01 - Plan and Conduct A Passage and Determine No - 1 - 100-1-1

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1. Plan and conduct a passage and determine

(Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi)
1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.

A. Gnomonic
B. Routeing
C. Passage planning
D. Instructional
2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating

A. LMT
B. SMT
C. GMT
D. CST
3. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
A. Great circle
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Small circle
4. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle
passing through a heavenly body • s called:
A. Local hour angle
B. Greenwich hour angle
C. Sidereal hour angle
D. Tight ascension
5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?

A. The date line
B. Equator
C. Rhumb line
D. Greenwich meridian
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6. What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible
horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ?
A. dip
B. height of eye
C. index error
D. error of parallax
7. When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when :
A. at the equator
B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles
C. the course is ti-S
D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings
8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?

A. Mesosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Ionosphere
9. What is the true shape of the earth?

A. a perfect sphere
B. rectangle
C. an oblate spheroid
D. square
10. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
A. aphelion
B. perihelion
C. apogee
D. perigee
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11. What is the extent of zone zero?

A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E
B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich
C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich
D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W
12. The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called:
A. geographical mile
B. sea mile
C. none of the given options
D. statue mile
13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?

A. Reduces
B. Remains constant
C. Always zero
D. Increases
14. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
A. Observer's Principle vertical
B. Vertical circles
C. Observer's Prime vertical
D. Small circles
15. The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the:
A. solstical point
B. first point of aries
C. first point of libra
D. celestial pole
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16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =

A. sin late x cos dec
B. sin dec x cos lat
C. sin lat x sec dec
D. sin dec x sec lat
17. Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured
eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
A. Time zones
B. Zone time
C. Separation zones
D. Fixed zones
18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow

measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called :
A. apparent horizon
B. sensible horizon
C. artificial horizon
D. visible horizon
19. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the
earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is
called:
A. Attitude of the celestial body
B. Declination of the celestial body
C. True zenith distance of the celestial body
D. Calculated zenith distance
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20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?

A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and
bearing to destination
B. The vessel sails on the same course through out
C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
D. None of the other options
21. Right ascension is measured:

A. Westward from aries
B. Westward from Greenwich
C. Eastwards from aries
D. Wrestward from the observer
22. What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ
by 90 deg.?
A. Quadrature
B. Conjunction
C. Opposition
D. None of the given options
23. The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the
earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's
sensible horizon is called?
A. Parallax in attitude
B. True attitude
C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body.
D. Apparent altitude
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24. What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ?
A. 4 1/5 deg
B. 5 1/4 deg
C. 1 4/5 deg
D. 1 5/4 deg
25. Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are
called
A. both<Option 1> and C
B. celestial meridians
C. meridians
D. neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:

A. multiplied
B. subtracted
C. there is no correction
D. added
27. What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a
constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the
ecliptic called?
A. Mean sun
B. True sun
C. Apparent sun
D. All of these.
28. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
A. Inferior planets
B. Small planets
C. Large planets
D. Superior planets
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29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?

A. retrograde
B. direct
C. southward
D. northward
30. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?

A. no
B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction
C. yes
D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition
31. A That (What) type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
A. Superior planets
B. Small planets
C. Inferior planets
D. Large planets
32. What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages
called?
A. A minute
B. An hour
C. A day
D. A second
33. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg.
below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when
the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
A. nautical twilight
B. civil twilight
C. astronomical twilight
D. sunrise
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34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:

A. 4 min later
B. 4 min. earlier
C. 10 min later
D. 40 min earlier
35. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is
below the horizon, it is called:
A. sunrise
B. moon rise
C. sunset
D. twilight
36. In which case is augmentation necessary:

A. Sun
B. Stars
C. Moon
D. Planets
37. The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith
contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle
passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational
horizon is
A. Amplitude
B. Horizontal sextant angle
C. Vertical sextant angle
D. Azimuth
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38. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears
to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting
in the west called?
A. Diurnal motion
B. Diurnal inequality
C. Diurnal circle
D. Diurnal arc
39. The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg
around the earth is called?
A. Rotational period of the moon
B. Revolutionary period of the moon
C. Synodic period of the moon
D. Sidereal period of the moon
40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?

A. Axis
B. Prime meridian
C. None of the other options
D. Equator
41. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the
observer's meridian called?
A. Greenwich sidereal time
B. Local mean time
C. Local sidereal time
D. Greenwich apparent time
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42. What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of
the sun and the center of that body?
A. Elongation of a celestial body
B. Attitude of a celestial body
C. Horizontal parallax
D. parallax in attitude
43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:

A. Isothermic line
B. Isobaric line
C. Isogonic line
D. isobathic line
44. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the
three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
A. in opposition
B. in Perihelion
C. in Aphelion
D. in conjunction
45. What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude
shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian?
A. Longitude by chronometer
B. Ex-meridian altitude
C. Intercept
D. Latitude by meridian altitude
46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:

A. Mean latitude
B. Middle latitude
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
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47. The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a
celestial body is called:
A. azimuth
B. true bearing
C. amplitude
D. relative bearing
48. The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called:
A. Datum
B. Calibration point
C. Date line
D. Danger line
49. How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when
they are further away from the sun?
A. Do not moue
B. Constant rate
C. Faster
D. Slower
50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?

A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name.
C. Neither <Option 2> nor <Option 3>
D. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>
51. How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W
at 0 deg?
A. partly curved and partly straight
B. straight
C. neither <option 1> nor <option 2>
D. curved
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52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:

A. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
B. sun
C. stars
D. coon
53. Latitude scale is obtained as:

A. long scale x cosec fat
B. long scale x cos lat
C. long. Scale x sec lat
D. long scale x sin lat
54. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is
A. 23 deg
B. 12 deg
C. 0 deg
D. 23.5 deg
55. At the horizon, refraction:

A. Is moderate
B. Does not exist
C. Is maximum
D. Is minimum
56. Refraction correction must always be:

A. Divided
B. Added
C. Subtracted
D. Multiplie
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57. What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of
the true sun over the same meridian?
A. Mean solar day
B. Sidereal day
C. none of the other options
D. Apparent solar day
58. As height of eye increases, Dip:

A. increases
B. remains constant
C. doubles
D. decreases
59. Which of these is an inferior planet?

A. Mercury
B. Uranus
C. Jupiter
D. Saturn
60. What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called?
A. 1 st point of aries
B. 1 st point of libra
C. Nodes
D. Antinodes
61. How many time zones are there?

A. 36
B. 24
C. 48
D. 12
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62. At the horizon refraction is =

A. 0 min
B. 1min
C. 34 min
D. 16min
63. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is
called:
A. Observer's sensible horizon
B. None of the other options
C. Observer's visible horizon
D. Observer's rational horizon
64. What is the average distance of the sun from the earth?
A. 9,300 million miles
B. 930million miles
C. 93 million miles
D. 9.3 million miles
65. The Prime meridian is at:

A. 80 deg long
B. 90 deg long
C. 45 deg long
D. 0 deg long.
66. Augmentation at the horizon is
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0
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67. The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible
horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called:
A. ht of eye
B. Sextant altitude
C. dip
D. Apparent altituden
68. What is the maximum declination of the sun?

A. 26 deg N or S
B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S
C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S
D. 23 deg N or S
69. A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial
poles is known as
A. latitude
B. equator
C. equinoxial
D. meridian
70. Which of these is a morning and evening star?

A. Venus
B. Mars
C. Saturn
D. Jupiter
71. Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called :
A. zenith
B. first point of aries
C. equinox
D. first point of libra
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72. What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as?
A. Plane sailing
B. Composite sailing
C. Parallel track sailing
D. Rhumb line sailing
73. Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from?
A. Sight reduction tables
B. Nautical alamanac
C. Tide tables
D. Reeds distance table
74. What does the term culmination mean?

A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the
meridian
B. When the celestial body is about to set
C. When the celestial body just starts rising
D. Max declination of a celestial body
75. What is total correction tabulated against?

A. Observed attitude
B. True altitude
C. Sextant altitude
D. Apparent attitude
76. What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing
westward called?
A. Antipodean day
B. Astronomical day
C. Solar day
D. Sidereal day
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77. When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is
called:
A. Index error
B. error of perpendicularity
C. side error
D. error of collimation
78. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :

A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day
B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day
C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day.
D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day
79. What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error
by amplitude?
A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer
B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer
C. Any one of the other options.
D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer
80. When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is
called
A. index error
B. error of collimation
C. side error
D. error of perpendicularity
81. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?

A. Reflection plotter
B. Cursor
C. Sextant
D. Azimuth circle
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82. What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called?
A. Refraction
B. Augmentation
C. Horizontal parallax
D. Parallax
83. The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between
two objects is known as :
A. angle of inclination
B. Angle of repose
C. Vertical sextant angler
D. Horizontal sextant angle
84. What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes?
A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount.
B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth
D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth
85. What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north
declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and
shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere?
A. Winter solstice
B. Vernal equinox
C. Autumnal equinox
D. Summer solstice
86. Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called

A. Apparent altitude
B. True altitude
C. True zenith distance
D. Observed altitude
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87. In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object,

where would you find the height of the object :
A. from the chart
B. chart 5011
C. from the chart catalogue
D. guide to port entry
88. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?

A. position of the observer
B. observer's latitude
C. observer's longitude
D. none of the other options
89. When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is
called :
A. side error
B. index error
C. error of collimation
90. When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances
run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial
observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called :
A. DR
B. EP
C. Plot
D. Fix
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91. On which day does a solar eclipse occur?

A. Full moon day
B. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
C. Both new and full moon day
D. New moon day
92. For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the
moon?
A. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
B. Sun and moon must be in opposition
C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction
D. It is possible in both cases. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2'>
93. What is pelorus used for?

A. For assessing visibility
B. For identifying stars
C. Taking bearings
D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves
94. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?

A. Moon
B. Comets
C. Stars
D. Planets
95. If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches,
the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind
of an eclipse will he be experiencing?
A. Annular solar eclipse
B. Total solar eclipse
C. Partial lunar eclipse
D. Partial solar eclipse
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96. Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from?

A. Nautical tables
B. Reeds distance table
C. Nautical alamanac
D. Sight reduction tables
97. When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each
other, it is called :
A. side error
B. error of collimation
C. index error
98. In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar,
perpendicular to the plane of the limb called?
A. Horizon glass
B. Index glass
C. Horizon shade
D. Index shade
99. What is the index nor?
A. 3'40"
B. 4'40"
C. 40"
D. 5'40"
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100. For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)
A. 5.2
B. 5.1
C. 5.25
D. 5.15
101. What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting waypoints
A. Routeing
B. Small scale
C. Large scale
D. Instructional
102. Ship's speed through water is measured in

A. Knots
B. none of the given options
C. m/s
D. km/hr
103. How often is a chart catalogue published?

A. Twice a year
B. Monthly
C. Annually
D. Weekly
104. How often are cumulative lists published ?

A. Weekly
B. Annually
C. Monthly
D. Twice a year
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105. How often are chart corrections published ?

A. Meekly
B. Monthly
C. Yearly
D. Annually
106. How often are nautical almanacs published ?

A. Weekly
B. Twice in a year
C. Annually
D. Monthly
107. Distance on a chart is measured using :

A. Latitude scale
C. any uniform scale
D. Longitude scale
108. Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty
charts ?
A. Chart 5011
B. Chart catalogue
C. notice to mariners
D. Chart 5022
109. How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ?

A. as s-shaped lines
B. as spiral lines
C. as straight lines
D. curved lines
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110. Vessel steaming 000(T) at 20 knots, if the wind is from the north at 10 kts
What would the apparent wind to the observer from north be ?
A. 2 knots
B. 10 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 30 knots
111. What region of the earth may not be shown by mercator projection ?
A. polar
B. subtropical
C. eguitorial
D. tropical
112. How are charts corrected ?

A. none of the given options
B. local warnings & nay warnings received on telex
C. from EGC messages
D. notices to mariners
113. Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents :

A. guide to port entry
B. notice to mariners
C. admiralty
D. sailing directions
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114. How are sailing directions corrected?

