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CP/16/C5

MOCK CLAT-5
SECTION I-ENGLISH
Directions (1-10):Read the following statements and mark the incorrect part as your answer. If
no error then mark D.
1. The announcement that the human resource development ministry [A] is organization a seminar to
find out [B] when Vedas were written can only inspire awe. [C] No error. [D]

2. There are grounds [A] to suspect that this is the agenda [B] by the seminar that has been proposed.
[C] No error. [D]

3. The heavy hand of [A] the government is the [B] worst of curse on scholarship.[C] No error. [D]

4. Applying for a visa from one of the [A] Western first world countries [B] has always been a
fraught business for ordinary Indian travellers. [C] No error. [D]

5. After a couple of hours, the system sluggishly starts up again [A] and the piranha business of
nibbling away [B] at your wallet continues apace. [C] No error. [D]

6. The security guards on the entrance [A] smile at you unctuously but you know that [B] they know
what will happen to you upstairs. [C] No error. [D]

7. Since the Rig Veda straddles two different traditions, [A] and since the Vedas were originally and
for many years after that spoken, [B] heard and memorized, dating them is not easy. [C] No error.
[D]

8. There are those who start on the basis [A] that a person can be trusted [B] unless shown to be
otherwise, [C] and those who start with scepticism [D]

9. Like most urban children, [A] I went in a phase [B] when stamp collecting was my hobby, my
passion. [C] No error. [D]

10. He must have something in him, [A] at the very least, a sharp brain, to make him so valuable to
the PM, [B] so essential to his office. [C] No error. [D]
Directions(11-15):Arrange the given statements to form coherent passages.
11. A. Be exempt from dues and taxes on the emoluments they receive by reasonof their
employment.
B. However, the receiving State must exercise its jurisdiction over those persons in such a manner as
not to interfere unduly with the performance of the functions of the mission.
C. In other respects, they may enjoy privileges and immunities only to the extent admitted by the
receiving State.
D. Private servants of members of the mission shall, if they are not nationals of or permanently
resident in the receiving State,
A. ABCD B. DACB C. DABC D. BDAC

12. A. Over the years, our country has been widely known and praised for its customs, traditions and
rich family values.

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B. With the mark of modernization, globalization, and industrialization, there has emerged the
convention living style which focuses more on standard living rather than satisfactory living.
C. Understanding the societal norms, and inculcating the basic family values which help us in our
existence.
D. Senior citizens of the society have always been an integral part of our society which has helped us
in building our morals,
A. ABCD B. BADC C. DCBA D. BDCA
13. A. Historically, joint families were more prevalent in the society which ensured adequate care
and support for the elderly.
B. However, in today's scenario more and more nuclear families are increasing
C. Which is now resulting in lack of assistance to the elderly which forces them to live in isolation.
D. This trend of nuclear families is gaining impetus with increase in life expectancy and also the
obligation on the successors for the maintenance of the elders is wearing day by day.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CDBA D. DCBA

14. A. The reasons for these societal changes are that the elder citizens are facing various privations
B. Pressure and physical threats for property and financial gain from children, relatives and other
unsocial elements.
C. And becoming more prone and easy targets to criminal abuse since they are more vulnerable to
exploitation,
D. There are a lot of changes which have emerged in the social fabric of today‘s society.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. DACB D. ADCB

15. A. More powerful ceramic brakes are also available as another option and improvements have
been done to the gear box too for swift actions.
B. The brakes have also been worked out with front discs of 390mm and of 360mm at the rear.
C. Also to provide maximum footing a mechanical locking rear differential has been added.
D. To keep the machine running rapidly and smoothly on the road, the model has been attributed
with adjustable dampers and customized steering set up.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CDAB D. DCBA

Directions(16-19): Identify the meanings of the given Foreign words:

16. Ad absurdum
A) reckless B) Clever
C) foolish D) to the point of absurdity

17. Ambiguitaslatents
A) ambiguity not clear on the surface B) My blame is to be shifted
C) juvenile D) Mortal enemy

18. Nom de plume


A) false name B) real name
C) pen name D) multiple names

19. Ipso facto


A) Quickly B) by the fact itself
C) delayed D) With charge
Directions(20-24): Identify the antonyms of the given words:

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20. PERFIDY
A. stubborn B. lazy
C. fidelity D. wise
21. paramour
A.bete noire B. friend
C. foul D. indecency
22. kaput
A. treacherous B. empty
C.working D. stale
23. counterfeit
A.genuine B. false
C. copy D. demeanor
24. quisling
A. nationalist B. judas
C. opaque D. turncoat

Directions(25-29): Fill in the blanks with appropriate choices:


25. When he persisted in playing fast and loose, I reproached him ______dishonesty.
A. for B. with C. at D. to

26. The enmity of Daryudhan ________ Pandavas was long lasting.


A. for B. with C. to D. none of these

27. The stamp did not stick ______ the envelope because there was no gum on it.
A. on B. to C. by D. no word required

28. Though thin clothes are suitable ______ summer, yet your dress is not suitable ______ the
occasion.
A. for, for B. to, to C. for, to D. to, for

29. The red-coloured sky-scraper stood out______ relief against the blue sky.
A. at B. to C. through D. in
Directions(30-36):Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Scott Kelly, a NASA astronaut, is the first American to make a one-year trip to space. He arrived at
the International Space Station Friday with two Russians, Mikhail Kornienko, who will also remain
in space for a year, and Gennady Padalka, who will stay for only six months but is on track to break
the record for the most cumulative time a human has spent in space — nearly two and a half years.
A Soyuz capsule carrying three astronauts docked at the International Space Station at 9:36 p.m.
Eastern time, less than six hours after it left the Baikonur Commodore in Kazakhstan. Just a few
years ago, that was a trip that took two days, or 34 orbits, before the Soyuz capsule could catch up
with the space station.It is now quicker to go from Earth to the space station than it is to fly from
New York to London. Maybe less cramped than the economy seats, too.
Since the first component of the International Space Station was launched in 1998, most Soyuz and
Space Shuttle missions have docked at the station. (Both programs existed before the I.S.S., but the
chart shows only missions that went to the station. The rate of Soyuz launches doubled in 2009,
when the station‘s crew increased from three to six people. Typically two Soyuz capsules are docked

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to the station to evacuate the crew in an emergency.Unmanned Progress spacecraft, which resemble
the Soyuz, are used to resupply the station. The craft are not reusable, and burn up on re-entry.
NASA has financed 10 research proposals to compare the health of Scott Kelly on the space station
and Mark Kelly, his twin brother, on Earth. One of the proposals was developed by Christopher
Mason, a geneticist at Weill Cornell Medical College.Right here in N.Y.C., in the freezers of my
laboratory, are the DNA and RNA for the Kelly twins. I‘m using these genetic elements to look at
what happens to the genetic code of the astronauts (genome), how the DNA is regulated over time
(epigenome), how the DNA becomes active in response to space travel (RNA activity) and how
those RNAs get modified as well (epitranscriptome).
My team will look for genes that change in response to suborbital flight and zero gravity, including
alterations to sleep genes (circadian rhythm), stress-response genes, and cellular activity and
regulation genes.
I will also be looking for potentially novel genes that are specific to the human body‘s response to
spaceflight, and how these change over the one-year mission. I will also get some DNA and RNA
from tubes collected on the space station.
If you were an astronaut spending a year away from loved ones and highways and parks and Dunkin‘
Donuts, you might feel a million miles removed from it all. But the International Space Station orbits
at an average distance of about 250 miles above Earth — in fact, it should take only about six hours
for Mr. Kelly, Mr. Padalka and Mr. Kornienko to reach the station.That is less time than it would
take you to travel from Washington to Boston on Amtrak, or from New York to London on a
commercial jet. You could spend just as much time flying from Los Angeles to Honolulu. Or you
could take a long nap on the New York city subway, riding the A train from end to end three times,
covering a bit more than 90 miles.

30. Who are the first people to go on a space trip?


A. Scott Kelly from America,Mikhail Kornienko from America and Gennady Padalka from Russia.
B. Scott Kelly from Russia,Mikhail Kornienko from America and Gennady Padalka from Russia.
C. Scott Kelly from America,Mikhail Kornienko from Russia and Gennady Padalka from America.
D. Scott Kelly from America,Mikhail Kornienko from Russia and Gennady Padalka from Russia.

31. Which of the following is a feature of the craft?


A. Reusable B. Inflammable
C. High tensile strength D. All of the above

32. What is the name of Scott‘s twin?


A. Chris B. Christopher
C. Mark D. Cornell

33. Which of the following will not be researched by the team?


A. response of genes to suborbital flight B. response of genes to zero gravity
C. response of genes to high pressure conditions D. None of the above

34. What is the distance of the space station from the earth?
A. 150 miles B. 150 kms
C. 250 miles D. 250 kms

35. Where was the space craft launched from?


A. New York B. London
C. Honolulu D. Baikonur Commodore

36. How much time does it take to reach the space station?

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A. 4 hours B. 5 hours
C. 6 hours D. Not mentioned

Directions(37-39):Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
SAFTA was envisaged primarily as the first step towards the transition to a South Asian Free Trade
Area (SAFTA) leading subsequently towards a Customs Union, Common Market and Economic
Union. In 1995, the Sixteenth session of the Council of Ministers (New Delhi, 18–19 December
1995) agreed on the need to strive for the realisation of SAFTA and to this end an Inter-
Governmental Expert Group (IGEG) was set up in 1996 to identify the necessary steps for
progressing to a free trade area. The Tenth SAARC Summit (Colombo, 29–31 July 1998) decided to
set up a Committee of Experts (COE) to draft a comprehensive treaty framework for creating a free
trade area within the region, taking into consideration the asymmetries in development within the
region and bearing in mind the need to fix realistic and achievable targets. The SAFTA Agreement
was signed on 6 January 2004 during Twelfth SAARC Summit held in Islamabad, Pakistan. The
Agreement entered into force on 1 January 2006, and the Trade LiberalisationProgramme
commenced from 1 July 2006.

37. Which of the following set up a Committee of Experts?


A. 16th session of council of ministers
B. 10th SAFTA summit
C. 10th SAARC summit
D. None of the above

38. When was the SAFTA Agreement signed?


A. 10th SAARC summit
B. 12th SAARC summit
C. 16th SAARC summit
D. None of the above

39. When did Trade Liberalisation Programme commenced?


A. 1st Jan 2006
B. 1st July 2006
C. 18th December 1996
D. 29th July 1998

40. Termagant: shrew::Bourgeoisie:


A. Philanthrope B. Human being C. Middle class D. Haute monde

SECTION II-GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. Who became the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Special Olympics World Games-2015 in Los
Angeles?
A. Ranveer Singh Saini B. Pradeep Verma
C. Mangal Singh Champia D. None of these

42. Heavy metals got their name because compared to other atoms they have
A. Higher densities B. Higher atomic numbers
C. Higher atomic radii D. Higher atomic masses

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43. Volcanic Mountain St. Helen is located in-


A. Malaysia B. Indonesia
C. Australia D. USA

44. Fascism believes in the application of the principle of:


A. Totalitarianism B. Dictatorship
C. Democracy D. Utilitarianism

45. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystem in the order of decreasing productivity?
A. Mangroves, grassland, lakes, oceans
B. Mangroves, oceans, grassland, lakes
C. Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grassland
D. Oceans, lakes, grassland, mangroves

46. Om Prakash Rawat has been appointed as...


A. Governor of Himachal Pradesh B. Director General of CSIR
C. Air India CMD D. Election Commissioner of India

47. Liberalism stands for


A. A movement & an attitude
B. Freedom in social, political and economic aspects
C. Self emancipation
D. Religious orthodoxy

48. For a missile launched with a velocity less than the earth‘s escape velocity, the total energy is
A. Zero B. Negative
C. Either positive or negative D. Positive

49. The Ramanujan Prize for 2015 has been won by whom?
A. Dr. Amalendu Krishna B. Anthony Sadler
C. Zaina Erhaim D. Liu Cixin

50. Spring tides occur on


A. Full moon day as well as on new moon day
B. New moon day only
C. The day when the moon‘s position is in its first
D. Full moon day only

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51. Raga Kameshwari was composed by


A. Pandit Ravi Sankar B. Uday Shankar
C. Ustad Amzad Ali Khan D. None of the options

52. Which university has signed a MoU recently with the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
for establishing a centre for Excellence in disaster Research and Resilience Building at the varsity?
A. BHU B. AMU
C. JNU D. IGNOU

53. Photo chemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among


A. CO, O2 and peroxy acetyl nitrate in the presence of Sunlight
B. CO, CO2, and NO2 at low temperature
C. High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
D. NO2, O3 and peroxy acetyl nitrate in the presence of Sunlight

54. Which of the following is mismatched?


A. Shipki La- Himachal Pradesh B. Thaga La- Uttarakhand
C. Jelep La – Sikkim D. Nathu La- Jammu & Kashmir

55. In the grass lands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
A. Limited sun light and paucity of nutrients
B. Water limits and fire
C. Insects and fungi
D. None of the options

56. The ninth edition of the biennial defence trade exhibition Defexpo India 2016, will take place in which
city?
A. Betul, Goa B. Bengaluru, Karnataka
C. Guwahati, Assam D. Jodhpur, Rajasthan

57. The Women‘s Reservation Bill seeks how much reservation for women in the State assemblies and Lok
Sabha?
A. 33% B. 25 %
C. 36 % D. 30%

58. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? Select the
correct answer using the code given below
1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde

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5. Uranium
A. 1,2,3,4 and 5 B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 1, 3 and 5

59. In which country, the world‘s first double-hand transplant on a child has been successfully carried out in
an eight-year old boy?
A. France B. Australia
C. UK D. USA

60. Mahatma Gandhi began his political activities in India first from:
A. Kheda B. Sabarmati
C. Dandi D. Champaran

61. The business in Stock Markets and other securities markets is regulated by:
A. Sole Trade and Exchange Bank of India
B. State and Exchange Bank of India
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. Stock and Exchange Bank of India

62. Which country has become the Associate member of the European Organisation for Nuclear research
(CERN) making it the first non-European country to achieve the status?
A. Indonesia B. Singapore
C. Pakistan D. Malaysia

63. The ore of Aluminum is


A. Chalco pyrites B. Bauxite
C. Fluorspar D. Hematite

64. Which of the following costs is related to marginal cost?


A. Variable Cost B. Fixed Cost
C. Implicit Cost D. Prime Cost

65. As per the survey conducted by the Economist Intelligence Unit, which is the most livable city in the
world?
A. Melbourne B. Toronto
C. Adelaide D. Vancouver

66. The Battle of Plassey was fought in year


A. 1576 B. 1757

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C. 1761 D. 1775

67. Which was the first hydel power project in India?


A. Siva Samudram in Karnataka B. Palli Vasal in Kerala
C. Paikara in Tamil Nadu D. Nizamnagar in Andhra Pradesh

68. On August 3, 2015 centre signed a peace accord with one of the largest insurgent outfits of...
A. Nagaland B. Mizoram
C. Assam D. Jammu & Kashmir

69. ―Don‘t Laugh: We are Police‖, This book was compiled by:
A. Shanti Swaroop I.G. Police B. Bishan Lal Vohra I.G.P.
C. K.P.S. Gill D.G.P. D. None of the options

70. The earth completes one rotation on its axis in:


A. 23 hrs. 30 min. B. 23 hrs 10 min
C. 24 hrs. D. 23 hrs. 56 min. 4.9 sec

71. Recently, government cleared a 10 per cent stake sale in which company?
A. ONGC B. OIL
C. Coal India Ltd D. MTNL

72. Indian first talkie film produced in 1931 was


A. Indra Sabha B. Shakuntala
C. Neel Kamal D. Alamara

73. 26 January 1930 was declared as which Day, although the British would remain in India for 17 more years
A. Purna Swaraj Diwas B. Republic Day
C. Secular day D. None

74. Who discovered the first antibiotic?


A. W. Fleming B. Louis Pastour
C. C. Waksman D. A. Fleming

75. Which country approved anti-terrorism law recently?


A. UK B. Thailand
C. Egypt D. North Korea

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76. The oldest form of composition of Hindustani Vocal music is


A. Thumri B. Ghazal
C. Dhrupad D. None of the options

77. Cyanide poisoning causes death in seconds because


A. It causes cardiac arrest
B. It denatures enzymes of the heart/muscle
C. It causes Lysis of red blood cells
D. It breaks the electron transport chain

78. Recently, Centre notified some districts of Bihar as backward areas. The number of districts notified is...
A. 15 B. 25
C. 21 D. 32

79. State Bank of India was previously know as:


A. Imperial Bank of India B. Syndicate Bank
C. Hindustan Bank of India D. Royal Bank of India

80. The Environment (Protection) Bill was passed by the Parliament of India in-
A. 1981 B. 1984
C. 1986 D. 1972

81. In August 2015, which state brought a new legislation that eases land acquisition rules for people not
engaged in agriculture?
A. West Bengal B. Karnataka
C. Bihar D. Maharashtra

82. The classical Dance of Andhra Pradesh is


A. Kathakali B. Bharatnatyam
C. Kuchipudi D. Odissi

83. Which of the following Presidents of India used the pocket veto?
A. Rajendra Pradesh B. Zail singh
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy D. Shankar Dayal Sharma

84. Earthquakes are caused by


A. Tectonism B. Earth revolution
C. Earth rotation D. Denudation

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85. The Mediterranean region are characterized by heavy rain in


A. Summer B. Autumn
C. Spring D. Winter

86. No-confidence motion is brought against-


A. The council of Ministers, minister and the Prime Minister
B. President of India
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Union cabinet

87. ―Nai Manzil‖ Scheme is associated with


A. Women Empowerment B. Child Education
C. Poverty and Human Trafficking D. Education for Minorities

88. What is ordinary Law?


A. Laws made by the Supreme Court
B. Laws made by the High Court
C. Laws made and enforced by the Government
D. Laws made by the common people

89. Who is considered founder of the Gupta Empire?


A. Sri Gupta B. Ram Gupta
C. Samudra Gupta D. Chandra Gupta I

90. Who amongst the following Englishmen first translated Bhagavad Gita in to English?
A. William Jones B. Charles Wilkins
C. Alexander Cunningham D. John Marshall

SECTION III-NUMERIC ABILITY

91. A certain fraction is equivalent to 2/5. If the numerator of the fraction is increased by 4 and
the denominator is doubled, the new fraction is equivalent to 1/3. What is the sum of
numerator and denominator of the original fraction?
A. 21 b) 23 c) 28 d) 26

92. The population of city X increased from 55,000 in 1900 to 60,000 in 2010 and it is projected
that the population will increase by the same number from 2010 to 2030. Approximately,
what is the projected percent increase in population from 2010 to 2030?
A. 7.1% b) 11.7% c) 10.3% d) 8.33%

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93. Of the CLAT books in a certain library, 40 are on Maths, 30 are on G.K, 25 are on Legal, 40
are on Reasoning and 55 are on English. If CLAT books are removed randomly from the
library, how many must be removed to ensure that 20 of the books removed are on the same
subject?
A. 20 b) 106 c) 96 d) 85

94. In how many different ways, letters of the word POWERFUL be arranged such that all
vowels are together?
A. 360 b) 4320 c) 1440 d) 2160

95. On a certain test, 3 students each had a score of 90, 9 students each had a score of 80, 4
students each had a score of 70, and 4 students each had a score of 60. What was the average
score for the 20 students?
A. 70.5 b) 75.0 c) 75.5 d) 80.0

Directions for Questions (96 – 100): Study the following tables carefully and answer the
questions given below.

Table 1: The table below gives percentage breakup of various professionals in Lucknow city
after surveying 42000 people.
Doctors Lawyers Teachers Architect Designers
21 19 15 11 34

Table 2: The table below gives percentage of females in amongst the various professionals
listed above.

Doctors Lawyers Teachers Architect Designers


20 40 80 40 50

96. What is the ratio of the number of Architects to the number of Teachers in the town?
A. 11 : 15 b) 3 : 2 c) 15 : 11 d) 1 : 17

97. What is the number of female teachers in town?


A. 6300 b) 5040 c) 5540 d) 6105

98. What is the difference between the total number of male doctors and female designers in the
city?
A. 86 b) 84 c) 90 d) 88

99. The total number of teachers in town is approximately what percent of doctors in the city?
A. 84% b) 74% c) 71% d) 77%

100. What is the ratio of total number of female architects to female Designers in city?
A. 11 : 85 b) 5 : 53 c) 25 : 87 d) 22 : 85

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101. The perimeter of a square is equal to the radius of a circle having area 39424 sq cm, what is
the area of square?
A. 1225 sq cm b) 441 sq cm c) 784 sq cm d) None of these

Directions for questions 102 and 103: Study the following information carefully to answer
the questions that follow—
A committee of four members is to be formed out of 4 Males, 5 Females and 3 Children. In how
many different ways can it be done if

102. The committee should consist of 2 Males, 1 Females and 1 child?


A. 90 b) 80 c) 56 d) None of these

103. The committee should include all the 3 children?


A. 90 b) 9 c) 56 d) 18

104. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two digit number is lesser than the
original number by 54. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 12, then what is the
original number?
A. 48 b) 39 c) 84 d) 93

105. At present Sita is eight times her daughter‘s age. Eight years from now, the ratio of the ages
of Sita and her daughter will be 10: 3 respectively. What is Sita‘s present age?
A. 32 years b) 40 years c) 36 years d) None of these

106. In how many different ways can 3 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all the
boys stand together and all the girls stand together?
A. 36 b) 76 c) 72 d) 24

107. If each of the three non-zero numbers abc is divisible by 3, then abc must be divisible by
which one of the following the numbers?
A. 8 b) 81 c) 27 d) 122

108. If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the HCF and LCM of these numbers are 5 and 120
respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
A 55/601 b) 601/55 c) 11/120 d) 120/11

109. A family consists of two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren. The average
age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the
grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
A. 28 4/7 years b) 31 5/7 years c) 32 1/7 years d) None of these

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110. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day. If the
average displacement of water by a man is 4 cubic metre, then the rise in the water level in
the tank will be:
A. 20 cm b) 25 cm c) 35 cm d) 50 cm

SECTION IV-LEGAL APTITUDE


111.Principle: Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that
person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to wrongfully confine
that person.

Facts: Kunal tells Elizabeth that he will shoot her if she tries to come out of her house. He
kept a few men with sharp weapons outside her house.
a) Kunal is guilty of false imprisonment

b) Kunal is guilty of wrongful confinement

c) Kunal is guilty of wrongful restraint

d) Kunal is not guilty at all.

112.Principle: Attempt to murder is punishable but mere preparation is not an offence.

Facts: Mukesh instead of mixing poison in Shyam‘s milk with the intention of killing him,
mixes sugar. Has Mukesh committed any offence?
a) He is liable for attempt to murder.

b) He is liable because he had the intention to kill.

c) He is not liable because there was no attempt to murder

d) Both a & b

113.Principle: Every member of unlawful assembly is guilty of offense committed in


prosecution of common object.

Facts: Satish with six other people went to a nearby locality to beat a few people. Satish got
injured in the fight and his friends seeking revenge for his injury killed a person of the
opponent party.
a) Satish and six other people are liable for murder.

b) Satish is not liable for murder

c) No one is liable for murder as it was unintentional

d) Satish and six others are liable for culpable homicide.

114.Principle: Whoever dishonestly misappropriates any moveable property to his own use
commits an offense.

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Facts: Gaurav finds a gold chain on the floor in a party. He sells it off to jeweler.
a) Gaurav has committed theft

b) Gaurav is not guilty of criminal misappropriation

c) Gaurav is guilty of criminal misappropriation

d) Gaurav has not committed theft.

115.Principle: Willful rash driving is an offence.

Facts: Rahul was under heavy influence of cannabis, when he was driving his Ferrari in the
dead of the night. The police booked him for willful rash driving. Is the act of the police
lawful?
a) No, because he was not being negligent
b) Yes, because he was under heavy influence of cannabis.
c) No, because he was not driving rashly. Rahul was just under the influence of cannabis.
d) Yes, because it is considered to be rash driving when the driver is under heavy influence
of cannabis.

116.Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain or not capable of being made
certain is void.

Facts: A sheep was bought for a certain price, along with a promise to pay 200$ more, if the
sheep brings luck.
a) The agreement is voidable at the option of the buyer.

b) The agreement is partially valid and partially void.

c) The agreement is void due to uncertainty.

d) The agreement is valid.

117. Principle: A person commits cheating, when he fraudulently induces another person to
deliver the latter's property to him.

Fact: Aditi, falsely represented to Barkha , a shop-owner that she was an officer from the Sales
Tax Department. In the course of going through the vouchers, Aditi expressed his interest to
buy, a costly television on installment basis. Barkha readily agreed hoping that she would get a
favorable assessment from Barkha regarding her tax liability. Aditi paid the first installment and
took the T.V. and disappeared. The police somehow managed to arrest her and sought to
prosecute him for cheating.

a) Aditi committed cheating, because she induced Barkha to part with the T.V., posing herself
as a sales-tax officer;
b) Aditi committed cheating, because she did not pay the subsequent installment;

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c) Aditi did not commit cheating, because Barkha handed over the T.V. to her order to get
favorable assessment.
d) None of the above

118. Principle: Damnum sine injuria- cause of injury without legal wrong.

Facts: Raju drained away percolating water from Shyam‘s land while operating in mines on
his own land. Shyam sues Raju for causing legal wrong. Decide.

a. Raju has committed legal wrong because he has caused injury to Shyam
b. Raju has committed legal wrong by reducing the water supply.
c. Raju has not committed legal wrong because he has acted within the confines of his rights.
d. Raju has not committed legal wrong because Shyam has not suffered any injury.

119. Principle: Any person who authorizes another to act on his behalf is said to have acted by
himself.

Facts: Roy is a proud owner of a Ferrari F40. Roy had to go out of town due to some
emergency. In the mean time, his elder sister Mira took the car out for a drive without
Roy‘s permission. While so driving, she met with an accident and injured Lana, a
pedestrian. Who is liable?

a) Roy is liable since he is the owner of the car.


b) Roy and Mira are both liable since she acted on behalf of her brother.
c) Mira is liable since she was not acting on behalf of her brother.
d) None of them are liable since the accident was not intentional.

120. Principle: A false, defamatory statement published by the defendant results in defamation.

Facts: Rohit sent an audio CD to Ajay containing false defamatory statements against Ajay. Since
Ajay was deaf, which was not known to Rohit, he asked Ram to hear the CD and convey the
message to Ajay. On finding out the contents, Ajay sued Rohit for defamation.

a) Rohit is not guilty of defamation since he did not publish the message.
b) Rohit is not guilty of defamation since he meant no harm to Ajay.
c) Rohit is guilty of defamation since his message got published.
d) Rohit is guilty of defamation since his statement was false.

121. Principle: A person commits an assault when he acts either intending to cause a harmful or
offensive contact with another or intending to cause another imminent apprehension of such
contact and when such imminent apprehension results.

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Facts: Harry runs angrily towards Ron with a balloon in his hand. Ron looks at Harry and gets
extremely scared that Harry might hurt him with the balloon, so he shoots Harry with his gun
terribly injuring him. Ron then sues Harry for assault. Will he succeed?
a) Ron will succeed because he had an apprehension that he would get injured.
b) Ron will not succeed because there was no imminent threat.
c) Ron will succeed, because running angrily towards someone is a threatening gesture.
d) Ron will not succeed because he shot Harry.

122. Principle: A person commits a battery when he acts either intending to cause a harmful or
offensive contact with another or intending to cause another imminent apprehension of such
contact and when such contact results.

Facts: Hermione has always hated Frodo. She decides to throw a duster at him to teach him a
lesson. She throws the duster at him, but he ducks and it hits Ron instead. Ron sues Hermione for
battery. Decide.
a) Ron will fail because Hermione did not intend to hurt him.
b) Ron will succeed because intention does not matter here.
c) Ron will fail because he did not apprehend the attack.
d) None of the above.

123. Principle: A person commits false imprisonment when he acts intending to confine another
and when confinement actually results that the confinee is either aware of or damaged by.

Facts: Sita and Gita are good friends. One day while playing outside, Sita faints due to
dehydration. Gita gets worried when she sees her, so she locks her up in a room while she is
unconscious, so that she can fetch the doctor. Meanwhile, as Sita lies unconscious, the rats in the
room bite Sita which results in her falling sick. When Sita is finally set free, she sues Gita for false
imprisonment. Decide.
a) Sita will fail, because she did not know she was being imprisoned.
b) Sita will succeed because she was bit by rats.
c) Sita will succeed because knowing whether she was confined or not is immaterial.
d) Sita will fail because Gita was trying to help her, she had no intention of confining her
against her wishes.

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124. Principle: A person commits trespass to land when he wrongfully and intentionally enters, or
causes a thing or third person to enter, land owned or occupied by another.

Facts: Xiomee hates his neighbor Yash, and to teach him a lesson decides to throw all his garbage
in Yash‘s house. When he does this, Yash sues him for trespass. Xiomee refutes it by saying that
he never entered his house. Decide.
a) Yash will fail because trespass happens when a person enters another‘s property.
b) Yash will succeed because the throwing of a thing also amounts to trespass.
c) Yash will fail because trespass requires proof of intention and intention is intangible.
d) Yash will succeed because law comes to the rescue of the injured party.

125. Principle: No liability in cases of Negligence, when the harm is not foreseeable.

Facts: Mrs. Singh has a balcony garden. She has placed the potted plants at the edge of the
balcony. One day, during a terrible storm, the railing breaks and one of the potted plants fall on Mr.
C‘s head as he‘s passing by her balcony. He sues for negligence. Decide.
a) C will succeed since Mrs. Singh owed him a duty of care which was breached.
b) C will succeed because harm was caused by her negligence.
c) C will fail because this was not reasonably foreseeable.
d) C will fail because this was an Act of God.

126. Principle: In the cases of ‗parliamentary proceedings‘, ‗Judicial proceedings‘ and state
communications no action shall lie for the defamatory statement even though the statement is
false.

Facts: Ramlal, a magistrate in making a report to his superior officer castes an imputation on
the character of Chunnilal in good faith and for public good. The most appropriate defense
applicable in a suit brought by Chunnilal is
a) Justification
b) Fair Comment
c) Qualified privilege
d) Absolute privilege

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127. Principle: When two or more persons without lawful justification, combine for the purpose
of causing damage to the plaintiff, and actual damage results thereform, they commit the tort
of conspiracy.
Facts: Between Ram and Sita and a third person Rawan the tort of conspiracy is committed
when:
a) Ram willfully causes damage to Sita
b) Ram and Sita try to cause damage to Rawan but no damage is done to Rawan.
c) Ram and Sita willfully cause damage to Rawan and actual damage results.
d) Ram and Sita plan to cause damage to Rawan.

128. Suresh, a public officer is authorized by a Court of Justice to apprehend Ramu. Shyam,
knowing that fact and also that Shambhu is not Ramu, willfully represents to Suresh that
Shambhu is Ramu, and thereby intentionally causes Suresh to apprehend Shambhu.
Determine the offence of Shyam.
a) Abetment
b) Perjury
c) Criminal Misappropriation
d) All of the above

129. Principle: A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the
commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of
committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

Facts: Aman instigates his six year old daughter Savita to take away from Kavita, a purse
containing Rupees 1 Lakh.
Determine the correct statement.
a) Savita commits theft and Aman abets theft.
b) Aman commits no offence but Savita commits theft.
c) Savita doesn‘t commit any offence but Aman commits abetment of theft.
d) Savita and Aman commits theft.

130. Chintu gives his house to a police officer, who was investigating an offence. Chintu has
knowledge that the house will be used to torture a thief and the thief has been tortured also.

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a) Chintu is not guilty because it was an authorized act.


b) Chintu is not guilty because he gave house to a government official.
c) Chintu is guilty of abetment.
d) A and B both.

131. Principle: Conspiracy is generally a matter of inference deduced from certain criminal acts
of the parties accused, done in pursuance of an apparent purpose in common between them.

Facts: Sweeny and Tod agreed to commit murder of Julia by poisoning and Tod was to
procure poison, but he didn‘t procure it. Sweeny and Tod are guilty of:
a) Abetment of murder by conspiracy.
b) Criminal conspiracy to murder Julia
c) Attempt to murder
d) None of the above.

132. Which of the following is not an offence against public tranquility?


a) Unlawful Assembly
b) Affray
c) Riot
d) Assault

133. When force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by any member thereof, in
prosecution of the common object, every member is guilty of
a) Affray
b) Unlawful Assembly
c) Rioting
d) Assault

134. Principle: ‗Culpable homicide‘ is genus and ‗murder‘ its species. All ‗murder‘ is ‗culpable
homicide‘ but not vice versa.

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Facts: Maniram, intending to kidnap Sukhi‘s child, with a view to extorting money from
Sukhi, takes away the child. While taking the child down the ladder, the ladder breaks, the
child is thrown down and killed.
Determine the correct answer:
a) Maniram is guilty of murder.
b) Maniram is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
c) Maniram is guilty of extortion and kidnapping but not murder.
d) None of the above.

135. Which of the following is not element of theft?


a) Removal from possession.
b) Without consent of the person in possession.
c) Immovable Property
d) Dishonest Intension

136. Dowry death is:


a) Murder
b) Culpable homicide
c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d) A and B both

137. A woman ran to a well stating she would jump in it but she was caught before she could
reach it. She is guilty of:
a) Attempt of suicide
b) Attempt of culpable homicide
c) Attempt of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
d) No offence

138. Principle: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their
own. No law made by the State can take away a person‘s fundamental right.

Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of activists is violating the
fundamental rights of aam aadmi. The group of activists forms an NGO and files a writ

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petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the
statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.
a) No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct
Parliament to enact or re-enact a law
b) The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct
Parliament to make a new law
c) The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct
Parliament to make a new law
d) None of these

139. Principle: Prosecution means criminal proceedings against a person in a court of law.

Facts: Joey informed the police that in the dacoity committed in Robin‘s house, he has a
reason to believe that his neighbor Rachel was involved. Rachel is arrested by the police.
Subsequently Rachel is released by the magistrate. Rachel files an action for malicious
prosecution.

Determine the correct answer.


a) Rachel will succeed because she was wrongfully troubled.
b) Rachel will not succeed because she was not prosecuted in any criminal court.
c) Joey is guilty of malicious prosecution.
d) None of the above.

140. Principle: An assault is an attempt or threat to do a corporeal hurt to another, coupled with
an apparent present ability and intention to do the act.

Facts: Bunny shoots Lila believing that the pistol is unloaded, Lila gets severely injured.
Determine the correct answer.

a) Bunny is liable because he caused corporeal hurt to Lila.


b) Bunny is liable because he attempted a corporeal hurt with his abilities.
c) Bunny is not liable because he didn‘t do it intentionally.
d) None of the above.

141. Principle: A battery is intentional and direct application of force to another person without
any lawful justification.

Facts: Wonderwomen was attending a party in a club at Manohar Ashram. After getting
heavily intoxicated she chased Batman and kissed him forcibly.

Determine the correct answer.


a) She is not liable as it was an unintentional act.

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b) She is not liable as she was in love with Batman.


c) She is liable because she got heavily intoxicated.
d) She is liable of battery.

142. Principle: Tresspass to goods is an unlawful disturbance of possession of the goods by


seizure or removal or by a direct act causing damage to the goods.

Facts: Rita is the owner of 1000 singing birds. She releases all of them for exercise one
evening and they all alighted on Chinta‘s land and fed on his growing tomatoes. Chinta,
having left with no other option, he shoots the birds in order to protect his crop which
resulted in killing one and wounding five birds. Rita files a suit against Chinta.

Determine the correct answer.


a) Rita will succeed because there was destruction of property.
b) Rita will succeed because Chinta has killed and injured her birds.
c) Rita will not succeed because Chinta didn‘t have any alternative to save his crops.
d) Birds don‘t eat tomatoes.

143. Principle: Anyone who without authority takes possession of another man‘s goods with the
intention of asserting dominion over them is guilty of conversion.

Facts: Chunmun loped the branches of Surili‘s Guava trees overhanging his land and
appropriated the fruit.

Determine the most appropriate answer.


a) Chunmun is guilty of conversion because he can‘t enjoy right to appropriate the fruit.
b) Chunmun is guilty of conversion because he loped the branches without permission.
c) Chunmun is not guilty because the branches were on his land.
d) Surili is guilty of trespass to land.

144. Principle: A ‗tort‘ is a private wrong, while a ‗crime‘ is a public wrong. There are various
wrongs, which find their place both under criminal law and law of torts depending upon the
nature of the offence.

Facts: Emma digs a ditch on public road. Raul, a passerby, falls into that ditch and thereby
gets injured.
Emma has committed?
a) Private Nuisance
b) Public Nuisance
c) Crime
d) All of the above.

Question numbers 145-148 are based on following two principles and the facts. Apply
the situations and select the correct answer.

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Principle 1: According to definition of tort, it is the violation of the right conferred by law.
No contract between private parties is capable of curtailing or modifying the law, and
therefore, no exemption clause in a contract is capable of exempting a party from tortuous
liability.

Principle 2: Action in tort is independent of a contract and the rule that privity of contract is
essential for an action in tort is highly irrelevant and unjust.

Facts: Sunny buys Roopwati face wash from Khoobsurat Stores which is manufactured by
Lowfake Company. Sunny gets burn marks immediately after applying it.

145. Situation: The Lowfake Company clearly mentions that in order to make it useful it must
be kept in refrigerator immediately after it is opened. Sunny didn‘t keep it in refrigerator.

a) Sunny can sue the Lowfake Company


b) Sunny can sue Khoobsurat Store
c) Sunny can sue both
d) Sunny can‘t sue anyone

146. Situation: The Lowfake Company clearly mentions that for its best use it should be kept in
refrigerator. Sunny didn‘t keep it in refrigerator.

a) Sunny can sue the Lowfake Company


b) Sunny can sue Khoobsurat Stores
c) Sunny can sue both
d) Sunny can‘t sue anyone

147. Situation: The Lowfake Company clearly mentions that in order to make it useful it must
be kept in refrigerator immediately after it is dispatched from the warehouse. Khoobsurat
Stores and Sunny both didn‘t follow the guidelines.

a. Sunny can sue the Lowfake Company


b. Sunny can sue Khoobsurat Stores
c. Sunny can sue both
d. Sunny can‘t sue anyone

148. Situation: The Lowfake Company clearly mentions that, ―Nothing shall render the
manufacturers liable for any personal injuries to the consumers.‖

a. Sunny can sue the Lowfake Company


b. Sunny can sue Khoobsurat Stores
c. Sunny can sue both
d. Sunny can‘t sue anyone

149. The right to ‗equality before law‘ of the constitution of India is available to:

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a) Natural persons only


b) Legal Persons only
c) Citizens of India
d) All persons whether natural or legal

150. On which one of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the
ground of the security of the state?
a) Speech and Expression
b) Association or Union
c) Peaceful Assembly
d) Unlawful Assembly

151. Autre fois Acquit principle is related to


a) Double jeopardy
b) Retrospective operation
c) Successful acquittal
d) Self incrimination

152. Principle: Right to life and personal liberty under Indian constitution includes right to have
all limbs and faculties intact and live with human dignity.

Facts: Esa suffered a leg injury in an accident. She visited a nearby government hospital
which treated people for free. Isa had to wait for three hours in a queue at the government
hospital after which she visited another private hospital since she was not satisfied from the
previous hospital. At the private hospital, the doctor told him that the injuries were infected
and become worse because of the bad treatment by the previous hospital. Esa sues the
government doctor.

a) Esa will succeed claiming right to life and personal liberty.


b) Esa will succeed because the doctor was negligent.
c) Esa will not succeed because it was free treatment.
d) None of the above.

153. Right to privacy is a fundamental right implicit in:


a) Right to freedom
b) Right to equality
c) Right against exploitation
d) Right to personal liberty

154. The right against exploitation prohibits:


a) Traffic in human beings.
b) Employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines etc.
c) Beggar
d) All of the above.

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155. In which case it was held that ―Right to life‖ does not include ―Right to die‖?
a) A. K. Gopalan v Union of India
b) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
c) Gian Kaur v State of Punjab
d) Kharag Singh v State of Uttar Pradesh

156. ‗Proper respect is shown to National Anthem by standing up when the National Anthem is
sung. It will not be right to say that disrespect is shown by not joining in the singing.‘ It has
been held in:
a) Bijoi Emmanuel v State of Kerala
b) Keshvananda Bharti v Union of India
c) PUCL v Union of India
d) A.D.M. Jabalpur v Shivkant Shukla

157. The directive principles of state policy are fundamental for the:
a) Upliftment of backward classes
b) Governance of state
c) Administration of justice
d) All of the above

158. Who of the following was elected President of India unanimously?


a) V. V. Giri
b) S. Radha Krishnan
c) N. Sanjiva Reddy
d) G. Z. Singh

159. The veto power of the president covers:


a) Money bill
b) Constitutional amendment bill
c) All bills
d) None of the above

160. Any charge for the impeachment of the President may be initiated
a) Only in Rajya Sabha
b) Only In Lok Sabha
c) Joint session of Parliament
d) In either house of Parliament

SECTION V-LOGICAL REASONING


DIRECTIONS (Q.161-166) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two
courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true, and decide which of the two suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

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161. Statement: A sting operation conducted by a TV news channel proved to be a total failure
as the reporter who carried out the sting was found to have created a fake sting in order to
gain publicity and money.
Courses of Action:

I. Disciplinary action must be initiated immediately against the reporter.


II. The TV channel should be penalized.

(a)Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

162. Statement: Across the globe there is an increasing tendency to use child soldiers for
terrorist activities.
Courses of Action:

I. The United nations Security Council should try to address this problem by asking its
member states to crack down heavily on terrorist groups.
II. The U.S. led forces must attack such terrorist groups.

(a)Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

163. Statement: A state-wide bandh called by opposition parties in Bihar led to a total shut down
of normal activities of Bihar‘s populace
Courses of Action:

I. The state govemment should call a meeting with opposition parties to work out an approach
that does not affect the common man adversely.
II. Opposition Parties must continue their agitation.
(a)Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

164. Statement: There is a shortage of power in India.


Courses of Action:

I. There should be more power projects initiated by the government.


II. The government should encourage private investment in power projects.

(a)Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

165. Statement: The reduction of the tax rates has led to an increase in the tax collection as there
has been higher compliance.
Courses of Action:

I. It should be made compulsory for every Indian to pay tax.


II. Tax rates should be further reduced and a further increase in tax collections can be
expected on doing so.
(a)Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

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166. Statement: The number of people who die on the roads every year is so alarming that the
numbers every year are close to the numbers which can be attributed to the major diseases of
the world.

Courses of Action:
I. There should be an active campaign to sensitize people towards road safety norms.
II. There should be an increased emphasis on enforcing speed limits, traffic rules and Traffic
management on roads across the world.
(a)Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

Directions (Q.167-172): Each question contains six statements, followed by four options of
combinations of any three of the given sentences. Choose the option in which the combinations
are logically related.

167. (A) All Martians eat sausages.


(B) All those who eat sausages are not Martians.
(C) All those who eat sausages are herbivorous.
(D) All Martians are carnivorous.
(E) All those who eat sausages are carnivorous.
(F) Martians are herbivorous.

(a) BCE (b) ABE (c) ACD (d) ACF

168. (A) All lotuses have flowers.


(B) All lotuses have nectar.
(C) All plants with nectar have flowers.
(D) All shrubs have lotuses.
(E) All shrubs have nectar.
(F) Some lotuses have flowers.

(a) BEF (b) BCF (c) DDE (d) ACF

169. (A) No summer is a season.


(B) Some seasons are summers.
(C) Some seasons are winters.
(D) No seasons are winters.
(E) Some summers are not winters.
(F) All summers are winters.

(a) DFA (b) BEF (c) CEB (d) DEB

170. (A) All falcons fly high.


(B) All falcons are blind.

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(C) All falcons are birds.


(D) All birds are yellow.
(E) All birds are thirsty.
(F) All falcons are yellow.

(a) ABC (b) CDF (c) DEF (d) BCA

171. (A) No nails are wires.


(B) Some hooks are wires.
(C) All hooks are nails.
(D) Some wires are not nails.
(E) No wire is a hook.
(F) All nails are hooks.

(a) AED (b) BCF (c) BEF (d) ACE

172. (A) Some dabba are cobra.


(B) All dabba are chabi.
(C) All cobra are dabba.
(D) All cobra are not dabba.
(E) Some chabi are dabba.

(F) Some Chabi are Cobra

(a) AEF (b) BCF (c) ABD (d) BCE

DIRECTIONS (Q.173-180): The questions are based on information/arguments


contained in paragraphs. Consider the information/argument, then pick the logical
answer accordingly.

173. With more than a billion mouths to feed, there is a fierce debate in India about whether to
introduce genetically modified food crops. Scientists say they are crucial to tackling food
shortages, but farmers and others are divided over the benefits. Doubts have been raised by
the experience of growing genetically modified cotton in India, which has been blamed by
activists for the suicides of thousands of farmers in the poorest parts of the country.

The details above raise which of the following questions?


a. Will the Indian government be able to feed the more than one billion mouths?
b. Can the uneducated Indian farmer understand the genetically modified food crops?
c. Will genetically modified food crops go follow the fate of genetically modified cotton?
d. Are genetically modified food crops the answer to India‘s food shortages?

174. A new research looking back to the Miocene period, which began a little over 20 million

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years ago found that at the start of the period, carbon dioxide concentrations in the
atmosphere stood at about 400 parts per million (ppm) with sea levels 25-40 m (80-130 ft)
higher than today, before beginning to decline about 14 million years ago—a trend that
eventually led to formation of the Antarctic icecap and perennial sea ice cover in the
Arctic. In the intervening millennia, CO2 concentrations have been much lower; in the
last few million years they cycled between l8Oppm and 280ppm in rhythm with the
sequence of ice ages and warmer interglacial periods. Therefore, the current political
targets on climate may be ―playing with fire‖.

Which of the following makes the current political targets on climate ―playing with fire‖?
a. Humanity‘s emissions of greenhouse gases are pushing towards the 400ppm, which will
very likely be reached within a decade.
b. The CO2 level that would prevent dangerous human interference with the climate system
currently receiving a lot of political support is 450 ppm.
c. Humanity does not know where the critical CO2 or temperature threshold is beyond which
ice sheet of the poles collapse becomes inevitable.
d. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (TPCC) work on ancient climates for the
organization‘s report in 2007, provides an accurate look at how past CO2 values relate to
climate.

175. In a bad mood ? Don‘t worry—according to research, it‘s good for you. An Australian
psychology expert who has been studying emotions has found being grumpy makes us think
more clearly. In contrast to those annoying happy types, miserable people are better at
decision-making and less gullible, his experiments showed. While cheerfulness fosters
creativity gloominess breeds attentiveness and careful thinking, Professor Joe Forgas told
Australian Science Magazine.

Which of the following, if true, strengthens the argument of Joe Forgas?


a. Being grumpy raises the blood pressure of people and they usually have to relax before
making decisions.
b. Anybody who wanders through life in a continuous state of bonhomie either has no idea
what‘s going on around them or simply doesn‘t care.
c. A person who is cheerful and happy is generally not easily taken advantage of by others.
d. Schopenhauer, the Great Grump, has had a profound influence in the realm of all those
cheerful, creative artists, beyond philosophy.

176. Will military power become less important in the coming decades? It is true that the number
of large-scale inter-state wars continues to decline, and fighting is unlikely among advanced
democracies and on many issues. But, as Barack Obama said in accepting the Nobel Peace
Prize in 2009, ―we must begin by acknowledging the hard truth that we will not eradicate
violent conflict in our lifetimes. There wifi be times when nations—acting individually or in
concert—will find the use of force not only necessary but morally justified.‖

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Which of the following provides best supporting evidence for Barack Obama‘s view that
―nations will find the use of force not only necessary but morally justified‖?
a. Napoleon famously said that ―God is on the side of the big battalions,‖ and Mao Zedong
argued that power comes from the barrel of a gun.
b. In today‘s world, military power is also used to provide protection for allies and assistance
to friends.
c. Of 226 significant armed conflicts between 1945 and 2002, less than half in the 1950‘s
were fought between states and armed groups.
d. In the twenty-first century, most ―wars‖ occur within, rather than between states, and many
combatants do not wear uniforms.

177. On 20 April 2010, an explosion on Deepwater Horizon, a British Petroleum (BP)-operated oil
rig in the Gulf of Mexico, led to the most publicized oil spill in decades. Another blowout in
the same waters 31 years ago, farther south on the Mexican side of the Gulf, turned into the
largest peacetime oil spill ever. The platform where that accident happened, called Ixtoc 1,
was operated by Pemex, the state-owned Mexican oil company. In both cases, efforts were
made to burn off the oil from the ocean‘s surface.

Which of the following, if true, must have led to the failure of the efforts to burn off the oil?
a. The properties of the oil emulsion spilling over form an oil rig differ from normal crude
oil.
b. Some part of the spilled oil will float on the surface, but parts will also form plumes at
different depths in the water mass.
c. Oil on water doesn‘t burn well, and the emulsified oil from a blowout hardly burns at all.

d. Standard aerial or satellite imaging techniques to measure the quantity of oil spified do not
work well.

178. Microsoft co-founder Bill Gates is fascinating. So is the 19-page annual letter that describes
the work of the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the world‘s largest philanthropy. But for
someone as smart as Gates, who can afford to hire experts on any subject under the sun, some
of his foundation‘s strategies are baffling. Consider his foundation‘s approach to malaria,
which focuses on bed nets, a low-tech, only modestly effective intervention, and on the
development of a vaccine, a high-tech solution that has eluded intensive efforts for decades.

The writer‘s argument is based on which of the following assumptions?


a. In combination with other anti-malarials, artemisinins have been used effectively for
several years to treat multiple-drug-resistant malaria.
b. Elimination of the mosquitoes that spread the disease is the key to preventing malaria.
c. DDT is an inexpensive and effective pesticide once widely deployed to kill disease-
carrying insects.
d. There are cheaper, low tech and effective solutions to control the vector carrying malaria.

179. In June 2009, the United Nations‘ World Health Organization, responding to an outbreak of
the H1N1 virus, or swine flu, boosted the pandemic alert to the highest level, Phase 6,
meaning that a pandemic was under way—the first time in 41 years that the organization had
taken that declared step. But the outbreak appears to have ended less like the rogue wild boar

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that WHO bureaucrats predicted and more like roasted pork tenderloin with apples and sage,
in other words the appearance of the H1N1 flu during the past nine months might be thought
of as a net public-health benefit.

Which of the following can advanced in support of the argument?


a. The official death toll worldwide from H1N1 is under 14,000, while seasonal flu killed about
36,000 on in the United States and hundreds of thousands elsewhere.
b. HIN1 appears to have suppressed, or at least supplanted, the far more virulent and lethal
seasonal flu strains.
c. During this period only 3.7% of Americans tested positive for the seasonal flu, compared to
11.5% during the same period in 2008.
d. The publicity and resulting panic surrounding the WHO‘s announcement brought out
fraudsters peddling all sorts of ineffective and possibly dangerous protective gear and
nostrums.

180. Fertility clinics in India are booming. The services on offer have been referred to as the
country‘s ‗rent-a-womb‘ industry. The number of foreigners going to India for fertility
treatments, especially surrogacy, has dramatically increased in recent years. At present there are
no laws governing industry practices and while a new bill has been presented to the government,
there are growing fears about the commercialization of surrogacy in India.

Which of the following is the most likely fallout of the above?


a. Laws governing the ‗surrogacy industry‘ in India will be made stricter.
b. ‗Surrogacy industry‘ in India is likely to be greatly commercialized.
c. India‘s ‗surrogacy industry‘ faces regulation.
d. The Indian government is likely to close down the ‗rent-a-womb‘ industry.
Directions for Questions 181 and 185:Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U, belong to six different
cities – Secunderabad, Bombay, Delhi, Calcutta, Kashipur and Mohali not necessarily in the
same order. They visited one state in the recent monsoon season from among – Andhra,
Maharashtra, U.P., Bengal, M.P. and Gujarat not necessarily in the same order. Each of these
persons likes one of these – Cake, Pepsi, Fast Food, Sattu, Lemonade and Tea in some order.
The following information is also known –
i. R and S do not belong to either Secunderabad or Mohali.
ii. R visited M.P., whereas S visited U.P.
iii. The person from Kashipur likes Lemonade while the person from Secunderabad likes
Cake.
iv. P likes Cake.
v. U likes Tea and visited Gujarat.
vi. T likes Lemonade.
vii. Q belongs to Bombay but does not like Fast Food or Sattu and did not visit Maharastra or
Bengal.

181. Who belongs to Mohali?


a) T b) U c) Q d) None of these

182. Who likes Fast Food?

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a) R b) S c) T d) Data insufficient

183. If R belongs to Calcutta, who belongs to Delhi?


a) S b) R c) T d) P

184. Who could have visited Maharashtra?


a) Q b) R c) P d) None of these

185. If person who visited U.P. likes Sattu and does not belong to Calcutta, then the person
who belongs to Delhi likes –
a) Fast Food b) Tea c) Pepsi d) None of these

186. P+Q means P is the husband of Q, P/Q means P is the sister of Q, P#Q means P is the
son of Q. How is P related to S in P#Q+R/S?
a) Niece b) Nephew c) Son d) None of these
187. Pointing to a man in photograph, a lady said, ―His brother‘s father is the only son of my
grandfather‖. How is the lady related to the man in the photograph?
a) Aunt b) Daughter c) Sister d) None of these

188. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Sambhu said, "He is the son of the only son of my
mother." How is Sambhu related to that boy?
a) Brother b) Father c) Uncle d) None of these

189. Viswjit walks 3kms west from A, turns right and walks 9kms, turns west and walks
3kms, turns left and walks 10 kms, turns east and finally walks 11kms to reach B. Find
shortest distance between A and B.
a) 5km b) 6km c) 4.5kms d) 6.5kms

190. Nihit walks 5kms west from A, turns right and walks 5kms, again turns right and walks
14kms. Finally he turns south and walks 9 kms to reach B. Find shortest distance between
A and B.
a) 11kms b) 10kms c) 12kms d) 9kms

Directions for Questions 191 and 192: These questions are based on information below.
Five friends Amit, Dharam, Sashi, Amjal and Sanjeet are carrying oranges from their home to
the market. Everyone works till the task is completed. Also their speeds are the same. Sashi can
carry 5 kgs more than Sanjeet. Sanjeet cannot carry more than Amit. Dharma can carry twice the
weight than Amjal , who can carry 4 kgs less than Sashi. Weights carried by them take only
integral values.No two of them can carry equal weight.

191. Who carries the least weight?


a) Sanjeet b) Sashi c) Amjal d) Data
Insufficient

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192. If Sashi and Dharma can carry equal weight, how much can both of them carry together
in a single trip?
a) 4 kgs b) 8 kgs c) 16 kg d) 32 kgs

Directions for Q 193 to 195: These questions are based on information below.
The lectures of a class are to be scheduled. Eight teachers are to take a lecture each.
i. Falguni and Neha deliver their lectures after Chaya. Only one person delivers a lecture
between Chaya‘s and Falguni‘s lectures.
ii. Falguni does not deliver the fifth from the last lecture.
iii. Suhani delivers the first lecture.
iv. Elena delivers a lecture immediately before or after Neha‘s lecture.
v. Ishita delivers a lecture immediately before or after Falguni‘s lecture.
vi. There is an interval of two lectures between Deepika‘s and Chaya‘s lectures. Deepika‘s
lecture is after chaya.Mandakini can deliver any of the lectures.

193. If Elena delivers the seventh lecture, who delivers the last lecture?
a) Elena b) Chaya c) Neha d) C.B.D

194. Who delivers the fifth from last lecture?


a) Neha b) Ishita c) Elena d) Deepika

195. The third lecture is delivered by……………………..


a) Chaya b) Mandakini c) Neha d) Ishita

Directions for Questions 196 and 200: A rectangular block of length 5cm, breadth 4cm and
height 3cm is painted by three different colors. The sides of dimension 5cm×4cm is colored
white. The sides of dimension 4cm×3cm is colored blue and the sides of dimension 5cm×3cm
are colored red. The rectangular block is then cut in say a way that cubes of dimension 1cm ×
1cm × 1cm are formed.
196. How many cubes will have no color on any side?
a) 6 b)7 c) 8 d) 9

197. How many cubes will have all three colors on them?
a) 12 b) 8 c) 10 d) 9

198. How many cubes will have only two colors on them?
a) 22 b) 24 c) 26 d) 28
199. How many cubes will have exactly two colors blue and red ?
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

200. How many cubes will have only one color on them?
a) 16 b) 24 c) 26 d) none of these

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