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ANATOMY - HEAD AND NECK 7. Incorrect about the location of otic ganglion is (AIIMS 2016)
a. Anterior to middle meningeal artery
1. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve
are true except that it b. Inferior to foramen ovale
a. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa c. Lateral to tensor veli palatini
b. Is a branch of facial nerve d. Lateral to mandibular nerve
c. Contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
8. Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid come from
d. Carries secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland all except
a. Otic ganglion
2. Lesion of cranial part of XI nerve cause paralysis of b. Greater petrosal nerve
a. Sternocleidomastoid muscle c. Auriculotemporal nerve
b. Trapezius muscle d. Tympanic plexus
c. Stylopharyngeus muscle
d. Pharyngeal constrictors 9. Choose the incorrect statement concerning pharyngeal
plexus
3. Which of the following muscle of tongue is not supplied by a. Receives contributions from vagus nerve carrying cranial
the hypoglossal nerve accessory nerve component
b. Supplies all pharyngeal muscles except Stylopharyngeus
c. Supplies tensor tympani
d. Supply palatoglossus

10. Ansa cervicalis innervates the following EXCEPT


a. Superior belly of omohyoid
b. Sternohyoid
c. Inferior belly of omohyoid
d. Thyrohyoid

11. Which of the following nuclei belongs to the general


visceral efferent (GVE) column?
a. M1 a. Facial motor nucleus
b. M2 b. Trigeminal nucleus
c. M3 c. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
d. M4 d. Nucleus ambigus

4. Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is 12. All of the sensations are relayed in the spinal nucleus of
false trigeminal nerve except (AIIMS MAY 2018)
a. Trochlear nerve passes through lateral wall of cavernous a. Pain
sinus b. Temperature
b. Trochlear is the slender most nerve c. Touch
c. Vagus nerve has largest distribution in the body d. Proprioception
d. Trochlear nerve has longest intra-osseous course
13. Which is the nucleus for masseteric reflex?
5. Parasympathetic outflow involves (AIIMS Nov 2016) a. Superior sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve
a. Cranial nerves 3,7,9,10 and S2, S3, S4 b. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
b. Cranial nerves 5,7,9,10 and S2, S3, S4 c. Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
c. Cranial nerves 3,7,9,10 and S3, S4, S5 d. Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve
d. Cranial nerves 5,7,9,10 and S1, S2, S3
14. Which of the following muscles is not supplied by
6. At what level does the nucleus of the nerve supplying the ipsilateral cranial nuclei? (AIIMS 2014)
marked muscle is seen? (AIIMS may 2017) a. Superior rectus
b. Medial rectus
c. Inferior rectus
d. Inferior oblique

15. Which of the following is not seen in oculomotor nerve palsy?


(AIIMS MAY 2018)
a. Dilated pupil
b. Ptosis
c. Deviation of eyeball laterally & superiorly
d. Loss of light reflex

16. Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the


Trigeminal nerve?
a. Facial Colliculus a. Medial pterygoid
b. Superior Colliculus b. Stylohyoid
c. Inferior Colliculus c. Lateral pterygoid
d. Tensor veli palatine
d. Inferior olivary nucleus
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17. Which of the following cranial nuclei column is not related 24. Blood supply to the endosteal layer of duramater is by all
to Vagus nerve? except? (AIIMS MAY 2018)
a. SVE a. Middle meningeal artery
b. GVE b. Accessory meningeal artery
c. GSA c. Meningeal branch of ICA in posterior cranial fossa
d. SSA d. Meningeal branch of anterior & posterior ethmoidal artery

18. Preganglionic Secretomotor fibres to lacrimal gland arise 25. Which of the following marked structure is vagus nerve
from (AIIMS MAY 2016)
a. Nucleus ambiguus
b. Inferior salivatory nucleus
c. Superior salivatory nucleus
d. Dorsal nucleus of Vagus

19. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except:


a. Maxillary sinus
b. Interior of nasal cavity
c. Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
d. Ethmoidal air cells

20. Which of the following is correct regarding the muscles in


given image?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

26. Which of the following is “Danger space” (AIIMS Nov 2016)

a. A & B share same nerve supply


b. Nerve supply to ‘E’ is mandibular nerve
c. Nerve supply to ‘D’ is same as of ‘A’
d. ‘E’ and ‘C’ are derived from first pharyngeal arch

21. All are tributaries/drainage channel of cavernous sinus except


a. Superficial middle cerebral vein
b. Superior petrosal sinus
c. Inferior petrosal sinus
d. Deep middle cerebral vein

22. Not present in the lateral wall of cavernous sinus? (Gray’s 41 st


ed. update)
a. 3rd nerve
b. 4th nerve
c. Ophthalmic nerve
d. Maxillary nerve a. A b. B c. C d. D

