weather

(a) Feeling slightly ill.
(b) To dance in the rain
(c) To be sleepy
(d) To cry

Q101. Give the benefit of the doubt
(a) To make false promises
(b) To give false hope
(c) Believe someone's statement, without proof.
(d) Believe someone’s statement, with proof.
Q102. Hear it on the grapevine

(a) To hear rumors
(b) To collect grapes from a grapevine
(c) To eat grapes
(d) To hear praises about oneself
Q103. Jump on the bandwagon

(a) To jump continuously without stopping
(b) To follow an army of soldiers
(c) To sit on the bandwagon
(d) Join a popular trend or activity.
Q104. Let sleeping dogs lie

(a) Do not shout at dogs
(b) Do not throw stones at dogs
(c) Do not disturb a situation as it is
(d) Do not solve problems on your own
Q105. Not playing with a full deck

(a) Someone who has failed earlier in the game of cards
(b) Someone who does not have a full deck
(c) Someone who lacks stamina
(d) Someone who lacks intelligence.
Directions (106-120): In each of the following questions a grammatically correct and meaningful
sentence is given and four words are put in BOLD. One of these four words may be misspelt or
contextually wrong. You have to identify the misspelt or contextually wrong word and choose the
appropriate option as your answer. If all the words are correctly spelt, then mark ‘No error’ as your
answer.
Q106. Eric is a daft old man who is always mumbling senseless things.
(a) daft
(b) who
(c) mumbling
(d) things
(e) No error

Q107. The poor orphan’s life hasn’t been a bed of roose or easy by any means.
(a) poor
(b) life
(c) roose
(d) any
(e) No error
Q108. If you want to have a health diet, you need to include both fruits and vegetables in almost every
meal you eat.
(a) health
(b) include
(c) vegetable
(d) you
(e) No error
Q109. I just wanted to complimnt you for the wonderful speech you gave tonight.
(a) wanted
(b) complimnt
(c) wonderful
(d) gave
(e) No error
Q110. The elderly man had a preferense for aged bourbon and hand rolled Cuban cigars.
(a) elderly
(b) preferense
(c) bourbon
(d) rolled
(e) No error
Q111. The children were asked to sit and watch the others play until it was their turn.
(a) children
(b) asked
(c) watch
(d) play
(e) No error
Q112. The buildings on the Canal Street were structured with elegance and style, setting them apart from
other less fashionale structures.
(a) buildings
(b) structured
(c) them
(d) fashionale
(e) No error

Q113. The incompetent worker was harshly judged by his coworkers when he received an unnatural
promotion.
(a) incompetent
(b) judged
(c) received
(d) unnatural
(e) No error
Q114. An employment outreach was needed in the poor town whom so many people had a difficult time
finding a job.
(a) employment
(b) needed
(c) whom
(d) difficult
(e) No error
Q115. Movers used a rope to secure the furniture being transported in the bacc of the truck.
(a) movers
(b) rope
(c) furniture
(d) bacc
(e) No error
Q116. When I create a chracter for a book, I destine him to achieve certain goals, have certain flaws, and
experience certain things.
(a) chracter
(b) destine
(c) certain
(d) experience
(e) No error
Q117. The customer was full of loyalty and refused to grin at any store other than her local supermarket.
(a) customer
(b) loyalty
(c) grin
(d) local
(e) No error
Q118. Members of the group decided to rebel after seeing that no one was glide to their ideas.
(a) group
(b) rebel
(c) seeing
(d) glide
(e) No error

Q119. Air traffic controllers direct planes so that they move about safely in the sky.
(a) controllers
(b) planes
(c) they
(d) safely
(e) No error
Q120. A light was used to alert drivers when it was their time to go and stop others from venturing out
into the traffic.
(a) used
(b) drivers
(c) and
(d) venturing
(e) No error
Directions (121-125): In the passage given below there are blanks which are numbered from 121
to 125. They are to be filled with the options given below the passage against each of the respective
numbers. Find out the appropriate word in each case which can most suitably complete the
sentence without altering its meaning. If none of the words given in options fits in, mark ‘None of
these’ as your answer choice.
Climate change is a change in the -------121------- conditions on the Earth. This is caused due to various
internal and external ------122------ including solar radiation, variation in the Earth’s orbit, volcanic
eruptions, plate tectonics, etc. Climate change, in fact, has ------123------ a cause of concern particularly
over the last few decades. Change in the pattern of the ------124------ on the Earth has become a global
cause of concern. There are many factors that lead to climate change and this change ------125----- the life
on the Earth in various different ways.
Q121. (a) magnet

(b) climatic
(c) magnify
(d) partial
(e) None of these
Q122. (a) reason

(b) charges
(c) ransom
(d) factors
(e) None of these

Q123. (a) reasons
(b) becoming
(c) become
(d) gone
(e) None of these
Q124. (a) climate

(b) heat
(c) water
(d) oxygen
(e) None of these
Q125. (a) effect

(b) affects
(c) affecting
(d) also
(e) None of these
Directions (126-130): Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C or D) of this part
is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice.
Q126. Rush-hour traffic usually (A)/slowed the worker down, but (B)/ today she moves through
(C)/the streets quickly. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q127. Some workers have (A)/ been asked to train (B)/the newcomers of how (C)/ to use the
machines. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q128. Many think it (A)/is difficult too train (B)/a dog to sit, but my (C)/pet is a quick learner. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Q129. With nowhere to (A)/really go and nothing to (B)/do, I decided to just roam (C)/around the
town today. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q130. The fleet off naval (A)/ships sailed the Baltic Sea (B)/and watched for any (C)/unusual
activity. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Directions (131-135): In each of the questions given below a phrase/idiom is given in BOLD and
five options are given below it. You have to choose the option which best describes the meaning of
the phrase/idiom.
Q131. Dodged a bullet

(a) Barely escaped a favourable situation
(b) Barely escaped a tiger
(c) Barely escaped from a dangerous/disastrous situation
(d) Barely escaped a bullet
(e) None of these
Q132. Catch-22
(a) A situation in which it’s impossible to succeed because of conflicting rules or conditions
(b) A situation in which it is possible to succeed because of conflicting rules or conditions
(c) Missing an opportunity
(d) Catching number 22
(e) None of these
Q133. Grasping at Straws

(a) Collecting straws
(b) When one has lost all hopes of succeeding in a task
(c) When you’re desperate and you’re pursuing even the slightest hope or possibility
(d) When one is left with no choice but to deal with the worst
(e) None of these

Q134. In Dire Straits
(a) Missing out on opportunities
(b) Standing at a Strait
(c) In a very pleasant situation
(d) In a very serious and bad situation
(e) None of these
Q135. Last Resort

(a) Last movie to watch
(b) Last restaurant to eat at
(c) Last place to travel
(d) Last chance
(e) None of these
Directions (136-140) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Privatization is basically the process of shifting public sector units in the hands of private owners.
Privatization in India mainly started post- independence. Many developed countries such as France,
Germany and United Kingdom had already tried hands at it and it had proved to be successful in most cases.
There are a number of reasons owing to which the government of a country takes the decision to privatize
certain sectors.
Some of these include lowering the burden of the government, coping up with the financial losses,
providing better services and enhancing the overall customer experience. While certain countries have
benefited from privatization others have failed drastically. India has seen a mixed result. While some
industries in India are doing a good job post privatization, others have dipped the quality of services and
raised the prices.
There is an on-going debate over whether the government should privatize the public- sector industries or
run them on their own. Different people have different views on this and the government has its own take.
However, the truth is that privatization has its share of advantages as well as disadvantages. The impact of
privatization has been negative in certain cases but it has also yielded its set of positive results.
Q136. In reference to which of the following countries has the author mentioned about
privatization?
(a) France
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Germany
(d) Kenya
(e) Only (a), (b) and (c)
Q137. What advantages of privatization are mentioned in the passage?

(a) Enhancing the overall customer experience
(b) Providing better services
(c) Coping up with the financial losses
(d) Lowering the burden of the government

Q138. What can be the most suitable title of the passage?
(a) Privatization is a curse
(b) Privatization- A boon or a bane
(c) Privatization- the shifting of the country’s economy
(d) Private or Public sector
Q139. Which is the most SIMILAR to the word DIPPED given in BOLD?
(a) temper
(b) dried
(c) drenched
(d) pompous
(e) oily
Q140. Which is most OPPOSITE to the word YIELDED given in BOLD?

(a) turn
(b) provide
(c) give
(d) deny
(e) allow
Q141. A fleet of military ships patrol the waterways on the --------------------- for enemy attacks.
(a) fire
(b) searched
(c) reaching
(d) lookout
(e) None of these
Q142. Telling the kids a story about Betty and Lily who lived in an ----------------------- world with
dragons and princesses excited the kids.
(a) imaginary
(b) occasional
(c) emergency
(d) ice
(e) None of these

Q143. The ------------------------ invention allowed farmers to process cotton ten times faster than
before the revolutionary discovery.
(a) manifest
(b) goofy
(c) breakthrough
(d) reality
(e) None of these
Q144. I usually spend Saturdays ---------------- reclining in my favorite chair while reading a good
mystery book.
(a) restfully
(b) rest
(c) wise
(d) lethargy
(e) None of these
Q145. The new lawyer will ask the judge for more time to --------------- himself with the facts of the
case.
(a) grin
(b) acquiring
(c) acquaint
(d) glue
(e) None of these
Q146. Mohit will ask the apartment manager ---------- acquaint her with the layout of the property.
(a) too
(b) for
(c) to
(d) with
(e) None of these
Q147. Usually the only ---------------------- for teenagers going to school is to socialize with their
friends.
(a) alloy
(b) guiding
(c) motivation
(d) annoying
(e) None of these
Q148. Motivation to succeed should be a common feeling, but

sometimes young people ------------- to be encouraged.
(a) needs
(b) need
(c) requiring
(d) dodge
(e) None of these

Q149. Stroking the puppy gently, the woman ------------ to make him feel more at ease.
(a) have
(b) require
(c) try
(d) tried
(e) None of these
Q150. The wind ------------ gently and rocked the hammock back and forth.
(a) miss
(b) bliss
(c) blew
(d) guide
(e) None of these
Directions (151-165): In the following questions two columns are given containing three
sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column
the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not
connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and
contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s)
in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination or none of them
connects, mark (e), i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
Q151.
A. The students must abide by D. for his hard working and dedication.
B. The dentist scaled E. the classroom rules or else suffer the
consequences.
C. We are honored to present this award to F. and polished my teeth.
our esteemed colleague
(a) A-E and B-F
(b) A-E
(c) C-F
(d) C-D
Q152.
A. It was painful to listen D. newspaper will printing its final edition
next month.
B. After winning several international E. him to another office.
awards, the esteemed
C. His employer transferred F. to his pathetic excuses.
(a) B-E
(b) A-E
(c) A-F and C-E
(d) B-D

Q153.
A. The ownership of that house D. occasion for children.
B. The end user must have an Internet E. was transferred too somebody.
browser capable of
C. Christmas is a joyful F. accept and playing the applet.
(a) A-E
(b) C-D
(c) B-F
(d) A-E and B-F
Q154.
A. I resent his D. back over the fence.
B. He hired a workman E. interference on my work
C. My friend threw the ball F. to repair the fence.
(a) A-D
(b) B-F
(c) A-E
(d) B-F and C-D
Q155.
A. I will accept the job offer D. your criticism.
B. I bitter resent E. soaked at the soil.
C. The water F. if the salary of enough to live on.
(a) A- F and B-D
(b) B-D
(c) A-F
(d) C-E
Q156.
A. The crust of the D. crust of the surface of the road.
B. Churchgoers praise God during the E. bread is burnt.
service by singing songs
C. The mud had formed a thick F. and expressing there love through
prayers.
(a) C-F and B-D
(b) A-E
(c) B-D
(d) C-F

Q157.
A. The concert is a tribute to the men and D. upwards to form a crust.
B. The teacher began to praise the student E. women of the military who protect our
nation.
C. Less dense substances move F. for his excellent work and raved about
her writing.
(a)B-F
(b) A-E and C-D
(c) A-F
(d) A-D
Q158.
A. Modesty helps one D. he swore fealty too the nation.
B. A relation between the number of traffic E. to went forward.
stops and reduction
C. When the president took his oath, F. off accidents could not be proven through
the data.
(a) A-E
(b) C-D
(c) A-E and C-D
(d) B-F
Q159.
A. The worst men often D. advice about investing into the stock market.
B. I called my broker for E. to his vision, he fired her for her lack of fealty.
C. Since the politician didn’t believe his F. give the best advice.
campaign manager was dedicated
(a) C-E
(b) A-F
(c) B-D
(d) A-F and C-E
Q160.
A. I stared at the blank paper, not D. some good advice.
B. The knight swore E. knowing how too start the letter.
C. Steven gave me F. fealty to the king and him kingdom.
(a) A-E
(b) B-F and A-E
(c) C-D
(d) B-F

Q161.
A. You can't attach a D. to be less reactive and more proactive.
B. The watch was inscribed E. monetary value to loyal and honest
friends.
C. I want our organization F. with her name.
(a) B-F
(b) A-E
(c) A-E, B-F and C-D
(d) C-D
Q162.
A. He is an educated, amiable D. always more off an extrovert
B. The company compensated E. and decent man.
C. Her sister was F. her for the extra work.
(a) A-E and B-F
(b) C-E
(c) A-E
(d) B-F
Q163.
A. Promising to be honorable and honest, D. perhaps I am an extrovert.
B. Many believed that the president was E. the new mayor tried to convince
honorable, but he everyone that he was not a crook.
C. I take it back, I think F. was actually making unethical deals
instead of honest ones.
(a) C-D
(b) A-E
(c) A-E, C-D and B-F
(d) B-F
Q164.
A. Most people regard Mother Teresa D. my parents by dedicated my
performance to them
B. I expressed my adoration for E. of the picture her daughter drew for her.
C. She smiled in adoration F. as one of the greatest saints of all time.
(a) A-F
(b) B-D
(c) A-F and C-E
(d) C-D

Q165.
A. The popular newspaper has received D. not comply with my religion, I will not
international obey them.
B. There is a special kind of E. acclaim and several national awards.
C. Because the rules do F. devotion that bonds a mother and child.
(a) A-E and C-D
(b) B-F
(c) C-D
(d) A-F
Directions (166-180): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence which must be
filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given .i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit
into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences.
Q166. To say that getting a home loan with a bad credit is a small challenge ---------------------
understatement.
(a) would been a huge
(b) will been a huge
(c) would be a huge
(d) were be a huge
(e) None of these
Q167. Although she was beautiful, the shy maiden ------------------ the king’s attention.
(a) felt worthy off
(b) felt unworthy of
(c) feel worth of
(d) felt worth of
(e) None of these
Q168. The ---------------- cafeteria began when one student threw his lunch at another student.
(a) chaos in the
(b) chaos into the
(c) chaos in them
(d) chaos in a
(e) None of these
Q169. I commonly see unsettled squirrels ------------------------

running up and down the trees without a thought in their minds.
(a) roam around
(b) roamed around
(c) roaming around
(d) roaming surround
(e) None of these

Q170. The bulk of the leftover food will go to the food pantry, but some ------------------------ thrown
away.
(a) will have too be
(b) will have to be
(c) would had to be
(d) will have to been
(e) None of these
Q171. The objective of my resume --------------------- position in the company’s quality assurance
department.
(a) is to obtained a
(b) was too obtain a
(c) is too obtain a
(d) is to obtain a
(e) None of these
Q172. The objective of the video game ----------------------------- witch’s henchmen and rescue the
princess.
(a) was to eliminated the
(b) is too eliminate the
(c) is to eliminate the
(d) were to eliminate the
(e) None of these
Q173. I suspect that it will rain tomorrow, but I -----------------------------.

(a) had no proved
(b) have no prove
(c) had no proof
(d) have no proof
(e) None of these
Q174. The loud tones of machinery ----------------------------things to disrupt the otherwise quiet calm
of the forest.
(a) were the only
(b) was the only
(c) was that only
(d) were that only
(e) None of these
Q175. The disloyal soldier sold secrets to the Russians -------------------------money.

(a) onto exchange for
(b) into exchange for
(c) in exchange for
(d) in exchange in
(e) None of these

Q176. The gladiator slew his competition with a thrust ------------
------------.
(a) of him sword
(b) about his sword
(c) off his sword
(d) of his sword
(e) None of these
Q177. The shallow woman couldn’t go longer than twenty

minutes without ------------------------------- of her purse.
(a) taken her mirror of
(b) taking her mirror out
(c) taking his mirror in
(d) taking she mirror out
(e) None of these
Q178. The child was envious of his friends ---------------------------money to buy ice cream.
(a) who had received
(b) which had receive
(c) that had receive
(d) who had receiving
(e) None of these
Q179. The toddler’s silent protest let his mother ------------------------------- pleased with the choice of
lamb for dinner.
(a) knew that him was not
(b) know them he was not
(c) know that he was not
(d) know that him were not
(e) None of these
Q180. Because Jim is a shallow person, he tends to judge people by the ----------------------------spend
on their cars.
(a) amounting of money they
(b) amount off money they
(c) amount of money they
(d) amount of money them
(e) None of these

Q181. The investigation concluded that the murder was due to an ------------------------ brother who
believed that he had not received enough inheritance money.
(a) temper
(b) anger
(c) envious
(d) exaggerate
Q182. It is always ----------------- to agree on the ends than on the means.