A. EGC chart 5011
B. information supplied by owners
C. regulation update
D. From weekly additions subsequent to current annual summary of
admiralty notice to mariners
115. The deposition of material at the bottom or the course by water movement is
called:
A. dumping
B. erosion
C. accretion
D. collecting
116. What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called :

A. aero-radio beacon
B. aero-marine lights
C. aero-beacon
D. aero lights
117. A ship resting on the bottom is said to be :

A. aground
B. afloat
C. alongside
D. touching the bottom
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118. The difference between mean tide level and high or low water is called :
A. amplitude of tide
C. tide
D. tidal range
119. What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called?

A. Scoriae
B. Scour
C. Scarp
D. Sargasso
120. Buoy marking the position where a sewer or other pipe discharges into the
sea is called:
A. Cone buoy
B. Outfall buoy
C. Spar buoy
D. Can buoy
121. A tidal stream which runs only in one of two directions, with a period of
slack water in between is called:
A. Flood tide
B. All of these.
C. Rectilinear stream
D. Ebb tide
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122. The Buoy used in the main navigable channel usually in a river or running
through into a harbour is called:
A. starboard hand buoy
B. Fairway buoy
C. Port hand buoy
D. Special mark
123. Oscillations in the water level which occur in harbours, bays having periods
of few minutes or more, the more spectacular ones being caused by abrupt
changes in barometric pressure and wind is called:
A. Scend
B. Seismic sea waves
C. Seiche
D. Wave
124. What is a route leading through off shore oil installations called?
A. Ship canal
B. Ship safety fairway
C. Safety zone
D. Fairway
125. A channel dredged or cut dry land or through drying shoals or banks and
used as a waterway
A. river
B. tributary
C. channel
D. canal
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126. The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called
A. Open basin
B. Offing
C. Offshore
D. Horizon
127. What is a danger to navigation, the exact nature of which is not specified or
has not been determined, called?
A. Observation point
B. Obstruction
C. Wreck
D. to go area
128. A vessel anchored as a floating aid to navigation from which is exhibited a

light which may have any of the characteristics of a lighthouse is called:
A. Lighthouse
B. Light float
C. Lighter
D. Light vessel
129. What is a detached area of any material the depth over which constitutes a
danger to surface navigation?
A. Shore
B. Seashore
C. Shelf
D. Shoal
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130. Where will you find the limits of sailing directions?

A. Chart correction log
B. Weekly notice to mariners
C. Chart catalogue
D. Guide to port entry
131. What is a device fitted to a buoy or beacon used to increase the response of
radar transmission called?
A. Radar transponder
B. Radio beacon
C. Radiolarian
D. Radar reflector
132. The highest tidal level which can be predicted to occur under average
meteorological conditions and under any combination of astronomical
conditions is called:
A. high water neaps
B. lowest astronomical tide
C. high water springs
D. highest astronomical tide
133. When due to some external influence, the bows of a ship unexpectedly
deviates from her course, it is said that:
A. The ship has taken a sheer
B. The ship has deviated from her track
C. The ship is carrying on her track
D. The ship has taken a turn
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134. A loose term applied both to the rising tide and the incoming tidal stream is
called:
A. flood tide
B. flood mark
C. flow
D. flow channel
135. An arm of the sea at the mouth of a tidal river usually encumbered with
shoals where the tidal effect is influenced by river current is called :
A. estuary
B. estuary port
C. shallow patch
D. lake
136. The amount of drift of a vessel to leeward of the course steered due to the
action of wind is called:
A. Drift
B. Lee tide
C. Leeway
D. Set
137. A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling

thousands of miles and building up to disastrous proportions on certain
shelving beaches are called:
A. elephants
B. tidal wave
C. Tsunamis
D. Roaring forties
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138. What is the distributed water astern or the water through which the vessel
has passed called?
A. Both <option 1 > and C
B. Wake
C. Wash
D. Neither <option 1> nor <option 2>
139. The distance a sea wave has traveled to the observer from the locality of the
wind that caused it or from the nearest weather shore is called :
A. wave period
B. Tidal range
C. wave height
D. Fetch
140. What is a track shown on a chart, which all or certain vessels are
recommended to follow?
A. Proposed track
B. Hazardous track
C. None of the given options
D. Recommended track
141. The condition where the sea and swell approach the ship at right angles is
called :
A. Seas from any quarter
B. Following seas
C. Beam seas
D. Read seas
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142. A signal, usually by radio, for the purpose of checking the errors of
chronometers is called
A. Radio signal
B. Sound signal
C. Time signal
D. Light signal
143. The wearing away of the coast by water action is called:

A. accretion
B. andfall
C. deposition
D. erosion
144. AE Conduct Passage progressive wave of meteorological origin which, if its

crest arrives at the time of high water, can cause exceptionally high tides is
called:
A. Storm
B. Hurricane
C. Storm surge
D. Tidal wave
145. An area wherein fishing craft congregate to fish is called:

A. Fish weir
B. Fitting out basin
C. Fishing ground
D. Fishing harbour
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146. An area of rocks or corals, detached or not, the depth over which constitutes
a danger to surface navigation s called:
A. Obstruction
B. Reef
C. Wreck
D. All of these.
147. A light showing at regular intervals a group of two or more flashes is called:
A. occulting light
B. group occulting light
C. flashing light
D. Troup flashing light
148. A region of completely shallow water strewn with rocks, boulders, corals or
obstruction making it unsuitable for anchoring is called:
A. foul bottom
B. fowl birth
C. foul patch
D. foul ground
149. The period between high water and the succeeding low water is called:
A. Tidal range
B. height of tide
C. Falling tide
D. rising tide
150. What is a group flashing light in which the flashes are combined in alternate
groups of different numbers of flashes?
A. Occulting
B. Composite group flashing
C. Composite group occurting
D. group flashing
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DPKP
151. What is the angular motion of the ship in the fore and aft direction called?
A. Pitch
B. Roll
C. Racking
D. Pounding
152. A radio beacon which transmits two signals in such a way that they are of
equal strength on only one bearing is called :
A. non-directional radio beacon
B. radio beacon
C. directional radio beacon
D. multi-directional radio beacon
153. When is the river said to be “in spate”?

A. When there is increased rate in current and fall in level in river due to
heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters
B. When there is reduced rate in current and rise in level in river due to
C. When there is increased rate in current and rise in level Cin a river due to
D. All of these.
154. To proceed against the tide stream at such a speed that the vessel remains
stationary over the ground is called:
A. Heave to
B. Stem the tide
C. Broach to
D. Ride to
34
DPKP
155. A passage between two sea areas is called

A. Sound
B. Runnel
C. Channel
D. Canal
156. A Tide which has only one high water and one low water each day; that part
of the tide which has one complete osculation in a day, is called :
A. double tide
B. tidal stream
C. diurnal tide
D. tidal range
157. The sea in the vicinity of the coast is called :

A. coastline
B. coastal plain
C. coast
D. coastal waters
158. An area where concrete blocks, hulks, disused car bodies are dumped to
provide suitable conditions for Fish to breed in is called:
A. Fish stake
B. Fish farm
C. Fish haven
D. Fish pond
159. What is the hollow between two waves called?

A. Wavefront
B. Trough
C. Crest
D. Wavelength
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DPKP
160. Which of these is not an advantage of a mercator chart ?

A. Distances are easily measured as scale of latitude= scale of distance
B. Bearings and position lines can be easily transferred from one part of the
chart to another as parallel of atitudes.
C. Polar regions can be represented on a mercator chart
D. Shapes of land masses are shown correctly in the immediate
neighbourhood of any port.
161. Where will you find the position for different ports in the world?
A. Nautical almanac
B. Chart catalogue
C. Guide to port Entry
D. Reeds distance table
162. A buoy, the visible portion of which shows an approximately spherical

shape is called :
A. a spindle buoy
B. All of these.
C. a spherical buoy
D. a spar buoy
163. A fixed light varied at regular intervals by a group of two or more flashes of
greater brilliance is called:
A. fixed and group flashing light
B. fixed and flashing light
C. alternatively flashing light
D. just flashing light
36
DPKP
164. Currents caused by pressure gradient in the water is called :

A. ocean current
B. equatorial current
C. countercurrent
D. gadiant current
165. Detailed description or representation on a chart or map, of the natural or

artificial features of a district is called:
A. Botony
B. topography
C. Oceanography
D. Zoology
166. What is the minimum speed required to keep the vessel under control by
means of the rudder called?
A. Critical speed
B. Speed of advance
C. Steerage way
D. Stern speed
167. A radar transponder beacon which emits a characteristic signal when

triggered by the emissions of ship's radar is called:
A. Radio beacon
B. Ramark
C. Rayband
D. Racon
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DPKP
168. A shoal area in a river, or extending across a river where the depths are less
than those upstream or downstream of it is called:
A. Bank
B. Reef
C. Seashore
D. Shallow
169. On a gnomonic chart which of these can be done

A. Bearing and position lines can be easily transferred
B. Measurement of longitude & distance is easy.
C. Thumb line courses appear as straight lines
D. Great circle courses can be laid as straight lines
170. A light showing over a very narrow sector forming a single leading light is
called
A. search light
B. sector light
C. directional light
D. non-directional light
171. On which of these areas would you consider that climatological routing to
be satisfactory?
A. Malacca straits
B. North Atlantic
C. Gulf of Oman
D. Red sea
38
DPKP
172. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how

would the wind direction change in the advance of a warm front?
A. remain steady
B. slowly veer as it is approached
C. suddenly year by 90deg
D. slowly back as it is approached
173. What word is used to indicate colour variations in the characteristics of a

light?
A. Alternating
B. Flashing
C. Occulting
D. Sophase
174. When correcting charts by applying a block correction, which of the

following would be the correct procedure?
A. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart & the block should be pasted
B. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart pasted
C. The block should be penciled around when in position and the edges of
the block should be pasted before fixing
D. The block should be penciled around when in position nd the block
should be pasted before fixing
175. When can a towed log measure speed?

A. In all the other options
B. When the speed is greater than 5 kts
C. When the speed is between 1-5 kts
D. When speed is greater than lid
39
DPKP
176. On predominant current charts, what is obtained by comparing the number

of observations in the predominant sector against the total number of
observations and expressed as a percentage?
A. Constancy
B. Clean resultant
C. Occurrence
D. Percentage frequency
177. On a routenig chart, what pastel colour is used to indicate the summer zone?
A. light blue
B. light green
C. light yellow
D. light pink
178. When two position lines are obtained at different times, the position of the
ship may be found by transferring the first position line up t the time of
taking the bearing of the second position line. What is this called
A. three point bearing
B. four point bearing
C. horizontal sextant angles
D. running fix
179. In which if the following publications will you find general information on
ice
A. Nories tables
B. Guide o port entry
C. Mariner's handbook
D. ALRS
40
DPKP
180. How will it be indicated that the course recorder paper is nearly finished?
A. By an audible sound
B. By a flashing light on the instrument
C. By a colored stripe on the paper
D. There is no such indication
181. What is course allowing for leeway know as?

A. leeway
B. Ground track
C. Set
D. Water track
182. What is the course recorder used for?

A. To keep a record of all gyro courses steered during the voyage
B. To record the courses of other ships in the vicinity during the voyage
C. To find out the set and drift of a vessel
D. To find out the course to steer to the next waypoint
183. Satellite information charts providing information on cloud pattern and

cloud thickness are called :
A. Change of pressure charts
B. Upper air charts
C. Hindcast charts
D. Elephanalysis charts
184. The intersection of two or more position lines, which has been obtained at
the same time which gives the position of the ship is called :
A. Bearing
B. Course lines
C. Cocked hat
D. Fix
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DPKP
185. What is a chart, which is published for the first time called?
A. Newly corrected chart
B. Newly printed chart
C. New edition
D. New chart
186. Which method is not used to obtain a position line :

A. Taking a time signal
B. An observation of a celestial body giving the position line.
C. A transit bearing
D. Visual bearing of a terrestrial object
187. What is a wireless station which emits a beam of waves in one or several
definite directions or sectors?
A. Directional radio beacon
B. Aero beacon
C. Direction finder
D. Non-directional radio beacon
188. On a routeing chart what does the direction of the current (arrows) indicate?
A. The direction in which the current is flowing
C. A direction perpendicular to the direction of current.
D. The direction from where the current is coming
189. In coastal navigation, What is the horizontal angle between two fixed objects
on shore lying approximately at the same distance on either side of a danger
to be cleared, outside of which it is considered safe for the ship
A. Angle of repose
B. Danger angle
C. Complementary angle
D. Horizontal parallax
42
DPKP
190. What is the vertical distance on a given day between the water surface at
high and low water called?
A. Height of tide
B. Range of tides
C. Highest astronomical tide
D. Lowest astronomical tide.
191. Ship's speed through water is measured in

A. Knots
C. m/s
D. km/hr
192. Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty
charts ?
A. Chart 5011
B. Chart catalogue
C. notice to mariners
D. Chart 5022
193. What is the east - west distance between two points called ?
A. d’lat
B. DMP
C. Departure
D. D'Iong
194. How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ?

