Unit2:

1. Which of the following should be used considering factors shown in the figure ?

a) SimpleDB

b) RDS

c) Amazon EC2

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Use RDS when you have an existing MySQL database that could be ported and you want to
minimize the amount of infrastructure and administrative management required.

2. Point out the wrong statement:

a) Amazon Machine Instances are sized at various levels and rented on a computing/hour basis

b) The metrics obtained by CloudWatch may be used to enable a feature called Auto Scaling

c) A Number of tools are used to support EC2 services

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Through hardware virtualization on Xen hypervisors, Amazon.com has made it possible to
create private virtual servers that you can run worldwide.

3. Which of the following is an edge-storage or content-delivery system that caches data in different
physical locations ?

a) Amazon Relational Database Service

b) Amazon SimpleDB

c) Amazon Cloudfront

d) Amazon Associates Web Services

Answer: c

Explanation: Cloudfront is similar to systems such as Akamai.com, but is proprietary to Amazon.com and
is set up to work with Amazon Simple Storage

System (Amazon S3).

4. Which of the following allows you to create instances of the MySQL database to support your Web
sites ?

a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

b) Amazon Simple Queue Service

c) Amazon Relational Database Service

d) Amazon Simple Storage System

Answer: c

Explanation: RDS provides features such as automated software patching, database backups, and
automated database scaling via an API call.

5. Point out the correct statement:

a) Amazon Elastic Cloud is a system for creating virtual disks(volume)

b) SimpleDB interoperates with both Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3

c) EC3 is an Analytics as a Service provider

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Amazon SimpleDB stores data in “buckets” and without requiring the creation of a
database schema.

6. Which of the following is a structured data store that supports indexing and data queries to both EC2
and S3 ?

a) CloudWatch

b) Amazon SimpleDB

c) Amazon Cloudfront

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: SimpleDB isn’t a full database implementation.

7. Which of the following is the machinery for interacting with Amazon’s vast product data and
eCommerce catalog function ?
a) Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

b) Amazon Associates Web Services

c) Alexa Web Information Service

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: This service, which was called Amazon E-Commerce Service (ECS), is the means for vendors
to add their products to the Amazon.com site

and take orders and payments.

8. Which of the following is a billing and account management service ?

a) Amazon Elastic MapReduce

b) Amazon Mechanical Turk

c) Amazon DevPay

d) Multi-Factor Authentication

Answer: c

Explanation: DevPay provides a developer API that eliminates the need for application developers to
build order pipelines.

9. Which of the following is a means for accessing human researchers or consultants to help solve
problems on a contractual or temporary basis ?

a) Amazon Elastic MapReduce

b) Amazon Mechanical Turk

c) Amazon DevPay

d) Multi-Factor Authentication

Answer: b

Explanation: Problems solved by this human workforce have included object identification, video or
audio recording, data duplication, and data research.

10. Which of the following is built on top of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic Compute Cloud ?

a) Amazon Elastic MapReduce

b) Amazon Mechanical Turk

c) Amazon DevPay

d) Multi-Factor Authentication

Answer: a

Explanation: Amazon Elastic MapReduce is an interactive data analysis tool for performing indexing.

11. Does S3 provide read-after-write consistency?

a. No, not for any region

b. Yes, but only for certain regions

c. Yes, but only for certain regions and for new objects

d. Yes, for all regions

Answer: C.

12.What is the maximum size of a single S3 object?

a. There is no such limit

b. 5 TB

c. 5 GB

d. 100 GB

Answer: B.

13. Is data stored in S3 is always encrypted?

a. Yes, S3 always encrypts data for security

b. No, there is no such feature

c. Yes, but only when right APIs are called

d. Yes, but only in Gov Cloud datacenters

Answer: C.

14. What is true for S3 buckets (select multiple if more than one is true)?

a. Bucket namespace is shared and is global among all AWS users.

b. Bucket names can contain alpha numeric characters

c. Bucket are associated with a region, and all data in a bucket resides in that region

d. All of the above

Answer: D.

