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Test # 4
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1. Match each item in COLUMN I with 4. Which of the following is a recessive trait
one in COLUMN II and select your for a character chosen by Mendel in
answer from the codes given: garden pea?
COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Violet flower colour
SCIENTIST CONTRIBUTION
A. Francis Crick a. Breaking the genetic gode 2. Yellow pod colour
Established Coenorhabditis elegans as
Nirenberg
B. b. a model genetics study organism 3. Axial flower position
C. Benzer c. Central dogma of molecular biology
D. Brenner d. Bacteriophage genetics 4. Tall stem height

A. B. C. D. 5. The F1 progeny in monohybrid crosses by

1 c a d b Mendel resembled:
2 c a b d
1. The parent exhibiting dominant trait
3 a b c d
4 a c d b completely
2. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 2. The parent exhibiting recessive trait
experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor completely
Mendel? 3. The parent exhibiting dominant trait
1. He conducted hybridisation experiments partly
on garden peas for seven years (1856- 4. The parent exhibiting recessive trait
1863) and proposed the laws of partly
inheritance in living organisms. 6. Genes which code for a pair of
2. It was for the first time that statistical contrasting traits or slightly different
analysis and mathematical logic were forms of the same gene are known as:
applied to problems in biology. 1. Alleles
3. Unfortunately his experiments had a small 2. Loci
sampling size, which gave less credibility to 3. Cistrons
the data that he collected. 4. Introns
4. He investigated characters in the garden 7. In a true breeding the allelic pair of genes
pea plant that were manifested as two are
opposing traits. 1. Homologous
3. A plant, on repeated self pollination, 2. Linked
preserves the trait expressed for many 3. Stable
generations. Such a plant is said to be: 4. Homozygous
1. Panmictic
2. Homologous
3. Apomictic
4. Pure line
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8. Identify the incorrect statement: 12. The inheritance of flower colour in dog
1. Tall plant produces gametes by flower and 4’O clock plant exhibits:
meiosis and the dwarf plant by 1. Complete dominance
mitosis 2. Incomplete dominance
2. Only one allele is transmitted to a 3. Co-dominance
gamete. 4. Lethality
3. This segregation of alleles is a random 13. The ultimate source of allelic variation is:
process. 1. Recombination
4. Gametes will always be pure for the 2. Natural selection
trait. 3. Mutation
9. A test cross is done to find out: 4. Drift
1. Fitness of an organism 14. In complete dominance, the recessive
2. Genotype of a plant expressing allele with respect to the dominant
dominant phenotype allele:
3. The suitable parents for a Mendelian 1. Produces no product
Cross 2. Produces a different product
4. The hidden genotypic ratio of F2 3. Produces half the product
phenotypes 4. Produces no product or a non
10. What is the ratio of a typical monohybrid functional product
test cross? 15. In the case of co-dominance, the F1
1. 2 : 1 generation resembles:
2. 3 : 1 1. Dominant parent
3. 1 : 2 : 1 2. Recessive parent
4. 1 : 1 3. Both the parents
11. The law of Segregation is based on the 4. None of the parents
fact that
1. The alleles do not show any blending. 16. The number of alleles, the genotypic
2. There is random fertilization combinations and phenotypes in ABO
3. Gametes are pure for the trait system is respectively:
4. The zygotes are diploid 1. 3, 6 and 4
2. 3, 4 and 6
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3, and 6

17. What can the possible blood groups of
progeny whose father and mother are of
A and B blood group respectively?
1. A and B only
2. AB only
3. All except O
4. A, B, AB and O
18. Suppose a gene has seven alleles. What
would be the number of alleles in an
individual at any instant?
1. 1.
2. 7
3. 2
4. 3
19. In case of starch synthesis in pea seeds
[controlled by B gene], BB homozygotes
produce large and round starch grains;
bb homozygotes produce smaller and
wrinkled starch grains and Heterozygotes
produce round seeds of intermediate
size. What can be inferred from this
observation?
1. The gene B mutates at a faster rate
2. The gene B is easily influenced by the
environment
3. Dominance is not an autonomous feature
of a gene or the product that it has
information for.
4. Some genes do not follow the law of
segregation.
20. When Mendel self hybridized F1 progeny
of a dihybrid cross between pure Yellow
Round seeded plants and Green Wrinkled
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plants, he observed that yellow and
green colour segregated in a ratio of:
1. 1 : 1
2. 3 : 1
3. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
4. 1 : 2 : 1
21. In 1900 Mendel’s work was rediscovered
by:
1. Korana, Nirenberg and Mathei
2. de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak
3. Avery, McCleod and McCarty
4. Watson, Crick and Wilkins
22. When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied,
white-eyed females to brown-bodied,
red-eyed males and intercrossed their F1
progeny, the F2 ratio deviated very
significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio. This
can be attributed to the fact that:
1. The genes are located on X and Y
chromosomes.
2. Fruit fly has abnormal chromosomes
3. The genes are located on the X
chromosome
4. The genes exhibit incomplete
dominance
23. Genes tightly linked on the same
chromosome show:
1. Very high recombination
2. Independent assortment
3. Very low recombination
4. 50 % recombination
24. In humans, the mechanism of sex
determination is:
1. XX – XY; male heterogamety

2. XX – XY; female heterogamety
3. XX – XO; male heterogamety
4. XX – XO; female heterogamety
25. A couple has a daughter. What is the
probability that their next child will be a
daughter?
1. 0 %
2. 25 %
3. 50 %
4. 100 %
26. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. In addition to recombination,
mutation is another phenomenon
that leads to variation in DNA.
2. Chromosomal aberrations are
commonly observed in cancer cells.
3. A classical example of a point
mutation is sickle cell anemia.
4. Non ionising radiations cannot be
mutagens.
27. Pedigree analysis is resorted to for
genetic analysis in humans rather than
conventional genetic methods because:
I. Choice matings are not possible
II. Number of progeny is limited
Of the two statements:
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
28. Which of the following is not an X – linked
recessive disorder in humans?
1. Red green colour blindness
2. Haemophilia
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3. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
4. Vitamin D resistant rickets
29. Thalesemia is inherited as a/an
____________ condition.
1. Autosomal recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Sex linked recessive
4. Sex-linked dominant
30. What is incorrect for Hemophilia?
1. In this disease, a single protein that is
a part of the cascade of proteins
involved in the clotting of blood is
affected.
2. In an affected individual a simple cut
will result in non-stop bleeding.
3. The heterozygous female (carrier) for
haemophilia may transmit the disease
to sons.
4. The possibility of a female becoming
a haemophilic is extremely rare
because mother of such a female has
to be hemophilic and the father
should be carrier.
31. The point mutation in sickle cell anaemia
leads to a change in codon. Identify the
correct change:
1. UGA to UAA
2. GUG to GAG
3. GAG to GUG
4. UAA to UGA
32. In sickle cell anaemia, the mutant
haemoglobin molecule undergoes
1. Polymerisation under low oxygen
tension causing that changes the
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shape of the RBC to sickle like organism and, this phenomenon is
structure known as:
2. Depolymerisation under low oxygen 1. Aneuploidy
tension causing that changes the 2. Translocation
shape of the RBC to sickle like 3. Polyploidy.
structure 4. Inversion
3. Denaturation under high oxygen 36. The number of autosomes in a human
tension causing that changes the egg would be:
shape of the RBC to sickle like 1. 22
structure 2. 23
4. Denaturation 3. 1
33. In Phenylketonuria, 4. 2
I. Phenylpyruvic acid and other 37. Which of the following is not a feature of
derivatives are accumulated brain Down’s Syndrome?
resulting in mental retardation. 1. It is caused by a non-disjunction in an
II. These are also excreted through urine autosome
because of its poor absorption by 2. The affected individual has trisomy of
kidney. chromosome 21
1. Only I is correct 3. The affected individual has a
2. Only II is correct characteristic simian palmar crease
3. Both are correct 4. The mental development of affected
4. Both are incorrect individual is normal.
34. When there is a change in chromosome 38. An individual affected by Klinefelter’s
number such that the changes number is syndrome:
not an exact multiple of base number 1. Has 47 autosomes
[haploid number], the condition is called 2. Has overall feminine development
as: 3. Has gynecomastia
1. Euploidy 4. Has an additional copy of Y
2. Aneuploidy chromosome.
3. Aberration 39. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
4. Non-disjunction
Organism Length of DNA
35. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase 1 Bacteriophage ϕ 174 5386 base pairs
2 Bacteriophage Lambda 48502 base pairs
stage of cell division results in an increase 6
3 Eschrechia coli 4 X 10 base pairs
in a whole set of chromosomes in an 4 Human beings 9
3.3 X 10 base pairs
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40. To form a nucleoside, a nitrogenous base 2. Marie Curie and Pierre Curie
is linked to a pentose sugar:
3. Franklin and Wilkins
1. Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at
carbon atom number 1 4. Meselson and Stahl

2. Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at 45. According to Erwin Chargaff, for a

carbon atom number 5 double stranded DNA

3. Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at 1. The ratios between Adenine and

carbon atom number 1 Thymine, and , Guanine and Cytosine
are constant and equals one.
4. Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at
carbon atom number 5 2. The ratios between Adenine and
Thymine, and , Guanine and Cytosine
41. Which of the following would be are constant but is not equal to one.
nucleoside found only in RNA?
3. The ratios between Adenine and
1. Thymidine Guanine, and , Thymine and Cytosine
are constant and equals one.
2. Cytidine
4. The ratios between Adenine and
3. Uridine Guanine, and , Thymine and Cytosine
4. Adenosine are constant but is not equal to one.

42. In a strand of a nucleic acid. Two 46. The base pairing in a double stranded
nucleotides are linked together by: DNA is correctly described as:

1. 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond 1. Similar

2. 5’ – 3’ phosphodiester bond 2. Identical

3. 2’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond 3. Complementary

4. 3’ – 1’ phosphodiester bond 4. Synergistic

43. What is another name for thymine? 47. If each strand of a ds DNA acts as a
template for new strand, the two
1. 5 – bromouracil daughter DNA will be:

2. 3 – bromouracil 1. Complementary to each other

3. 3 – methyl uracil 2. Identical to the parental DNA

4. 5 – methyl uracil 3. Similar to each other

44. Watson and Crick based their model of
DNA on X-ray diffraction data produced
by:
1. Hershey and Chase
4. Complementary to the parental DNA
48. Which of the following is not a feature of
the double helix model of DNA?
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1. The two chains have anti-parallel 1. 60 base pairs
polarity
2. 140 base pairs
2. A purine always comes opposite to a
pyrimidine 3. 200 base pairs

3. The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm 4. 400 base pairs

4. The two chains are coiled in a left 53. During DNA packaging in eukaryotic cells,
handed fashion Non Histone Chromosomal proteins:

49. In some viruses, the flow of genetic 1. Are not required

information is from RNA to DNA. These 2. Are required from the beginning to
viruses are: the end of packaging
1. Reverse transcriptase 3. Are required only for earlier stages of
2. Teminism packaging

3. Ribozymes 4. Are required for higher level of

packaging
4. Retroviruses
54. Frederick Griffith discovered:
50. In prokaryotes:
1. DNA is the genetic material
1. A typical nucleus is not seen and DNA
is scattered throughout the cell 2. RNA can be the genetic material

2. A typical nucleus may sometimes be 3. Sterptococcus has two strains

present and DNA is scattered 4. Bacterial transformation
throughout a cell
55. In Avery, Macleod and McCarty
3. A typical nucleus is not seen but DNA experiment, the transformation of
is not scattered throughout the cell bacteria was inhibited by:
4. A typical nucleus may sometimes be 1. Proteases
present but DNA is not scattered
throughout the cell 2. RNase

51. Histones are rich in amino acids: 3. DNAs

1. Arginine and Lysine 4. None of these

2. Argine and Leucine 56. Viruses grown on radioactive sulfur

contain:
3. Arginine and Isoleucine
1. Radioactive proteins but not DNA
4. Aspartate and Glutamate
2. Radioactive DNA but not proteins
52. A typical nucleosome unit consists of
about: 3. Radioactive proteins and DNA
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4. Nonradioactive DNA and protein 3. It replicates itself based on
complementary base pairing
57. Hershey and Chase proved DNA as the
genetic material as in their experiment: 4. It does not have any catalytic role

1. Bacteria that were infected with 61. The protein synthesizing machinery of a
viruses that had radioactive proteins cell has evolved around:
were not radioactive
1. DNA
2. Bacteria that were infected with
viruses that had radioactive DNA were 2. RNA
radioactive 3. Protein itself
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct 4. Viroids
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect 63. Who proposed semi-conservative mode
58. RNA is not the genetic material in: of replication for DNA?

1. Tobacco mosaic virus 1. Watson and Crick

2. QB bacteriophage 2. Meselson and Stahl

3. HIV 3. Hershey and Chase

4. Archaebacteria 4. Beadle and Tatum

59. A molecule that can act as a genetic 64. What radioactive isotope was use by
material must fulfill all the following Meselson and Stahl to label DNA in their
criteria except: experiment?
35
1. It should be able to generate its 1. S
replica 2. 15
N
2. It should chemically and structurally 3. 32
P
be stable
4. None
3. It should provide scope for rapid
mutations 61. If E.coli was allowed to grow for 80
minutes after transfer from 15N to 14N
4. It should be able to express itself in medium the number of hybrid density
the form of “Mendelian Characters” DNA molecules would be:
60. DNA is structurally and chemically more 1. 2
stable than RNA because of all the
following except: 2. 16

1. It has thymine instead of uracil 3. 14

2. 2’ –OH is absent in DNA 4. 8

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65. Any mistakes during DNA replication by 2. Operator
the enzyme would result into:
3. Structural gene
1. Cancer
4. Terminator
2. Apoptosis
70. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
3. Cell fragmentation catalyzes polymerization in:

4. Mutation 1. Only in 3’ – 5’ direction

66. Which of the following acts as the 2. Only in 5’ – 3’ direction

substrate and provide energy for DNA
replication? 3. In both directions

1. Dideoxyribonucleoside triphospahtes 4. In neither directions

2. Ribonucleoside triphosphates 71. What defines a coding and a template

strand in the transcription unit?
3. Deoxyribonucleoside triphospahtes
1. Structural gene
4. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
2. Ori
67. The discontinuously synthesized DNA
fragments are later joined by: 3. Terminator

1. DNA helicase 4. Promoter

72. A segment of DNA coding for a

2. Topoisomerase
polypeptide is most accurately defined
3. DNA ligase as:

4. DNA polymerase 1. Operon

68. Which of the following is true for both 2. Gene

transcription and DNA replication?
3. Recon
1. Principle of complementarity governs
the processes 4. Cistron

2. Only of the two strands act as 73. In eukaryotes the sequences that appear
template in mature or processed mRNA are called:

3. Only a segment of both strands is 1. Introns

involved 2. Cistrons
4. Adenine base pairs with thymine 3. Exons
69. A transcription unit does not contain: 4. Mutons
1. Promoter
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74. Which of the following RNAs plays both 4. hnRNA
structural and catalytic roles?
79. What is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in
1. mRNA Eukryotes?

2. tRNA 1. Poly A tail

3. rRNA 2. Methyl cytosine triphosphate

4. miRNA 3. Methyl guanosine triphosphate

75. What facilitates the opening of the helix 4. Poly U tail

during elongation step of transcription?
80. Which enzyme polymerizes RNA with
1. RNA polymerase defined sequences in a template
independent manner?
2. Helicase
1. Peptidyl transferase
3. Topoisomerase
2. RNA polymerase
4. Gyrase
3. Reverse transcriptase
76. Which of the following helps in
termination of transcription? 4. Polynucleotide phosphorylase

1. Sigma factor 81. Some amino acids are coded by more

than one codon. Hence genetic code is:
2. Translocase
1. Unambiguous
3. Ubiquitin
2. Non specific
4. Rho factor
3. Degenerate
77. Transcription and translation can be
coupled in: 4. Universal

1. Bacteria 82. The amino acid acceptor arm of the tRNA

is at its:
2. Yeast
1. DHU loop
3. Plants
2. TψC loop
4. Animals
3. 5’ end
78. In eukaryotes RNA polymerase II
transcribes: 4. 3’ end

1. mRNA 83. In actual structure, tRNA is a compact

molecule which looks like a/an:
2. rRNA
1. Clover leaf
3. tRNA
2. Rail road
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3. Inverted L 2. Post transcriptional modifications

4. Alpha helix 3. Translation

84. Which of the following anticodons will 4. Post translational modifications

hybridize with the mRNA codon 5’ – AUG
– 3’? 88. The repressor of lac operon is:

1. 5’ – UAC – 3’ 1. Lactose itself

2. 5’ – TAC – 3’ 2. A steroid

3. 3’ – UAC – 5’ 3. Synthesized constitutively

4. 3’ – TAC – 5’ 4. A product of structural gene

85. Which of the following acts as a 89. A very low level of expression of the lac
ribozyme for peptide bond formation in operon has to be present in the cell:
bacteria? 1. When lactose is present
1. 5s rRNA 2. When lactose is absent
2. 23s rRNA 3. When glucose is absent
3. 16s rRNA 4. All the time
4. 5.1s rRNA 90. The lac operon is regarded as:
86. The UTR [untranslated regions] in an 1. Negative, Inducible
mRNA:
2. Negative, Repressible
1. Are present only at 5’ end and are
not required for efficient 3. Positive, Inducible
translation
4. Positive, Repressible
2. Are present only at 3’ end and are
91.
not required for efficient
translation

3. Are present at both 5’ and 3’ends

and are not required for efficient
translation 92.

4. Are present at both 5’ and 3’

ends and are required for
efficient translation process

87. Gene regulation in prokaryotes is carried

out exclusively at the level of:

1. Initiation of transcription
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93. 102.

94.
103. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 X 10-18 J
atom-1. The energy of first stationary state
(n=1) of Li2+ is
95.

104.

96.

97.
105.

98.
106.

99.
107.

100.

108.

101.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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109. 116.

117.
110.

118.

111. EN of the element (A) is E1 and IE is E2.

Hence EA will be

112.
119.

113.
120.

114. 121.

115.

122.
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`123. 132.

124.

133.

125.

134.
126.

135.

127.
136.

128.

129.

130. 137.

131.
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138. 144.

145.

146.
139.

140.

141.

147.

142.

148.

143.

149.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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150. 154.

155.

156.
151.

157.

152. 158.

153.

159.
 NEETPrep Test Series
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160. 165.

161.

166.

162.
167.

163.

168.

169.

164.
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170. 175.

171.

172.

176.

177.

173.

174.

178.
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179.

180.