A. as s-shaped lines
B. as spiral lines
C. as straight lines
D. curved lines
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DPKP
195. Vessel steaming 000(T) at 20 knots, if the wind is from the north at 10 kts
What would the apparent wind to the observer from north be ?
A. 2 knots
B. 10 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 30 knots
196. What region of the earth may not be shown by mercator projection ?
A. polar
B. subtropical
C. eguitorial
D. tropical
197. How are charts corrected ?

A. none of the given options
B. local warnings & nay warnings received on telex
C. from EGC messages
D. notices to mariners
198. When crossing the 180th meridian on an easterly course:

A. retard one day
B. advance bytwo days
C. do not advance or retard
D. advance by one day
199. Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents :

A. guide to port entry
B. notice to mariners
C. admiralty
D. sailing directions
44
DPKP
200. How are sailing directions corrected?

A. EGC chart 5011
B. information supplied by owners
C. regulation update
D. From weekly additions subsequent to current annual summary of
admiralty notice to mariners
201. The deposition of material at the bottom or the course by water movement is
called:
A. dumping
B. erosion
C. accretion
D. collecting
202. What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called :

A. aero-radio beacon
B. aero-marine lights
C. aero-beacon
D. aero lights
203. A ship resting on the bottom is said to be :

A. aground
B. afloat
C. alongside
D. touching the bottom
204. The difference between mean tide level and high or low water is called :
A. amplitude of tide
C. tide
D. tidal range
45
DPKP
205. The sector/sectors in which a light is visible from seaward is called :

A. ray
B. loom
C. arc of visibility
D. brightness
206. What is the tide of relatively small range occurring near the time of moons
quarter known as?
A. Astronomical tide
B. Spring tide
C. Low tide
D. Neap tide
207. A prolonged period during which the tide does HOT rise or fall noticeably is
called?
A. Stand of the tide
B. Tidal effect
C. Height of tide
D. Tidal range
208. What is an isolated or comparatively isolated elevation rising at least 1,000

m from the ocean floor and of limited extent across the summit called
A. Sea knoll
B. All of these.
C. Seamount
D. Seamark
46
DPKP
209. The angular distance on a meridian, measured north or south of the equator
is called:
A. D'Iong
B. D'Iat
C. Latitude
D. Longitude
210. What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called?

A. Scoriae
B. Scour
C. Scarp
D. Sargasso
211. Buoy marking the position where a sewer or other pipe discharges into the
sea is called:
A. Cone buoy
B. Outfall buoy
C. Spar buoy
D. Can buoy
212. Which instrument is used for signaling to another ship during the day and
night (by light)
A. Aldis lamp
B. Torch
C. Rasthead light
D. Radar reflector
47
DPKP
213. A tidal stream which runs only in one of two directions, with a period of
slack water in between is called:
A. Flood tide
B. All of these.
C. Rectilinear stream
D. Ebb tide
214. The Buoy used in the main navigable channel usually in a river or running
through into a harbour is called:
A. starboard hand buoy
B. Fairway buoy
C. Port hand buoy
D. Special mark
215. Oscillations in the water level which occur in harbours, bays having periods
of few minutes or more, the more spectacular ones being caused by abrupt
changes in barometric pressure and wind is called:
A. Scend
B. Seismic sea waves
C. Seiche
D. Wave
216. What is a route leading through off shore oil installations called?
A. Ship canal
B. Ship safety fairway
C. Safety zone
D. Fairway
48
DPKP
217. A channel dredged or cut dry land or through drying shoals or banks and
used as a waterway
A. river
B. tributary
C. channel
D. canal
A. Open basin
B. Offing
C. Offshore
D. Horizon
219. Turbulences associated with the flow of strong tidal streams over abrupt
changes in depth, or with the meeting of tidal streams flowing from different
directions is called:
A. Over tide
B. Tide rips
C. Tidal stream
D. Tidal surge
220. The level below which soundings are given on Admiralty charts and above
which are given the drying heights of features which are periodically covered
and uncovered by the tide is called :
A. Chart datum
B. LHWS
C. MHWS
D. MHHWS
49
DPKP
221. What are sediments deposited by water in a channel or harbour called?

A. Slake
B. Skerry
C. Slick
D. Silt
222. What type of measurement is time?

A. westward
B. eastward
C. southward
D. northward
223. A port for which tidal data is given in Admiralty tide tables but for which
daily predictions are not given is called:
A. A secondary port
B. Tidal port
C. A primary port
D. Ion tidal port
A. Open basin
B. Offing
C. Offshore
D. Horizon
50
DPKP
225. Turbulences associated with the flow of strong tidal streams over abrupt
changes in depth, or with the meeting of tidal streams flowing from different
directions is called:
A. Over tide
B. Tide rips
C. Tidal stream
D. Tidal surge
226. The level below which soundings are given on Admiralty charts and above
which are given the drying heights of features which are periodically covered
and uncovered by the tide is called :
A. Chart datum
B. LHWS
C. MHWS
D. MHHWS
227. What are sediments deposited by water in a channel or harbour called?

A. Slake
B. Skerry
C. Slick
D. Silt
228. What type of measurement is time?

A. westward
B. eastward
C. southward
D. northward
51
DPKP
229. A port for which tidal data is given in Admiralty tide tables but for which
daily predictions are not given is called:
A. A secondary port
B. Tidal port
C. A primary port
D. Ion tidal port
230. The length of a meridian contained between the equator and that latitude on
a mercator chart expressed in minutes of longitude scale is called:
A. Difference bet 0 deg and that latitude
B. Difference bet 0 deg and that longitude
C. Meridional part for that latitude
D. Meridional part for that longitude
231. The open water outside the confines of a harbour is called:

A. Sea reach
B. Sea room
C. Sea-way
D. Seaboard
232. What is a danger to navigation, the exact nature of which is not specified or
has not been determined, called?
A. Observation point
B. Obstruction
C. Wreck
D. to go area
52
DPKP
233. What is a detached area of any material the depth over which constitutes a
danger to surface navigation?
A. Shore
B. Seashore
C. Shelf
D. Shoal
234. Where will you find the limits of sailing directions?

A. Chart correction log
B. Weekly notice to mariners
C. Chart catalogue
235. What is a device fitted to a buoy or beacon used to increase the response of
radar transmission called?
A. Radar transponder
B. Radio beacon
C. Radiolarian
D. Radar reflector
236. The highest tidal level which can be predicted to occur under average
meteorological conditions and under any combination of astronomical
conditions is called:
A. high water neaps
B. lowest astronomical tide
C. high water springs
D. highest astronomical tide
53
DPKP
237. A line joining points of same height above, or depth below, the datum is
called
A. Co-range lines
B. Contour line
C. Iso -gonic lines
D. co-tidal lines
238. What is the official time kept by a country or area called?

A. standard time
B. Local mean time
C. GMT
D. local time
239. A solid structure such as a wall to break the force of wanes protecting a
harbour or anchorage is called:
A. breakwater
B. dam
C. breaking sea
D. breaker
240. What is a comparatively narrow passage connecting two seas or two bodies
of water called?
A. Channel
B. Strad
C. Canal
D. Sound
54
DPKP
241. A loose term applied both to the rising tide and the incoming tidal stream is
called:
A. flood tide
B. flood mark
C. flow
D. flow channel
242. An arm of the sea at the mouth of a tidal river usually encumbered with
shoals where the tidal effect is influenced by river current is called :
A. estuary
B. estuary port
C. shallow patch
D. lake
243. A prominent artificial feature on land such as a tower or church used as an

aid to navigation is called:
A. Landmark
B. Landing stage
C. Landlock
D. Landslip
244. The amount of drift of a vessel to leeward of the course steered due to the
action of wind is called:
A. Drift
B. Lee tide
C. Leeway
D. Set
55
DPKP
245. A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling

thousands of miles and building up to disastrous proportions on certain
shelving beaches are called:
A. elephants
B. tidal wave
C. Tsunamis
D. Roaring forties
246. The higher of two successive high waters where diurnal in equality is present,
is called:
A. high water change
B. high water datum
C. high water
D. higher high water
247. What is the distributed water astern or the water through which the vessel
has passed called?
A. Both <option 1 > and C
B. Wake
C. Wash
D. leither <option 1> nor <option 2>
248. The distance a sea wave has traveled to the observer from the locality of the
wind that caused it or from the nearest weather shore is called :
A. Wave period
B. Tidal range
C. Wave height
D. Fetch
56
DPKP
249. What is a track shown on a chart, which all or certain vessels are
recommended to follow?
A. Proposed track
B. Hazardous track
D. Recommended track
250. What is the point of minimum tidal range in an amphidromic system called?
A. Focal point
B. Nodal point
C. Point of intersection
D. Point of convergence
251. The height of tide halfway between high and low water is called:
A. half tide basin
B. mean tide level
C. half tide rock
D. tidal range
252. A circular motion in water; horizontal movement in a different direction

from that of a general direction of he tidal stream in the vicinity caused by
obstructions, such as islands, rocks or by frictional effect of beach?
A. local anomaly
B. local current
C. eddy
D. tide rips
57
DPKP
253. A signal, usually by radio, for the purpose of checking the errors of
chronometers is called
A. Radio signal
B. Sound signal
C. Time signal
D. Light signal
254. The wearing away of the coast by water action is called:

A. Accretion
B. landfall
C. deposition
D. erosion
255. What are identification shapes fitted on the top of beacons and buoys called?
A. Marks
B. Shapes
C. Indicators
D. Top marks
256. An area of rocks or corals, detached or not, the depth over which constitutes
a danger to surface navigation s called:
A. Obstruction
B. Reef
C. Wreck
D. All of these
58
DPKP
257. A light showing at regular intervals a group of two or more flashes is called:
A. occulting light
B. group occulting light
C. flashing light
D. Troup flashing light
258. Heights above chart datum of features which are periodically covered and
exposed by rise and fall of tides are called :
A. drying soundings
B. rise of tide
C. drying heights
D. tidal rise
259. A current which does not extend more than 3 m below the surface is called
A. Gradient current
B. Ocean current
C. Coastal current
D. Surface curren
260. A region of completely shallow water strewn with rocks, boulders, corals or
obstruction making it unsuitable for anchoring is called:
A. foul bottom
B. fowl birth
C. foul patch
D. foul ground
59
DPKP
261. The period between high water and the succeeding low water is called:
A. Tidal range
B. height of tide
C. Falling tide
D. rising tide
262. What is a group flashing light in which the flashes are combined in alternate
groups of different numbers of flashes?
A. Occulting
B. Composite group flashing
C. Composite group occurting
D. group flashing
263. What is the angular motion of the ship in the fore and aft direction called?
A. Pitch
B. Roll
C. Racking
D. Pounding
264. The period of negligible horizontal water movement when a rectilinear tidal
stream is changing direction is called?
A. Tide rips
B. High water
C. Low water
D. Slack water
60
DPKP
234. A radio beacon which transmits two signals in such a way that they are of
equal strength on only one bearing is called :
A. non-directional radio beacon
B. radio beacon
C. directional radio beacon
D. multi-directional radio beacon
235. Occasions when the level of the sea of the sea is lower than the predicted
level, it is called:
A. Surging tide
B. Positive surges
D. Negative surges
236. When is the river said to be “in spate”?