15. EBS can always tolerate an Availability Zone failure?

a. No, all EBS volume is stored in a single Availability Zone

b. Yes, EBS volume has multiple copies so it should be fine

c. Depends on how it is setup

d. Depends on the Region where EBS volume is initiated

Answer: A.

16. Which of the following Auto scaling CANNOT do (select multiple if more than one is true)?

a. Increase the instance size when utilization is above threshold

b. Add more Relational Database Service (RDS) read replicas when utilization is above threshold

c. Both A and B

d. Neither A and B

Answer: C.

17. Which of the following benefits does adding Multi-AZ deployment in RDS provide (choose
multiple if more than one is true)?

a. MultiAZ deployed database can tolerate an Availability Zone failure

b. Make database more available during maintenance tasks

c. Both A and B

d. Neither A and B

Answer: C.

18. What happens to data when an EC2 instance terminates (select multiple if more than one is
true)?
a. All of the below

b. For EBS backed AMI, any volume attached other than the OS volume is preserved

c. All the snapshots of the EBS volume with operating system is preserved

d. For S3 backed AMI, all the data in the local (ephemeral) hard drive is deleted

Answer: A.

19. For an EC2 instance launched in a private subnet in VPC, which of the following are the options
for it to be able to connect to the internet (assume security groups have proper ports open).

a. Simply attach an elastic IP

b. If there is also a public subnet in the same VPC, an ENI can be attached to the instance with the
ip address range of the public subnet

c. If there is a public subnet in the same VPC with a NAT instance attached to internet gateway,
then a route can be configured from the instance to the NAT

d. There is no way for an instance in private subnet to talk to the internet

Answer: C.

20. When an ELB is setup, what is the best way to route a website’s traffic to it?

a. Resolve the ELB name to an ip address and point the website to that ip address

b. There is no direct way to do so, Route53 has to be used

c. Generate a CNAME record for the website pointing to the DNS name of the ELB

Answer: C.

21. What does the following command do with respect to the Amazon EC2 security groups?

ec2-create-group CreateSecurityGroup

a. Groups the user created security groups into a new group for easy access.

b. Creates a new security group for use with your account.

c. Creates a new group inside the security group.

d. Creates a new rule inside the security group.

Answer B.
22. You have a distributed application that periodically processes large volumes of data across multiple
Amazon EC2 Instances. The application is designed to recover gracefully from Amazon EC2 instance
failures. You are required to accomplish this task in the most cost effective way.

Which of the following will meet your requirements?

a. Spot Instances

b. Reserved instances

c. Dedicated instances

d. On-Demand instances

Answer: A

23.If I want my instance to run on a single-tenant hardware, which value do I have to set the instance’s
tenancy attribute to?

a. Dedicated

b. Isolated

c. One

d. Reserved

Answer A.

Explanation: The Instance tenancy attribute should be set to Dedicated Instance. The rest of the values
are invalid.

24. When will you incur costs with an Elastic IP address (EIP)?

a. When an EIP is allocated.

b. When it is allocated and associated with a running instance.

c. When it is allocated and associated with a stopped instance.

d. Costs are incurred regardless of whether the EIP is associated with a running instance.

Answer C.

25. Are the Reserved Instances available for Multi-AZ Deployments?

a. Multi-AZ Deployments are only available for Cluster Compute instances types

b. Available for all instance types

c. Only available for M3 instance types

d. Not Available for Reserved Instances

Answer B.

Explanation: Reserved Instances is a pricing model, which is available for all instance types in EC2.

26. You need to configure an Amazon S3 bucket to serve static assets for your public-facing web
application. Which method will ensure that all objects uploaded to the bucket are set to public read?

a. Set permissions on the object to public read during upload.

b. Configure the bucket policy to set all objects to public read.

c. Use AWS Identity and Access Management roles to set the bucket to public read.

d. Amazon S3 objects default to public read, so no action is needed.

Answer B.

Explanation: Rather than making changes to every object, its better to set the policy for the whole
bucket. IAM is used to give more granular permissions, since this is a website, all objects would be public
by default.

27. A customer wants to leverage Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3) and Amazon Glacier as part of
their backup and archive infrastructure. The customer plans to use third-party software to support this
integration. Which approach will limit the access of the third party software to only the Amazon S3
bucket named “company-backup”?

a. A custom bucket policy limited to the Amazon S3 API in three Amazon Glacier archive “company-
backup”

b. A custom bucket policy limited to the Amazon S3 API in “company-backup”

c. A custom IAM user policy limited to the Amazon S3 API for the Amazon Glacier archive “company-
backup”.

d. A custom IAM user policy limited to the Amazon S3 API in “company-backup”.

Answer D.

Explanation: Taking queue from the previous questions, this use case involves more granular
permissions, hence IAM would be used here.

28. A customer implemented AWS Storage Gateway with a gateway-cached volume at their main office.
An event takes the link between the main and branch office offline. Which methods will enable the
branch office to access their data?
a. Restore by implementing a lifecycle policy on the Amazon S3 bucket.

b. Make an Amazon Glacier Restore API call to load the files into another Amazon S3 bucket within four
to six hours.

c. Launch a new AWS Storage Gateway instance AMI in Amazon EC2, and restore from a gateway
snapshot.

d. Create an Amazon EBS volume from a gateway snapshot, and mount it to an Amazon EC2 instance.

Answer C.

29. When you need to move data over long distances using the internet, for instance across countries or
continents to your Amazon S3 bucket, which method or service will you use?

a. Amazon Glacier

b. Amazon CloudFront

c. Amazon Transfer Acceleration

d. Amazon Snowball

Answer C.

30. If you want to launch Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances and assign each instance a
predetermined private IP address you should:

a. Launch the instance from a private Amazon Machine Image (AMI).

b. Assign a group of sequential Elastic IP address to the instances.

c. Launch the instances in the Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC).

d. Launch the instances in a Placement Group.

Answer C.

Unit3:

31. _________ model consists of the particular types of services that you can access on a cloud
computing platform.

a) Service

b) Deployment

c) Application
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: Service models describe the type of service that the service provider is offering.

32. Point out the correct statement :

a) The use of the word “cloud” makes reference to the two essential concepts

b) Cloud computing abstracts systems by pooling and sharing resources

c) cloud computing is nothing more than the Internet

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Abstraction and Virtualization are the two essential concepts.

33. ________ refers to the location and management of the cloud’s infrastructure.

a) Service

b) Deployment

c) Application

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: The deployment model tells you where the cloud is located and for what purpose.

34. Which of the following is deployment model ?

a) public

b) private

c) hybrid

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Public, private, community, and hybrid clouds are deployment models.

35. Point out the wrong statement :

a) Cloud Computing has two distinct sets of models

b) Amazon has built a worldwide network of datacenters to service its search engine

c) Azure enables .NET Framework applications to run over the Internet

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: Google has built mega data centres for its search engine.

36. Which of the following is best known service model ?

a) SaaS

b) IaaS

c) PaaS

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: The best-known service models are Software as a Service, Platform as a Service, and
Infrastructure as a Service—the SPI model.

37. The __________ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization to pool resources.

a) NEFT

b) NIST

c) NIT

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b

Explanation: NIST stands for National Institute of Standards and Technology.

38. _______ model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four dimensional factors.

a) Cloud Square

b) Cloud Service

c) Cloud Cube

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: Cloud Cube model is mainly used for secure collaboration.

39. How many types of dimensions exists in Cloud Cube Model ?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Answer: d

Explanation: There are four types of dimensions in Cloud Cube.

40. Which of the following dimension is related to organization’s boundaries ?

a) Physical location of data

b) Ownership

c) Security boundary

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

Explanation: Internal (I) / External (E) determines your organization’s boundaries.