23. Injury to which of the following nerve can cause ipsilateral 27. All are correct regarding deep cervical fascia EXCEPT
convergent squint a Axillary sheath is a prolongation of prevertebral fascia
b Spinal XI nerve passes between prevertebral & investing
layers
c Cervical sympathetic trunk is in between carotid sheath &
prevertebral fascia
d Retropharyngeal space is in between pharyngeal wall and
buccopharyngeal fascia

a. A b. B c. C d. D
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28. Which of the following marked attachment is for the muscle 34. Which of the marked muscle in image is the abductor of
supplied by the trunk of Mandibular nerve? the vocal cord

a. A b. B c. C d. D

35. True regarding nerve supply of external ear is


a. A b. B c. C d. D a. Lobule by lesser occipital nerve on its medial surface
b. Upper 2/3rd by Auriculotemporal nerve on lateral aspect
29. Which of the following muscle is responsible for protraction c. Upper 2/3rd by great auricular nerve on its medial aspect
of TMJ? d. Concha by tympanic branch glossopharyngeal nerve
36. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding
innervation of the marked areas in the given image?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

30. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the structures


passing between pharyngeal constrictors
a. Between middle and inferior: internal laryngeal nerve a. Area 1: Auriculotemporal nerve
b. Between superior and middle: glossopharyngeal nerve b. Area 2: Greater occipital nerve
c. Between Superior and Middle: branch of ascending c. Area 3: Lesser occipital nerve
pharyngeal artery d. Area 4: Supraclavicular nerve
d. Through Morgagni’s Sinus: ascending palatine branch of facial
artery 37. Identify the arrow marked nerve in the given cranial cavity
section
31. Passavant ridge is formed by-
a. Tensor veli palati and superior constrictor
b. Palatopharyngeus and superior constrictor
c. Palatopharyngeus and inferior constrictor
d. Palatoglossus and superior constrictor

32. Damage to the external laryngeal nerve during thyroid


surgery could result in the inability to
a. Relax the vocal cords
b. Tense the vocal cords
c. Widen the rima glottidis
d. Abduct the vocal cords

33. Craniovertebral joint does not include:


a. Occipital condyle
b. Axis
a. 4th nerve
c. Atlas
b. 6th nerve
d. Wings of sphenoid
c. Greater petrosal nerve
d. Deep petrosal nerve
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38. Which structure traverses through the ‘arrow marked’ 45. Which of the following is phrenic nerve?
foramen in the given picture?

a. Maxillary nerve
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Lesser petrosal nerve
d. Ophthalmic artery

39. All are contents of occipital triangle except- a. A


b. B
a. Great auricular nerve
b. Suprascapular nerve c. C
c. Lesser occipital nerve d. D
d. Occipital artery

40. A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle
of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician
incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient
noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her
head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs
and symptoms of additional harm?
a. Damage to scalenus medius
b. Injury to suprascapular nerve
c. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
d. Spread of infection to shoulder joint

41. Superficial incision on posterior triangle of neck leads to


a. Difficulty in shrugging of shoulder
b. Difficulty in start of abduction
c. Difficulty in rotation of face towards the same side
d. Difficulty in flexion
42. Hypoglossal nerve is related to -
a. Digastric triangle
b. Carotid triangle
c. Both
d. None

43. Structure superficial to mylohyoid in anterior digastric


triangle is -
a. Deep part of submandibular gland
b. Hypoglossal nerve
c. Part of parotid gland
d. Mylohyoid artery & nerve

44. Buccinator muscle is pierced by all except


a. Buccal branch of Facial nerve
b. Mucus gland of buccopharyngeal fascia
c. Parotid duct
d. Labial branch of facial artery

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NEUROANATOMY
52. Fibres of the accessory cuneate nucleus terminate in the
46. Which of the following is not a modification of spinal piamater a. Thalamus
a. Ligamentum denticulatum b. Medulla
b. Linea splendens c. Midbrain
c. Conus medularis d. Cerebellar cortex
d. Filum terminale
53. Corticospinal fibres descend uncrossed up to
47. Which of the following nerve supplies superior oblique a. Upper medulla
muscle b. Lower medulla
c. Pons
d. Midbrain

54. Which of the following is not carried by posterior column tract


a. Position sense
b. Temperature
c. Pressure
d. Vibration

55. Inability to perceive the texture and shape of an object


occurs in the lesion of
a. Lateral spinothalamic tract
b. Nucleus gracilis
c. Nucleus cuneatus
d. Anterior spinocerebellar tract

56. Interpeduncular fossa contains all except -


a. Mammillary bodies
48. Injury to the structure producing “N” marked elevation will b. Posterior perforating substance
lead to paralysis of
c. Trochlear nerve
d. Occulomotor nerve

57. Broca’s area of speech lies at


a. Superior frontal gyms
b. Inferior frontal gyrus
c. Post central gyrus
d. Superior temporal gyrus