A. When there is increased rate in current and fall in level in river due to
B. When there is reduced rate in current and rise in level in river due to
C. When there is increased rate in current and rise in level Cin a river due to
D. All of these.
237. To proceed against the tide stream at such a speed that the vessel remains
stationary over the ground is called:
A. Heave to
B. Stem the tide
C. Broach to
D. Ride to
61
DPKP
238. A passage between two sea areas is called

A. Sound
B. Runnel
C. Channel
D. Canal
239. A light with all durations of day and night equal is called:
A. Group occulting
B. Flashing light
C. Isophase light
D. Occulting light
240. The situation whereby a vessel is carried inadvertently broad side on to the
sea when running before it is called:
A. pooping
B. dragging
C. broaching
D. drifting
241. A Tide which has only one high water and one low water each day; that part
of the tide which has one complete osculation in a day, is called :
A. double tide
B. tidal stream
C. diurnal tide
D. tidal range
62
DPKP
242. A local effect, constant in magnitude, superimposed on the earths normal

magnetic field is called :
A. Magnetic variation
B. Earths field
C. Abnormal magnetic variation
D. Local magnetic anomaly
243. The sea in the vicinity of the coast is called :

A. coastline
B. coastal plain
C. coast
D. coastal waters
244. Which of these is not an advantage of a mercator chart ?

A. Distances are easily measured as scale of latitude= scale of distance
B. Bearings and position lines can be easily transferred from one part of the
chart to another as parallel of altitudes.
C. Polar regions can be represented on a mercator chart
D. Shapes of land masses are shown correctly in the immediate
neighbourhood of any port.
245. Where will you find the position for different ports in the world?
A. Nautical almanac
B. Chart catalogue
C. Guide to port Entry
D. Reeds distance tables
63
DPKP
246. The triangle not uncommonly formed by the intersection of three lines of
bearing on the chart are called :
A. DR
B. point of intersection
C. diamond
D. cocked hat
247. A buoy, the visible portion of which shows an approximately spherical

shape is called :
A. a spindle buoy
B. All of these.
C. a spherical buoy
D. a spar buoy
248. A fixed light varied at regular intervals by a group of two or more flashes of
greater brilliance is called:
A. fixed and group flashing light
B. fixed and flashing light
C. alternatively flashing light
D. just flashing light
249. Currents caused by pressure gradient in the water is called :

A. ocean current
B. equatorial current
C. countercurrent
D. gradient current
64
DPKP
250. Detailed description or representation on a chart or map, of the natural or

artificial features of a district is called:
A. Botony
B. topography
C. Oceanography
D. Zoology
251. What is the minimum speed required to keep the vessel under control by
means of the rudder called?
A. Critical speed
B. Speed of advance
C. Steerage way
D. Stern speed
252. A radar transponder beacon which emits a characteristic signal when

triggered by the emissions of ship's radar is called:
A. Radio beacon
B. Ramark
C. Rayband
D. Racon
253. A shoal area in a river, or extending across a river where the depths are less
than those upstream or downstream of it is called:
A. Bank
B. Reef
C. Seashore
D. Shallow
65
DPKP
254. On a gnomonic chart which of these can be done

A. Bearing and position lines can be easily transferred
B. Measurement of longitude & distance is easy.
C. Thumb line courses appear as straight lines
D. Great circle courses can be laid as straight lines
255. A light showing over a very narrow sector forming a single leading light is
called
A. search light
B. sector light
C. directional light
D. non-directional light
256. The average time interval between moon's transit and the following high
water is called:
A. Mean sea level
B. Mean high water neaps
C. Mean high waterlevel
D. Mean high water springs
257. What word is used to indicate colour variations in the characteristics of a

light?
A. Alternating
B. Flashing
C. Occulting
D. Sophase
66
DPKP
258. When correcting charts by applying a block correction, which of the

following would be the correct procedure?
A. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart & the block should be pasted
B. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area
of the chart pasted
C. The block should be penciled around when in position and the edges of
the block should be pasted before fixing
D. The block should be penciled around when in position and the block
should be pasted before fixing
259. When can a towed log measure speed?

A. In all the other options
B. When the speed is greater than 5 kts
C. When the speed is between 1-5 kts
D. When speed is greater than lid
260. On predominant current charts, what is obtained by comparing the number

of observations in the predominant sector against the total number of
observations and expressed as a percentage?
A. Constancy
B. Clean resultant
C. Occurrence
D. Percentage frequency
261. On a routeing chart, what pastel colour is used to indicate the summer zone?
A. light blue
B. light green
C. light yellow
D. light pink
67
DPKP
262. When two position lines are obtained at different times, the position of the
ship may be found by transferring the first position line up t the time of
taking the bearing of the second position line. What is this called
A. three point bearing
B. four point bearing
C. horizontal sextant angles
D. running fix
263. Which book is usually kept by a junior officer, in which are entered speeds,
directions and times of engine movements as they are relayed to the engine
room while the ship is manouvering?
A. Bell book
C. Bridge note book
D. Mates log book
264. In which if the following publications will you find general information on
ice
A. Nories tables
B. Guide o port entry
C. Mariner's handbook
D. ALRS
265. How will it be indicated that the course recorder paper is nearly finished?
A. By an audible sound
B. By a flashing light on the instrument
C. By a colored stripe on the paper
D. There is no such indication
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266. Which of these is used to find the times and heights of high water in
offshore areas and at places which lie between secondary ports?
A. co-tidal/co-range charts
B. routeing charts
C. Diamonds marked on the chart
D. tidal stream atlas
267. What is course allowing for leeway know as?

A. leeway
B. Ground track
C. Set
D. Water track
268. For which of these aspects would a navigational chart not be used?
A. Laying of bearings
B. Great circle sailing
C. Large scale plans of harbour approaches
D. Polar navigation in higher latitudes
269. The intersection of two or more position lines, which has been obtained at
the same time which gives the position of the ship is called :
A. Bearing
B. Course lines
C. Cocked hat
D. Fix
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270. What are vector current charts used for?

A. To calculate the drift of objects over a long period of time.
B. All of these.
C. To ascertain the most likely current to be experienced in the area of
consideration
D. To find out the variability of the ocean current in the region it covers.
271. A line drawn on a chart on which the ship is known to be is called :

A. Clearing line
B. Position line
C. Course line
D. Clearing bearing
272. What type of routeing would container ships normally opt for?
A. All weather route
B. Ice free route
C. Deep water route
D. Climatic route
273. What is the portion of a circle, defined by limiting bearings if necessary,

throughout which a light is visible from seaward known as ?
A. Limiting circle
B. Arc of visibility
C. Range of light
D. Arc of the horizon
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274. The distance called a vessel continues to travel on a course before

responding to a change of helm?
A. Tactical diameter
B. Transfer
C. Drift angle
D. Advance
275. What is a chart, which is published for the first time called?
A. Newly corrected chart
B. Newly printed chart
C. New edition
D. New chart
276. What is the work of computation required in navigating a ship for 24 hrs
called?
A. Day mark
B. flays run
C. Days work
D. Jays of grace
277. If you wish to report a depth which is different from the chartered depth,
how will you do so?
A. Inform the nearest coast guard
B. Inform any meteorological office
C. Use hydrographic note to inform the hydrographic office
D. Inform IMO
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278. What term is used to describe newly discovered hazards which have not yet
been indicated in the nautical publications ?
A. Isolated danger
B. Dangerous mark
C. New danger
D. Danger zone
279. Which method is not used to obtain a position line :

A. Taking a time signal
B. An observation of a celestial body giving the position line.
C. A transit bearing
D. Visual bearing of a terrestrial object
280. The accuracy of a running fix depends on :

A. Speed at which the observation is taken
B. time of the day
C. accuracy of the estimated run over the ground
D. Instruments used in plotting
281. If a ship is steaming at an engine speed of 12kts in a 3kts current which is

setting in the opposite direction then what will the log speed show?^
A. 3 kts
B. 9 kts
C. 12 kts
D. 15 kts
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282. What is the difference between the speed of the stream projected by the
propeller and the speed of the ship, in relation to a fixed point in the water,
clear of the wake called?
A. Speed through the water
B. Apparent Slip
C. Speed over ground
D. Engine speed
283. On a routeing chart what does the direction of the current (arrows) indicate?
A. The direction in which the current is flowing
C. A direction perpendicular to the direction of current.
D. The direction from where the current is coming
284. Who issues and publishes the weekly notice to mariners?

A. The hydrographic department of the navy
B. IMO
C. The meterological department
D. The World health organization
285. What information can be obtained from the source data block on the chart?
A. Special reference to tidal levels and chartered data
B. Special navigational notes on land and sea areas
C. Date of publication of the chart
D. Dates of survey
286. Where are you likely to experience the “Trades”
A. Atlantic ,pacific and Indian oceans
B. Mediterranean
C. Straits of Magellan
D. Aegean sea
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287. The international nautical mile is :

A. 1,852 meters
B. 1852 meters
C. 1,853 meters
D. 185 meters
288. In coastal navigation, What is the horizontal angle between two fixed objects
on shore lying approximately at the same distance on either side of a danger
to be cleared, outside of which it is considered safe for the ship
A. Angle of repose
B. Danger angle
C. Complementary angle
D. Horizontal parallax
289. What is the course known as after taking into account current and leeway?
A. Course to steer to counteract current
B. Course to steer to counteract leeway
C. Course to steer
D. Course made good
265. What would be considered a good practice when transferring positions from
one chart to another?
A. Use bearings in distance of a readily unidentifiable object
B.Transfer the approximate position
D. By using a tracing sheet
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266. The best fix is obtained when the bearing between two objects are:
A. 45 degrees apart
B. 90 degrees apart
C. 180 degrees apart
D. 135 degrees apart
267. Where is the title of the chart printed: TO IPD

In some convenient, conspicuous place, where it does not hinder navigation
or the use of it
A. Where the sea areas are located
B. Always at the center of the chart
C. Always at the bottom left hand margin
D. Always at the bottom left hand margin
268. The relationship between the actual length of something on the earth and the
length by which that thing is shown on the chart is called :
A. Calculated scale
B. Natural scale
C. Variable scale
D. Actual scale
269. Where is the natural scale of the chart is shown?

A. Below the title
B. At the back of the chart
C. Bottom left hand margin
D. Top right hand margin
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270. What does natural scale of 1/12,500 mean :

A. a feature of 1cm length on the earth would be represented by a length of
0.00008 cm. on the chart.
B. a feature of 12,500 cms length on the earth would be represented by a
length of one cm. on the chart.
C. a feature of 1 cm length on the earth would be represented by a length of
12,500cms on the chart
D. a feature of 12,500 cms length on the earth would be represented by a
length of 12,500cms. on the chart.
271. How do direction lines appear on a mercator projection?

A. As straight lines
B. Parabolic
C. As curved lines
D. Elliptical
272. How are angles represented on a mercator chart?

A. True and equal to the corresponding angles on the earth's surface
B. Relative and equal to the corresponding angles on the earth's surface
C. True but different from the corresponding angles on the earth's surface
D. Relative but different from the corresponding angles on earth's surface
273. How are the meridians shown on a mercator chart?

A. As equidistant parallel lines parallel to the equator
B. Not equidistant but perpendicular to the equator
C. As equidistant parallel lines perpendicular to the equator
D. As equidistant parallel lines but inclined with the equator
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274. D'lat =
A. d’lat x sec long
B. length of d'Iong x sec lat
C. length of d'Iat x sec long
D. long x sec lat
275. Where will you find the number of the chart?

A. Always outside the left hand margin
B. Always outside the right hand margin.
C. Below the chart title
D. At the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner outside the
margin.
276. Where will you find the list of charts with the title and number for various
parts of the world ?
A. Chart folio
B. Chart catalogue
C. Sailing directions
D. Chart 5011
277. Where will you find the date of publication of a chart ?

A. At the top, in the middle just outside the margin.
B. At the left, in the middle just outside the margin.
C. At the right, in the middle just outside the margin.
D. At the bottom, in the middle just outside the margin.
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278. Where will you find the date of printing?

A. Left hand corner outside the margin
B. Bottom right hand corner outside the margin.
C. Right hand corner outside the margin
D. Top right hand corner outside the margin.
279. If the chart was printed on the the 335th day of 1975, how is this written?
A. 3351975
B. 33575
C. 335.75
D. 335.1975
280. Where are the numbers of small corrections entered ?