(a) herd
(b) although
(c) had
(d) easier
Q183. Digging for gold ----------------------- its complexity when no one was becoming wealthy.
(a) revealed
(b) relied
(c) reimbursed
(d) rocked
Q184. Her room was in such a disordered state that she had to dig ----------------- mounds of dirty
clothes and textbooks to find her cellphone.
(a) mentioned
(b) although
(c) through
(d) searched
Q185. Mike could not help but fume when his partner got all the ---------------- on their project when
he did all the work.
(a) way
(b) credit
(c) debt
(d) loan

Q186. Because he was so bored and had nothing to do, Jeff ended
up --------------------- asleep on the couch.
(a) fell
(b) lie
(c) sleeping
(d) falling
Q187. The football coach ignored the fact that his star player was
illiterate and had never read --------------------other than a picture
book.
(a) everything
(b) something
(c) anything
(d) doubtful
Q188. After a week of ----------------- efforts, the rescuers gave up the search for the missing woman.
(a) doubt
(b) nomadic
(c) fruitless
(d) rest
Q189. People argue with each other all the time, generally because they -------------------- on some
important matter.
(a) agree
(b) disagree
(c) cult
(d) collide
Q190. The children ---------------- to waste food and never eat half of what they order.
(a) desire
(b) remind
(c) tend
(d) often

Directions (191-195): In each of the following sentences, there are two blank spaces. Below each
sentence, there are five options and each blank is to be filled with the pair of words given below to
make the sentence correct. Fill up the sentences with the correct words.
Q191. There is total -------------------- of an understanding that the current form and goal of economic
growth is -------------------- unsustainable.
(a) calamity, high
(b) despair, deeply
(c) absence, inherently
(d) guide, slight
Q192. Deciphering how the fruit fly brain works has ----------- a significant branch of study in the
biological sciences for -------------- decades now.
(a) been, several
(b) be, too
(c) bought, many
(d) would, might
Q193. The -------------------- of fruit fly to bitter and sweet tasting material ---------------- significantly.
(a) admiration, distinct
(b) reaction, different
(c) actions, same
(d) reactions, differ
Q194. The scandal will ------------- plague the politician’s career for -------------- to come.
(a) mostly, decade
(b) surely, years
(c) drastic, year
(d) damage, months
Q195. Mice really -------------- me, so I will scream and cry with ---------------- if one comes near me.
(a) scare, fear
(b) scares, tears
(c) scared, fearsome
(d) far, screw

(A) Many people get badly injured while others lose their life as a result of road rage in India.
(B) The growing cases of road rage in India have become a cause of concern.
(C) These cases are not restricted to a particular region but are reported across the country.
(D) The bad conditions of the Indian roads, poor traffic management, rise in noise pollution on the roads
and erratic weather conditions of the country are said to attribute to road rage.
(E) Numerous such cases are registered every day but nothing much is done about them.
Q196. Which is the penultimate step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q197. Which is the FIRST step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q198. Which is the THIRD step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q199. Which is the LAST step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q200. Which is the SECOND step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

(A) It occurs because of better job prospects in other countries as compared to one’s own country.
(B) Brain Drain is a loss for the country, organization and industry as it takes away the most talented
individuals of the lot.
(C) Besides, brain drain may even occur at industrial or organizational levels when there is mass exodus
from a company or industry as the other offers a better pay and other benefits.
(D) Migration of a significant number of educated and talented people from a country is referred to as Brain
Drain.
(E) The term, brain drain is often used to describe the emigration of scientists, doctors, engineers and other
high profile professionals such as those in the banking and finance sector.
Q201. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) E
(e) D
Q202. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) E
(e) D
Q203. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) E
(e) D
Q204. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) E
(e) D
Q205. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) E
(e) D

(A) The inculcation of secularism in the constitution brings along many other fundamental rights of the
citizens of the country such as the right to expression and religious freedom.
(B) The implementation of secularism has kept this issue in check by working independently from the
religious groups and giving out equal freedom to all the religions and castes.
(C) Secularism here ensures the proper and fair functioning of the government meanwhile providing all
the religious groups with the rights to practice the religion of their choice and express their opinions and
beliefs freely without fear or hesitation.
(D) There have been certain instances in history where the majority groups have tried to establish their
dominance over various minority groups and sometimes also on the government.
(E) India being home to people of a large number of religions, it is more prone to religious conflicts and
other political and social damage.
Q206. What is the SECOND step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q207. What is the LAST step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q208. What is the penultimate step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q209. What is the FIRST step after rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q210. What is the THIRD step after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (211-215) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Traffic jam occurs when movement of vehicles is hampered at a particular place for some reasons over a
certain period of time. If the number of vehicles plying on a street or road is increased than the maximum
capacity it is build to sustain, it results in traffic jams. Traffic jam or traffic congestion is an everyday affair
in big cities. It is the result of growing population and the increase in use of personal, public as well as
commercial transport vehicles.
The congestion mostly occurs on the main roads during peak hours when people (A) to work or on their
way back home. But there is no fix time and an unprecedented surge in the number of vehicles on roads
have made traffic jams anytime affair. The Industrial development in the recent years has only aided to the
problem of traffic jam by increasing number of on road transport vehicles.
The loss of the valuable time caused by the traffic jams is not at all good for a Nation’s economical growth.
In addition, it results in more wastage of fuel by stationary vehicles only contributing more to the
environmental pollution. There is also an increased possibility for road mishaps as the vehicles need to
stand or move in close proximity to each other and also because of aggressive driving by frustrated drivers.
Overall, the time wasted in traffic jams also leads to the economic loss of the country. Various measures
need to be taken to control -------------------(B) and further develop the public transport system. People
should follow the traffic rules and use public transport when possible.
Q211. What is the main reason for traffic congestion according to the passage?
(a) growing population
(b) increase in use of personal, public and commercial transport vehicles.
(c) increase in the use of biogas
(d) Only (a) and (b)
(e) All (a), (b) and (c)
Q212. What should come in place on A given in BOLD to make the sentence in the passage grammatically
and contextually meaningful?
(a) commute
(b) learn
(c) went
(d) attract
(e) carnage

Q213. Which of the following options given below should fill the blank (B), to make the sentence in
the passage contextually and grammatically meaningful?
(a) the growth in carbon emission
(b) the nomadic way of living
(c) the trafficking congestion
(d) the traffic congestion
Q214. Which of the following is SIMILAR to the word surge given in BOLD?
(a) decrease
(b) swell
(c) decline
(d) deplete
(e) differ
Q215. Which of the following is OPPOSITE to the word mishaps given in BOLD?
(a) disaster
(b) calamity
(c) boon
(d) accident
(e) tsunami
Directions (216-120): In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences
/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the
sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect
with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the
sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none
of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination or none of them connects, mark (E),
i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
Q216.
A. I was taken aback by the server D. wipe out the whole city within a matter
of minute.
B. When I’m sad, I close my eyes and E. rude comment about my hair.
C. Who would imagine that a tsunami would F. imagine happier times to lift my spirits.
(a) B-D
(b) A-E and C-D
(c) B-F
(d) A-E

Q217.
A. The restaurant has a diverse menu D. the trivia contest will covering a wide range of topics.
B. Each news station tells their own E. that includes entrees from all over the world.
C. The diverse questions asked during F. version of the same story.
(a) A-E
(b) B-D
(c) C-D
(d) B-F and A-E
Q218.
A. The teacher agreed to let us watch a D. the number of programs offered to county residents.
B. Budget cuts will surely affect E. affect his business because he has a loyal customer base.
C. According to the store owner, online sales F. movie instead of making us write another boring paper.
won’t greatly
(a) C-E
(b) A-F
(c) A-F, C-E and B-D
(d) C-D
Q219.
A. When the restaurant’s low health D. grades, he will never have missed his
inspection score is posted lectures.
B. If the boy had known skipping class E. the emergent room every night.
would negatively affect his
C. We typically see 200 patients in F. online, it will adversely affecting business.
(a) A-F
(b) A-F and C-E
(c) B-D
(d) C-E
Q220.
A. We can only guess how old grandmother D. was coined, people simply called it resting.
B. The reporter will continue her inquiry until E. is since she look young and won’t tell her age.
C. Thirty years before the term “chillax” F. she has all the facts of the case.
(a) B-F and C-D
(b) A-E
(c) A-D
(d) B-E

Directions (221-225): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence which must be
filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below .i.e. one of the sentences/words can
be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences
Q221. Sometimes students ---------------------------- finding the tone of a story because it is hard for
them to understand the writer’s thoughts.
(a) having a difficult time
(b) had a difficult time
(c) have a difficult time
(d) have a difficulty time
Q222. A country without toleration for dissidence -------------------------------- tyrannical rule where
everyone must follow the same ideals.
(a) is nothing more than a
(b) is not many than a
(c) is nothing more than an
(d) was nothing more than an
Q223. The surgery is urgent as the patient ------------------------ through the night without it.
(a) will not living
(b) will not live
(c) would not living
(d) would was not live
Q224. I am no good when it comes to answering a riddle, as they are always ------------------------------
and I prefer things to be said simply.
(a) worded so intricated
(b) wording so intricately
(c) word so intricately
(d) worded so intricately
Q225. When everyone was invited to play basketball, Derrick

decided to wait on the sidelines and cheer for his friends ----------
-----------------------.
(a) instead off play
(b) instead of playing
(c) instead off playing
(d) instead of played

Solutions
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. The order of the sentences after arrangement is ACEDB.
Global warming is caused by an acute heating of the earth’s atmosphere as a result of energy being trapped.
Greenhouse gasses such as carbon dioxide and methane can cause the atmosphere to build up, leading to
solar radiation becoming trapped within the earth like within a greenhouse, hence the name. Once these
greenhouse gasses are released, they can contribute to the buildup of the atmosphere and work to trap
more solar radiation within the earth. Global warming is also largely a result of the release of methane from
cracks in the earth, landfill sites and through natural gas leaks. Cattle and other animals that produce
methane can also contribute significantly to global warming, much of this has been a problem because of
human animal farming which produces hundreds of cattle for the meat industry.
S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. The order of the sentence after arrangement is ACEDB.
S3. Ans.(d)
S4. Ans.(a)
S5. Ans.(e)
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. The order of the sentence after arrangement is ADCGEBF.
Deforestation means cutting down the forests that are home to the large chunks of oxygen giving trees,
plants and numerous wild animals and birds. Human beings are cutting down forests around the world for
various purposes. One of the main purposes of cutting vast forest areas is to use the land for agriculture.
With the growing population there is a need to grow more crops to satisfy the demands of the people. This
can only be done if we have enough land for agriculture. In an attempt to expand the agriculture sector and
meet the demands of the people, we humans are cutting the forests. Forests are also being cut to build
towns and cities to accommodate people and for setting up offices and factor.
S7. Ans.(e)
S8. Ans.(d)
S9. Ans.(b)
S10. Ans.(a)

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. The order of the sentence after arrangement is BDAEC.
Climate change refers to a change in the global climate pattern. Our planet has witnessed changes in the
climatic pattern over the centuries. However, the changes that have occurred from the mid to the late 20th
century are more apparent. The level of carbon dioxide has increased exceedingly in the atmosphere and
this has led to major change in the climate on the Earth. Besides, there are several natural forces such as
solar radiation, variation in the orbit and volcanic eruptions that have been influencing the climatic
conditions of the Earth since centuries.
S12. Ans.(d)
S13. Ans.(a)
S14. Ans.(e)
S15. Ans.(c)
S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BACD.
S17. Ans.(a)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BCDA.
S18. Ans.(c)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is CDAB.
S19. Ans.(a)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BCAD.
S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BDCA.
S21. Ans.(b)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is ACBD.
S22. Ans.(a)
S23. Ans.(d)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BADC.

S24. Ans.(c)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BADC.
S25. Ans.(a)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is ABDC.
S26. Ans.(b)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BDAC.
S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BCDA.
S28. Ans.(b)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is ADBC.
S29. Ans.(d)
Sol. The arrangement of the sentence is BDAC.
S30. Ans.(a)
S31. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Artificial Intelligence’ is the correct option here. Refer the first paragraph of the passage.
S32. Ans.(e)
Sol. All of the above are correct. Refer to the second paragraph of the passage.
S33. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘When its mechanical brain is fed by humans’ is correct here. Refer to the third paragraph of the
passage.
S34. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Wisely’ means in a way that shows experience, knowledge, and good judgement. Thus, intelligently
means the same.
S35. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Limited’ means restricted in size, amount, or extent; few, small, or short. Thus, ‘unbounded’ means
something with no limitations and is opposite in meaning.
S36. Ans.(c)
Sol. The order of sentences after rearrangement is CADEB.
Rain water harvesting refers to the collection and storage of water for reuse. It can be used for various
purposes later rather than allowing it to run off the gutters. It can be used for irrigation, gardens, domestic
purposes and livestock. It can be used for irrigation, gardens, domestic purposes and livestock. Rain water
harvesting improves the supply of water throughout the year.

S37. Ans.(a)
Sol. The order of sentences after rearrangement is CADEB
S38. Ans.(d)
S39. Ans.(e)
S40. Ans.(b)
S41. Ans.(a)
Sol. A-F and B-D are correct options here which meaningful sentences.
S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. A-E, B-F and C-D make meaningful sentences.
S43. Ans.(d)
Sol. C-D makes a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
S44. Ans.(c)
Sol. B-D and C-E make contextually and grammatically correct sentences.
S45. Ans.(b)
Sol. B-F makes a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
S46. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Agents’ is the correct word here. ‘Agents’ means a person or thing that takes an active role or produces
a specified effect.
S47. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Maintenance’ is the correct word here and it means the process of preserving a condition or situation
or the state of being preserved.
S48. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Ploughed’ is the correct word here and it means (of an area of land) having had the earth turned up
with a plough, especially before sowing.
S49. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Overflowing’ is the correct word here and it means flooding or flowing over a surface or area.
S50. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Carried’ is the correct word here.

S51. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Become’ is contextually and grammatically correct.
S52. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Decayed’ is the correct word here and it means being rotted or
decomposed.
S53. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Protect’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S54. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Properly’ is the correct word here and it means in the right way.
S55. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Measures’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S56. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Healthy’ is grammatically and contextually correct here and is most suitable as the reference is being
made to a healthy lifestyle.
S57. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Whether’ is the most suitable word here for the blank.
S58. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Aware’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S59. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Compromise’ is the correct word here. It means the expedient acceptance of standards that are lower
than is desirable.
S60. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Initiate’ is correct word here and it means to start.
S61. Ans.(e)
Sol. According to the first paragraph of the passage, both (c) and (d) are true.
S62. Ans.(d)
Sol. According to the passage, Surface liquid water was found during the Noachian Period on Mars.
S63. Ans.(c)
Sol. According to the passage, rovers, spacecrafts and telescopes have been used by scientists for
researches.

S64. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Penetrate’ means to go into or through (something) and ‘retreat’ means an act of moving back or
withdrawing.
S65. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Inhabited’ means of (a person, animal, or group) live in or occupy (a place or environment).
S66. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Rematch’ means to attempt again. Thus, Only (ii) and (i) are correct.
S67. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Cowardly’ means lacking courage. All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
S68. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Brevity’ means concise and exact use of words in writing or speech. Both (ii) and (iii) are correct.
S69. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Discreet’ means careful and prudent in one's speech or actions, especially in order to keep something
confidential or to avoid embarrassment. Only (i) is correct.
S70. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Sympathize’ means feel or express sympathy. Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
S71. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Scrutiny’ means critical observation or examination. Only (iii) is correct.
S72. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Harmony’ means to live in unity and co-operation. Both (ii) and (iii) are correct.
S73. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Puzzling’ means confusing. Both (i) and (iii) are correct.
S74. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Debut’ means perform in public for the first time. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
S75. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Extinct’ means something that no longer exists. Only (ii) is correct.
S76. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Drown’ is the correct option here. ‘Drown’ means be overwhelmed by a large amount of something.
S77. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Amiable’ is the correct option here and it means having or displaying a friendly and pleasant manner.

S78. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Furnace’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S79. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Whipped’ is the correct option here and it means to run.
S80. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Petition’ is the correct option here and it means a formal written
request, typically one signed by many people, appealing to authority
in respect of a particular cause.
S81. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Specified’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S82. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Ourselves’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S83. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Activity’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S84. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Probity’ is the correct word here and it means to show honesty in one’s work.
S85. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Everlasting’ is the correct option here and it means something that lasts forever.
S86. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Innate’ is the correct option here and it means inborn or natural.
S87. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Greatly’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S88. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Conquered’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S89. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Subtle’ is the correct option here and it means so delicate or precise as to be difficult to analyze or
describe.
S90. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Dealing’ is the correct option here. With ‘towards’ we use the ‘-ing’ form of the verb.

S91. Ans.(e)
Sol. Option (e) is the correct meaning of the idiom: A hot potato
S92. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Actions speak louder than words
S93. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) is the correct meaning of the idiom: At the drop of a hat
S94. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Be glad to see the back of
S95. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Best of both worlds
S96. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Can't judge a book by its cover
S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Cross that bridge when you come to it
S98. Ans.(e)
Sol. Option (e) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Devil's Advocate
S99. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Don't count your chickens before the eggs have
hatched
S100. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Feel a bit under the weather
S101. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Give the benefit of the doubt
S102. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) is the correct meaning of the idiom: . Hear it on the grapevine
S103. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Jump on the bandwagon
S104. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Let sleeping dogs lie

S105. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d) is the correct meaning of the idiom: Not playing with a full deck
S106. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error
S107. Ans.(c)
Sol. It should be ‘roses’ in place of ‘roose’.
S108. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Health’ is contextually wrong. It should be ‘healthy’.
S109. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘compliment’.
S110. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘preference’.
S111. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error
S112. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘fashionable’.
S113. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Unnatural’ is contextually wrong. It should be ‘unearned’.
S114. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Whom’ is contextually wrong. It should be ‘since’.
S115. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘back’.
S116. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘character’.
S117. Ans.(c)
Sol. ’Grin’ is contextually wrong. It should be ‘shop’.
S118. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Glide’ is contextually wrong. It should be ‘listening’.

S119. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct spelling is ‘controllers’.
S120. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error
S121. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Climatic’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S122. Ans.(d)
Sol. ’Factors’ is grammatically and contextually correct here. Since the sentence refers to both internal and
external, we will use ‘factors’.
S123. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Become’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S124. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Climate’ is grammatically and contextually correct here as the passage is referring to climatic change.
S125. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Affects’ is grammatically and contextually correct here.
S126. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error is in part ‘C’. It should be ‘moved’ in place of ‘moves’.
S127. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error is in part ‘C’. It should be ‘on’ in place of ‘of’.
S128. Ans.(b)
Sol. The error is in part ‘B’. It should be ‘to’ in place of ‘too’.
S129. Ans.(e)
Sol. No error
S130. Ans.(a)
Sol. The error is in part ‘A’. It should be ‘of’ in place of ‘off’.
S131. Ans.(c)
Sol. The meaning of the idiom is: Barely escaped from a dangerous/disastrous situation
S132. Ans.(a)
Sol. The meaning of the idiom is: A situation in which it’s impossible to succeed because of conflicting rules
or conditions.

S133. Ans.(c)
Sol. The meaning of the idiom is: When you’re desperate and you’re
pursuing even the slightest hope or possibility
S134. Ans.(d)
Sol. The meaning of the idiom is: In a very serious and bad situation.
S135. Ans.(d)
Sol. The meaning of the idiom is: Last chance
S136. Ans.(e)
Sol. Refer to the first paragraph of the passage.
S137. Ans.(e)
Sol. All of the above can be said according to the second paragraph of the passage.
S138. Ans.(b)
Sol. The most appropriate title is: Privatization- A boon or a bane
S139. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Dipped’ means put or let something down quickly. Thus, drenched is the most similar.
S140. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Yielded’ means to provide or give. Thus, deny is the most opposite.
S141. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Lookout’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S142. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Imaginary’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S143. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Breakthrough’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S144. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Restfully’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S145. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Acquaint’ is contextually and grammatically correct here. Acquaint means to make someone aware of
or familiar with
S146. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘To’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.

S147. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Motivation’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S148. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Need’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S149. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Tried’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S150. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Blew’ is contextually and grammatically correct here.
S151. Ans.(a)
Sol. A-E and B-F form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S152. Ans.(c)
Sol. A-F and C-E form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S153. Ans.(b)
Sol. C-D forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
S154. Ans.(d)
Sol. C-D and B-F form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S155. Ans.(e)
Sol. None of the above
S156. Ans.(b)
Sol. A-E forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
S157. Ans.(b)
Sol. A-E and C-D form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S158. Ans.(e)
Sol. None of the above
S159. Ans.(b)
Sol. A-F forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S160. Ans.(c)
Sol. C-D forms a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
S161. Ans.(c)
Sol. A-E, B-F and C-D form grammatically and contextually correct
sentences.

S162. Ans.(a)
Sol. A-E and B-F form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S163. Ans.(c)
Sol. A-E, C-D and B-F form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S164. Ans.(c)
Sol. A-F and C-E form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S165. Ans.(a)
Sol. A-E and C-D form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
S166. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘would be a huge’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S167. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘felt unworthy of‘ is grammatically and contextually correct. Since ‘although’ is being used, we will use
‘unworthy’ and not ‘worthy’.
S168. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘chaos in the’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S169. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘roaming around’ is grammatically and contextually correct. Since the sentence is in present tense we
will use ‘roaming’.
S170. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘will have to be’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S171. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘is to obtain a’ is grammatically and contextually correct. Since the sentence is in present tense, we will
use ‘obtain’.
S172. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘is to eliminate the’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S173. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘have no proof’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S174. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘were the only’ is grammatically and contextually correct. Since ‘things’ is plural, we will use ‘were’ as
the verb here.

S175. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘in exchange for’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S176. Ans.(d)
Sol.’ of his sword’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S177. Ans.(b)
Sol.’ taking her mirror out’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S178. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘who had received’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
While referring to a person or people we use ‘who’.
S179. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘know that he was not’ is grammatically and contextually correct. Since the sentence is in present tense,
we will use ‘know’.
S180. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘amount of money they’ is grammatically and contextually correct.
S181. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Envious’ is contextually and grammatically fit for the sentence here. Envious means feeling or showing
envy.
S182. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Easier’ is contextually and grammatically fit for the sentence here.
S183. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Revealed’ is contextually and grammatically correct here. Revealed means to cause or allow
(something) to be seen.
S184. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Through’ is grammatically and contextually correct here for the sentence.
S185. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Credit’ is the correct option here.
S186. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Falling’ is the most suitable option here, both grammatically and contextually.
S187. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Anything’ is the most suitable option here, both grammatically and contextually.