58. Corticospinal fibres pass through which part of internal


capsule
a. Posterior one-third of anterior limb
b. Anterior two-third of posterior limb
a. Lateral rectus c. Posterior two-third of anterior limb
b. Genioglossus d. Anterior two-third of anterior limb
c. Risorius
d. Medial rectus 59. False about pons is
a. Contains inferior olivary nucleus
49. Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated b. Contains pyramidal fibres in its basilar part
substance c. Connects to cerebellum via middle cerebellar peduncle
a. Uncus d. Contains lacrimatory nucleus
b. Limen insulae
c. 3rd Ventricle 60. The auditory pathway consists of all of the following except
d. Optic chiasma a. Superior brachium of geniculate body
b. Superior olivary nucleus
50. Mesencephalon represents – c. Medial geniculate body
a. Lateral ventricle d. Inferior colliculus
b. 4th ventricle
c. 3rd ventricle 61. Which of the following is a centre for stapedial reflex (AIIMS
d. Aqueduct Nov 2016)
a. Superior olivary complex
51. The cisterna of the lateral sulcus contains b. Medial geniculate body
a. Deep middle cerebral vein c. Superior colliculus
b. Middle cerebral artery d. Lateral lemniscus
c. Internal carotid artery
d. Anterior cerebral artery

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62. Artery of cerebral haemorrhage is a branch of a. Medial lemniscus
a. Middle cerebral b. Spinal lemniscus
b. Anterior cerebral c. Hypoglossal nerve
c. Posterior cerebral d. Pyramidal tract
d. Internal carotid
67. All are seen in the floor of third ventricle EXCEPT
63. Lateral medullary syndrome shows lesion of a. Infundibulum
a. Hypoglossal nucleus b. Oculomotor nerve
b. Pyramidal tract c. Mammillary body
c. Spinal tract of trigeminal nerve d. Optic chiasma
d. Medial Lemniscus
68. Cerebellar glomeruli are seen in which layer of cerebellar
cortex.
64. Given picture represents which of the following condition
(AIIMS Nov 2016) a. Molecular
b. Purkinje
c. Granular
d. None of the above

69. False about cerebellum is


a. Largest collection of inhibitory neurons
b. Only excitatory cells are granule cells
c. Purkinje cells are the only efferents
d. Olivocerebellar fibres are Mossy fibres

70. Cerebellar peduncle giving passage to olivocerebellar pathway:


a. Superior cerebellar peduncle
b. Middle cerebellar peduncle
c. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
d. None
a. Duane syndrome
b. 3rd nerve palsy 71. The following tracts passes through inferior cerebellar
c. Internuclear opthalmoplegia peduncle EXCEPT
d. Weber’s syndrome a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
b. Cuneocerebellar tract
65. Which of the following clinical manifestations IS NOT seen in c. Striae medullaris
the lesion depicted by the image? d. Dentatothalamic tract

72. Association fibres are all EXCEPT:


a. Uncinate
b. Cingulum
c. Longitudinal fasciculus
d. Forceps major

73. Marked structure in the given image connects which of the


following?

a. Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of medial rectus


b. Contralateral hemiplegia
c. Contralateral weakness of lower face
d. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature from face

66. Which is of the enlisted structure IS NOT affected in


the syndrome indicated by the picture below

a. Striate cortex
b. Orbital cortex
c. Hippocampus
d. Dentate nucleus

74. Vascular lesion of post half of posterior limb of internal capsule


is most likely to involve.
a. Neck muscles
b. Upper limb muscles
c. Pectoral muscles
d. Lower limb muscles
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75. Identify insula in the given section of brain. (AIIMS May 2016) 78. Choose the incorrect option for marked structure

a. A- site for anterior commissure


b. B- Anterior wall of 3rd ventricle
c. C- medial wall of lateral ventricle
a. A d. D- posterior commissure
b. B
c. C
79. Thrombosis of anterior cerebral artery cause :
d. D
a. Right foot paralysis in right ACA thrombosis
b. Urinary incontinence
76. INCORRECT regarding the white matter structures of cerebrum
c. Paralysis of the contralateral face
is
d. Homonymous hemianopia

80. Choose the incorrect option for the marked blood vessels of
the brain

a. A- branch of PCA
b. B- does not supply medulla
a. A- internal capsule c. C- terminal branch of basilar artery
b. B- cingulum d. D- Most tortuous artery
c. Forceps minor
d. Forceps major

77. Medulla is supplied by all except


a. Anterior spinal artery
b. Basilar artery
c. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
d. Superior cerebellar artery

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THORAX
88. False about right coronary artery is
a. Diameter less than LCA
81. Pleural tapping in the mid-axillary line will not pierce which b. RCA arises from anterior aortic sinus
of the following muscles
c. RCA supplies major part of right atrium and right ventricle
a. Internal intercostal
d. RCA gives rise to circumflex artery
b. External intercostal
c. Transverse thoracic
d. Innermost intercostal 89. If circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular
artery, than the arterial supply is called,
a. Right dominance
82. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the
b. Left dominance
attachment/relations of the marked structure?
c. Codominance
d. Undetermined

90. Untrue regarding SA node


a. Contains specialized nodal cardiac muscle
b. Supplied by RCA
c. Present in right border of ascending aorta
d. Initiates cardiac conduction

91. The last tributary of the azygous vein is


a. Right superior intercostal vein
b. Hemi-azygous vein
c. Right bronchial vein
d. Accessory hemiazygous vein