A. Bottom left hand corner outside the margin
B. Right left hand corner outside the margin
C. Top left hand corner outside the margin
D. Left hand corner outside the margin
281. Where will you find large corrections and new edition dates? □□□□□□□□
A. These are shown at the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner
outside the margin.
B. These are shown below the chart title.
C. These are shown near the new edition dates, at the bottom , in the middle,
outside the margin.
D. These are shown Top right hand corner outside the margin.
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282. Sometimes a notice to mariner includes a reproduction of a small area of a

chart in which the correction has been carried out. This is cut and pasted in
the appropriate position on the chart as part of a small correction.
A. Permanent correction
B. Chart block
C. Tracing
D. T & P notice
283. That does the figures in brackets shown outside the lower right hand border
of the chart eg (425.0 x B60.0mm) indicate ?
A. plate dimensions
B. Latitude and longitude sale
C. chart dimensions
D. Scale of the chart
284. List of lights gives

A. luminous range of lights
B. nominal range
C. geographical range of lights
D. hone of the other options
285. Pick out the one which is not an advantage of a leading light?
A. Helps in fixing the position of the ship in the channel
B. It indicates the safe passage of the ship in a channel
C. It helps the navigator in obtaining a homing signal
D. It helps the navigator in finding the compass error
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286. If the true transit bearings of two leading lights is read off the chart and the
compass bearing of the two , when in transit is taken, then the difference
between the two bearings so obtained is the:
A. variation
B. compass error
C. deviation
D. magnetic bearing
287. What is used on the chart for the laying off bearing and courses?
A. Latitudes
B. Compass rose
C. Longitude scale
D. Latitude scale
288. The compass roses is printed as two concentric cards. The inner card is:
A. on the true north
B. compass north
C. none of the other options
D. on the magnetic meridian
289. What are sailing directions also known as?

A. Pilot books
B. Passage planning charts
C. Routeing charts
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290. When a new supplement to the sailing direction, what is done with the old
one?
A. The supplement replaces the entire edition
B. cancelled
C. Used independently of the old one
D. Used in conjunction with the old one TO IPD
291. If Var = 8W and Dev =411V, What is the compass error ?

A. 4W
B. 12W
C. 4E
D. 12E
292. If var =6E; dev =3W, What is the compass error ?

A. 9W
B. 3E
C. 3W
D. 9E
293. Var = 7W ;Dev = 12E ; What is the compass error ?

A. 17E
B. 17W
C. 5W
D. 5E
294. To convert compass course to magnetic course, it is necessary to apply

A. both<Option 1> and <Option 2>
B. neither<Option 1> or <Option 2>
C. variation
D. deviation
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295. Compass course 035 ( C ), Deviation 6 E, What is the magnetic course ?

A. 029 (M)
B. 221 ( M)
C. 041 ( M )
D. 209 ( M)
296. Compass course 185 ( C ), Deviation = 3W, What is the magnetic course ?
A. 188 ( M)
B. 002 (M )
C. 182 ( M)
D. 008 ( M)
297. To convert magnetic course to true course, it is necessary to apply:

A. Deviation
B. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
C. Variation
D. Netiher<:Option 1> or <Option 2>
298. Magnetic course = 050 (M ); Variation = 8E; What is the true course ?
A. 042 ( T )
B. 058 ( T)
C. 238 ( T )
D. 222 ( T)
299. True course =310 ( T ), Variation 6 E, What is the magnetic course ?

A. 124 (T )
B. 136 ( T)
C. 304(T)
D. 316 (T)
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300. Deviation varies as the :

A. Geographical position
B. Ship's speed
C. Ship's head
D. Weather conditions
301. If ship's head by compass was 045 (C), What is the true course if the
variation is 5W? Dev =9.5 W
A. 054.5 (T)
B. 059.5 (T)
C. 030.5 (T)
D. 050 (T)
302. A position line is a part of a:

A. Small circle
B. All of these.
C. Position circle
D. Segment
303. A position line is ........to the azimuth of the body.

A. 90deg
B. 45deg
C. 180deg
D. parallel
304. What is obtained when the difference between the true and calculated ?
A. Longitude
B. Position line
C. Intercept
D. Latitude
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305. For how long should notice to mariners be retained on board ?

A. discard as soon as corrections are completed.
B. 5yrs
C. 6months
D. 2 yrs
306. What does this figure indicate?
A. Anchor for deep draft

B. Anchoring prohibited
C. Anchor berth
D. Quarantine anchorage
A. Fish trap
B. Shell fish bed
C. Fish farm
D. Fishing stake
308. What is this?
A. Raymark
B. Radio calling in point, way or reporting point showing direction of
vessels movement
C. Coast radio station providing range and beating fromstations on request
D. Aeronautical radio beacon
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A. Pipeline
B. Telegraph line
C. Power transmission line
D. Overhead transporter
310. On routeing charts how are iceberg limits

presented.
A. letter d
B. letter c
C. letter a
D. letter b
A. Fish farm
B. Fish trap
C. Fishing prohibited
D. Fish haven
A. Group quick
B. Single Occulting
C. Composite group flashing
D. Single flashing
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313. Give the meaning of.
A. Special mark
B. Isolated danger
C. Fairway buoy
D. Safe water mark
A. Eddies
B. Kelp
C. Overfalls and tide-rips
D. Breakers
A. Non directional radio beacon

B. Rotating pattern radio beacon
C. Coast radio station providing QTG Service
D. Directional radio beacon
A. North cardinal buoy

B. South cardinal buoy
C. East cardinal buoy
D. West cardinal buoy
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A. Rock awash at the level of chart

datum B. Historic wreck
C. Wreck of which the masts only
are visible
D. Rock which covers and uncovers
A. Chimney
B. Wind-motor
C. Pillar
D. Windmill
319. What does the figure indicate?
A. Ice barrier
B. Notice board
C. Areas of mobile bottom
D. Fresh water spring in sea bed
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320. What does the upper figure indicate?
A. Percentage frequency
B. Mean resultant
C. Strength
D. No. of observations
321. If insufficient observations are made, how is the probable direction of the
predominant direction of sea surface current
indicated?
A. letter d
B. letter c
C. letter a
D. letter b
322. Vector current charts. Where is the mean position of observation
A. At the start of the arrow

B. ¼ the distance from the
start of the arrow
C. At the center of the arrow
D. At the arrow head
A. None of the given options

B. Range lights
C. Lighthouse
D. Light vessel
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A. Mosque
B. Spire
C. Minaret
D. Pagoda

A. Shinto shrine
B. Minaret
C. Cathedral
D. Chapel
A. None of the other options

B. Bottom found at less than 110 fathoms
C. No bottom found at 110 fathoms
D. Bottom found at 110 fathoms
327. What is this?

A. Nipa palm
B. Conifer
C. Filao
D. Palm
A. None of the given options

B. Disused submarine pipeline
C. Submarine cable
D. Submarine pipeline
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A. Signal station
B. Pilot office
C. Pilot boarding place
D. Pilot lookout station
330. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
A. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Between 2 - 2.2
miles
C. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 3 - 3.9 mile
B. Between 4 - 5 miles
C. Less than 0.9 mile
D. Between 3 - 3.9
miles
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332. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?
A.Between 46 - 60 minutes
B. Between 21 - 30 minutes
C. Now or passed
D. Between 11 - 20 minutes
A.Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
D. Between 1 - 2 miles
B. Less than 0.9 miles
C. Between 2 - 2.9 miles
A. Between 3 - 3.9 miles

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A. Less than 0.9 miles

C. Between 3 – 3.9 miles

A. Now or passed
C. Between 21 - 30 minutes
339. What is the aspect of the target A ?

A. Starboard bow (Green 15-
B. End on or nearly end on

C. Port beam (Red 75-105)
D. Port quarter (Red 105-
75)
160)
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A. Less than 0.9 mile

A. Between 11 - 20 minutes
343. What is the aspect of the target A ?
A. Starboard quarter (Green

105-160)
B. Port bow (Red 15-75)
C. Starboard bow (Green 15-
75)
D. Port quarter (Red 105-160)
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D. Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

A. Less than 0.9 mites

C. Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles
A. 1 - 2 miles
D. Less than 0.9 miles
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A. Less than 1 mile

C. Between 1 - 2 miles

C. Less than 1 mile
B. Less than 1 mile
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B. Less than 1 mile
C. Less than 1 mile
B. Less than 0.9 miles
C. More than 4 miles
355. 2What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A. Less than 0.9 miles
D. Between 3 - 3.9 miles
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A. More than 4 miles

357. What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

358. What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?
B. Now or Passed
359. 30. Which target will have the closest point of approach?
A. Target A
B. All Equal
C. Target B
D. Target C
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B. More than 3 miles
361. What is the closest point of approach of target B ?
C. Less than 1 mile
362. Which target will have the closest point of approach?
A. Target B
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target A

D. Less than 1 mile
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A. Target A
B. All equal
C. Target B
D. Target C
A. Less than 1 mile

D. More than 5 miles
366. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

D. Less than 1 mile

A.Between 11 - 20 minutes
D. Between 0 - 10 minute
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A. Target A
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target B
A. Less than 1 mile

A. Target B
B. Target C
C. All equal
D. Target A

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A. Target B
B. All equal
C. Target A
D. Target C
D. Less than 0.9 mile
A. Target C
B. Target B
C. Target A
D. All Equal
A. All equal
B. Target C
C. Target A
D. Target B
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A. Target B
B. Target A
C. All Equal
D. Target C

A. Target C
B. Target A
C. Target B
D. All equal
379. What is the time to closest point of approach of target C ?
A. Now or passed
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380. What is the aspect of the target C ?

A. Starboard beam. (75-105)
B. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
C. Port bow. (Red 15-75)
D. Port beam. (Red 75-105)
381. If the visibility is 10 miles, what action should be taken ?

A. A broad alteration to port
B. A substantial reduction of
speed
C. A broad alteration to
starboard
D. Stand on

A. Target C
B. Target B
C. All the same
D. Target A

A. Target B
B. Target F
C. All the same
D. Target D
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A. Target D
B. Target B
C. Target C
D. Target A
A. Target F
B. Target D
C. Target B
D. Target E
386. What is aspect of the target B ?

A. End on or nearly end on
B. Port beam. (Red 75-105)
C. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
D. Port bow. (Red 15-75)

A. Target B
B. Target A
C. Target F
D. Target D
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389. What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?
A. Now or passed

A. Targat D
B. Target E
C. Target C
D. Target B

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DPKP

C. Between 4-5 miles
D. Between 1 -1.9 miles

C. Less than 1 mile
A. Between 3 - 3.9 mites

B. Less than 1 mile

A. Now or passed

A. Target C
B. Target B
C. Target D
D. Target A
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D. Now or passed

C. Now or passed
D. Less than 0.9 miles
A. Target B
B. Target F
C. Target C
D. Target E

A. Less than 0.9 mite
D. More than 5 miles
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B. Now or passed

403. What is the aspect of the target B ?

A. Port beam. (Red 75-
105)
B. Port bow. (Red 15-75)
C. Starboard beam (Green
75-105)
D. Starboard bow. (Green 15-75)

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A. Target B
B. Target E
C. Target A
D. Target C
A. Target C
B. Target A
C. Target B
D. Target D
A. Between 0.5 - 1.5 miles

B. More than 5 miles
D. Between 4 - 5 miles.
C. Now or passed
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409. What is the aspect of the target C ?
A. Port bow. (Red 15-75)

B. Starboard bow. (Green 15-
75)
C. End on or nearly end on
D. Stern or nearly astern
A. Now or passed
D. Less than 1 mile
411. If the visibility is restricted, what action should be taken in this situation ?
A. A substantial reduction of
peed
B. A broad alteration to port
C. A broad alteration of
course to starboard
D. Stand on with caution
A. Target A
B. Target C
C. Target B
D. Target D
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413. What is the aspect of the target B ?
A. Starboard bow. (15 - 75)

B. Port bow. (15 - 75)
C. End on or nearly end on
D. Stern or nearly astern
A. Target A
B. Target C
C. Target D
D. Target B

D. Now or passed
D. Now or passed
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A. Target B
B. Target F
C. Target E
D. Target D
A. Now or passed
B. Now or passed
D. Less than 0.9 mile
C. Now or passed
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A. Target B
B. Target C
C. Target A
D. Target D
A. Less than 1 mile

C. More than 5 miles
423. Where does the auto pilot get its heading information from?
A. By manual input
B. radar
C. G.P.S
D. gyro compass
424. Which of these is an error caused in the CPS system?

A. Random errors
B. Light effect
C. User clock error
D. Systematic error
425. In which of these situations is the autopilot most successfully used?

A. When the vessel is not in restricted waters and no manoeuvering is
carried out
B. When the vessel is in restricted waters and manoeuvering is to be carried
out
C. When large alterations of course are intended.
D. When the speed is less than 5 kts
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426. In the G.P.S., Which of the following does the satellite message consist of?
A. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, Time difference between
signals,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
B. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite clock
bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
C. Course acquisition code, Phase difference of the signals, satellite clock
D. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite lock bias,the time at
which a null occurred, almanacs
427. Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external
influence?
A. Permanent helm
B. Rudder
C. Weather
D. Counter rudder
428. Which of these is an error caused in the GPS system?