S188. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Fruitless’ is the correct option here. It means failing to achieve the desired results; unproductive or
useless.
S189. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Disagree’ is the most suitable option here, both grammatically and contextually.
S190. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Tend’ is the most suitable option here, both grammatically and contextually.
S191. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Absence’ and ‘inherently’ are the most suitable options here, both grammatically and contextually.
Inherently means in a permanent, essential, or characteristic way.
S192. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Been’ and ‘several’ are the most suitable options here, both grammatically and contextually.
S193. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘Reactions’ and ‘differ’ are the most suitable options here, both grammatically and contextually.
S194. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Surely’ and ‘years’ are the most suitable options here, both grammatically and contextually.
S195. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Scare’ and ‘fears’ are the most suitable options here, both grammatically and contextually.
S196. Ans.(e)
Sol. The sequence of the sentences after rearrangement is BCAED.
The growing cases of road rage in India have become a cause of concern. These cases are not restricted to
a particular region but are reported across the country. Many people get badly injured while others lose
their life as a result of road rage in India. Numerous such cases are registered every day but nothing much
is done about them. The bad conditions of the Indian roads, poor traffic management, rise in noise pollution
on the roads and erratic weather conditions of the country are said to attribute to road rage.
S197. Ans.(b)
S198. Ans.(a)
S199. Ans.(d)

S200. Ans.(c)
S201. Ans.(e)
Sol. The sequence of the sentences after rearrangement is DACBE.
Migration of a significant number of educated and talented people from
a country is referred to as Brain Drain. It occurs because of better job
prospects in other countries as compared to one’s own country. Besides,
brain drain may even occur at industrial or organizational levels when
there is mass exodus from a company or industry as the other offers a
better pay and other benefits. Brain Drain is a loss for the country,
organization and industry as it takes away the most talented individuals
of the lot. The term, brain drain is often used to describe the emigration of scientists, doctors, engineers
and other high profile professionals such as those in the banking and finance sector.
S202. Ans.(c)
S203. Ans.(b)
S204. Ans.(a)
S205. Ans.(d)
S206. Ans.(e)
Sol. The sequence of the sentences after rearrangement is AECDB.
The inculcation of secularism in the constitution brings along many other fundamental rights of the citizens
of the country such as the right to expression and religious freedom. India being home to people of a large
number of religions, it is more prone to religious conflicts and other political and social damage. Secularism
here ensures the proper and fair functioning of the government meanwhile providing all the religious
groups with the rights to practice the religion of their choice and express their opinions and beliefs freely
without fear or hesitation. There have been certain instances in history where the majority groups have
tried to establish their dominance over various minority groups and sometimes also on the government.
The implementation of secularism has kept this issue in check by working independently from the religious
groups and giving out equal freedom to all the religions and castes.
S207. Ans.(b)
S208. Ans.(d)

S209. Ans.(a)
S210. Ans.(c)
S211. Ans.(d)
Sol. Only (a) and (b) are the correct options here. Refer paragraph 1 of the passage.
S212. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Commute’ is the correct option here. ‘Commute’ means travel some distance between one's home and
place of work on a regular basis
S213. Ans.(d)
Sol. ‘The traffic suggestion’ is the correct option here.
S214. Ans.(b)
Sol. ‘Swell’ is the most similar to ‘surge’. ’Surge’ means increase suddenly and powerfully.
S215. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Boon’ is the most opposite to ‘mishaps’. ’Boon’ means a thing that is helpful or beneficial.
S216. Ans.(c)
Sol. B-F is the correct option here.
S217. Ans.(d)
Sol. B-F and A-E are the correct options here.
S218. Ans.(c)
Sol. A-F, C-E and B-D are the correct arrangements here.
S219. Ans.(e)
Sol. None of the above arrangements is correct
S220. Ans.(a)
Sol. B-F and C-D are correct.
S121. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) is grammatically and contextually correct.

S122. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) is grammatically and contextually correct.
S123. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) is grammatically and contextually correct. ‘Will not
live’ is correct, as the sentence is in future tense.
S124. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d) is grammatically and contextually correct.
S125. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) is grammatically and contextually correct. With
‘instead’ we use ‘of’ in standard English.

Directions (1-5): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
Q1. 561, 642, 763, 932, 1157, ?

(a) 1446
(b) 1326
(c) 1482
(d) 1246
(e) 1426
Q2. 1524, 1443, 1394, ?, 1360, 1359

(a) 1303
(b) 1218
(c) 1359
(d) 1369
(e) 1569
Q3. 8, 24, 49, 85, 134, ?

(a) 189
(b) 176
(c) 198
(d) 201
(e) 321
Q4. 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, ?

(a) 63
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 54
(e) 80
Q5. 1543, 1440, 1337, ?, 1131

(a) 1233
(b) 1234
(c) 1235
(d) 1238
(e) 1433

Q6. Bag 1 has three yellow and four blue balls and bag 2 has four yellow and three blue balls. One
bag is selected at random and a ball drawn out of it. Find the probability that the ball drawn is
yellow.
1
(a) 2
12
(b) 49
3
(c) 7
5
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Q7. Two dice are thrown. The probability that both of them show an even number greater than 2 is:
1
(a) 36
1
(b)
6
2
(c) 3
1
(d) 4
5
(e) 36
Q8. Three cards are drawn from a pack of cards at random. What is the probability that they consist
of two different colors?
11
(a) 17
13
(b) 17
13
(c) 15
15
(d) 17
13
(e) 24
Q9. In a group of 4 boys and 6 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many different ways can
they be selected such that at least one girl should be there?
(a) 159
(b) 194
(c) 205
(d) 209
(e) 224
Q10. Find total number of the 3 digits even numbers by using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5 when repetition of
digits is allowed.
(a) 32
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18
(e) 24

Directions (11-15): Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given below
them.
The given pie chart shows the fund that an organization gets from different sources is equal to Rs. 16 crores.
The other pie chart shows the distribution/investment of fund in different sections.
[Note: Total fund received in pie chart 1 are utilized in different sectors pie chart 2]
Internal Source,
8%
NGOs,
12%
Government
Agencies,
38%
Ministry of
Home Affairs,
42%
Sources of funds in the organisation
Scholarship,
16%
Payment, 35%
Building
Maintenance,
25%
Reserved,
24%
Use of fund by the organisation
Q11. What is the difference between the fund acquired by the organization from NGOs and that from
Government Agencies?
(a) Rs. 43268000
(b) Rs. 38650000
(c) Rs. 46800000
(d) Rs. 52860000

Q12. If the organization managed Building Maintenance from the Ministry of Home Affairs fund
only, how much fund from the Ministry of Home Affairs would still be left for other use?
(a) Rs. 2.72 crore
(b) Rs. 7.23 crore
(c) Rs. 5.20 crore
(d) Rs. 3.06 crore
(e) Rs. 8.03 crore
Q13. If the Scholarship has to be paid out of the fund from Government Agencies, find what is the
percentage of Government Agencies fund used for this purpose.
2
(a) 4219%
3
(b) 38 %
5
2
(c) 319%
(d) 48.3%
(e) 52%
Q14. What is the total amount used by the organization for Payment?
(a) Rs. 4.8 crore
(b) Rs. 6.3 crore
(c) Rs. 5.6 crore
(d) Rs. 9.73 crore
Q15. What is the amount of fund acquired by the organization from Ministry of Home Affairs?
(a) 6.25 crores
(b) 6.2 crores
(c) 6.72 crores
(d) 9.25 crores
Directions (16-17): In the following questions, two quantities I

and II are given. You have to find these quantities to give answer
(a) If Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) If Quantity II > Quantity II
(c) If Quantity I = Quantity II
(d) If Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) If Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

Q16. Quantity I. Capacity of the water tank. There is a hole in the water tank which can empty it in 8 hours.
A pipe is opened which fills 6 litre water per minute in tank and now tank is emptied in 12 hours.
Quantity II. Simple interest of a sum of money at the same rate of interest for 2 years. Compound interest
of the same sum of money for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum is Rs. 2,448.
Q17. Quantity I. Present average age of Abhishek and Rohit. The ratio of age of Abhishek and Rohit 4 year
before was 4: 5 and Ratio of their ages 2 years later will be 5: 6.
Quantity II. Initial quantity of mixture. A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in ratio 3: 1. if 20 liters
of mixture is taken out and 15 liters of milk is added then ratio of milk and water becomes 4: 1.
Q18. Three vessels contain equal mixtures of acid and water in the ratio 6 : 1, 5 : 2 and 3 : 1
respectively. If all the solutions are mixed together, the ratio of acid to water in the final mixture
will be
(a) 64 : 65
(b) 65 : 19
(c) 19 : 65
(d) 64 : 19
(e) 39 : 17
Q19. A manufacturer has 200 litres of Acid solution which has 15% acid content. How many litres
of solution with 30% Acid content may be added so that Acid content in the resulting mixture will
be more than 20% but less than 25%
(a) More than 100 litres but less than 300 litres
(b) More than 120 litres but less than 400 litres
(c) More than 100 litres but less than 400 litres
(d) More than 120 litres but less than 300 litres
(e) None of these
Q20. In a rectangular plot of 24m × 16m two roads of 1.5m wide each as shown in figure were made.
If cost of making road is Rs. 310 per m2 then find the cost of making whole road.
(a) Rs. 22000.50

(b) Rs. 18850
(c) Rs. 17902.50
(d) Rs. 14603
(e) None of these

Directions (21-25): Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
In a college, 150 students of MBA are enrolled. The ratio of boys to girls is 7:8. There are five disciplines
out of which three main disciplines namely Marketing, HR and Finance, in the college (Students are enrolled
in all the disciplines). In Marketing discipline there are 50% girls of their total number and the boys are
40% of their total number. In HR discipline, girls are 30% of their total number while boys are also 30% of
their number. In Finance, no. of boys are 30% of total boys and girls are 20% of total girls.
7 boys and 9 girls are enrolled in HR and Marketing both. 6 boys and 7 girls are enrolled in HR and finance
together. 5 boys and 8 girls are enrolled in Marketing and Finance both. 2 boys and 3 girls are enrolled in
all the three disciplines.
Q21. What percentage of students are enrolled in all the three disciplines?
(a) 3.3%
(b) 7.2%
(c) 8.5%
(d) 9.32%
(e) None of these
Q22. What is the ratio of boys to girls only in Marketing disciplines?

(a) 13:9
(b) 9:13
(c) 9:11
(d) 11:9
(e) None of these
Q23. The ratio of number of boys in Marketing and Finance both to that of girls only in Finance is?
(a) 5:3
(b) 3:5
(c) 5:4
(d) 4:7
(e) None of these
Q24. By what per cent is the number of boys in Marketing discipline is more than the number of
girls in HR discipline?
1
(a) 13 3 %
1
(b) 33 3 %
2
(c) 14 3 %
2
(d) 163 %
(e) None of these

Q25. The ratio of boys to girls enrolled only in HR discipline is
(a) 10:11
(b) 9:10
(c) 7:5
(d) 5:7
(e) None of these
Directions (26-30): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
equations?
Q26. 𝟐𝟖% 𝐨𝐟 𝟖𝟓 + 𝟏𝟑. 𝟐 =?

(a) 35
(b) 37
(c) 39
(d) 41
(e) 47
𝟕 𝟑
Q27. 𝟓 𝐨𝐟 𝟓𝟖 + 𝟖 𝐨𝐟 𝟏𝟑𝟗. 𝟐 =?
(a) 133.4
(b) 137.2
(c) 127.8
(d) 131.6
(e) 121.6
𝟑 𝟑
Q28. √𝟏𝟕𝟓𝟕𝟔 + √𝟒𝟎𝟗𝟔 =?
(a) 42
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 52
Q29. 𝟖𝟒𝟑𝟔𝟖 + 𝟔𝟓𝟒𝟔𝟔 − 𝟕𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟗 − 𝟏𝟑𝟗𝟔𝟒 =?

(a) 61481
(b) 62921
(c) 63861
(d) 64241
(e) 66481
Q30. 𝟏𝟐% 𝐨𝐟 𝟓𝟓𝟓 + 𝟏𝟓% 𝐨𝐟 𝟔𝟔𝟔 =?

(a) 166.5
(b) 167.5
(c) 168.5
(d) 169.5
(e) 179.5

Q31. The sum of four numbers is 64. If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from the second
number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the fourth is divided by three, then all the results are equal.
What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?
(a) 32
(b) 27
(c) 21
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Q32. Ms. Pooja Pushpan invests 13% of her monthly salary, i.e. Rs. 8554 in mediclaim Policies. Later
she invests 23% of her monthly salary on Child Education Policies. Also, she invests another 8% in
her monthly Funds. What is the total monthly amount invested by Ms. Pooja Pushpan?
(a) Rs. 28952
(b) Rs. 43428
(c) Rs. 347424
(d) Rs. 173712
(e) None of these
Q33. The batting average of 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his
lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded the average of the remaining 38 innings
is 48. His highest score was:
(a) 172
(b) 173
(c) 174
(d) 176
(e) None of these
Q34. A vessel contains liquid P and Q in the ratio 5 : 3. If 16 L of the mixture are removed and the
same quantity of liquid Q is added, the ratio become 3 : 5. What quantity does the vessel hold?
(a) 35 L
(b) 45 L
(c) 40 L
(d) 50 L
(e) None of these
Q35. Several litres of acid were drawn off a 54 L vessel full of acid and an equal amount of water
added. Again, the same volume of the mixture 2 was drawn off and replaced by water. As a result
the vessel contained 24 L of pure acid. How much of the acid was drawn off initially?
(a) 12 L
(b) 16 L
(c) 18 L
(d) 24 L
(e) None of these

Directions (36-40): Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in
the following questions. (You are not expected to find out the exact value)
Q36. 459% of 849.947 + 266.5% of 6284.012 – 1486.002 = ?

(a) 20330
(b) 12640
(c) 15000
(d) 22160
(e) 19170
Q37. 21.0091 – 6.085 + 13.24 = (3.5 + ?) × 2

(a) 24.5
(b) 15.5
(c) 6.5
(d) 20.5
(e) 10.5
𝟑
Q38. √𝟔𝟓 × 𝟐𝟑. 𝟗𝟑 − 𝟑𝟏. 𝟎𝟒 = ?
(a) 98
(b) 102
(c) 65
(d) 79
(e) 35
Q39. 𝟏𝟕𝟎𝟐 ÷ 𝟔𝟖 × 𝟏𝟑𝟔. 𝟎𝟓 = 𝟓𝟎 ×?

(a) 80
(b) 74
(c) 77
(d) 68
(e) 63
Q40. 𝟔𝟗. 𝟗𝟗% 𝐨𝐟 𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟏 − 𝟏𝟑. 𝟗𝟗% 𝐨𝐟 𝟏𝟐𝟗𝟗 = ?

(a) 700
(b) 720
(c) 770
(d) 800
(e) 740

Directions (41-45): The table below gives the production capacity (in thousand units) and the
percent utilization in respect of three products (A, B and C) over five years for an organization.
Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Product
Year A B C
Capacity Utilization Capacity Utilization Capacity Utilization
2010 170 70% 28 75% 240 40%
2011 200 63% 35 60% 260 40%
2012 200 65% 30 80% 270 40%
2013 210 60% 40 50% 260 45%
2014 225 60% 40 55% 260 50%
Q41. Find the average utilization of product ‘C’ over the given years.
(a) 11100
(b) 101000
(c) 111000
(d) 120000
(e) None of these
Q42. Total production capacity of three products in 2010 is by what percent more or less than total
utilization in year 2014 ?
(a) 50.2%
(b) 52.6%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 60.2%
(e) 58.5%
Q43. What is the difference in the total production of A in 2010 and 2011 together and utilization
of C in 2012, 2013 and 2014 together?
(a) 15500
(b) 14500
(c) 16000
(d) 14505
(e) None of these
Q44. If in year 2013, all the unsatisfied products are recycled and reproduced in some quantity and
among them 80% were utilized, then find the unutilized products at last.
(a) 44,800
(b) 49,400
(c) 44,900
(d) 49,000
(e) None of these

Q45. Find the ratio of sum of capacity of A and C in 2011 and difference of the utilization of A and C
in 2013.
(a) 460 : 11
(b) 360 : 91
(c) 406 : 9
(d) 306 : 11
(e) 460 : 9
Q46. A person deposited Rs. 400 for 2 years, Rs. 550 for 4 years and Rs. 1200 for 6 years. He received
the total simple interest of Rs. 1020. The rate of interest per annum is (rate of interest in each case
is same)
(a) 10%
(b) 5%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
(e) 25%
Q47. Rs. 12,000 is divided into two parts so that the simple interest on the first part for 3 years at
12% per annum may be equal to the simple interest on the second part for 4½ years at 16% per
annum. The ratio of the first part to the second part is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 3 : 2
(e) 3 : 5
Q48. A machine is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less, there would have been a
loss of 10%. The cost price of the machine is:
(a) Rs. 350
(b) Rs. 450
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 520
(e) Rs. 540
Q49. The marked price of a watch is Rs. 1600. The shopkeeper

give successive discounts of 10% and x% to the customer. If the
customer pays Rs. 1224 for the watch, the value of x is:
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
(e) 30

Q50. A sum of money becomes Rs. 4500 after two years and Rs. 6750 after 4 years on compound
interest. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 4000
(b) Rs. 2500
(c) Rs. 3000
(d) Rs. 3050
(e) Rs. 3500
Directions (51-55): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
Q51. 399.89 ÷ 7.88 × 11.88 + 249.87 – 189.88 =?

(a) 755
(b) 655
(c) 680
(d) 555
(e) 695
𝟒
Q52. 47.89% of 449.9 8+ 52.01% of 439.89 = 𝟓 of ?
(a) 456
(b) 655
(c) 556
(d) 756
(e) 856
𝟑 𝟒 𝟑
Q53. √𝟏𝟕𝟐𝟕 + √𝟔𝟕𝟓 + √𝟏𝟐𝟗𝟓– √𝟏𝟑𝟑𝟐 =?
(a) 43
(b) 24
(c) 45
(d) 33
(e) 21
Q54. 43.05% of 799.89 + 56.89% of 899.89 =?

(a) 857
(b) 785
(c) 587
(d) 875
(e) 890
Q55. 114.88% of 559.88 + 83.98% of 419.88 =?

(a) 721
(b) 799
(c) 697
(d) 997
(e) 897

Directions (56-60): The following table shows the no. of students who applied for various posts in
DMRC recruitment from five different states in a certain year.
Study the table carefully to answer the following questions.

Note: Some data in the table are missing. Find them if they are required in any question.
Note: One student can apply against only one post.
No. of students applied for various posts
States
JE AE SC/TO AMT AMO
UP — — 40,000 10,500 8,400
Delhi 20,000 — 36,000 7,200 4,800
MP 12,500 8,400 — 5,400 —
Haryana 16,400 12,400 — — 2,400
Rajasthan — — 24,000 3,600 3,200
Q56. If ratio of total no. of students from UP who applied for JE and AE respectively is 81 : 61 and
total no. of candidates from U.P is 1,15,700 then total no. of candidates from UP who applied for the
post of AE is
(a) 28,400
(b) 22,400
(c) 24,400
(d) 24,000
(e) 20,800
Q57. If the average no. of candidate from Delhi who applied for the various posts is 16,880 then
total no. of candidate who applied for the post of AE from Delhi is what percent of no. of candidates
from same state who applied for AMT?
7
(a) 2729%
7
(b) 2279%
7
(c) 2239%
7
(d) 2299%
(e) None of these
Q58. If 60% students out of total students from Haryana who applied for the post of JE are having
Electrical Engineering as their essential qualification, then total no. of candidates from Rajasthan
who applied for JE is: (It is given that total students from Rajasthan who applied for JE is 150% of
the no. of Electrical Engineering students who applied for the post of JE from Haryana)
(a) 12,760
(b) 14,670
(c) 16,470
(d) 14,760
(e) 18,460

Q59. Total no. of students from MP who applied for the post of SC/TO is 80% of the total no. of
students who applied for JE from Delhi. Find total no. of students from MP who applied for the post
JE, AE, SC/TO and AMT together.
(a) 42,300
(b) 43,200
(c) 45,300
(d) 44,300
(e) 41,200
𝟐𝟐𝟓
Q60. If % students out of total students from all the states together who applied for the post of
𝟏𝟒
AMO, are from MP then find the no. of students from MP who applied for the post of AMO.
(a) 4800
(b) 3200
(c) 3600
(d) 2800
(e) 5400
Directions (61-65): The following questions are accompanied by three statements I or A, II or B and
III or C. You have to determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient/ necessary to answer the
questions and mark your answer accordingly
Q61. What is the age of the Renuka in her family?