92. Structure passing along with aorta in aortic hiatus


a. Thoracic duct and azygous vein
a. A is attachment of subclavius b. Thoracic duct and hemizygous vein
b. B is attachment of scalenus anterior c. Left Vagus nerve and azygous vein
c. C is attachment of serratus anterior 1st digitation d. Left gastric vein and vagus nerve
d. D is the grove for subclavian vein
93. All is true about phrenic nerve EXCEPT
83. All are true about intercostal nerve except- a. Right is shorter and more vertical
a. Relationship from above downward is NAV b. Sole motor supply to diaphragm
b. T3 to T6 are typical intercostal nerve c. Passes anterior to scalenus anterior
c. Between internal intercostal & innermost intercostal m/s d. Passes posterior to hilum of lung
d. T7 to T11 supply the abdominal wall
94. All the following veins drain into coronary sinus except
84. The branches of all of the following arteries supply blood a. Middle cardiac vein
to intercostal spaces except: b. Anterior cardiac vein
a. Descending thoracic aorta c. Small cardiac vein
b. Internal thoracic artery d. Oblique cardiac vein
c. Superior epigastric artery
d. Musculophrenic artery
95. A 19-year-old man came to the emergency department, and
85. Which is incorrect regarding Azygous/Hemiazygous his angiogram exhibited that he was bleeding from the vein
system of veins that is accompanied by the posterior interventricular artery.
a. Right superior intercostal vein drains in Azygous vein Which of the following veins is most likely to be ruptured?
b. Right first posterior intercostal vein drains in right a. Great cardiac vein
brachiocephalic vein b. Middle cardiac vein
c. Left superior intercostal vein drains in accessory c. Anterior cardiac vein
hemiazygous vein d. Small cardiac vein
d. Left first posterior intercostal vein drains in left
brachiocephalic vein 96. Which of the following is NOT bounding triangle of Koch
a. Coronary sinus
86. All are characteristic features of bronchopulmonary b. Septal cusp of tricuspid valve
segment except
c. Tendon of Todero
a. Surgically resectable
d. Limbus of fossa ovalis
b. Named according to segmental bronchus
c. Drained by intrasegmental pulmonary veins
97. The right coronary artery is the main supply to all of the
d. Pyramidal in shape
following parts of the conducting system in the heart
EXCEPT
87. In lungs bronchial arteries supply the bronchopulmonary a. SA Node
tree- b. AV Node
a. Till tertiary bronchus c. AV Bundle
b. Till segmental bronchus d. Right bundle branch
c. Till respiratory bronchioles
d. Till alveolar sac
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98. All are true about thoracic duct except 104. All of the following statements are true concerning the
a. Begins as continuation of cisterna chyli early embryological development EXCEPT
a. Zona pellucida preventS implantation
b. Passes through oesophageal opening
b. Blastocyst attaches to endometrium on day 6
c. Ends into junction between left subclavian & IJV c. Primordial germ cells are derivative of epiblast
d. Largest lymphatic vessel d. The first germ layer to form is ectoderm

99. Venous drainage of esophagus consists of 105. Extraembryonic mesoderm derived from (AIIMS Nov 2016)
a. Azygous vein, inferior thyroid, left gastric vein a. Secondary yolk sac
b. Azygous vein, inferior thyroid, right gastric vein b. Primary yolk sac
c. Epiblast
c. Azygous vein, right gastric vein, left gastric vein
d. Hypoblast
d. Hemiazygous vein, superior thyroid, inferior thyroid vein
106. Which muscle does not develop from hypaxial mesoderm
100. Identify the arrow marked structure in the root of lung a. Erector spinae
given below b. Quadratus lumborum
c. Infrahyoid muscles
d. Scalenus muscles

107. Muscular component of dorsal aorta develops from


a. Axial mesoderm
b. Paraxial mesoderm
c. Intermediate mesoderm
d. Lateral plate mesoderm

108. False regarding gastrulation


a. Primitive streak formation starts before gastrulation
b. Nodal gene needed for establishment of primitive streak
c. Cephalic end of the embryo is established before the
formation of primitive streak
d. Hensen's node at the posterior tip of the primitive streak

109. Buccopharyngeal membrane develops from


a. Ectoderm and mesoderm
a. Pulmonary vein b. Mesoderm and endoderm
b. Principal bronchus c. Ectoderm and endoderm
c. Pulmonary artery d. Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
d. Eparterial bronchus
110. Before formation of head and tail folds, the most cranial part
of embryo-
EMBRYOLOGY a. Septum transversum
101. In spermatogenesis, independent assortment of maternal b. Neural plate
and paternal chromosome occurs during? c. Notochord
a. Primary to secondary spermatocyte d. Primitive streak
b. Spermatogonia to primary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte to spermatids 111. False regarding development is
d. Spermatid to spermatozoa a. Primitive streak formation starts before gastrulation
b. Notochord remnant is allantois
102. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning c. Cephalic end of the embryo is established before the
the process of spermatogenesis formation of primitive streak
a. Primordial germ cells originate from embryonic mesoderm d. Conceptus enters the uterine cavity on 6th day
b. Primordial germ cells arrive in the future testes region at
week 5 and remain dormant until puberty 112. What is the time of closure for arrow marked structure in
c. 512 spermatids form from a single spermatogonium taking an the given image
average of 74 days in the process
d. Primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis to produce
haploid secondary spermatocyte

103. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning


the process of oogenesis
a. Primordial germ cells arise from epiblast during 2nd week
b. Primordial germ cells arrive at the genital ridge at week 5
and remain dormant until puberty
c. Primary oocyte (2n) undergoes meiosis to produce haploid
a. Day 18
(n) secondary oocyte
d. In a female child at birth oocyte is at prophase-I b. Day 25
c. Day 28
d. Day 30
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113. All are derivatives of ectoderm EXCEPT 120. Which of the following is not true about pharyngeal arches
a. Epidermis a. Tonsils develop from second endodermal pouch
b. Sebaceous gland b. Superior parathyroid glands from third endodermal pouch
c. Neuro-hypophysis c. Muscles developed from third pharyngeal arch are supplied
d. Arrector pilorum by glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Stapes develop from cartilage of second arch
114. Where the endoderm and ectoderm approach each other in
the head & neck region during the 4th week - 121. Untrue about pharyngeal arch derivatives
a. Pharyngeal groove a. Anterior 2/3 tongue develops from 1st pharyngeal arch
b. Pharyngeal pouch b. Laryngeal cartilages are derived from 4th & 6th arch
c. Branchial cyst is persistent cervical sinus
c. Pharyngeal membrane d. Buccinator is mesodermal derivative of first arch
d. Pharyngeal arch
122. All of the following structures are derived from the
115. Artery of 2nd pharyngeal arch is - first pharyngeal arch except
a. Maxillary artery a. Lesser cornu of hyoid bone
b. Stapedial artery b. Zygomatic bone
c. Subclavian artery c. Incus bone
d. Common carotid artery d. External auditory meatus

116. Following deformity correlates to 123. Parafollicular C cells are derived from
a. Ultimo-branchial body
b. Pharyngeal pouch 4
c. pharyngeal pouch 5
d. Neural crest cells

124. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during
early development, contributes to the formation of
a. Pericardium
b. Mesocardium
c. Myocardium
a. Failure of fusion of mandibular process to maxillary d. Endocardium
b. Failure of fusion of maxillary process to lateral nasal process
c. Failure of fusion of maxillary to medial nasal process 125. Absence of Conotruncal septum gives rise to
d. Incomplete fusion of two medial nasal processes a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Patent truncus arteriosus
117. Following deformity correlates to c. Transposition of great vessels
d. Coarctation of aorta

126. In postnatal life, the right atrium contains the fossa ovalis, a
shallow depression in the interatrial septum. Which
embryonic structure forms the floor of the fossa
a. Septum secundum
b. Septum primum
c. Bulbus cordis
d. AV node

127. Choose the incorrect pair regarding aortic arch arteries


and derivatives
a. Distal part of right 3rd arch artery- ICA
a. Failure of fusion of mandibular process to maxillary b. Right 4th arch artery- right subclavian artery
b. Failure of fusion of maxillary process to lateral nasal process c. Distal part of left 6th arch artery- Ductus Venosus
c. Failure of fusion of maxillary to medial nasal process d. Left 7th cervical intersegmental artery- left subclavian artery
d. Incomplete fusion of two medial nasal processes 128. Which of the following is responsible for development of
portal vein?
118. Annular stapedial ligament is developed from
a. Meckel’s cartilage
b. Otic capsule
c. Reichert’s cartilage
d. Hyoid arch

119. All are of adult size at birth except


a. Semicircular canal
b. Mastoid antrum
c. Tympanic cavity
d. Eustachian tube

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129. Which of the following is correct regarding the developmental 132. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia is due to developmental
anomaly in given picture? defect in which of the following embryological structure

a. Persistence of right posterior cardinal vein


b. Persistence of left anterior cardinal vein
c. Persistence of left sacrocardinal vein a. A
d. Persistence of left common cardinal vein b. B
c. C
130. Choose the correct option for following anomal d. D

133. False about gastrointestinal development is


a. Lower respiratory system develops from foregut
b. Stomach rotates 90 degrees clockwise and its posterior wall
grows faster
c. Dorsal bud forms uncinate process
d. Dorsal duct forms santorini duct

134. Given radiograph signifies

a. Persistent right anterior cardinal vein


b. Persistent left anterior cardinal vein
c. Persistent left subcardinal vein
d. Persistent right umbilical vein

131. Abnormal subclavian artery is due

a. Non rotation of midgut


b. Reverse rotation of mid gut
c. Subpyloric caecum
d. Mixed rotation

135. The caecum is found to be placed below the epigastrium


(just below stomach) and in the midline. Which of the
following abnormality must have taken place while rotation
of the gut
a. Mal rotation
b. Non rotation
a. Persistent B c. Reverse rotation
b. Persistent A d. Mixed Rotation
c. Persistent A and obliteration of B
d. Persistence of B obliteration of A

