I.E.

S-(OBJ)-2000 1 of 13

ELECTRONICS & TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING

PAPER-II

1. A telephone channel has bandwidth B of 3 b. 48 dB

kHz and SNR (S / ηB) of 30 dB. It is c. 64 dB
connected to a teletype machine having 32 d. 256 dB
different symbols. The symbol rate 6. A band-pass signal has significant
required for errorless transmission is frequency components in the range of 1.5
nearly MHz to 2 MHz. If the signal is to be
a. 1800 symbols/s reconstructed from its samples, the
b. 3000 symbols/s minimum sampling frequency will be
c. 5000 symbols/s a. 1 MHz
d. 6000 symbols/s b. 2 MHz
2. Quadrature multiplexing is c. 3.5 MHz
a. same as FDM d. 4 MHz
b. same as TDM 7. In a single error correcting Hamming code,
c. a combination of FDM and TDM the number of message bits in a block is
d. the scheme where same carrier 26. The number of check bits in the block
frequency is used for two different would be
signals a. 3
3. The ramp signal m(t) = at is applied to a b. 4
delta modulator with sampling period Ts c. 5
and step size δ. Slope overload distortion d. 7
would occur if 8. If binary PSK modulation is used for
a. δ < a transmission, the required minimum
b. δ > a bandwidth is 9600 Hz. To reduce the
c. δ < aTs transmission bandwidth to 2400 Hz, the
d. δ > aTs modulation scheme to be adopted should
4. Which one of the following statements be
regarding the threshold effect in a. quadrature phase - shift keying
demodulators is correct? b. minimum shift keying
a. It is exhibited by all demodulators c. 16-ary quadrature amplitude
when the input signal to noise ratio is modulation
low d. 8-ary PSK
b. It is the rapid fall in output signal to 9. Match List I (Operations) with List II
noise ratio when the input signal to (Functions) and select the correct answer :
noise ratio falls below a particular List I
value A. Companding
c. It is the property exhibited by all AM B. Squelch
suppressed carrier coherent C. Preemphasis
demodulators D. Double conversion
d. It is the property exhibited by List II
correlation receivers 1. Improving image rejection
5. In a PCM system each quantisation level is 2. Variation of step rise in quantisation
encoded into 8 bits. The signal to 3. Muting the receiver
quantisation noise ratio is equal to 4. Boosting of higher modulating
2 frequencies at the transmitter
1⎛ 1 ⎞ A B C D
a. ⎜ ⎟
12 ⎝ 256 ⎠ a. 2 3 4 1
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b. 2 1 4 3 a. minimize the sky noise temperature
c. 4 3 2 1 b. reduce the effect of oxygen and water
d. 4 1 2 3 vapour absorption on the antenna noise
10. A signal m(t) = 5 cos 2π 100 t frequency temperature
modulates a carrier. The resulting FM c. minimize the slant range
signal is d. increase the visibility of the satellite
10 cos {(2π 105 t) + 15 sin (2π 100 t) 17. Random satellite moves in
The approximate bandwidth of the FM a. random paths
signal would be b. polar orbits
a. 0.1 kHz c. geostationary orbits
b. 1 kHz d. equatorial plane
c. 3.2 kHz 18. Match List I with List II and select the
d. 100 kHz correct answer:
11. Four signals each band -limited to 5 kHz List I
are sampled at twice the Nyquist rate. The A. Ferrit circulator
resulting PAM samples are transmitted B. E-plane Tee
over a single channel after time division C. Velocity modulation
multiplexing. The theoretical minimum D. Reflex klystron
transmission bandwidth of the channel List II
should be equal to 1. Adjustable transmission line stub
a. 5 kHz 2. Transmit time effect
b. 20 kHz 3. Pump oscillator for parametric
c. 40 kHz amplifier
d. 80 kHz 4. Microwave resonator
12. In Troposcatter links, diversity system is A B C D
made use of to a. 4 1 2 3
a. increase the bandwidth b. 3 2 4 1
b. increase the directivity of the antenna c. 4 1 3 2
c. prevent noise effects d. 3 2 1 4
d. detect signal in the presence of fading 19. Match List I with List II and select the
13. If a sky wave with a frequency of 50 MHz correct answer :
is incident on the D-region at an angle of List I
30°, then the angle of refraction is A. AM Broadcast
a. 15° B. FM Broadcast
b. 60° C. TV Broadcast
c. 30° D. Point-to-point communication
d. 5.5° List II
14. An altimeter is basically 1. Tropospheric waves
a. a CW radar 2. 535kHz-l600kHz
b. a FM radar 3. Repeater tower
c. a Doppler radar 4. VSB modulation
d. a device to indicate the direction at 5. Multipath phenomenon
height A B C D
15. Generally, a transversal type equaliser a. 1 2 3 4
with 5 taps can take care of distorted b. 2 3 4 5
signal due to intersymbol interference in c. 3 4 5 1
the received signal at d. 2 1 4 3
a. 4 sampling instants 20. The minimum decimal equivalent of the
b. 5 sampling instants number 11C.0 is
c. 9 sampling instants a. 183
d. 10 sampling instants b. 194
16. Antenna elevation angle at the ground c. 268
station for satellite communication is d. 269
always kept above 5° to 21. (FE35)16 XOR (CB15)16 is equal to
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a. (3320)16 26. The prefix form of the expression X + Y –
b. (FF35)16 Z is
c. (FF50)16 a. – + XYZ
d. (3520)16 b. + – XYZ
22. c. XYZ – +
d. XYZ + –
27. Consider the following statements :
The horizontal microinstruction has
1. longer control word than vertical
microinstruction.
2. high degree of parallelism
3. slower execution than vertical
microinstruction
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1 alone
b. 2 alone
If the value of x in decimal number is
c. 1 and 2
3954, the value of y in decimal number
d. 2 and 3
computed by the given flow chart is
28. The logic operation that will selectively
a. 20
clear bits in register A in those positions
b. 22
where there are 1’s in the bits of register B
c. 21
is given by
d. 3954
23. In C language, f– = 9 is equivalent to a. A ← A + B
a. f = –9 b. A ← AB
b. f = f – 9 c. A ← A + B
c. f = 9 – 1 d. A ← AB
d. –f = 9 29. Which one of the following is loaded in
24. A primitive computer uses a single the main memory by the bootstrap loader?
register. The following fragment of a. System data
assembly code is written for the machine: b. User program
LOAD X c. BIOS
MULT Y d. Parts of DOS
STORE T1 30. If a RAM has 34 bits in its MAR and 16
MULT T1 bits in its MDR, then its capacity will be
STORE T1 a. 32 GB
LOAD Z b. 16 GB
ADD Z c. 32 MB
ADD T1 d. 16 MB
STORE R 31. In 8086, if the content of the code segment
Which one of the following expressions is register is 1 FAB and the content of the IP
evaluated ? register is 10A1, then the effective
a. R : = (XY) + Y + Z memory address is
b. R : = (XY)2 + Y + Z a. 1FBC0
c. R : = (XY)2 + Y + Z b. 304C
d. R : XY2 + (Y + Z) c. FDB5
25. A single edge is added to a tree without d. 20B51
increasing the number of nodes. The 32. PID control for a plant is shown in Figures
number of cycles in the resulting graph is I and II.
equal to
a. zero
b. one
c. two
d. indeterminate

Assertion (A) : Figure -II is preferred over
Figure - I as it avoids large changes in
control signal for a sudden change in
reference input.
Reason (R) : Placement of P - D action in
the feedback path and larger values of Kp
and Td can be chosen in Figure - II.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
33. Assertion (A) : Schottky transistors are
preferred over normal transistors in digital
circuits.
Reason (R) : Schottky transistors operate
in active and saturation region.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
34. Assertion (A) : Synchronous counter has
higher speed of operation than ripple
counter.
Reason (R) : Synchronous counter uses
high speed flip - flops.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
35. Assertion (A) : A ring counter is preferred
over a binary sequential counter.
Reason (R) : The decoding logic is simple
for a ring counter.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
36. Assertion (A) : Op-amps with FET input
stages have less gain than those with BJT.
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Reason (R) : BJT has higher trans-
conductance than FET.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
37. Assertion (A) : For equal outputs, the
harmonic distortion is reduced in CE
amplifier with the introduction of negative
feedback.
Reason (R) : Nonlinear distortion usually
arises due to signals traversing the large
part of the dynamic characteristic, of the
transistor at the output stage.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
38. Assertion (A) : Thyristors are preferred
over power diodes in variable power
rectifiers.
Reason (R) : Thyristors provide controlled
rectification even though they have more
power loss in comparison to power diodes.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
39. Assertion (A) : An on-off controller gives
rise to oscillation of the output between
two limits.
Reason (R) : Location of a pair of poles on
the imaginary axis gives rise to self-
sustained oscillation in the output.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
40. Assertion (A) : Feedback control systems
offer more accurate control over open -
loop systems.
Reason (R) : The feedback path establishes
a link for input and output comparison and
subsequent error correction.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
41. Assertion (A) : The largest undershoot
corresponding to a unit step input to an
underdamped second order system with
damping ratio ξ and undamped natural
e −2π
frequency of oscillation ωn is . 45.
1− ξ 2
Reason (R) : The overshoots and under-
shoots of a second order underdamped
e − nπ
system is , n = 1, 2, ……….
1− ξ 2
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A 46.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
42. Assertion (A) : Several satellites have been
designed to operate in the Ku-band in spite
of higher atmospheric absorption than the
C - band.
Reason (R) : Use of smaller, narrower
beam antennas in the Ku-band results in
lower interference.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 47.
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
43. Assertion (A) A knowledge of the
amplitude and the phase of the field at
each point at the mouth of a horn antenna
may be used to predict the expected
radiation pattern.
Reason (R) : The electromagnetic field at
any point in space may be obtained by
considering each point on a wave front as
a source of spherical waves and
superimposing the effect of all those
sources at that point.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
44. Assertion (A) : Optical fibres have broader
bandwidth compared to conventional 48.
copper cables.
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Reason (R) : The information carrying
capacity of optical fibres is limited by
Rayleigh scattering loss.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
Assertion (A) : Most personal computers
use static RAMs for their main memory.
Reason (R) : Static RAMs are much faster
than dynamic RAMs.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
Assertion (A) : LRU (Least Recently
Used) replacement policy is not applicable
to direct mapped caches.
Reason (R) : A unique memory page is
associated with every cache page in direct
mapped caches.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
A common emitter amplifier circuit is
shown in the given figure
The slope of a.c. load line is
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
a. − ⎜ + ⎟
⎝ RL RC ⎠
⎛ 1 ⎞
b. − ⎜ ⎟
⎝ RL + RC ⎠
1
c. −
RL
1
d. −
RC
An amplifier circuit is shown in the given
figure :
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The voltage gain (V0 / Vs) is In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
