Becker's World of the Cell, 8e (Hardin/Bertoni/Kleinsmith)

Chapter 8 Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the Permeability Barrier

Multiple Choice Questions

1) Of the following molecules, which would not be expected to be moved across a membrane by
simple diffusion?
A) oxygen
B) fatty acids
C) water
D) glucose
E) dimethylurea

2) One mechanism by which ions are specifically transported into the cell is the
A) gated channel.
B) alternating conformation model.
C) carrier protein transport.
D) uniport transport model.
E) all of the above

3) In examining glucose transport into a cell, the immediate phosphorylation of glucose

following its entry into the cell
A) keeps the glucose from being transported back out of the cell.
B) allows the cell to maintain higher levels of glucose outside the cell.
C) converts glucose into a form for use in cellular respiration.
D) converts glucose into a form to be stored.
E) all of the above

4) In bacteria, the porins have the unique ability to transport

A) all hydrophilic molecules.
B) hydrophilic molecules of a particular size.
C) all hydrophobic molecules.
D) hydrophobic molecules of a particular size.
E) any molecule, regardless of properties or size.

5) In the kidney, the specialized transport proteins that allow for very rapid fluid movement into
or out of cells are known as
A) aquaporins.
B) porins.
C) ionophores.
D) anion exchange proteins.
E) osmosins.
6) In all organisms, active transport across a membrane requires
A) equal concentrations of ions on both sides of the membrane.
B) a resting potential of 0 mV.
C) exergonic movement indicated by the direction of the electrochemical potential.
D) an asymmetric distribution of ions across a membrane.
E) both choices B and D

7) The movement of water through a membrane, from an area of high concentration to an area of
low concentration, is known as
A) active transport.
B) facilitated transport.
C) passive transport.
D) osmosis.
E) photolysis.

8) Which of the following measures is used to determine a substance's polarity?

A) partition coefficient
B) extinction coefficient
C) polarity factor
D) asymmetrical distribution points
E) polarity determining factor

9) Which of the following is/are true with regard to water movement in osmosis?
A) hypotonic → hypertonic
B) hypertonic → hypotonic
C) isotonic → hypotonic
D) hypertonic → isotonic
E) both choices C and D

10) You are wanting to modify plant cells. With the procedure you are using, the plant cells must
be in a plasmolyzed state. This means that the plant cells must be placed in a(n)
A) acid solution.
B) hypotonic solution.
C) isotonic solution.
D) basic solution.
E) hypertonic solution.

11) You wish to dehydrate a piece of meat using solutions of varying salt concentrations. The
best concentration to use would be
A) 0.01%.
B) 0.09%.
C) 0.9%.
D) 1%.
E) 10%.
12) Which of the following is not a characteristic of passive transport?
A) It requires binding of the molecule to be transported.
B) It is specific for the molecule being transported.
C) The energy for transport is generated by the gradient of the substance being transported.
D) The energy for transport is generated by the molecular bonds of the substance being
transported.
E) Transport of the substance is the result of a conformational change.

13) Which of the following glucose transporters in humans has properties that facilitate glucose
transport out of the cell in response to keeping blood sugar levels homeostatic?
A) GLUT1
B) GLUT2
C) GLUT3
D) GLUT4
E) GLUT5

14) When transporting uncharged molecules across the membrane, which of the following is/are
false?
A) Keq is always equal to one.
B) ΔG is not dependent upon a gradient.
C) Movement requires a transport protein.
D) ΔG° is always equal to zero.
E) both choices A and B

15) When transporting charged molecules across a membrane, which of the following is/are true?
A) When moving chloride ions in nerve cells, the movement is with both concentration and
electrochemical gradients.
B) ΔG is dependent on electrochemical potential.
C) Keq is always equal to zero.
D) ΔG° is always equal to one.
E) Membrane potential is not a factor.

16) Which of the following is not an example of facilitated diffusion?

A) GLUT1 glucose transporter
B) anion exchange protein
C) aquaporins
D) channel proteins
E) oxygen transport

17) The chloride-bicarbonate antiport is thought to function by which of the following

mechanisms?
A) "ping-pong"
B) "ying-yang"
C) uniport dichotomy
D) active transport
E) induced-fit model
18) Facilitated diffusion implies that energy in which form is NOT required?
A) ATP
B) oxygen
C) Na+
D) glucose
E) light

For a particular cell, the concentration of sucrose is 10 mM on the inside of the cell and 0.5 mM
on the outside, whereas the concentration of sodium ions (Na⁺) is 0.5 mM on the inside of the
cell and 10 mM on the outside. The membrane potential is -150 mV, and the temperature is
25°C.

Constants: R = 1.987 cal/mol degree; T = 25°C = 298 K; F = 23,062 cal/mole volt

19) What is the ∆G′ for the inward transport of sucrose?

A) +1.774 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
B) +1.774 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
C) -1.774 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
D) -1.774 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
E) none of the above

20) What is the ∆G′ for the inward transport of sodium ions?
A) +5.233 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
B) +5.233 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
C) -5.233 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
D) -5.233 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
E) none of the above

21) What would be the net ∆G′ for the coupling of these two reactions?
A) +7.007 kcal/mol
B) +3.459 kcal/mol
C) -1.774 kcal/mol
D) -3.459 kcal/mol
E) -7.007 kcal/mol

A cell biologist interested in the transport of calcium ions (C a2+) across the plasma membrane
of bacterial cells made the following measurements on bacterial cells at 25°C:

Vm = -150 mV [Ca2+] inside = 20 mM [C a2+] outside = 0.4 mM

22) What is the free energy change for the inward movement of calcium ions into the bacterial
cell?
A) +4.6 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
B) +4.6 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
C) -4.6 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
D) -4.6 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
E) none of the above

23) Assuming no change in either the internal or external calcium ion concentration, at what
membrane potential would there be no net movement of calcium across the membrane?
A) -25 mV
B) -50 mV
C) 0 mV
D) +25 mV
E) +50 mV

24) The bacteriorhodopsin proton pump creates a proton gradient that is needed in the process of
anoxygenic photosynthesis. The energy necessary to drive this pump is generated by
A) the rhodopsin pigment directly.
B) the proton gradient itself.
C) GTP hydrolysis.
D) ATP hydrolysis.
E) light energy.