A. Random errors
B. Light effect
C. User clock error
D. Systematic error
429. In the G.P.S., Which of the following does the satellite message consist of?
A. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, Time difference between
signals,atmospheric propagation, almanacs
B. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite clock
C. Course acquisition code, Phase difference of the signals, satellite clock
D. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite lock bias,the time at
which a null occurred, almanacs
430. What is the accuracy of G.P.S., for a PPS user?

A. +/- 100 meters
B. +/- 10,000 meters
C. +/- 1000 meters
D. +/- 5-10 meters
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431. What is the positional accuracy within DGPS coverage?

A. 1000 metres
B. 10,000 metres
C. 100 meters
D. 10 meters
432. What is the accuracy of G.P.S., for a SPS user?

A. +/- 100 meters
B. +/- 5-10 meters
C. +/- 10,000 meters
D. +/- 1000 meters
433. In the G.P.S. system, Which are the two services provided by the user
segmeny?
A. Precise position service & Standard positioning service
B. Precise position service & Variable positioning service
C. Position plotting service & Variable positioning service
D. Precise position service & fixed positioning service
434. What are radio waves which travel along the earths surface called?
A. Sea waves
B. Sky waves
C. Air waves
D. Ground waves
435. When is the G.P.S. satellite unusable?

A. When it's elevation is greater than 9.5 deg
B. When its elevation is less than 9.5 deg
C. When its elevation is less than 45 deg
D. When its elevation is greater than 45 deg
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436. In the G.P.S. system, what is the range measured which includes the user
clock offset?
A. Observed range
B. True range
C. Calculated range
D. Pseudo range
437. What is the error in GPS is caused when the configuration of the available
satellite is not suitable?
A. Geometric dilution of precision
B. User clock error
C. Ionospheric and tropospheric delays of signals
D. Satellite clock error
438. Which are the three segments the GPS segment comprises of?
A. Control , Ground and user segments
B. Ground , space and user segments
C. Control , space and ground segments
D. Control , space and user segments
439. What is a wireless station which emits a beam of waves in one or several
definite directions or sectors?
A. Directional radio beacon
B. Aero beacon
C. Direction finder
D. Non-directional radio beacon
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440. Which are the two most important parameters on which the control segment
of the G.P.S. depends on?
A. Satellite positional information & Atmospheric propagation data
B. Satellite rotational speed & Atmospheric propagation data
C. Satellite clock error control & satellite positional information.
D. Satellite rotational speed & satellite clock error control
441. Which of these principles is used to obtain the position of the ship by
G.P.S.?
A. Ranging
B. Difference in tone
C. Time difference
D. Phase difference
442. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?
A. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent fixed
shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same objects on
the chart
B. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers
C. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course
steered.
D. By taking the radar bearing of an object when the radar is on a compass
stabilised mode and comparing it with the bearing on the chart of the
same object
443. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?

A. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers
B. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centre line of the ship
C. Yes, it should be away from all electrical power cables
D. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible.
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444. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of
the following answers reflect its most important functions.
A. All of the answers provided
B. Houses the corrective magnets
C. Houses the soft iron correctors
D. Provides a non-magnetic housing for the compass
445. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be
allowed for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area. What
is the probable cause of the error?
A. An uncorrected course and speed error.
B. Variation
C. Compass Deviation
D. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass.
446. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a
regular evaluation and compass correction?
A. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
B. The change in the position of the magnetic pole causing annual changes
in the variation
C. Deviation and Variation
D. The continual changes of courses steered by the ship
447. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any
possible compass error?
A. Latitude and Speed
B. Deviation and Variation
C. Maximum helm angle and rolling period
D. All of the data in the suggested answers
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448. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?
A. Variation and Deviation
B. Permanent and induced magnetism
C. The latitude and longitude
D. West and East errors
449. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large
angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
A. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct
position.
B. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading
C. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in
that area
D. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-
dock was not correctly calculated.
450. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?
A. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and
comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart
B. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the
Variation chart, taking into account the annual changes
C. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book
D. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge
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451. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the
course steered?
A. Deviation
B. Variation
C. Induced magnetism
D. All of the suggested answers
452. What is the meaning of “H.S. PUMPS” ?
A. Hele-Shaw pumps
B. Higgins-Simpson pumps
C. Hydraulic solenoid pumps
D. Hydrostatic solenoid pumps
453. What is the function of the values “PR” fitted between the two after and the
two forward cylinders ?
A. To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped
B. To be opened to allow emergency steering.
C. To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump
454. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?
A. As soon as the electric motor is

started
B. As soon as point “Z” moves
C. As soon as the telemotor pump is
started
D. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge
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455. What is part No 3 ?
A. The rudder
B. The poop
C. The transom
D. The stern
456. What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ?
A. The main engine shaft

B. The intermediate shaft
C. The tail shaft
D. The stern shaft
457. How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?
A. it is locked into slots on the drive shaft

B. It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft
C. A key is fitted between propeller and drive shaft
D. Wires are fitted through the securing holes of shaft and propeller
458. What part is fitted under the propeller cone ? (Left triangular part of the propeller
in the drawing)
A. The propeller nut

B. The propeller seal
C. The propeller locking bar
D. The oil filling pipe
459. Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?
A. in
B. Aluminium brass
C. Lead
D. White metal
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460. How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ?
A. By the main stern supply

pump
B. it turns in an oil bath
C. By grease
D. By graphite
461. What is the shape of stern tube

seals (forward and aft) ?
A. They are square in form and diagonally cut

B. They are round in form and in one piece (0-ring type)
C. They are lip seals and in one piece
D. They are flat gaskets between flanges
462. Which are the stern tube bearing

parts on this type of stern tube?
A. The cylindrical steel tube aft

B. The forward and the aft bearing bushes (liners)
C. The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil bath
D. The forward and aft plummer blocks
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463. When a command is given to this steering

gear, what happens ?
A. The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated

B. The “HS” pumps will start pumping
C. Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod
D. The valves 'PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure
464. What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted

between point "Y" and the Trunion block
of the steering gear ?
A. To avoid sudden movements and overload

B. To elongate and compress and keep point "Y" in place
C. To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with the rod "X-Y"
D. Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances
465. What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward
movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear
will be avoided ?
A. The pallister bearing clearance

B. The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances
C. The rudder plugs
D. The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance
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466. Which action of the steering gear pumps is

feasible ?
A. Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C

B. Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D
C. Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D
D. Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D
467. During normal operations, the command

rod ''C" pushes point “Z” and the control
rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start
pumping and the settering gear moves.
When will it stop moving
A. When the command rod "C" stops moving

B. When the command rod ''C" moves in opposite direction
C. When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command
D. When the trunion point "Y" pushes point “Z” back in the centre
468. This electric circuit is part of the Steering

Gear Control System, in which the output is
either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is
energized. It is an example of what kind of
circuit ?
A. Two (2) double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids

B. Two (2) Potentiometers with amplifier relays
C. A booster aggregate
D. A Wheatstone Bridge
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469. The first potentiometer of this electric

command system is located on the bridge.
By what mode of steering will it be given a
command ?
A. By automatic steering via the gyro

B. By hand steering
C. By any of these steering methods
D. By push button steering
470. What will the output be to the solenoids of the steering gear depending
potentiometers stands if : BRIDGE IIGHER THAN RUDDER = A stand,
RUDDER HIGHER THAN BRIDGE = B stand, RUDDER EQUAL TO BRIDGE
= O stand ?
A. O-stand = output 0, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1

B. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1
C. O-stand = S1+S2, A stand = S1, B stand = S2
D. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 0, B-stand = S2 is 0
471. This steering gear telemotor system is

drawn in the neutral position, rudder
amidship. This means that ………….?
A. neither solenoid “S1" or "S2"is energised

B. the double check valves are blocked
C. the capacity control is at zero
D. pump “P” is not pumping
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472. What is the purpose of the double

check valves fitted in this telemotor
system ?
A. To maintain the set pressure in the system

B. To keep the rudder locked in the desired position
C. To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements
D. To avoid oil blockage and stickiness
473. What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering
gear ?
A. To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant

B. To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption)
C. To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant
D. To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant
474. Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised /

operational?
A. By any of the above

B. By hand steering
C. By automatic gyro steering
D. By push-button steering
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475. Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock

part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit
?
A. To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample

B. To remove air from the system
C. To fill oil in the system
D. To change over from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit
476. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?
A. To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal

B. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
C. To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
D. To avoid oil being spilled overboard
477. In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point?
A. Compass NORTH
B. Magnetic NORTH
C. True east
D. True North
478. The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is
A. Magnetic compass error
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Variation
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479. Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass
error?
A. All of these.
B. By bearing of the sun
C. By a distant object on land
D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error
480. What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the
system and they cannot be corrected for by the user?
A. Speed and latitude error
B. Settling error
C. Longitude error
D. Ballastic error
481. In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing?
A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to
the hull.
B. After being at anchor for a long time
C. After a long voyage
D. After a long stay in port
482. What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the
officer with thevessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic
compass?
A. Course recorder
B. Gyro repeater
C. Auto pilot
D. Gyro compass
483. The combination of variation and deviation is known as:

A. sextant error
B. Gyro compass error
C. Magnetic compass error
D. position error
484. In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point?
A. Compass NORTH
B. Magnetic NORTH
C. True east
D. True North
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Variation
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B. Settling error
C. Longitude error
D. Ballastic error
the hull.
C. fter a long voyage
officer with the vessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic
compass?
A. Course recorder
B. Gyro repeater
C. Auto pilot
D. Gyro compass
489. What is a hemispherical brass or copper receptacal covered by a glass plate

in which the compass card is mounted?
A. Compass cover
B. Compass card
C. Compass chamber
D. Compass bowl
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490. Which two corrections are necessary for a gyro compass?

A. Speed and latitude
B. Speed and longitude
C. Time and longitude
D. Latitude and time
491. Which are the two properties of a free gyroscope?

A. Gyroscopic inertia and precession
B. Inherent magnetism and precession
C. Inherent magnetism and rigidity in space
D. Gyroscopic inertia and inherent magnetism
492. Quadrantal correctors are:

A. fore and aft magnets
B. soft iron spheres
C. flinders bar
D. Thwartship bar magnets
493. Which are the three errors that are experienced in a gyro compass?
A. Time, speed and latitude and longitude errors.
B. settling, speed and latitude and longitude errors.
C. longitude, speed and latitude and ballastic errors.
D. settling, speed and latitude and ballastic errors.
494. Which of these errors are not adjustable on board?

A. error collimation
B. side error
C. index error
D. optical error
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495. To name the 32 points of the compass in proper sequence from north
through east, south and west back to north is called
A. Box wrap
B. Swinging the compass
C. Box off
D. Box the compass
influence?
A. Permanent helm
B. Rudder
C. Weather
D. Counter rudder
497. Which are the two natural forces that a gyrosphere depends on?
A. rotational & rotational
B. magnetic & electrical
C. gravitational & rotational
D. magnetic & rotational
498. When does the off course alarm sound?

A. When the difference between the course setting and true course is more
than the pre-set limit.
B. When the difference between the course setting and gyro heading is equal
to the pre-set limit.
C. When the difference between the course setting and gyro heading is more
than the pre-set limit.
D. When the difference between the course setting and true course is equal
to the pre-set limit.
499. The course indicated by a magnetic compass, influencing both variation and
deviation is called
A. magnetic course
B. magnetic course
C. Compass course
D. true course
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500. The combination of variation and deviation is known as:

A. sextant error
B. Gyro compass error
C. Magnetic compass error
D. position error
501. If the var = 2E & dev = 1E, Compass error will be

A. 3W
B. 1E
C. nil
D. 3E
502. The angle between the direction of the place or object and the magnetic
meridian is called
A. Compass bearing
B. Magnetic bearing
C. True bearing
D. Bearing line
503. In case of a steering failure which of these would be your first action?
A. Stop engines
B. Inform ER
C. Change over to non-follow up system
D. Change over to emergency steering
error?
A. All of these.
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505. Where does the auto pilot get its heading information from?
A. By manual input
B. radar
C. G.P.S
D. gyro compass
506. In which of these situations is the autopilot most successfully used?