a. 4 / 3.33 approximate voltages at the transistor
b. 100 a. base and emitter respectively are –8 V
c. 150 and –7.3 V
d. 160 b. base and collector respectively are – 8
49. Consider the following statements : V and –5 V
A totem pole configuration used in the c. collector and emitter respectively are –
output stage of an op-amp has the 5 V and –7.3 V
advantage of using d. base, emitter and collector respectively
1. only n-p-n BJTs. are –8 V, –7.3 V and –5 V
2. complementary symmetrical pair of 54. Consider the following statements:
transistors. The lower cut - off frequencies for an RC
3. only one transistor. coupled CE amplifier depend on
Which of these statements is / are correct ? 1. input and output coupling capacitors
a. 1 alone 2. emitter bypass capacitor
b. 2 alone 3. junction capacitors
c. 3 alone Which of these statements is / are correct?
d. 1 and 3 a. 1 alone
50. A 1 ms pulse can be stretched to 1 s pulse b. 2 alone
by using c. 1 and 2
a. an a stable multivibrator d. 2 and 3
b. a monostable multivibrator 55.
c. a bistable multivibrator
d. a Schmitt trigger circuit
51. An FET is a better chopper than a BJT
because it has
a. lower off - set voltage
b. higher series ON resistance.
c. lower input current
d. higher input impedance The op - amp circuit shown in the given
52. Consider the following statements figure is
regarding the bootstrap biasing a. a high - pass circuit
arrangement for a BJT emitter follower : b. a low - pass circuit
1. The input impedance is very high. c. a band - pass circuit
2. The voltage gain is exactly equal to d. an all - pass circuit
one. 56. Consider the following statements :
3. The output impedance is equal to zero. Sziklai pair
Which of these statements is correct? 1. is also called complementary
a. None Darlington
b. 2 alone 2. acts like a single p-n-p transistor with a
c. 3 alone very high current gain
d. 1 alone 3. can be used in class B push - pull
53. power amplifier
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
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c. 2 and 3 Which of these statements are correct?
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. 1, 2 and 3
57. Which one of the following power b. 2 and 3
amplifiers has the maximum efficiency? c. 1 and 2
a. Class A d. 1 and 3
b. Class B 63. In every practical oscillator, the loop gain
c. Class AB is slightly larger than unity and the
d. Class C amplitude of the oscillations is limited by
58. If a common emitter amplifier with an the
emitter resistance Re has an overall trans- a. magnitude of the loop gain
conductance gain of –1 mA / V, a voltage b. onset of non - linearity
gain of –4 and desensitivity of 50, then the c. magnitude of the gain of the amplifier
value of the emitter resistance Re would be d. feedback transmission factor
a. 50 kΩ 64.
b. 0.98 kΩ
c. 50 Ω
d. 0.98 Ω
59. The voltage gains of an amplifier without
feedback and with negative feedback
respectively are 100 and 20. The
percentage of negative feedback (β) would
be
In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
a. 4%
current flowing through resistance of 100
b. 5%
c. 20% Ω would be
d. 80% a. 8 mA
60. If the Q of a single -stage single – turned is b. 10 mA
amplifier doubled, then its bandwidth will c. 20 mA
a. remain same d. 100 mA
b. become half 65. The essential blocks of a phase lock loop
c. become double (PLL) are phase detector, amplifier,
d. become four times a. high - pass filter and crystal controlled
61. An amplifier using BJT has two identical oscillator
stages each having a lower cut-off (3 dB) b. low - pass filter and crystal controlled
frequency of 64 Hz due to coupling oscillator
capacitor. The emitter bypass capacitor c. high-pass filter and voltage controlled
also provides a lower cut-off (3 dB) oscillator
frequency due to emitter degeneration d. low - pass filter and voltage controlled
alone of 64 Hz. The lower (3 dB) oscillator
frequency of the overall amplifier is nearly 66. Which one of the following sets of circuits
a. 100 Hz can be obtained by using a 555 timer?
b. 128 Hz a. Pulse modulator and amplitude
c. 156 Hz demodulator
d. 244 Hz b. Pulse modulator and astable
62. Consider the following statements in multivibrator
relation to a large value of capacitor filter c. Amplitude demodulator and a.c. to d.c.
used in a full - wave rectifier : converter
It gives the d. a.c. to d.c. converter and astable
1. low conduction period for the diode multivibrator
rectifier 67. Which one of the following figures
2. increased peak current rating of the represents the coincidence logic?
diode a.
3. large peak inverse voltage rating of the
diode
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Which one of the following circuits is the
minimised logic circuit for the circuit
shown in Figure 1 ?
a.

b.

b.

c.
c.

d.
d.

72. CE configuration is the mot preferred

transistor configuration when used as a
68. The input voltage of Zener regulator varies switch because it
from 20 V to 30 V. The load current varies a. requires only one power supply
from 10 mA to 15 mA. If the Zener b. requires low voltage or current
voltage is 5 V, the value of series resistor c. is easily understood by every one
will be d. has small ICEO
73.
a. 1 kΩ
b. 1.5 kΩ
c. 1.66 Ω
d. 2.5 kΩ
69. A T- flip- flop function is obtained from a
JK flip - flop. If the flip- flop belongs to a
TTL family, the connection needed at the The circuit shown in the given figure
input must be realizes the function
a. J = K = 1
b. J = K = 0
(
a. A + B + C DE )( )
c. J = 1 and K = 0 b. ( A + B + C )( DE )
70.
d. J = 0 and K = 1
Karnaugh map is used to c. ( A + B + C )( DE )
a. minimise the number of flip - flops in a
digital circuit
d. ( A + B + C )( DE )
b. minimise the number of gates only in a 74.
digital circuit
c. minimise the number of gates and fan -
in of a digital circuit
d. design gates
71.
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The logic operations of two combinational 79. Which one of the following can be used as
circuits given in Figure – I and Figure – II parallel to series converter?
are a. Decoder
a. entirely different b. Digital counter
b. identical c. Multiplexer
c. complementary d. Demultiplexer
d. dual 80. Consider the following statements :
75. The thermal run - away in a CE transistor A multiplexer
amplifier can be prevented by biasing the 1. selects one of the several inputs and
transistor in such a manner that transmits it to a single output
V 2. routes the data from a single input to
a. VCE > CC one of many outputs
2
V 3. converts parallel data into serial data
b. VCE < CC 4. is a combinational circuit
2
Which of these statements are correct?
VCC
c. VCE = a. 1, 2 and 4
2 b. 2, 3 and 4
d. VCE = 0 c. 1, 3 and 4
76. The figure of merit, of a logic family is d. 1, 2 and 3
given by 81. Consider the following statements
a. gain x bandwidth 1. Race around conditions occurs in a JK
b. propagation delay time x power flip - flop when both the inputs are one
dissipation 2. A flip - flop is used to store one bit of
c. fan -out x propagation delay time information
d. noise margin x power dissipation 3. A transparent latch consists of a D-
77. Which one of the following statements type flip - flop
correctly defines the full -adder? 4. Master - slave configuration is used in
An adder circuit flip - flops to store two bits of
a. having two inputs used to add two information
binary digits. It produced their sum and Which of these statements are correct?
carry as input a. 1, 2 and 3
b. having three inputs used to add two b. 1, 3 and 4
binary digits plus a carry. it produces c. 1, 2 and 4
their sum and carry as outputs d. 2, 3 and 4
c. used in the least significant position 82. A ring counter consisting of five flip -
when adding two binary digits with no flops will have
carry-in to consider. It produces their a. 5 states
sum and carry as outputs b. 10 states
d. having two inputs and two outputs c. 32 states
78. The half - adder circuit in the given figure d. infinite states
has inputs AB = 11 83. A crystal oscillator is frequently used in
digital circuits for timing purposes because
of its
a. lost cost
b. high frequency stability
c. simple circuitry
d. ability to set the frequency at the
desired value
The Logic level of P and Q outputs will be 84. Which one of the following statements is
a. P = 0 and Q = 0 correct?
b. P = 0 and Q = 1 a. RAM is a non - volatile memory
c. P = 1 and Q = 0 whereas ROM is a volatile memory
d. P = 1 and Q = 1 b. RAM is a volatile memory whereas
ROM is a non - volatile memory
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c. Both RAM and ROM are volatile 2. A pair of synchronous transmitter and
memories but in ROM data is not lost control transformer
when power is switched off 3. Tachogenerator
d. Both RAM and ROM are non-volatile 4. Armature controlled FHP d.c. motor
memories but in RAM data is lost 5. Amplidyne
when power is switched off A B C D
85. Match List I (Memory elements) with List a. 2 4 1 5
II (Properties) and select the correct b. 4 2 5 3
answer : c. 2 4 5 3
List I d. 1 2 3 5
A. Semiconductor memory 89. Consider the following servomotors :
B. Ferrite core memory 1. a.c. two - phase servomotor
C. Magnetic tape memory 2. d.c. servomotor
List II 3. Hydraulic servomotor
1. Destructive read out 4. Pneumatic servomotor
2. Combinational logic The correct sequence of these servomotors
3. Volatile in increasing order of power handling
A B C capacity is
a. 2 1 3 a. 2, 4, 3, 1
b. 1 3 2 b. 4, 2, 3, 1
c. 3 2 1 c. 2, 4, 1, 3
d. 3 1 2 d. 4. 2, 1, 3
86. Consider the following statements : 90. The open -loop transfer function of unity
1. The effect of feedback is. to reduce the feedback control system is
system error K
G(s) = ,0 < a ≤ b
2. Feedback increases the gain of the s( s + a )( s + b)
system in one frequency range but The system is stable if
decreases in another
3. Feedback can cause a system that is a. 0 < K <
(a + b)
originally stable to become unstable ab
Which of these statements are correct? ab
b. 0 < K <
a. 1, 2 and 3 (a + b)
c. 0 < K < ab ( a + b )
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 d. 0 < K < a / b ( a + b )
87. The intersection of asymptotes of root-loci 91. The Routh – Hurwitz criterion cannot be
of a system with open - loop transfer applied when the characteristic equation of
K the system contains any coefficients which
function G ( s ) H ( s ) = is
s( s + 1)( s + 3) is
a. 1.44 a. negative real and exponential functions
b. 1.33 of s
c. – 1.44 b. negative real, both exponential and
d. – 1.33 sinusoidal functions of s
88. Match list I (Functional components) with c. both exponential and sinusoidal
List II (Devices) and select the correct functions of s
answer: d. complex, both exponential and
List I sinusoidal functions of s
A. Error detector 92. Which one of the following characteristic
B. Servometer equations can result in the stable operation
C. Amplifier of the feedback system?
D. Feedback a. s3 + 4s2 + s – 6 = 0
List II b. s3 – s2 + 5s + 6 = 0
1. Three-phase FHP induction motor c. s3 + 4s2 + 10s + 11 = 0
d. s4 + s3 + 2s2 + 4s + 6 = 0
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93. Match List I (Scientist) with List II
(Contribution in the area of) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Bode
B. Evans
C. Nyquist
List H The phase margin and the gain margin of
1. Asymptotic plots the system are respectively
2. Polar plots. a. 1500 and 4
3. Root -locus technique b. 150° and 3 / 4
4. Constant M and N plots c. 30° and 4
A B C d. 30° and 3 / 4
a. 1 4 2 98.
b. 2 3 4
c. 3 1 4
d. 1 3 2
94. Consider the following statements
Routh – Hurwitz criterion gives
For the given network, the maximum
1. absolute stability
phase lead φm of Vo with respect to Vi is
2. the number of roots lying on the right
half of the s - plane ⎛ R ⎞
a. sin −1 ⎜ 1 ⎟
3. the gain margin and phase margin ⎝ 2 R2 ⎠
Which of these statements are correct?
⎛ R1 ⎞
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. sin −1 ⎜ ⎟
b. 1 and 2 ⎝ R1 + 2 R2 ⎠
c. 2 and 3 ⎛ R1 ⎞
d. 1 and 3 c. sin −1 ⎜ ⎟
95. The open -loop transfer function G(s) of a ⎝ R1 + 3R2 ⎠
1 ⎛ R1 ⎞
unity feedback control system is d. sin −1 ⎜ ⎟
s ( s + 1) ⎝ 2 R2C1 ⎠
The system is subjected to an input r(t) = 99. Which one of the following equations
sin t. The steady- state error will be represents the constant magnitude locus in
a. Zero G-plane for M = 1?
b. 1 {x-axis is Re G(jω) and y-axis is Im
⎛ π⎞ G(jω)}
c. 2 sin ⎜ t − ⎟
⎝ 4⎠ a. x = – 0.5
⎛ π⎞ b. x = 0
d. 2 sin ⎜ t + ⎟ c. x2 + y2 = 1
⎝ 4⎠ d. (x + 1)2 + y2 = 1
96. A second order system has the damping 100. Which one of the following features is
ratio E and undamped natural frequency of NOT associates with. Nichols chart?
oscillation ωn. The settling time at 2% a. (0 dB, – 180°) point on Nichols charts
tolerance band of the system is represents the critical point (– 1 + j0)
a. 2/ξωn b. It is symmetric about –180°
b. 3/ξωn c. The M loci are centred about (0 dB, –
c. 4/ξωn 180°) point
d. ξωn d. The frequency at the intersection of the
97. The polar plot (for positive frequencies) G (j ω) locus and M = +3 dB locus
for the open-loop transfer function of a gives bandwidth of the closed - loop
unity feedback control system is shown in system
the given figure 101. Consider the following statements :
A proportional plus derivative controller
 12 of 13
1. has high sensitivity c. Zin and Zout are complex conjugates of
2. increases the stability of the system each other for some positive real
3. improves the steady - state accuracy impedances of the source and load
Which of these statements are correct? d. Zin and Zout are complex conjugates of
a. 1, 2 and 3 each other for all positive real
b. 1 and 2 impedances of the source and load
c. 2 and 3 107. Consider the following statements :
d. 1 and 3 If the narrow dimension of a standard
102. Consider the following instructions rectangular waveguide carrying the
executed in 8086. dominant mode is reduced, then the
PUSH AX; AX has 20 Hex in it 1. wave impedance will increase
PUSH BX; BX has 34 Hex in it 2. attenuation will increase
POP AX, 3. guide wavelength will decrease
ADD AX, BX; 4. power handling capability will
POP G decrease.
The value stored in G would be Which of these statements are correct?
a. 20 Hex a. 1 and 2
b. 34 Hex b. 2 and 4
c. 54 Hex c. 3 and 4
d. 68 Hex d. 1 and 3
103. For a Gunn diode oscillator, the drift 108. A quarter-wave transformer matching a
velocity of the electron is 107 cm/s and the 75Ω source with a 300 Ω load should have
active region length is 10 × 10–4 cm. a characteristic impedance of
The natural frequency of oscillation would a. 50 Ω
be b. 100 Ω
a. 1 MHz c. 150 Ω
b. 10 MHz d. 200 Ω
c. 1 GHz 109. Match List I with list II and select the
d. 10 GHz correct answer:
104. At microwave frequencies, a varactor List I
diode may NOT be useful A. Ratio of maximum energy stored to
a. for electronic tuning energy dissipated per cycle
b. for frequency multiplication B. TEM mode in a lossless medium
c. as an oscillator C. Ratio of frequency in radian to phase
d. as a parametric amplifier velocity of EM wave
105. The correct sequence of the assembled D. TE11 is the mode of lowest cut-off
parts in a klystron amplifier from any end frequency
is List II
a. anode, catcher cavity, cathx1e and 1. Propagation constant
buncher cavity 2. Cut-off frequency is zero
b. cathode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity 3. Quality factor of a cavity
and anode 4. Cylindrical waveguide
c. anode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity A B C D
and cathode a. 3 2 4 1
d. cathode, catcher cavity, anode and b. 2 3 1 4
buncher cavity c. 3 2 1 4
106. An amplifier network is unconditionally d. 2 3 4 1
stable if 110. An antenna has 40 Ω antenna resistance
a. real part of Zin and Zout are greater than and 60 Ω radiation resistance. The
zero for some positive the source and efficiency of the antenna is
load a. 30%
b. real part of Zin and Zout out are greater b. 40%
than zero for all positive real c. 50%
impedances of the source and load d. 60%
 13 of 13
111. For a microstrip with a substrate dielectric Which of these parameters are responsible
constant ε, the value of effective dielectric for the change of phase of a propagating
constant εe will be such that electromagnetic wave?
ε a. 1, 2 and 3
a. < εe < ε b. 2, 3 and 4
2
b.
(ε + 1) < ε <ε
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
e
2 117. As a result of reflections from a plane
c. 1 < εe <
( ε + 1) conducting wall, electromagnetic waves
2 acquire an apparent velocity greater than

d.
(ε − 1) < ε <
(ε + 1) the velocity of light in space. This is called
e the
2 2
a. velocity of propagation
112.
b. normal velocity
c. group velocity
d. phase velocity
118. While determining antenna, height for
The insertion loss of the Device Under terrestrial microwave links, the effect of
Test (DUT) shown in the given figure is refraction from the atmosphere is taken
a. 10 dB care of by considering the effective
b. 20 dB curvature of the earth to be
c. 30 dB a. 2/3 times the radius of the earth
d. 40 dB b. 314 times the radius of the earth
113. In the standing wave detector method for c. 4/3 times the radius of the earth
measuring slightly mismatched load d. 3/2 times the radius of the earth
impedance, the distance from the load 119. An earth station employs a 1 kW high
position to the nearest voltage minimum power amplifier (HPA) and a 20 m
towards the generator is one - eighth the Cassegrain antenna whose transmitted gain
guide wavelength. The load is is 65 dB at a free space wavelength of 2.1
a. a capacitive impedance cm. If the loss of the wavelength that
b. an inductive impedance connects HPA to the feed is 1dB, then the
c. a pure capacitance earth station EIRP is
d. a pure inductance a. 29 dB m
114. If the peak power of pulsed microwave b. 59 dB m
system is 104W and the average power is c. 94 dB m
800 W, then the duty cycle will be d. 124 dB m
a. 80% 120. Match List I (Microwave band) with List
b. 8% II (Frequency used in satellite
c. 0.8% communication) and select the correct
d. 0.08% answer :
115. A 8 kHz communication channel has an List I
SNR of 30dB. If the channel bandwidth is A. C-band
doubled, keeping the signal power B. Ku -band
constant, the SNR for the modified C. Ka-band
channel will be List II
a. 27 dB 1. 12 GHz to 14 GHz
b. 30 dB 2. 24 GHz to 26 GHz
c. 33 dB 3. 20 GHz to 30 GHz
d. 60 dB 4. 4 GHz to 6 GHz
116. Consider the following parameters : A B C
1. Loss is the media a. 4 2 1
2. Permeability of the media b. 2 1 3
3. Frequency of the wave c. 4 1 3
4. Velocity of the wave d. 3 4 2