25) Cystic fibrosis is the result of a malfunction of the cell in transporting which of the following
ions?
A) Cl-
B) K+
C) Na+
D) glucose
E) OH-

26) In some cells, it was noted that water moved faster than could be accounted for by simple
diffusion. From this information, which of the following were identified and characterized?
A) hydroporins
B) glycoporins
C) facilitator porins
D) lipoporins
E) aquaporins
27) Which of the following is not a characteristic of active transport?
A) sensitive to metabolic poisons
B) exclusively move one molecule at a time in a unidirectional manner
C) can be coupled with passive transport to generate the energy necessary for active transport
D) can work as symports or antiports
E) all of the above

28) Which of the following is not a mechanism of active transport?

A) coupled transport
B) ATP hydrolysis-driven pump
C) unidirectional movement with gradients
D) light-driven pumps
E) both choices C and D

29) Which type of ATPase is associated with the integral binding of ATP as part of the transport
process?
A) ABC type
B) F type
C) P type
D) V type

30) The P-type ATPases associated with the movement of heavy metals are
A) type 1.
B) type 2.
C) type 3.
D) type 4.
E) type 5.

31) While working with a novel cell line, you observe that movement of hydrophobic molecules,
such as cholesterol and fatty acids, is impaired. You narrow the defect down to a P-type ATPase
A) type 1.
B) type 2.
C) type 3.
D) type 4.
E) type 5.

32) The Na+/K+ pump actively moves

A) 2 Na+ in, 3 K+ out.
B) 2 Na+ out, 3 K+ in.
C) 3 Na+ in 2 K+ out.
D) 3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in.
E) 1 Na+ out, 1 K+ in.
33) An example of indirect active transport is
A) Na+/K+ pumps.
B) P-type ATPases.
C) ABC-type ATPases.
D) Na+/glucose symport.
E) both choices B and C

A researcher is interested in the mode of transport across the cell membrane of three different
substances: A, B, and C. His data are reported in the graphs associated with the following
questions.

Figure 8.1
34) The graph above shows the initial rate of transport for each substance when the cells are
placed in solutions of different concentrations of A, B, and C. Based on these data, substance A
is transported via
A) active transport.
B) facilitated transport.
C) passive transport.
D) simple diffusion.
E) choices A, B, and C

35) Based on the same graph, substances B and C

A) show saturation kinetics.
B) are transported by a transporter protein.
C) do not move by simple diffusion.
D) choices A and B only
E) all of the above

36) The graph below shows the rate of transport for each substance when the cells are placed in
0.10 mM solutions of A, B, and C. Based on these data and coupled with the data observed
above, substance C is transported via ________.

Figure 8.2

A) active transport
B) facilitated transport
C) passive transport
D) simple diffusion
E) choices A, B, and C
37) The primary difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is that active
transport is the only one in which
A) [S]high → [S]low.
B) transporter proteins are required.
C) [S]low → [S]high.
D) the concentration gradient provides the necessary energy for movement.
E) only water molecules move.

38) Animal cells use exocytosis to secrete all of the following except
A) cell wall material.
B) mucus.
C) peptide hormones.
D) milk proteins.
E) digestive enzymes.

39) Mutations in bacterial porins can lead to antibiotic resistance typically by

A) closing the α-helix of the porin.
B) limiting the passage of nonpolar substances.
C) blocking entry of the antibiotic.
D) disrupting the voltage of the gated channel.
E) all of the above
40) A special class of ABC-type ATPases associated with tumors that allow movement of
antibiotics and other drugs out of the cell are known as
A) multidrug resistance transport protein.
B) import transporter proteins.
C) cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.
D) human catalytic convertase.
E) none of the above; no such transporter has been identified in eukaryotes.
Becker's World of the Cell, 8e (Hardin/Bertoni/Kleinsmith)
Chapter 12 The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes

Multiple Choice Questions

1) A protein is destined to be secreted from a cell. In which of the following organelles would
you expect to find the protein first?
A) endosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosome
D) secretory vesicle

2) The endoplasmic reticulum is a site for

A) potassium storage in muscle cells.
B) drug detoxification by catalase.
C) N-linked glycosylation of polypeptides.
D) addition of lipid residues.
E) both choices B and C

3) You want to engineer a yeast cell to manufacture and secrete a bacterial protein product. To
do this properly, you need to make certain that
A) the appropriate signal sequence is present.
B) plenty of clathrin-coated pits may be formed.
C) mannose-6-phosphate is added to the protein.
D) the yeast cell is capable of phagocytosis.
E) all of the above

4) Which of the following molecules stabilizes the cell membrane during coated pit formation?
A) mannose-6-phosphate
B) KDEL signals
C) clatherin
D) botulinum toxin
E) stabilin

5) The continuous release of mucus by the epithelial cells lining the respiratory tract is an
example of
A) regulated secretion.
B) constitutive secretion.
C) the mucus response.
D) the formation of clathrin-coated pits.
E) phagocytosis.
6) A radioactively labeled protein is made by cells and followed through the various organelles
in the secretory pathway. After six hours, all of the radioactivity is still primarily in the Golgi
apparatus. This suggests that the
A) protein was not translated by the ribosomes.
B) protein does not possess a signal peptide for localization within the lumen of the rough
endoplasmic reticulum.
C) protein possesses a signal for localization within the Golgi apparatus.
D) all of the above

7) In a longitudinal section of a nerve cell, at the presynaptic site you note a variety of vesicles
that are anchored to the plasma membrane. The vesicles must be specialized for
A) constitutive secretion.
B) regulated secretion.
C) polarized secretion.
D) zymogen secretion.
E) none of the above

8) Which of the following statements is false regarding phagocytosis?

A) It involves ingestion of large particles by the cell.
B) It involves the projection of pseudopodia.
C) It is a method used predominantly by amoeba to obtain food.
D) It is mediated by clathrin at the plasma membrane.
E) In vertebrates, macrophages and neutrophils possess this ability.

9) During receptor-mediated endocytosis, the ultimate fate of the vesicle and/or its contents
include(s)
A) transcytosis.
B) transport to late endosome for digestion.
C) recycling of receptors.
D) only choices B and C
E) choices A, B, and C

10) Lysosomal storage diseases are the result of deficiencies in lysosomal proteins. An example
of one such disorder is
A) adult-onset diabetes.
B) tuberculosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) chronic fatigue syndrome.
E) Tay-Sachs disease.

11) All of the following are part of the core oligosaccharide side chain in the ER, except
A) N-acetyl glucosamine.
B) erythrose.
C) mannose.
D) glucose.
E) both choices A and C
12) Peroxisomes
A) are not derived from the endoplasmic reticulum.
B) are bounded by double membranes.
C) possess acid phosphatase activity.
D) possess amylase activity.
E) all of the above

13) Which of the following organelles is associated with the ability to catabolize alkanes found
in oil and petroleum products?
A) mitochondria
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) peroxisomes
D) lysosomes
E) all of the above

14) A protein that is N-glycosylated is expected to

A) be secreted from the cell.
B) be localized in the endoplasmic reticulum.
C) be localized in the Golgi body.
D) eventually become an endosome.
E) eventually become a peroxisome.

15) Bacterial proteins were radioactively labeled and fed to phagocytic cells. The proteins within
the phagocytic cell became increasingly more radioactive over time. This observation is the
result of the activity of
A) mitochondria.
B) chloroplasts.
C) lysosomes.
D) peroxisomes.
E) the Golgi apparatus.

16) In plants, peroxisomes associated with nitrogen fixation in legumes can be found in great
abundance in
A) leaves.
B) stems.
C) phloem and xylem.
D) cotyledons.
E) root nodules.

17) Which of the following is associated with extracellular digestion via release of the contents
of lysosomes directly to the environment?
A) fertilization of animal eggs
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) autophagy
D) only choices A and B
E) choices A, B, and C
18) Which of the following organelles are not part of the endomembrane system?
A) peroxisomes
B) Golgi complexes
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) endosomes
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum

19) All of the following are true about botulinum toxin/Botox except
A) The toxin is one of the most potent toxins known.
B) Botox is a SNARE protein.
C) It can be used therapeutically to stop muscle spasms.
D) It has been used to remove wrinkles caused by muscle contractions.
E) It has potential use as a migraine headache treatment.

20) You are isolating cell fractions using a variety of centrifuge techniques. You have two very
similar fractions but at this point are unable to discern which fraction is peroxisomes and which
is lysosomes. As a result, you need to test the fractions for unique enzyme activities. If you are
looking for peroxisomes, one enzyme activity you can test for is
A) hexokinase.
B) ATPase.
C) glucose-6-phosphatase.
D) cytochrome c oxidase.
E) catalase.

21) If you were looking within a cell for organized clathrin structures, you would find them
associated with which of the following structures?
A) lysosomes
B) trans Golgi complex
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) inner membrane of mitochondria
E) extracellular matrix

22) You are working with cells and observe transport of your target protein within a cell. You
suspect that sorting conforms to the SNARE hypothesis. You, therefore, expect
A) to eventually identify vesicle-SNAP receptors.
B) to eventually identify transport-SNAP receptors.
C) an association with clatherin-coated pits.
D) the protein molecules were internalized by phagocytosis.
E) all of the above
23) In a lysosomal storage disease, the hydrolases of lysosomes are released from the cells,
rather than being isolated into vesicles. What is one possible mechanism for this result?
A) A proton gradient within vesicles was not generated.
B) The ER was unable to produce lysosomal vesicles.
C) Lysosomal enzymes were not phosphorylated in the rER.
D) There is a lack of mannose-6-phosphatase activity.
E) There is a mutation in all hydrolase genes that results in loss of the signal peptide.
24) Cells of the pancreas produce and directly release enzymes to the digestive system. The type
of secretory mechanism associated with the pancreatic cells is
A) transport secretion.
B) regulated secretion.
C) constitutive secretion.
D) intracellular secretion.
E) consistent secretion.

25) Microsomes are

A) too small to be seen with an electron microscope.
B) artifacts generated during homogenization of cells.
C) organelles through which electrons cannot pass.
D) organelles of eukaryotic cells.
E) structures observed in cyanobacteria.

26) Using the techniques of genetic engineering, you design a cytoplasmic protein you want to
accumulate within the ER of yeast cells. To accomplish this goal, you need to
A) do nothing; all proteins go through the ER.
B) incorporate the appropriate mannose-6-phosphate groups.
C) incorporate the appropriate DNA sequence with the proper signal.
D) incorporate radioactive amino acids into the protein.
E) incorporate the appropriate lipid groups into the lipoprotein.

27) Ribosomes that do not anchor to the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum during
translation most probably
A) are synthesizing cytoplasmic proteins.
B) have a defect in ribosomal proteins that allow attachment to the ER.
C) have a signal/trafficking error.
D) do not make the appropriate anchor protein.
E) all of the above
28) All of the following are part of the endomembrane system, except the
A) Golgi body.
B) endosomes.
C) lysosomes.
D) peroxisomes.
E) Neither C nor D are part of the endomembrane system.
29) You have genetically engineered a yeast cell to make a protein that will ultimately be
secreted from the cell. If all is functioning well, in which order (from first to last) do you expect
to find the protein in the cell until it is secreted?
A) rER → Golgi → secretory vesicle → environment
B) rER → Golgi → sER → nucleus → environment
C) nucleus → rER → Golgi → secretory vesicle → environment
D) sER → Golgi → secretory vesicle → environment
E) rER → secretory vesicle → Golgi → environment

30) Regulatory secretion of hormones would be associated with ________ at the transface of the
Golgi.
A) endosomes
B) lysosomes
C) clathrin-coated vesicles
D) non-clathrin vesicles
E) microsomes

31) Oxidation of very long fatty acids occurs in the

A) mitochondria.
B) peroxisomes.
C) lysosomes.
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
E) residual bodies.
32) Of the following cell types, the greatest concentration of high-density lipoprotein (HDLs)
would be associated with ________ cells.
A) skin
B) muscle
C) connective tissue
D) blood
E) liver

33) Uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) occurs by

A) simple diffusion.
B) bulk-phase endocytosis.
C) facilitated transport.
D) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
E) pinocytosis.

34) Compared with the trans-Golgi proteins, the cis-Golgi proteins would
A) be identical.
B) be shorter in length.
C) be glycosylated and contain amino acid modifications.
D) contain sialic acid.
E) be glycosylated only.
35) The organelle of plant cells that is analogous to the lysosome in animal cells is the
A) vacuole.
B) triskelion.
C) microsome.
D) endosome.
E) lysosome.
36) The plant cell organelle analogous to the endosome is the
A) provacuole.
B) lysosome.
C) peroxisome.
D) glycoxysome.
E) none of the above

37) All of the following are unique to plant cells except

A) leaf peroxisomes.
B) glyoxysomes.
C) nodule peroxisomes.
D) peroxisomes.
E) chloroplasts.

38) All of the following statements about cellular trafficking are true except
A) COPII-coated vesicles move materials from ER to Golgi.
B) COPI-coated vesicles move materials from Golgi to the secretory vesicle.
C) movement may be mediated by microtubules.
D) v-SNAREs occur in vesicles; t-SNAREs occur on target sites.
E) tethering proteins mediate docking between target and vesicle.

39) Which of the following cellular processes has/have been linked to cancer/tumor formation?
A) autophagy
B) EGF desensitization
C) caveolae uptake
D) NMDA receptors
E) both choices A and B

40) Pharmacogenetics is a new field of study that arose from the study of
A) cholesterol uptake.
B) mixed-function oxidases.
C) ATP-dependent calcium ATPases.
D) phagocytosis by specifically vertebrate white blood cells.
E) residual bodies.

Matching Questions

Choose the organelle in column 2 that best matches the activity in column 1.

A) There is no appropriate match.

B) Mitochondria
C) peroxisomes
D) mitochondria
E) there is no appropriate match
F) lysosome
G) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

1) test for catalase activity

2) test for the TCA cycle enzymes
3) test for the presence of cytochromes
4) look for fractions that are green
5) hydroxylation of compounds including phenobarbital
6) presence of acid hydrolases
7) ribulose bisphosphatase activity is present

Match the organelle on the left with the appropriate property on the right.

A) transport to various layers of Golgi

B) mediates transfer of lysosomal enzymes into a lysosome
C) found in plant endosperm or cotyledons
D) degradation of damaged organelles
E) biosynthesis of steroid hormones
F) binds vesicle to target membrane
G) transport of proteins from ER to Golgi
H) sorting proteins for export or to specific organelles
I) β oxidation of fatty acids
J) transport from Golgi to plasma membrane

8) peroxisomes
9) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
10) lysosomes
11) Golgi apparatus
12) transition vesicle
13) shuttle vesicle
14) secretory vesicle
15) glyoxysomes
16) tethering protein
17) mannose-6-phosphate

1) The ________ is the organelle involved in the posttranslational modification of proteins and
sorting of proteins to various intracellular and extracellular compartments.

2) A ________ is the organelle that fuses with endosomes and supplies hydrolytic enzymes
necessary for the digestion of the materials within the endosome.

3) A ________ is a short sequence of amino acids that targets a protein for translation across the
endoplasmic reticulum.
4) ________ is the molecule associated with receptor-mediated endocytosis that "coats" the
vesicle until it is released.
5) ________ is the organelle associated with the functions of steroid biosynthesis, carbohydrate
metabolism, and drug detoxification.

6) ________ act as proton pumps and keep the internal proton concentration of lysosomes high.

7) Exocytosis is stimulated by regional increases in ________ concentration.

8) ________ are proteins associated with clathrin-coated vesicles that are involved in the binding
of vesicles to specific receptors.

9) V-________ and t-________ mediate final docking between target and vesicle.

10) The investigation of the movement of proteins and lipids to their appropriate location within
a cell is known as ________.

11) The chronic use of the ________ class of drugs can result in decreased effectiveness of
antibiotics, anticoagulants, and steroids.

12) Coated vesicles known as ________ are thought to potentially be associated with cholesterol
uptake and/or have a role in signal transduction.

Becker's World of the Cell, 8e (Hardin/Bertoni/Kleinsmith)

Chapter 22 Gene Expression: II. Protein Synthesis and Sorting

Multiple Choice Questions

1) A mutant bacterium is isolated. This bacterial strain has the characteristic of very slow,
"sickly" growth. You isolate mRNA from this bacteria to use in an in vitro translation system
and note that even in vitro it is difficult to use this message and obtain protein. Of the following,
which is a likely explanation for these results?
A) There may be a mutation in the Shine Delgarno sequence of the DNA, resulting in a RNA
that poorly binds the ribosome.
B) There may be a mutation in the ribosomal rRNA recognizing the Shine Delgarno sequence
of the message.
C) This mutant may have altered tRNA molecules, such that the codon-anticodon interaction
during translation is affected.
D) These bacteria may not manufacture enough translation factors for effective translation.
E) In this mutant, the ribosomal subunits may not associate well enough for effective translation.

2) Which of the following amino acids is not one of the 20 common amino acids found in cells?
A) leucine
B) isoleucine
C) glutamine
D) proline
E) pyrrolysine

3) Of the following steps associated with translation, which does not involve hydrolysis of GTP?
A) aminoacylation of tRNA
B) formation of the initiation complex
C) binding of the aminoacyl tRNA to the codon at the A site
D) translocation of the ribosome
E) release of polypeptide

4) Which of the following organisms utilizes polycistronic mRNAs?

A) E. coli
B) C. elegans
C) mammals
D) choices A and B only
E) all of the above
5) In working with a potentially new antibiotic, you are attempting to determine where in
prokaryotic translation this antibiotic has its effect. You have determined thus far that it interacts
with a translational factor but need to identify which one. If this antibiotic interfered with
elongation, which of the following factors could be a potential site of action?
A) IF3 interaction with an aminoacyl tRNA
B) EF-Tu placement of N-formylmethionine onto the ribosome
C) EF-Tu interaction with an aminoacyl tRNA
D) EF-Ts translocation of tRNAs from the A site to the P site
E) all of the above

6) In eukaryotic initiation, one will often see the sequence ACCAUGG as a translational start
sequence. This sequence is known as the ________ sequence.
A) Okazaki
B) ETS (eukaryotic translational start)
C) Kozak
D) IRES (internal ribosome entry sequence)
E) CIBS (complex initiation binding sequence)

7) In a mutant E. coli strain, there was a mutation in the malate dehydrogenase gene that resulted
in a stop codon at amino acid position 14. From subcultures of this strain, a colony was obtained
that was capable of making malate dehydrogenase. Your approach to examining this
phenomenon should be to examine
A) the DNA sequence to see if a reversion has occurred.
B) the DNA sequence to see if a suppresor mutation has occurred.
C) other proteins to see if other stop codons are ignored, indicating the presence of a suppresor
tRNA.
D) the DNA and plasmids for the incorporation of a second complete copy of the malate
dehydrogenase gene.
E) all of the above

8) In studying an E. coli strain containing a known frameshift mutation, you isolate a mutant in
which this frameshift is suppressed. You therefore expect to find which of the following
associated with the suppression? (Assume the frameshift has not been corrected in the coding for
the peptide.)
A) suppressor tRNAs encode an amino acid for a stop signal
B) suppressor tRNAs encode a four-nucleotide anticodon
C) suppressor tRNAs encode a two-nucleotide anticodon
D) both choices B and C
E) all of the above

9) Which of the following codons is associated with the amino acid phenylalanine?
A) AAA
B) UAG
C) AUG
D) AAC
E) UUU
10) Which of the following steps in prokaryotic translation takes place first?
A) aminoacylation of the tRNA molecule
B) joining of 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits into 70S ribsomes
C) binding of mRNA to a ribosome
D) attachment of fMet aminoacyl tRNA
E) catalysis by RNA polymerase

11) Ribosomes are very old structures, found in all organisms (except viruses), from bacteria to
humans. As a result, molecular taxonomists are looking at relationships based upon which rRNA
sequence(s)?
A) 16S
B) 18S
C) 30S
D) both choices A and B
E) all of the above

12) Which of the following statements is not true concerning peptidyl transferase?
A) It is a ribozyme having catalytic activity.
B) It catalyzes peptide bond formation.
C) It moves the ribosome, so translation continues.
D) It is associated with the large subunit of ribosomes.
E) It requires no outside source of additional energy, such as ATP.

13) Which of the following enzymes is associated with the formation of peptide binds?
A) peptidase
B) aminoacyl transferase
C) peptidyl transferase
D) peptide hydrolase
E) inteins

14) Using the techniques of genetic engineering, you design a cytoplasmic protein you want to
accumulate within the ER of yeast cells. To accomplish this goal, you need to
A) do nothing; all proteins go through the ER.
B) incorporate appropriate mannose-6-phosphate groups.
C) incorporate the appropriate DNA sequence(s) to create signal sequences into mature peptide.
D) incorporate radioactive amino acids into the protein.
E) incorporate the appropriate DNA sequence(s) to create signal sequences into the mature
peptide.
15) With regard to translation in prokaryotes, the gene products are often encoded on
polycistronic mRNAs. As a result, the quantities of each of the proteins are often graded, such
that the first gene has a great deal of protein translated, whereas the last gene has very little.
Which of the following features of prokaryotic translation may account for increased production
of some products and decreased production of others?
A) The different messages have sequences with more or less homology to the Shine Delgarno
sequence; fewer ribosomes binding results in less product.
B) Feedback regulation of ribosomes tells the cell that enough product is made, and ribosomes
from such mRNAs dissociate.
C) Because transcription and translation in prokaryotes are essentially coupled, there is no
gradation in the amount of individual proteins made from a polycistronic message.
D) There is no termination sequence at the end of each gene, so one long protein is made,
resulting in equal amounts of products.
E) all of the above

16) Which of the following organelles does not receive proteins synthesized on cytoplasmic
ribosomes by posttranslational import?
A) lysosome
B) nucleus
C) mitochondria
D) peroxisomes
E) chloroplast

17) The appropriate folding of a newly translated protein is essential, and chronic misfolding
often leads to disease, especially in vertebrates. This misfolding, particularly in the case of prion
diseases, may be due to a defect in
A) the enzyme foldase.
B) insertion of proper amino acids during translation.
C) proteosome function.
D) chaperone activity.
E) translocase.

18) Which of the following rRNA molecules is not associated with the large subunit of the
eukaryotic ribosome?
A) 28S
B) 5.8S
C) 5S
D) 16S
E) Neither B nor D is associated.

19) Which of the following is not a prion disease?

A) scrapie
B) tuberculosis
C) mad cow disease
D) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
20) Release factors of translation recognize the codon
A) AUG.
B) GUA.
C) UGA.
D) GGA.
E) UUU.

21) Which of the following activities is not associated with posttranslational processing?
A) glycosylation
B) specific cleavage of polypeptides
C) chaperonin activity
D) addition of lipid groups
E) polyadenylation

22) Ribosomes that do not anchor on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum during
translation most probably
A) are synthesizing cytoplasmic proteins.
B) have a defect in ribosomal proteins that allow attachment to the surface.
C) have a signal peptidase error.
D) do not make the appropriate anchor protein.
E) all of the above

23) AUG is the "start" codon in

A) prokaryotic translation.
B) eukaryotic translation.
C) both prokaryotic and eukaryotic translation.
D) neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic translation.
E) prokaryotic modification.

24) The initial amino acid incorporated into a nascent peptide is N-formylated in
A) eukaryotic translation.
B) prokaryotic transcription.
C) prokaryotic translation.
D) both choices A and C
E) both choices B and C

25) Which of the following requires eIFs for initiation?

A) E. coli translation
B) chaperonin activity
C) eukaryotic translation
D) eukaryotic transcription
E) DNA replication
26) Peptide bond formation is catalyzed by an RNA molecule in
A) prokaryotes.
B) eukaryotes.
C) yeast only.
D) cyanobacteria.
E) both choices A and B

27) Shine–Delgarno sequences are present in mRNAs of

A) prokaryotes.
B) eukaryotes.
C) fungi.
D) algae.
E) mosses.
28) The mRNA is translated in the 3' to 5' direction in
A) prokaryotes.
B) eukaryotes.
C) archaea.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
29) Of the following codons, which encodes a normal translational stop?
A) UUU
B) AUG
C) UAG
D) AAA
E) AGG

30) Polycistronic mRNAs encode

A) one product that it alternatively spliced.
B) more than one protein.
C) a single message.
D) exclusively archaeal proteins.
E) none of the above

31) All of the following are associated with a protein-folding disease except
A) prions.
B) tau protein.
C) amyloid plaques.
D) E-cadherin.
E) apoplipoprotein E.
32) If more than one codon specifies the same amino acid, the code is said to be
A) complementary.
B) inverse.
C) redundant.
D) ambiguous.
E) degenerate.

33) Messenger RNAs containing premature stop codons are destroyed by the mechanism of
A) nonstop decay.
B) directed RNase activity.
C) nonsense-mediated decay.
D) error-mediated repair.
E) none of the above

34) Messenger RNAs that contain no stop codons due to a frameshift mutation are eliminated by
A) nonstop decay.
B) directed RNase activity.
C) nonsense-mediated decay.
D) error-mediated repair.
E) none of the above
35) Which of the following nucleotides in the anticodon can allow for "wobble" in translation?
A) uracil
B) thymine
C) guanine
D) inosine
E) carboxycytosine

36) In the following gene sequence, the original sequence is ABC* DEFGH. It now reads ABC*
DGFEH. The * indicates the centromere. This type of mutation is a(n)
A) nonsense mutation.
B) inversion.
C) translocation.
D) duplication.
E) point mutation.

37) Intramolecular protein splicing results in the formation of the final protein and the
A) protease.
B) proteosome.
C) inteins.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
38) When one portion of a chromosome becomes physically part of another chromosome, the
type of mutation is referred to as a(n)
A) nonsense mutation.
B) inversion.
C) translocation.
D) duplication.
E) nonstop mutation.

39) Segments of polypeptides that are retained following protein splicing are called
A) introns.
B) exons.
C) inteins.
D) exteins.
E) cleaved.

40) The process by which cytosolic polypeptides are transported to a target organelle is via
which of the following?
A) transportin mechanisms
B) posttranslational import
C) cotranslational import
D) the importin protein
E) the activity of ribosomes

Matching Questions

Choose the feature of protein synthesis in column 2 that best matches the statement in column 1.

A) neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic protein synthesis

B) prokaryotic protein synthesis
C) eukaryotic protein synthesis
D) both prokaryotic and eukaryotic protein synthesis

1) AUG is the start codon

2) the initial amino acid is N-formylated
3) requires the presence of eIFs for translational initiation
4) peptide bond formation catalyzed by an RNA molecule
5) presence of Shine–Delgarno sequence
6) mRNA is translated 3' → 5'

Select the activity in column 2 that best matches each factor in column 1.

A) catalyzes formation of peptide bonds

B) UUU
C) contains information in the form of anticodons
D) binds to Pribnow box
E) catalyzes disassembly of the translation complex
F) involved in transcription
G) associated with the binding of mRNA in the ribosome
H) catalyzes disassembly of the transcription complex
I) involved in replication
J) catalyzes translocation of the ribosome
K) binds to Shine–Delgarno sequence
L) catalyzes the formation of amino acid-AMP
M) AUG
N) associated with the binding of tRNA in the ribosome
O) UAG

7) start codon
8) 30S ribosomal subunit
9) tRNA
10) peptidyl transferase
11) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
12) release factor
13) stop codon
14) elongation factor G
15) 16S rRNA
16) RNA polymerase

1) Once an amino acid has been attached to the appropriate tRNA, the tRNA is called a(n)
________, and the amino acid is said to be ________.

2) The sequence of amino acids in a protein is based on the ________ of the mRNA.
3) The anticodon base ________ is able to bind U, C, or A, allowing for wobble in the anticodon
region during translation.
4) The newly arriving tRNA binds in the region of the ribosome known as the ________ site.

5) Typically, the first amino acid incorporated in bacterial protein synthesis is ________.

6) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain no stop codons.

7) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain premature stops.

8) In bacteria, a unique RNA that binds the A site of the ribosome and directs the addition of
approximately 12 amino acids to the nascent peptide when no stop codon is present is called the
________.

9) The ________ allows for flexibility in the codon:anticodon interaction at the third position.

10) The ________ (enzymes) link amino acids with their appropriate tRNAs.

11) The transfer of polypeptides into the ER is called ________ because the movement across
the membrane is coupled with translation.

12) ________ is a rare, intramolecular posttranslational process that allows for self-catalytic
removal of specific amino acid sequences.

13) Within the endoplasmic reticulum, ________ recognizes misfolded or unassembled proteins
and transports them back to the cytosol.

Matching Questions

Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

A) diffusion and passive and active transport

B) both passive and active transport
C) diffusion
D) active transport
E) none of the listed processes
F) both diffusion and passive transport
G) indirect active transport
H) passive transport

1) requires a specific integral membrane protein

2) dependent on solubility properties of the solute
3) requires cellular expenditure of energy
4) Keq = 1
5) Na+/glucose symport
6) Na+/K+ pump
7) exclusively involves the transfer of small, nonpolar molecules
8) applies only to ions
9) ΔG° = 0
10) direction of transport is dependent upon the concentration gradient at any given point in time
11) requires ligand binding and therefore Michaelis constants can be calculated

1) Transmembrane movement of a substance against a concentration gradient is called

________.

2) Transmembrane movement of a substance with a concentration gradient utilizing a membrane

protein is called ________.

3) Transmembrane movement of a substance with a concentration gradient, with no involvement

of membrane proteins, is called ________.
4) The transport of two molecules across the cell membrane in the same direction is called
________.

5) The transport of two molecules across the cell membrane in different directions is called
________.

6) The type of transport ATPase found in bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts are the
________ ATPases.

7) The type of transport ATPase that are reversibly phosphorylated as part of the transport
mechanism are the ________ ATPases.

8) Uptake of food particles by trapping them within an invagination of the plasma membrane is
called ________.

9) A(n) ________ solution is one that contains a solute concentration that is ________ than that
within the cell and results in the "bursting" of the cell.

10) Receptor-mediated endocytosis involves vesicles with a special coat protein known as
________.

11) In the capillaries of the body tissues, CO2 diffuses ________ and is converted to ________.

12) In the capillaries of the lungs, O2 diffuses ________ and is bound to ________.
13) Pores of the outer membrane of bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts that are less specific
and are formed by multipass transmembrane proteins are called ________.
Becker's World of the Cell, 8e (Hardin/Bertoni/Kleinsmith)
Chapter 23 The Regulation of Gene Expression

Multiple Choice Questions

1) In eukaryotes, gene amplification is tolerated well when the amplified gene encodes for RNA
products. However, it is rare or detrimental when the product is a protein. Why would it be
advantageous for the cell to amplify the RNA-producing genes and not the protein-producing
ones?
A) It allows for the manufacture of many RNA molecules when needed in the cell.
B) Proteins are amplified from a single mRNA molecule.
C) More RNA than protein is needed by the cell.
D) RNAs are amplified from a single protein molecule.
E) both choices A and B

2) You are examining an enzyme associated with glycolysis. As such, you would expect
A) the protein to be a hormone.
B) the protein to be induced by glucose.
C) the protein to be constitutively expressed.
D) the protein to be expressed only during development.
E) the protein to be expressed only during mitosis.

3) You are examining an enzyme associated with mannose catabolism. As such, you would
expect the protein to be
A) degraded.
B) a hormone.
C) induced by mannose.
D) expressed only during development.
E) expressed only in neurons.

4) A lac mutant would

A) be constitutive.
B) no longer be induced by the presence of lactose.
C) not have β-galatosidase activity.
D) transport lactose into the cell effectively.
E) metabolize lactose.
5) An E. coli cell with the genotype lac would make which of the following protein products
and in what manner?
A) LacZ, induced
B) LacZ and Lac A, induced
C) LacY, constituitive
D) LacZ, constituitive
E) LacZ and LacA, constituitive
6) The main chromosome of a bacterial cell possesses the following genotype with regard to the
lac operon: I-O+Z+Y-A-. This bacterial cell would
A) make LacZ in the presence of lactose.
B) make LacZ independently of lactose.
C) make LacZ and LacY in the presence of lactose.
D) make LacA in the presence of lactose.
E) make no Lac proteins.

7) Genes associated with embryonic development are known as

A) homologous genes.
B) sigma factors.
C) heterologous genes.
D) hopanoids.
E) homeotic genes.

8) The genetic disorder(s) associated with DNA methylation include

A) Prader-Willi syndrome.
B) Angelman syndrome.
C) some cancers.
D) Huntington's disease.
E) all of the above
9) The observed "puffs" in the polytene chromosomes of Drosophila are sites of
A) attenuation.
B) condensation.
C) induction.
D) transcription.
E) translation.

10) Which of the following processes is associated with the altering of histone proteins in vivo?
A) acetylation
B) alkylation
C) methylation
D) transhydroxylation
E) both choices A and C

11) The situation in which an active regulatory protein "turns on" gene expression is an example
of
A) feedback inhibition.
B) positive control.
C) negative control.
D) constitutive gene elements.
E) a mutation.
12) The situation in which an active regulatory protein "turns off" gene expression is an example
of
A) a mutation.
B) positive control.
C) negative control.
D) constitutive gene elements.
E) unique regulation.
13) The graph below shows a growth curve of E. coli growing in a defined medium containing
equal molar amounts of glucose and lactose.

Figure 23.1

Based on your knowledge of the regulation of the lac operon, the best explanation of these
results is that
A) early on, due to the presence of lactose, the bacteria utilize the lac operon. Glucose is used
later.
B) the bacteria are utilizing both sugars simultaneously.
C) the presence of glucose causes the formation of cAMP catabolic repressor protein (CRP)
complexes, which shut down the lac operon until the glucose is used up.
D) glucose is used first. Once glucose becomes limiting, intracellular cAMP increases, forming
cAMP-CRP complexes that activate the lac operon to use lactose.
E) none of the above

14) Effector molecules

A) are associated with the induction of enzyme synthesis.
B) are associated with the repression of enzyme synthesis.
C) induce conformational changes.
D) are often small organic molecules.
E) all of the above

15) The trp operon in E. coli is regulated in such a manner as to allow expression of the genes
only when cellular levels of tryptophan are low. When tryptophan levels are adequate, the
secondary structure of the mRNA halts translation. This form of regulation is known as
A) attenuation.
B) transcriptional regulation.
C) positive regulatory control.
D) negative regulatory control.
E) repression.

16) Which of the following is an example of translational regulation?

A) protein degradation
B) DNA splicing
C) protein folding
D) mRNA degradation
E) DNA methylation

17) A person with the genotype XXXY would be expected to have how many Barr bodies?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4

18) A male is tested for cellular abnormalities. The technician notes that there are two Barr
bodies present within each of his cells. As a result he has the genotype
A) XY.
B) XO.
C) XXX.
D) XXY.
E) XXXY.

19) A lacOc mutant would

A) never make lac structural genes.
B) be constitutively expressed.
C) bind receptor protein.
D) have repressed expression.
E) be able to be induced by lactose.

20) Sigma (σ) factors can regulate the initiation of transcription. Which of the following is not an
example of σ regulation?
A) Some σ factors recognize promoters for genes whose products are necessary when the
organism is under stress, such as heat shock.
B) Some σ factors recognize genes necessary for nitrogen utilization.
C) Bacteriophages may code for specific σ factors that bind the core RNA polymerase and result
in recognition of viral promoters.
D) There are many σ sigma factors associated with eukaryotic organisms.

21) The expression of thousands of genes simultaneously is easily accomplished using which of
the following techniques?
A) siRNAs
B) Northern blotting
C) microarrays
D) Eastern blotting
E) PAGE analysis
22) Genes that are always "turned on" in a cell are referred to as
A) regulated genes.
B) mutations.
C) inducible.
D) constitutive.
E) catabolic.

23) Genes that are expressed only when needed are

A) unregulated.
B) mutations.
C) inducible.
D) constitutive.
E) anabolic.

24) Of the enzymes associated with the metabolism of lactose with the lac operon, the one
associated with transport of lactose into the cell is
A) β-galactosidase.
B) transacetylase.
C) galactoside permease.
D) β-lactase.
E) lactose translocase.

25) You are working with a gene associated with an essential pathway that is necessary at two
time points in an organism's lifetime. With regard to gene regulation, you would expect the gene
to be
A) not constitutive.
B) associated with response to distinct events.
C) "activated" by particular signals (induced).
D) "turned off" by particular signals (repressed).
E) all of the above

26) Regulation of genes between regulatory transcription factors and the RNA polymerase
complex is mediated by
A) enhancers.
B) silencers.
C) cofactors.
D) coactivators.
E) sigma factors.
27) A certain gene is transformed into a plant cell for potential use as a vaccine delivery system.
Upon performing a Northern blot, a good deal of mRNA for the gene is produced. However, the
protein product for the gene is not observed. One explanation may be that the
A) plant cell recognizes and degrades the protein in the cytoplasm.
B) plant ribosomes are not recognizing the mRNA translational initiation sites.
C) mRNA is not stable in the plant cytoplasm.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

28) Which of the following molecules coordinates the expression of nonadjacent genes?
A) leucine zippers
B) response elements
C) transcription factors
D) coactivators
E) control elements

29) Which of the following does not apply to eukaryotic gene regulation?
A) gene regulation by attenuation
B) regulation as a result of compartmentalization
C) mRNA degradation (turnover)
D) protein degradation (turnover)
E) protein folding

30) Which of the following is not a structural motif associated with transcriptional regulation?
A) combinatorial model
B) helix-turn-helix
C) zinc finger
D) leucine zipper
E) helix-loop-helix

31) You are studying a biochemical pathway. Preliminary results suggest that this pathway is
subject to end-product repression. This pathway is therefore most likely to be a(n) ________
pathway.
A) anabolic
B) catabolic
C) constitutive
D) induced
E) unregulated

32) A transcriptional regulator that decreases transcription of a gene from a vast distance is
known as a(n)
A) enhancer.
B) upstream control element.
C) regulator.
D) nonsense mutation.
E) silencer.
33) Within a genome, an enhancer may be located
A) upstream of the gene enhanced.
B) downstream of the gene enhanced.
C) within the gene enhanced.
D) choices A, B, and C
E) both choices A and B

34) The lac repressor is

A) active when glucose is present.
B) inactive when glucose is present.
C) active when both glucose and lactose are present.
D) induced when cAMP is present.
E) rarely active.

35) In the lac operon, Is mutations allow

A) constitutive expression of Lac proteins.
B) regulated expression of Lac proteins.
C) β-galactosidase activity only.
D) no expression of Lac proteins.
E) none of the above

36) Small molecules that bind directly to mRNAs and effect transcription or translation are
binding to regions of the mRNA known as
A) Shine-Delgarno sequences.
B) the operator region.
C) riboswitches.
D) ribozymes.
E) allosteric sites.

37) Riboswitches have been observed in

A) prokaryotes.
B) eukaryotes.
C) fungi.
D) algae.
E) yeast.

38) DNA rearrangements in vertebrates occur in the

A) glycolysis genes.
B) cell surface protein genes.
C) viral protein genes.
D) antibody genes.
E) none of the above
39) The degradation of mRNA in the cells occurs in clusters known as
A) iRNA sites.
B) sRNA regions.
C) nuceoli.
D) P bodies.
E) N sites.

40) One mechanism that may lead to novel disease treatment involves ________, which hinders
the translation of specific mRNAs.
A) siRNA
B) iRNA
C) P bodies
D) macro-RNAs
E) rRNA

Matching Questions

Choose the function in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

A) GC and CAAT boxes

B) message containing information for a gene
C) multiprotein complex associated with augmentation of transcription of a particular gene
D) transcribed and translated continually in a cell
E) increases frequency of transcription of a particular gene
F) enhancer-associated transcription factors
G) regulatory protein allows transcription
H) message containing information for multiple genes
I) inhibits transcription of a particular gene
J) transcribed and translated at certain times in a cell
K) control expression of other genes essential in development
L) enhancer-associated translation factors
M) regulatory protein prevents transcription

1) activators
2) homeotic genes
3) silencer
4) polygenic mRNA
5) enhancer
6) enhanceosome
7) negative gene control
8) constitutive gene
9) positive gene control
10) proximal control elements

1) In the lactose operon, a P mutant would have a mutation in the ________ region of the operon.
2) Although Dolly the cloned sheep and her nucleus donor are clones, they do not contain the
same ________ DNA.

3) ________ is the term given to the process by which cells delete genes when the gene products
are no longer required, as occurs in mammalian red blood cells.

4) The nucleus of a differentiated cell contains all of the genetic information necessary to direct
the development of an entire organism. This nucleus is therefore said to be ________.

5) In order to activate genes associated with sugar metabolism, the levels of cAMP are ________
in a bacterial cell.

6) Regions of the genome that are inactive often have ________ of C nucleotides.

7) Changes in gene expression that are not the result of changes to the gene itself are known as
________ changes.

8) Inactivated X chromsomes form dark spots in the nucleus known as ________.

9) An individual that is XXY has ________ Barr body(ies) in their cells.

10) Transcriptionally active chromatin has a large content of ________ proteins, nonhistone
proteins associated with chromatin.

11) Groups of operons that are regulated by the same regulatory protein are known as ________.

12) Multiple operons may be controlled by ________ or ________.

13) The ________ experiments use an initial exposure to a radioactive compound in the mRNA
followed by monitoring of the radioactive compound to determine its fate in the cell.