I. Total age of Renuka, her father, her mother & her sister is 90 years.
II. Average age of Renuka, her mother and her sister is 18 years and 4 months.
III. Average age of her mother and sister is four seventh of her father’s age.
(a) Only I & II
(b) Only I & III
(c) Only II & Ill
(d) All I, II & III
(e) None of these
Q62. What is the selling price of the sofa set if no discount is

offered?
I. Profit earned was 20%
II. Had 10% discount been offered on selling price the profit would
have been Rs. 1200.
III. Cost price is Rs. 15000.
(a) Any two of the three
(b) Only I & II
(c) Only I I & III
(d) Only II & III
(e) None of these

Q63. 12 girls and 8 children can complete a piece of work in 24 days together. How many days will
it take for 12 men and 12 girls to complete the same work?
A. 2 men can do as work as 3 girls and 2 children can do together.
B. 3 girls can do as work as 6 children can do.
768
C. All of them together can complete the entire work in 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠.
67
(a) Any two of them
(b) Only from A and B
(c) Only C
(d) Either A or B only
(e) No need of any information
Q64. A ball of lead 4 cm in diameter is covered with gold. If the volume of the gold and lead are
𝟑
equal, then the thickness of gold [given √𝟐 = 1.259] is approximately
(a) 5.038 cm
(b) 5.190 cm
(c) 1.038 cm
(d) 0.518 cm
(e) 5.18 cm
Q65. The outer circumference of a 1 cm thick pipe is 44 cm. How much water will 7 cm of the pipe
𝟐𝟐
hold? (𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞 𝛑 = )
𝟕
(a) 1078 𝑐𝑚3
(b) 1792 𝑐𝑚3
(c) 303 𝑐𝑚3
(d) 792 𝑐𝑚3
(e) 972 𝑐𝑚3
Directions (66-70): Find the approximate value of the following questions.
Q66. 67.99% of 1401 – 13.99% of 1299 = ?

(a) 700
(b) 720
(c) 770
(d) 800
(e) 740
Q67. 5466.97 – 3245.01 + 1122.99 = ? + 2309.99

(a) 1130
(b) 1000
(c) 1100
(d) 1035
(e) 1060

Q68. 5998 ÷ 9.98 + 670.99 – 139.99 = ?
(a) 1080
(b) 1280
(c) 1180
(d) 1130
(e) 1230
Q69. –(4.99)³ + (29.98)² – (3.01)4 = ?

(a) 554
(b) 594
(c) 624
(d) 654
(e) 694
Q70. √𝟑𝟏𝟑𝟓 × √𝟓𝟕𝟕 ÷ √𝟐𝟓𝟓 = ? ÷ 𝟖

(a) 620
(b) 670
(c) 770
(d) 750
(e) 700
Directions (71-75): Refer to the table given below and answer the given questions.
Table shows the 5 colony and total population and percentage of males, females and children in each colony
in year 2016. Some data are missing, find the missing data to answer the given questions.
Total Percentage of Percentage of Percentage of
Colony
population males females children
A 2400 25% — —
B — — 40% 20%
C — 50% 20% —
D 800 — — 16%
E — — 24% 36%
Note: Don’t treat children as male or female. Treat them separately.
Q71. If the ratio of population of females and children in colony A in year 2016 is 3 : 7, and female
in colony A in year 2017 is increased by 20% from that of year 2016. Then find the total number of
males and children in colony A in year 2017 so that overall population in year 2017 is same as in
year 2016 ?
(a) 1752
(b) 1852
(c) 2752
(d) 3200
(e) 1527

Q72. If number of children in colony C in year 2016 is 180 and ratio of male and females in colony
D in year 2016 is 1 : 2. Then find the difference of males in colony C and colony D?
(a) 96
(b) 86
(c) 76
(d) 55
(e) 67
Q73. If total population of colony B and colony C together in year 2016 is 25% more than the total
population of colony A in year 2016 and ratio of total population of colony B and colony C in year
2016 is 2 : 3. Then find the ratio of males in colony B to children in colony C in year 2016 ?
(a) 9 : 8
(b) 8 : 9
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 3 : 5
(e) 3 : 2
Q74. If ratio of males of colony D in year 2016 to the females in colony A in year 2016 is 2 : 5 and
population of children in colony A is increased by 20% in year 2017 from year 2016. Then find the
total population of children in year 2017 in colony A ?
(a) 2000
(b) 1200
(c) 1500
(d) cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Q75. If ratio of total population of colony C to colony E in year 2016 is 5 : 4. Then number of males
in colony E in year 2016 is what percent more or less than the number of children in colony C in
year 2016 ?
(a) 5.67%
(b) 12%
(c) 10%
(d) 3.334%
(e) 6.67%
Q76. Two trains having equal lengths, takes 1/4 minutes and 1/6
minutes respectively to cross a pole. In what time will they cross
each other when travelling in opposite direction (in seconds)?
Given the length of each train is 420 meters. (Neglect the length
of pole)
(a)18 sec
(b) 12 sec
(c) 20 sec
(d) 24 sec
(e) 10 sec

Q77. A car runs at the speed of 40 km/h when not serviced and runs at 65 km/h, when serviced.
After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 5 h. How much approximate time will the car
take to cover the same distance when not serviced?
(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 8
(e) 6
Q78. Find the speed of a boat in still water if the boat goes downstream 6 km and back to the starting
point in 2 hours and the rate of flow of river water is 4 km/hr.
(a) 8 km/hr
(b) 7 km/hr
(c) 12 km/hr
(d) 4 km/hr
(e) 6 km/hr
Q79. If the sum of upstream and downstream speed is 36 km/hr and the speed of the current is
3km/hr, then find time taken to cover 52.5 km in downward?
(a) 2 hr
(b) 2.5 hr
(c) 3 hr
(d) 3.5 hr
(e) 4 hr
Q80. Two place P and Q are 160 km apart. A train leaves P for Q and at the same time another train
leaves Q for P. Both the trains meet 5 hrs after they start moving. If the train travelling from P to Q
travels 6 km/hr faster than the other train, find the speed of the faster train.
(a) 19 km/hr
(b) 13 km/hr
(c) 21 km/hr
(e) None of these
Directions (81-85): What will come in place of question mark (?)
Q81. 𝟑? ÷ 𝟖𝟏 = 𝟐𝟒𝟑 × 𝟕𝟐𝟗

(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 12
(d) 18
(e) 10

Q82. 0.001 + 1.0001 + 1.101 – 0.0001 = ?
(a) 3.1020
(b) 1.1020
(c) 2.1020
(d) 0.01020
(e) 5.0101
𝟒
Q83. ? % 𝐨𝐟 𝟓𝟒𝟎– 𝟐𝟖𝟎 ÷ 𝟕 = 𝟕 𝐨𝐟 𝟑𝟒𝟑
19
(a) 39 27
(b) 41
(c) 43
27
(d) 41 19
19
(e) 43 27
𝟎.𝟑𝟓𝟔 × 𝟎.𝟑𝟓𝟔 − 𝟐 × 𝟎.𝟑𝟓𝟔 × 𝟎.𝟏𝟎𝟔 + 𝟎.𝟏𝟎𝟔 × 𝟎.𝟏𝟎𝟔

Q84. 𝟎.𝟔𝟑𝟐 × 𝟎.𝟔𝟑𝟐 + 𝟐 × 𝟎.𝟔𝟑𝟐 × 𝟎.𝟑𝟔𝟖 + 𝟎.𝟑𝟔𝟖 × 𝟎.𝟑𝟔𝟖 =?
(a) 60.25
(b) 6.025
(c) 0.625
(d) 0.0625
(e) 6.2505
𝟗 𝟒 𝟑 𝟐
Q85. 𝟒𝟖 ÷ 𝟏𝟐 × (𝟖 𝐨𝐟 𝟑 ÷ 𝟒 𝐨𝐟 𝟑) =?
(a) 10
(b) 14
(c) 12
1
(d) 5 3
(e) 14
Directions (86-90): The graph suggests the no. of consumers and consumption of electricity units
in five years. Electricity units are given in Lacks while the no. of consumers is given in thousand.
Read the graph and answer the question.
Consumers (In thousand) Units(in Lacs)

700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015

Q86. What is the ratio of electricity consumption per consumer in 2012 to the same in 2015?
(a) 39 : 44
(b) 77 : 79
(c) 11 : 19
(d) 9 : 7
Q87. If no of consumers in 2016 is 120% more than in 2011 while the consumption remains same
as in 2015, then what will be the impact of no of units consumed by a consumer in 2016 when
compared to electricity consumption per consumer in 2015?
(a) + 42 units
(b) + 36 Units
(c) – 36 units
(d) – 42 units
Q88. Electricity consumption in 2012 will be approximately how many times the total no. of
consumer all over the years?
(a) 23.67
(b) 21.67
(c) 25.67
(d) 19.34
(e) 27.67
Q89. Total no of units in 2011 and 2013 are approximately what % more or less than Total units in
2012 & 2014 together?
(a) 20% more
(b) 28% more
(c) 29% less
(d) 28% less
(e) 32% more
Q90. In which of the following year, the ratio of unit consumption to the no. of consumers is
maximum?
(a) 2011
(b) 2015
(c) 2014
(d) 2013
(e) 2012

Q91. A started a work and left after working for 3 days. Then, B was called and he finished the work
𝟏 𝟏
in 𝟏𝟑 𝟐 days. Had A left the work after working for 𝟒 𝟐 days, B would have finished the remaining
work in 9 days. In how many days can each of them, working alone, finish the whole work?
(a) 7.5 days, 22.5 days
(b) 7 days, 9 days
(c) 5 days, 15 days
(d) 23.5 days, 8.5 days
(e) None of these
Q92. Three members of a family A, B and C, work together to get all household chores done. The
time it takes them to do the work together is six hours less than A would have taken working alone,
one hour less than B would have taken alone, and half the time C would have taken working alone.
How long did it take them to do these chores working together?
(a) 20 minutes
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 40 minutes
(d) 50 minutes
(e) None of these
Q93. A pump can be operated both for filling a tank and for emptying it. The capacity of tank is 2400
m3. The emptying capacity of the pump is 10 m3 per minute higher than its filling capacity.
Consequently, the pump needs 8 minutes less to empty the tank than to fill it. Find the filling
capacity of the pump.
(a) 45 m3 /minute
(b) 30 m3 /minute
(c) 50 m3 /minute
(d) 55 m3 /minute
(e) None of these
Q94. A train travels a distance of 600 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the train is increased
by 5 km/hr, the journey would take 4 hrs less. Find the speed of the train.
(a) 100 km/hr
(b) 25 km/hr
(c) 50 km/hr
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of th0ese
Q95. Sonu covers a distance of 90 km in 5 hours. He covers some part of distance by cycle at the
speed of 15 km/hr and rest part covers by bus running at a speed of 20 km/hr. Find what distance
he cover by cycle ?
(a) 56 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 54 km
(d) 30 km
(e) None of these

Directions (96-100): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number
series.
Q96. 325, 314, 292, 259, 215, ?

(a) 126
(b) 116
(c) 130
(d) 160
(e) 180
Q97. 45, 46, 70, 141, ?, 1061.5

(a) 353
(b) 353.5
(c) 352.5
(d) 352
(e) 252.5
Q98. 620, 632, 608, 644, 596, ?

(a) 536
(b) 556
(c) 656
(d) 646
(e) 836
Q99. 15, 25, 40, 65, ?, 195

(a) 115
(b) 90
(c) 105
(d) 120
(e) 110
Q100. 120, 320, ?, 2070, 5195, 13007.5

(a) 800
(b) 920
(c) 850
(d) 900
(e) 820

Direction (101-105): The following bar graph and table show the total number of persons who are
smoker and ratio of male to female in them in five different cities of India. Study the graph carefully
to answer the following questions.
90
82.5
80 75
total number of smokers (in
70 67.5
thousands)
60
52.5
50 45
40
30
20
10
0
Delhi Lucknow Mumbai Chennai Amritsar
Ratio of male to female smokers

City
Male : Female
Delhi 5:4
Lucknow 11 : 4
Mumbai 3:2
Chennai 5:1
Amritsar 17 : 8
Q101. If 20% population of Delhi is smoker then total no. of male smokers in Delhi is approximately
what percent of total population of Delhi who is not smoker?
(a) 18%
(b) 14%
(c) 12%
(d) 11%
(e) 10%
Q102. If one person died out of four, due to smoking in city Mumbai then total no. of persons who
died due to smoking in Mumbai is what percent of total female population in Mumbai who are
smoker?
(a) 52.6%
(b) 65.2%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 60%
(e) 60.5%

Q103. If three fifth of total population of Lucknow is smoker then what is the ratio of males who are
smoker in Lucknow to the total population who is not smoker in Lucknow?
(a) 12 : 13
(b) 13 : 12
(c) 10 : 11
(d) 11 : 10
(e) 9 : 11
Q104. What is the difference between average of males and average of females who are smoker in
all the five cities?
(a) 20,200
(b) 21,100
(c) 20,110
(d) 22,100
(e) 24,000
Q105. If 10%, 20% and 25% persons leave smoking due to fear of cancer in cities Delhi, Channai
and Amritser respectively then what is the ratio of males who are still smoking in these cities
respectively (The ratio of male and female remains)?
(a) 51 : 40 : 45
(b) 40 : 45 : 51
(c) 45 : 40 : 51
(d) 45 : 51 : 40
(e) 51 : 45 : 40
Q106. Arun is thrice as good a workman as Rahim and therefore is able to finish a job in 20 days
less than Rahim. How many days will they take to finish the job working together?
1
(a) 10 4
1
(b) 11 2
1
(c) 7 2
1
(d) 7 4
1
(e) 12 2
Q107. Twenty-four men can complete a work in sixteen days. Thirty-two women can complete the
same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for
twelve days. How many more men are to be added to complete the remaining work in 2 days?
(a) 48
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) 30
(e) 32

Q108. Rinki starts working on a job and continues for 15 days and
completes 36% of the work. To complete the work, she employs Kirti
and together they work for 20 days and completed the work. What
will be the efficiency ratio of Rinki and Kirti?
(a) 7 : 5
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 5 : 3
(d) 1 : 3
(e) 3 : 1
Q109. A train covers 180 km distance in 4 hours. Another train covers the same distance in 1 hour
less. What is the difference in the distances covered by these trains in one hour if they are moving
in the same direction?
(a) 45 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 12 km
(e) 15 km
Q110. Krishnan bought two tables for Rs. 2200. He sells one at 5% loss and the other at 6% profit
and thus on the whole he neither gains nor loses. Find the cost price of each table.
(a) Rs. 1500, Rs. 700
(b) Rs. 2000, Rs. 200
(c) Rs. 1200, Rs. 1000
(d) Rs. 1100, Rs. 1100
(e) Rs. 1150, Rs. 1050
Directions (111-115): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow–
Company Percent profit earned by six companies over the

years
Year P Q R S T U
2004 11 12 3 7 10 6
2005 9 10 5 8 12 6
2006 4 5 7 13 12 5
2007 7 6 8 14 14 7
2008 12 8 9 15 13 5
2009 14 12 11 15 14 8
Note: profit = income – expenditure

Income − Expenditure
Expenditure = × 100
Expenditure

Q111. If the profit earned by Company R in the year 2008 was Rs. 18.9 lakhs, what was the income
in that year?
(a) Rs. 303.7 lakhs
(b) Rs. 264.5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 329.4 lakhs
(d) Rs. 228.9 lakhs
(e) Rs. 229.8 lakhs
Q112. What is the percentage rise in profit of Company T in year 2009 from the year 2004?
(a) 40 %
(b) 35 %
(c) 26 %
(d) 48 %
(e) 42 %
Q113. If the profit earned by Company P in the year 2007 was Rs. 2.1 lakhs, what was the
expenditure in that year?
(a) Rs. 30 lakhs
(b) Rs. 15 lakhs
(c) Rs. 23 lakhs
(d) Rs. 27 lakhs
(e) Rs. 32 lakhs
Q114. What was the average of percentage value of profit of Company S over all the years together?
(a) 13.5
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) 12.5
Q115. What is the difference between the per cent value of profit earned by Company Q in the year
2005 and the average of percentage value of profit earned by the remaining Companies together in
that year?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3
(e) 5
Directions (116-120): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series
?
Q116. 25 30 49 56 81 90 ? 132
(a) 90
(b) 72
(c) 99
(d) 121
(e) 132

Q117. 600 75 12.5 ? 1.5625
(a) 31.25
(b) 3.125
(c) 2.315
(d) 32.15
(e) 4.125
Q118. 6 19 71 279 1111 ?

(a) 4439
(b) 3439
(c) 3454
(d) 5439
(e) 4349
Q119. 4 18 60 186 564 ?

(a) 1581
(b) 1686
(c) 1498
(d) 1698
(e) 1689
Q120. 12 13 28 87 352 ?
(a) 1665
(b) 1765
(c) 1656
(d) 1675
(e) 1865
Directions (121-122): Compare the value of 2 quantities given in the question and give answer
(a) if quantity I > quantity II
(b) if quantity I < quantity II
(c) if quantity I ≥ quantity II
(d) if quantity I ≤ quantity II
(e) if quantity I = quantity II or no relation can be established
Q121. Quantity 1: Difference between selling price of both items. A merchant buys two items for Rs 7500.
One item he sells at a profit of 16% and the other item at 14% loss. In the deal the merchant makes neither
any profit nor any loss.
Quantity 2: Cost price of article B. The cost price of article A is Rs. 200 more than the cost price of article
B. Article A was sold at 10% loss and article B was sold at 25% profit. Overall profit percentage after selling
both the articles is 4%.

Q122. Quantity 1: Distance covered by ‘A’ and ‘B’. Two persons A and B started running from the same
point in same direction and reaches at another point. The ratio of their speeds is 3 : 4, the difference of time
taken by them is 45 minutes and the sum of their speeds is 28 kmph.
Quantity 2: Per kg selling price of remaining wheat to get an overall profit of 25%. A shopkeeper bought
30 kg. of wheat at the rate of Rs. 45 per kg. He sold 40 per cent of the total quantity at the rate of Rs. 50 per
kg.
Q123. One type of liquid contains 30% of milk, the other contains 45% of milk. A container is filled
with 3 parts of the first liquid and 7 parts of the second liquid. The percentage of milk in the mixture
is:
(a) 40.5%
(b) 41%
(c) 39%
(d) 38.5%
(e) 42.5%
Q124. A shopkeeper gave an additional 15 per cent concession on the reduced price after giving 20
per cent standard concession on an article. If Arpit bought that article for Rs. 1,360, what was the
original price?
(a) Rs. 3000
(b) Rs. 2400
(c) Rs. 2500
(d) Rs. 2000
(e) Rs. 2800
Q125. In how many ways the word ‘SPECIES’ can be arranged such that P and C are always at two
ends?
(a) 120
(b) 60
(c) 30
(d) 50
(e) 240
Direction (126-128): Data given below about total number of students doing B. TECH from two IIT’s
and distribution of students under different stream. Read data carefully and answer the questions:
Total number of students doing B. TECH from IIT Mumbai are 20% more than total students doing B. TECH
from IIT Delhi. Out of total students doing B. TECH from IIT Mumbai 40% in CS stream, 20% in Mechanical
stream and remaining are in Electrical stream. Total students in CS stream in IIT Mumbai are 140% more
than Total students in CS stream in IIT Delhi. Total students in Mechanical stream in IIT Delhi are two times
of Total students in Mechanical stream in IIT Mumbai. Remaining 240 students are in Electrical stream in
IIT Delhi.

Q126. Total Students in CS stream in IIT Mumbai are what
percent less than total students in Mechanical & Electrical stream
together in IIT Delhi?
(a) 35%
(b) 40%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
(e) 55%
Q127. Find the difference between average number of students

in CS streams in both IIT and average number of students in
Electrical stream in both the IIT’s?
(a) 48
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 40
(e) 45
Q128. Find average number of students doing B. TECH from IIT Mumbai and from IIT Delhi?
(a) 815
(b) 855
(c) 825
(d) 845
(e) 805
Q129. The surface area of a sphere is 423.5 cm2 less than total surface area of a hemisphere. If Ratio
between radius of hemisphere and sphere is 3 : 2, then find the radius of hemisphere?
(a) 5.5 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 7 cm
(e) 10.5 cm
Q130. A bottle is full of wine. One-third of it is taken out and then an equal amount of water is
poured into the bottle to fill it. The operation is done four times. Find the final ratio of wine and
water in the bottle.
(a) 13 : 55
(b) 20 : 74
(c) 16 : 65
(d) 10 : 48
(e) None of these

Direction (131–135): What approximate value should come in the place of question (?) marks in
the given questions:
Q131. 55.01 × 𝟒𝟕. 𝟗𝟖 − ? % of 7999.93 = (11.89)3 + 68.11 × 𝟒. 𝟎𝟏

(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 2
(e) 18
𝟑𝟓𝟐.𝟎𝟗 + ?
Q132. + 𝟏𝟐𝟓. 𝟏𝟏% of 63.98 – √𝟑𝟔𝟏. 𝟎𝟓 = (10.11)2
𝟑𝟏.𝟗𝟖
(a) 848
(b) 896
(c) 832
(d) 820
(e) 872
𝟒𝟓𝟖𝟗.𝟕𝟗
Q133. + (𝟐𝟒. 𝟖𝟗)𝟐 − 𝟑𝟔. 𝟖𝟗% of 𝟒𝟕𝟗𝟖. 𝟗𝟖 + 𝟏𝟎𝟒. 𝟖𝟕 = (𝟐𝟏. 𝟖𝟔)𝟐
?
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 3
(e) 19
Q134. 44.03 × 𝟐𝟒. 𝟗𝟖 + 48.03 × 𝟏𝟒. 𝟗𝟗 + ? = 𝟑𝟐. 𝟎𝟕% 𝒐𝒇 𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎. 𝟎𝟗

(a) 120
(b) 100
(c) 140
(d) 160
(e) 180
Q135. ? % of 699.97 + (20.87)2 – √𝟑𝟖𝟒𝟑. 𝟖𝟔 = (𝟏𝟕. 𝟗𝟏)𝟑

(a) 779
(b) 484
(c) 684
(d) 729
(e) 801

Directions (136-138): Compare the value (only magnitude) of 2 quantities given in the question and
give answer
Q136. Quantity 1: Extra no. of men included in the work. 40 men could have finished the whole project in
28 days, but due to the inclusion of a few more men, work got done in ¾ of the time.
Quantity 2: Abby’s age two years ago. The sum of present ages of Ria and Abby is 48 years. Today Abby is
4 years older than Shweta. The respective ratio of the present ages of Ria and Shweta is 4 : 7.
Q137. Quantity 1: Sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63.
Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay scored 30 marks more than the average
score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh.
Quantity 2: Selling price of Mayank. Sharad sells some articles to Chandra at a profit of 20%. Chandra now
sells this article to Mayank at a loss of 30% and Mayank sells this article at a profit of 20%. CP of Chandra
is Rs 150.
Q138. Quantity 1: Length of train B. Train A, travelling at 90 kmph, overtook train B, traveling in the same
direction, in 5 seconds. If train B had been traveling at twice its speed, then train A would have taken 15
seconds to overtake it. Length of train B is half the length of train A.
Quantity 2: Shilpa’s present age. The sum of Shilpa’s age after 4 years and Raghu’s age 4 years ago is 63
years and respective ratio between the Shilpa’s age four years ago and Raghu’s age after 3 years is 10: 21.
Q139. In how many different ways can the letter of the word ‘CREATE’ be arranged ?
(a) 25
(b) 36
(c) 710
(d) 360
(e) None of these
Q140. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 250% and the denominator is increased by
150%. The resultant fraction is what percent of original fraction ?
(a) 142%
(b) 135%
(c) 140%
(d) 130%
(e) None of these

Directions (141-145): The following pie chart and table show the percentage distribution of ‘D’
grade employee and percentage of employees who have higher education in them respectively in
five different departments of central government. Study the graphs carefully and answer the
questions that follow:
Total ‘D’ grade employees = 2,84,000

MHRD Irrigation
18% Department
10%
Social
Wellfare
Defence 5%
Ministry Home
42% Ministry
25%
Percentage of employees who

Department
have higher education
Home Ministry 45%
Defense Ministry 15%
MHRD 25%
Irrigation Department 40%
Social Wellfare 24%
Q141. What is the difference between number of employees in Home Ministry and MHRD who do
not have higher education?
(a) 701
(b) 710
(c) 712
(d) 720
(e) 705
Q142. What is the ratio of number of employees in Defense Ministry who have higher education to
the number of employees in MHRD who do not have higher education?
(a) 5 : 11
(b) 15 : 7
(c) 7 : 15
(d) 11 : 5
(e) 7 : 13

Q143. Find the average number of employees in Home Ministry, MHRD and Social welfare together
who have higher education.
(a) 16,660
(b) 14,066
(c) 16,460
(d) 16,046
(e) 15,046
Q144. Number of employees in Home Ministry who do not have higher education is approximately
what percent more or less than the number of employees in Defense Ministry who have higher
education ?
(a) 118%
(b) 108%
(c) 114%
(d) 120%
(e) 124%
Q145. If 25% employees who have higher education in Defense Ministry, MHRD and Irrigation
Department together got promoted, then find the total number of employees who got promoted in
these departments together.
(a) 9,055
(b) 9,575
(c) 9,755
(d) 10,508
(e) 10,050
Directions (146-150): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
𝟏 𝟑 𝟒 𝟑
Q146. 𝟏𝟒 𝟏𝟏 + 𝟏𝟔 𝟏𝟏 + 𝟏𝟒 𝟏𝟐𝟏 + 𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟏 = ?
54
(a) 59 121
23
(b) 39
121
82
(c) 61 99
81
(d) 56 121
81
(e) 57 121
Q147. 16.5% of 300 + 70.5% of 1400 – 10% of 480 = ?

(a) 1280.75
(b) 1084.5
(c) 986.25
(d) 1175.5
(e) 988.5

Q148. 9898 + 1073 – 1882 × 3 ÷ 2 =?
(a) 8848
(b) 8989
(c) 8148
(d) 9100
(e) 7963
𝟑 𝟑
Q149. √𝟕𝟐𝟗 × √𝟏𝟓𝟔𝟐𝟓 × √𝟑𝟗𝟔𝟗 ÷ 𝟕𝟓 = ?
(a) 221
(b) 189
(c) 325
(d) 195
(e) 175
Q150. √𝟕𝟕𝟒𝟒 × √? = 𝟏𝟓𝟐𝟐𝟒

(a) 29929
(b) 30976
(c) 42102
(d) 39086
(e) 50807
Q151. A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4 : 1. When 10 litres of the mixture
is taken out and 10 litres of liquid B is poured into the jar, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. How many litres
of liquid A was contained in the jar?
(a) 14 litres
(b) 18 litres
(c) 20 litres
(d) 16 litres
(e) None of these
Q152. Several litre of Acid were drawn off a 54-litre vessel full of Acid and an equal amount of water
added. Again, the same volume of the mixture was drawn off and replaced by water as a result the
vessel contained 24 litres of pure acid. How much of the Acid was drawn off initially ?
(a) 12 liters
(b) 16 liters
(c) 18 liters
(d) 24 litres
(e) None of these
Q153. One-third of the contents of container evaporated on the first day and three fourths of the
remaining evaporated on the second day. What part of the contents of the container is left at the
end of the second day?
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/6
(e) 5/6

Directions (154-155): In the following questions, two quantities are given. You have to find these
quantities and give answer
Q154. Quantity 1: Each sum invested in the two schemes. Two equal sums of money were invested-one at
1
4 2 % p.a. and the other at 4% p.a. At the end of 7 years, the simple interest received from the former was
exceeded to that received from the latter by Rs 31.50.
Quantity 2: Total numbers formed between 2000 and 3000 with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (repetition
of digits not allowed).
Q155. Quantity 1: Passing marks of examination. Bhavya got 20% of maximum marks in an examination
and failed by 30 marks. However, Satish who appeared in the same exam got 50% of maximum marks and
got 15 marks more than the passing marks.
Quantity 2: Percentage increment in the final price of mobile compared to initial price. Price of the mobile
was first increased by 40%, then decreased by 20% and then again increased by 50%.
Directions (156-160): The following information is about the production of cars by 3 different
companies from Monday to Friday in a specific week. Read the information carefully and answer
the following question:
1
The total production by 3 companies on Monday was 540 out of which 33 3 % cars were produced by Tata.
The number of cars produced by Renault on Monday is less than the cars produced by Tata on Monday by
the same extent as the number of cars produced by Maruti on Monday is more than the cars produced by
Tata on Monday. The difference between cars produced by Renault and Maruti on Monday is 40.
150 cars are produced by Tata on Tuesday, which is 100 less than the cars produced by the same company
on Wednesday. A total of 910 cars were produced by Tata from Monday to Friday. The ratio between cars
produced by Tata on Thursday to cars produced by the same company on Friday is 5: 6.
220 cars were produced by Renault on Tuesday, which is 80 less than the cars produced by Maruti on
Wednesday. A total of 570 cars were produced on Tuesday, which is 76% of the total cars produced on
2
Wednesday. The number of cars produced by Maruti on Thursday is 66 3 % more than cars produced by
Tata on the same day. Total 580 cars were produced on Thursday. The number of cars produced by Maruti
on Friday is same as that on Monday. 140 cars were produced by Renault on Friday.
Q156. Find the ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday.
(a) 18 : 29
(b) 18 : 25
(c) 18 : 31
(d) 3 : 5
(e) None of these

Q157. Find the total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday.
(a) 900
(b) 980
(c) 950
(d) 960
(e) 1050
Q158. Find the average number of cars produced per day by Maruti from Monday to Friday.
(a) 250
(b) 220
(c) 230
(d) 240
(e) 280
Q159. On which pair of days out of the following, the number of cars produced by Tata is the same?
(a) Tuesday and Wednesday
(b) Wednesday and Thursday
(c) Tuesday and Thursday
(d) Monday and Wednesday
(e) None of these
Q160. On which day the total number of cars produced was the maximum ?
(a) Monday
(b) Wednesday
(c) Tuesday
(d) Thursday
(e) Friday
Directions (161-165): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equation and give answer
(a) if x < y
(b) if x ≤ y
(c) if x > y
(d) if x ≥ y
(e) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established
Q161. I. x² + 12x + 36 = 0
II. y² = 16
Q162. I. 9x² + 3x – 2 = 0
II. 8y² + 6y + 1 = 0

Q163. I. 2x² - 25x + 77 = 0
II. 2y² - 21y + 55 = 0
Q164. I. 2x² + 9x + 7 = 0
II. 2y² + 9y + 10 = 0
Q165. I. 9x² - 33x + 28 = 0

II. 6y² - 25y + 25 = 0
Direction (166-170): The following bar- graph shows the total number of students in five different
coaching institutes
Table shows the ratio of boys to girls in each institute.

Study the graph carefully to answer the following questions.
75
total number of students
60
45
30
15
A B C D E
Ratio of boys to girls

Institutes
Boys : Girls
A 4:5
B 2:1
C 5:3
D 3:2
E 5:7
Q166. Girls in institute A and C together is what percent of the boys in institute B and D together?
(a) 44.42%
(b) 72.22%
(c) 54.36%
(d) 78.18%
(e) 36.24%

Q167. Boys in institute E and A together are how much more or less than the total girls in institute
D and C together?
(a) 32
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 21
(e) 24
Q168. If one third of the boys in institute C leaves and joins institute D. Then find the ratio of
remaining students in institute C to total students in institute D?
(a) None of these
(b) 13 : 19
(c) 19 : 23
(d) 17 : 25
(e) 19 : 25
Q169. If in another institute Z total boys is 20% more than number of boys in the institute A and
total students in institute Z to institute C is in ratio of 7:8. Then girls in institute Z are what percent
of the total students in same institute?
19
(a) 41 21 %
13
(b) 34 17 %
19
(c) 61 %
21
19
(d) 51 21 %
17
(e) 47 21 %
Q170. What is the average number of girls in institute B, C and D?

(a) 23
(b) 21
(c) 18
(d) 27
(e) 15
Q171. How many 5-digit numbers can be formed which contain only one times the digit ‘3’.
(a) 25,842
(b) 29,889
(c) 26,729
(d) 26,889
(e) 29,349

Q172. Two cards are drawn from a well shuffled pack of cards. If both card are spade, then a dice is
thrown and if 2 diamond cards are drawn, then a coin is tossed. Otherwise operation is stopped. In
how many ways we can get a tail.
(a) 78
(b) 52
(d) 156
(d) 65
(e) 102
Q173. How many 3 digit number can be formed by 0, 3, 2, 5, 7, 4, 9. Which is divisible by 5 and none
of digit is repeated?
(a) 55
(b) 58
(c) 68
(d) 54
(e) 52
Q174. There are 12 points in a plane out of which 8 are collinear. Find the number of triangles
formed from the points?
(a) 184
(b) None of these
(c) 154
(d) 164
(e) 168
Q175. Find total no. of arrangements which can be formed using letters of word ‘MARVELOUS’ so
that no vowels come together?
(a) 5! × 2!× 15
(b) 5! × 3!× 15
(c) 125
(d) 4! × 5!× 15
5!
(e) 4! × 15
Directions (176-180): What will come at the place of question mark in the following questions? (You
are not expected to find exact value)
Q176. 34.998% of 3499.999 + 24.92% of 2600.01 – 1259.98 = ?

(a) 615
(b) 635
(c) 725
(d) 680
(e) 585

Q177. 2395.99 + 259.99 × 4.98 – 449.988 – ? = 589.98
(a) 2428
(b) 2516
(c) 2860
(d) 2740
(e) 2656
Q178. 54.95% of 1999.99 + ?% of 5000.001 = 1824.999

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 22.5
(d) 14.5
(e) 26
Q179. (14.9 × 19.9) + (4.989)² × 13.010 = (?)²

(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 15
(d) 27
(e) 37
Q180. 2524.001 ÷ √𝟏𝟓. 𝟗 – 331.01 = (4.998)² × ?

(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 12
(e) 21
Directions (181-185): Two equations I and II are given below in each question. You have to solve
these equations and give answer
(a) if x<y
(b) if x>y
(c) if x≤y
(d) if x≥y
(e) if x=y or no relation can be established
Q181. I. √𝑥 + 18 = √144 − √49

II. 𝑦 2 + 409 = 473
Q182. I. 𝑦 2 − 𝑥 2 = 32
II. 𝑦 − 𝑥 = 2
Q183. I. x2−5x−14 = 0
II. y2+7y+10 = 0

Q184. I. 8𝑥 2 + 78𝑥 + 169 = 0
II. 20𝑦 2 − 117𝑦 + 169 = 0
Q185. I. 5x2+2x−3 = 0
II. 2y2+7y+6=0
Directions (186-187): Compare the value (only magnitude) of 2 quantities given in the question and
give answer
Q186. Quantity I: ‘x’: X, Y and Z can finish a work alone in 12, 18 and 9 days respectively. X started the
work and Y and Z together assisted him on every 3rd day. ‘x’ is total days in which work is completed.
Quantity II: ‘y’: A, B and C can finish a work alone in 20, 12 and 15 days respectively. All three starts
working together, after 2 days B left the work, after 4 more days C left and remaining work is completed
by A alone. A worked for ‘y’ days.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q187. There are 5 Red pens, 4 Black pens & 3Green pens in a bag. Four pens are chosen at random
Quantity I: The probability of being 2 Red pens and 2 Black pens.
Quantity II: The probability of being 2 Red pens, 1 Green pen & 1 blacks pen.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(c) Quantity II > Quantity I
(d) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Q188. Manoj incurred a loss of 40 percent on selling an article for Rs. 5,700. At what price should
he have sold the item to have profit of 30%?
(a) Rs. 12,650
(b) Rs. 9,500
(c) Rs. 11,850
(d) Rs. 11,450
(e) Rs. 12,350
Q189. The difference between Circumference of circle A and

diameter is 90 cm. If Radius of Circle B is 7 cm less than circle A
then find area of Circle B?
(a) 556 cm2
(b) 616 cm2
(c) 588 cm2
(d) 532 cm2
(e) 630 cm2

Q190. Rita and Gita enter into a partnership with their initial investments of Rs. 24000 and Rs.
40,000 respectively. They decided to distribute 40% of profit equally between them and rest
according to their investment ratio. If total profit after a year was Rs. 16,800 then find profit of Rita.
(a) Rs. 7,140
(b) Rs. 8,140
(c) Rs. 6,140
(d) Rs. 7,410
(e) Rs. 8,110
Direction (191-195): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number
series problems?
Q191. 325, 314, 288, 247, 191, ?

(a) 126
(b) 116
(c) 130
(d) 120
(e) 110
Q192. 620, 632, 608, 644, 596, ?

(a) 536
(b) 556
(c) 656
(d) 646
(e) 436
Q193. 120, 320, ?, 2070, 5195, 13007.5

(a) 800
(b) 920
(c) 850
(d) 900
(e) 820
Q194. 6, 4, 8, 23, ?, 385.25

(a) 84.5
(b) 73
(c) 78.5
(d) 82
(e) 72.5
Q195. 5, 11, 32, 108, 444, ?

(a) 1780
(b) 2230
(c) 1784
(d) 2225
(e) 2245

Q196. 24 workers working 13 hours daily make a wall of dimensions 224 m × 16 m × 52 m in 32
days. In how many days will 36 workers working 18 hours daily make a wall of dimensions 432 m
× 21 m × 64 m ?
(a) 58 days
(b) 42 days
(c) 48 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 62 days
Q197. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and Rs 1 coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total
amount in the bag is Rs 160. If there are thrice as many 1 Rs coins as there are 25 paise coins, then
what is the number of 50paise coins?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 120
(d) 80
(e) 70
Q198. If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Shyam and the resultant is divided by 18,
then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2 years younger to Mahesh whose
age is 5 years, then what is the age of Shyam?
(a) 48 years
(b) 60 years
(c) 84 years
(d) 96 years
(e) None of these
Q199. Three times the present age of a father is equal to eight times the present age of his son. Eight
years hence the father will be twice as old as his son at that time. What are their present ages?
(a) 35, 15
(b) 32, 12
(c) 40, 15
(d) 27, 8
(e) None of these
Q200. The ratio between speeds of A and B is 2:3 and therefore A

takes 10 minutes more than B to reach a destination. If A had
travelled at double the speed, he would have covered the
distance in
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
(e) None of these

Q201. The difference between present ages of Rohan and Rahul is 8 years. After 5 years, Rahul’s age
is twice of Rohan’s age. What will be Rohan’s after 20 years?
(a) 28 years
(b) 27 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 23 years
(e) None of these
Directions (202-205): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
The table given below provides the incomplete data related to monthly earning & expenditure of five
friends. Find the missing value if required to answer the questions.
Ratio of Savings &
Total Income Expenditure (in Rs) on
Friends Expenditure
(In Rs) Rent Food Others
S:E
Neha – 5:6 20% 15% 7800
Seema 28000 5:9 – 16% 62%
Reena 22000 –:– 2000 2200 58%
Shaalu 26000 –:6 15% 25% 7200
Aarti – 8:9 4000 4000 10000
Q202. Find the annual income of Neha.

