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In the bond market bonds/debentures with medium- and long-term maturities are traded. A
bond/debenture is a negotiable debt. The issuer obliges himself to pay the owner a specific
interest rate for an agreed period of time and to repay the principal on a specified settlement
day (or on several settlement days). From the issuer’s point of view bonds are debt capital,
and the owner of the bond is the creditor.
This is also the main difference to shares which securitise an investment in a company.
Here, from the issuing company’s point of view, the shares are equity capital. Therefore
shares do not have any specific term and the interest (dividend) depends on the economical
success.
Financial Markets
(market for fundraising)
Note: Due to the many different criteria, there exist also other classifications. Capital Markets
is often also a synonym for the bond market of the financial markets in common. This script
focuses on the bond market and also uses the names capital market resp. fixed income.
For the issuer, bonds are a very important instrument for fundraising. Due to the
securitisation and the tradability the issuer can find a number of potential investors, like
private investors, banks, companies or investment fonds.
The investors have the advantage that they can choose from a variety of investment
opportunities, depending on their investment horizon and their “risk appetite”.
I. Issuer
Domestic bonds
Bonds that are issued by the government, banks, or corporations in their own, domestic
market, are called domestic bonds. Issuers have to follow the legal regulations. For
example, in the US market every public bond issuance has to be registered at the SEC
(US Securities and Exchange Commission) what can lead to significantly high costs. To
avoid these costs so-called private placements are conducted, i.e. the bonds are sold to
only one single investor or a small number of investors. Here only larger financial
institutions come into question which reduces the bonds’ tradability.
Foreign bonds
Bonds that are issued in the domestic market by a foreign institution; e.g. a bond that is
issued by a US bank in Germany. Like domestic bonds also foreign bonds underly the
specific local conditions. The US have by far the largest foreign bond market. Foreign
bonds often carry typical names. A bond, issued by a foreign (e.g. British) issuer in the
Due to the increasing deregulation of domestic markets the differentiation between domestic,
foreign and eurobonds is becoming more and more obsolete.
There exist fixed-rate interest bonds on the one hand and floating-rate interest bonds
(floating-rate notes, FRNs) on the other hand.
With fixed-rate interest bonds, the interest rate (in per cent of the nominal value) is fixed at
the time of issue and does not change during the bond’s term.
With floating-rate interest bonds, the interest rate is defined as a premium or discount to a
specific reference/benchmark rate (e.g. LIBOR, EURIBOR). Due to possible changes of the
reference rate, the interest payments may vary during the bond's term. The fixing of the
interest rate for the next period is done at pre-defined dates.
Another criterion to distinct bonds is the frequency of the interest payments. The following
types of bonds can be found in the market:
With zero-bonds, no interest payments take place during the bond's term. The whole
interest payment (including compound interest) is done at maturity.
With annual interest payments, a payment has to be made annually.
With non-annual interest payments, payments take place either quarterly or six-monthly.
Registered bonds: The current owner of the bond and every change of ownership is
recorded in a central register. Coupon payments and redemption are booked on the account
of the current owner.
Bearer bonds: The current bearer of the bond is entitled to receive the interest
payments and redemption. The current owner is not registered. Interest payments are
made to the bearer of the interest coupons and the repayment is to be made to the
bearer or sender of the bond.
Redemption
Usually, the issuer of a bond obliges himself to pay off the capital at a pre-set date and at a
defined rate (usually at a rate of 100). If the whole bond is paid off at once it is called a
"bullet".
If the bond is paid off gradually, it is called an amortising bond or a ”sinking fund”. In the
contract it is fixed that parts of the bond can be redeemed earlier at fixed dates and at a fixed
rate. The redemption plan can define a certain amount or the different redemption parts. You
can also only define the amount and determine the different redemption parts by lot. Then
you know what amount will be repaid earlier, but not to which investor.
In addition to the bonds mentioned above, there are the so-called callable bonds, where the
issuer has the right to pay off the bond before maturity at a prior defined rate.