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136. The following picture represents 143. Epithelium of ureter develops from
a. Mesonephros
b. Metanephros
c. Pronephros
d. Paramesonephric duct
144. Mesonephric duct in male develops in
a. Vas deferens
b. Appendix of testis
c. Penile urethra
d. Prostatic utricle
145. Choose the correct statement regarding the
embryonic derivatives of urogenital system
a. Trigone of bladder: Urogenital sinus
b. Labia minora: Urethral fold
c. Prostatic utricle: Wolffian duct
d. Appendix of testis: Mesonephric duct

A. Mal rotation B. Non rotation 146. Untrue about ureteric bud


C. Reverse rotation D. Mixed Rotation a. Endodermal derivative
b. Arises from Wolffian duct
137. Regarding Gastroschisis and Omphalocele, which one is c. Forms collecting tubules
false d. Penetrates metanephric tissue
a. Intestinal obstruction is common in gastroschisis
b. Liver is the content of omphalocele 147. Ovary develops from
c. Gastroschisis is associated with multiple anomalies a. Paramesonephric duct
d. Umbilical cord is attached in normal position in gastroschisis b. Genital ridge
c. Genital tubercle
138. The greater omentum is derived from which of the d. Mesonephric duct
following embryonic structures
a. Dorsal mesogastrium 148. Wrong about urethra is
b. Pericardio-peritoneal canal a. Terminal portion of penile part is ectodermal
c. Pleuro-pericardial membranes b. The membranous urethra is endodermal
d. Ventral mesentery c. Proximal prostatic urethra is endodermal in origin on
posterior aspect
139. Ventral mesogastrium gives rise to d. Female terminal urethra is endodermal
a. Lesser omentum
b. Gastrosplenic 149. Vaginal epithelium develops from
c. Lienorenal ligament a. Mesoderm of urogenital sinus
d. All of the above b. Mesoderm of genital ridge
c. Endoderm of urogenital sinus
140. Based on the image given ‘Duct of Wirsung’ develops from d. Endoderm of genital ridge
the following components
150. Which of the following is not endodermal derivative
a. Urethra in glans penis
b. Lungs
c. Biliary tree
d. Lower part of Vagina

a. A and B
b. A and C
c. C and B
d. A, B and C

141. Which of the following is a vestigial remnant of umbilical vein


a. Medial umbilical ligament
b. Ligamentum teres
c. Ligamentum sustentaculum
d. Falciform ligament

142. Physiological hernia normally disappears by


a. 6 weeks
b. 10 weeks
c. 14 weeks
d. 20 weeks
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UPPER LIMB a. Space A is drained by incising 1st web space
b. Space B extends proximally to the oblique line of radius
c. Space B is drained by incising 4th web space
151. Which of the following is correct regarding the d. Posterior wall of space A is by Fascia over abductor pollicis
structures piercing in the given image (AIIMS Nov brevis
2016)
154. Which of the following is correct regarding the marked
structure

a. Lateral thoracic artery, basilic vein, lateral pectoral nerve,


lymphatics
b. Thoracoacromial artery, basilic vein, medial pectoral nerve,
lymphatics
c. Thoracoacromial artery, cephalic vein, lateral pectoral nerve,
lymphatics
d. Internal thoracic artery, cephalic vein, medial pectoral nerve
and lymphatics a. A is Abductor pollicis brevis tendon
b. B is lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm
152. Chose the correct option for the marked structures in c. C is abductor pollicis longus tendon
given image (AIIMS Nov 2016 d. D is extensor pollicis brevis tendon

155. C5 Dermatome in the following picture is

a. I- Lateral cord, II-Thoracodorsal nerve, III- Subscapularis


b. I- Medial cord, II-Long thoracic nerve, III- Latissimus dorsi
c. I- Lateral cord, II- Dorsal scapular nerve, III- Pectoralis major a. A
d. I- Medial cord, II- Long thoracic nerve, III- Subscapularis b. B
c. C
153. Which of the following is incorrect regarding spaces in hand? d. None

156. Most common muscle to be congenitally absent -


a. Teres major
b. Pectoralis major
c. Gastrosoleus
d. Semimembranosus

157. Third head of coracobrachialis is denoted as -


a. Struther's ligament
b. Brachioradialis
c. Radial collateral ligament
d. Ulnar ligament

158. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial


skeleton by
a. Coracoclavicular ligament
b. Coracoacromial ligament
c. Costoclavicular ligament
d. Coracohumeral ligament
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159. All are retractors of scapula except a. Radial nerve
a. Trapezius b. Median nerve
b. Rhomboideus major c. Posterior interosseous nerve
c. Rhomboideus minor d. Anterior interosseous nerve
d. Levator scapulae
169. Card test is done to check the integrity of
160. Teres major muscle is supplied by a. Adductor pollicis
a. Upper subscapular nerve b. Palmar interossei
b. Lower subscapular nerve c. Dorsal interossei
c. Dorsal subscapular nerve d. Lumbricals
d. Axillary nerve
170. A boy presents with injury to medial epicondyle of
161. Choose the incorrect pair regarding spaces and contents Humerus. Which of the following would not be seen?
a. Deltopectoral groove: cephalic vein a. Weakness of ulnar deviation and flexion
b. Bicipital groove: branch of Anterior circumflex humeral artery b. Complete paralysis of 3rd & 4th digits
c. Spiral groove: profunda brachii artery c. Atrophy of hypothenar eminence
d. Suprascapular foramen: suprascapular artery d. Decreased sensation over hypothenar eminence

162. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood


flow is maintained by anastomosis between LOWER LIMB
a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humeral artery
b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
171. Ischial tuberosity provides attachment to
c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and a. Obturator internus
Subscapular artery
b. Quadratus femoris
d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Adductor magnus
163. A patient with Bennett’s fracture (a fracture of the base of
the first metacarpal bone) experiences an impaired thumb
172. Post-polio contracture of the iliotibial tract most likely result
movement. Which of the following intrinsic muscles of the
in:
thumb is most likely injured?
a. Abductor pollicis brevis a. Extension of hip and knee
b. Flexor pollicis brevis (superficial head) b. Extension of hip
c. Opponens pollicis c. Flexion of hip and knee
d. Adductor pollicis d. Extension of knee

164. A 24-year-old carpenter suffers a crush injury of his entire 173. Structure passing through lesser sciatic foramen are all
little finger. Which of the following muscles is most likely to EXCEPT:
be spared? a. Pudendal nerve
a. Extensor digitorum b. Internal pudendal vessels
b. Palmar interossei c. Obturator externus tendon
c. Dorsal interossei d. Nerve to obturator internus
d. Lumbricals
174. Skin over femoral triangle is supplied by
165. All the following are paralyzed after injury to C5 & C6 a. Iliohypogastric nerve
spinal nerves except- b. Ilioinguinal nerve
a. Biceps c. Genitofemoral nerve
b. Brachialis d. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Brachioradialis 175. True regarding hip joint is
a. Medial rotation and adduction- gluteus medius
166. Compression of Median nerve in carpal tunnel produces b. Lateral rotators supplied by femoral nerve
inability to c. Hyperextension prevented by capsular thickening
a. Abduct the thumb d. Lateral rotation- gemellus muscles
b. Adduct the thumb
c. Flex the distal phalanx of thumb 176. True about oblique popliteal ligament is:
d. Oppose the thumb a. Pierced by superomedial genicular artery
b. Extension from semitendinosus tendon
167. Untrue regarding ulnar nerve is c. Runs upwards and medially
a. Root value is C7, C8, T1 d. Vessels piercing it supplies cruciate ligaments
b. No branch in arm
c. Pass between supinator heads 177. Untrue regarding great saphenous vein is
d. Lies superficial to FDP & flexor retinaculum a. Medial marginal vein is a formative tributary
b. Runs in front of medial malleolus
168. A patient is brought to emergency with history of trauma to c. Related to medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
his right upper limb. Extension at metacarpophalangeal joint d. Knee perforator is present just below knee joint
is lost. There is no wrist drop and interphalangeal extension
is normal. The most likely nerve involved is

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178. ‘Arrow mark’ in the following pictures indicates the 183. The skin overlying the region where venous “cut-down” is
attachment of made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by
a. Sural nerve
b. Obturator nerve
c. Femoral nerve
d. Superficial peroneal nerve

184. A Patient presents with difficulty in hip adduction and pain


in both hip and knee joint. Which nerve is involved?
a. Femoral
b. Obturator
c. Inferior gluteal
d. Sciatic
a. Anterior horn of medial meniscus
b. Anterior horn of lateral meniscus
185. Injury to common peroneal nerve at the lateral aspect of neck
c. Anterior cruciate ligament of fibula results in all the following except
d. Ligamentum patellae a. Weakness of ankle dorsiflexion
b. Foot drop
179. Which of the following is not true regarding marked c. Loss of ankle reflex
structures and attachments:
d. Sensory impairment on lateral aspect of leg and dorsum of
foot

186. A 47-year-old woman is unable to invert her foot after she


stumbled on her driveway. Which of the following nerves
are most likely injured?
a. Superficial and deep peroneal
b. Deep peroneal and tibial
c. Superficial peroneal and tibial
d. Medial and lateral plantar

a. A- largest cuneiform 187. Pain felt in the “C” marked area of the following picture is
b. B- attachment of spring ligament due to involvement of which nerve root
c. C- No ligament attachment
d. D- Bone of both longitudinal arches

180. Unlocking of the knee joint is caused by


a. Tibialis posterior
b. Vastus medialis
c. Soleus
d. Popliteus

181. Physiological locking of knee is


a. Internal rotation of femur on tibia
b. Internal rotation of tibia on femur
c. External rotation of femur on tibia
d. None
a. L5
182. Incorrect regarding given image is b. S1
c. S2
d. S3

188. A football player has suffered severe trauma to the lateral


part of the left leg just below the knee. He drags his left toe
when he walks and cannot feel the dorsum of the foot. Which
of the following will still be intact?
a. Dorsiflexion
b. Eversion
c. Cutaneous sensation of the medial leg
d. Cutaneous sensation between the great toe and the second
toe

a. Nerve supply of 1 and 2 is tibial nerve


b. 3 is major supporting ligament of medial longitudinal arch
c. 4 provides attachment to spring and deltoid ligaments
d. 1 is tendon of flexor digitorum longus

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ABDOMEN, PELVIS & PERINEUM 198. Contents of lesser omentum are all except
a. Portal vein
189. All are branches of splenic artery EXCEPT b. Hepatic vein
a. Short gastric c. Right gastric artery
b. Hilar d. Hepatic artery
c. Arteria pancreatica magna
d. Right gastro epiploic 199. False regarding relations of epiploic foramen is
a. Anterior: hepatic artery
b. Posterior: right supra renal gland
190. A patient has a penetrating ulcer of the posterior wall of the
first part of the duodenum. Which blood vessel is subject to c. Inferiorly: pyloric part of stomach
erosion d. Superiorly: caudate lobe of liver
a. Common hepatic artery
b. Gastroduodenal artery 200. Which of the following structure is related to
c. Proper hepatic artery Mesentericoparietal fossa of duodenal
d. Anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery recesses
a. Superior mesenteric artery
b. Inferior mesenteric artery
191. Which of the following is a branch of posterior
division of internal iliac artery c. Inferior mesenteric vein
a. Uterine d. Middle colic artery
b. Middle rectal
c. Iliolumbar 201. All are true regarding trigone of bladder except
d. Obturator a. Mucosa is loosely attached to underlying musculature
b. Mucosa is smooth
192. Couinaud’s classification follows c. Lined by transitional epithelium
a. Hepatic veins d. Derived from absorption of mesonephric duct
b. Hepatic and portal veins
c. Hepatic and portal veins and biliary ducts 202. Relations of left ureter all except
d. Hepatic artery and veins a. Gonadal vessels
b. Sigmoid mesocolon
c. Quadratus lumborum
193. Segmental resection was performed removing part of liver
lying left of the falciform ligament. The segments still retained d. Internal iliac vessels
in the left surgical liver are
a. 2,3 203. All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except
b. 1,4 a. Bulb/Root of penis
c. 2,4 b. Dorsal nerve of penis
d. 1,4,5 c. Sphincter urethra
d. Bulbo urethral glands
194. Which of the following is incorrect regarding walls of
inguinal canal 204. Urogenital diaphragm formed by all except
a. Anterior wall by transverse abdominis a. Colles’ fascia
b. Posterior wall by conjoint tendon b. Deep transverse perinei
c. Floor by lacunar ligament c. Perineal membrane
d. Posterior wall by reflected part of inguinal ligament d. Sphincter urethrae

195. Incorrect regarding root of the mesentery is 205. True about ischiorectal fossa
a. Crosses 3rd part of duodenum a. Perineal membrane forms the base
b. Extends inferiorly to right sacroiliac joint b. Middle rectal neurovascular bundle passes through it
c. Contains inferior mesenteric vessels c. A communication is present between the two IRF behind anal
d. Crosses right psoas major canal
d. Levator ani with anal fascia forms the lateral wall
196. To avoid damage to structures entering porta hepatis and
blood vessels supplying the stomach the omental bursa can 206. Pudendal canal is bounded by
be approached by incising a. Pelvic fascia
a. Falciform ligament b. Anal fascia
b. Hepatoduodenal portion of lesser omentum c. Lunate fascia
c. Transverse mesocolon d. Psoas fascia
d. Superior layer of coronary ligament
207. Injury to male urethra in the bulb of penis causes
197. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding sigmoid urine to accumulate in all except
a. Superficial perineal pouch
mesocolon
b. Space of Retzius
a. It is inverted “V” shaped
c. Anterior abdominal wall
b. The left limb is attached along the upper half of the left
d. Thigh
external iliac artery
c. The right limb extends up to the level of S1 vertebra
d. Intersigmoidal recess is related to left ureter

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GENERAL ANATOMY
208. Which of the following is an example of traction epiphysis 215. Correct regarding sesamoid bones is
a. Coracoid process a. Primary center of ossification present before birth
b. Capitulum b. Supplied by periosteal arteries
c. Ulnar tuberosity c. Have medullary cavities
d. Femoral condyle d. Articular surface is covered with hyaline cartilage

209. Which of the following is an example of Pneumatic bone


a. Temporal
b. Mandible ---Your Aspirations Are Your Possibilities---
c. Occipital
d. Parietal

210. Lambdoid sutural joint is


a. Squamous
b. Plane
c. Serrate
d. Denticulate

211. Sacrococcygeal joint is an example of


a. Symphysis
b. Synostosis
c. Synchondrosis
d. Sysndesmosis

212. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the joints


marked in given image

a. A is secondary cartilaginous joint


b. B is syndesmosis
c. C is schindylesis
d. D is synovial joint

213. Schindylesis joint is found in which joints


a. Atlanto-occipital joint
b. Atlanto-axial joint
c. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
d. Spheno-vomerine joint

214. Which of the following is not a hybrid muscle


a. Biceps brachii
b. Flexor carpi radialis
c. Flexor pollicis brevis
d. Popliteus

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