A. When the vessel is not in restricted waters and no manoeuvering is
carried out
B. When the vessel is in restricted waters and manoeuvering is to be carried
out
C. When large alterations of course are intended.
D. When the speed is less than 5 kts
507. If the wheel is put to stbd.10, the rudder will also be turned to stbd.10 as
long as the wheel is kept on stbd. 10, then in which steering mode is the
vessel in?
A. Non follow up mode
B. Auto
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Follow up mode
508. What input information is required in order to ensure the course recorder to
function properly?
A. Speed of he vessel and the correct time(clock)
B. Input from gyro(repeater) and the correct time(clock)
C. Speed of the vessel and Input from gyro(repeater)
D. Input from gyro(repeater) and the position of the vessel
509. What is the course recorder used for?

A. To keep a record of all gyro courses steered during the voyage
B. To record the courses of other ships in the vicinity during the voyage
C. To find out the set and drift of a vessel
D. To find out the course to steer to the next waypoint
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510. Which log works on the principle that if any conductor cuts through the
magnetic field, a small EMF will be induced within itself which is
proportional to the speed of movement of the conductor?
A. Pressure tube or pitot type log
B. Electromagnetic log
C. Impeller log
D. Doppler log
511. Which are the three sections that the course recorder paper consist of :
A. The time scale, course section and position section.
B. The time scale, course section and zone section.
C. The speed scale, course section and zone section.
D. The time scale, course section and speed scale
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Variation
error?
A. All of these.
B. Settling error
C. Longitude error
D. Ballastic error
the hull.
C. After a long voyage
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officer with the vessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic
compass?
A. Course recorder
B. Gyro repeater
C. Auto pilot
D. Gyro compass
influence?
A. Permanent helm
B. Rudder
C. Weather
D. Counter rudder
518. The time taken to put the rudder from 150 on one side to 150 on the other on
a fully laden ship running ahead at half speed should be:
A. Not more than 120sec
B. Not more than 90sec
C. Not more than 60sec
D. Not more than 65sec
519. The time required for the main steering gear to put the rudder from 350 on
one side to 350 on the other on a fully laden ship, running ahead at maximum
service speed under the same conditions is:
A. 28 secs
B. 45sec
C. 60sec
D. 30sec
520. If ship's head by compass was 045 (C), What is the true course if the
variation is 5W? Dev =9.5 W
A. 054.5 (T)
B. 059.5 (T)
C. 030.5 (T)
D. 050 (T)
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521. 80. What is a standard compass ?

A. A compass that automatically steers the ship.
B. A magnetic compass in a binnacle.
C. A gyro compass powered by electricity.
D. A compass for indicating wind direction found on the mast.
522. The cause for ice accumulation on the ship is due to freezing of sea spray at
the temperature below …………
A. + 2 degree C.
B. 0 degree C
C. 5 degree C
D. 2 degree C
523. An occluded depression tends to move ………………..

A. slowly.
B. fast and irregularly.
C. fast.
D. slowly and irregularly.
524. the Beaufort scale, storm force corresponds to wind ……………

A. force 6 and above.
B. force 10 and above.
C. force 12 and above.
D. force 8 and above.
525. On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds to wind ………….

A. force 14.
B. force 10.
C. force 8.
D. force 12.
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526. Frontal depressions moue in families, each depression following its

predecessor but in……………..
A. a slightly lower latitude.
B. a slightly higher latitude.
C. a much higher latitude.
D. the same latitude.
527. Which of these is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm
front" ?
A. In advance - continuous rain; during the passage - rain almost or
completely stops; in the rear - mainly cloudy and slight rain.
B. In advance - drizzle; during the passage - no rain; in the rear - continuous
rain.
C. In advance - showers; during the passage - thunderstorms / in the rear
clear skies
D. In advance - no rain; during the passage - continuous rain; in the rear -
drizzle.
528. Tropical revolving storms are accompanied by ………………….

A. heavy rains sometimes with thunder and lightning.
B. dense fog.
C. very cold air and sometimes hail
D. slight wind and heavy rain.
529. In what latitude do tropical revolving storms generally originate ?

A. 50 to 65 degrees.
B. 0 to 25 degrees.
C. 25 to 35 degrees.
D. 35 to 50 degrees.
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530. Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "cold front
"?
A. In advance - steady; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - fall.
B. None of these are correct.
C. In advance - fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - rise
continues more slowly.
D. In advance - sudden fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear -
steady.
531. You are 60 to 120 nautical miles from the centre of a tropical revolving
storm. What barometric changes would you expect?
A. Slight fall with diurnal variations still in evidence.
B. Rapid increase with no sign of diurnal variations.
C. A steady slowly dropping pressure
D. A marked fall with diurnal changes completely masked
532. Wind force 10 correspond to wind speed of ………………….

A. 56 - 63 knots.
B. 48 - 55 knots.
C. 34 - 40 knots.
D. 28 - 33 knots.
533. In meteorology, isobars are the lines joining places having the same …..
A. temperature.
B. humidity
C. iceberg density.
D. pressure.
534. What weather phenomenon can cause a reduction of radar range due to
attenuation?
A. Mist.
B. Rain & snow.
C. Fog.
D. Rough seas.
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535. Which of these are 'low clouds"?

A. Mega stratus.
B. Altocumulus, altostratus.
C. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
D. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
536. In the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm, a prudent master will first
determine which semicircle his ship is in and then set a course to ………….
A. heave to
B. get away from the dangerous semicircle
C. Head for the lee of the nearest land
D. The centre of the storm.
537. You are 10 to 60 nautical miles away from the centre of a tropical revolving
storm. What barometric changes would you expect ?
A. Rapid Increase.
B. Rapid fall.
C. No change.
D. Slight Increase.
538. In meteorology, isotherms are the lines joining places having the
same…………
A. pressure.
B. humidity.
C. iceberg density.
D. temperature.
539. Which of these are 'Medium clouds’ ?

A. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
B. Nimbostatus, stratus, stratocumulus.
C. Cumulonimbus.
D. Altocumulus, altostratus.
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540. If the vessel is between latitudes 5 - 20 degrees North, the most likely
direction of movement of a storm is ………….
A. West forth West.
B. East South East.
C. North East.
D. Westerly.
541. When in the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm it is important to

determination in which semicircle the ship is situated. In the northern
hemisphere which of these statements is true?
A. If the wind is steady you are in the dangerous semicircle.
B. If the wind is backing you are in the dangerous semicircle.
C. It is not possible to determine if you are in the dangerous semicircle.
D. If the wind is veering you are in the dangerous semicircle.
542. The direction of the centre of the tropical revolving storm may be found by
Buys Ballot's law, namely face the wind and ………………
A. the center of the storm will be right behind you about a point on your left.
B. the center of the tropical storm will be ahead about a point to the right.
C. the centre of the storm is to your left if you are in Northern hemisphere
and to your right if you are in Southern hemisphere.
D. in the Northern hemisphere the centre of the storm will bear 8 to 12
points to the right.
543. Which of these are ''high clouds”?

A. Cumulonimbus.
B. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus.
C. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.
D. Altocumulus, altostratus.
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544. What is the common name for hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones ?

A. Inter tropical convergence zones.
B. Tropical revolving storms.
C. Tropical depressions.
D. Monsoons.
545. Trade winds are the general surface wind in which of the following latitudes
?
A. 60-90 degrees
B. 05-25 degrees
C. 00-30 degrees.
D. 25-60 degrees.
546. Which of these is the correct sequence of weather associated with a "cold
front"?
A. In advance - no rain; during the passage - moderate rain ; in the rear -
heavy rain.
B. In advance - clear skies; during the passage - thunderstorms, often with
hail; in the rear - steady drizzle with cloudy skies.
C. In advance - usually some rain and perhaps thunder; during the passage -
rain, often heavy; in the rear - heavy rain for a short period than fair.
D. In advance - heavy rain; during the passage - no rain; in the rear - no rain.
547. If depression has a large warm sector, it has a tendency to …………….

A. weaken.
B. remain unchanged.
C. deepen.
D. move fast.
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548. Which of these is correct sequence of visibility associated with a "cold

front"?
A. In advance - very poor; during the passage - bad; in the rear - moderate.
B. In advance - very good; during the passage - moderate in showers; at the
rear - usually poor.
C. In advance - usually poor; during the passage - first bad than good; in the
rear - usually very good except in showers.
D. In advance - very good; during the passage - very poor; in the rear -
moderate.
549. Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "warm
front"?
A. In advance - sharply falling; during the passage - rise and fall ; in the rear
- slowly rising.
B. In advance - steady; during the passage - steady fall ; in the rear -
increase.
C. In advance - increase; during the passage - steady; in the rear - decrease.
D. In advance - steady fall; during the passage - fall ceases ; in the rear -
little change or slow fall.
550. In a tropical revolving storm, “The eye” is a small central region of ………..
A. comparatively light winds and little clouds.

B. no winds and heavy rain.
C. very strong winds and no clouds.
D. comparatively strong winds and heavy clouds.
551. The eye of the tropical revolving storm is an area with light wind but with
seas that are ……………
A. very high from the East or West.
B. very high and confused.
C. very high from the North or South.
D. moderate and confused.
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552. Wind force 5 corresponds to wind speed of ……………..

A. 25 - 29 knots.
B. 30 - 34 knots.
C. 10 - 14 knots.
D. 17 - 21 knots.
553. South Westerlies and Roaring Forties are general surface wind in which of
the following latitudes?
A. 40 - 60 degrees.
B. 60 - 90 degrees.
C. 30 - 40 degrees.
D. 00 - 30 degrees.
554. Fast moving high clouds are an indication of …………….

A. rainy weather to come.
B. unchanged weather.
C. bad weather to come.
D. good weather to come.
555. A falling barometer is an indication of ………………

A. bad weather to come.
B. rainy weather to come.
C. no change in weather.
D. good weather to come.
556. Your ship is 120 to 500 nautical miles from centre of tropical revolving
storm. What barometric changes do would you expect?
A. No change in the diurnal variation.
B. Rapid fall.
C. Slow increase with the diurnal variation still in evidence.
D. A slow fall with diurnal variation still in evidence.
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557. What is water content of the atmosphere (usually expressed as a

percentage) known as?
A. Due
B. Humidity
C. Mist
D. Fog
558. What is the instrument used for measuring humidity of the atmosphere
called?
A. Barometer
B. Humidifier
C. Hydrometer
D. Psychrometer
559. What is a region where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of the
surrounding regions called?
A. High
B. Warm front
C. Low
D. Cold front
560. If an observer is facing the true wind in the northern hemisphere, where
does the Low pressure lie?
A. Behind
B. Ahead
C. To the left
D. To the right
144
DPKP
561. An instrument used for measuring the velocity of wind is known as

A. Barometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Anemometer
D. Tachometer
562. A sudden rising strong wind, or sudden increase of wind usually

immediately followed by a shower of rain snow is called a
A. Squall
B. Storm
C. Tropical cyclone
D. Cyclone
563. A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often associated with a :
A. Warn front
B. Warm front
C. Occluded front
D. Cold front
564. If it is reported that the wind velocity in four areas are in the given options:
In which area will the isobars be spaced closest?
A. A2 ………20kts
B. A4 ……… 10kts
C. A3………. 30kts
D. A1………. 40kts
565. In what direction does the wind blow around a cyclonic storm in the
northern hemisphere?
A. Towards the pole
B. Clockwise
C. Anti-clockwise
D. Towards the equator
145
DPKP
566. What weather conditions are likely to result from the movement of warm air
mass over a relatively colder sea surface?
A. trough
B. Rain
C. Squally
D. fog
567. What is the quantity of water vapour present in the atmosphere called ?
A. Humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Dew point
D. Relative humidity
568. What is rain accompanied with snow called ?

A. ice pellets
B. hail
C. sleet
D. snow flakes
569. When visibility is 1km or less, it is known as:

A. neither DO
B. fog
C. haze
D. both
570. What is also called sea fog ?

A. steam fog
B. advection fog
C. radiation fog
D. smog
146
DPKP
571. What is smoke + fog called ?

A. steam fog
B. radiation fog
C. advection fog
D. smog
572. What is the clockwise change of direction from which the wind is blowing
from called?
A. backing
B. Veering
C. advancing
D. retarding
573. Beaufort wind force 5 corresponds to:

A. 28-33 kIs
B. 17-21 kts
C. 4-6 kts
D. 7-10 kts
574. What is the phenomenon in which a cloud forms a funnel shaped pendant
which descends towards the sea and draws up a corresponding hollow column
of whirling spray which may form a pillar of water from cloud to sea is
called
A. A waterspout
B. A waterway
C. A waterfall
D. A waterside
147
DPKP
575. The condition where the sea and swell approach the ship at right angles is
called:
A. Seas from any quarter
B. Following seas
C. Beam seas
D. Read seas
576. A horizontal movement in the upper layer of the sea caused by wind is
called :
A. drift current
C. drift
D. current
577. What is the swell encountered in the open ocean called?