Convertible bonds
Convertible bonds are unsecured fixed-rate bonds that give the owner the right (but not the
obligation) to convert the bonds into shares (under conditions that have been specified in
advance). Usually, the interest rate for such convertible bonds is below the interest rate for
"normal" bonds, since the owner has the right to convert the bond into shares.
Interest payments
Face value
Every bond has a fixed face value. This face value serves
as the basis for the interest payment
as the basis to calculate the redemption value which can differ from the face value. If the
current price of the bond is above (below) 100, the bond is said to be quoted at a
premium (discount).
Quotation
Bond prices are usually quoted in per cent of the face value.
For example, the bond's price of 101.50 for EUR government bonds corresponds to the price
of EUR 101.50 per cent of the nominal value.
In the eurobond market, prices are usually quoted in decimals (e.g. 101.50), while in the US
and in UK they are often quoted with fractions (e.g. 101½ or 10116/32).
In the bond market, market makers quote both bid and offer on request: the bid price is the
price they are willing to pay for bonds while the offer price is the price at which they are
willing to sell the bonds.
Accrued interest
The owner of the bond receives the full amount of interest at coupon dates, even though he
might not have possessed the bond during the whole period of interest. Therefore, when a
bond is sold or bough, accrued interest has to be taken into account. Since comparing bond
prices, that include accrued interest, is a complicated business, bonds are usually quoted
without accrued interest. Nonetheless, the buyer of a bond has to pay the accrued interest to
the seller when he purchases the bond.
Dirty Price
A USD bond with a 7%-coupon (30/360 annual) and a time to
maturity of 3½ years is sold at a price of 101.50 (= clean price). Since
the last coupon date, 6 months (= 180 days) have elapsed.
180
Dirty price = 101 . 50 100 0 . 07 105 . 00
360
Period Days
January 12th – 31st 20
February 28
March 31
April – 17th 16
Total 95
The accrued interest, that Bank B has to pay, are EUR 1.56164383
95
( 6 ).
365
The price of a fixed-rate interest bond corresponds to the price at which market participants
are willing to buy or sell the bond. When speaking of the price of a bond, one usually refers
to its market price. This market price is influenced by the following factors:
We will concentrate on the first three of these factors (time to maturity, yield, and coupon).
We use government bonds for demonstration purposes, because here the influence of both
the premium for credit risks and a possible liquidity premium are reduced to a minimum.
How can the fair bond price be determined? The answer is simple. If you buy a bond you
know that you will receive regular coupon payments during the bond’s term and the nominal
at maturity. Therefore, today, you are willing to pay the present value of these future cash-
flows. Thus the fair bond price is the present value of all future cash-flows.
How many EUR can you pay today for a cash-flow of EUR 7 in one
year to get a return of 6%?
Answer: the discounted amount, i.e. 7/(1+0.06) = EUR 6.60377.
Analogically EUR 7 in 2 years are worth today 7/(1+0.06)2 = EUR
6,22998 EUR, etc. If today, we pay the sum of the present values of
all cash-flows, we will receive a return on the investment which
equals the market yield.
N
C C C Nom 1 1 100
PV
1 r 1 r 2
...
1 r 1 r
N N
or PV C
n1 1r
n 1r
N
5
1 1
PV 0.07 100
5
n 1 1 0.06 n
1 0.06
0.07 4.21237 0.74726 100 = 104.21
5 1
We demonstrate the calculation of the sum
1 0.06 n
in the following table:
n1
If the market yield rises, the future cash-flow will be discounted at a higher interest rate which
leads to a lower present value (and vice versa). Thus we have the following connection:
In other words: If a bond pays a coupon which is lower than the current market yield, an
investor will only be willing to pay a price which is lower than 100 in order to compensate for
the difference between the low coupon payments and the actual issuances.
Is the coupon higher than the current yield the bond price will be above 100.
Since the amount of capital is not necessarily paid back at maturity and the interest
payments are not necessarily paid annually, a number of specialised formulae for pricing
exist. For this reason, we present a general formula that takes into account different types of
interest payments as well as different types of repayment arrangements.
First, we determine the cash-flows that result from a nominal amount of 100. Then, these
cash-flows are discounted by the current yield.
N
1
P= 1r CF
n 1
n n
P = price
r = current yield, in decimals
n = ongoing period
N = total number of periods
CFn = cash-flow (at a nominal of 100) at time n
Since pricing does not necessarily happen at coupon dates (result is a "broken" period at the
beginning), therefore we have to generalise the formula again:
CF N
CFn
Pc =
1
d
d
AI
n 1
1 r B
n2
1 r 1 r
B
Pc = clean price
d = days to the first cash-flow
AI = accrued interest
B = day base (360/ 365/ ACT)
CFn = cash-flow (at a nominal of 100) at time n
Note: With "broken" periods there are different ways of calculation. In Germany, the
"Moosmüller-method" is usually employed, i.e. the first discounting is calculated linearly
(1+r*d/B); internationally, the "ISMA-method" is commonly used, which discounts cash-
flows exponentially, i.e. (1+r*d/B) is replaced by (1+r)d/B. The ISMA-method always leads to
a higher result than the Moosmüller-method.
1 2 3 4
Year Cash-flow Discounting Present value (2x3)
1
1 7 0.94340 6.6038
1 0.06 1
1
2 7 0.89000 6.2300
1 0.06 2
1
3 7 0.83962 5.8773
1 0.06 3
1
4 7 0.79209 5.5447
1 0.06 4
1
5 107 0.74726 79.9566
1 0.06 5
Sum: 104.2124
1 2 3 4
Year Cash- Discounting Present value
flow (2x3)
1
0.9575
270 days 7 270 6.7025
1 0.06
365
1
0.9033
1 year, 270 days 7 270 6.3231
1 0.06
1
1 0.06
365
1
0.8522
2 years, 270 days 7 270 5.9652
1 0.06
2
1 0.06
365
1
0.8039
3 years, 270 days 7 270 5.6276
1 0.06
3
1 0.06
365
1
0.7584
4 years, 270 days 107 270 81.1522
1 0.06
4
1 0.06
365
The sum of all discounted cash-flows is the dirty price. This amount has to be paid when
buying the bond, i.e. clean price plus accrued interest. The clean price is quoted which is the
result of the dirty price minus accrued interest.
1 2 3 4
Year Cash- Discounting Present value
flow (2x3)
1
270 days 7 270
0,95781 6.7047
1 0.06 365
1
1 year, 270 days 7 270
0,90360 6.3252
1 0.06 365 x 1 0.06
1
1
2 years, 270 days 7 270
0,85245 5.9671
1 0.06 365 x 1 0.06
2
1
3 years, 270 days 7 270
0,80420 5.6294
1 0.06 365 x 1 0.06
3
1
4 years, 270 days 107 270
0,75868 81.1785
1 0.06 365 x 1 0.06
4
With the ISMA-method the clean price is 103.9830. Compared to the Moosmüller-calculation
(103.9487) this price is by 0.0343 higher.
For coupon periods less than one year the number of interest periods
increases. For the price calculation the particular cash-flow is
discounted for the number of interest periods by the interest rate
divided by the number of the yearly interest periods.
1 2 3 4
Year Cash-flow Discounting Present value (2x3)
1
0.5 3.5 0,9708738 3.3980583
1 0.03 1
1
1 3.5 0,9425959 3.2990857
1 0.03 2
1
1.5 3.5 0,9151417 3.2029958
1 0.03 3
1
2 3.5 0,8884871 3.1097047
1 0.03 4
1
2.5 3.5 0,8626088 3.0191308
1 0.03 5
1
3 103.5 0,8374843 86.6796251
1 0.03 6
Sum: 102.7086
Note: one could also convert the semi-annual rate into an annual rate
(1.032-1 = 6.09%) and then discount with the number of years, i.e.
0.5; 1; 1.5; etc.
1 2 3 4
Year Cash-flow Discounting Present value (2x3)
1
1 7 0.94340 6.6038
1 0.06 1
1
2 7 0.89000 6.2300
1 0.06 2
1
3 57 0.83962 47.8583
1 0.06 3
1
4 3.5 0.79209 2.7723
1 0.06 4
1
5 53.5 0.74726 39.9783
1 0.06 5
Sum: 103.4427
When calculating the bond price with the traditional pricing formula (Moosmüller or ISMA) we
have discounted all cash-flows with the current market yield for comparable bonds. However,
this method is not perfect. On closer examination one can see that two assumptions are
made:
The calculation with the traditional formulae does not give you any exact fair price but only a
result which is true, assuming a flat yield curve and a re-investment of the coupon payments
at the same rate (unrealistic scenario).
Theoretically, one should use a calculation based on the so-called zero curve that is already
state-of-the-art in the swap market, but has not yet been fully accepted in the bond market.
With the zero bond method, interest payments during the term of the bond are eliminated so
Where do the zero-rates come from? Talking about interest rates, they are normally the rates
for coupon instruments (interest rate swaps, government bonds, etc.). One also calls them
yields, par yields or yield to maturity. It is important to understand that the zero curve is
derived from one of these other curves, i.e. the zero rates can be calculated from the interest
rates of coupon instruments. This transaction is called bootstrapping. The zero curve
concept is therefore a mathematical method which gives us an exact result and does not
make any assumptions regarding the re-investment of the interest payments during the term.
How can these zero rates be calculated? First, the interest payments during the term are
eliminated, or more precisely, they are hedged at the actual market rates. After this there are
only two cash-flows left: the underlying amount in the beginning and the back payment at
maturity. Thus we have a present value and a future value for which an interest rate can
easily be computed.
Unfortunately, the effective calculation is a bit more complex and is therefore a typical case
for a spread sheet analysis. However, it is important to understand the underlying principle
which should be demonstrated in the following example.
Period yield
1 year 4.00%
2 years 4.50%
3 years 5.00%
4 years 5.50%
5 years 6.00%
With a term of 1 year, there is no interest payment during the term (annual payments
assumed). Therefore, by definition the one-year zero rate (Z1) is the same as the one-year
yield; i.e. here 4.00%.
At first, we look at the cash-flow which is produced when investing in a 2-year bond at a
market rate of 4.50%:
At time 0 we pay the price for the bond, the cash-flow is –100. After one year we receive a
coupon payment over 4.50 and after 2 years another coupon payment plus 100 redemption.
In the next step we eliminate the coupon payment in one year over 4.50 (CF1). The question
is: how much can we borrow today in order to pay back exactly 4.50 in one year? Answer:
4.50/(1+0.04) = 4.327.
The zero rate can now be calculated from the present value –95.673 (CF0) and the future
value +104.50 (CF2):
CFn 104.50
Zn n 1 2 1 4.5113%
CF0 95.673
Zn = zero rate at time n
n = ongoing year
CFn = cash-flow at time n
We use the same principle and, first, look at the cash-flows of a 3-year bond with the current
market yield (5%):
Now we have to eliminate resp. hedge 2 cash-flows. Again the question is: how much can we
borrow today in order to pay back exactly 5.00 after year 1 and year 2? Therefore we
discount the cash-flows with the particular zero rates:
CF3 105.00
Z3 3 1 3 1 5.03409464 %
CF0 90.6146485
CF4 105.50
Z4 4 1 4 1 5.57189196 %
CF0 84.9296318
CF5 106.00
Z5 5 1 5 1 6.12890899 %
CF0 78.7294771
1 rN
ZN 1
N1 rN
1
N
1 Z n
n 1 n
Note: Only recursive calculation is possible: to get the 5-year zero-rate you first have to
calculate the zeros for the years 1 through 4.
Therefore the calculation without a spread sheet analysis is very complex.
Summary
The zero curve is derived from the yield curve, i.e. from interest rates for coupon-
instruments (e.g. IRS, government bonds, etc.)
The zero curve includes the costs/returns for hedging the future cash-flows at actual
market rates.
The zero curve does not make any assumptions regarding the form of the curve and the
re-investment of coupon payments during the bond term.
If you compare the yields to the zero rates in the above example you can see that the zero
rates are higher. This is the case whenever you have a normal yield curve. With an inverted
yield curve zero rates are lower than the yields, with a flat curve they are about the same.
Taking into account the yield curve for the price calculation, you get a theoretical price
difference for this example of approx. 7 basis points (cp. other example, 104.2124 to
104.2850).
For dealers of short-term positions in bonds (trading book) it is useful to estimate how the
bond's price changes when the interest rates change. For this purpose several concepts
have been developed.
The concept of the simple duration was developed by Frederick R. Macaulay in 1938. If
rates change you have two impacts on a bond position. On the one hand the bond price will
change, on the other hand the coupon payments can be re-invested at a different rate. These
two effects are always directly opposed. If, for example, rates rise, on the one hand the bond
price falls, on the other hand the future coupon payments can be re-invested at a higher
interest rate level and vice versa.
The Macaulay duration describes the time where these two effects compensate each other.
In other words, it is a time dimension in years which indicates the period which is needed for
a fixed-rate interest bond in order to exactly compensate the price and compound interest
effects which result from a change in rates.
This model assumes, however, a singular, parallel yield curve shift.
N
n x CFn
1 r
n 1
n
D Macaulay N
CF
1 r
n 1
n
n
The Macaulay duration is 2.86 years. That means that after 2.86
years the price loss due to a rate rise is compensated by higher
compound interest for the coupon payments and vice versa.
The following table shows the results at different times with and
without interest rate changes:
rates at 5% rates at 6%
year CF price coupon + com- price + price coupon + com- price +
pound interest interest pound interest interest
1 5 100 5 105.00 98.17 5 103.17
2 5 100 5.0 + 0.25 110.25 99.06 5.0 + 0.30 109.36
2.86 5 100 4.3 + 0.44 114.99 99.86 4.3 + 0.53 114.99
3 5 100 5.0 + 0.51 115.51 100.00 5.0 + 0.56 115.56
After 2.86 years the price loss of the bond is compensated by higher compound interest. For
both scenarios the result is 114.99. This conclusion, however, is only valid assuming that
during the term there are no further interest rate changes.
When speaking of duration one usually does not mean the Macaulay duration but the
modified duration. It is said to be the best known technique for the determination of price
sensitivities. It shows the leverage how the bond price reacts to a market rate movement.
Modified Duration
N
1
n CF 1 r
n1
n
1
n
MD
N
1 1 r
CF 1 r
n1
n n
MD = modified duration
n = ongoing year
N = total number of years
CFn = cash-flow (at a nominal of 100) at time n
r = current yield in decimals
If you compare this formula one can realise that this formula is a modification of the
1
Macaulay Duration: MD D Macaulay x
1 r
On closer examination of the calculation you can look at the duration as the term-weighted
present value of all cash-flows or, vice versa, as the PV-weighted average binding period.
1 2 3 4 5
Year Cash- Discounting Present value Present value
flow of weighted of cash flow
cash-flow (2x3)
(1x2x3)
1
1 7 0.94340 6.6038 6.6038
1 0.06 1
1
2 7 0.89000 12.4600 6.2300
1 0.06 2
1
3 7 0.83962 17.6320 5.8773
1 0.06 3
1
4 7 0.79209 22.1786 5.5447
1 0.06 4
1
5 107 0.74726 399.7831 79.9566
1 0.06 5
Sum: 458.6575 104.2124
458 . 6575 1
MD 4 . 15
104 . 2124 1 0 . 06
The duration for this 5-year bond is 4.15. By means of the duration one can now estimate the
price change of the bond when market rates change. Assuming the current bond price is
104.21.
If this bond has a MD of 4.15, this means that if rates change by 1%, the bond price will
change by 4.15%, i.e. 104.21 x 4.15% = 4.32.
if interest rates rise by 1%, the price of the bond falls by 4.32 percentage points.
if interest rates falls by 1%, the price of the bond rises by 4.32 percentage points.
CP MD P CY
CP = change of the bond price
MD = modified duration
P = price of the bond (dirty price)
CY = change of the market yield in decimals (1% = 0.01)
5.75%: CP 3.50 104.00 0.0025 = (+)0.91
If rates fall to 5.75% the price of the bond will rise to 104.91
(104.00+0.91).
To sum up, we can state the following rules regarding price sensitivity of fixed-rate interest
bonds:
The following table shows the modified duration for a 10-year bond with different coupons
and for different market yields:
Coupon
0% 5% 10%
Yield 0% 10.00 8.50 7.75
5% 9.52 7.72 6.92
10% 9.09 6.96 6.14
The concept of the duration assumes a linear connection between the yield and the price
change, i.e. you are assuming that the change of the bond price is the same for rates rising
by 1% and rates falling by 1%. In practice, when rates change, the bond price does not run
on a straight line but on a curve.
Dirty Price
actual price
100
Yield
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
When applying the duration you therefore have an estimation failure. The convexity is the
measure for this estimation failure resp. the non-linear (contorted) price-yield-curve. The
larger the interest rate change, the more the actual price will diverge from the estimated
price. Thus the duration gives satisfactory results only for relatively small rate changes.
As the yield itself is an input factor for the calculation of the duration, also the modified
duration changes when the interest rate level moves. If the interest rate level rises, the
duration falls and therefore the actual bond price fall will be smaller than originally estimated.
On the contrary, the duration rises when yields fall and therefore the actual bond price rise
will be higher than originally estimated.
Yield 4% 5% 6% .
Estimated rate 115.82 100.00
Calculated rate 116.22 107.72 99.62 .
Difference + 0.40 + 0.38
The example shows that for the owner of a bond the convexity effects are always positive,
i.e. when rates fall the profit is higher and when rates rise the loss is lower than expected.
1
1 7 0.94340 6.6038 6.6038
1 0.06 1
1
2 7 0.89000 12.4600 6.2300
1 0.06 2
1
3 57 0.83962 143.5749 47.8583
1 0.06 3
1
4 3.5 0.79209 11.0893 2.7723
1 0.06 4
1
5 53.5 0.74726 199.8916 39.9783
1 0.06 5
Sum: 373.6195 103.4427
373 .6195 1
MD 3 .41
103 .4427 1 0 .06
Knowing the interest rate does not tell you all about the real return on this investment. As we
already know we need several additional information like the day counting, interest payment
frequency, if interest is calculated on the start amount or future value (as for a discount rate),
etc.. Even if we are assuming that all these factors are unchanged we have to define more
precisely what we mean when speaking about interest rates.
Every interest rate defined in the conditions of a bond is called coupon. It is the basis for the
yearly interest payments. These are always calculated on the basis of the nominal amount
(100), and are therefore independent from the actual bond price. One is also speaking of the
nominal interest rate. The coupon only determines the bond’s cash-flows. But it does not give
any exact information regarding the return on the invested amount as the bond is usually
purchase at a price above or below 100.
Yield to maturity
The most common concept in order to determine the effective return of a bond is the yield to
maturity (YTM) resp. effective interest rate. If you want to determine the YTM you have to
reverse the bond price calculation: while for a price calculation you are looking for the bond
price at a given market yield, for the YTM calculation the yield as result of a given bond price
is determined. The YTM can also be called internal rate of return (IRR) of a cash-flow. If we
refer to the YTM as y we can formally describe the dirty price of a bond (= present value of all
cash-flows) with the following equation:
Cash-flows:
CF0 CF1 CF2 CF3 CF4 CF5
- 84.44 +5 +5 +5 +5 +105
The question is: with which interest rate do the cash-flows CF1
through CF5 have to be discounted in order to receive the present
value CF0?
Therefore we set up the following equation:
5 5 105
84.44 ...
1 y 1 y 2
1 y 5
This equation can only be solved by approximation (trial and error). In
Excel we have used the function goal seek under Extras and get the
solution y = 9.00%.
You can verify this result by calculating the bond price for a given
market yield of 9.00% with the traditional bond price formula:
year YTM CF PV
1 9% 5 4.59
2 9% 5 4.21
3 9% 5 3.86
4 9% 5 3.54
5 9% 105 68.24
Sum: 84.44
As the YTM applies the same method as the traditional bond price formulae, you have the
same problem here: a flat yield curve is assumed.
Let us go back to the bond price calculation. We have seen that the fair bond price is the
present value of all future cash-flows. For the precise calculation of the present values we
have discounted every single cash-flow with the particular zero rate. Thus we have
considered the yield curve for the precise calculation what led to a number of different
interest rates. We have realised that this result had diverged from the price determined by
the traditional formula.
In order to determine the return on an investment with a consistent interest rate the YTM is
used. It is the rate with which all cash-flows have to be discounted to get the actual bond
price. If the actual price equals the price determined by the zero curve, the YTM is a kind of
nominal-weighted average of the yield curve. As most averages also the YTM has to be
regarded critically. The following example is supposed to show the problem,
We would like to apply the yield to maturity in order to analyse two investment alternatives.
Assuming you have the choice between two 5-year US Treasury bondsBund notes.
Bond Price
5% 85.21
10% 105.43
To find out which of the bonds is more attractive you have to calculate the YTM. For this
purpose you have to take the cash-flows and determine the internal rate of return:
Against our first assumption both prices correspond exactly to the fair prices determined by
the zero curve. So both bonds are priced fairly, i.e. equally attractive. Obviously the YTM
does not tell the whole truth. What can be the reasons?
As we have learned for the calculation of the YTM only one interest rate is used for
discounting the cash-flows. So a flat yield curve is assumed and it is further assumed that all
interest payments can be re-invested at the YTM. In practice you usually have different rates
for different periods.
Let us have a look at bonds with different coupons:
With a high coupon a (partial) redemption on the invested capital is done already during the
term by means of higher coupon payments. With a steep interest rate curve these “early
redemptions” would have to be discounted only with a lower short-term interest rate. When
calculating the YTM, however, all cash-flows are discounted with an average (higher) rate
what means that the result in this case looks worse than it actually is.
The YTM only gives a consistent result when calculating bond prices with the traditional
formula.
Due to the simplification (flat interest rate curve and re-investment) bonds with different
coupons fairly calculated with the zero curve have different YTM.
Like most averages the YTM does not give all information. An evaluation of an
investment only on the basis of the YTM can lead to wrong results.
Par yield
We often apply yields, e.g. when we examine a yield curve or calculate a bond price with the
current market yield. The chapter before, however, has shown that the concept of yield
calculation can be a problem because bonds with different coupons have different yields. To
solve this problem you usually use the so-called par yield when speaking of e.g. the market
yield. The par yield is the yield of a bond which is quoted at (or close) par, i.e. the price is
around 100. This way the problem of a “wrong” YTM calculation for bonds with prices ≠ 100
can be avoided.
The zero rates have been discussed in detail in the chapter pricing with the zero curve.
Summary:
Zero rates are derived from the yield curve.
The advantage of the zero rates is that there is no assumption made regarding the form
of the yield curve or the re-investment of interest payments during the term.
Zero rates take into account the costs/returns for the hedging of the interest payments
during the term.
Rating grades
The credit ratings are done by international rating agencies. The most important agencies
are Standard and Poor’s, Moody’s and Fitch IBCA.
Individual ratings for short-term debts (e.g. Commercial Papers, Certificates of Deposits) and
long-term debts (e.g. bonds) are defined.
Short-term ratings refer to the debtor’s ability to pay back short-term liabilities. It is
necessary that the issuer has enough credit range for paying back bonds at maturity,
called “back-up line of credit”.
For long-term ratings (bond ratings) the agencies have developed benchmarks for the
different debtor groups, e.g. for sovereign governments, municipalities, banks and
corporates.
CP-Ratings Bond-Ratings
(short-term) (long-term)
S&P's Moody's S&P's Moody's
A-1 P-1 AAA Aaa Group I
Group I: first-class addresses; these bonds have no risk for the investor.
Group II: companies with a good through average standing; normally these bonds
can be regarded as safe bond investments if the economical background
holds steady.
Group III: bonds with speculative character. The issuers are in economical resp.
financial troubles; interest and redemption payments are not always
guaranteed.
Issuers through rating BBB resp. Baa are called investment grade, i.e. they are regarded as
a safe investment.
Bonds with a worse rating are called speculative grade/ non-investment grade or junk
bonds.
The basic principle in the financial markets is that higher risk has to be awarded with a higher
return. Thus investors ask for a higher interest rate when the issuer’s rating is bad. Therefore
the yield of AAA (spoken “triple A”) rated government bonds is the lowest. They are the
interest rate for investments with the lowest credit risk and thus act as so-called benchmark
yields. All bonds rated worse have to pay a premium to this benchmark. This premium is
called credit spread.
The interest rate for bonds are not only quoted as a fixed rate (e.g. 5%) but also as a
premium to the yields of government bonds, Interest Rate Swaps resp. EURIBOR or LIBOR.
The total yield is the result of the interest rate without risk plus the credit spread which
depends on the issuer’s credit standing. If now an investor compares bonds of different
issuers (e.g. corporates) s/he is mainly interested in the premium to the investment without
risk. Thus s/he can better evaluate if the credit spread as compensation for the credit risk is
enough. If only the credit spreads are quoted, an investor can compare different issuers
more easily.
The quotation of a 10-year USD bond of an A (spoken: “single A”) rated US corporate could
also be: 10-year Treasury bond + 120 BP. If the 10-year Treasury bond quotes at e.g. 5.00%,
the bond of the A-issuer would be traded at 6.20%. Attention has here to be paid to the
interest convention of the benchmark, e.g. semi-annual payments for Treasury notes.
Instead of the government bond yields interest rate swap rates are often used as reference
rate for the interest rate. Then the credit spread is the difference to the IRS rate. The reason
for this is that in recent years the risk management systematics could be further developed.
Here different risks can be controlled separately. Thus the accounting of profit and loss for
the individual causer can be shown more transparently. In the case of bonds the risks
involved are interest rate risk and credit risk. For the evaluation of the profit and loss not only
the total result of the investment has to be regarded but also which part can be attributed to
the interest rate risk and which part to the credit risk. So far we had always defined
Currently 5-year bonds from A rated German car suppliers are traded
at a premium of 80 BP to the IRS rate. What are the costs for an
issuer of this group when s/he wants to issue a 5-year fixed-rate
interest bond?
First, s/he has to look where the actual 5-year IRS rate is. If it is at
4.50% s/he has to pay 5.30%.
Assuming an investor thinks the price of 80 BP is adequate but prefers a variable rate. This
investor could conduct following transactions: purchase of the bond at IRS + 80 and payer
swap at 4.50%.
Note: Asset swaps are usually traded in packages, i.e. the seller of the bond is the partner for
the swap at the same time. The bond is delivered – independent from the actual price – at
100 and the fixed rate in the swap equals the coupon of the bond. The variable payment in
the swap is then not EURIBOR flat but EURIBOR + credit spread.
When looking at the historic yields of government bonds one can see that they are below the
IRS rates, i.e. the spread to the IRS is negative. This means that government bonds on an
asset swap basis usually quote at EURIBOR (resp. LIBOR) minus credit spread. The reason
is that EURIBOR (resp. IRS) are the rates for first-class banks. As the credit standing of
countries is higher than the credit standing of banks, the interest rate has to be lower than
the interest rate for banks (EURIBOR).