(a) Rs 26,400
(b) Rs 2,65,000
(c) Rs 26,500
(d) Rs 2,64,000
(e) None of these
Q203. Find the difference in the monthly savings of Shaalu and Reena.
(a) Rs 1200
(b) Rs 2200
(c) Rs 2000
(d) Rs 1800
(e) Rs. 2600
Q204. Expenditure made by Seema on rent is what percent of expenditure made by Shaalu on food?
(a) 32%
(b) 132%
(c) 88%
(d) 120%
(e) 142%

Q205. The savings of Seema is what percent more or less than that of Aarti?
(a) 32%
(b) 36%
(c) 38%
(d) 40%
(e) 37.5%
Directions (206-210): find the wrong number in the following series.
Q206. 68, 130, 222, 336, 520, 720

(a) 68
(b) 130
(c) 222
(d) 336
(e) 720
Q207. 56, 89, 136.5, 212.75, 324.125, 491.1875

(a) 89
(b) 491.1875
(c) 56
(d) 136.5
(e) 212.75
Q208. 87, 116, 174, 261, 397, 522

(a) 397
(b) 174
(c) 261
(d) 87
(e) 522
Q209. 670, 736, 792, 850, 890, 972

(a) 736
(b) 792
(c) 890
(d) 670
(e) 850
Q210. 273, 249, 373, 337, 553, 504

(a) 249
(b) 373
(c) 273
(d) 337
(e) 504

Directions (211-215): In following questions three statements either A, B and C or I, II and III are
given. Question will be solved using these statements. Solve the questions and give answer
according to use of statements.
Q211. Arun borrowed a sum which is compounded annually, what is the amount he returned in 2
years?
I. Rate of interest is 6% per annum
II. Simple interest incurred on the sum in one year is Rs. 600
III. The borrowed sum is 10 times the amount earned as simple interest in two years.
(a) Only statement I and III are sufficient
(b) Only statement II is sufficient
(c) Only statement III is sufficient
(d) Any two are sufficient
(e) Statement II and either I or III are sufficient
Q212. What is the area of circle ?

Statement A: The radius of circle is three fifth of the slant height of a cone.
Statement B: The volume of cone is 432 cm³.
Statement C: the ratio between radius of cone and side of a square is 3 : 4.
(a) A is sufficient
(b) Any two of them are sufficient
(c) B and C together are sufficient
(d) Even using all the statement, answer cannot be found.
(e) None of these
Q213. What is the cost price of scooter ?

Statement A: The marked price of scooter is equal to selling price of a bike.
Statement B: The profit earned on selling the scooter is 15%.
Statement C: The selling prices of scooter and bike are in the ratio 3 : 5.
(a) B and C together are required.
(b) A and B together are sufficient
(c) A and C together are sufficient.
(d) Even using all statements, answer cannot be found.
(e) All the three statements are required
Q214. What will be the average of five odd numbers?

A. The largest no. is greater than the smallest by 12.
B. The sum of the largest and smallest nos. is equal to twice the middle one.
C. The difference of the first two numbers is 16.
(a) Only A and C together
(b) Only B and C together
(c) Any two of them
(d) Question can't be answered even after using all the information
(e) All statements are required

Q215. What is speed of boat in still water?
I. Speed of stream is two-third of speed of boat in still water
II. The boat covers 20 km in 2 hours in downstream
III. The boat covers 10 km in 5 hours in upstream.
(a) only statement II is sufficient
(b) Any two are sufficient
(c) I and II or III are sufficient
(d) Only statement III is sufficient
(e) None of these
Directions (216-220): Study the graphs carefully to answer the

questions that follow:
The given bar graph shows the number of children in six different schools and line graph shows the
percentage of girls out of total children for each of these schools.
Number of Children
3500
3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
A B C D E F
School
Percentage of Girls
50
40
30
20
10
0
A B C D E F
School

Q216. What is the total percentage of boys out of total children in schools C and F together ?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(a) 78.55%
(b) 72.45%
(c) 76.28%
(d) 75.83%
(e) None of these
Q217. What is the total number of boys in School E ?

(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 750
(d) 850
(e) None of these
Q218. The total number of students in school C is approximately what per cent of the total number
of students in school D ?
(a) 89%
(b) 75%
(c) 78%
(d) 82%
(e) 94%
Q219. What is the average number of boys in schools A and B together ?

(a) 1425
(b) 1575
(c) 1450
(d) 1625
(e) 1265
Q220. What is the ratio of the number of girls in school A to the number of girls in school B?
(a) 27 : 20
(b) 17 : 21
(c) 20 : 27
(d) 21 : 17
(e) None of these
Directions (221-225): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
Q221. 7960 +2956 – 8050 + 4028 = ?

(a) 6984
(b) 6884
(c) 6894
(d) 6954
(e) 7894

Q222. 25 × 3.25 + 50.4 ÷ 24 = ?
(a) 84.50
(b) 83.35
(c) 83.53
(d) 82.45
(e) 92.84
Q223. 350% of ? ÷ 50 + 248 = 591

(a) 4900
(b) 4890
(c) 4850
(d) 4950
(e) 4750
Q224. 1/2 of 3842 + 15% of ? =2449

(a) 3520
(b) 3250
(c) 3350
(d) 3540
(e) 2850
Q225. (833.25 – 384.45) ÷ 24 = ?

(a) 1.87
(b) 20.1
(c) 2.01
(d) 18.7
(e) 16.7

Solutions
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. +9², +11², +13², +15²…….
∴ ? = 1157 + 289 = 1446
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. –9², –7², –5²……….
∴ ? = 1394 - 25 = 1369
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. +4², +5², +6², +7²………
∴ ? = 134 + 64 = 198
S4. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. –103, –103, –103………
∴ ? = 1337 - 103 = 1234
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Required Probability
3 4 1 1
= (7𝐶 1 + 7𝐶 1 ) × 2 = 2
𝐶1 𝐶1
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Favorable cases = (4, 4), (4, 6), (6, 4) or (6, 6)
4 1
Required probability= 36 = 9
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Possible number of ways = Two black and one red or one black
and two red.
= 26C2 × 26C1 + 26C1 × 26C2
= 2 × 13 × 25 × 26
Total number of ways = 52C3
52 × 51 × 50
= 1×2×3
= 26 × 17 × 50
Probability of the event
2 × 13 × 25 × 26 13
= 26 × 17 × 50 = 17

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. At least one girl = Total ways – ways of no girl
= 10 𝑐4 − 4 𝑐4
10 × 9 × 8 × 7
= −1
4×3×2
= 210 – 1 = 209
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. For a number to be even, last digit of that number must be an even digit.
∴ Required ways = 4 × 4 × 2 = 32
S11. Ans.(e)
Sol. Required fund = (38 –12) % of 16,00,00,000
= Rs. 4,16,00,000
S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. Required remaining amount
= 42% of 16 cr – 25% of 16 cr
= 17% of 16 cr
= 2.72 crore
S13. Ans.(a)
16 2
Sol. Required percentage = × 100 = 42 %
38 19
S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. Required amount for payment = 35% of 16 crore
35 × 16
= = Rs. 5.6 crore
100
S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. Fund acquired from ministry of home affairs = 42% of 16 crore
42 × 16
= = Rs. 6.72 crore
100
S16. Ans.(a)
Sol. Quantity I. Hole can empty the tank in 8 hours
Due to an inlet it takes 12 hours.
LCM of 8 and 12 = 24
24 24
Efficiency of inlet pipe= − 12 = 1
8
24
So, inlet pipe can full it in = 24 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟
1
Water in tank = 24 × 60 × 6 = 8640 litre

R t
Quantity II. CI = P (1 + 100) − P
R t
2448 = P [(1 + ) − 1]
100
4 2
2448 = P [(1 + 100) − 1]
676
2448 = P [625 − 1]
51
2448 = P [625]
2448×625
∴P= = 30000
51
30000×4×2
∴ SI = = Rs. 2400
100
From here, QI > QII
S17. Ans.(b)
Sol. Quantity I. Let present age of Abhishek and Rohit is x and y respectively.
ATQ,
𝑥−4 4
=5
𝑦−4
5x – 4y = 4 ____(I)
𝑥+2 5
=
𝑦+2 6
6x – 5y = –2 ____(II)
Solving (I) and (II)
X = 28, y = 34
28+34
So, average age of Abhishek and Rohit = = 31 years
2
Quantity II. Let initial quantity of milk = 3x
Let initial quantity of water = x
ATQ,
3𝑥−15+15 4
=1
𝑥−5
3𝑥 4
=1
𝑥−5
3x = 4x – 20
x = 20
So, initial quantity of mixture = (3x + x)
= 4 × 20
= 80 L
∴ Quantity I < Quantity II
S18. Ans.(b)
6 5 3 65
Sol. Total quantity of acid = 7 + 7 + 4 = 28
& total quantity of water
1 2 1 19
= + + =
7 7 4 28
∴ Required ratio = 65: 19

S19. Ans.(c)
200
Sol. Initial quantity of acid = 100 × 15 = 30 ℓ
Let x litre of second solution is added.
30 + 0.3𝑥 20 30 + 0.3𝑥 25
∴ > & <
200 + 𝑥 100 200 + 𝑥 100
30 + 0.3𝑥 1 30 + 0.3𝑥 1
⇒ > & <
200 + 𝑥 5 200 + 𝑥 4
⇒ 200 + x < 150 + 1.5x & 200 + x > 120 + 1.2x
⇒ x > 100 & x < 400
⇒ 100ℓ < x < 400ℓ
S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. Area of road is = 16 × 1.5 + 24 × 1.5 – 1.5 × 1.5
= 24 + 36 – 2.25
= 57.75
So, total cost of road making = 57.75 × 310 Rs.
= Rs. 17902.5
Solutions (21-25):
Total students = 150
Boys = 70, Girls = 80
Discipline Boys (70) Girls (80)
Marketing 40% of 70 = 28 50% of 80 = 40
HR 30% of 70 = 21 30% of 80 = 24
Finance 30% of 70 = 21 20% of 80 = 16
HR +Marketing 7 9
HR+ Finance 6 7
Marketing+ Finance 5 8
Marketing + Finance +HR 2 3

S21. Ans.(a)
Sol. Students those are enrolled in all three disciplines = 2 + 3 = 5
5
∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 3.3%
150
S22 Ans.(b)
Sol. The ratio of boys to girls only in marketing disciplines = 18 : 26 = 9 : 13
S23. Ans.(c)
Sol. The ratio of the number of boys in marketing and finance both and girls only in finance = 5 : 4
S24. Ans.(d)
Sol. Boys in marketing discipline = 28
Girls in HR discipline = 24
28−24 4 2
Required percentage = × 100% ⇒ 24 × 100% = 16 3 %
24
S25. Ans.(a)
Sol. The ratio of boys to girls enrolled only in HR discipline is = 10 : 11
S26. Ans.(b)
Sol. 23.8 + 13.2 = 37
S27. Ans.(a)
Sol. 81.2 + 52.2 = 133.4
S28. Ans.(a)
Sol. 26 + 16 = 42
S29. Ans.(c)
Sol. 149834 − 85973 = 63861
S30. Ans.(a)
Sol. 66.6 + 99.9 = 166.5
S31. Ans.(a)
Sol. p + q + r + s = 64 ……..(i)
S
p + 3 = q − 3 = 3r = 3 = K (say)
K
∴ p = K − 3, q = K + 3, r = 3 , s = 3K
∴ from (i)
K
(K − 3) + (K + 3) + ( ) + (3K) = 64
3
⇒ K = 12
∴ p = 9, q = 15, r = 4, s = 36
So, required difference = 36 – 4 = 32

S32. Ans.(a)
Sol. Total investment = (13 + 23 + 8) % of monthly salary
= 44% of salary
Now, 13% = 8554
8554
∴ 44% = × 44 = Rs. 28952
13
S33. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let the highest score be 𝑥
∴ 40 × 50 = 38 × 48 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 – 172
⇒ 2000 = 1824 + 2𝑥 − 172
⇒ 𝑥 = 174 runs.
S34. Ans.(c)
Sol.
5
5𝑥−16× 3
3
8
=5
3𝑥−16× +16
8
5𝑥−10 3
⇒ 3𝑥+10 = 5
⇒ 25𝑥 − 50 = 9𝑥 + 30
⇒𝑥=5
∴ volume of vessel = (5 + 3) × 5 = 40ℓ
S35. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let 𝑥 ltr. of acid drawn initially,
𝑥 2 24
∴ (1 − 54) = 54
⇒ 2916 + 𝑥 2 − 108𝑥 = 24 × 54
⇒ 𝑥 2 − 108𝑥 + 1620 = 0
⇒ 𝑥 = 18 ℓ (Neglecting 𝑥 = 90 because total capacity is 54 ℓ)
S36. Ans.(e)
460×850 270×6280
Sol. + × 6284 − 1486
100 100
= 3910 − 1486 + 16956 ≈ 19380
S37. Ans.(e)
Sol. 28 = (3.5 + ? )2
⇒ 14 = 3.5+ ?
⇒ ? = 14 − 3.5 = 10.5
S38. Ans.(c)
Sol. ≈ 4 × 24 – 31
⇒ 96 − 31 = 65

S39. Ans.(d)
Sol. (1702 ÷ 68) × 136.05 = 50 ×?
1702
≈ × 136 = 50 × ?
68
3400
∴ ?= = 68
50
S40. Ans.(d)
Sol.
≈ 70% × 1400 − 14% × 1300
≈ 980 − 182 = 798
≈ 800
S41. Ans.(c)
Sol. Required average
1
= 5 (0.4 × 240 + 0.4 × 260 + 0.4 × 270 + 0.45 × 260 + 0.5 × 260) × 1000
1
= × 555 × 1000 = 111000
5
S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. Capacity in 2010 = (170 + 28 + 240) × 1000 = 438000
Total utilization in 2014 = (0.6 × 225 + 0.55 × 40 + 0.5 × 260) × 1000 = 287000
151000
∴ Required percentage = 287000 × 100 ≈ 52.6%
S43. Ans.(e)
Sol. Production of A = (170 + 200)×1000 = 370000
Utilization of C = (0.4 × 270 + 0.45 × 260 + 0.5 × 260) × 1000 = 355000
∴ Required difference = 15000
S44. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total unutilized in 2013 = (0.4 × 210 + 0.5 × 40 + 0.55 × 260) × 1000 = 247000
20
∴ unutilized at cost = 100 × 247000 = 49,400
S45. Ans.(e)
200 + 260 460
Sol. Required ratio = (0.6 =
× 210) − (0.45 × 260) 9
S46. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let the rate of interest be R percent per annum.
400×2×𝑅 550×4×𝑅 1200×6×𝑅
∴ + + = 1020
100 100 100
⇒ 8R + 22R + 72R = 1020
⇒ 102 R = 1020
1020
⇒R= = 10%
102

S47. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let Rs. P be lent at 12% then Rs. (12,000–P) is lent at 16%, then
P × 3 × 12 (12000 – P) × 9 × 16
∴ =
100 200
𝑃 9 × 16 × 100 2
⇒ 12000 – 𝑃 = 3 × 12 × 200 = 1 = 2:1
S48. Ans.(c)
Sol. 110% of CP – 90% of CP = 80
20%of CP = 80
80
CP = 20 × 100 = 𝑅𝑠. 400
S49. Ans.(c)
1600 × 90
Sol. SP after first discount = = 𝑅𝑠. 1440
100
∴ Second discount = 1440 – 1224 = Rs. 216
1440 × 𝑥
∴ = 216
100
216×100
∴𝑥= = 15%
1440
S50. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let the sum be P and rate of interest per annum be R.
𝑅 4
6750 P(1+ )
100
= R 2
4500 P(1+ )
100
6750 R 2
= (1 + )
4500 100
𝑅 2 9 3
⇒ (1 + 100) = 6 = 2
3
So, P × 2 = 4500
4500×2
⇒P= = Rs. 3000
3
S51. Ans.(b)
Sol. ? ≈ 400 ÷ 8 × 12 + 245 – 190 ≃ 655
S52. Ans.(c)
4 48 52
Sol. of ? ≃ × 450 + × 440
5 100 100
? ≃ 556
S53. Ans.(d)
Sol.? ≃ 12 + 26 + 6 – 11 ≃ 33
S54. Ans.(a)
43 57
Sol.? ≃ 100 × 800 + 100 × 900 ≃ 857

S55. Ans.(d)
115 84
Sol. ? ≃ 100 × 560 + 100 × 420 ≃ 997
S56. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let total no. of students who applied for the post of JE and AE from UP are 81x and 61x respectively.
∴ 81x + 61x = 1,15,700 – (40,000 + 10,500 + 8,400)
= 56,800 ⇒ x = 400
∴ Required answer = 61 × 400 = 24,400
S57. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total candidates from Delhi who applied for the post of AE
= 5 × 16,880 – (20,000 + 36,000 + 7,200 + 4,800) = 16,400
16,400 7
∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 227 9 %
7,200
S58. Ans.(d)
150 60
Sol. Required answer = 100 × 100 × 16,400 = 14,760
S59. Ans.(a)
Sol. Required total no. of candidates
80
= 12,500 + 8,400 + 100 × 20,000 + 5,400
= 42,300
S60. Ans.(c)
225 1175 47
Sol. (100 − ) % = 1400 = 56 %
14
47
∴ 56 → (8400 + 4800 + 2400 + 3200)
⇒ Total no. of candidates from all states together
56
= 47 × 18,800 = 22,400
225
∴ Required answer = 1400 × 22,400
= 3,600
S61. Ans.(d)
Sol. From A, R + F + M +S = 90
1
From B, R + M + S = 18 3 × 3
4
From C, M + S = 7 × 2𝐹
From all three statements together, the answer can be obtained.

S62. Ans.(a)
Sol. From I & II,
Let CP = x
6𝑥
S.P = 5
6𝑥 90 54𝑥
Now, New S.P = × 100 =
5 50
54𝑥
⇒ − 𝑥 = 1200
50
⇒ 𝑥 = 15000
∴ SP. = 18000
& from III & I, we can obtain selling price.
& from II & III,
Let S.P. = x
When 10% discount,
9𝑥
S.P. = 10
9𝑥
∴ 10 − 15000 = 1200
⇒ 𝑥 = 18000
Thus, any two of the three statements are required.
S63. Ans.(b)
Sol.
12G + 8C → 24 days
⇒ 3G + 2C → 24×4 days
From A,
2M = (3G + 2C)
⇒ 2M → 24 × 4 days
⇒ 1M → 24 × 4 × 2 days
From B, 3G = 6C
⇒ G = 2C, ⇒ (12 + 4) G → 24 days
⇒ 1G → 24 × 16 days
1 1
∴ 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝐴 + 𝐵, 12M + 12G → (24×8 + 24×16) × 12
1 1 32
→ 16 + 32 → days
3
From C,
Not known no. of persons.
S64. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let the thickness of gold be r.

Then, volume of gold = Volume of ball – Volume of lead ball
Volume of gold
4 4
= 𝜋(2 + 𝑟)3 − 𝜋(2)3 ……….(i)
3 3
Now, it is given that Volume of gold
= Volume of lead ball
4 4 4
So, 3 𝜋(2)3 = 3 𝜋(2 + 𝑟)3 − 3 𝜋(2)3
4 4 4
𝜋(2)3 + 3 𝜋(2)3 = 3 𝜋(2 + 𝑟)3
3
8 4
⇒ 3 𝜋(2)3 = 3 𝜋(2 + 𝑟)3
⇒ 2(2)3 = (2 + 𝑟)3
3
⇒ √2 × 2 = 2 + 𝑟
⇒ 1.259 × 2 = 2 + 𝑟
3
(∵ √2 = 1.259)
⇒ 2.518 = 2 + r
∴ r = 2.518 – 2 = 0.518 cm
S65. Ans.(d)
Sol. Given, 2 𝜋𝑟 = 44
44 22 22×7
𝑟 = 2𝜋 = = = 7𝑐𝑚
𝜋 22
Inner radius of pipe = 7 – 1
= 6 cm
Volume of pipe = 𝜋r2h
= 𝜋 × 62 × 7
22
= × 62 × 7
7
= 792 𝑐𝑚3
S66. Ans.(c)
Sol.
68 14
? ≃ 100 × 1400 − 100 × 1300 ≃ 770
S67. Ans.(d)
Sol.
? ≃ 5467 – 3245 + 1123 – 2310 ≃ 1035
S68. Ans.(d)
Sol.
6000
?≃ + 671 − 140
10
≃ 1131
≃ 1130

S69. Ans.(e)
Sol.
? ≃ 900 – 81 – 125
≃ 694
S70. Ans.(b)
Sol.
56 × 24 × 8
?≃
16
≃ 672
≃ 670
S71. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let population of females and children in colony A be 3x and 7x respectively.
75
∴ 10𝑥 = × 2400
100
x = 180
120
No. of females in colony A in year 2017 = 540 × 100 = 648
∴ Required no. of males and children together in colony A in 2017 = 2400 – 648
= 1752
S72. Ans.(c)
50 100
Sol. Total no. of males in colony C = 100 × 30 × 180
= 300
1 84
No. of males in colony D = 3 × 100 × 800
= 224
∴ Required difference = 300 – 224
= 76
S73. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total population of males in colony B
40 2 125
= × × × 2400
100 5 100
= 480
30 3 125
And that of children in colony C = 100 × 5 × 100 × 2400
= 540
480
∴ Required ratio = 540 = 8 ∶ 9
S74. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let males in colony D = 2x
Females in colony A = 5x
Let population of children in colony A = a%
6𝑎
∴ No. of children in colony A in 2017 = 5 %
From here we cannot find the required answer

S75. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let total population of colony C = 5x
& that of colony E = 4x
0.4×4𝑥−0.3×5𝑥
Required Percent = × 100
0.3×5𝑥
100
= % = 6.67%
15
S76. Ans.(b)
1
Sol. 1/4 min = 4 × 60 sec = 15 sec
1
1/6 min = 6 × 60 sec = 10 sec
420
Speed of the first train= = 28 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
15
420
Speed of the second train= = 42 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
10
Total speed in opposite direction= 28+42 = 70 m/sec
Total distance covered = 420+420 = 840 meter
840
Time= 70 = 12 𝑠𝑒𝑐
S77. Ans.(d)
Sol. After servicing speed = 65 km/h
Time = 5 hours
Distance = Speed × Time = 65 ×5 = 325 km
Before servicing, speed = 40 km/h.
So, time taken
Distance 325
= =
Speed 40
= 8 hours (approx. )
S78. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let the speed of boat in still water = u
Speed in downstream = u+4
Speed in upstream= u-4
6 6
A/q, 𝑢+4 + 𝑢−4 =2
6u= u2 -16
u2 -6u-16=0
(u+2) (u-8) =0
U=8
S79. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the speed of boat in still water be x km/hr
ATQ
𝑥 + 3 + 𝑥 − 3 = 36
𝑥 = 18
52.5
Required time= 21 = 2.5 ℎ𝑟

S80. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let slower train moves with x km/hr . Hence speed of faster train will be (x + 6) kmph
∴ (x+ x+ 6) × 5 = 160
Or, 10x + 30 =160
Or, x = 13
∴speed of faster train = 13 + 6 = 19 km/hr
S81. Ans.(a)
Sol. ? – 4 = 5 + 6
⇒ ? =15
S82. Ans.(c)
Sol. ? = 2.1020
S83. Ans.(e)
Sol.
?
× 540 − 40 = 196
100
19
⇒? = 43
27
S84. Ans.(d)
Sol.
(0.356 − 0.106)2
?= = 0.0625
(0.632 + 0.368)2
S85. Ans.(c)
Sol.
9 4 3 2
? = 4 × ( × ÷ × ) = 12
8 3 4 3
S86. Ans.(a)
Sol.
325
250 325 × 375
550 = = 39 ∶ 44
250 × 550
375
S87. Ans.(c)
220
Sol. 2016: No. of consumers = 100 [225] = 495 thousand
Electricity consumption = 550 Lacs
550×100000
∴ Electricity consumption per consumer = 495×1000
= 111 units per consumer
550×100000
2015: Electricity consumption per consumer = 375000
≈ 147 units per consumer
Hence, the Impact is reduction of 36 units per consumer

S88. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total consumer all over the year = 225 + 250 + 300 + 350 + 375 = 1500 thousand
325×100000
Desired value = = 21.67 times approx
1500000
S89. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total units in 2011 and 2013 = 650 Lacs
Total units in 2012 and 2014 = 900 Lacs
250
Desired value = 900 × 100 ≈ 28% approx.
S90. Ans.(c)
Sol. It is clear from the graph that unit consumption is highest in 2014 while consumers-electricity unit
difference is maximum as well. Hence, Ratio of unit consumption to the number of consumers is maximum
in 2014.
S91. Ans.(a)
Sol.
3 27
+ 2B = 1 ……….(i)
A
9 9
= 2A + B = 1 ………(ii)
Multiply (i) by 3/2 and on solving
A will take 7.5 days and B will take 22.5 days.
S92. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let time taken by all to complete the work =x hours
Then,
A will take = (x + 6)h
B will take = (x + 1)h
C will take = (2x)h
So,
1 1 1 1
+ + =
(x + 6) x + 1 2x x
2x 2 + 2x + 2x 2 + 12x + x 2 + 7x + 6 1
= =
(x + 6)(x + 1)(2x) x
2 2
5x + 21x + 6 = 2x + 14x + 12
3x 2 + 7x − 6 = 0
3x 2 + 9x − 2x − 6 = 0
3x(x + 3) − 2(x + 3) = 0
2
x = , −3
3
so,
x = 40 mins

S93. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let filling capacity be 𝑥 m3 /min
So, emptying capacity = (𝑥 + 10) m3 /min
According to question
2400 2400
− 𝑥+10 = 8
𝑥
𝑥+10−𝑥
⇒ 2400 (𝑥(𝑥+10)) = 8
⇒ 𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 − 3000 = 0
⇒ 𝑥 = 50 m3 /min
S94. Ans.(b)
Sol. Using formula,
S(S + 5)
× 4 = 600
5
S(S + 5) = 750 = 25 (25 + 5)
Speed of the train = 25 km/hr
Alternately,
600 600
− =4
𝑠 𝑠+5
600s + 3000 − 600s
=4
s(s + 5)
s = 25 km/hr
S95. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let the distance covered by cycle=x
𝑥 90 − 𝑥
+ =5
15 20
4𝑥 + 270 − 3𝑥
=5
60
x=30 km
S96. Ans.(d)
Sol. Series is −11, −(11 × 2), −(11 × 3), −(11 × 4), … … ..
S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. Series is × 1 + 1,× 1.5 + 1,× 2 + 1,× 2.5 + 1, … … ..
S98. Ans.(c)
Sol. Series is +(1× 12), −(2 × 12), +(3 × 12), −(4 × 12), +(5 × 12), … ….
S99. Ans.(e)
Sol. Series is × 2 − (1 × 5),× 2 − (2 × 5),× 2 − (3 × 5),× 2 − (4 × 5), … …

S100. Ans.(e)
Sol. Series is × 2.5 + 20,× 2.5 + 20,× 2.5 + 20, … ….
S101. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total population of Delhi who is not smoking
67500
= × 100 − 67,500
20
= 2,70,000
5
×67,500
Required percentage = 92,70,000 × 100
≃ 14%
S102. Ans.(c)
Sol. Total persons who died due to smoking in Mumbai
82500
=
4
= 20,625
20625
Required percentage = 2 × 100
×82500
5
= 62.5%
S103. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total production in Lucknow who is not smoker
5
= 52500 × − 52500
3
= 35,000
11
× 52500
∴ Required ratio = 15
2
× 52,500
3
11
=
10
S104. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required difference
1 (5−4) (11−4) (3−2) (5−1) (17−8)
= 5 × [ 9 × 67,500 + × 52,500 + × 82,500 + × 45,000 + × 75,000 ]
15 5 6 25
1
= × 105,500
5
= 21, 100
S105. Ans.(c)
Sol. Required ratio
90 5 80 5 75 17
=( × × 67,500) : ( × × 45,000) : ( × × 75,000)
100 9 100 6 100 25
= 33,750 : 30,000 : 38,250
= 45 : 40 : 51

S106. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let Arun takes 𝑥 and Rahim takes 3𝑥 days to finish the work
∵ 3𝑥 − 𝑥 = 20 ⇒ 𝑥 = 10
Rahim’s time to finish the work = 3 × 10 = 30 days
1 1 4
∴ (Arun + Rahim)’s 1 days work = 10 + 30 = 30
15
∴ (Arun + Rahim) will finish the work in days
2
1
i.e. 7 2 days.
S107. Ans.(b)
Sol. 1 man con complete the work in 16 × 24 = 384 days
1
1 man per day work = 384
16 1
16 men per day work = 384 = 24
16 1
16 women per day work = 32 ×24 = 48
1 1 1
(16 men + 16 women) per day work = 24 + 48 = 16
12
Work done in 12 days = 16
12 1
Remaining work = 1 – 16 = 4
This work should be completed in 2 days
1 1 1
So per day work should be 4 × 2 = 8
1
But right now only 16 work per day is being done.
1 1 1 1
So (8 – 16 = 16) more work is required for which 16 = 24 more man are required.
1
384
S108. Ans.(e)
Sol. Rinki: 15 days → 36% of the work
∴ 20 days → 48% of the work
Total work done by Rinki = 48% + 36% = 84%
Which means kirti did only 16% of the work in 20 days while comparing the working efficiency
Rinki kirti
In 20 days, 48% 16%
∴ 𝐄𝐟𝐟𝐢𝐜𝐢𝐞𝐧𝐜𝐲 𝟑 : 𝟏
S109. Ans.(e)
Sol. First train speed = 45 km/hr
2nd train speed = 60 km/hr
∴ Difference in distance covered in 1 hr = 15 km

S110. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let the cost price of one table be x.
Then, cost price of other table will be (2200 – x).
95 106
𝑥× + (2200 − 𝑥) × = 2200
100 100
⇒ 95x + 233200 – 106x = 220000
⇒ 11x = 13200
⇒ x = Rs 1200
And, 2200 – x = Rs 1000
S111. Ans.(d)
Sol. Income in the year of 2008 by R
100 109
= × 18.9 ×
9 100
= Rs. 228.9 lakhs
S112. Ans.(a)
Sol.
14 − 10
% rise = × 100 = 40%
10
S113. Ans.(a)
Sol. Total expenditure of P in 2007
100
= × 2.1 = 30 lakhs
7
S114. Ans.(c)
Sol. Average % profit of company S
1
= × (7 + 8 + 13 + 14 + 15 + 15)
6
1
= × 72 = 12%
6
S115. Ans.(b)
Sol. Average of percentage value of profit earned by all companies except Q in the year 2005
1
= × (9 + 5 + 8 + 12 + 6)
5
1
= × 40 = 8%
5
∴ Required difference = 10 – 8 = 2%
S116. Ans.(d)
Sol. Series is

S117. Ans.(b)
Sol. Pattern is ÷8, ÷6, ÷4, ÷2
∴ ? = 12.5 ÷ 4 = 3.125
S118. Ans.(a)
Sol. Series is
S119. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pattern is +14×1, +14×3, +14×9, +14×27
∴ ? = 564 + 14 × 81 = 1698
S120. Ans.(b)
Sol. Pattern is ×1+1, ×2+2, ×3+3, ×4+4, ×5+5
∴ ? = 352 × 5 + 5 = 1765
S121. Ans.(a)
Sol. From 1, Let one stem is bought at Rs. x and other will be bought at Rs.(7500 − 𝑥)
According to question,
116 86
𝑥× + (7500 − 𝑥) × = 7500
100 100
⇒ 116𝑥 + 7500 × 86 − 86𝑥 = 7,50,000
⇒ 𝑥 = 3500
And, other’s selling price is = 7500 – 3500
= 4000
∴ Required difference = 4000 – 3500 = 500
From 2, Let cost price of B = Rs. x
∴ CP of A = (x + 200)
90 125 104
∴ × (x + 200) + ×x= × (2x + 200)
100 100 100
⇒ 90x + 18000 + 125x = 208x + 20800
⇒ x = 400
Quantity 1 > Quantity 2
S122. Ans.(a)
Sol. From 1, Let speeds of A and B is 3x kmph and 4x kmph respectively.
Let time taken by A = t hours
And time taken by B,
3
= (t − ) hours
4
3
∴ 3x × t = 4x × (t– )
4
⇒ 3t = 4t – 3
⇒ t = 3 hours
∴ Required distance
4 9 3
= × 28 × + × 28 × 3
7 4 7
= 72 km
From 2, Total cost to the shopkeeper
= 30 × 45
= Rs. 1350
Let required rate is Rs. x per kg
125
∴ 12 × 50 + 18 × x = × 45 × 30
100
⇒ 18x = 1687.5 – 600
⇒ x ≃ Rs. 60 per kg
Quantity 1 > Quantity 2
S123. Ans.(a)
Sol. Required percentage
30 45
× 3 + 100 × 7
100
= × 100
10
= 40.5%
S124. Ans.(d)
Sol. Original price
100 100
= 1360 × × = 2,000
80 85
S125. Ans.(b)
Sol. 2S, 2E, P, C, I
5!
Required ways = × 2! = 60
2! × 2!
Let total students doing B. tech in IIT Delhi be 100𝑥 and total students doing B. tech in IIT Mumbai be 120𝑥
40
Total students in CS stream in IIT Mumbai = 120𝑥 × 100 = 48𝑥
20
Total students in Mechanical stream in IIT Mumbai = 120𝑥 × 100 = 24𝑥
Total students in Electrical stream in IIT Mumbai
= 120𝑥– (48𝑥 + 24)= 48x
Total students in CS stream in IIT Delhi
100
= 48𝑥 × 240 = 20𝑥

Total students in Mechanical stream in IIT Delhi
= 24𝑥 × 2= 48𝑥
Total students in Electrical stream in Delhi IIT
= 100𝑥 – (20𝑥 + 48𝑥) = 32𝑥
Given 32𝑥 = 240
𝑥 = 7.5
Total students doing B. TECH in IIT Delhi
= 7.5 × 100 = 750
Total students doing B. tech in IIT Mumbai
= 7.5 × 120= 900
IIT Delhi IIT Mumbai
Stream Students Stream Students
CS 150 CS 360
Mechanical 360 Mechanical 180
Electrical 240 Electrical 360
S126. Ans.(b)
600–360
Sol. Required percentage = 600 × 100
240
= 600 × 100 = 40%
S127. Ans.(e)
Sol. Average number of students in CS stream in both IIT’s
150+360
= 2 = 255
Average number of students in Electrical stream in both IIT’s
240+360
= = 300
2
Required difference = 300 – 255 = 45
S128. Ans.(c)
750 + 900
Sol. Required average = 2
1650
= = 825
2
S129. Ans.(e)
Sol. Total surface area of sphere = 4πr²
Total surface area of hemisphere = 3πr²
Let radius of hemisphere and sphere be 3𝑥 cm
And 2𝑥 cm respectively.
ATQ—
3πr³ – 4πr² = 423.5 cm²
22 22
3 × 7 × (3𝑥)2 – 4 × 7 × (2𝑥)2 = 423.5
𝑥 = 3.5 cm
21
Radius of hemisphere = 2 cm =10.5

S130. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let initially wine was 3x
∴ Final quantity of wine
𝑥 4
= 3𝑥 (1– )
3𝑥
16
= 3𝑥 ×
81
16𝑥
=
27
∴ Required ratio
16x
27 16
= 16x =
3x – 65
27
S131. Ans.(a)
Sol.
?
55 × 48 - 100 × 8000 = (12)3 + 68 × 4
?
× 8000 = 2640 − 1728 − 272
100
640×100
?= 8000
?=8
S132. Ans.(b)
Sol.
352 + ? 125
+ 100 × 64 – √361 = (10)2
32
352 + ?
= 100 + 19 − 80
32
? = 1248 – 352
? = 896
S133. Ans.(d)
Sol.
4590 37 × 4800
+ (25)2 − + 105 = (22)2
? 100
4590
+ 625 − 1776 + 105 = 484
?
4590
= (484 + 1776 − 730)
?
4590
?=
1530
?=3

S134. Ans.(b)
Sol.
32
44 × 25 + 48 × 15 + ? = × 6000
100
1100 + 720 + ? = 1920
? = 1920 – 1820
? = 100
S135. Ans.(a)
Sol.
?
× 700 + (21)2 - √3844 = (18)3
100
?
× 700 + 441 - 62 = 5832
100
?
× 700 = 5832 – 441 + 62
100
5453
?= 7
? = 779
S136. Ans.(b)
Sol. From 1, one day work of one man in both cases will be equal.
3
∴ 40 × 28 = × 28 × (40 + 𝑥)
4
1 1
⇒ 𝑥 = 40 × = 13
3 3
≃ 14
From 2,
Let present ages of Ria and Shweta be 4x and 7x respectively.
∴ Abby’s present age = (7x + 4) years
ATQ,
4x +7x + 4 = 48 ⇒ x = 4
Shweta’s present age = 7×4 = 28 years
Abby’s present age= 28+4 = 32 years
∴ Abby’s age two years ago = 32 -2 = 30 years
∴ Quantity 1 < Quantity 2
S137. Ans.(b)
Sol. From 1, Ajay’s score = 63 + 30 = 93
Rahul’s score = 93 – 15 = 78
Manish’s score = 78 – 10 = 68
∴ Suresh’s score = 63 × 3 – (68 + 78) = 43
∴ Required sum = 68 + 43 = 111
From 2, CP of Chandra= Rs 150
70
CP of Mayank = 150 × 100 = 105
120
SP of Mayank = 100 × 105 = Rs 126

S138. Ans.(a)
Sol. From 1, Let length of train B = x m
∴ length of train A = 2x m
Let speed of train B = s m/sec
And, speed of train A (in m/sec)
5
= 90 × 18 = 25 m/sec
ATQ,
(25 – s) × 5 = (25 – 2s) ×15
⇒ 25 – s = 75 – 6s
⇒ s = 10 m/sec
∴ Length of train B
(25 − 10) × 5
=
3
= 25 m
From 2, Let Shilpa’s present age = x years
Raghu’s present age = y years
x + 4 + y – 4 = 63
x + y = 63 …(i)
x – 4 10
and, =
y + 3 21
⇒ 21x – 84 = 10y + 30
⇒ 21x – 10y = 114 …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
x = 24 years
S139. Ans.(d)
6!
Sol. Required ways = 2! = 360
S140. Ans.(c)
𝑥
Sol. Let the fraction = 𝑦
3.5𝑥
After increasing numerator and denominator = 2.5𝑦
∴ Required percentage
3.5𝑥
2.5𝑦
= 𝑥 × 100 = 140 %
𝑦
S141. Ans.(b)
25 55 18 75
= × × 2,84,000 – × × 2,84,000
100 100 100 100
= 39,050 – 38,340 = 710

S142. Ans.(c)
42×15 7
Sol.Required ratio = 18×75 = 15
S143. Ans.(d)
Sol. Required average
1 25 45 18 25 5 24
= ( × + × + × ) × 2,84,000
3 100 100 100 100 100 100
1 45 18 12
= 2840 × [ + + ]
3 4 4 10
1 450 + 180 + 48
= 2840 × [ ]
3 40
1 678
= 284 × 3 × 4 = 71× 226 = 16046
S144. Ans.(a)
Sol. No. of employees in Home ministry who do not have higher education
25 55
= × × 2,84,000
100 100
= 39,050
No. of employees in Defence Ministry who have higher education
42 15
= × × 2,84,000
100 100
= 17,892
∴ Required percentage
39,050 – 17,892
= × 100 ≃ 118%
17,892
S145. Ans.(d)
Sol. Required total number
42 15 25 18 10 40 25
=( × + × + × ) × 2,84,000 ×
100 100 100 100 100 100 100
42 15 25 18 10 40
= (100 × 100 + 100 × 100 + 100 × 100) × 71000
[63+45+40] × 71 = 148 × 71
= 10,508
S146. Ans.(d)
Sol.
1 3 4 3
(14 + 16 + 14 + 12) + ( + + + )=?
11 11 121 11
11 + 33 + 4 + 33
? = 56 + ( )
121
81
= 56 +
121
81
= 56
121

S147. Ans.(e)
Sol. 49.5 + 987 − 48 =?
? = 988.5
S148. Ans.(c)
Sol. 10971 − 941 × 3 = ?
? = 8148
S149. Ans.(b)
63
Sol. 9 × 25 × 75 = ?
? = 189
S150. Ans.(a)
Sol. 88 × √? = 15224
√? = 173
? = 29929
S151. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let quantity of A & B be 4x & x.
According to the question,
4
4𝑥 − 10 × 5 2
1 =
𝑥 − 10 × 5 + 10 3
4𝑥 − 8 2
⇒ =
𝑥+8 3
⇒ 12x – 24 = 2x + 16
⇒ 10x = 40
x=4
∴ Required answer = 4x = 4 × 4 = 16 litres
S152. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let initially x litres of Acid were drawn off
x 2
∴ 24 = 54 (1 − )
54
⇒ 24 × 54 = (54 – x) ²
⇒ x² – 108x + 1620 = 0
⇒ x² – 90x – 18x + 1620 = 0
⇒ (x – 90) (x – 18) = 0
 ✓
∴ x = 18 litres

S153. Ans.(d)
Sol. After 1st day, remaining content in container = 2/3
After 2nd day, remaining content in container
2 3 2
= – ×
3 4 3
1
=
6
S154. Ans.(a)
Sol. From 1, Let each sum was Rs. P
P×9×7 P×4×7
∴ − = 31.5
200 100
31.5 × 200
⇒P=
7
⇒ P = 900 rupees
From 2, Total required numbers between 2000 and 3000
= 1 × 7 × 6 × 5 (For eg. 2035, 2345)
= 210
Quantity 1> Quantity 2
S155. Ans.(b)
Sol. From 1, Let the maximum marks of the exam be x
ATQ,
20 50
x + 30 = × x– 15
100 100
50 20
⇒ x– x = 45
100 100
30
⇒ x = 45
100
45 × 100
⇒x= = 150
30
150
Passing marks = 100 × 20 + 30 = 60
From 2, Let the initial price of mobile be Rs. 100
140 80 150
Final price of mobile = 100 × 100 × 100 × 100 = 𝑅𝑠. 168
168 – 100
So net change in price = × 100 = 68%
100
Quantity 1< Quantity 2
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday
Tata 180 150 250 150 180
Renault 160 220 200 180 140
Maruti 200 200 300 250 200
540 570 750 580 520

S156. Ans.(b)
Sol.
540
= 18 ∶ 25
750
S157. Ans.(a)
Sol. Total number of cars produced by Renault from Monday to Friday = 900
S158. Ans.(c)
1150
Sol. Required average = = 230
5
S159. Ans.(c)
Sol. No. of cars produced on Tuesday and Thursday is same i.e. 150
S160. Ans.(b)
Sol. Maximum number of cars produced = 750, on Wednesday.
S161. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. x² + 12x + 36 = 0
x² + 6x + 6x + 36 = 0
x(x + 6) +6 (x+ 6) = 0
x = -6 or -6
II.y² = 16
y±4
y>x
S162. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 9x² + 3x – 2 = 0
9x² + 6x – 3x – 2 = 0
3x (3x+ 2) -1 (3x + 2) = 0
−2 1
x= or
3 3
II. 8y² + 6y +1 = 0
8y² + 4y + 2y + 1 = 0
4y (2y + 1) + 1 (2y + 1) = 0
−1 −1
y= or
4 2
No relation
S163. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. 2x² – 25x + 77 = 0
2x² - 14x – 11x + 77 = 0
2x (x- 7) – 11 (x- 7) = 0
11
x = 7 or
2
II. 2y² - 21y + 55 = 0
2y² - 10y – 11y + 55 = 0
2y (y - 5) – 11 (y - 5) = 0
11
y= or 5
2
x≥y
S164. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 2x² + 9x + 7 = 0
2x² + 7x+ 2x + 7 = 0
X (2x + 7) + 1(2x + 7) = 0
−7
x = −1 or
2
II. 2y² +9y + 10 = 0
2y² + 5y + 4y +10 = 0
Y (2y+ 5) +2(2y +5) = 0
−5
y = −2 or
2
No relation
S165. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 9x² - 33x + 28 = 0
9x² - 12x – 21x + 28 = 0
3x (3x - 4) – 7 (3x - 4) = 0
4 7
x = or
3 3
II. 6y² – 25y + 25 = 0
6y² - 15y – 10y + 25= 0
3y (2y – 5) – 5 (2y -5) = 0
5 5
y = or
2 3
∴ No relation
S166. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required percentage
5 3
45 × 9 + 72 × 8
= 2 3 × 100
54 × 3 + 60 × 5
25 + 27
= × 100 = 72.22%
36 + 36
S167. Ans.(c)
5 4 3 2
= (36 × + 45 × ) − (72 × + 60 × )
12 9 8 5
= (27+24) −(15+20) = 51 – 35 = 16

S168. Ans.(e)
5 1
Sol. New total students in institute D = 60+ 72× 8 × 3 = 75
Remaining students in institute C = 72−15 = 57
57
Required ratio = 75 =19 : 25
S169. Ans.(c)
4 120
Sol. Boys in institute Z = 45 × 9 × 100 = 24
7
Total students in institute Z = 72 × 8 = 63
Girls in institute Z = 63−24 =39
39 19
Required percentage = 63 × 100 = 61 21 %
S170. Ans.(a)
1 1 3 2
Sol. Required average = (54 × + 72 × + 60 × ) = 23
3 3 8 5
S171. Ans.(b)
Sol. If first digit is ‘3’ then remaining numbers can be formed in 94 ways = 6561 ways
If first digit isn’t ‘3’ then first digit can be formed in 8 ways (excluding 3 and 0). Now out of remaining four
one should be ‘3’ and remaining three digits can be formed in 93 ways = 729 ways
So, total ways to form five digit number in which first digit isn’t ‘3’
= 4 × 8 × 729 = 23,328
‘4’ is multiplied because the digit ‘3’ can take four places.
And, Total ways to form five digit numbers in which first digit is ‘3’
= 6561 ways
Total number of ways = 23,328 + 6561 = 29,889
S172. Ans.(a)
Sol. To get a tail, two diamonds should occur.
1
No. of ways = 13𝐶2 = 13 × 12 × 2 = 78
S173. Ans.(a)
Sol. When unit digit is ‘0’
Number of ways=6 × 5 × 1 = 30
When unit digit is ‘5’
Number of ways=5 × 5 × 1 = 25
Total number of ways=30+25=55
S174. Ans.(d)
Sol. No. of triangles formed = ¹²C₃ – ⁸C₃
= 220 – 56 = 164

S175. Ans.(d)
Sol. v c v c v c v c v c v
No of consonants = 5
No of vowel = 4
5 consonants in 5 ways = 5!
4 vowels in 4 way = 4!× 6𝐶4
Total arrangement = 15 ×4! × 5!
S176. Ans.(a)
35 25
Sol. 100 × 3500 + 100 × 2600 − 1260 ≃ ?
? = 1225 + 650 – 1260
? = 615
S177. Ans.(e)
Sol. 2396 + 260 × 5 – 450 – ? ≃ 590
? ≃ 2396 + 1300 – 450 – 590
? ≃ 2656
S178. Ans.(d)
Sol.
55 5000
× 2000 + ? × ≃ 1825
100 100
55 × 20 + ? × 50 ≃ 1825
1825 − 1100
?≃
50
? ≃ 14.5
S179. Ans.(a)
Sol. (15 × 20) + (5² × 13) ≈ (?)²
300 + 325 ≈ (?)²
?² ≈ 625
? ≈ 25
S180. Ans.(d)
Sol. 2524 ÷ √16 – 331 ≈ (5)² × ?
1
2524 × 4 –331 ≈ 25 × ?
631 – 331 ≈ 25 × ?
1
? = 300 × 25
? = 12

S181. Ans.(e)
Sol. I.√𝑥 + 18 = √144 − √49
⇒ √𝑥 + 18 = 5
⇒ 𝑥 + 18 = 25
⇒𝑥=7
II. 𝑦 2 + 409 = 473
⇒ 𝑦 2 = 64
⇒ 𝑦 = ±8
No relation between x and y.
S182. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. 𝑦 2 − 𝑥 2 = 32
⇒ (𝑥 + 2)2 − 𝑥 2 = 32
⇒ 𝑥 2 + 4 + 4𝑥 − 𝑥 2 = 32
⇒ 4𝑥 = 28
⇒𝑥=7
II. y – x = 2
⇒𝑦−7=2
⇒𝑦=9
∴𝑥<𝑦
S183. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. 𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 2𝑥 − 14 = 0
𝑥(𝑥 − 7) + 2(𝑥 − 7) = 0
𝑥 = 7, −2
II. 𝑦 2 + 5𝑦 + 2𝑦 + 10 = 0
𝑦 = −2, −5
𝑥≥y
S184. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. 8𝑥 2 + 78𝑥 + 169 = 0
⇒ 8𝑥 2 + 52𝑥 + 26𝑥 + 169 = 0
⇒ 4𝑥(2𝑥 + 13) + 13(2𝑥 + 13) = 0
⇒ (4𝑥 + 13)(2𝑥 + 13) = 0
13 13
⇒ 𝑥 = − ,−
4 2
II. 20𝑦 2 − 117𝑦 + 169 = 0
⇒ 20𝑦 2 − 65𝑦 − 52𝑦 + 169 = 0
⇒ 5𝑦(4𝑦 − 13) − 13(4𝑦 − 13) = 0
⇒ (5𝑦 − 13)(4𝑦 − 13) = 0
13 13
⇒𝑦= ,𝑦 =
5 4
∴𝑥<𝑦

S185. Ans.(b)
Sol. I. 5𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 3𝑥 − 3 = 0
5𝑥(𝑥 + 1) − 3(𝑥 + 1) = 0
3
𝑥 = 5 , −1
II. 2𝑦 2 + 4𝑦 + 3𝑦 + 6 = 0
2𝑦(𝑦 + 2) + 3(𝑦 + 2) = 0
−3
𝑦= , −2
2
𝑥>𝑦
S186. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S187. Ans.(c)
Sol. Quantity I. (5C2 * 4C2)/12C4 = 60/495=4/33
Quantity II. (5C2 * 4C1 *3C1)/12C4 =120/495=8/33
Quantity II > Quantity I
S188. Ans.(e)
Sol. C.P. of article
100
= 5700 × = Rs. 9500
60
S.P. of article to gain 30% profit
130
= 9500 × = Rs. 12,350
100

S189. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let radius of circle A be r cm
ATQ
2𝜋𝑟 − 2𝑟 = 90
𝑟 = 21 𝑐𝑚
Radius of circle B=14 cm
Area of circle B= 616 cm2
S190. Ans.(a)
Sol. Ratio of investment of Rita and Gita
= 24000 : 40000
=3:5
∴ Profit of Rita
1 40 3 60
= 2 × 100 × 16800 + 8 × 100 × 16800
= 3360 + 3780
= Rs. 7,140
S191. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S192. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S193. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S194. Ans.(a)
Sol.
So, the answer is 84.5

S195. Ans.(b)
Sol.
So, the answer is 2230.
S196. Ans.(c)
Sol.
24 × 13 × 32 36 × 18 × x
= (x = no. of days)
224 × 16 × 52 432 × 21 × 64
1 9𝑥
=
224 432 × 7 × 32
1 𝑥
= 48×7 ⇒ x = 48 days
7
Concept —
m1 × d1 × h1 m2 × d2 × h2
=
w1 w2
S197. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let 25 paise coins = x
∴ Rs. 1 coins = 3x
∴ 50 paise coins = (220 – 4x)
ATQ,
x (220 – 4x)
3x + + = 160
4 2
⇒ 12x + x + 440 – 8x = 160 × 4 ⇒ x = 40
∴ 50 paise coins = 220 – 160 = 60
S198. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let A = Anup’s age
M = Mahesh’s age
S = Shyam’s age
S−6
=A
18
Also, A = 3 years (∵ M = 5 years)
∴ S = 3 × 18 + 6 = 60 years
S199. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let father’s age = F, Son’s age = y
3F = 8y
⇒ 3F − 8y = 0………(i)
⇒ (F + 8) = 2(y + 8)
⇒ F − 2y = 8 …………(ii)
From (i) – (ii) × 3
y = son’s age = 12 years
And F = father’s age = 32 years.

S200. Ans.(c)
Sol. Ratio of time taken by A & B = 3 : 2
If 3𝑥 & 2𝑥 be the time taken by them, then
3𝑥 − 2𝑥 = 10
or, 𝑥 = 10
⇒ A takes 30 minutes at normal speed.
30
At double its speed, it will cover the distance in = 15 minutes.
2
S201. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let Rohan’s age = x
∴ Rahul’s age = (x +8) years
ATQ,
x + 8 + 5 = 2(x+ 5)
⇒ x = 3 years
∴ Rohan’s age after 20 years = 23 years
S202. Ans.(d)
100
Sol. Total expenditure of Neha = × 7800 = Rs 12000
65
11
∴ Total annual salary = × 12000 × 12 = Rs 2,64,000
6
S203. Ans.(c)
100
Sol. Total expenditure of Reena = × 4200 = Rs 10,000
42
∴ Savings of Reena = 22000 – 10000 = Rs 12,000
100
Total expenditure of Shaalu = × 7200 = Rs 12000
60
∴ Savings of Shaalu = 26000 − 12000 = Rs 14000
So, required difference = Rs 2000
S204. Ans.(b)
22 9
Sol. Expenditure of Seema on rent = 100 × 14 × 28000 = Rs 3960
25
Expenditure of Shaalu on food = × 7200 = Rs 3000
60
3960
∴ Required percentage = × 100 = 132%
3000
S205. Ans.(e)
5
Sol. Savings of Seema= 14 × 28000 = Rs 10000
8
Savings of Aarti = × 18000 = Rs 16000
9
6000
16000

S206. Ans.(b)
Sol. The series is 43 + 4, 53 − 5, 63 + 6, 73 − 7, 83 + 8, 93 − 9, …
i.e.
43 + 4 = 68,
53 − 5 = 𝟏𝟐𝟎,
63 + 6 = 222,
73 − 7 = 336,
83 + 8 = 520,
93 − 9 = 720.
Hence there should be 120 in place of 130.
S207. Ans.(d)
Sol. The series is ×1.5+5, ×1.5+5, (repeated)
i.e.
56 × 1.5 + 5 = 89,
89 × 1.5 + 5= 138.5,
138.5 × 1.5 + 5 = 212.75,
212.75 × 1.5 +5 = 324.125,
324.125 × 1.5 + 5 = 491.1875,
Hence there should 138.5 in place of 136.5.
S208. Ans.(a)
Sol. The series is +29, +58, +87, +116, +145,…
i.e.
87 + 29 = 116,
116 + 58 = 174,
174 + 87 = 261,
261 + 116 = 377,
377 + 145 = 522,
S209. Ans.(b)
Sol. The series is
262 − 6 = 670,
272 + 7 = 736,
282 − 8 = 776,
292 + 9 = 850,
302 − 10 = 890,
312 + 11 = 972, …
Hence these should be 776 in place of 792.

S210. Ans.(a)
Sol. The series is
273 − 52 = 𝟐𝟒𝟖,
248 + 53 = 373,
373 − 62 = 337,
337 + 63 = 553,
553 − 72 = 504,…
S211. Ans.(e)
Sol. From (I)
R = 6%
From (II) & (III),
SI for 2 years = 1200
Principal = 10 × 1200 = 12000
R t
∴ Amount = P (1 + )
100
So, Statement II and either I or III are sufficient.
S212. Ans.(d)
Sol. From A,
3ℓ
𝑟= , ℓ =slant height of cone
5
From B,
1
Volume of cone = 3 𝜋𝑟12 ℎ = 432 cm³
From C,
h = unknown
∴ Answer cannot be found
S213. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let CP of scooter = Rs x
From A, MP of scooter = SP of bike
From B, SP of scooter = 115𝑥/100
5 115𝑥
From C, SP of bike = 3 × 100
Since, SP of bike is not known. So, answer cannot be found

S214. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let largest no. = Z
Middle No. = Y
Smallest No. = X
From A, Z = X + 12
B, X + Z = 2Y
C, Here, we don’t know the sequence of odd numbers i.e. whether it is in increasing order or in decreasing
order.
∴ From all statements, we can’t determine the average value
S215. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let speed of stream be x km/hr.
Speed of boat in still water be y km/hr.
From (I),
2
x= y
3
From (II),
20
x+y = = 10 km⁄hr
2
From (III),
10
y−x= = 2 km⁄hr
5
So, Any two are sufficient
S216. Ans.(d)
Sol. Required no. of boys in schools C and F
2000 × 27.5 1000 × 17.5
= (2000 − ) + (1000 − )
100 100
= 1450 + 825 = 2275
2275
3000
S217. Ans.(c)
Sol. Total no. of boys in school E
40
= 1250 − 1250 ×
100
= 1250 − 500 = 750
S218. Ans.(a)
2000
Sol. Required percentage = 2250 × 100 = 88.88 ≃ 89%

S219. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required average no.
40 45
(2500 − 2500 × ) + (3000 − 3000 × )
100 100
=
2
1500 + 1650
=
2
3150
=
2
= 1575
S220. Ans.(c)
Sol. Required ratio
40
2500 × 100 25 × 4
= 45 = = 20 ∶ 27
3000 × 100 3 × 45
S221. Ans.(c)
Sol. ? = 6894
S222. Ans.(b)
Sol. ? = 81.25+2.1
= 83.35
S223. Ans.(a)
Sol. 350 × ?/100 × 1/50 = 343
? = 4900
S224. Ans.(a)
Sol. 1/2 × 3842 + 15/100 × ? = 2449
? = (528×100)/15
? = 3520
S225. Ans.(d)
Sol. ? = 448.8/24
? = 18.7


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1 Adda247 | No.

1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q1. Who among the following likes Robert Black?

Q2. Who reads Le Rouge?

Q3. Who among the following likes J.K. Rowling?

Q4. The one who reads Moby-dick, is?

2 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

3 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q13. Who among the following belongs to Kolkata?

Q15. M belongs to which of the cities?

Q27. Who among the following sits third to the right of C?

Q28. Who among the following belongs to school Q?

Q29. F belongs to which of the following school?

Q30. Who among the following faces D?

Directions (31-35): Study the following information to answer

7 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q33. Who sits third to the right of G?

Q36. What is the code for ‘carrot’?

Q38. What is the code for ‘drinks’?

Q39. Which of the following is the code for ‘pigeon’?

Q40. What does ‘jta’ stand for?

9 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q43. Among A, B, C, D and E, who is the third highest scorer?

Q44. Who among the R, O, L, E and S is the shortest?

Q45. What is P’s rank in a class of 40?

Q46. Who among the following, doing debate on farmers?

10 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q49. Who among the following is immediate neighbors of C?

Q51. Statements: M<N, N>O, O=P, P≥Q

Q52. Statements: A>B, B=C, C≤X, X=Y

Q53. Statements: A=B, B≥C, C≥D, D<E

Q55. Statements: A=E, E<C, C>B, B=D

12 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

13 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q73. Which among the following boxes is placed at the top?

Q75. How many coins did Box O contains?

16 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q81. How is H related to P?

Q82. How is M related to S?

Q83. How is V related to G?

17 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q86. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?

18 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q91. In a family of seven members, E is daughter-in-law of N. M is married man. G is niece of C and

19 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

20 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q101. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of A?

Q103. Which of the following not true regarding C?

Q105. Who among the following sits opposite to H?

21 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q106. How is P related to Mr X?

Q107. In which direction was the tourist train XYZ running?

Q109. In which year was P born?

22 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q112. How many employees are older than F?

Q114. How many employees born between B and G?

Q115. Which of the following month D is born?

Q116. In the expression Q + R × P – S ÷ T, how is S related to R?

23 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q118. Which of the following expressions shows that K is sister of M?

Q119. Which of the following is true for the given expression?

Q121. What will come in the place of the question mark, to

24 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation