1 MCQ Biochemistry For - Paramedical - Students PDF

•
MCQs
•
in
Biochemistry
for
Paramedical Students
P Ramamoorthy
PhD (Biochemistry-Faculty of Medicine)
Professor and Head
Department of Biochemistry
Mahatma Gandhi Medical College and Research Institute
Pondicherry University, Pondicherry
Formerly, Associate Professor

Department of Biochemistry
Sri Ramachandra Medical College and Research Institute
Deemed University, Chennai
Tamilnadu
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MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students
Gandhi Medical College and Research Institute, Pondicherry
© 2006, P Ramamoorthy University, Pondicherry for bringing out the book in time. I
am thankful to M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P)
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First Edition : 2006
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Contents
'-'
Part I: Introduction to Biochemistry

1. The Cell ................................................................................ 1
Part II: Chemistry of Biomolecules

2. Chemistry of Carbohydrates ........................................... 5
3. Chemistry of Lipids ........................................................ 11
4. Chemistry of Proteins ..................................................... 17
5. Chemistry of Nucleic Acids .......................................... 23
6. Chemistry of Hemoglobin ............................................. 28
7. Enzymes ............................................................................. 32
8. Vitamins ............................................................................. 39
Part III: Metabolism

9. Introductory Metabolism ............................................... 46
10. Biological Oxidation, Electron Transport Chain
and Bioenergetics ............................................................ 47
11. Digestion, Absorption and Metabolism of
Carbohydrates .................................................................. 52
Lipids ................................................................................. 60
Proteins .............................................................................. 68
viii MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students
PART I: INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY
Nucleic Acids .................................................................... 76
15. Metabolism of Hemoglobin ......................................... 80
16. Metabolism of Minerals ................................................. 86
17. Detoxication ...................................................................... 93
18. Excretion ............................................................................ 95
The Cell
Part IV: Miscellaneous Topics of
Biochemical Importance
1. Biochemistry is the study of:
19. Energy Metabolism ......................................................... 97
A. Action of drugs in the body
20. Food and Nutrition ....................................................... 100 B. Chemistry of living things
21. Fluid and Electrolyte Balance .................................... 104 C. Structural aspects of the body
22. Acid Base Balance .......................................................... 106 D. Immunity in the body
23. Organ Function Tests ................................................... 108 2. The major elements present in the human body are all
24. Hormones ......................................................................... 111 of the following except:
A. Sodium B. Carbon
25. Molecular Biology ......................................................... 118
C. Oxygen D. Hydrogen
3. An eukaryotic cell differs from prokaryotic cell by the
Part V: Applied Biochemistry presence of:
26. Instrumentation, Techniques and Practicals in A. Mitochondria
Biochemistry ................................................................... 125 B. Nucleus
27. Clinical Biochemistry ................................................... 136 C. Nuclear membrane
D. Cytoplasm
4. All the following are cell organelles except:
A. Lysosomes B. Peroxisomes
C. Golgi apparatus D. Ribosomes
5. The technique used to separate cell organelles is:
A. Differential centrifugation
B. Filtration
C. Electrophoresis
D. Chromatography
1 B 2 A 3 C 4 D 5 A
2 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students The Cell 3
6. The powerhouse of the cell is:

12. The process by which solute can often pass through
A. Nucleus membranes against concentration gradient is known as:
B. Ribosomes A. Passive diffusion
C. Mitochondria B. Facilitated diffusion
D. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Active transport
7. Which of the following is the function of mitochondria? D. None of the above
A. Oxidative phosphorylation 13. Macromolecules are transported through cell membrane
B. Protein Synthesis by:
C. Intracellular sorting of proteins A. Active transport
D. Glycolysis B. Facilitated diffusion
8. The major complex organic biomolecules of cells are: C. Passive diffusion
A. DNA and RNA D. Endocytosis and Exocytosis
B. Protein
14. Surface tension of solution can be lowered by all of the
C. Polysaccharides following except:
D. All of the above A. Bile pigments
9. Osmosis is the flow of the following through B. Bile salts
semipermeable membrane: C. Soap
A. Solute D. Detergent
B. Solvent 15. An example for colloid is:
C. Solution A. Nucleic acids
D. All of the above B. Vitamins
C. Triglycerides
10. Gibbs-Donnan equilibrium if observed in all the
following except: D. Proteins
A. Chloride shift 16. Which of the following statements is not correct?
B. Osmotic pressure A. An acid can dissociate to produce hydrogen ions
C. Concentration of Na+IK + in renal glomerular filtrate B. A base can accept hydroxyl ions
D. Emulsification C. Buffer can resist changes in pH by addition of acid or
alkali
11. Fluid mosaic model of structure of cell membrane was D. Reaction of water is alkaline
proposed by:
A. Mitchell 17. pH is:
B. Singer and Nicolson A. log [H + ]
C. Pauling B. -log [H + ]
D. Carl Neuberg C. log [OH]
D. -log [OH]
6 c 7 A 8 D 9 B 10 D 11 B 12 C 13 D 14 A 15 D 16 D 17 B
4 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students
PART II: CHEMISTRY OF BIOMOLECULES
18. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is an expression of:
A. Concentration of acid
B. Concentration of salt
C. pH of a buffer
D. Ionic product of water
19. Which of the following is a radioactive isotope?
A. Nl O
B. C14
c. p30
Chemistry of
D. p4t
Carbohydrates
20. Radioactivity can be measured by:
A. Geiger-Muller counter
B. Spectrophotometer 1. Carbohydrates can be defined as:
C. Flarnephotorneter A. Polyhydroxy alcohols
D. Spectroscope B. Hydrates of carbon
C. Aldehyde or ketone derivatives
D. All of the above
2. All the following are monosaccharides except:
A. Ribose B. Glucose
C. Maltose D. Mannose
3. An example for aldose is:
A. Galactose B. Ribulose
C. Fructose D. Xylulose
4. Which one of the following sugars is a ketose?
A. Xylose B. Fructose
C. Arabinose D. Erythrose
5. The molecular formula of glucose is:
A. C6 H12 0 6 B. C12 H n 011
C. Cs H10 Os D. C3 H6 0 3
6. Glucose is the constituent of:
A. Inulin B. Collagen
C. DNA D. Starch
18 C 19 B 20 A
1 D 2 c 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 D
6 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Carbohydrates 7
7. Blood sugar refers to:
15. Mutarotation by glucose arises due to:
A. Fructose B. Glucose A. Opening of hemiacetal ring
C. Glycogen D. Lactose B. Formation of glycosides
8. Dextrose is: C. Inversion of sugar
A. D( +)Glucose D. Conversion of keto-enol forms
B. D{-)Glucose
C. D( +)Fructose D. D(-)Fructose 16. Glucose on oxidation with H 20 2 gives:
9. Stereoisomers differ from each other in: A. Hyaluronic acid
A. Atomic weights B. Glucuronic acid
B. Atomic numbers C. Glucaric acid
C. Spatial configuration D. Mucic acid
D. All of the above
17. Sorbitol is:
10. All the monosaccharides are optically active except: A. A sterol
A. Glyceraldehyde B. An amino alcohol
B. Fructose C. A sugar alcohol
C. Arabinose D. A glycerol derivative
D. Dihydroxyacetone 18. The functional group responsible for the reducing
11. Number of asymmetric carbon atoms present in the property of glucose is present on which carbon atom?
straight chain structure of D-Glucose is: A.6 B. 5
A. 6 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1
C. 3 D. 2 19. Aminosugar containing drug is:
12. Ring (cyclic) structures for sugars were proposed by: A. Erythromycin
A. Fischer B. Watson and Crick B. Streptomycin
C. Haworth D. Sanger C. Ouabain
D. None of the above
13. a-D-glucopyranose and P-D-glucopyranose are related
by: 20. Which one of the following is a glycoside?
A. Keto-aldo pair A. Triglyceride
B. Keto-enol pair B. Glutathione
C. Epimers C. Digitonin
D. Anomers D. All of the above
14. Glucose and galactose are epimers which differ in 21. Aglycone is a component of:
orientation of H and OH on: A. Glycogen B. Starch
A. C6 B. C4 C. Glycoside D. Mucopolysaccharide
C. C2 D.C1
7 B 8 A 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 C 13 D 15 A 16 B 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 C 21 C
14 B
8 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Carbohydrates 9
22. Which of the following sugars is found in RNA? 30. All the following are reducing sugars except:
A. Ribose B. 2-Deoxy-D-ribose A. Maltose B. Lactose
C. Fructose D. Ribulose C. Sucrose D. Fructose
23. Inverted sugar is: 31. Which polysaccharide (glycan) is not a polymer of
A. Fructose glucose?
B. Glucose A. Glycogen B. Starch
C. Sucrose C. Cellulose D. Inulin
D. A mixture of glucose and fructose
32. All the following are homopolysaccharides (homogly-
24. All the following are disaccharides except: cans) except:
A. Sucrose B. Maltose A. Heparin
C. Raffinose D. Lactose B. lnulin
25. Lactose contains: C. Glycogen
A. Glucose and glucose B. Glucose and galactose D. Starch
C. Glucose and fructose D. Galactose and fructose 33. The branched component of starch is:
26. Sucrose is known as: A. Amylose
A. Table sugar B. Milk sugar B. Amylopectin
C. Malt sugar C. Dextrin
D. Fruit sugar
D. Amylase
27. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Cellulose is a heteropolysaccharide 34. Dextrins are polysaccharides formed as intermediate
B. Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in human compounds during hydrolysis of:
C. Sucrose can form osazone A. Glycogen
D. Oligosaccharides contain 5-10 saccharide units. B. Dextran
C. Starch
28. Which of the following statements is not correct? D. Cellulose
A. Seminal fluid is rich in glucose
B. Inulin is a fructosan 35. Glycogen contains:
C. Molisch's test is used to identify carbohydrates A. a. 1,4 and a. 1,6 glycosidic linkages
D. Sialic acid is a constituent of glycoproteins B. a. 1,6 glycosidic linkages
C. a. 1,4 and ~ 1,6 glycosidic linkages
29. What is the shape of maltosazone crystals? D. ~ 1,4 and ~ 1,6 glycosidic linkages
A. Needle/bundle of hay
B. Rhombic plates 36. The polysaccharide used to determine glomerular
C. Hedgehog/powder puff/cotton ball
filtration rate (GFR) is:
D. Sunflower petals A. Starch B. Inulin
C. Heparin D. Dex tr an
22 A 23 D 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 A 30 C 31 D 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 B
29 D
1O MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students
37. Glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides) are:

A. Homopolysaccharides
B. Heteropolysaccharides
C. Oligosaccharides
D. Glycosides
38. All the following are mucopolysaccharides except: Chemistry of Lipids
A. Chondroitin sulphates
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Amylodextrin
D. Heparin
1. Lipids are:
39. Which is the repeating unit of hyaluronic acid? A. Structural constituents of cell membrane
A. N-Acetylglucosamine and 0-glucuronic acid B. Components having high energy value
B. N-Acetylgalactosamine and 0-glucuronic acid C. Soluble in non-polar solvents
C. N-Acetylgalactosamine and 0-glucosamine D. All of the above
D. N-Acetylglucosamine and 0-glucosamine 2. Lipids were classified by:
40. Which heteropolysaccharide is an anticoagulant? A. Meicher
A. Keratan sulphate 1 B. Evans and Burr
B. Heparin C. Bloor
C. Hyaluronic acid D. Frederickson
D. Dermatan sulphate 3. An example for simple lipid is:
A. Triglyceride (Triacylglycerol)
B. Cephalin
C. Fatty acids
D. Glycerol
4. Which one of the following is not a compound lipid ?
A. Plasmalogen
B. Waxes
C. Lecithin
D. Sphingomyelin
5. Cholesterol is an:
A. Compound lipid
B. Simple lipid
C. Derived lipid
D. Aliphatic alcohol
37 B 38 C 39 A 40 D 1 D 2 c 3 A 4 B 5 c
12 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Lipids 13
6. The major storage lipid in adipose tissue is: l4. Which compounds facilitate emulsification of fats?
A. Phospholipids B. Cholesterol A. Bile salts
C. Fatty acids D. Triglycerides B. Bile pigments
C. Bile acids
7. Which substance yields more calories per gram on
oxidation? D. Sterols
A. Fats B. Carbohydrates 15. Hydrolysis of fat by alkali is known as:
C. Plant proteins D. Animal proteins A. Esterification
8. Neutral fats are:
B. Saponification
C. Emulsification
A. Glycolipids B. Phospholipids
C. Triglycerides D. Peroxidation
D. Waxes
16. Iodine number indicates:
9. Rancidity can be prevented by antioxidants like:
A. Total number of fatty acids in fat
A. Riboflavin B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D B. Level of rancidity of fat
D. Vitamin B6 C. Measure of the degree of unsaturation in fat
10. Which am_
o ng the following is a saturated fatty acid?: D. Number of volatile fatty acids in fat
A. Stearic acid B. Oleic acid
17. Acrolein test is performed to detect:
C. Linoleic acid D. Aspartic acid A. Chloesterol B. a-amino acids
11. All the following are polyunsaturated fatty acids C. Triglycerides D. Glycerol
(PUFA) except:
18. The main lipid constituents of cell membrane are:
A. Linolenic acid
A. Phospholipids
B. Palmitic acid
B. Cholesterol
C. Arachidonic acid
C. Triacylglycerols
D. Linoleic acid
D. Glycolipids
12. Chaulmoogric acid, a cyclic fatty acid was used to treat: 19. Cardiolipin, a phospholipid is present in:
A. Bronchitis
A. Nucleus
B. Bone disorders
B. Mitochondrial membrane
C. Cancer
C. Ribosomes
D. Leprosy
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
13. Which of the following is not an essential fatty acid 20. Lecithins contain:
(EFA)?
A. Glycerol, fatty acid, phophoric acid, choline
A. Linoleic acid
B. Glycerol, fatty acid, phosphoric acid, serine
B. Linolenic acid
C. Glycerol, fatty acid, phosphoric acid, ethanolamine
C. Oleic acid
D. Sphingosine, fatty acid, galactose
D . Arachidonic acid
6 D 7 A 8 c 9 B 10 A 11 B 12 D 14 A 15 B 16 C 17 D 18 A 19 B 20 A
13 c
14 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Lipids 15
21. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs due to deficiency Lipoproteins can be separated into different fractions
27.
of: by:
A. Plasmalogen A. Electrophoresis
B. Spingomyelin B. Ultracentrifugation
C. Dipalrnitoyl lecithin c. Both of the above
D. Phosphatidyl serine D. Chromatography
22. Which is a major constituent of lung surfactant? 28. Which of the following fractions of lipoproteins has
A. Dipalrnitoyl lecithin the lowest density?
B. Cholesterol A. Chylomicrons
C. Phosphatidic acid B. a-lipoproteins
D. Glycerol C. P-lipoproteins
D . Pre P-lipoproteins
23. All the following are examples of cerebrosides except:
A. Kerasin 29. Which fraction of lipoproteins has highest cholesterol
B. Cerebron content?
C. Nervon A. HDL B. Chlornicrons
D. Dextran C. LDL D.VLDL
30. The apolipoprotein B-100 is the major apolipoprotein
24. Carbohydrate moiety present in cerebroside is:
A. Fructose present in:
A. IDL B. VLDL
B. Galactose
C. HDL D. LDL
C. Ribose
D. Mannose 31. Cholesterol contains:
A. Corrin ring
25. Sphingosine, an amino alcohol is a constituent of all B. Pyrimidine ring
the following except: C. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene ring
A. Ganglioside D. Isoalloxane ring
B. Cerebroside
C. Cephalin 32. Which one of the following is an animal sterol?
D. Sphingomyelin A. Sitosterol B. Cholesterol
C. Ergosterol D. Stigmasterol
26. Which is not a constituent of gangliosides?
A. Sialic acid 33. Cholesterol crystals have the following shape when
B. Glycerol observed under microscope:
A. Needles
C. Sphingosine
B. Concentric layers
D. Long chain fatty acid
C. Hedgehog or cotton ball
D · Rhombic plates with notched corners
21 C 22 A 23 D 24 B 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 A 29 C 30 D 31 C 32 B 33 D
34. All- the following compounds are formed from
cholesterol except:
-
A. Bile pigments B. Vitamin D
C. Bile acids D. Steroid hormones
35. All the following are eicosanoids except:
A. Prostaglandins B. Glutathione Chemistry of Proteins
C. Thromboxanes D. Leukotrienes
36. Prostaglandins are synthesised from:
A. Palmitic acid B. Linoleic acid 1. Which of the following statements about amino acids
C. Stearic acid D. Arachidonic acid is not true?
37. Which one is not the function of prostaglandins? A. Amino acids are ampholytes
A. Induction of labour B. Amino acids are linked through peptide bonds to form
B. Prevention of myocardial infarction proteins
C. Lowering of blood pressure C. Amino acids are not crystalline compounds
D. Antiinflammatory D . Leucine is a purely ketogenic amino acid
38. Spingomyelins are increased in which of the following 2. Number of amino acids present in proteins are:
inherited disorders? A. 10 B. 20
A. Von Gierke's disease C. 100 D. 300
B. Gaucher's disease
3. The amino acids found in biological proteins are of:
C. Niemann-Pick disease
A. D-Configuration and dextrorotatory
D. Tay-Sachs disease
B. L-Configuration and laevoratatory
39. The lipid accumulating in Gaucher's disease is: C. D-Configuration and laevo or dextrorotatory
A. Glucosylceramide D. L-Configuration and dextro or laevoratatory
B. Lecithins
4. Which amino acid does not occur in proteins of
C. Cholesterol
biological system?
D. Galactosylceramide A. Ornithine
40. Liebermann-Burchard reaction is used to detect: B. Arginine
A. Vitamin A C. Cystine
B. Cholesterol D. Histidine
C. Glycerol
S. All amino acids are optically active except:
D. a-Amino acids A. Serine B. Glycine
C. Tryptophan D. Threonine
34 A 35 8 36 D 37 8 38 C 39 A 40 8 1 c 2 8 3 D 4 A 5 8
18 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Proteins 19
6. Which one of the following is an acidic amino acid? . All the following are essential amino acids except:
14
A. Palmitic acid B. Aspartic acid A. Phenylalanine B. Tryptophan
C. Pyruvic acid D. Lysine c. Tyrosine D. Isoleucine
7. A basic amino acid is: l 5. The semiessential amino acids are:
A. Phenylalanine B. Serine A. Histidine and alanine
C. Arginine D. Glutamic acid B. Arginine and glycine
8. An example for neutral amino acid is: C. Praline and methionine
A. Tyrosine B. Proline D. Arginine and histidine
C. Lysine D. Leucine 16. Which amino acid contains a guanidine group?
9. Which one of the following is not a sulphur containing A. Glutamine B. Asparagine
amino acid? C. Histidine D. Arginine
A. Histidine B. Cystine 17. An amino acid which behaves both as glucogenic and
C. Cysteine D. Methionine ketogenic is:
10. Branched chain amino acids are: A. Alanine
A. Tyrosine, tryptophan and phenylalanine B. Phenylalanine
B. Glycine, serine and threonine C. Leucine
C. Valine, leucine and isoleucine D. Cystine
D. Cystine, cysteine and methoinine 18. The last used to detect a amino acids is:
11. Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan are called as: A. Biuret test
A. Aliphatic amino acids B. Murexide test
C. Ninhydrin test
B. Aromatic amino acids
C. Sulphur containing amino acids D. Molisch's test
D. Imino acids 19. Which amino acid is important in the buffering action
12. Which amino acid contains an imino group? of proteins at physiological pH?
A. Glutamic acid
A. Histidine
B. Lysine
B. Glutamic acid
C. Histidine
C. Arginine
D. Tyrosine
D. Proline
20. Edman's reagent (Phenyl isothiocyanate) reacts with:
13. H 2N-CH2.COOH is the structure of:
A. N-terminal amino acids
A. Glycine B. Serine
B. C-terminal amino acids
C. Leucine D. Threonine
C. Unsaturated fatty acids
D . None of the above
6 B 7 c 8 D 9 A 10 C 11 B 12 D 14 C 15 D 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 C 20 A
13 A
20 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Proteins 21
21. Sorensen's formal titration method is used to estimate: 28 . Which is n ot ~econdary protein structure?
A. Free amino group in amino acid mixture A. Random coil
B. Free carboxyl group in amino acid mixture B. p-pleated sheet
C. Sulphur content of amino acids c. Double helix
D. Acidity in gastric juice o. a helix
22. A method to separate amino acids is: 29. At isoelectric pH, the protein molecule has:
A. Filtration A. Positive charge only
B. Electrophoresis B. Maximum positive charge than nagative
C. Chromatography C. More negative charge than positive
D. Dialysis D. Equal number of positive and negative charges
23. Proteins are: 30. The phosphoprotein present in egg yolk is:
A. Products of genes A. Ovovitellin
B. Polymers of amino acids B. Ovoglobulin
C. Colloids C. Ovalbumin
D. All of the above D. Casein
24. Albumin and globulins are: 31. Apoprotein is protein moiety of:
A. Simple proteins A. Mucoproteins
B. Conjugated proteins B. Lipoproteins
C. Primary derived proteins C. Chromoproteins
D. Secondary derived proteins D. Nucleoproteins
32. The most abundant protein present in the human body
25. All the following are conjugated proteins except: is:
A. Metalloproteins
A. Albumin B. Myosin
B. Hemoproteins
C. Collagen D. a Keratin
C. Histones
D. Lipoproteins 33. Which one of the following is a fibrous protein?
A. Collagen
26. An example for derived protein is:
B. Myoglobin
A. Globulin
C. Hemoglobin
B. Gelatin
C. Casein
D. Protamine 34. Globular p rotein is:
27. Glutathione is a: A. Myoglobin B. Glutathione
A. Tripeptide C. Collagen D. a-keratin
B. Dipeptide
C. Protein D. Derivative of glucose
28 C 29 D 30 A 31 B 32 C 33 A 34 D
21 B 22 C 23 D 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 A
35. An example for protein hormone is:

A. Prolactin
-
B. Noradrenaline
C. Thyroxine
D. Testosterone
36. Denaturation of protein involves: Chemistry of Nucleic Acids
A. Changes in primary structure
B. Loss of biological activity
C. Irreversible changes 1. Nucleic acids are:
D. None of the above A. Structural molecules
B. Information molecules
37. All the following are causative agents for denaturation
C. Communication molecules
of proteins except:
D. Second messengers
A. Glycerol
B. Urea 2. Nucleotide con tains:
C. Detergents A. Sugar phosphate
D. Ethanol B. Base sugar
C. Base sugar phosphate
38. Plasma proteins function as:
D. Base sugar phosphate protein
A. Immunoglobulins
B. Carriers of bilirubin 3. Components of nucleotide are:
C. Buffers A. Base sugar
D. All of the above B. Base sugar phosphate
C. Sugar p hosphate
39. Plasma proteins can be separated into different fractions D. Base p rotein
by:
A. Chromatography 4. An example of purine base is:
B. Electrophoresis A. Uracil
C. Dialysis B. Thymine
D. Centrifugation C. Cytosine
D. Adenine
40. All of the following statements are false except:
A. Glycoproteins are derived proteins 5. Thymine is a:
B. Cysteine is an aromatic amino acid A. Vitamin
C. Isoelectric pH of casein is 4.8 B. Basic amino acid
D. Peptone is a heat coagulable protein C. Pyrimidine base
D · Purine base
35 A 36 B 37 A 38 D 39 B 40 C 18 2 C 3A 4 D 5C
--
24 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Nucleic Acids 25
6. Which carbon of the pentose is in ester linkage with Double helical structure of DNA was proposed by:
the phosphate in a nucleotide? 13.
A. Chargaff
A. Cs B. C4 B. Watson and Crick
C. C3 D.C1 c. Hargobind Khorana
7. Which form of DNA is usually found under o. Stahl and Messelson
physiological conditions? l4. Two strands of double helical DNA are linked by:
A. A-DNA B. E-DNA A. Peptide bonds
C. Z-DNA D. B-DNA B. Phosphodiester bonds
8. 2-Deoxy-D-ribose is a constituent of: C. Glycosidic bonds
A.RNA B. mllim o. Hydrogen bonds
C. DNA D. Dextrin 15. ONA molecule contains how many nucleotides?
9. The base present in DNA but absent in RNA is: A. 100-300
A. Guanine B. Thymine B. 500-1000
C. Uracil D. Cytosine c. 1000-9000
o. 10000-15000
10. Which of the following bases is a constituent of RNA
but not DNA? 16. Chargaff' s rule states:
A. Thymme A. (A+G)=(T +C)
B. Adenine B. A/T=G/C
C. Cytosine C. C+C=A+C
D. Uracil D. A+T+G+C
11. Nucleotides in a single strand are linked to one another 17. DNA can be denatured by:
in nucleic acids by: A.Acid
A. Hydrogen bond B. Alkali
B. Glycosidic linkage C. Heat
C. Phosphodiester bond D. All of the above
D. Disulphide bond 18. Molecule of genetic information is:
12. Which compound has double helical structure? A. Protein B. DNA
A. Ribonucleic acid C. RNA D. Enzyme
B. Collagen 19. Gene is:
C. Deoxyribonucleic acid A.mRNA
D. Cholesterol B. Anticodon
C. A segment of DNA molecllie
D. A complete DNA molecllie
6 A 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 D 11 C 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 C 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 C
26 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Chemistry of Nucleic Acids 27
20. The mitochondrial DNA is:

A. Single stranded linear
-
27
. Which base is not present in normal DNA or RNA?
A. Uracil B. Thymine
B. Single stranded circular c. Theophylline D. Guanine
C. Double helix
D. Double stranded circular . All the following biologically important nucleotides
28
are not present in nucleic acids except:
21. How many major types of RNA are present in cells? A.GTP
A. 2 B. 3 B. ATP
C. 4 D.5 C. NAD
22. RNA exists as: o.AMP
A. Double stranded molecule 29. Nucleo proteins are:
B. Double stranded helical molecule A. Derived proteins
C. Double stranded circular molecule B. Conjugated proteins
D. Single stranded molecule C. Simple proteins
23. Anticodon is present in: O. Transport proteins
A.DNA 30. Proteins present in nucleoproteins are:
B. hnRNA A. Histones
C. tRNA B. Histidine
D.mRNA c. Albumin
24. Which RNA has clover leaf structure? D. Globulins
A. rRNA B. tRNA
C. hnRNA D. mRNA
25. mRNA is complementary copy of:
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. A single strand of DNA
26. The synthetic nucleoside used in the chemotherapy of
cancer is:
A. Azathioprine
B. Allopurinol
C. Ouabain
D. Cytarabine
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~2-4----:-A~~2~5:--:
22 D 23 C
C~~2=s:--:::D:---~ 27 ~C;;--:-28~D~~29~B~-3-0~A~~~~~~~~~~~~
20 D 21 B
--
6·
Chemistry of Hemoglobin 29
T he polypeptide chains present in globin portion of

onnal hemog1ob.m are:
~. One a chain and one ~ chain
B. Two a chains and two ~ chain
c. Four a chains
Chemistry of Hemoglobin o. Four ~ chains
7. The total number of amino acids present in globin
portion of normal hemoglobin is:
A. 300 B. 374
1. Hemoglobin is a: C. 474 D. 574
A. Mucoprotein
B. Conjugated protein s. The molecular weight of normal hemoglobin is about:
C. Derived protein A. 24000 B. 44000
D. Structural protein C. 54000 D. 67000
2. Heme is a: 9. Adult hemoglobin is mainly:

A. Ferrous protoporphyrinogen A. HbA1C B. HbS
B. Ferric protoporphyrinogen C. Hb Ai (Hb-A) D. Hb A2
C. Ferric protoporphyrin 10. Level of fetal hemoglobin (HbF) in a newborn is:
D. Ferrous protoporphyrin A. 5-10% B. 20-30%
3. Porphyrins found in heme is: C. 35-65% D. 90-95%
A. Type I series 11. All are hemoproteins except:
B. Type II series A. Myoglobin
C. Type III series (Type IX series) B. Cytochromes
D. All of the above C. Hemoglobin
4. The iron in heme is linked to globin through: D. Ceruloplasmin
A. Serine 12. Hemoglobin is a buffer due to presence of:
B. Tyrosine A. Arginine B. Valine
C. Histidine C. Histidine D. Glycine
D. Glycine 13. Methemoglobin is formed by oxidation of hemoglobin
5. The number of iron atoms present in a hemoglobin by:
molecule is: A. Potassium permanganate
A. 4 B. 3 B. Potassium ferricyanide
C. 2 D. 1 C. Oxygen of air
D. Hydrogen peroxide
6 B
1 B 2 D 3 c 4 c 5 D
13 B
7 D 8 D 9 C 10 A 11 D 12 C
14. In
A.
B.
C.
methemoglobin the iron is in:
Ferric form
Ferrous form
Ferric and ferrous forms
-- ---
21. A. HbA2
c. HbD
Chemistry of Hemoglobin
All the following are abnormal hemoglobins except:

B. HbM
D.HbC
31
D. Ferric or ferrous form Thalassemias occur due to reduced synthesis of which

22
· one of normal hemoglobin?
15. Cyanide is poisonous because it:
A. ex chains
A. Damages the brain cells
B. p chains
B. Inhibits cytochrome oxidase of election transport chain C. a chain or Pchain
C. Affects myoglobin in muscle
O. ychain
D. Combines with red blood cell membrane
23. Oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin is shifted to
16. The instrument used to detect hemoglobin derivatives right by:
in blood is:
A. Bohr effect
A. Spectroscope B. Pasteur effect
B. Spectrophotometer C. Chloride shift
C. Colorimeter D. All of the above
24. Maximum amount of C0 2 in blood is transported:
17. Normal range of hemoglobin in adult male is: A. As bicarbonates
A. 1-2 g% B. 5-8 g% B. As carbaminohemoglobin
C. 12-16 g% D. 20-25 g% C. As C02 in gas form
18. Finger printing technique is used to identify: D. In physical solution
A. Hemoglobin S 25. Carbonmonoxide poisoning of hemoglobin leads to:
B. Hemoglobin D A. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hemoglobin F B. Jaundice
D. All of the above C. Tissue hypoxia
19. Hemoglobin can be qualitatively detected by: D. Thalassemia
A. Benedict's test
B. Benzidine test
C. Neumann's test
D. Rothera's test
20. In sickle cell anemia, the abnormal hemoglobin is:
A. HbF B. Hb Ale
C. HbS D.HbA2
14 A 15 B 16 A 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 C 21 A 22 C 23 A 24 A 25 C
--
6.
.An exopeptidase is:
.A. Elastase
B. Chymotrypsin
Enzymes 33
c. Trypsin
0 . Carboxy peptidase
Enzymes 7
. .An example for an extracellular enzymes is:
.A. Glucokinase
B. Pancreatic amylase
1. Enzymes are:
c. Hexokinase
A. Biocatalysts
o. Glucose 6-phosphatase
B. Proteins except ribozymes s. .All the following are coenzymes except:
C. Products of genes .A. NAO+
D. All of the above B. TPP
C. SGPT (ALT)
2. According to IUB nomenclature system, enzymes are D. Pyridoxal phosphate
grouped in how many main classes?
A. 10 B. 6 9. The function of a coenzyme in an enzymatic reaction is
C.4 D.2 to:
A. Act as cosubstrate
3. Lactate dehydrogenase belongs to which main class of B. Raise the activation energy of the enzymatic reaction
enzymes? C. Enhance the specificity of the apoenzyrne
A. Ligases D. Activate the substrate
B. Lyases
C. Oxidoreductases 10. A cofactor in an enzymatic reaction is:
D. Isomerases A. An organic molecule
B. A metal ion
4. The enzymes present in lysosomes are:
C. Both of the above
A. Transferases
D. A hormone
B. Isomerases
C. Hydrolases 11. Action of urease on urea belongs to which type of
D. Lyases enzyme specificity?
A. Optical specificity
5. All the following gastrointestinal enzymes are secreted
B. Substrate specificity
as zymogens except:
C. Reaction specificity
A. Ribonucleases
D. Bond specificity
B. Pepsin
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Trypsin
6 D 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 C 11 B
1 D 2 B 3 c 4 c 5 A
12. Coenzyme A contains which of the following vitamins?

A. Pantothenic acid
C. Vitamin B6
B. Thiamin
D. Folic acid
- ---
19.
Th enzymes act best at the temperature of:
~
~: 37oC
B. 28°C
D. 6soc
Enzymes 35
13. Cobamide coenzymes are coenzymes of: Trypsin shows optimum activity at:
A. Vitamin B1 B. Biotin 20
· A. pH 1.5 B. pH 4.9
C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin C c. pH 6.9 D. pH 8.9
14. Coenzyme required for transamination is: . Lock and key model of mechanism of enzyme action
A. NAO+ 21
was proposed by:
B. Thiamin pyrophosphate A. Koshland
C. FMN B. Chargaff
D. Pyridoxal phosphate C. Fischer
15. Xanthine oxidase contains which metal ion? D. Louis Pasteur
A. Manganese 22. Which type of inhibition is irreversible?
B. Molybdenum A. Non-competitive
C. Copper B. Uncompetitive
D. Cobalt C. Competitive
D. None of these
16. Which of the following factors that can affect enzyme
activity? 23. In competitive inhibition:
I A. Substrate concentration A. Km increases
B. Enzyme concentration B. Km decreases
/Ii C. Time and pH C. Km remains the same
D. All of the above D. Km may increase or decrease
17. Enzyme increases the rate of reactions by: 24. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of:
A. Decreasing the energy of activation A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Increasing the energy of activation B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Increasing the free energy change of the reaction C. Malate dehydrogenase
D. Decreasing the free energy change of the reaction D. Carbonic anhydrase
18. Km (Michaelis constant) is: 25. Which statements about allosteric enzymes is true?
A. The dissociation constant for the enzyme-substrate A. They are usually not controlled by feedback inhibition
complex B. The catalytic site is distinct from the allosteric site
B. The substrate concentration that gives one-half VmaX C. They change the nature of products formed
C. The molecular weight of an enzyme D · All of the above
12 A 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 A 18 B 19
C 20 D 21 C 22 D 23 A 24 A 25 B
--
36 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Enzymes 37
26. Which enzyme is most sensitive to fluoride ion?
A. Enolase
--- Th diagnostic enzyme in muscular dystrophy is:
32· A ~reatine phosphokinase (CPK)/Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Aldolase
.. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Aconitase 8
D. Pyruvate kinase C. Alkaline phosphatase
o. Lipase
27. The active site of an enzyme:
. All the enzymes are increased in myocardial infarction
A. Binds covalently to substrate 33
B. Is composed of a linear amino acid array except:
C. Is small relative to the total bulk of the enzyme A.LDH
D. Is none of the above 8. SGOT
C.CPK
28. All the following mechanisms regulate enzyme activity o. Alkaline phosphatase
except:
34. Which of the following enzymes in serum is specifically
A. Changing the absolute quantity of enzyme
elevated in alcoholism?
B. Altering the pool size of reactants other than enzyme A. Acid phosphastase
C. Altering the catalytic efficiency of the enzyme 8. y-Glutamyl transpeptidase {y-GT)
D. Altering the temperature of reaction
C.SGOT
29. An example for functional plasma enzyme is: D.SGPT
A.LDH
35. Serum amylase is highly raised in:
B. Lipoprotein lipase
A. Diabetes mellitus
C. Amylase
B. Liver disorders
D. Acid phosphatase
C. Acute pancreatitis
30. Normal level of SGOT (AST) at 37°C is: D. Bone disorders
A. 0-40 IU/L 36. Isoenzymes (Isozymes):
B. 0-80 IU/L
A. Catalyse the same reaction
C. 60-180 IU/L B. Have different mobilities on electrophoresis
D. 100-250 IU/L C. Are physically distinct forms of the same enzyme
31. Acid phosphatase level in serum is elevated typically D. All of the above
in: 37. Number of isoenzymes of LDH in serum are:
A. Acute pancreatitis A. 2
B. Osteomalacia B. 3
C. Prostatic carcinoma c. 5
D. Obstructive jaundice D.6
26 A 27 C 28 D 29 8 30 A 31 C 3
2A 33A 348 35 C 360 37C
i I
... -·
38. The isoenzyme LDH 5 is typically increased in patient

. h
Wit :
s
A. Acute viral hepatitis
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. None of the above Vitamins
39. CPK-MB in serum is specifically increased in:
A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Myocardial infarction 1. Vitamins are:
C. Bone diseases A. Accessory food factors
D. Prostatic diseases B. Required in small quantities
40. Brain mainly contains which of the following CPK
c. Not used to provide energy
D. All of the above
isoenzyme?
A.MM 2. Which of the following statements is correct?
B. MB A. All vitamins are fat soluble
C. Both of the above B. All coenzymes are vitamins
D.BB C. All B complex vitamins are water soluble
D. All vitamins are amines
II
3. Scientists whose work led to the discovery of vitamins
are:
A. Hopkins and Funk
"''"' B. Fischer and Haworth
C. Starling and Sutherland
D. Fischer and Koshland
4. Which is the fat soluble vitamin?
A. Riboflavin
B. Vitamin K
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin C
S. Which one of the following is not a water soluble
vitamin?
A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B12 D. Pyridoxine
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~-------
38 A 39 B 40 D 1 D 2 c 3 A 4 B 5 A
6. All the following are B complex vitamins except:

A. Thiarnin
B. Ascorbic acid
--- ---- Vitamins
DA (daily requirement) of vitamin A for an adult is:

12. R 00 IV/day
A. 1
41
C. Biotin B. 1000 IV/day

D. Pantothenic acid c. 5000 IV/day
D. 10000 IV/day
7. The provitamin of vitamin A is:
A. Cholesterol 13.
Vitamin A in blood
.
can be estimated based on:
B. Tocopherol A. Jaffe's reaction
C. Retinol B. Xanthoproteic reaction
D. P-Carotene c. Liebermann-Burchard reaction
o. Carr Price reaction
8. Which form of vitamin A participates in Wald's visual 14. Vitamin 03 is formed from:
cycle (Rhodopsin cycle)?
A. Retinal A. Glycerol
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. Retinoic acid
C. Ergosterol
C. Retinol
D. Stigmasterol
15. Which is the physiologically active form of vitamin D?
9. Vitamin A is stored mainly in:
A. Calcitonin
A. Kidney
B. Calcitriol
B. Liver
C. Calmodulin
C. Brain
D. Cortisol
D. Spleen
16. In adults, deficiency of vitamin D causes:
10. All the following are deficiency symptoms of vitamin A. Osteomalacia
A except: B. Scurvy
A. Keratornalacia C. Pellagra
B. Nyctalopia D. Rickets
C. Osteornalacia
D. Xeropthalrnia l7. Metastatic calcification is seen in toxicity of:
A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B1
11. Hypervitaminosis A results in: C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin A
A. Skin disorders 18
B. Metastatic calcification · Vitamin E with the greatest biological activity is:
C. Hepatolenticular degeneration A. ~-Tocopherol
D. Night blindness B. Y-Tocopherol
---
C. <X-Tocopherol
D. 0-Tocopherol
6 B 7 D 8 A 9 B 10 C 11 A 12 C ~1~3:--::-D~-1-4-B~-1-5~8~~16~D~-1-7~A~-1-
8-C~~~
42 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Vitamins 43
19. The antisterility vitamin is: - - .- polishings contain. w h.1ch v1•tam1n.

. ?
A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin E 2 7 Rice
· A· Riboflavin
C. Vitamin B2 D. Ascorbic acid 8. Thiamin
20. The synthetic form of vitamin K is: c. f olic acid
A. Vitamin K 3 (menadione)
o. Pantothenic acid
B. Vitamin K 2 (menaquinone) • Coenzyme form of thiamin is:
28
C. Vitamin K 1 (phylloquinone) A. Thiamin monophosphate
D. Folacin 8. Oxythiamin
21. Dicumarol is an antagonist of:
c. Pyrithiamin
A. Vitamin K B. Folic acid
o. Thiamin pyrophosphate
C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin D 29. Which B complex vitamin emits strong greenish yellow
fluorescence on exposure to u.v.light?
22. Which of the following are necessary for the absorption
A. Riboflavin
of fat soluble vitamins?
B. Vitamin B6
A. Bile pigments C. Biotin
B. Iron and copper D. Thiamin
C. Bile salts
11 11111111 D. All of the above 30. FMN and FAD are the coenzymes of vitamin:
A. Folic acid
23. A rich source of vitamin C is: B. Riboflavin
A. Egg B. Lemon C. Pantothenic acid
I/Ii I C. Rice D. Milk D. Niacin
24. Which vitamin is used in megadose as RDA for adults) 31. Which vitamin contains the isoalloxazine ring system?
A. Vitamin A B. Niacin A. Niacin B. Thiamin
Ill C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin C C. Riboflavin D. Vitamin B12
25. All the following are the functions of Vitamin C except 32. Alternative name for vitamin B6 is:
.I l A. Cellular oxidation-reduction A. Pyridoxine B. Antirachitic factor
B. Absorption of iron C. A vi din D. Cobalamin
C. Calcium and phosphate metabolism 33· Pellagra can be treated with:
D. Synthesis of collagen
A. Pantothenic acid
26. Vitamin C is required for the prevention of: B. Pyridoxine
A. Beriberi C. Vitamin C
B. Rickets D. Niacin
C. Scurvy
D. Pellagra
27 B 28 D
19 B 20 A 21 A 22 C 23 B 24 D 25 C 29 A 30 B 31 c 32 A 33 D
26 c
34. Niacin is excreted mainly in urine as:

A. N-methyl nicotinic acid
B. N-methyl nicotinamide
---
2
4.
VitaJJtin B12 is absorbed from:
A. Ileum
c. Duodenum
B. J.
e1unum
D. Stomach
Vitamins 45
C. Nicotinamide . Extrinsic factor of Castle is:

D. Nicotinic acid 43
A. A glycoprotein B. Choline
35. Which one can induce biotin deficiency? C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B12
A. Isoniazid B. Dicumarol 44. Vitamin B12 plays a role in synthesis of:
C. A vi din D. Aminoptern A. Proteins C. Lipids
36. Biotin is involved in which of the following types of B. Nucleic acids D. Heme
reactions? 45. Vitamin B12 contains the metal ion:
A. Carboxylation B. Decarboxylation A. Iron B. Copper
C. Hydroxylation D. Deamination C. Cobalt D. Chromium
37. P-Aminobenzoic acid (PABA) is a constituent of: 46. Which vitamin in most likely to be deficient in
A. Ascorbic acid vegetarians?
B. Pantothenic acid A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B2 D. Biotin
D. Folk acid
47. Vitamin acting as a reducing agent is:
38. Which vitamin is utilized in one carbon metabolism? A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin C
A. Pantothenic acid B. Lipoic acid C. Biotin D. Thiamin
C. Folic acid D. Riboflavin
48. Which of the following has been assigned the name
39. Deficiency of folic acid leads to: vitamin P?
A. Megaloblastic anemia A. Carotenoids B. Tocopherols
B. Muscular dystrophy C. Bioflavinoids D. Lipoic acid
C. Scurvy 49. Which one of the following is not an antioxident
D. Cheilosis vitamin?
40. Sulpha drugs are antimetabolites of: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E
A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin A D. Pyridoxine
C. Pantothenic acid D. Folic acid 50.
All the following are antivitamins except:
41. Folic acid deficiency can be detected by: A. Digitonin B. Aminopterin
A. Fouchet test B. Figlu test C. Amethopterin D. Pyrithiamin
C. Benzidine test D. Sakaguchi test
2
:, 4 43 D 44 B 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 C
34 B 35 c 36 A 37 D 38 c 39 A 40 D D 50 A
41 B
PART Ill: METABOLISM
Biological Oxidation,
Introductory Metabolis Electron Transport Chain
1. All the following statements regarding metabolism an
and Bioenergetics
correct except:
A. It consists of anabolism (synthesis) and catabolisrr
(degradation) t. Oxidation is defined as:
B. It indicates the sequence of chemical reactions undergom A. Addition of oxygen
by the food from ingestion to excretion of metabolite B. Loss of hydrogen
.JI C. During anabolism, energy is liberated.
D. It can be studied by in vitro and in vivo methods
C. Loss of electrons
D. All of the above
I 2. Oxidoreductases involved in biological oxidation are
""' 2. All the following in vivo methods are used to stud)
metabolism except:
all of the following except:
A. Dehydrogenases
A. Studies with purified enzymes B. Hydroperoxidases
B. Use of radio active isotopes C. Transaminases
C. Respiratory exchange experiment D. Oxygeneses
D. Organ perfusion technique
3. Which one protects the body against damage by free
3. Major method to separate and purify biomolecules is: radicals?
A. Salt fractionation B. Ultra centrifugation A. Folic acid
C. Gel filtration D. All of the above B. Hydroperoxidases
4. Which radio active isotope is used to investigate C. Phosphatases
D · Oxygenases
carbohydrate metabolism?
4
A. 1311 B. 14C · ~Ydroxylation of drugs and steroids is effected by:
C. 59fe D. 24C · Oxygenases
8 · Superoxide dismutase
5. Radioactive isotope used to study thyroid function js: C. Catalase
A. 14C B. 32p D.FAD+
c. 1311 D. 45Ca ______.-/
1 D
1 c 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 c 2 c 3 B 4 A
5. The sequence of enzymes and electron carriers for th1

transport of reducing equivalents from substrates 11
molecular oxygen is known as:
A. Ornithine cycle
---
11
Biological Oxidation
Nu111ber of ATP m~lecules produced when reducing

· equivalents entering ETC through FAD linked
dehydrogenases:
A. 2
B. 3
49
D.6
B. Cori cycle c. 5
C. Respiratory chain The number of sites where ATP is produced in the
D. y-glutamyl cycle 12. h.
respiratory c am are:
6. Electron transport chain (respiratory chain) is locatec A.1 B. 3
in: c. 5 D. More than 5
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria 13. Cytochromes are enzymes which function as electron
transfer agent in:
C. Ribosomes A. Hydrolysis
D. Lysosomes B. Conjugation reactions
7. All of the following electron carriers are components o C. Transamination
the electron transport chain except: D. Oxidation and reduction
A. NADP+ 14. Oxidative phosphorylation is a process for:
B. NAD+ A. Phosphorylation of glucose
C. FAD B. Generating creatine phosphate
D. Coenzyme Q C. Generating ATP
8. Major components of electron transport chain all D. Utilizing ATP
arranged in order of redox potential which is: 15. All of the following are concerned with mechanism of
A. Decreasing oxidative phosphorylation except:
B. Increasing A. Conformational coupling hypothesis
C. Variable B. Chemiosmotic theory
D. Alternatively increasing and decreasing C. Chemical coupling hypothesis
9. Electron transport chain consists of how many roajo D. Beer-Lambert's law
complexes? 16
· Substances that can uncouple oxidation from
A. 7 B. 5 phosphorylation in electron transport chain include all
c. 3 D.4 the following except:
10. When the substrate enters the respiratory chain throu~
A. Barbiturates
B. 2, 4-Dinitrophenol
NAD linked dehydrogenase, the ATP yield is:
C. Pentachlorophenol
A.4 B. 3 D. Dinitrocresol
C. 2 D. 1
-------------------------~-:-:--:--~~~
11
A 12 B 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 A
5 c 6 B 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 B
-----
Biological Oxidation 51
17. Which one is not an inhibitor of oxidat· 23· Which one is a low energy compound?
.
phosphorylation?
~
A. Carbamoyl phosphate
A. Piercidin A B. Creatine phosphate
B. Cyanide c. AMP
C. 2,4-Dinitrophenol o. t,3-Bisphosphoglycerate
D. Rotenene
24. Phosphagen is:
18. Endergonic reactions are those which take place Wit} A. Creatine phosphate
A. Decrease of free energy B. Creatinine phosphate
B. Increase of free energy C. Glucose 3-phosphate
C. Decrease of activation energy D. Fructose 6-phosphate
D. Increase of activation energy 25. Energy currency of the cell is:
19. The energy content of ATP molecule is approximate!) A.GTP
A. 1000 calories B. ATP
B. 5000 calories C.ADP
C. 8000 calories D. Glucose
D. 12000 calories
20. The energy rich properties of ATP are related to:
A. Sugar groups
B. N-glycoside linkage
C. Heterocyclic ring
D. Phosphate anhydride linkages
21. The chemical energy required for the synthetic procesSt
is provided by:
A. Phosphorylation of ADP
B. Dephosphorylation of ADP
C. Phosphorylation of ATP
D. Dephosphorylation of ATP
22. All the following are high energy compounds except:
A. Phosphoenol pyruvate
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. ATP
D. Creatine phosphate
24 A 25 B
17 B 18 A 19 C 20 D 21 D 22 B
Di~tion , Absorption and Metabolism of COH 53
___.... ugar absorbed by facilitated diffusion is:

5 the s
· Glucose B. Fructose
~: Galactose D. Mannose
Which of the following hormones increases the
Digestion, Absorption 6
' absorption of glucose from G.I. tract?
A Insulin B. Glucagon
and Metabolism of c:ADH D. Thyroid hormones
7. The active transport of glucose is inhibited by:

Carbohydrates A. Ouabain
B. Phlorhizin
D. Digitonin
1. All the following enzymes are involved in the digestioi
s. Embden Meyerhof pathway deals with:
of carbohydrates except: A. HMP Shunt
A. Pancreatic amylase B. Glycolysis
B. Pepsin C. Urea cycle
C. Isomaltase D. Citric acid cycle
/111
D. Salivary amylase
9. During anaerobic glycolysis glucose is degraded to
2. Pancreatic amylase digests starch and glycogen to: produce:
rij
A. Isomaltose A. Lactic acid
B. a-limit dextrin B. Pyruvic acid
C. Maltose C. Both of the above
1!1 D. All of the above D. Citric acid
3. Carbohydrates are mainly absorbed from: IO. All the following are rate limiting enzymes in glycolysis
A. Jejunum except:
11111
B. Stomach A. Phosphofructokinase
8 · Phosphohexose isomerase
C. Duodenum
D.Ileum C. Glucokinase
D. Pyruvate kinase
4. Which sugar is absorbed at the fastest rate from the sJl\~ 11
intestine? · Fluorid · h ' ·
A e in 1b1ts which enzyme in glycolysis?
A. Fructose · Aldolase
B. Glucose B. Hexokinase
C. Galactose ~· Elactate dehydrogenase
· nolase
D. Ribose
sa=------~:--~~~~~~~~~~~-=-~-:-:--:::-~~-
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 C s D 7 C 8 B g A 10 B 11 D
54 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Di~stion, Absorption and Metabolism of COH 55
12. What is the net ATP yield in glycolysis under aerob· - -CttnC -. -. acid cycle ta k
es place
"m:
•, ? lr 19· . .
con d 1hons. Lysosome B. Endoplasrmc reticulum
A.~ B.M ~: Mitochondria D. Cytosol
C. 8 D.2 TCA cycle is controlled by:
20
13. Net ATP yield in glycolysis under anaerobic conditioll: · A. ex Ketglutarate dehydrogenase
is: B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
A. 1 B. 2 c. Citrate synthase
c. 10 D.12 o. All of the above
14. Rapaport-Leubering cycle involving glycolysis occun 21 . Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is:
in: A. Succinyl CoA -7 Succinate
A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets B. Malate -7 Oxaloacetate
C. Hepatocytes D. Nerve cells C. Acetyl CoA -7 Citrate
D. Succinate -7 Fumarate
15. Lactate dehydrogenase catalyses:
A. Lactic acid H Acetic acid 22. All the following are inhibitors of citric acid cycle except:
B. Lactic acid H Pyruvic acid A. Malonate B. Arsenite
C. Lactic acid H Propionic acid C. Fluoride D. Fluoroacetate
D. Lactic acid H Acetyl Co A 23. ATP yield in citric acid cycle per turn is:
16. Which multienzyme complex is involved in th1 A. 8 B. 12
conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA? C. 24 D. 38
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 24. How many molecules of ATP are produced when one
B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase molecule of glucose gets completely oxidized to C0 2
C. Pyruvate kinase and H20?
D. ex Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase A. 8 B. 24
c. 38 D. 129
17. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA by:
A. Decarboxylation 25. Glycogenolysis occurs in:
B. Oxidative decarboxylation A. Liver B. Muscle
C. C02 fixation C. Kidney D. All of the above
D. Oxidation 26. The glycogen branching enzyme is:
0
18. TCA cycle (Tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle. A. Phosphorylase
11
Krebs cycle) is the final metabolic pathway by wh ' B. Amylo 1,6 glucosidase
acetyl CoA is completely oxidised to: C. Amylo O-t4)-t(6-71) transglucosidase
A. Carbon dioxide B. Water D. Amylo O-t6) glucosidase
C. Cabondioxide and waterD. Ammonia
21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 D
12 C 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 A 17 B 18 C
56 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students ·ion Absorption and Metabolism of COH 57
01gest '
27. Muscle glycogen cannot give rise to blood glucose d - - - - tion of glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors
34 fol'llla
to deficiency of: II • • called as:
l5 .
A. Branching enzyme A. Glycolys1s .
B. Debranching enzyme B. Glycogenes1s .
C. Glucokinase C Gluconeogenes1s
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase 0 '. Glycogenolysis
28. The enzyme deficient in von Gierke's disease is: Gluconeogenesis is reciprocally related to:
35. .
A. Glycogen synthase A. Glycolys1s
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. HMPShunt
C. Glucokinase c. Glycogenesis
D. Phosphorylase o. Glycogenelysis
29. Which of the following hormones promotes rapi. 36. Non carbohydrate precursors for gluconeogenesis are all
glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle? of the following except:
A. Epinephrine B. Glucagon A. Glycerol
C. Insulin D. ACTH B. Lactate
C. Alanine
30. Storage capacity of glycogen in a normal adult is:
D. Fatty acids
A. 72 g B. 295 g
C. 327 g D. 1800 g 37. All the following are key gluconeogenic enzymes except:
A. Pyruvate kinase
31. The tissue with the higher total glycogen content is:
8. Pyruvate carboxylase
A. Liver C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Muscle D. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
C. Brain
D. Kidneys 38. HMP shunt (pentose phosphate pathway) is located in:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
32. Most of the energy for muscular contraction is stored I B. Cytosol
muscle as: C. Mitochondria
A. Creatine phosphate D. Peroxisomes
B. ATP 39
C. GTP
• HMP shunt is:
D. Phosphoenol pyruvate A. Breakdown of glycogen
8 · Synthesis of glycogen
33. Cori cycle (lactic acid cycle) involves: ~· Alternate pathway for oxidation of glucose
A. Blood B. Muscle · Synthesis of glucose from non carbohydrate sources
C. Liver D. All of the above
34
29 A 30 C 31 B 32 A 33 D C 35 A 36 D 37 A 38 B 39 C
27 D 28 B
01~stion, Absorption and Metabolism of COH 59
40. HMP shunt is significant in cellular metabolism beca ~poglycemic hormone produced by the pancreas
it produces: 14
is:
A. ATP B. Acetyl CoA A. Glucagon
C.NADH D.NADPH B. Insulin
41. Which of the metabolites is excreted in abnorlll1 C. Epinephrine
quantities in urine in essential pentosuria? o. Thyroxine
A. L-Xylulose • Normal level of true glucose in serum/plasma in fasting
47
B. L-Ribulose state is:
C. D-Ribose A. 15-45 mg/100 ml
D. L-Ribose B. 70-110 mg/100 ml
C. 80-120 mg/100 ml
42. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. Uronic acid pathway is an alternative oxidati\ o. 150-250 mg/100 ml
pathway for glucose 48. Glucose tolerance test (GIT) is performed to assess:
B. Hereditary fructose intolerance is caused by deficienr A. Acinar functions of the pancreas
of aldolase B B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Essential fructosuria is due to deficiency of fructokinas C. Endocrine function of the pancreas
D. Vitamin C can be synthesised in humans in uronicaci D. Carcinoma of pancreas
pathway. 49. Glucose tolerance is decreased in:
43. UDP Galactose condenses with glucose to form: A. Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
A. Glycogen B. Sucrose B. Hyperpituitarism
C. Maltose D. Lactose C. Diabetes mellitus
D. All of the above
44. Classic galactosemia occurs due to deficiency of th
enzyme: 50. Increased glucose tolerance is observed in:
A. UDPGal 4-epimerase A. Administration of insulin
B. Galactose l-P04 uridyl transferase B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Galactokinase C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Lactose synthase D. Hyperpituitarisrn
45. All the following operate to maintain blood gluco~
level except:
A. Liver
B. Muscles and kidney
C. Redblood cells
D. Hormones
40 D 41 A 42 D 43 D 44 B 45 c 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 D 50 A
·on Absorption and Metabolism of Lipids 61
t
p1~s~1~,..:..::.:..=-~~~~~~~~~~~~~-
_..:::.;;.:----cids are degraded mainly by:

6. fatty a .
A· (1)-oxidat~on
B. a-oxidat_10n
C. ~-oxidation
Digestion, Absorption o.HMP shunt
Which one is involved in the transport of long chain
7• fatty acids through inner mitochondrial membrane for
and Metabolism of Lipids p-oxidation?
A. Choline
B. Camitine
1. Which enzyme is involved in lipid digestion? c. Chylomicrons
A. Elastase D. Albumin
B. Lactase s. Oxidation of fatty acids takes place in:
C. Lipase A. Mitochondria
D. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Digestion of triglycerides require: C. Lysosome
A. Bile salts D. Cell Membrane
B. Bile pigments 9. End product of ~-oxidation of fatty acid with even
C. Intrinsic factor number of carbon atoms is:
11 D. Bile acids A. Hydroxyrnethyl glutaryl CoA
I" lili!ii I 1 3. Absorption of fats occurs mainly in:
B. Propionyl CoA
C. Acetoacetyl CoA
A. Stomach
D. Acetyl CoA
B. Duodenum
'11111111 C. Jejunum 10. P-oxidation of p almitic acid produces a net synthesis of
:1111
D. Ileum how many ATP molecules?
A. 109 B. 129
"11i1
1
4. Malabsorption of fat results in:
C. 24 D. 38
A. Hartnup disease
B. Steatorrhea
11
· ~enova synthesis of fatty acid (lipogenesis) takes place
C. Lactic acidosis in:
I
! D. Lactose intolerance A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
5. Majority of the absorbed fat appears in the fonn of:
I
A.VLDL B. LDL
~· C~tosol (extramitochondrial)
· Mitochondria
C. HDL D . Chylomicrons ____./
1 c 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 D 7 B 8 A 9 D 10 B 11 C
62 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students . n Absorption and Metabolism of Lipids 63
01~st ·~o~,~::::.:~---------_.:...,---
12. The principal building block of fatty acid is: ~CoA carboxylase is the most important enzyme
A. Succinyl CoA . the regu1ati" on of·.
18. j\cety ·
B. Acetyl CoA J\. fatty acid ox1'da f10dn .
ill
C. Propionyl CoA holesterol degra ahon
B. C h .
D. Acetoacetyl CoA C. Cholesterol synt ~sis
13. The main source of NADPH for lipogenesis is: o. Fatty acid synthesis
A. Pentose phosphate pathway Elongation of long chain fatty acids occurs in:
19. . . ul
B. Glycolysis J\. Endoplasrruc retie um
C. Uronic acid pathway B. Lysosomes
D. Citric acid cycle c. Peroxisomes
14. Biosynthesis of fatty acid requires which vitamin?
o. Mitochondria
A. Riboflavin 20. Acylcarrier protein (ACP) is involved in the synthesis
B. Pyridoxine of:
C. Thiamin A. Phospholipids
D. Pantothenic acid B. Fatty acids
C. Glycogen
15. Which is the rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesisl
D. Triglycerides
A. Pyruvate ~ Acetyl CoA
B. Acetyl CoA ~ Malonyl CoA 21. The main factor controlling the rate of lipogenesis is:
il.! C. Malonyl CoA ~ Acetoacetyl CoA A. Hormones
D. Acetoacetyl CoA ~ p hydroxy acetyl CoA B. Nutrition
C. Cyclic AM...0
16. All the following enzymes are multifunctional enzyme D. None of the above
complexes except:
A. Acetyl CoA carboxylase 22. Ketone bodies are formed during high rate of oxidation
/111 B. Fatty acid synthase of:
C. a-keto glutarate dehydrogenase A. Cholesterol
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase B. Triglycerides
C. Fatty acids
0
17. The fattyacid synthase complex comprises tW D. Phospholipids
monomers, each containing: 23 · All the f 11 ·
A. 2 enzymes · except:
o owmg are ketone bodies
B. 5 enzymes A. Acetic acid
B. Acetone
C. 7 enzymes
D. 10 enzymes C. Aceto acetic acid
D. ~ hydroxy butyric acid (3-Hydroxybutyrate)
12 B 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 A 17 C 19 A 20 B 21 B 22 C 23 A
I II
. I
64 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students ·on Absorption and Metabolism of Lipids 65
Dl~5t ·~,~=-=-:__.:....-----------'----
24. Ketone bodies are formed in mitochondria of: ~of the following is essential for absorption of
A. Kidney B. Spleen 31· WbtC ?
cholesterol.
C. Brain D. Liver A· Vitamin D
25. Ketone bodies cannot be utilized by: B. Extrinsic factor
A. Liver B. Kidney c. Bile
C. Muscle D. Brain o. None of the above
The organ which contains maximum quantity of
26. Ketosis occurs in: 32. .
A. Prolonged starvation cholesterol is:
B. High fat feeding A. Brain
C. Severe diabetes mellitus B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. All of the above
D. Skin
27. The test to detect ketone bodies in the urine is: 33. The greater part of cholesterol in plasma is present as:
A. Benedict's test
A. LDL
B. Xanthoproteic test
C. Rothera's test
B. VLDL
C. Free cholesterol
D. Jaffe' s reaction
D. Cholesterol esters
28. Prostaglandins are synthesised in all the fo llowin! 34. Cholesterol biosynthesis takes place in:
organs except: A. Golgi apparatus
A. Seminal vesicles B. Microsomal fraction and cytosol
B. Thymus C. Ribosomes
C. Lung D. Mitochondria and cytosol
D. Spleen
35. Starting compound for cholesterol biosynthesis is:
29. Prostaglandins are formed via: A. Acetyl CoA
A. Kynurenate pathway B. Acetoacetyl CoA
B. Cyclooxygenase pathway C. Propionyl CoA
C. Uronic acid pathway D. Succinyl CoA
D. Lipoxygenase pathway 36
· The regulatory enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis is:
30. Synthesis of prostaglandins is inhibited by: A. HMG CoA synthase
A. Aspirin B. HMG CoA oxidase
B. Arsenate ~· HMG CoA reductase
C. Arsenite · 7a.-Hydroxylase
D. All of the above
31 c 32 A
24 D 25 A 26 D 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 A 33 D 34 B 35 A 36 c
66 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students ion Absorption and Metabolism of Lipids 67
Di~ 5t ~'~~~--------.:....__ _
37. All the compounds are formed from cholesterol except. ~(Bad cholesterol) is formed from:
A. Bile acids · 44· ~.VLDL
B. Bile pigments
C. Vitamin D
D. Steroid hormones
c:B chlomicrons
Both of the above
p.HDL
38. The main catabolic end product of cholesterol is: VLDL contains the principal apoprotein:
A. Acetyl CoA B. Propionyl CoA 45. A. Btoo B. C.I
C. Coprosterol D. Bile acids C. B4s D. C-11
39. Normal level of cholesterol in serum is:
A. 70-110 mg/dl 46. Fatty liver occurs in:
A. Malnutrition
B. 15-45 mg/dl B. Choline deficiency
C. 150-250 mg/ dl c. Alcoholism
D. 60-160 mg/dl D. All of the above
40. Serum cholesterol level is elevated in: 47. All the following are lipotropic factors except:
A. Hypothyroidism A. Methionine
B. Nephrotic syndrome B. Betaine
C. Atherosclerosis C. Vitamin B12
D. All of the above D. Choline
41. An example for hypocholesterolemic drug is: 48. Which one of the following is an inborn error of fat
A. Mevastatin metabolism?
B. Erythromycin A. Pompe's disease
C. Digitonin B. Newmann-Pick disease
D. Streptomycin C. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
D. Albinism
42. Which lipoprotein has a beneficial effect against
atheroscreosis? 4
9. Which of the following accumulates in Gaucher's
A. IDL B. LDL disease?
C. VLDL D.HDL A. Spingomyelins B. Cerebrosides
43. Good Cholesterol is: C. Glycogen D. Copper
A. VLDL Cholesterol SO. Which one is defective in familial hypercholesterolemia?
B. HDL Cholesterol A. LDL receptor
C. LDL Cholesterol B. liDL receptor
D. Chylomicrons C. VLDL receptor
D. liMG-CoA reductase
37 B 38 D 39C 40 D 41 A 42 D 43 B 44 A 45 A 46 D 47 C 48 B 49 B 50 A
p~tion, Absorption and Metabolism of Proteins 69
~e of intestinal absorption of amino acids is:

5·
A· JeJ·unurn ·
8 . Stomach
c. Ileum
Digestion, Absorption 0 . Duodenum
. free L-amino acids are absorbed across the intestinal
6
and Metabolism of 111ucosa by:
A. Sodium dependent active transport
Proteins 8. Facilitated diffusion
c. Passive diffusion
o. Osmosis
7. Mester cycle (y glutamyl cycle) involves mainly
1. Which of the following statements on digestion of absorption of which of the following in small intestine?
proteins is not correct? A. Acidic amino acids
A. Trypsin chymotrypsin and elastase are secreted by the B. Neutral amino acids
pancreas as zymogens C. Basic amino acids
B. Pepsinogen is activated by autoactivation D. Essential amino acids
C. The major products of protein hydrolysis are large
8. All the following are the catabolic pathways of amino
peptides and some free amino acids
acids except:
D. Most of the digested proteins are absorbed in the
A. Acetylation
intestine in the form of polypeptides.
B. Transdeamination
2. Milk protein is digested in the stomach by: C. Transamination
A. Trypsin B. Renin D. Deamination
C. Rennin D. HCl
9. Removal of amino group by transamination requires
3. An example for endopeptidase: which coenzyme?
A. Elastase B. Collagenase A. NAO+
C. Aminopeptidases D. Trypsin B. FAD+
4. Carboxypeptidase B acts as an exopeptidase and C. Pyridoxal phosphate
hydrolyses the carboxy terminal peptide bonds D. Thiamine pyrophosphate
containing: 10. The .
A. Leucine and arginine A ~a1or. end product of protein catabolism is:
B. Lysine and arginine C· Unc acid B. Creatinine
C. Leucine and isoleucine
· Acetyl CoA D. Urea
D. Glycine and lysine
1 D 2 c 3 D 4 B SA 6 A 7 B 8 A 9 C 10 D
70 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students . Absorption and Metabolism of Proteins 71
pl~1on.
~any
11. Urea synthesis takes place mainly in:
A. Muscle
B. Liver
17· ao;
syn e
molecules of ATP are required for the
sis of 1 molecule of urea in urea cycle?
B. 3
C. Kidneys A.1 D.8
D. All of the above
c. 5
• Th link between TCA cycle and urea cycle is through:
12. The reactions of the Krebs-Hensleit's urea cycle occll! 1s. e
A. Citrate
in the: B. Pyruvate
A. Mitochondrial matrix c. fumarate
B. Cytosol o. Malate
C. Mitochondrial matrix and cytosol
D. Ribosomes 19. All the following are inborn errors of metabolism
associated with urea cycle except:
13. Biosynthesis of urea begins with the formation of A. Hyperargininemia
carbamoyl phosphate from: B. Type II Orotic aciduria
A. Carbon dioxide and ammonia C. Hyperammonemia Type 2
B. Carbon dioxide, ammonia and GTP D. Argininosuccinicacid uria
C. Carbon dioxide, ammonia and ATP
20. Citrullinemia occurs due to absence of the enzyme:
D. Succinyl Co A and glycine
A. Arginosuccinase
14. Which amino acid is not involved in urea cycle? B. Arginosuccinate synthase
A. Arginine C. Glutamine synthetase
B. Aspartic acid D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
C. Glycine
21. The major mechanism for the removal of ammonia in
D . Ornithine
the liver is through formation of:
15. The regulatory enzyme in urea cycle is: A. Uric acid
A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II B. Urea
B. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I C. Creatinine
C. Arginase D. Glutamine
· ~ormation of glutamine is catalysed by which enzyme
D. Urease 22
16. Citrulline is formed by the combination of carbam0Y1 11\ kidney?
phosphate with: A. Glutaminase
8 · Glutamate dehydrogenase
A. Ornithine
B. Arginine C. Glutamine synthetase
C. Choline D. Glutamine oxidase
D. Cysteine
17 B c
11 B 12 c 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 A 18 19 B 20 B 21 B 22 c
72 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Absorption and Metabolism of Proteins 73
[)19!!!!on,
23. In brain, ammonia is detoxified mainly by fonnaij ~ne
'('hre0n1
can be catabolised to:
~ % 30· Propionyl CoA
A. Glutamine B. Asparagine :: Acetyl CoA
C. Urea D . Creatinine C Succinyl CoA
24. The symptoms of ammonia intoxication include: 1).• None of the above
A. Blurring of vision smethylation of guanidoacetic acid gives:
1
B. Tremor 3t. ~-methyl nicotinamide
C. Slurred speech B. Creatine phosphate
D. All of the above c. Crea tinine
25. A glycogenic amino acid is: o. Betaine
A. Leucine
32• The active form of methionine is:
B. Isoleucine A. 5-acetyl methionine
C. Methionine B. N-acetyl methionine
D. Phenylalanine C. 5-carboxyl methionine
D. 5-adenosyl methionine
26. Which among the following is a ketogenic amino acid1
A. Tyrosine 33. Polyamines are formed from:
B. Arginine A. Arginine B. Histidine
C. Isoleucine C. Alanine D. Phenylalanine
D. Leucine
34. All the following are formed from glycine except:
27. Tryptophan is a: A. Purines B. Heme
A. Glycogenic amino acid C. Spermine D. Creatinine
B. Nonessential amino acid
35. Histidine can be converted to histamine (vasodilator)
C. Glycogenic and ketogenic amino acid by:
D. Ketogenic amino acid A. Carboxylation
28. An immediate precursor of glycine is: B. Decarboxylation
A. Choline B. Serine C. Transamination
C. Lysine D. Valine D. Oxidative deamination
29. Serine can be synthesised from:
36
· ~ABA. (y-Aminobutyrate), an inhibitory neurotrans-
A. 3-phospho glycerate tter is formed by decarboxylation of:
B. Glycine A. Pyruvic acid
C. Both of the above B. Glutamic acid
D. Tyrosine C. Glutamine
D· Aspartic acid
23 A 24 D 25 C 26 D 27 C 28 B 29 C 31 B 32 D 33 A 34 C 35 B 36 B
74 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Student Absorption and Metabolism of Proteins 75
~on,
~
37. Forminoglutamic acid (FIGLU) is formed from: ~·ne
'fhytOXl
is formed from which amino acid?
A. Methionine B. Tyrosine
44. A· Glycine
C. Threonine D. Histidine
8. Tryptophan
38. Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error c. Tyrosine
metabolism of: 01
o. Threonine
A. Aromatic amino acids .Albinism occurs due to deficiency of the enzyme:
B. Branched chain amino acids 45, .
A. Tyrosmase .
C. Sulphur containing amino acids . Homogentisate ox1dase
D. Urea cycle 8
c. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
39. The test to detect phenylketonuria is: o. Aldolase B
A. Ferric chloride test 46. Catabolism of tryptophan produces:
B. Benzidine test A. Melanin B. Serotonin
C. Fouchet's test c. Urocanate D. Nicotinate
D. Rothera's test
47. Deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase
40. All the following compounds are formed from tyrosine results in:
except: A. More excretion of alanine in urine
A. Norepinephrine B. Alkaptonuria
B. Melanin C. Phenylketonuria
C. Melatonin D. Hartnup disease
D. Epinephrine
48. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is characterized by:
41. Carcinoid syndrome occurs due to abnormal metabolism A. Urine becoming dark on standing
of: B. Urine with a mousy odour
A. Tyrosine B. Tryptophan C. Urine with smell of burnt sugar
C. Methionine D. Proline D. Increased tyrosine level in urine
49
42. Epinephrine is formed from norepinephrine by: • Alkaptonuria is due to deficiency of which enzyme?
A. Decarboxylation A. Dopa decarboxylase
B. Hydroxylation B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Transamination ~· Homogentisate oxidase
D. N-methylation · Tyrosinase
43. 5-Hydroxy indole acetic acid is the metabolic end produd SO. All th f
e ollowing compounds are formed due to
of: :"~fa~tion of aminoacids in the large intestine except:
A. Serotonin
C. Histidine
B. Adenylic acid
D. Cholesterol
c:Hl~c oxide
2
B. Indole
D . Tyramine
37 D 38 B 39 A 40 C 41 B 42 D 43 A 45 B 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 c 50 A
Digestion, Absorption and Metabolism n
. ci·d synthesis mainly takes place in:
uric a .
s. Muscle B. Kidneys
~: Liver D. Bone marrow
1111 ~1 1 6
. Uric acid is fo~ed from xanthine by the action of:
A. Xanthine ox1dase
Digestion, Absorption B. Xanthine reductase
c. Urease
and Metabolism of o. Uricase
I' Nucleic Acids 1
Sodium urate crystals are deposited in soft tissues in
· gout and these urate deposits are referred to as:
A. Calculi B. Granules
C. Tumor D. Tophi
1. All the following enzymes are involved in digestion of s. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting
dietary nucleic acids except: the enzyme xanthine oxidase is:
A. Restriction endonucleases A. Rifampicin B. Aspirin
B. Ribonucleases C. Allopurinol D. Digitonin
C. Nucleosidases 9. Which enzyme deficiency leads to hypouricemia?
D. Deoxyribonucleases A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
B. Xanthine oxidase
2. Which one is a purine nucleotide?
C. Orotidylic acid decarboxylase
A. Uridylate
D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
B. Cytidylate
C. Adenylate 10. Hyperuricemia occurs in all the following disorders
D. Thymidylate except:
A. Von Gierke's disease
3. The chief end product of purine catabolism in humill1
B. Orotic aciduria
is: C. Gout
A. Xanthine B. Uric acid
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C. Allantoin D. Urea
ll. Normal level of serum uric acid in men is:
4. Which is the end product of purine catabolisnt in A. 3-7 mg/100 ml
mammals other than higher primates? B. lS-45 mg/100 ml
A. Urea C. 70-110 mg/100 ml
B. Uric acid D. 6-8 g/100 ml
C. Ammonia
D. Allantoin
6 A 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 B 11 A
1 A 2 c 3 B 4 D
78 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Stu den~ Digestion, Absorption and Metabolism 79
12. Uric acid pool in human body is about: Jllan the chief end products of pyrimidine catabolism
A. 7 mg B. 700 mg 19· In
are=
C. 1200 mg D. 2 g A· ~-amino!sobutyrate B. Carbon dioxide
C. Ammonia D. All of the above
13. During denovo purine biosynthesis the firs t pu .
nucleotide formed is: rin, Which one of the following is an inborn error of
A. Xanthylic acid B. Inosinic acid 20. pyriJ11idine meta b ol"ism.?
C. Guanylic acid D. Adenylic acid A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
14. What are the atoms of purine that are derived fro 8. Orotic aciduria
glycine? in c. Gout
A. C4, CS and N7
o. Methylmalonic aciduria
B. C4, C6 and N7
C. C4, CS and N9
D. C3 and C9
15. Purine biosynthesis is regulated by:
A. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)
B. Phosphoribosylamine
C. Ribose phosphate
D. Inosine monophosphate
16. Purine biosynthesis is inhibited by:
A. Methotrexate B. Azaserine
C. Aminopterin D. All of the above
17. In salvage pathway, purine nucleotides are formed front
A. Purines and ribose-1-phosphate
B. Purines and phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
C. Purines and ribose S-phosphate
D. Purines and ribose
18. The first step in pyrimidine biosynthesis is catalyseo
by:
A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I
B. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
C. Orotidylic add decarboxylase
D. Adenosine deaminase
12 C 13 B 14 A 15 A 16 D 17 A 18 B 20 B
Metabolism of Hemoglobin 81
------;:-n the organs or cells affected porphyrias are of

s. sase lllanY major classes?
bOW B. 3
A.2 D.6
11111
c.s
ich type of porphyrins is produced excessively in
Metabolism of 6. Wh h . ?
hepatic porp yna.
A. Type I
Hemoglobin B. Type II
C. Type III
o. All of the above
1. Synthesis of porphyrins occurs in:
A. Immature erythrocytes 1. Uroporphyrin and coproporphyrin of which series is
excreted excessively in urine in congenital erythropoietic
B. Liver
porphyria?
A. Type III series
D. Nature erythrocytes 8. Type II series
2. Which one is a regulatory enzyme in the b iosynthesil C. Type I series
of heme? D. None of the above
A. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase 8. Major symptom of erythropoietic porphyrias is:
B. o.amino laevulinate synthase (ALA synthase) A. Photosensitivity
C. Uroporphyrinogen I synthase B. Sterility
D. None of the above C. Respiratory distress
3. All the following can affect heme synthesis except: D.Anaemia
A. Avidin 9. Variegate porphyria is an example of:
B. Glucose A. Erythropoietic porphyria
C. Hematin B. Hepatic porphyria
D. Steroids C. Acquired porphyria
4. Which enzyme in heme synthesis is inhibited by teal D. Erythrohepatic porphyria
poisoning? 10. Which enz yme is . d e f.1cient
. . t erm1ttent
. acute in
in .
A. Ferro chelatase PGrphyrias?
B. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase :· Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase
C. ALA dehydratase c' ~roporphyrinogen decarboxylase
D. ALA synthase
0 · Frotoporphyrinogen oxidase
· errochelatase (heme synthase)
sa 6 c
1 c 2 B 3 A 4 C 7 C 8 A 9 B 10 A
82 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Metabolism of Hemoglobin 83
11. Acquired porphyria may occur due to: --:::oglobin biosynthesis the first to react are:
A. Toxic chemicals 11· Glycine and formate
B. Diabetes mellitus A· Glycine and Propionyl CoA
C. Cancer ~: Glycine and Suc~inyl CoA
D. Tuberculosis p. Lysine and Succmyl CoA
12. Test for porphobilinogen in porphyrinuria is: eme is also required for synthesis of:
A. Hay's test 18 H
· A. 1mmunog1obul"ms
B. Watson and Swartz test
8 . Cyanocobalamin
C. Fouchet's test c. Ceruloplasmin
D. Benzidine test o. Cytochromes
13. Faeces normally contain: l9. Degradation of hemoglobin takes place in:
'" l il A. Coproporphyrin Type I A. Gallblad der
B. Coproporphyrin Type III 8. Reticuloendothelial system cells
C. Uroporphyrin III C. Kidneys
D. Uroporphyrin I D. Liver
14. Synthesis of hemoglobin mainly occurs in: 20. In a normal adult, the quantity of hemoglobin
A. Mature erythrocytes catabolised everyday is:
B. Kidney A.4gm
C. Spleen 8. 6gm
D. Liver and immature erythrocytes C. 12 gm
D.18 gm
15. The cell organelle(s) involved in the synthesis of
hemoglobin is: 21. Catabolism of hemoglobin produces:
A. Cytosol A. Porphobilinogen
B. Mitochondria B. Bile acids
C. Mitochondria and cytosol C. Acetyl CoA
D. Ribosomes D. Bile pigments
16. Heme synthesis involves the incorporation of ferrous 22. ~e first b ile pigment formed from the degradation of
iron (Fe++) into protoporphyrin III in a reaction catalysed e111oglobin is:
by the enzyme: A. Biliverdin
A. Ferrochelatase B. Bilirubin
B. Ferroreductase C. Urobilinogen
C. Ferrooxidase D. Stercobilin
D. Hemeoxygenase
11 A 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 c 16 A
17
c~~,a=-0~~1-9-0~~20~-e~-2-1----=-o~-2~2=--A=--~~~~~
Metabolism of Hemoglobin 85
84 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Stude
~ 'J!J. sUitubin is increased in all the following disorders
23. Which of the following are bile pigments?
A. Cholic acid and deoxycholic acid IXcept:
B. Bilirubin and biliverdin A· pubin-Johnson syndrome
Gilbert's syndrome
C. Bilirubin and cytidine
D. Biliverdin and avidin c:
8
McArdle syndrome
o. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
24. Bilirubin is converted to biliverdin by:
A. Oxidation 3(). Which enzyme is deficient in Gilbert's syndrome?
A. UDP glucuronyl transferase
1 B. Conjugation
I 1
C. Reduction
8. UDP galactose pyrophosphorylase
I I
c. UDP glucose epimerase
~
D . Hydroxylation
o. Biliverdin reductase
II 11 25. Bilirubin formed in reticuloendothelial system ii
transported to liver in combination with:
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Transferrin
D. Ceruloplasmin
26. Defective binding of bilirubin by albumin results in:
A. Porphyrias
B. Kernicterus
D. Anemia
27. The enzyme responsible for conjugation of bilirub~
is:
A. Hemoglobin reductase
B. Bilirubin hydroxylase
C. Bilirubin esterase
D. Glucuronyl transferase
28. Jaundice occurs due to increased concentration of:
1~:~1 A. Bile acids
B. Bile pigments
C. Ketone bodies
I D. Bile salts
30 A
23 B 24 C 25 A 26 B 27 D 28 B
Metabolism of Minerals 87
. intake of sodium for a normal adult person is:

~ 7, oailY B. 5 g
A· 1 g D. 15 g
c. 10 g
of vegetable origin are richer in:
S· fooSd BM .
Metabolism of Minerals C lcium
A· a
c. Potassium
. agnesmm
D S0 d .
· mm
erkalemia is observed in:
9, ffyp d" .
A. Diuretic me icahon
1. How many of the elements are present in our body? B. Addison's disease
A. 10 B. 19 c. Cushing's syndrome
C.~ D.~
o. Vomiting
2. Which one of the following is a macromineral? tO. Daily urinary excretion of chloride is about:
A. Magnesium B. Manganese A. 100-300 mg B. 1-2 g
C. Molybdenum D. Mercury C. 2-4 g D. 5-8 g
3. All the following are microminerals (trace elemenh1 11. The element present in most abundance in human body
except: is:
A. Selenium B. Iron A. Iron
C. Iodine D. Calcium B. Phosphorus
4. Trace elements are named so because they are requinG C. Calcium
daily less than: D.Sodium
A. 10 mg B. 100 mg 12. Calcium performs all the following functions except:
C. 500 mg D.1 g A. It is essential for the formation and development of
5. Normal level of sodium in serum/plasma is: bones and teeth
B. It regulates the excitability of nerve fibres and centres
A. 95-105 mEq/L
C. It plays a role in iron absorption
B. 135-145 mEq/L
D. Ionised calcium is required in blood coagulation
C. 3.5-5 mEq/L
process
D. 22-28 mEq/L
13. The ch"1ef source of calcium is:
6. Hyponatremia occurs in: A.. Fish
A. Congestive heart failure B Dairy
· products
B. Gastrointestinal loss c'
·Grains
C. Excessive sweating D.Meat
D . All of the above
8 c 9 B 10 D 11 C 12 C 13 B
1 c 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 B 6 D
88 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Metabolism of Minerals 89
14. Calcium is necessary for the activation of the enzYnt Magnesium is an essential component in:
A. A TPase B. Fumarase e: 21· Vitamin B12 B. Hemoglobm
C. Glucokinase D. Xanthine oxidase ~: Ceruloplasmin D. Chlorophyll
15. Normal calcium level in serum is: Magnesium deficiency causes:
A. 0.6-1.2 mg% 22- A. Convu1s10ns
.
B. 3-5 mg%
B. Anemia
C. 6-20 mg% c. Sterility
D. 8.5-10.5 mg% o. Retarded growth
16. Which one of the hormones regulates blood calciurn
level? 23• The principal cation in the extracellular fluid is:
A. Potassium B. Sodium
A. Thyroid hormones c. Magnesium D. Chloride
B. Parathyroid hormones
C. Insulin 24. Total iron content of a normal adult is:
D. Glucagon A. 1-2 g B. 2-4 g
C. 5-7 g D. 8-10 g
17. Total phosphorus present in the body is:
A. 300 g B. 700 g 25. Milk is deficient in which of the following minerals?
C. 1.1 g D. 1.5 kg A. Calcium
8. Iron
18. The richest source of phosphorus in the diet is: C. Sodium
A. Eggs D. Phosphorus
B. Milk
C. Cheese 26. Iron is mainly absorbed from:
D. All of the above A. Ileum
B. Caecum
19. Sulphur is a component of: C. Stomach
A. Thiamine D. Duodenum and Jejunum
B. Vitamin B12 27
C. Vitamin E • Iron absorption can increase due to:
D. None of the above A. Glutathione B. Gastric HCl
C. Vitamin C D. All of the above
20. Sulphur is excreted in urine as: 28
• Bronze diabetes is associated with abnormal metabolism
A. Neutral sulfur of:
B. Inorganic sulphates A. Carbohydrates
C. Ethereal sulphates B. Iron
D. All of the above C. Chromium
D. Fats
21 D'~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
14 A 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 D 28 B 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 D 27 D
90 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Metabolism of Minerals 91
29. Percentage of total iron of human body p resent 1. --;:--is a constituent of the enzyme:
hemoglobin is: 1\ 3'· A· Transketolase
A. 10% B. 20% B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. 75% D. More than 75% C Lactate dehydrogenase
o'. Xanthme oxidase
30. Iron is present in all the following except:
A. Coenzyme A 7 Zinc deficiency
3.
causes:
B. Myoglobin A. Hypogona d ism
'
C. Peroxidases B. Hypothyroidism
D. Ca talases c. Anemia
o. Goitre
31. Transferrin, the transport form of Iron is a:
A. Mucopolysaccharide 38. Rich source for Iodine is:
B. Simple protein A. Milk
C. Compound lipid B. Sea water
D. Glycoprotein C. Meat
D. All of the above
32. Recommended daily allowance (RDA) of iron for
women during pregnancy and lactation is: 39. Iodine is stored in the form of:
A. 10 mg B. 18 mg A. Ferritin
C. 28 mg D. 38 mg B. Transferrin
C. Ceruloplasmin
33. All the following are copper containing proteins/ D. Thyroglobulin
enzymes except:
A. Superoxide dismutase 40. Deficiency of which mineral results in endemic goitre?
A. Fluorine
B. Erythocuprein
B. Selenium
C. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Iodine
D. Glutathione peroxidase
D. Manganese
34. Molybdenum is a component of: 4
A. Xanthine oxidase 1. All the following are goitrogenic substances except:
A. Sea foods
B. &-ALA dehydratase
B. Raddish
C. Cerebrocuprein
C. Cabbage
D. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Cauliflower
35. Wilson disease (hepatolenticular degeneration) results
due to defective metabolism of: 42. Main source of fluoride for human beings is:
A. Vegetables B. Eggs
A. Potassium B. Iron
C. Water D. Milk
C.CoppB D . fudme
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ 38 B 37 A
29 C 30 A 31 D 32 B 33 D 34 A 35 C 38 B 39 D 40 c 41 A 42 c
43. Dental fluorosis occurs when fluoride concentration .

water exceeds: ill
A. 1-2ppm B. 3-5 ppm
C. 10-15 ppm D. 25-30ppm
44. Manganese is involved in:
A. Reproduction B. Iron absorption
Detoxication
C. Bone formation D. None of the above
45. Molybdenum is a component of the enzyme: t. Which of the following statements on detoxication is
A. Carbonic anhydrase correct?
B. Superoxide dismutase A. Detoxication is a process by which toxic substances
C. Xanthine oxidase are converted to nontoxic or less toxic substances in
D. Glutathione peroxidase the body
46. Which mineral is called as glucose tolerance factor? B. There are four types of detoxication mechanisms in
A. Chromium B. Zinc the body
C. Iron D. Copper C. Foreign compounds which enter the body are called
as xenobiotics
47. Chromium is essential for: D. All of the above
A. Immunity
B. Increasing lipogenesis 2. The principal organ where detoxication takes place is:
C. Increasing the potency of insulin A. Kidney
D. All of the above B. Liver
C. Intestine
48. Cobalt toxicity develops: D. Spleen
A. Hepatolenticular degeneration
B. Menke's syndrome 3. Which of the following substances is detoxified by
oxidation?
C. Alkali disease
D. Polycythemia A. Methyl alcohol
B. Picric acid
49. Which one of the following elements has anticancer C. Bilirubin
action? D. Benzoic acid
A. Magnesium B. Selenium 4
C. Molyloderum D. Calcium • Nitro compounds are detoxified by which one the
following mechanisms?
50. All the following are non essential trace elements except: A. Conjugation B. Hydrolysis
A. Selenium B. Arsenic C. Reduction D. Oxidation
C. Mercury D. Lead
1
43 B 44 A 45 C 46 A 47 C 48 D 49 9 D 28 3A 4 C
50 A
6. Of the total excreted sulphur in urine the percentag

etherial sulphate is about: e of
A. 1% B. 5%
C. 10% D. 15%
7. Colour of normal faces is due to the presence of th
• e
pigment:
A. Biliverdin
B. Urochrome
C. Bilirubin
D. Stercobilin Energy Metabolism
8. Odour of faces is due to:
A. H2S
B. Mercaptans t. The unit of energy is:
C. Both of the above A. Calorie (C)
D. Fat B. Joule (J)
9. The most abundant constituent of sweat is: D. Entropy (5)
A. KCl
B. NaCl 2. Heat (energy) obtained by burning a particular food
C. MgCh stuff is expressed by the term:
D.CaCh A. Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
B. Caloric value
10. Electrolytes in sweat are increased considerably in: C. Specific dynamic action (SDA)
A. Cystic fibrosis D. Respiratory quotient (RQ)
B. Jaundice
C. Peptic ulcer 3. Caloric value of food stuffs can be measured in vitro by:
D. Diabetes mellitus A. Colorimeter
B. Flame photometer
C. Lactometer
D. Bomb calorimeter
4. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields more
calories per gram?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Plant proteins
D. Animal proteins
6 c 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 A 1C 28 30 4 B
Energy Metabolism 99
----·
5. The caloric value of carbohydrate per gram is: • sMR is b elow normal in:
A. 4.1 C B. 5.4 C 13 A· Addison's disease B. Starvation
C. 7.1 C D . 9.3 C c. Both of the above D. Hyperthyroidism
6. Respiratory quotient (R.Q) is highest for: In which d isorder, BMR is above normal?
14
A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates · A. Polycythemia B. Leukemia
C. Fats D. Mixed diet c. Hyper thyroidism D. All of the above
7. R.Q of protein is: 15. The energy expended by an individual depends on:
A. 0.65 B. 0.85 A.BMR
c. 0.80 D. 1.00 S. SDA
c. Physical activities
8. Which food stuff has highest specific dynamic action?
D. All of the above
A. Vitamins B. Carbohydrates
C. Fats D. Proteins 16. Daily calorie requirement of an adult male is:
A. 1000 C B. 2500 C
9. Normal BMR of an adult male is:
C. 3000 C D. 4000 C
A. 10 C/sqm/hr
B. 20 C/ sqm/hr 17. Daily caloric requirement for a man doing moderate
C. 40 C/ sqm/hr work is:
D. 60 C/sqm/hr A. 2000-2400 C B. 2700-3200 C
10. BMR can be measured by:
c. 3200-4000 c D. Above 4000 C
A. Spectrophotometer 18. Energy expenditure per hour for doing light exercise is:
B. Colorimeter A. 170 C B. 250 C
C. Calorimeter C. 400 C D. 600 C
D. Benedict Roth apparatus 19. Recommended daily caloric requirement of lactating
11. BMR is influenced by the factors like: women is:
A. Climate A. 1500 C B. 2000 C
B. Age C. 3000 C D. 4500 C
C. Sex 20. Which activity requires most energy?
D. All of the above A. Swimming
12. Determination of BMR helps in the diagnosis of: B. Walking upstairs
A. Thyroid diseases C.Running
B. Diabetes Insipidus D. Walking very fast
C. Diabetes Mellitus
5 A 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 D 11 D 14 D 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 C
12 A
Food and Nutrition 101
---;:h food group contains high amount of cholesterol?

6· A· Shell fish, meats, dairy products
B. Fruits and vegetables
C. Grains and pulses
o. None of the above
Food and Nutrition 7. The num~ er o~ nutritionally essential fatty acids for
human bemgs is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
1. Primary foods are:
A. Vitamins s. The percentage of nitrogen which is retained in the body
B. Carbohydrates, fats and proteins is:
C. Minerals A. Metabolic pool of amino acids
D. All of the above B. Biological value of proteins
C. Total protein in the body
2. The protective substances in the diet are: D. None of the above
A. Proteins B. Minerals
C. Vitamins D. All of the above 9. A positive nitrogen balance occurs in:
A. Convalescence
3. For a normal person, how much calories is provided by B. Child growth
the carbohydrate component of food stuff? C. Pregnancy
A. 10-15% B. 20-25% D. All of the above
c. 55-65% D. 75-80%
10. When is negative nitrogen balance observed?
4. A minimum of carbohydrate required daily by a normal
adult is:
A. 50 g
A. Illness
B. Protein deficiency
'
B. 100 g D. Child growth
c. 150 g 11. Proteins differ in biological value depending on their
D. 400 g contents of:
5. People taking fat as the principal food for energy tend A. Semiessential amino acid
to develop: B. Essential amino acids
A. Obesity C. Non essential amino acids
B. Coronary heart disease D. Neutral amino acids
C. Cancer of the bowel U. Biological value of egg is:
D. All of the above A. 14 B. 54
c. 94 D.110
8 A 7 c
1 B 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 D 8 B 9 D 10 C 11 B 12 C
----
102 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Food and Nutrition 103
13. Which is the limiting aminoacid in pulses? Milk is rich in all the following except:
20. 1.
A. Methionine B. Lysine A· Ca c1um
C. Glycine D. Tyrosine 8. Phosphate
14. High quality proteins/first class proteins/comp} t
c. Iron
.
proteins are:
ee o. Sodium
A. Dairy products . Green leaf vegetables are good sources of:
21
B. Eggs A. Minerals
C. Meat 8. Vitamins
D. All of the above C. Carbohydrates
15. Poor quality proteins or incomplete proteins include:

o. Fats
A. Vegetable proteins 22. Fibre in the diet is essential to prevent:
B. Egg proteins A. Colon Cancer
C. Milk proteins 8. Hyperglycemia
D. Fish proteins C. Hypercholesterolemia
D. All of the above
16. Which one of the following is deficient in rice?
A. Lysine 23. Food toxicants are:
B. Methionine A. Goitrogens
C. Threonine B. Pesticides
D. All of the above C. Some preservatives or additives
D. All of the above
17. Proportion of carbohydrates, fat and protein in the
balanced diet is: 24. Which disease occurs due to dietary deficiency?
A. 1:1:4 B. 1:4:1 A. Phenylketonuria
C. 4:1:1 D. 1:1:1 B. Xerophthalmia
C. Hemochomatosis
18. Kwashiorkor results from dietary deficiency of: D. Sickle cell anemia
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins 25. Disease due to ovemutrition is:
C. Proteins and calories A. Alkaptonuria
D. Vitamins B. Hartnup disease
C. Atherosclerosis
19. Marasmus is due to malnutrition of: D. Wilson's disease
A. Proteins and carbohydrates
B. Proteins and vitamins
C. Proteins and minerals
D. Proteins and calories
13 A 14 D 15 A 16 A 17 c 18 B 19 D 20 c 21 B 22 D 23 D 24 B 25 c
----
Fluid and Electrolyte Balance 105
J\11 the following are known as electrolytes in the body

7,
except:
J\. Chloride B. Sodium
c. Glucose D. Potassium
s. Which is the major cation present in intracellular fluid?
Fluid and Electrolyte J\. Potassium B. Sodium
c. Magnesium D. Calcium
Balance 9. Which electrolyte is found in large quantity in
extracellular fluid?
A. Calcium B. Sodium
1. Average body water in the total body weight is: C. Magnesium D. Potassium
A. 20-30% B. 40-50%
C. 50-60% D. 60-70% tO. Which hormone regulates electrolyte balance?
A. Cortisol
2. The daily intake or output of water through different B. Insulin
sources is: C. Oxytocin
A. 1000 ml B. 2200 ml D. Aldosterone
c. 2700 ml D. 3000 ml
3. How much metabolic water is formed from oxidation of
food stuff?
A. 100 ml B. 200 ml
c. 300 ml D. 400 ml
4. Percentage of body fluid that can be represented as
extracellular fluid is:
A.10 B. 20
c. 50 D. 75
5. Symptoms of water intoxication is:
A. Muscular weakness B. Paralysis
C. Fever D. Anaemia
6. Dehydration occurs in:
A. Patients with dysphagia
B. Excessive sweating
C. Loss of gasterointestinal fluids
D. All of the above ----
1 D 2 c 3 D 4 B 5 A 6 D 8 A 9 B 10 D
--- Acid Base Balance
7, Renal mechanisms for regulation of acid base balance

include:
A. Ammonia mechanism
B. Bicarbonate mechanism
107
c. Phosphate mechanism
Acid Base Balance o. All of the above
s. All of the following conditions may give rise to acidosis
except:
1. Normal pH of arterial blood is: A. Pyloric stenosis
A. 6.35-6.45 B. 7.35-7.45 B. Diarrhoea
C. 4.35-4.45 D. 6.95-7.25 c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Fanconi's syndrome
2. If the pH of blood is 7.4 the ratio of NaHC0 3/ll 2CQ3
will be: 9, Alkalosis occurs due to:
A. 5:1 B. 10:1 A. Cushing' s syndrome
c. 20:1 D. 25:1 B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Hyperventilation
3. Mechanisms for regulation of acid base balance include: D. All of the above
A. Renal mechanism
B. Respiratory mechanism 10. Anion gap refers to the following in serum:
C. Buffer systems in the blood A. Unmeasured anions
D. All of the above B. Unmeasured cations
C. Difference between anions and cations
4. Factors which affect acid base balance include: D. Unmeasured anions and cations
A. Anaerobic energy production
B. Violent muscular exercise
C. A high protein diet
D. All of the above
5. The chief physiological buffer in the blood is:
A. Bicarbonate buffer B. Hemoglobin buffer
C. Proteinate buffer D. Phosphate buffer
6. The major acid produced in the body during oxidatioll
in the cells is:
A. Phosphoric acid B. Acetic acid
C. Carbonic acid D. Hydrochloric acid
1 B 2 c 3 D 4 D 5 A 6 c 7 D 8 A 9 D 10 C
----
Organ Function Tests 109
In alcoholics, the marker enzyme estimated in serum is:

6
· A. SGOT B. SGPT
c.CPK D.yGT
1. The function of the kidneys is regulated by the

hormone:
Organ Function Tests A. Parathyroidhormone
B. Vasopressin
c. Aldosterone
D. All of the above
1. The following are the important liver func tion tests 8. All the following substances have been used to estimate
except: glomerular filtration rate (GFR) except:
A. Urea clearance test A. Phenylred B. Inulin
B. Galactose tolerance test C. Creatinine D. Mannitol
C. Prothrombin time
D. Bromsulphthalein test 9. Kidney functions which are important in maintaining
acid base balance include:
2. Test based on abnormalities of bile pigment metabolism A. Bicarbonate mechanism
is: B. Phosphate mechanism
A. Creatinine clearance test C. Ammonia mechanism
B. Hippuric acid synthesis test D. None of the above
C. van den Bergh's test
10. Renal tubular function can be assessed by:
D. Rothera's test A. Creatinine clearance test
3. Obstruction of the common bile duct leads to: B. Inulin clearance test
A. Prehepatic jaundice B. Posthepatic jaundice C. Urea clearance test
C. Hepatic jaundice D. Physiological jaundice D. Concentration and dilution tests
4. The bromsulphthalein test: 11. Excretion of phenolsulphthalein (PSP) primarily
A. Is used to measure glomerular filtration rate reflects:
B. Is used to evaluate the excretory function of the liver A. Glomerular filtration rate
C. Indicates the degree of jaundice . B. Tubular excretory capacity
D. Assesses the ability of the liver to synthesis protell1 C. Liver function
5. Blood ammonia determination is useful in the
investigation of: U. Clearance is measured to assess quantitatively the rate
A. Hepatoma. B. Nephrotic syndrome of excretion of a given substance by the:
C. Obstructive jaundice D. Hepatic failure A. Liver B. Spleen
C. Intestine D. Kidney
1 A 2 c 3 B 4 B 5 D ------------~~~~~~~~~~-
&D 7 c 8 A 9 D 10 D 11 B 12 D
11 O MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students
13. Normal standard urea clearance is:

A. 54 ml/min B. 64 ml/min
C. 75 ml/min D. 90 ml/min
14. Which one refers to normal maximum urea cleamace?
A. 40ml/min
C. 75 ml/min
B. 60ml/min
D. 120 ml/min
Hormones
15. Normal creatinine clearance is:
A. 1-2 ml/min B. 50-60 ml/min
C. 90-120 ml/min D. 150-200 ml/min 1. Which statement is not true about hormones?
A. They act through second messengers
16. Creatinine clearance is decreased in: B. They may act as coenzymes
A. Liver diseases B. Renal diseases C. They may alter the permeability of plasma membranes
C. Brain diseases D. Bone diseases D. They are not always proteins
17. Gastric function can be studied by: 2. All the following are protein/peptide hormones except:
A. Hippuric acid synthesis test A. Oxytocin
B. BSP excretion test B. Insulin
C. Xylose excretion test C. Epinephrine
D. Fractional test meal analysis D. Glucagon
18. Thyroid status can be accurately assessed by: 3. A steroid hormone is:
A. Serum TSH level A. Thyroxine
B. Serum T3 uptake B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Free thyroxine index C. Oxytocin
D. Serum T4 level D. Cortisol
19. The test to diagnose acute pancreatitis is by estimation 4. The second messenger for glucagon is:
of: A. Cyclic GMP
A. Amylase B. Acid phosphatase B. Cyclic AMP
C. Alkaline phosphatase D. YGT C. Calcium
D.AMP
20. Adrenocortical function can be assessed by assay of:
A. Plasma cortisol S. Factors regulating hormone action are:
B. Urinary 17 ketosteroids A. Rate of synthesis and secretion
C. Both of the above B. Hormone specific receptors
D. Vanillylmandelic acid C. Specific transport systems in plasma
D · All of the above
13 A 14 C 15 C 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 A 1 B 2 c 3 D 4 B 5 D
20 c
----
112 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students Hormones 113
6. Which one is not a hypothalamic releasing factor? Which of the following hormones is involved in
13
A. LH-RF • increased reabsorption of water from renal tubular
B. Insulin-RF epithelial .cells?
C. Prolactin-RF A. Oxytocm
D.FSH-RF B. Vasopressin (ADH)
c. Cortisol
7. All the following hormones are produced by the anterio o. Glucagon
lobe of pituitary gland except: r
A.MSH 14. Diabetes insipidus occurs due to abnormal secretion or
B. TSH action of:
C. Prolactin A. Aldosterone B. Insulin
D. Growth hormone C. ADH D. Oxytocin
8. Growth hormone stimulates the growth of bones and 15. The hormone produced by middle lobe of pituitary is:
cartilages through: A. TSH B. MSH
A. Calcitonin C. LH D.FSH
B. Calmodulin 16. Hormone derived from tyrosine includes which of the
C. Somatomedin C following ?
D. None of the above A. Glucagon B. Thyroxine
9. All the following are pituitary tropic hormones except: C. Gastrin D. Oxytocin
A.ACTH B. ADH 17. All are antithyroid drugs except:
C. TSH D. Prolactin A. Thiouracil B. Thiourea
10. Lactogenic hormone is: C. PABA D. Alloxan
A. Oxytocin B. FSH 18. A disease which involves abnormalities in hormone
C. LH D. Prolactin receptor function is:
11. Oxytocin: A. Graves' disease
A. Is secreted by posterior lobe of pituitary B. Addison's disease
B. Causes uterine contraction C. Hartnup disease
C. Causes milk secretion D. Wilson's disease
D. All of the above 19
· Hyperthyroidism results in:
12. Which hormone is produced by posterior pituitary gland? A. Cushing' s syndrome
A. Oxytocin B. Grave's disease
B. Vasopressin C. Addison's disease
C. Both of the above D. Pheochromocytoma
D. Prolactin
6 B 7 A 8 C 9 B 10 D 11 D 12 C 14 C 15 B 16 B 17 D 18 A 19 B
20. Normal level of total thyroxine (T4) in serum is:

A. 1-5 ng/ dl
C. 15-20 ng/dl
B. 5-12 µg/dl
D. 40-45 ng / dl
---
2
A. Epinephrine
B. Thyroxine
Hormones 115
7. All the follo.wing are hyperglycemic hormones except:
21. Calcium metabolism is hormonally regulated by:

c. Insulin
A. Calcitonin
o. Glucagon
B. Vitamin D 28. Diabetes Mellitus is caused due to deficiency of which
C. Parathyroid hormone hormone?
D. All of the above A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
22. Calmodulin is a:
C. Epinephrine
A. Calcium dependent regulatory protein
D. Cortisol
B. A hormone secreted by parathyroid gland
C. A calcium antagonist 29. An example for a glucocorticoid is:
D. None of the above A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone
23. Insulin is secreted by:
C. Glucagon
A. 8 cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas
D. Insulin
B. Anterior lobe of Pituitary gland
C. a cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas 30. A mineralocorticoid is:
D. ~ cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas A. Calcitonin
B. Aldosterone
24. Which hormone contains sulphur in its structure?
C. Progesterone
A. Glucagon D. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. LH 31. Hypoadrenocorticism produces:
D. Epinephrine A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing' s syndrome
25. a cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas secrete:
C. Phoechromocytoma
A. Insulin D. Myxoedema
B. Glucagon
3
C. Oxytocin 2. Which of the following hormones is most important in
D. Gastrin regulating sodium and potassium balance?
A. Cortisol
26. Which one is not the function of Insulin? B. Estradiol
A. Decreases muscle glycogen C. Progesterone
B. Decreases Gluconeogenesis D. Aldosterone
C. Increases glycolysis
D. Decreases blood sugar
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~-------
20 B 21 D 22 A 23 D 24 B 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 B 29 A 30 B 31 A 32 D
116 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Stude t
----
Hormones 117
~
33. Which of the following stimulates the rel eas Which is the immediate precursor of testosterone?
e Of 39. .
aldosterone? Ji. Tyrosine
A. Angiotensin II B. Cholesterol
B. ACTH c. Progesterone
C. Both of the above o. Androstenedione
D.Calcium
40. Estradiol is a:
34. Which hormone stimulates both anabolic and cataboli }i. Steroid hormone
effects on protein metabolism? c B. Protein hormone
A. Glucocorticoids c. Peptide hormone
B. Insulin o. Derivative of aminoacid
C. Testosterone
D. Thyroid hormones 41. Pregnadiol is:
A. A secretion from the ovary
35. Epinephrine is synthesised from: B. An excretory product of progesterone
A. Tryptophan C. A component of a female contraceptive
B. Tyrosine D. Formed from prostaglandin
C. Glycine
D. Arginine 42. hCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin) is a tumor marker
of:
36. Cateholamines are all the following except: A. Thyroid
A. Adrenaline (epinephrine) B. Colon
B. Noradrenaline (norepinephrine) C. Lungs ,
C. Dopamine D. Trophoblast and germ cells
D. Serotonin
43. All steroid hormones are formed from:
37. Which one is an indolamine? A. Arachidonic acid
A. Adrenaline B. Acetyl CoA
B. Noradrenaline C. Glycine
C. Serotonin D. Cholesterol
D. Glutamine
44. Erythropoietin is a hormone secreted by:
38. Which of the following substances is present in hi·g~ A. Erythrocytes B. Corpus luteum
concentration in the urine of patients wit C. Kidney D. Pineal gland
pheochromocytomas (tumors of adrenal medulla)? 45
A. 3-Methoxy 4-0H mandelic acid · All of the following are gut hormones except:
A. Secretin B. Calcitonin
B. 5-Hydroxy indole acetic acid
C. Epinephrine
C. Motilin D. Cholecystokinin
D. Norepinephrine -------
33 A 34 A 35 B 36 D 37 c 38 A 39 D 40 A 41 B 42 D 43 D 44 c 45 B
----
Molecular Biology 119
semiconservative type of DNA replication was

7
• experimentally proved by:
A. Watson and Crick
B. Kornberg
c. Meselson and Stahl
Molecular Biology o. Chargaff
8. All the following are required for DNA replication in
eukaryotes except:
1. Genome refers to total: A. DNA Polymerase I
A. tRNA B. mRNA B. a. DNA polymerase
C. DNA D.rRNA C. RNA primer
D. DNA ligase
2. Nucleosomes contain:
A. DNA and histones 9. Okazaki fragments are pieces of:
B. DNA and RNA A. mRNA
C. DNA, RNA and histones B. tRNA
D. RNA and histones C. yRNA
D.DNA
3. Which histones are present in nucleosome core?
A. H2A B. H2B 10. An inhibitor of DNA replication is:
C. H3 and H4 D. All of the above A. Mitomycin
B. Allopurinol
4. Central dogma of molecular biology states: C. Rifamycin
A. RNA~DNA~Protein D. Puromycin
B. DNA~RNA~Protein
C. Protein~RNA~DNA 11. Mutation occurs due to change in:
D. DNA~Protein~RNA A. Nucleosides
B. Nuleotides
5. DNA synthesis occurs in which phase of the cell cycle?
C. Base sequence of RNA
A. G1 B. G 2 D. Base sequence of DNA
C. S D. All of the above
12. AU the following are DNA repairing mechanisms except:
6. Replication is synthesis of: A. Base excision repair
A. DNA from RNA B. Nucleotide excision repair
B. DNA from DNA C. Conjugation
C. RNA from DNA D. Mismatch repair
D. Protein from RNA
7
1 c 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 c 6 B C 8 A 9 D 10 A 11 D 12 C
13. Which disease

.
mechanism?
occurs due to defective DNA rep air
. --- code for the synthesis of:
A. DNA
Molecular Biology
B. Heme
121
20. Genetic code is a collection of triplets (codons) which
A. Fanconi's anemia
B. Pernicious anemia c. Protein D. Prostaglandins
C. Albinism
21. Genetic code was deciphered by:
D. Gaucher's disease A. Watson and Crick
14. Transcription is the formation of: B. Stahl and Meselson
A. RNA from DNA C. Nirenberg and Mathei
B. DNA from DNA D. Khorana
C. Protein from RNA 22. Codons are present in:
D. DNA from RNA A. rRNA B. mRNA
15. Transcription occurs in: C. tRNA D.DNA
A. Ribosomes B. Nucleus 23. Total number of codons in the genetic code is:
C. Golgi apparatus D. Mitochondria A. 1 B. 3
16. Which is not required for transcription? C. 61 D.64
A. RNA dependent DNA polymerase 24. Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes the existence
B. A DNA template of:
C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase A. Multiple codons for a simple amino acid
D. Sigma factors B. Base triplets that do not code for any amino acid
17. Primary transcript consists of: C. Codons consisting of only two bases
A. Exons D. Codons which contain one or more unusual bases
B. Introns 25. The initiating codon for protein synthesis is:
C. Both of the above A.UAG B. UUU
D. Okazaki fragments C.AAA D.AUG
18. RNA processing includes: 26. The chain initiating amino acid in protein synthesis in
A. 5' capping and poly A tailing E-coli is:
B. Methylation A. Glycine B. Methionine
C. Splicing of intrans C. Cysteine D. Arginine
D. All of the above
27. Non-sense codons bring about:
19. Amanitin (mushroom poison) inhibits: A. Initiation of protein synthesis
A. Replication B. mRNA synthesis B. Elongation of polypeptide chain
C. Protein synthesis D. ATP synthesis C. Termination of protein synthesis
~ostranslational modification of proteins
20 C 21 C 22 B 23 D 24 A 25 D 26 B
13 A 14 A 15 B 16 A 17 C 18 D 19 B 27 c
28. The terminating codons in protein synthesis are:

A.GGU,GGC,GGA
B. UUU,UCC,UCA
--- Molecular Biology 123
35. All the .following are post translational modifications

of proteins except:
A. Hydroxylation
C. AUG, ACG, AAG B. Conjugation
D.UAA,UAG,UGA c. Phosphorylation
29. The codon for Phenylalanine is:
o. Glycosylation
A.UUU B. UAU 36. An inhibitor of protein synthesis is:
C. UAC D.AUG A. Chloramphenicol B. Actinomycin D
30. Synthesis of protein from RNA is known as:
c. Mitamycin D. Rifamycin
A. Reverse transcription 37, Inborn errors of metabolism are a group of inherited
B. Translation disease which arise due to deficiency of:
C. Replication A. Vitamins B. Enzymes
D. Transcription C. Hormones D. Minerals
31. Protein biosynthesis takes place in: 38. All the following are inborn errors of metabolism except:
A. Nucleus A. Wilson's disease
B. Cell membrane B. Albinism
C. Ribosomes C. Addison's disease
D. Mitochondria D. Galactosemia
32. Which of the following is required for protein synthesis? 39. Operon concept was proposed by:
A. tRNA A. Jacob and Monod
B. mRNA B. Watson and Crick
C. rRNA C. Kornberg
D. All of the above D. Nirenberg
33. Peptidyl transferase is an enzyme involved in: 40. Gene regulation consist of:
A. Initiation of protein synthesis A. Gene rearrangement
B. Elongation of peptide chain B. Gene amplification
C. Termination of protein synthesis C. RNA processing
D. Postranslational modification of proteins D. All of the above
34. How many high energy bonds are necessary for th~
41. Method to detect DNA is:
0
formation of a peptide bond during elongation step A. Northern Blot
protein synthesis? B. Western Blot
A. 4 B. 3 C. Southern Blot
C. 2 D. 1 D. Hybidoma technology
28 D 29 A 30 B 31 C 32 D 33 B 34 A 3S B 36 A 37 B 38 C 39 A 40 D 41 c
42. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify:

A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. DNA D. rRNA
43. Key enzymes in recombinant DNA technology are:
A. Exonucleases
B. Restriction enzymes
C. Proteolytic enzymes
D. RNA Polymerases Instrumentation,
44. Application of recombinant DNA technology include:
A. Gene mapping
Techniques and Practicals
B. Production of proteins
C. Gene therapy in Biochemistry
D. All of the above
45. Cloning allows for the production of a large number of
identical molecules of: 1. Procedure to detect a substance by the colour observed
A.mRNA or precipitate obtained during a reaction is known as:
B. DNA A. Qualitative analysis
C. rRNA B. Quantitative analysis
D. tRNA C. Volumetric analysis
D. Gravimetric analysis
2. Which of the following is the general test for
carbohydrate?
A. Iodine test B. Benedict's test
C. Molisch's test D. Biuret test
3. Test that can distinguish between monosaccharides and
disaccharides is:
A. Benedicts test B. Barfoed's test
C. Fehling's test D. Foulger's test
4 Which of the following tests is used to detect
polysaccharides?
A. Barfoed's test
B. Benedict's test
C. Biuret test
D. Iodine test
42 C 43 B 44 D 45 B 1A 2C 38 4 D
126 MCQs in Biochemistry
5. Test for reducing sugar is:

A. Molisch's test
B. Benedict's test
--- -- Instrumentation, Techniques and Practicals
11· Presence of sucrose in the given solution can be

confirmed by:
A. Benedict's test
127
C. Iodine test B. Barfoed's test

D. Bial's test C. Iodine test
D . Hydrolysis test
6. The precipitate formed in Benedict's qualitative test for
reducting sugar is: 12. Hydrolysis of starch by acid gives which end product?
A. Cupric oxide A. Maltose
B. Potassium thiocyanate B. Lactose
C. Cuprous oxide C. Sucrose
D. Ferric thiocyanate D . Glucose
7. Benedict's qualitative reagent contains: 13. Which is the general test for proteins?
A. Copper sulphate, sodium citrate and sodium carbonate A. Ninhydrin test
B. Copper sulphate, sodium chloride and sodium B. Biuret test
carbonate C. Sakaguchi's test
C. Copper acetate, sodium citrate and sodium carbonate D . Molisch's test
D. Copper acetate, sodium citrate and glacial acetic acid
14. Which of the following gives a positives reaction for
8. Glucose and fructose form which type of osazone
Ninhydrin test?
crystals?
A. Imino acid
A. Sunflower shape
B. Reducing sugars
B. Needle shape
C. a amino acids
C. Hedgehog shape D . Cholesterol
D. Rhombic shape
15. Which of the following tests is performed specifically
9. Osazone crystals having sunflower shape are formed by:
to detect casein?
A. Glucose A. Biuret test
B. Fructose B. Xanthoproteic test
C. Lactose C. Heat coagulation test
D. Maltose D . Newmann's test
10. Seliwanoff's test and Foulger's test are use d to
16. Gelatin and peptone can be differentiated by:
differentiate aldosugars from:
A. Saturation test
A. Aminosugars
B. Heat coagulation test
B. Ketosugars C. Ninhydrin test
C. Disaccharides D . Millon's test
D . Polysaccharides
5 B 6 c 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 B 11 D 12 A 13 B 14 C 15 D 16 A
128 MCQs in Biochemistry Instrumentation, Techniques and Practicals 129
------ II ----
17. Aromatic amino acids can be qualitatively detected by· 23· pH of normal urine is:
A. Pauly's test · A. 2-3.5
B. Xanthoproteic test B. 4.6-8.0
C. Sulphur test c. 6-8.5
D. Sakaguchi test D . 7-10
18. Urea, uric acid and creatinine are known as: 24. Specific gravity of normal urine is:
A. Pyrimidines A . 1000-1005
B. Amino acid derivatives B. 1010-1015
C. Nonprotein nitrogenous substances c. 1015-1025
D. Polyamines D. 1025-1035
19. Presence of urea can be confirmed by specific urease 25. Name the instrument used to measure specific gravity
test. Which colour develops in this test? of urine:
A. Yellow A. Maclean's Ureameter
B. Red B. pH meter
C. Green C. Urinometer
D. Pink D . Lactometer
20. Which compound is formed in murexide test for uric 26. Low specific gravity in urine is observed in:
acid? A. Diabetes insipidus
A. Ammonium sulphate B. Diabetes mellitus
B. Ammonium purpurate C. Both of the above
C. Ammonium carbonate D. Jaundice
D. Tungsten blue 27. Which one of the following is an inorganic constituents
21. Jaffe' s reaction is a confirmatory test for which substance? present in normal urine?
A. Creatinine A. Albumin
B. Urea B. Glucose
C. Uric acid C. Calcium
D. Peptone D . Bilirubin
22. The test to detect Vitamin A in solution is: 28. An example for organic constituent present in normal
A. Schiff's test urine is:
B. Vanden Berg reaction A. Ammonia
C. Figlu test B. Chloride
D. Cavr Price reaction C. Calcium
D. Urea
17 B 18 C 19 D 20 B 21 A 22 D 23 B 24 C 25 C 26 A 27 C 28 D
130 MCQs in Biochemistry
-
29. Alkaline hypobromite test is used to detect the presence
of which substance in normal urine?
Instrumentation, Techniques and Practicals
34. Hay's test is used to detect:

A. Sugar in urine
131
A. Uric acid B. Ketone bodies in urine

B. Urea C. Bile salt in urine
C. Creatinine D. Bile pigments in urine
D.Calcium 35. Hemoglobin in abnormal urine can be qualitatively
30. Benedict's test for detection of uric acid in urine detected by:
produces: A. Rothera's test B. Hay's test
A. Murexide C. Fouchet's test D. Benzidine test
B. Cuprous oxide 36. Hemoglobinuria occurs in:
C. Ferrous thiocyanate A. Severe burns
D. Tungsten blue B. Chemical poisoning
C. Incompatible blood transfusion
31. Which of the following substances is present in D. All of the above
abnormal (pathological) urine?
A. Uric acid 37. Rothera's test is performed to detect the presence of
B. Ketone bodies which substance in abnormal urine?
C. Urea A. Ketone bodies B. Hemoglobin
D. Creatinine C. Bile salts D. Bile pigment
38. In which condition, ketone bodies are present in urine?
32. Glucose present in abnormal urine when detected by A. Starvation
Benedict's qualitative test gives a yellow coloured B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
pracipitate. It indicates how much of sugar in abnormal C. Both of the above
urine? D. Jaundice
A. 0.1-0.5%
B. 0.5-1 % 39. Which one of the following tests used to detect bile
c. 1.0-2% pigments in abnormal urine?
D. Above 2% A. Hay's test B. Benzidine test
C. Rothera's test D. Fouchet's test
33. In diabetes mellitus, the sugar present in urine is:
A. Fructose 40. Colour of the urine in patient having jaundice is:
B. Lactose A. Reddish purple
C. Sucrose B. Yellow to greenish yellow
D. Glucose C. Dark
D. Brown
29 B 30 D 31 B 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 D 36 D 37 A 38 C 39 D 40 B
41. Proteinuria (albuminuria) is observed in: 48. The device used to measure specific gravity of milk is:
A. Kidney diseases A. pH meter
B. Pregnancy B. Glucometer
C. Both of the above C. Lactometer
D. Gout D. Spectrometer
42. Urobilinogen is present in urine in: 49. The white precipitate formed in the quantitative
A. Hemolytic jaundice estimation of urine glucose by Benedict's method of
B. Obstructive jaundice titration is:
C. Hepatic jaundice A. Cuprous oxide
D. All of the above B. Cuprous thiocyante
C. Cupric oxide
43. Spectroscope is used to detect which compounds in
D. Cupric thiocyanate
blood?
A. Osazone crystals 50. Method used for estimation of chlorides in urine is:
B. Cholesterol crystals A. Volhard-Arnold's method
C. Aminoacid derivatives B. Whitehorn-Volhard's method
D. Hemoglobin derivatives C. Both of the above
D. Diacetyl monoxime method
44. Nippe's fluid is used to prepare:
A. Hemin crystals 51. The device used to collect gastric juice is:
B. Osazone crystals A. Endoscope
C. Cholesterol crystals B. Spectroscope
D. None of the above C. Ryle's tube
45. Which one of the following is a test for cholesterol?
A. Jaffe's reaction 52. The daily output of gastric juice in an normal adult is:
B. Liberman Burchard reaction A. 1-2 lit B. 2-4 lit
C. Acrolein test C. 5-7 lit D. 10-12 lit
D. Uffelman's test 53. pH of gastric juice is:
46. The major sugar present in milk is: A. 1-2 B. 3-5
A. Glucose B. Fructose c. 4.6-8 D. 7-9
C. Maltose D. Lactose 54. Major acid present in gastric juice is:
47. Specific gravity of milk is: A. Acetic acid
A. 1000-1010 B. 1012-1018 B. Lactic acid
C. 1028-1034 D. 1040-2050 C. Carbonic acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
41 C 42 A 43 D 44 A 45 B 46 D 47 C 48 C 49 B 50 A 51 C 52 B 53 A 54 D
55. Free acidity of gastric juice is due to: 61. Which instrument is used for quantitative estimation
A. Lactic acid of constituents of body fluids in the clinical laboratory?
B. Hydrochloric acid A. Calorimeter
C. Acetoacetic acid B. pH meter
D. Pyruvic acid C. Colorimeter
D. Centrifuge
56. Total acidity of gastric juice is:
A. 10-15 clinical units 62. Name of the method used to estimate urea in blood is:
B. 10-40 clinical units A. Alkaline picrate method (Jaffe's reaction)
C. 20-55 clinical units B. Biuret method
D. 50-75 clinical units C. Diacetyl monoxirne method
D. Method of caraway
57. The test to detect HCI in gastric juice is:
A. Topfer's test 63. Normal level of blood urea is:
B. Uffleman's test A. 0.5-1 mg/100 ml
C. Benzidine test B. 15-45 mg/100 ml
D. Fouchet's test C. 80-120 mg/100 ml
D. 150-250 mg/100 ml
58. Which of the following is an abnormal constituent in
gastric juice? 64. Electrophoresis is based on the principle of:
A. Starch A. Osmosis
B. Blood B. Dialysis
C. Bile C. Movement of particles between stationary phase and
D. All of the above moving phase
D. Migration of charged particles in an electric field
59. Name of the method used for the estimation of chlorides
in gastric juice is: 65. Paper chromatography is used to separate:
A. Benedict's method A. Proteins
B. Whitehorn-Volhard method B. Amino acids
C. Volhard-Arnold's method C. Nucleic acids
D. None of the above D. Enzymes
60. Normal level of chlorides in gastric juice is:
A. 100-200 mg/100 ml
B. 350-700 mg/100 ml
C. 600-900 mg/100 ml
D. 1-2 g/100 ml
55 B 56 C 57 A 58 D 59 B 60 B 61 C 62 C 63 B 64 D 65 B
Clinical Biochemistry 137
6. Diabetes mellitus can be detected by which test using

urine specimen?
A. Rothera's test
B. Benedict's test
C. Hay's test
D. Benzi dine test
Clinical Biochemistry 7. Which method is used to estimate blood glucose?
A. Polin Wu method
B. 0-Toluidine method
C. GOD-POD method
1. Which is the appropriate time for collection of blood D. All of the above
for estimating most of its biochemistry constituents?
A. Fasting time 8. Which of the following tests is useful in the inves-
B. Postprandial time tigation of patients with symptoms of hypoglycemia?
C. Immediately after meals A. Glucagon test
D. After giving a stimulant B. The tolbutamide test
C. Leucine sensitivity test
2. Emergency biochemical investigations in blood are: D. All of the above
A. Glucose
B. Urea and creatinine 9. Amount of glucose given for a patient during GTT is:
C. Electrolytes A. 10 gm
D. All of the above B. 30 gm
C. 60 gm
3. What is the preferred specimen for analysis of glucose D. 75 gm
(sugar) in blood?
A. Heparinised plasma 10. Determination of glycosylated hemoglobin in blood is
B. Fluoride oxalate plasma used to monitor:
C. Serum A. Sickle cell anemia
D. EDTA plasma B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Diabetes mllitus
4. Fasting plasma true glucose level is: D. Thalassemia
A. 70-110 mg/100 ml
B. 80-120 mg/100 ml 11. The renal threshold for glucose is:
C. 100-140 mg/100 ml A. 80 mg/dl
D. 150-250 mg/100 ml B. 100 mg/dl
C. 180 mg/dl
5. Hyperglycemia occurs in: D. 200 mg/dl
A. Hyperinsulinism B. Hypopituitarism
C. Diabetes mellitus D. H ypopthroidism _
6 B 7 D 8 D 9 D 10 C 11 C
1 A 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 c
138 MCQs in Biochemistry Clinical Biochemistry 139
12. In the fasting adult, the sugar in CSF is: 18. Raised plasma protein levels are commonly found in:
A. 15-45 mg/100 ml A. Dehydration ·
B. 45-80 mg/100 ml B. Paraproteinaemias
C. 70-110 mg/100 ml C. Infective hepatitis
D. 80-120 mg/100 ml D. All of the above
13. Blood cholesterol is elevated in which of the following 19. Hypoalbuminemia occurs in:
conditions? A. Tetany
A. Hypothyroidism B. Oedema
B. Hyperthyroidism C. Dehydration
C. Hypoinsulinism D. None of the above
D. None of the above 20. Which of the following serum protein fractions is
14. Estimation of serum triglycerides is of diagno sti c increased in cirrhosis of liver?
importance in: A. y-Globulin
A. Multiple myeloma B. Hyperlipidemias B. ai-Globulin
C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Jaundice C. a 1-Globulin
D. Albumin
15. In Frederickson's classification of the hyperlipo-
proteinemia, type II A is associated with: 21. Which of the changes in serum electrophoretic pattern
A. Decreased LDL Level is diagnostic of nephrotic syndrome?
B. Increased plasma cholesterol level A. Increased albumin
C. Increased triglyceride level B. Increased al-Globulin
D. All of the above C. Increased a2-Globulin
D. Increased y-Globulin
16. Which of the following substances will be responsible
for the characteristic milkiness noted in the plasma in 22. Bence jones proteins may be excreted in urine of patients
postprandial hyperlipemia? suffering from:
A. Chylomicrons A. Diabetic mellitus
B. Cholesterol B. Multiple myeloma
C. Triglycerides C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Free fatty acids D. Hematuria
17. Normal plasma protein levels varies in the range: 23. Immunoglobulin deficiency is observed in:
A. 3.2-5.8 g/10 ml A. Malignant disease
B. 5.0-7.5 g/100 ml B. AIDS
C. 6.0-8.0 g/100 ml C. Newborn infants
D. 7.5-8.5 g/100 ml D. All of the above
12 B 13 A 14 B 15 B 16 A 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 A 21 C 22 B 23 D
24. Normal range of protein concentration in CSF is: 30. Tumor marker enzyme in prostatic cancer is:
A. 15-45 mg/100 ml A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. 45-80 mg/100 ml B. Acid phosphatase
C. 3.5-5.5 g/100 ml C. CPK
D. 6.8 g/100 ml D.LDH
25. A very high protein concentration in the CSF together 31. Hypercalcemia is seen in:
with a xanthochromic appearance is characteristic of: A. Malignant disease
A. Purulent meningitis B. Excessive secretion of calcitonin
B. Polyneuritis C. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. Encephalitis D. None of the above
D. Cerebral tumour 32. The level of serum phosphate is usually reduced below
26. Hyperuricemia is seen in all the following except: normal in:
A. Polycythemia A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Xanthinuria B. Tetany
C. Leukemia C. Vitamin D resistant rickets
D. Gout D. All of the above
27. Manifestations of the inherited porphyria include: 33. Plasma iron concentration is typically higher in:
A. Neuropsychiatric symptoms A. Hypochromic microcytic anemia
B. Abdominal Pain B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Photosensitivity of the skin C. Hepatitis
D. All of the above D. Acute hemolytic episode
28. Which enzyme is diagnostic in acute pancreatitis? 34. Wilson's disease is characterized by the deposition of
A. Amylase one of the following minerals in the tissues:
B. Acid phosphatase A. Cobalt
C. Alkaline phosphatase B. Copper
D. Crea tine kinase C. Iron
D. Zinc
29. LDHl and LDH2 isoenzymes are significantly elevated
in blood in: 35. The important biochemical abnormalities in Cushing's
A. Nephrotic syndrome syndrome include:
B. Infective hepatitis A. Hypokalemia
C. Myocardial infarction B. Hyponatremia
D. Diabetes mellitus C. Hypoglycemia
D. All of the above
24 A 25 A 26 B 27 D 28 A 29 C 30 B 31 A 32 C 33 D 34 B 35 A
36. A marked increase in catecholamine excretion occurs in: 42. Colorimeter is based on:
A. Alkaptonuria A. Beer's law
B. Maple syrup urine disease B. Lambert's law
C. Pheochromocytoma C. Beer Lambert's law
D. Menke' s syndrome D. None of the above
37. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder? 43. The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium
A. Grave's disease in serum/plasma is:
B. Gilbert's disease A. Ion selective electrodes (ISE)
C. Addison's disease B. Flame photometer
D. Cushing' s syndrome C. Both of the above
38. Normally the 24 hours urinary excretion of creatinine is D. Spectroscope
about: 44. Blood gas analysis (ABG) includes measurement of:
A. 300-700 mg A. p02
B. 1-2 g B. pH and bicarbonate
c. 10-15 g C. pC02
D. 15-dO g D. All of the above
39. Urinary calculi containing calcium may be due to: 45. Which preservative is added to urine to be used for
A. Hypervitaminosis A biochemical analysis?
B. Vitamin D intoxication A. HCl B. Toluene
C. Hyperthyroidism C. Thymol D. All of the above
40. Which instrument is a dry chemistry auto analyzer?
A. Centrifugal analyzer
B. Discrete analyzer
C. Continuous flow analyzer
D. Kodak Photochem analyzer
41. A sudden rise in serum LDH (380IU/L) and SGOT
(lSOIU/L) and normal liver function tests were observed
in a patient. The probable diagnosis is:
A. Hepatic cirrohosis
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Nephrotic syndrome
36 C 37 A 38 B 39 B 40 D 41 B 42 C 43 C 44 D 45 D
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584 Pages, 2004
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Kasarla Rajeshwar Reddy Biochemistry
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ISBN 81-8061-183-3
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Arvind S Yadav, M Audisesha Reddy & s
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Part I: Introduction to Biochemistry

Part II: Chemistry of Biomolecules

Part III: Metabolism

6. The powerhouse of the cell is:

37. Glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides) are:

35. An example for protein hormone is:

20. The mitochondrial DNA is:

T he polypeptide chains present in globin portion of

2. Heme is a: 9. Adult hemoglobin is mainly:

All the following are abnormal hemoglobins except:

D. Ferric or ferrous form Thalassemias occur due to reduced synthesis of which

12. Coenzyme A contains which of the following vitamins?

38 MCQs in Biochemistry for Paramedical Students

38. The isoenzyme LDH 5 is typically increased in patient

6. All the following are B complex vitamins except:

DA (daily requirement) of vitamin A for an adult is:

C. Biotin B. 1000 IV/day

19. The antisterility vitamin is: - - .- polishings contain. w h.1ch v1•tam1n.

34. Niacin is excreted mainly in urine as:

C. Nicotinamide . Extrinsic factor of Castle is:

5. The sequence of enzymes and electron carriers for th1

Nu111ber of ATP m~lecules produced when reducing

___.... ugar absorbed by facilitated diffusion is:

7. The active transport of glucose is inhibited by:

_..:::.;;.:----cids are degraded mainly by:

~e of intestinal absorption of amino acids is:

------;:-n the organs or cells affected porphyrias are of

. intake of sodium for a normal adult person is:

43. Dental fluorosis occurs when fluoride concentration .

6. Of the total excreted sulphur in urine the percentag

---;:h food group contains high amount of cholesterol?

15. Poor quality proteins or incomplete proteins include:

J\11 the following are known as electrolytes in the body

7, Renal mechanisms for regulation of acid base balance

In alcoholics, the marker enzyme estimated in serum is:

1. The function of the kidneys is regulated by the

13. Normal standard urea clearance is:

20. Normal level of total thyroxine (T4) in serum is:

7. All the follo.wing are hyperglycemic hormones except:

21. Calcium metabolism is hormonally regulated by:

semiconservative type of DNA replication was

13. Which disease

20. Genetic code is a collection of triplets (codons) which

28. The terminating codons in protein synthesis are:

35. All the .following are post translational modifications

42. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify:

5. Test for reducing sugar is:

11· Presence of sucrose in the given solution can be

C. Iodine test B. Barfoed's test

34. Hay's test is used to detect:

A. Uric acid B. Ketone bodies in urine

6. Diabetes mellitus can be detected by which test using

Textbook of Biochemistry for

584 Pages, 2004

ISBN 81-8061 -204-X

388 Pages, 2003 K Rajcshwar Rcclcly

MCQs and Problem Oriented

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