A. Ground swell
B. Low swell
C. Ocean swell
D. High swell
578. A Conduct Passage progressive wave of meteorological origin which, if its

crest arrives at the time of high water, can cause exceptionally high tides is
called:
A. Storm
B. Hurricane
C. Storm surge
D. Tidal wave
148
DPKP
579. On which of these areas would you consider that climatological routing to
be satisfactory?
A. Malacca straits
B. North Atlantic
C. Gulf of Oman
D. Red sea
580. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how

would the wind direction change in the advance of a warm front?
A. remain steady
B. slowly veer as it is approached
C. suddenly year by 90deg
D. slowly back as it is approached
581. When warm air proceeds an occlusion, it is called :

A. Upper warm front
B. Warm occlusion
C. Upper cold front
D. Cold occlusion
582. When the dew point of the air is higher than the sea surface temperature, it
is called :
A. Sea fog
B. Advection fog
C. Steam fog
D. Zadiation fog
149
DPKP
583. Which of these symptoms indicate the approach of an extra tropical cyclone
?
A. Increasing wind usually from a direction between east and south in the
northern hemisphere and between east and north in the southern
hemisphere.
B. All of these.
C. Falling barometer
D. Increasing cirrus clouds which thicken into altostratus (sometimes
altocumulus) accompanied by rain.
584. What is an area of high pressure jutting into areas of low pressure called?
A. Trough
B. Ridge
C. Col
D. Anticyclone
585. Satellite information charts providing information on cloud pattern and

cloud thickness are called :
A. Change of pressure charts
B. Upper air charts
C. Hindcast charts
D. Elephanalysis charts
586. Which of these contribute to the formation of a depression ?

A. Large difference in pressure between the warm and cold air masses
B. Large temperature difference between the warm and cold air masses
C. Small temperature difference between the warm and cold air masses
D. Small difference in pressure between the warm and cold air masses
150
DPKP
587. If the pressure is rising al around the center, or rising on one side more
rapidly than it is falling on the other, then the anticyclone is said to be:
A. Unchanged
B. Stationary
C. Weakening
D. Intensifying
588. An the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how

would the pressure change in the `advance of a warm front?
A. Remain constant
B. Rise sharply
C. Pressure would fall steadily
D. Rise slowly
589. What is a large piece of floating glacier ice, generally showing less than 5m
above sea level (normally more than 1m) and normally about 100-300 square
meters in area called?
A. Growler
B. Floe
C. Bergy bit
D. Brash ice
590. What is shown in a surface weather analysis?

A. Forecast positions of fronts and pressure systems at the surface for
projection period of 2 to 5 days.
B. Weather patterns based on current synoptic surface observations
C. Future weather patterns for either 24hr, 36hr or 72hr outlook for certain
regions
D. All of these.
151
DPKP
591. What are clouds in a patch, layer or sheet form, white or grey or both in
colour called?
A. Altocumulus clouds
B. Nimbostratus
C. Cumulus
D. Cirrocumulus
592. Where is the vessel located in a TRS if the wind is Veering in the northern
hemisphere?
A. Navigable semicircle
B. In the path of the storm
C. Dangerous semi-circle
D. In the eye
593. If the vessel is in the dangerous semi-circle of a TRS in the northern

hemisphere, what would be the most appropriate action?
A. Put the wind on the port Bow and alter course to port as the wind backs
B. Put the wind on the port quarter and alter course to starboard as the wind
veers
C. Put the wind on the stbd. Bow and alter course to starboard as the wind
veers
D. Put the wind on the stbd. quarter and alter course to port s the wind backs
594. With a steady westerly wind over the whole region, the fetch at a point
80n.m. to the east of an extensive north to south coastline will be
A. 20 n. mile
B. 160 n. mile
C. 80 n. mile
D. 40 n. mile
152
DPKP
595. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would
the weather change in the advance of a warm front?
A. Cloudy with slight drizzle
B. Continuous heavy rain or snow
C. Precipitation stops
D. Clear skies
596. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would
the temperature change in the warm sector?
A. Fall steadily
B. Slowly rise
C. Remain steady
D. Rise quickly
597. As a result of the friction of the rotating earth, how are winds deflected in
the northern hemisphere?
A. Spirally
B. Anticlockwise
C. Clockwise
D. Ellipticalty
598. What is the wind caused by downward currents of air and peculiar to
mountainous districts and high coastline called?
A. Anabatic winds
B. Westerlies
C. Katabatic winds
D. Trade winds
153
DPKP
599. Which of these conditions indicates the passing of an extratropical cyclone?

A. Barometer falls and then becomes steady
B. Barometer remains steady
C. Barometer becomes steady and then falls
D. Barometer becomes steady and then rises
600. The speed of an occlusion is best assumed

A. To be about two thirds of the geostrophic wind speed.
B. To be greater than the geostrophic wind speed.
C. To be lesser than the geostrophic wind speed.
D. To be equal to the geostrophic wind speed.
601. What instrument is used to measure the dew point

A. hydrometer
B. pitometer
C. psychrometer
D. stadimeter
602. What is an aneroid barometer fitted with a lever which bears a pen,
recording upon a revolving drum variations of atmospheric pressure called?
A. Gold slide
B. Barogram
C. Mercurm barometer
D. Barograph
603. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer what type
of clouds will be experienced at the passage of a cold front?
A. Low Hs
B. Ci , Cs ,As
C. Ac & Cu
D. Cb of very high vertical extent
154
DPKP
604. What is shown on wave analysis charts ?

A. Forecast positions of wave system for projection period of 2 to 5 days
B. Characteristics of sea waves
C. Forecast of the positions of wave systems, normally over a period of 24
hrs
D. All of these.
605. What is found north and south of each tradewind belt ?

A. Roaring forties
B. Doldrums
C. Prevailing westerlies
D. Horse latitude
606. Where do tropical storms generate?

A. Always at the equator
B. Between latitudes 5 deg to 10 deg N or S of the equator
C. Between latitudes 35 deg to 40 deg N or S of the equator
D. Between latitudes 45 deg to 50 deg N or S of the equator
607. An the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would
the visibility be in the advance of a warm front?
A. Poor due to mist or fog
B. Poor due to rain
C. Very good except in showers
D. Very good
608. What can be obtained from met-route to compare weather and progress
along the metroute advised route with that likely to have been experienced
iachieued along an appropriate alternative route?
A. Hindcast charts
B. Routeing summaries
C. Voyage analysis
D. Customer requirements
155
DPKP
609. When should a ship seeking met - routeing request for the same
A. On arrival at a port
B. On drop of the last outward going pilot
C. 48 hrs prior departure
D. On departure
610. When a warm air mass replaces a cold one, the line on which the frontal
surface meets the ground is known as a:
A. cold sector
B. cold front
C. warm sector
D. warm front
611. On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer How

would the force change in the dry advance of a warm front?
A. steady
B. increase
C. decrease
D. squally, with gusting winds
612. Which are the two horizontal forces acting on any parcel of air?
A. The rotational force and the deflecting force
B. The pressure gradient and the deflecting force
D. The pressure gradient and the rotational force
613. What warnings are issued from the country of origin and effect a specific
coastal region, in the area of the hazard?
A. local warnings
B. All of these.
C. coastal warnings
D. navarea warnings
156
DPKP
614. What is the furthest westerly point reached by a tropical storm center called?
A. Bar of the storm
B. Vortex
C. Vertex
D. Eye of the storm
615. What is a heavy mass of cloud rising in the form of mountains, turrets, or
anvils, generally surmounted by a sheet or screen of fiberous appearance
called?
A. Cumulo-nimbus clouds
B. Stratus clouds
C. Cumulus clouds
D. Nimbostratus clouds
616. A curved line joining all places at which the atmospheric pressure is the
same is called?
A. Isobar
B. Isotherm
C. Isotope
D. None of the other options
617. A large elongated zone of irregular typography of the sea flow , categorized
by large sea mounts and steep sided or non-symmetrical ridges is called :
A. furrow
B. fringing reef
C. fracture zone
D. Freshet
618. What is the wind which works round against the hands of the clock called?
A. Back pressure
B. Baffling wind
C. Veering wind
D. Backing wind
157
DPKP
619. What corrections are applied to a mercury barometer?

A. Latitude, height and pressure
B. Latitude, temperature and pressure
C. Latitude, Temperature and height
D. Temperature, height and pressure
620. When wind blows over the surface for a prolonged period, it tends to drag
the uppermost layers of the water in that direction. This is called :
A. Local currents
B. Gradient current
C. Surface current
D. Wind drift current
621. Which of these variables is used to determine the height of sea waves?
A. Wind speed, latitude and fetch
B. Latitude, duration of wind and fetch
C. Wind speed, duration of wind and fetch
D. Wind speed, duration of the wind and latitude
622. What is the mean height of the highest 1/3 rd of the range of waves called?
A. Wave height
B. Wavelength
C. Significant wave height
D. Wave period
623. What half of the tropical storm lies to the left part in the northern
hemisphere & to the right part in the southern hemisphere?
A. Dangerous semi-circle
B. Dangerous quadrant
C. Trough
D. Navigable semi-circle
158
DPKP
624. Where will you find formats of 'hydrographic note"

A. Admiralty list of radio signals
B. Cumulative list of admiralty notice to mariners
C. The weekly notice to mariners
D. Annual summary of admiralty notice to mariners
625. Which are the two reasons which cause ocean currents?
A. Pressure gradients and coriolis forces
B. Wind-drift currents and gradient currents
C. Wind-drift currents and pressure gradients
D. gradient currents and pressure gradients
626. What does the upper figure indicate?
A. Percentage frequency of variables winds

B. No. of observed calms
D. No. of observations
627. What is the wind speed of the arrow
indicated?
A. 5 kts
B. 4 kts
C. 3 kts
D. 7 kts
160
DPKP
628. Assuming a forecast wind of say, 30 kts,

with the max. wind duration and
maximum fetch, what would be the value
of significant wane height.
A. 3
B. 3.9
C. 4.9
D. 4
629. Mean surface current circulation.

Location to be circled...
A. Kuroskio current
B. Mocambique current
C. Agulhas current
D. Gulf Stream
630. What kind of current is

indicated?
A. Upwelling current
B. Drift
C. Convergent
D. Stream
161
DPKP
631. What does the lower figure represent?
A. No. of observations
B. Mean resultant
C. The percentage frequency of currents having a rate of less than ½ knots
D. Strongest current experienc
162

01 - Plan and Conduct A Passage and Determine No - 1 - 100-1-1

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DPKP

1. Plan and conduct a passage and determine

1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.

2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating

5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?

8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?

9. What is the true shape of the earth?

11. What is the extent of zone zero?

13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?

16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =

18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow

20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?

21. Right ascension is measured:

26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:

29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?

30. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?

34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:

36. In which case is augmentation necessary:

40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?

43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:

46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:

50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?

52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:

53. Latitude scale is obtained as:

55. At the horizon, refraction:

56. Refraction correction must always be:

58. As height of eye increases, Dip:

59. Which of these is an inferior planet?

61. How many time zones are there?

62. At the horizon refraction is =

65. The Prime meridian is at:

68. What is the maximum declination of the sun?

70. Which of these is a morning and evening star?

74. What does the term culmination mean?

75. What is total correction tabulated against?

78. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :

81. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?

86. Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called

87. In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object,

88. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?

91. On which day does a solar eclipse occur?

93. What is pelorus used for?

94. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?

96. Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from?

99. What is the index nor?

100. For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

102. Ship's speed through water is measured in

103. How often is a chart catalogue published?

104. How often are cumulative lists published ?

105. How often are chart corrections published ?

106. How often are nautical almanacs published ?

107. Distance on a chart is measured using :

109. How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ?

112. How are charts corrected ?

113. Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents :

114. How are sailing directions corrected?

116. What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called :

117. A ship resting on the bottom is said to be :

119. What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called?

128. A vessel anchored as a floating aid to navigation from which is exhibited a

130. Where will you find the limits of sailing directions?

137. A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling

143. The wearing away of the coast by water action is called: