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ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H.

SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. The structure and hybridisation of Si(CH3)4 is –


(A) bent, sp (B) trigonal, sp2
(C) octahedral, sp3d (D) tetrahedral, sp3
2. When 100 gm of C2H4 is polymerised to produce polyethylene according to the equation nC2H4  (C2H4)n
Then, how many gm polyethylene (C2H4)n would be produced ? At. Wt : C – 12 ; H – 1
(A) 100 gm (B) 100n gm
100n 100
(C) gm (D)  n gm.
2 28
3. Light of wavelength  shines on a metal surface with intensity x and the metal emits y electrons per second of
average energy, z. What will happen to y and z if x is doubled ?

A
(A) y will be doubled and z will become half (B) y will be remain same and z will be doubled

I
(C) both y and z will be doubled (D) y will be doubled but z will remain same
4. From B2H6, all the following can be prepared except –
(A) B2O3 (B) H3BO3

D
(C) B2(CH3)6 (D) NaBH4
5. Consider following half-cell reactions -
I. A + e–  A– Eo = 0.96 V

N
– – 2–
II. B +e B Eo = –0.12 V

I
III. C+ + e–  C Eo = + 0.18 V
IV. D2+ +2 e–  D Eo = –1.12 V

S
What combination of two half-cells would result in a cell with the largest potential ?
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II and IV
6. The complex ions [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]4––

O
(A) Are both octahedral and paramagnetic
(B) Are both octahedral and diamagnetic
(C) Have same structure but different magnetic character

O
(D) Have different structures but same magnetic character
7. The strength as oxidising agents of the following species in acidic solution decreases in the order –

T
(A) S2O82– > Cr2O72– > MnO4– (B) MnO4– > Cr2O72– > S2O82–
(C) S2O82– > MnO4– > Cr2O72– (D) Cr2O72– > S2O82– > MnO4–

E
8. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2X(g)  Y(g)  2Z(g) is 2.25. What would be the concentration of Y at
equilibrium with 2.0 moles of X and 3.0 moles of Z in one litre vessel at equilibrium –
(A) 1.0 moles (B) 2.25 moles (C) 2.0 moles (D) 4.0 moles
9. Relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mole AB in 3 mol H2O, therefore AB is
ionised at the extent of
(A) 60 % (B) 50 % (C) 100 % (D) 40 %
10. Which of the following explain the poling process ?
(A) Reduction of metallic oxide impurities to metal by Al
(B) Reduction of metallic oxide impurities to metal by gaseous hydocarbon
(C) Electrolytic reduction of metallic oxide to metal
(D) Removal of volatile oxides from the molten metal

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 2
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

11. Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because –


(A) Its colour is red (B) It is highly polymerised
(C) It is tetratomic (D) It is hard
12. The bond orders in O2, NO and CO respectively are –
(A) 2, 3, 5/2 (B) 2, 5/2, 2 (C) 2, 5/2, 3 (D) 5/2, 2, 3
13. Which one of the following reactions is not associated with the Solvay process of manufacture of sodium
carbonate –
(A) NH3 + H2O + CO2 
 NH4HCO3
(B) NaCl + NH4HCO3 
 NaHCO3 + NH4Cl

A
(C) 2NaHCO3 
 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

I
(D) 2NaOH + CO2   Na2CO3 + H2O
14. Compressibility factor (Z) is plotted against pressure at different temperature for same gas

T4
T3
T2
T1

N D
I
Z
Ideal gas

15.

O
P

(B) T1 > T2 > T3 > T4 S


Which of the following is the correct order of temperature shown in the above plot ?
(A) T4 > T3 > T2 > T1 (C) T1 > T2 > T4 > T3
Identify the correct order of acidic strength of CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O.
(D) T3 > T4 > T2 > T1

O
(A) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2 (B) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(C) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2 (D) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO

T
1 2
16. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that P.E.   mkr , where k is a constant and r is the distance of
2

E
the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr’s model of quantization of angular moment and circular orbit, r is directly
proportional to -
(A) n2 (B) n (C) n (D) none of these
17. In metal carbonyls, there is –
(A) No  bond between CO and metal atom
(B) Only  bond between metal atom and CO molecules
(C) One and one  bond (back-donation) between metal atom and CO molecules
(D) The metal-carbon bonds does not exist at all
18. On addition of increasing amount of AgNO3 to 0.1 (M) each of NaCl and NaBr in a solution, what % of Br– ion gets
precipitated when Cl– ions start precipitating?
Ksp of AgCl = 10–10 and Ksp of AgBr = 10– 13.
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.01 (C) 99.9 (D) 99.99

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 3
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

19. In which of the following case work done by the system is maximum at the definite external pressure ?

1 1 1
(A) C(S)  O2 (g) 
 CO(g) (B) HCl(g) 
 H 2 (g)  Cl 2 (g)
2 2 2

1
(C) H 2 O() 
 H 2 O(g)  H 2 O()
(D) H 2 (g)  O2 (g) 
2
20. Using the datas given below the order and rate constant for the reaction : CH3CHO(g)  CH4(g) + CO(g) would be:
Experiment No. Initial conc. Initial rate
(mol/) [mol.lit–1sec1]
I 0.10 0.020

A
II 0.20 0.080

I
III 0.30 0.180
IV 0.40 0.320

D
Answer is –
(A) 2, [k = 2.0 /mol sec] (B) 0, [k = 2.0 /mol /sec] (C) 2, [k = 1.5 /mol sec] –1
(D) 1, [k = 1.5 sec ]
21. Which of the following is correct -

(A) mole = molarity × Vin  


wt.
mol.wt.

I N
S
wt.
(B) milli mole = molarity × Vin mL   1000
mol.wt.
(C) Moles and millimoles of reactants react according to stoichiometric ratio of balanced chemical equation

O
(D) All
22. Calculate the bond energy of C-H bond from the following data :
(a) C(s) + 2H2(g)  CH4 (g) ; H = –74.8 KJ

O
(b) H2(g)  2H(g) ;  435.4 KJ
(c) C(s) C(g) ; H = 718.4 KJ

T
(A) 316.0 KJ/mol (B) 416 KJ/mol (C) 516 KJ/mol (D) 616.0 KJ/mol
23. What are the values of the orbital angular momentum of an electron in the orbitals 1s, 3s, 3d and 2p ?

E
(A) 0, 0, h 6, h 2 (B) 1,1, h 4, h 2
2 2 2 2

h h
(C) 0,1, h 6, h 3 (D) 0, 0, 20, 6
2 2 2 2
24. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding physisorption ?
(A) More easily liquefiable gases are absorbed easily.
(B) Under high pressure it results into multimolecular layer on absorbent surface.
(C) Enthalpy of adsorption (Hadsorption) is low and positive
(D) It occurs because of van der Waals’ forces.

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 4
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

25. Pick out the incorrect statement for XeF6 –


(A) XeF6 is hydrolysed partially to form XeOF4
(B) It react with SiO2 to form XeOF4
(C) On complete hydrolysis, it forms XeO3
(D) It acts as F– acceptor when treated with alkali metal fluoride, but cannot act as F– donor to form complexes
26. Ionic compounds in general possess both :
(A) High melting points and non–directional bonds
(B) High melting points and low boiling points
(C) Directional bonds and low boiling points
(D) High solubitilies in polar and non–polar solvents

A
27. A solid AB has rock salt structure. If the edge length is 520 pm and radius A+ is 80 pm, the radius of anion B– would

I
be -
(A) 440 pm (B) 220 pm (C) 360 pm (D) 180 pm
28. Potassium magnate (K2MnO4) is formed when
(A) Cl2 is passed into an aqueous solution of KMnO4
(B) Mn2O3 is fused with KOH
(C) Formaldehyde reacts with KMnO4 in the presence of strong alkali

N D
I
(D) KMnO4 reacts with conc. H2SO4
29. The formula of the complex tris (ethylene diamine) cobalt(III) sulphate is –

S
(A) [Co(en)2SO4] (B) [Co(en)3SO4]
(C) [Co(en)3]SO4 (D) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3
30. 25 ml of a given H2O2 solution require 10 ml of 0.1 (M) KMnO4 for complete oxidation in the presence of acid. What

O
is the volume strength of H2O2 solution ?
(A) 11.2 Volume (B) 5.6 Volume (C) 0.56 Volume (D) 1.12 Volume

TO
E
Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 5
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. Select the hybridisation which have non planar geometry when all are bond pair, but planar when there are 2
lone pairs on central atom :
(A) sp3 (B) sp3d (C) sp3d2 (D) All of the above
2. When the equilibrium : 2NH 3  N 2  3H 2
has been established, NH3 is found to be 20% dissociated. The ratio of total number of moles at equilibrium to the
moles of NH3 at equilibrium is –
(A) 3/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/1 (D) 1/3
3. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by –

A A

A
B B A

I
(A) M (B) M en
B B B

D
A B

en
A

N
B

I
(C) en M en (D) M

B
en

S
A

4. For s-orbitals, since  (orbital) is independent of angles, the probability (2) is -


(A) also independent of angles (B) spherically symmetric

O
(C) both (A) and (B) are correct (D) both (A) and (B) are incorrect
5. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur is :
(A) rhombic (B) monoclinic

O
(C) plastic (D) milk of sulphur
6. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol of X and

T
3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution, vapour pressure
of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be,
respectively -

E
(A) 300 and 400 (B) 400 and 600 (C) 500 and 600 (D) 200 and 300
7. In the Down’s method for the extraction of sodium, the melting point of the electrolyte is lowered by adding –
(A) Potassium chloride (B) Calcium chloride
(C) Potassium fluoride (D) Cryolite
8. In the balanced chemical reaction.
IO 3  aI   bH  
 cH 2 O  dI 2
a, b, c and d respectively correspond to -
(A) 5, 6, 3, 3 (B) 5, 3, 6, 3 (C) 3, 5, 3, 6 (D) 5, 6, 5, 5
9. Given : C(diamond)  O 2 
 CO 2 ; H  395 KJ

C(graphite)  O 2 
 CO 2 ; H  393 KJ
The heat of formation of diamond from graphite is -
(A) + 2 KJ (B) – 1.5 KJ (C) – 788 KJ (D) 788 KJ

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 2
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

10. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of


(1) Sulphates of Mg and Ca (2) Bicarbonates of Mg and Ca
(3) Sulphates of Na and K (4) Bicarbonates of Na and K
11. Electrolysis of a solution MnSO4 in aqueous sulphuric acid is a method for the preparation of MnO2. Passing
current of 27 A for 24 hours gives 1 kg of MnO2. The current efficiency is -
(A) 100% (B) 95.185% (C) 80% (D) 82.951%
12. In the reaction 3 Cu + 8 HNO3  3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2 NO + 4 H2O. What is the equivalent weight of HNO3 ? If molecular
weight of HNO3 is M.
M 3 4
(A) M (B) (C) M (D) M
3 4 3

A
13. Function of H2SiF6 in electrolyte during electrolytic refining is

I
(A) To decrease the operating temperature
(B) To increase the conductivity of the bath

D
(C) To separate impurities easily
(D) To maintain electrical neutrality
14. Nitrogen does not form NF5 because :

N
(A) Nitrogen is member of V group

I
(B) It contains no empty d-orbital
(C) The bond energy of is very high

S
(D) Inert pair effect exists in the molecule
15. Which of the following salts has maximum solubility-
(A) HgS, Ksp = 1.6 × 10–54 (B) PbSO4, Ksp =1.3 × 10–8
–26
(D) AgCl, Ksp = 1.7 × 10– 10

O
(C) ZnS, Ksp = 7.0 × 10
16. Which of the following species has O–O bond ?
(A) Cr2O7–2 (B) MnO4–

O
(C) CrO5 (D) CrO4–2
17. A substance will be deliquescent if its vapour pressure is -

T
(A) equal to the atmospheric pressure
(B) equal to that of water vapour in the air
(C) greater than that of water vapour in the air

E
(D) less than that of water vapour in the air
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists –
List-I List-II
(Complex ions) (Magnetic Moment in Bohr Magnetons)
–4
a. [Fe(CN)6] 1. 1.73
3+
b. [Fe(CN)6] 2. 5.93
3+
c. [Cr(H2O)6] 3. 0.00
2+
d. [Ni(H2O)6] 4. 2.83
–3
e. [FeF6] 5. 3.88
Code :
a b c d e a b c d e
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 (B) 3 1 5 4 2
(C) 2 3 4 5 1 (D) 4 5 1 2 3

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 3
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

19. Pure chlorine is obtained :


(A) by heating PtCl4 (B) by heating MnO2 with HCl
(C) by heating bleaching powder with HCl (D) by heating mixture of NaCl, MnO2 and Conc. H2SO4
20. The reduction of peroxydisulphate ion by I ion is expressed by S2O32– + 3I–  2SO42– + I3–. If rate of disappearance

of I– is 9/2 × 10–3 mol lit–1 S–1, what is the rate of formation of SO42– during same time ?
(A) 10–3 mol/L–1 S–1 (B) 2 × 10–3 mol/L–1 S–1 (C) 3 × 10–3 mol/L–1 S–1 (D) 4 × 10–3 mol/L–1 S–1
21. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited
state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are)
(A) –3.4 eV (B) –4.2 eV (C) –6.8 eV (D) +6.8 eV
22. Which is a pair of paramagnetic species ?

A
(A) KO2, NO2 (B) K2O2 , KO2

I
(C) K2O, NO2 (D) NO2, N2O2
23. Which of the following is false statement –
(A) Boranes are easily hydrolysed

D
(B) LiAlH4 reduces BCl3 to borane
(C) BH3 is a Lewis acid

N
(D) All the B–H distances in diborane (B2H6) are equal

I
24. Which of the following has largest radius ?
(A) Mg2+ (B) Na+
(C) O2– (D) F–

S
25. The compound which give off Oxygen on moderate heating is –
(A) Cupric oxide (B) Mercuric oxide

O
(C) Zinc oxide (D) Aluminium oxide
26. Which order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands –
(A) Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–

O
(B) CN– < C2O42– < Cl– > NO2– < F–
(C) C2O42– < F– < Cl– > NO2– < CN–

T
(D) F– < Cl– < NO2– < CN– < C2O42–
27. For the water gas reaction, C(s)  H 2 O(g)  CO(g)  H 2 (g)

E
At 1000 K the standard Gibbs free energy change of the reaction is – 8.314 KJ/mol. Therefore at 1000 K the
equilibrium constant of the above water gas reaction is -
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 1 / e (D) 2.718
28. If a protein has 0.07% Fe (M = 56) by weight as the only metal, its molar mass would be at least M × 104 g. Here M
is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
29. Which of the following statement is wrong about order of reaction ?
(A) Order is experimentally determined
(B) Order is independent on the stoichiometry of reaction
(C) Order may not be fractional
(D) Order is the sum of the power to which the concentration terms are raised to express the rate of reaction
30. A unit cell of sodium chloride has four formula units. The edges length of the unit cell is 0.564 nm. What is the
density of sodium chloride ?
(A) 1.165 gm/cm3 (B) 4.165 gm/cm3 (C) 2.165 gm/cm3 (D) 5.165 gm/cm3

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 4
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is –


(A) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(B) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride
(C) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(D) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
2. Boiling of dil. HCl acid does not increase its concentration beyond 22.2 percent because hydrochloric acid –
(A) Is very volatile (B) Is extremely soluble in water
(C) Forms a constant boiling mixture (D) Forms a saturated solution at this concentration
3. Half of the formic acid solution is neutralised on addition of a KOH solution to it. If Ka (HCOOH) = 2 × 10–4then pH
of the solution is - (log 2 = 0.3010)
(A) 3.6990 (B) 10.3010 (C) 3.85 (D) 4.3010

A
4. The rate constant (k) for the reaction 2A + B  Products, was found to be 2.58 × 10–5  mol–1 s–1 after 15 sec,

I
2.60 × 10–5  mol–1 s–1 after 30 sec and 2.55 × 10–5  mol–1 s–1 after 50 sec. Hence the order of the reaction is -
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0.5
5. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. If hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited by monochromatic

D
light of energy 12.1 eV, then the spectral lines emitted according to Bohr’s theory will be -
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
6. If K1 = 4 × 10–3 for following two gaseous reactions –

N
1

I
SO 2 (g)  O2 (g)  SO3 (g); K1
2
2SO3 (g)  2SO 2 (g)  O2 (g); K 2

S
then K2 will be –
(A) 8 × 10–3 (B) 6.25 × 104 (C) 6.25 × 108 (D) 8 × 104
7. Bucky ball or buck minister fullerene is :

O
(A) An allotrope of carbon
(B) It is referred as C–60

O
(C) It has sp2–hybridised nature and resembles with soccer ball
(D) All of these

T
8. A flask is filled with CCl4 vapour at a pressure and temperature was weighted. The flask was then filled with oxygen
at the same temperature and pressure after removing CCl4 vapour. The mass of CCl4 vapour would be about :
(A) Same as that of oxygen

E
(B) One-fifth as heavy as oxygen
(C) Five times as heavy as oxygen
(D) Twice as heavy as oxygen
9. Arrange Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ in increasing order of their ionic radii –
(A) Yb3+ < Pm3+ > Ce3+ < La3+ . (B) Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ .
(C) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ (D) Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
10. The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temp. is 640 mm Hg. A non-volatile-non-electrolyte and weighing
2.175 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600 mm Hg. What is the molecular
weight of the solid substance ?
(A) 6.96 (B) 65.3 (C) 63.8 (D) none of these
11. Beryllium hydride is obtained by–
(A) Heating Be in atmosphere of H2
(B) The action of BeCl2 with LiAlH4
(C) The action of Be with CaH2
(D) None of these

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 2
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

12. For an adiabatic reversible expansion of a perfect gas P/P is equal to


V V V 2 V
(A) (B)  (C)   (D)  
V V V V
13. The structure of Br3– involves hybridisation of the type –
(A) sp3d (B) sp3d2
3
(C) dsp (D) d2sp3
14. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Probabilities of finding e– are found by solving Schrodinger wave equation.
(B) Energy of the electron at infinite distance is zero and yet it is maximum
(C) Some spectral lines of an element may have the same wave number
(D) The position and momentum of a rolling ball can be measured accurately
15. The following equation represents a method of purification of nickel by –

A
320K 420K
Ni  2CO   Ni  CO  4   Ni  4CO

I
impure pure

(A) Cupellation (B) Mond’s process


(C) Van Arkel method (D) Zone refining

D
16. Which one of the following properties of white phosphorous are shared by red phosphorous –
(A) It dissolves in CS2 (B) It burns when heated in air

N
(C) It reacts with NaOH to give PH3 (D) It phosphorescences in air

I
17. Consider following solutions -
I. : 1 M aq. Glucose II. : 1 M aq. sodium chloride
III. : 1 M benzoic acid in benzene IV. : 1 M ammonium phosphate

S
Select incorrect statement -
(A) all are isotonic solutions (B) III is hypotonic of I, II, IV
(C) I, II, IV are hypertonic of III (D) IV is hypertonic of I, II, III

O
18. Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers ?
(A) [Pd(PPh3)2(NCS)2] and [Pd(PPh3)2(SCN)2]
(B) [Co(NH3)5NO3] SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4] NO3
(C) [Pt Cl2(NH3)4] Br2 and [Pt Br2(NH3)4] Cl2

O
(D) [Cu(NH3)4 [PtCl4] ] and [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4]
19. The bond enthalpies of H2, X2 and HX are in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 2. If the enthalpy for formation of HX is – 50 KJ mol –1, the

T
bond enthalpy of H2 is -
(A) 200 KJ mol–1 (B) 400 KJ mol–1 (C) 100 KJ mol–1 (D) 300 KJ mol–1
20. The correct statement for the reaction

E
NH3 + H+  NH4+
(A) Hybridisation state is changed
(B) Bond angle increases
(C) NH3 act as a Lewis acid
(D) Regular geometry is changed
21. For the cell prepared from electrode A and B.
Electrode A : Cr2 O 7 2  / Cr 3 , E o red  1.33 V and Electrode B : Fe 3 / Fe2  , E o red  0.77 V which of the following
statements is not correct
(A) The electrons will flow from B to A when connection are made
(B) The emf of the cell will be 0.56 V
(C) A will be positive electrode
(D) None of these
22. Which of the following organometallic compound is used as fungicide in plant protection –
(A) C2H5HgCl (B) (C2H5)2Zn
(C) (C2H5)4Pb (D) (C2H5)2Cd

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23. Cr2O72– 


PH  X 2– PH  Y
 CrO4 
2–
 Cr2O7 pH value of X & Y –
(A) 4 and 5 (B) 4 and 8
(C) 8 and 4 (D) 8 and 9
24. 100 ml of CH4 and C2H2 were exploded with excess of O2. After explosion and cooling, the mixture was treated with
KOH, where a reduction of 165 ml was observed. Therefore the composition of the mixture is -
(A) CH4 = 35 ml ; C2H2 = 65 ml (B) CH4 = 65 ml ; C2H2 = 35 ml
(C) CH4 = 75 ml ; C2H2 = 25 ml (D) CH4 = 25 ml ; C2H2 = 75 ml
25. The difference of number of sigma bonds are  bonds in 1, 3, 5–tricyanobenzene is –
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) zero
26. The volume of nitrogen evolved on complete reaction of 9g of ethylamine with a mixture of NaNO2 and HCl at 273°C
and 1 atm pressure is

A
(A) 11.2 dm3 (B) 5.6 dm3 (C) 4.48dm3 (D) 22.4 dm3

I
27. The emf of a cell corresponding to the following reaction is 0.20 V at 298 K.

Zn(s) + 2H+(aq)  Zn2+ (0.1 M) + H2(g) (E 0Zn /Zn 2  0.76V)

D
The approximate pH of the solution at the electrode where hydrogen is being produced is (p H2  1 atm)

 2.303RT 

N
Assume 
F   0.6
 

28.

29.
(A) 8

(A) 2–n N0
(B) 9

(B) 2n N0

S I
(C) 10

(C) n–2 N0
(D) 11
If N0 is the initial number of nuclei, number of nuclei remaining undecayed at the end of nth half life is
(D) n2 N0
If the radius of the octahedral void is r and radius of the atoms in close packing is R, relation between r and R.

O
3
(A) r   2  1 R (B) r  2 R (C) r  3 4 R (D) r  R
2

O
30. Assertion : When a system in equilibrium is disturbed by changing the temperature, it will tend to adjust itself so as
to overcome the effect of the change.
Reason : The endothermic reactions are favoured at lower temperature and the exothermic reactions are favoured at

T
higher temperature.
(1) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.

E
(3) Assertion is True, Reason is False.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are False.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. Which of the following is not true regarding order of a reaction ?


(A) It is equal to molecularity of a one-step reaction
(B) It is constant for a reaction and changes only with temperature
(C) It can take any value i.e. 0, –ve, +ve or fraction
(D) It can be different for different reactants in the same reaction
2. The observed dipole - moment of HCl molecule is 1.03. If H–Cl bond distance is 1.275 Å and electronic charge
is 1.4×10–10 esu. What is the percent polarity of HCl –
4.8 1010 1.275  108
(A) 1.275 Å × 1.03 (B)
1.03

1.03 100 1018 4.8 1010

A
(C) (D) 1
4.8 1010  1.275 108 1.03

3.

4.
approximately -
(A) –1.21 (B) –1.51 (C) 1.51

D
Aluminium vassels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because –
(D) 1.21 Ixy
For 118% labelled oleum if the no. of moles of H2SO4 and free SO3 be x & y respectively, the value of  x  y  is
 

N
(A) Washing soda is expensive

5.
(B) Washing soda is easily decomposed

S I
(C) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(D) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide.
For a gas having molar mass M, specific heat at constant pressure per gm of gas is given by

O
R  M RM
(A) (B) (C) R(  1) (D) (   1)
M(  1) RM
6. Which of the following is not optically active –

O
(A) [Co(en)3]3+ (B) [Cr(ox)3]3–
(C) cis-[CoCl2(en)2]+ (D) trans-[CoCl2(en)2]+
7. In the chemical reaction

T
K 2 Cr2 O7  XH 2SO 4  YSO 2  K 2SO 4  Cr2 (SO4 )3  ZH 2 O
X, Y and Z are -

E
(A) 1, 3, 1 (B) 4, 1, 4 (C) 3, 2, 3 (D) 2, 1, 2
8. The deep blue colour produced on adding H2O2 to acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is due to the formation of –
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO3
(C) CrO5 (D) CrO4–
9. The manganese (Z = 25) has the outer configuration :
4s 3d 4s 3d
(A) (B)

4s 3d 4s 3d
(C) (D)

10. In Clark’s process for removing hardness of water the reagent used is
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) Both (1) & (2)

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11. The buffer capacity of a given acid buffer solution is 100. To the solution if 0.5 moles of alkali is added, then .
(A) pH increases by 5 unit (B) pH increases by 0.5 unit
(C) pH increases by 50 unit (D) pH increases by 5 × 10–3 unit
12. Which among the following is isostructural with XeF4 ?
(A) ICl3 (B) PCl4+

(C) ICl4 (D) XeO3
13. When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50g of benzene (Kf = 1.72 K kg mol–1), a freezing point
depression of 2K is observed. The van’t Hoff factor (i) is -
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
14. On heating a mixture of NH4Cl and KNO2 we get –
(A) NH4NO3 (B) N2 (C) NO (D) N2O

A
15. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH 3 at 25°C. The reduction potential of the electrode would be

I
2.303 RT
(the value of is 0.059 V) :
F
(A) 0.177 V (B) –0.177 V (C) 0.087 V (D) 0.059 V

D
II + III
16. In nitroprusside ion the iron and NO exist as Fe and NO rather than Fe and NO. These forms can be
differentiated by –
(A) Estimating the concentration of iron
(B) Measuring the concentration of CN–

N
(C) Measuring the solid state magnetic moment

I
(D) Thermally decomposing the compound
17. (i) H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl(g) ; H = –x KJ
(ii) NaCl + H2SO4  NaHSO4 + HCl; H = –y KJ

S
(iii) 2H2O + 2Cl2  4HCl + O2 ; H = –z KJ
From the above equations, the value of Hf of HCl is -
(A) –x KJ (B) –y KJ (C) –z KJ (D) –x/2 KJ

O
18. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2), which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6), is –
(A) As a catalyst.

O
(B) To make the fused mixture very conducting
(C) To lower the temperature of the melt

T
(D) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode
19. The energy of an electron in the orbit of H-atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy values of the excited state for
electron in Bohr orbits of Li2+ ions is/are -

E
(A) –3.4 eV (B) –30.6 eV (C) –13.6 eV (D) All of the above
20. Which of the following compounds are coloured due to charge transfer spectrum ?
(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) KMnO4
(C) [Fe(H2O)5 NO]SO4 (D) All of these
21. If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ions discharged at cathode are
(A) H+ (B) Na+ (C) OH– (D) Cl–
22. Which of the following ions has the smallest radius ?
(A) Be2+ (B) Li+
(C) O2– (D) F–
23. The common features among the species CN–, CO and NO+ are –
(A) bond order three and isoelectronic
(B) bond order three and weak field ligands
(C) bond order two and –acceptors
(D) isoelectronic and weak field ligands
24. A given sample of pure compound contains 9.81 gm of Zn, 1.8 × 1023 atoms of chromium, and 0.60 mol of oxygen
atoms. What is the simplest formula -
(A) ZnCr2O7 (B) ZnCr2O4 (C) ZnCrO4 (D) ZnCrO6

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Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

25. ‘a’ moles of PCl5 undergo thermal dissociation as –


PCl5  PCl3  Cl 2 , the mole fraction of PCl3 at equilibrium is 0.5. The total pressure is 2.0 atmosphere. The partial
pressure of Cl2 at equilibrium is –
(A) 2.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.5 (D) None
26. The noble gas which shows abnormal behaviour in liquid state and behave as superfluid is –
(A) Ne (B) He (C) Ar (D) Xe
27. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral 0 and tetrahedral  t complexes is related to –

4 1 4
(A)  t  0 (B)  t  0 (C)  0  2 t (D)  0  t
9 2 9

A
28. Which of the following is not a colligative property -

I
(A) Tf (B)  (C) Tb (D) Kb
29. The velocity of a reaction is doubled for every 10°C rise in temperature. If the temperature is raised by 50°C, the
reaction velocity increases by about -

D
(A) 12 times (B) 16 times (C) 32 times (D) 50 times
30. In a CCP lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at face centres. Then the formula of
the compound would be if one of the X atoms from a corner is replaced by Z atoms (also monovalent) ?

N
(A) X7 Y24 Z2 (B) X7 Y24 Z (C) X24 Y7 Z (D) X Y24 Z

S I
O O
E T

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 4
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. Bromine is prepared in the laboratory –


(A) by heating KBr with Conc. H2SO4
(B) by heating KBr, MnO2 with Conc. H2SO4
(C) by heating KBr with HCl
(D) by passing I2 vapours through KBr solution
2. Which is incorrect from the theory of Arrhenius’s equation ?
(A) The number of effective collisions is proportional to the number of molecules above a certain threshold energy
(B) As the temperature increases, the number of molecules with energies exceeding the threshold energy in-
creases
(C) The rate constant is a function of temperature .

3.
(D) Activation energy and pre-exponential factors are temperature-dependent

I A
The equivalent conductance of an infinitely dilute solution of NH4Cl is 150 and the ionic conductance of OH–
and Cl– ions are 198 and 76 respectively. If the equivalent conductance of a 0.01 N solution of NH4OH is 9.6, W

D
will be its degree of dissociation ?
(A) 0.0353 (B) 0.0103 (C) 0.96 (D) 0.414
4. Which of the following species will have the minimum bond energy :
(A) N2 (B) N2–

N
+
(C) N2 (D) N2–2

I
5. What will be the normality of a solution obtained by mixing 0.45 N and 0.60 N NaOH in the ratio 2 : 1 by volume ?
(A) 0.4 N (B) 0.5 N (C) 1.05 N (D) 0.15 N
6. The spin magnetic moment of cobalt in Hg[Co(SCN)4] is :

S
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 15 (D) 24

O
7. Molal depression constant is calculated from the enthalpy of fusion (Hf) and b.pt. of solvent using the relation -

M1RT02 1000RT02 1000M1T02 H f


(A) K f  (B) K f  (C) K f  (D) K f 
1000 H f M1H f R H f 1000M1RT02

O
8. Red precipitate is obtained when silver nitrate is added to –
(A) K2Cr2O4 (B) KI

T
(C) KBr (D) Na2S2O3
9. Column - I Column - II
(a) The radiation has dual nature (p) Davisson and Germer

E (b) The orbital angular momentum of


electron in 2s orbital is
(c) The wave character of electron was
experimentally verified by
(d) Isotopes
(e) Isotone
(q) Same atomic number

(r) De Broglie

(s) Zero
(t) Same number of electrons
(u) Einstein
a b c d e
(A) u s p q t
(B) t q p s u
(C) q p s u t
(D) p t u q s

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Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
10. Which of the following is correct –
(A) Solubility : BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4
(B) Reducing character : Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
(C) Thermal stability : BeCO3> MgCO3 > CaCO3
(D) M.P. : LiF > NaF > KF > RbF
11. Match Column-I with Column - II
Column - I Column - II
(Property) (Reason)
(a) Tyndall effect (p) Due to presence of charged colloidal particles
(b) Electrophoresis (q) Due to scattering of light
(c) Brownian movement (r) Due to neutralization of charge of colloidal particles
(d) Coagulation (s) Due to unequal bombardment of colloidal particles by
solvent molecules
a b c d
(A) r s q p
(B) p, r q r, s p
(C) q p s r
(D) p s r q
12. When tin is treated with concentrated nitric acid
(A) It is converted into stannous nitrate
(B) It becomes passive
(C) It converted into stannic nitrate
(D) It is converted into metastannic acid
13. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to -
(A) the number of electrons undergoing the transition
(B) the nuclear charge of the atom
(C) the difference in the energy of the energy levels involved in the transition
(D) the velocity of the electron undergoing the transition
14. The type of bonds present in B2H6.2NH3 are
(A) banana bond and covalent bond
(B) banana bond and ionic bond
(C) banana bond and coordinate bond
(D) Ionic bond, covalent bond and coordinate bond
15. If the solution of the CuSO4 in which copper rod is immersed is diluted to 10 times, the oxidation electrode potential
(A) increase by 0.030 volt (B) decrease by 0.030 volt
(C) increase by 0.059 volt (D) decrease by 0.0059 volt
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect about [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 –
(A) It gives brown ring test for nitrates
(B) Oxidation state of Fe is +1
(C) It exhibits geometrical isomerism
(D) Charge on NO is +1
17. An unknown compound A dissociates at 500°C to give products as follows -
A(g)  B(g)  C(g)  D(g)
Vapour density of the equilibrium mixture is 50 when it dissociates to the extent to 10%. What will be the molecular
weight of Compound A -
(A) 120 (B) 130 (C) 134 (D) 140
18. The chloro-bis (ethylenediamine) nitro cobalt (III) ion is –
(A) [Co(NO2)2(en)2Cl2]+ (B) [CoCl(NO2)2(en)2]+
+
(C) [Co(NO2)Cl(en)2] (D) [Co(en)Cl2(NO2)2]–
19. Ammonium cyanide is a salt of NH4OH (Kb =1.8 × 10 ) and HCN(Ka = 4.0 × 10–10). The hydrolysis constant of 0.1
–5

M NH4CN at 25ºC is.


(A) 1.4 (B) 7.2 × 10–15 (C) 7.2 × 10–1 (D) 1.4 × 10–6
20. Formation of metallic copper from sulphide ore in the normal thermo metallurgical process essentially involves
which of the following reactions –

3
(A) CuS + O 2 
 CuO + SO2, CuO + C 
 Cu + CO
2

3
(B) CuS + O 2 
 3Cu + SO2, 2CuO + CuS 
 3Cu + SO2
2

(C) CuS + 2O2 


 CuSO4

3
(D) CuS + O2 
 CuO + SO2
2
21. A gaseous system undergoes a change of state from (A) to (B) by any
of the given path -
path-I or path - II as shown in figure
A
*
As per path - I, q = –400 cal and W = 14 cal II
As per path - II, q = –48 cal.
P I
Therefore work done, W in path - (II) is - *B
(A) – 338 cals (B) – 366 cals V
(C) – 434 cals (D) – 462 cals
22. Select diagram which represents the correct change in bond angle of given ions.

Increase Decrease
ClO3– BrO3– ClO3– BrO3–

Decrease Increase Increase Decrease


(A) (B)
IO3– IO3–

Increase – Decrease
ClO3– BrO3 ClO3

BrO3–

Increase Decrease Decrease Increase


(C) (D)
– –
IO3 IO3

23. X g of ethanal (CH3CHO) was subjected to combustion in a bomb calorimeter and the heat produced is Y joules.
Then which of following is correct -
44Y
(A) E(comb.)  Y KJ (B) E (comb.)   J mol 1
X
44Y
(C) H (comb.)   J mol 1 (D) H (comb.)  Y J mol 1
X
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
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24. ZnCl2 reacts with excess of NH3 solution to produce


(A) a ppt of Zn(OH)2
(B) a complex ion Zn(OH)42– of tetrahedral geometry
(C) a complex ion Zn(NH3)42+ of tetrahedral geometry
(D) a complex ion Zn(NH3)42+ of square planar geometry
25. The final product obtained when boric acid is heated to red heat is –
(A) Metaboric acid (B) Tetraboric acid
(C) Boron oxide (B2O3) (D) Pyroboric acid
26. The equivalent weight of K4 [Fe(CN)6] in the given reaction is -
[O ]
K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]  Fe3  NO3  CO 2
(A) M/20 (B) M/1 (C) M/60 (D) M/61

A
27. Solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble salt MCl2 is 4 × 10–12 at 25°C. Also, at 25°C solubility of MCl2 in an

I
aqueous solution of CaCl2 is 4 × 108 times less compared to its solubility in pure water. Hence, concentration
(molarity) of CaCl2 solution is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

D
28. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2
is 3.0 × 10–5 s–1 . If the rate is 2.40 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1 , then conc. of N2O5 (in mol L–1) is -

N
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.04 (D) 0.8

I
29. A mineral having the formula AB2, crystallizes in the cubic close-packing lattice, with the A atoms occupying the
lattice points. The co-ordination number of the A atoms, that of B atoms and the fraction of the tetrahedral sites
occupied by B atoms are

S
(A) 8, 4, 100% (B) 2, 6, 75% (C) 3, 1, 25% (D) 6, 6, 50%
30. An electron resides in a subshell which has 9 degenerate orbitals and the principal quantum number associated with
this subshell has minimum possible value. The sum of ‘n’ & ‘’ for this electron is

O
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 9

TO
E
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Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. The correct sequence of dipole moments among the chlorides of methane is –


(A) CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl > CCl4 (B) CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl > CHCl3 > CCl4
(C) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 < CCl4 (D) CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 > CH3Cl > CCl4
2. A light source of power 16 watt emits light of wavelength 310 nm. If all the emitted photons are made to strike a metal
plate of work function 1.5 ev, then find the magnitude of photocurrent if 50% of the incident photon eject
photoelectrons-
(A) 0.2 amp. (B) 2 amp. (C) 1 amp. (D) 3 amp.
3. For a chemical reaction, 2A + 2B  C + D, the order of reaction is one with respect to A and one with respect to
B. The initial rate of the reaction is 4 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. When 50% of the reactants are converted into products, the
rate of the reaction would become -
(A) 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 (B) 1 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 (C) 4 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 (D) 2 × 10–1 mol L–1 s–1

A
4. XeF2 reacts with SbF5 to form ?

I
(A) [XeF]+ [SbF6]- (B) [XeF3]+ [SbF4]–
(C) XeSbF6 (D) XeF4

D
5. A dilute aqueous solution at Na2SO4 is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. The products at the anode and
cathode are -
(A) O2, H2 (B) S2 O82 , Na (C) O2, Na (D) S2 O 82 , H 2

N
6. The IUPAC name for [(NH3)5Cr–OH–Cr(NH3)5]+5 is :

I
(A) –hydroxo-bis (pentaammine dichromium) (V+) ion
(B) –hydroxo-bis (decaammine dichromium) (V+) ion

S
(C) –hydroxo-bis (octaammine chromium) (V+) ion
(D) –hydroxo-bis (pentaammine chromium) (III) ion
7. Starting with the same initial conditions one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas expands reversibly from volume V1 to

O
V2 in three different ways. The work done by gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 if purely

isobaric and W3 if purely adiabatic, then

8.

TO
(A) W1  W2  W3

(C) W2  W3  W1


(B) W2  W1  W3

(D) W1  W3  W2


Which of the following compounds is used as the starting material for the preparation of potassium dichromate

E
(A) K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O (Chrome alum) (B) PbCrO4 (Chrome yellow)
(C) FeCr2O4 (Chromite) (D) PbCrO4PbO (Chrome red)
9. Which of following is not a redox change ?
(A) 2H 2S  SO 2  2H 2 O  3S (B) 2BaO  O2  2BaO2

(C) BaO 2  H 2SO 4  BaSO4  H 2 O (D) 2KCIO3  2KCl  3O 2


10. For the following three reactions a, b and c equilibrium constants are given -
(a) CO(g)  H 2 O(g)  CO2 (g)  H 2 (g); K1

(b) CH 4 (g)  H 2 O(g)  CO2 (g)  3H 2 (g); K 2

(c) CH 4 (g)  2H 2 O(g)  CO 2 (g)  4H 2 (g); K 3


Which of the following relations is correct ?

(A) K2K3 = K1 (B) K3 = K1K2 (C) K 3 K 32  K12 (D) K1 K 2  K 3

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

11. Which one of the following reactions is an example for calcination process –
(A) 2 Ag + 2HCl + (O)  2AgCl + H2O
(B) 2Zn + O2  2ZnO
(C) 2ZnS + 3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2
(D) MgCO3  MgO + CO2
12. Which of the following option is correct :
(A) Hydrogen can be prepared by Electrolysis of acidified water, Bosch’s process and Lane’s process.
(B) Hydrogen molecules is diatomic so are halogens.
(C) Ionisation energy of hydrogen is lower than that of fluorine.
(D) All the above options are correct.

A
13. The M.P of SnCl4 is less than of SnCl2, the suitable reason for the observed fact is :

I
(A) There is more charge on Sn+4
(B) The size of Sn+4 is small

D
(C) Ionic potential () of Sn+4 is high
(D) The shape of SnCl4 is tetrahedral
14. In which of the following arrangement the order is NOT according to the property indicated against it ?

N
(A) Al +3 < Mg+2 < Na < F – – increasing ionic size

I
(B) B < C < N < O – increasing first ionization enthalpy
(C) I < Br < F < Cl – increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)

S
(D) Li < Na < K < Rb – increasing metallic radius
15. When a fluoride is heated with conc. H2SO4 in a glass tube and if a drop of water is held at the mouth of the glass
tube, a white deposit formed is of –

O
(A) H2SiF6 (B) SiO2
(C) H2SiO3 (D) SiF4 + H2F2
16. 5 moles of A, 6 moles of Z and mixed with sufficient amount of C to produce final product F. How many maximum

O
moles of ‘F’ can be produced as per the given sequence of reaction ?
A + 2Z  B ; B + C  Z + F

T
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
17. Which of the following contains one unpaired electron in the 4p orbitals –
(A) [Cu(NH3)2]+ (B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (C) [Cu(CN)4]3– (D) [Ni(CN)4]2–

18.

19.

20.
E
The amount of BaSO4 precipitated from 200 ml of

(A) 2.33 g (B) 23.3 g


N
10
H 2SO 4 acid is -

(C) 233 g (D) 1000 g


Calculate the quantity of electricity that would be required to reduce 12.3g of nitrobenzene to aniline. If current
efficient is 50%. If the potential drops across the cell is 3.0 volts -
(A) 369000 coulomb
+
(B) 115800 coulomb
H ion concentration of water does not change by adding
(C) 32100 coulomb (D) 521900 coulomb

(A) CH3COONa (B) NaNO3 (C) NaCN (D) Na2CO3


21. In a mixture of A and B, components show negative deviation when -
(A) A – B interaction is stronger that A – A and B – B interaction
(B) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and B – B interaction
(C) Vmix > 0, Smix > 0
(D) Vmix = 0, Smix > 0

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22. Decimolar solution of potassium ferricyanide, K3[Fe(CN)6] has osmotic pressure of 3.94 atm at 27°C. Hence percent
ionisation of the solute is -
(A) 10 % (B) 20 % (C) 30 % (D) 40 %
23. Which of the set of species have same hybridisation state but different shapes :
(A) NO2+, NO2, NO2– (B) ClO4–, SF4, XeF4
+
(C) NH4 , H3O, OF2 (D) SO4–2, PO4–3, ClO4–
24. Which transition metal has lowest density ?
(A) Sc (B) Ti
(C) Zn (D) La
25. Which of the following is a double salt

A
(A) Carnallite (B) Mohr’s salt

I
(C) Alum (D) All are correct
26. If Hlattice and Hhydration of NaCl are respectively 778 and –774.3 KJ mol–1 and Sdissolution of NaCl at 298 K is 43 mol–1. The
value of G° for dissolution of 1 mole of NaCl is -

D
(A) – 9.114 KJ (B) – 11.14 KJ (C) – 7.114 MJ (D) + 9.114 KJ
27. Alkali metals are soluble in liquid NH3. As the concentration of metal increases, solution turns blue to bronze. It
reflects the change in magnetic property of the solution –

N
(A) Diamagnetic to paramagnetic (B) Paramagnetic to diamagnetic

I
(C) Weak to intense paramagnetic (D) No change in magnetic property
28. In a chemical equilibrium, the equilibrium constant is found to be 2.5. If the rate constant of backward reaction

S
3.2 × 10–2 , the rate constant of forward reaction is –
(A) 8.0 × 10–2 (B) 4.0 × 10–2 (C) 3.5 × 10–2 (D) 7.6 × 10–3
29. If the rate constant for the disintegration of a radio active nucleus is . Therefore the probability, P of survival of a

O
radioactive nucleus for one mean life is -
(A) e (B) e2 (C) e–1 (D) e–2
30. MgAl2O4, is found in the Spinel structure in which O2– ions constitute CCP lattice, Mg2+ ions occupy 1/8 th of the

O
Tetrahedral voids and Al3+ ions occupy 1/2 of the Octahedral voids. Find the total +ve charge contained in one unit
cell.

T
(A) +7/4 electronic charge (B) +6 electronic charge (C) +2 electronic charge (D) +8 electronic charge

E
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1. Compounds formed when the noble gases get entrapped in the cavities of crystal lattices of certain organic and
inorganic compounds are known as –
(A) Interstitial compounds (B) Clathrates
(C) Hydrates (D) Picrates
2. 100 ml solution (I) of buffer containing 0.1(M)HA and 0.2 (M)A–, is mixed another solution (II) of 100 ml containing
0.2(M) HA and 0.3(M) A–.
After mixing what is the pH of resulting solution ?
Given pKa of HA = 5
(A) 5 – log5/3 (B) 5 + log5/3 (C) 5 + log 2/5 (D) 5 – log 5/2
3. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are –
(A) one sigma () and one pi() bond

A
(B) one sigma () and two pi() bond

I
(C) one sigma () and one and a half pi() bond
(D) one sigma () bond

D
4. Which of the following is correct code ? (T = true, F = False)
(a) Amongs 1s, 2p, 3d orbitals, 1s orbital have the nature of r v/s r graph is different from others
(b) According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle, we can not find trajectories of electrons and other similar

N
particles.

I
(c) An atomic orbital is the wave function for an electron in an atom.
(A) T T T (B) F T T (C) F T F (D) T T F
5. Chromite ore has a spinel structure and is the chromium analogue of magnetite, Fe3O4. This ore, when fused

S
with molten NaOH in presence of air, forms –
(A) Cr2O3 (B) Na2Cr2O7
(C) Na2CrO4 (D) CrO7

O
6. A sample of H2SO4 (density 1.8 g/ml) is 90% by weight. What is the volume of the acid that has to be used to make
1 litre of 0.2-M H2SO4 ?
(A) 16 mL (B) 10 mL (C) 12 mL (D) 18 mL

7.

8.

TO
For the t 62g e2g system, the value of magnetic moment () is –
(A) 2.83 B.M.
(C) 3.87 B.M.
(B) 1.73 B.M.
(D) 4.92 B.M.
For a reversible reaction, the activation energies for the forward and the backward reactions are 60 kJ and 20 kJ

E
respectively. If energy of reactants is 20 kJ the energy of reactants is 20 kJ the energy of products would be -
(A) 40 kJ (B) 20 kJ (C) 80 kJ (D) 60 kJ
9. Which of the following is correct order of increasing bond strength –
(A) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (B) HI < HBr < HF < HCl
(C) HI < HBr < HCl < HF (D) HCl < HBr < HF < HI
10. The enthalpy of formation for C 2H4 (g), CO2 (g) and H2O (l) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure by 52, –394 and –
286 kJ mol –1 respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of C2H4 (g) will be -
(A) +1412 KJ mol–1 (B) – 1412 KJ mol–1 (C) +141.2 KJ mol–1 (D) – 141.2 KJ mol–1
11. Which of the following is wrong –
(A) Reducing character of alkaline earth metals increases from Be to Ba
(B) Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature
(C) The solubilities of sulphates and carbonates decrease with increase in atomic number of alkaline earth
metals
(D) BeCl2 has much higher m.p. and insoluble in organic solvents

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12. Which of the following is correct ?


(A) Conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution, whereas molar conductivity increases with dilution
(B) Conductivity of a solution increase with dilution, whereas molar conductivity decrease with dilution
(C) Both conductivity and molar conductivity decrease with dilution
(D) Both conductivity and molar conductivity increase with dilution
13. For the reaction : 2HI(g)  H 2 (g)  I 2 (g); the degree of dissociation () of HI (g) is related to equilibrium constant
Kp by the expression

1  2 Kp 1  2K p 2K p 2 Kp
(A) (B) (C) 1  2K (D) 1  2 K
2 2 p p

A
14. Assertion : Henry’s law and Raoult’s law are not independent that is, they can be derived from each other.

I
Reason : In an ideal solution, the partial pressure is directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute.
(A) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(B) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.

D
(C) Assertion is True, Reason is False.
(D) Assertion and Reason both are False.
15. Which statement is incorrect –

N
(A) Ni(CO)4 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic

I
(B) [Ni(CN4)]2– – Square planar, diamagnetic
(C) Ni(CO)4 – Tetrahedral, diamagnetic

S
(D) [NiCl4]–2 – Tetrahedral, paramagnetic
16. A 5% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with 0.877% of X. The molecular weight of substance X is -
(A) 58.98 (B) 119.96 (C) 95.58 (D) 126.98

O
17. The structure of P4O10 (x) is as follows
O

O
P
O O O
O P O

T
P O
O O
P

E
O
O O

(x) + n H2O 
 2 HO P O P OH (pyrophosphoric acid)

OH OH
What is the value of “n” ?
(A) n = 6 (B) n = 4 (C) n = 3 (D) n = 5
18. The following graph illustrates

(A) Dalton's Law


(B) Charles Law
(C) Boyles Law
(D) Gay Lussac Law

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

19. Match the catalyst in column X with their use in column Y.


Column X Column Y
(a) TiCl3 I. Fenton’s reagents for oxidizing R–OH to RCHO
(b) FeSO4/H2O2 II.Wacker precess for converting C2H4 to CH3CHO
(c) Xanthine oxidase (Mo) III. Photosynthesis
(d) Ferredoxin IV. Zieglaer – Natta catalyst in production of polythene
(e) PdCl2 V. Metabolism of purines
a b c d e
(A) I IV V III II

A
(B) IV I V III II

I
(C) II IV III V I
(D) IV II V III I
20. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid H3PO4 in the reaction, NaOH + H3PO4  NaH2PO4 + H2O is -

D
(A) 59 (B) 49 (C) 25 (D) 98
21. Which of the following sequences represent the correct increasing order of bond angles in the given molecules?
(A) ClO2 < OF2 < OCl2 < H2O (B) OF2 < H2O < OCl2 < ClO2

N
(C) OCl2 < ClO2 < H2O < OF2 (D) H2O < OF2 < OCl2 < ClO2

22. For Zn(s) Zn 2 (0.1M) Fe 2 (0.01M) Fe(s)

E cell  0.2905 at 298K.

S I
The equilibrium constant for the reaction Zn(s)  Fe 2  (aq)  Zn 2  (aq)  Fe(s) at 298 K is -
(A) e0.32/.0295 (B) 100.595/0.76 (C) 100.0259/0.32 (D) 100.32/0.0295
23.

O O
Which process represents the equation :
Ti + 2I2 
 TiI4 
(A) Cupellation
(C) Poling

 Ti + 2I2
(B) Van – Arkel
(D) Zone refining

T
24. Which of the following is not the property of hydrophilic solutions ?
(A) High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily obtained

E
(B) Coagulation is reversible
(C) Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
(D) The charge of the particles depends on the pH of the medium and it may be positive, negative or zero
25. Which of the following acts as a ligand but does not possess any unshared pair of electrons ?
(A) C2H4 (B) NH3
(C) en (D) CN–
26. For a reaction A + B  AB, Cp is given by the equation 40 + 5 × 10–3 T JK–1 in the temperature range 300 – 600 K.
The enthalpy of the reaction at 300 K is –25 KJ, the enthalpy of reaction at 450 K is -
(A) –10.4 KJ (B) –18.72 KJ (C) –25.64 KJ (D) –38.93 KJ
27. Pick out the incorrect statement regarding halogens –
(A) Chlorine is hydrolysed by water to form hydrochloric acid and hypochlorous acid
(B) Bromine and iodine react with NaOH solution to form halide and halite ion
(C) Chlorine reacts with cold dilute NaOH solution to give sodium chloride and sodium chlorate
(D) Iodine forms a deep blue colour with starch solution

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

28. For the first order decomposition of N2O5, it is found that

d[N 2 O 5 ]
2N2O5 (g)  4 NO2 (g) + O2 (g)  K[N 2 O 5 ]
dt

1 d[N 2 O 5 ]
N2O5 (g)  2 NO2 (g) + O (g)  K '[N 2 O 5 ]
2 2 dt

Therefore which of the following is true ?


(A) K = K (B) K >2 K (C) K > K (D) 2K = K
29. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have cubic lattice in which Cu atoms constitute ccp. If Ag atoms are

A
located at the edge centres and Au atom is present at body centre, the alloy will have the formula -

I
(A) Cu Ag Au (B) Cu4 Ag4 Au (C) Cu4 Ag3 Au (D) Cu4 Ag4 Au
30. Regarding sulphur which of the following is correct ?
(A) Density of rhombic sulphur is more than that of monoclinic sulphur

D
(B) Rhombic sulphur is bright yellow whereas monoclinic sulphur is transparent
(C) In the gaseous state the atomicity of sulphur is two

N
(D) All of the above are correct

S I
O O
E T

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ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by –


(A) reducing Na2SO4 solution with H2S
(B) boiling Na2SO3 solution with S in alkaline medium
(C) neutralising H2S2O3 solution with NaOH
(D) boiling Na2SO3 solution with S in acidic medium
2. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorus (H3PO3) acid the volume of 0.1 M
aqueous KOH solution required is -
(A) 60 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 40 mL (D) 10 mL
3. The boiling point of methanol is greater than of methyl thiol because :
(A) There is intermolecular hydrogen in methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol
(B) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol

A
(C) These is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol

I
(D) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol
4. If activation energy, Ea of the reaction is equal to RT then
(A) The rate of reaction will be independent on initial concentration of reactant.

D
(B) The rate of constant becomes approximately equal to 37% of the Arrhenius constant
(C) The rate of reaction becomes infinite.

N
(D) The rate of reaction always be first order.

I
5. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br are isomers –
(A) Linkage (B) Geometrical
(C) Ionization (D) Optical

S
6. MnO4– + 8 H+ + 5e–  Mn2+ + 4H2O
If H+ concentration is decreased from 1 M to 10–4 M at 25°C,
(A) the potential decreases by 0.38 V with decreases in oxidising power
(B) the potential increases by 0.38 V with increase in oxidising power

O
(C) the potential decreases by 0.25 V with decreases in oxidising power
(D) the potential decreases by 0.38 V without affecting oxidising power
7. Which is a source of nascent hydrogen ?

O
I. Zn + dil. HCl
II. CH3OH + Na

T
III. Electrolysis of H2O
IV. Silent electric discharge of H2O2

E
(A) I & II (B) II & III (C) I, II, III (D) IV
8. Which combination of vapour pressure, intermolecular forces and Hvap is matched correctly
Vapour Pressure Intermolecular forces Hvap
(A) high weak small
(B) high strong large
(C) low weak large
(D) low strong small
9. Which is correct order of ionic mobility in aqueous medium –
   
(A) Li (aq) < Na (aq) < Rb(aq ) (B) Al3(aq)
 2
< Mg (aq) < Na (aq)
  
(C) Li (aq) > Na (aq) > K (aq) (D) Both (A) & (B)

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

10. CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s)  CO 2 (g).


For above reaction, G° (standard Gibb’s free energy) will be :
1
(A) G   RT n (B) G   RT n PCO2
PCO2

(C) G  2RT n PCO (D) none of these


2

11. Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si is –


(A) N < P < C < Si (B) N > C > Si > P
(C) N = P > C = Si (D) N > C > P > Si
12. In the reaction MnO 4  SO 32   H  
 SO 42  Mn 2   H 2 O

A
(A) MnO 4 and H+ both are reduced (B) MnO 4 is reduced and H+ is oxidised

I
(C) MnO 4 is reduced and SO 32 is oxidised (D) MnO 4 is oxidised and SO 32 is reduced
13. Which of the following statement is/are not correct –

D
(A) CH3+ shows sp2–hybridisation whereas CH3– shows sp3–hybidisation
(B) NH4+ has a regular tetrahedral geometry
(C) sp2–hybridised orbitals have equal s and p character.
(D) Hybridised orbitals always from –bonds

N
14. The heat of combustion of benzene determined in a bomb calorimeter is – 870 K. cal. mol–1 at 298 K. The value of E

I
for the reaction is -
(A) – 1740 K. cal mol–1 (B) + 870 K. cal mol–1 (C) – 870 K. cal mol–1 (D) + 1740 K. cal mol–1
15. In the reaction, 2KI + H2O + O3  2KOH + O2 + A

S
the compound A is –
(A) KIO3 (B) I2O5

O
(C) HIO3 (D) I2
16. A hydrogen electrode is immersed in a solution with pH = 0 (HCl). By how much will the potential (reduction)
change if an equivalent amount of NaOH is added to the solution. (Take pH2  1 atm & T = 298 K).

O
(A) increase by 0.41 V (B) increase by 59 mV
(C) decrease by 0.41 V (D) decrease by 59 mV

T
17. In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(CN)6]3+, [Fe(C2O4)3]3– and [FeCl6]3–, more stability is shown by –
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]3+
(C) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (D) [FeCl6]3–

E
18. The density of ice at 0°C is 0.915 gram/cc and that of liquid water at 0°C is 0.99987 gram/cc. The work done for
melting 1 mole of ice at 1.00 bar (assuming work is done only due to expansion) is approximately -
(A) 0.17 J (B) 1.7 × 103 J (C) 1.7 × 10–6 J (D) can’t be determined
19. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(1) (SiH3)3N (i) 3 centre-2-electron bond
(2) BF3 (ii) sp3–hybridization
(3) SiO2 (iii) p–p bond
(4) B2H6 (iv) p–d bond
Codes :
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(A) iv i iii ii (B) ii iii iv i
(C) i ii iii iv (D) iv iii ii i

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20. A carbon compound containing carbon and oxygen has approximate molar mass equal to 290. On analysis it is found
to contain 50% by mass of each element. Therefore molecular formula of the compound is -
(A) C12O9 (B) C4O3 (C) C3O4 (D) C9O12
21. In very cold weather, Sn crumbles to a powder, due to –
(A) expansion of the crystal lattice
(B) formation of SnO at low temperature
(C) the conversion of Sn to powdery meta stannic acid
(D) the transition from white tin to grey form, which is amorphous
22. Assertion : On mixing 500 mL of 10–6 M Ca2+ ion and 500 mL of 10–6 M F– ion, the precipitate of CaF2 will be obtained
Ksp (CaF2) = 10–18.
Reason : If Ksp is less than ionic product, precipitate will be obtained.
(A) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

A
(B) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.

I
(C) Assertion is True, Reason is False.
(D) Assertion and Reason both are False.
23. In NH3 solution of Zn2+, Zn2+ form Zn(NH3)42+. In this solution, to increases the concentration of Zn2+ we are to

D
add –
(A) H2O (B) HCl
(C) NH3 (D) Either H2O or HCl

N
24. The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute B in a solvent A is 95 % of the vapour pressure of the

I
solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of the solvent is 0.3 times the molecular weight of the solute,
what is the ratio of weight of solvent to solute -
(A) 0.15 (B) 5.7 (C) 0.2 (D) none of these

S
25. In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbitals are –
(A) Raised in energy by 0.4 0 (B) Lowered in energy by 0.4 0
(C) Raised in energy by 0.6 0 (D) Lowered in energy by 0.6 0

O
26. The rate constant for the reaction, A  B is 2.0 × 10–4 lt. mol–1. The concentration of A at which rate of the reaction
(1/12) × 10–5 M sec–1 is –

O
(A) 0.25 M (B) (1/ 20) 5/ 3 M (C) 0.5 M (D) None of these
27. A bulb emits light of  4500 Å. The bulb is rated as 150 watt and 8% of the energy is emitted as light. How many

T
photons are emitted by the bulb per second ?
(A) 27.2 × 1016 (B) 27.2 ×1018 (C) 13.6 ×1018 (D) 13.6 ×1020
28. Which of the following statements for crystals having Schottky defect is not correct ?

E
(A) The density of the crystals having Schottky defect is larger than that of the perfect crystal
(B) The crystal having Schottky defect is electrically neutral as a hole.
(C) Schottky defect arises due to the absence of a cation or anion from the position which it is expected to
occupy.
(D) Schottky defect are more common in ionic compounds with high co-ordination numbers.
29. The electronic configuration together with the quantum number of last electron for lithium is -
2 1 1 2 1 1 1
(A) 1s 2s 2, 0, 0  (B) 1s 2s 2, 0, 0  or 
2 2 2
2 0 1 1 2 1 1
(C) 1s 2s 2p 2,1, 0  (D) 2s 2s 2,1, 0 
2 2
30. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs –
NF3, NO3–, BF3, H3O+, HN3
(A) [NF3, NO3–] and [BF3, H3O+] (B) [NF3, HN3] and [NO3–, BF3]
+ –
(C) [NF3, H3O ] and [NO3 , BF3] (D) [NF3, H3O+] and [HN3, BF3]

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. For an aqueous solution, freezing point is –0.186°C. Elevation of the boiling point of the same solution is
(Kf = 1.86° mol–1 kg) and Kb = 0.512° mol–1 kg)
(A) 0.186° (B) 100.0512° (C) 1.86° (D) 5.12°
2. The reducing character of hydrides of group 14 elements is :
(A) Maximum for CH4 and minimum for PbH4
(B) Maximum for CH4 and minimum for SnH4
(C) Maximum for PbH4 and minimum for SiH4
(D) Maximum for PbH4 and minimum for CH4
3. In acidic medium, MnO4– is converted to Mn+2 when acts as an oxidizing agent. The quantity of electrical required
to reduce 0.05 mol of MnO4– would be

A
(A) 0.01 F (B) 0.05 F (C) 0.25 F (D) 0.15 F

I
4. When AgNO3 is added to a solution of Co(NH3)5Cl3 , the precipitate of AgCl shows two ionisable chloride ions.
This means –
(A) Two chlorine atom satisfy primary valency and one secondary valency

D
(B) One chlorine atom satisfies primary as well as secondary valency
(C) Three chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency

N
(D) Three chlorine atoms satisfy secondary valency

I
5. If uncertainty in momentum is twice the uncertainty in position of an electron then uncertainty in velocity is
 h 
h   :
 2 

6.
(A)
1
2m

O

Calomel is –
(A) Hg2Cl2 + Hg
(C) Hg + HgCl2
(B)
h
4m

S (C)
1
4m

(B) HgCl2
h

(D) Hg2Cl2
(D)
1
m

O
7. A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g). H < 0. Which of the following parameters remain constant for the given reaction
taking place in a rigid container with adiabatic walls ?

T
(A) Temperature (B) Internal energy (C) Enthalpy (D) All of these
8. For the extraction : 2CaO(s) + C(s) 
 2Ca(s) + CO2(g)

E
the standard free energy change of the forward reaction is 814.1 kJ. According to this data, standard condition
are likely to favour –
(A) The forward reaction (B) The reverse reaction
(C) Both forward and reverse reactions (D) Neither the forward not the reverse reaction
9. For the following cell reaction
Pb(s)  Hg 2SO 4 (s)  PbSO 4 (s)  2Hg(l) 0
E cell  0.92 V

K sp (PbSO4 )  2  108 , K sp (Hg 2SO4 )  1106


Hence Ecell is :
(A) 0.92 V (B) 0.89 V (C) 1.04 V (D) 0.95 V
10 The maximum tendency to form unipositive ion is for the element with the electronic configuration –
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 (B) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p1
(C) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p2 (D) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3

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11. Which of the following is incorrect for pressure units ?


(A 1 atmosphere is equal to 1.01325 bar (B) 1.01325 bar is equal to 0.875 atmosphere
5
(C) 1.01325 × 10 Pa is equal to 1.01325 bar (D) 1 atmosphere is equal to 1.01325 × 106 kg m–1 s–2
12. Rb[ICl2] on heating gives
(A) RbCl + ICl (B) 2Rb + 2Cl2 + I2 (from two molecules)
(C) RbI + Cl2 (D) 2Rb[ICl] + Cl2 (from two molecules)
13. When 10 g of 90% pure limestone is heated completely, the volume (in litres) of carbon dioxide liberated at STP is -
(A) 22.4 (B) 2.24 (C) 20.16 (D) 2.016
14. Which one of the following statements is incorrect –
(A) Greater the stability constant of a complex ion, greater is its stability

A
(B) Greater the charge on the central metal ion, greater is the stability of the complex.

I
(C) Greater is the basic character of the ligand, the greater is the stability of the complex
(D) Chelate complexes have low stability constant.
Which one of the following represents an impossible arrangement ?

D
15.
n  m s
(A) 3 2 –2 ½

N
(B) 3 2 –3 ½

I
(C) 4 0 0 ½
(D) 5 3 0 ½
16. The pair of molecules forming strongest hydrogen bonds are :

S
(A) SiH4 and SiF6 (B) CH3 C CH3 and CHCl3

O
(C) H C OH and CH3 C OH (D) H2O and H2

O O

O
17. In a saturated solution of AgCl (Ksp = 1.6 × 10–10 at 25ºC), the [Ag+] = 3× 10–5mol/L., Then enough potassium
chloride is added to this solution so that [Cl–] = 0.020M. The solubility of AgCl in this solution of potassium chloride
is-

T
(A) 3.2 × 10–8 mol/L (B) 8 × 10–11 mol/L (C) 8 × 10–8 mol/L (D) 8 × 10–9 mol/L
18. Borax is Na2B4O7.10H2O. Consider the following statements about borax.

E
I. Two boron atoms have four B–O bonds whereas the other two have three B–O bonds.
II. Each boron has one OH groups.
III. It is a salt of tetraboric acid.
IV. It is a cyclic metaborate having two six-membered rings.
Select the correct statement.
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV (C) I, II, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
19. Amount of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) needed to neutralise 100 g of magnesium hydroxide is :
(A) 66.7 g (B) 252 g (C) 112 g (D) None of these
20. An excess of Na2S2O3 react with aqueous CuSO4 to give
(A) CuS2O3 (B) Cu2S2O3
(C) Na2[Cu(S2O3)2] (D) Na4[Cu6(S2O3)5]

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

21. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –46.0 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy for the reaction 2N2(g) + 6H2(g)  4 NH3(g)
is equal to -
(A) –46.0 KJ (B) 46.0 KJ (C) 184.0 KJ (D) –184.0 KJ
22. You have given two species – NOF & NO2F and two dipole moments 1.81 D and 0.47 D :
(A) 1.81 D for NO2F and 0.47 D for NOF
(B) 0.47 D for NO2F and 1.81 D for NOF because NO2F is linear but NOF is non linear molecule
(C) 0.47 D for NO2F because bond moments of NO bond and NF bonds are oriented in the opposite direction
(D) 0.47 D for NO2F and 1.81 D for NOF
23. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Peptization is the process by which certain substances are converted into the colloidal state

A
(B) Metal sols of gold, silver and platinum can be prepared by Bredig’s arc method

I
(C) Impurities present in na sol makes it more stable
(D) Dialysis is a process to remove impurities of ions and molecules from a sol
24. ClO2 molecule is paramagnetic and contain odd number electrons but does not dimerize, because

D
(A) odd electron is paired up
(B) strong vanderwaals force odd electron is paired up

N
(C) odd electron is delocalized

I
(D) bond length in ClO2 two centre three electron bonds are produced
25. At temperature T, a compound AB2(g) dissociates according to the reaction
2AB2 (g)  2AB(g)  B 2 (g)

26.
pressure PT is

(A) PT

O
a3
2
(B)
PT a 3
3 S
With degree of dissociation “a”, which is small compared with unity. The expression of Kp, in terms of “a” and total

(C) PT
a3
3
(D)
PT a 2
2
Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

O
List I List II
(a) CS2 1. Bent

T
(b) SO2 2. Linear
(c) BF3 3. Trigonal planar
(d) NH3 4. Tetrahedral

E
5. Trigonal pyramidal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 5 (B) 1 2 3 5
(C) 2 1 5 4 (D) 1 2 5 4

27. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole fraction of N2 in
air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298 K and 5 atm pressure is -
(A) 4.0 × 10–4 (B) 4.0 × 10–5 (C) 5.0 × 10–4 (D) 4.0 × 10–6

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Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

28. Match List-I (Complex ion) with List-II (Number of Unpaired Electrons) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists –
List-I List-II
(Complex ions) (No. of unpaired electrons)
4–
(1) [CrF6] (i) One
4–
(2) [MnF6] (ii) Two
(3) [Cr(CN)6]4– (iii) Three
(4) [Mn(CN)6]4– (iv) Four
(v) Five
Code :

A
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4

I
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) (B) (ii) (v) (iii) (i)
(C) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (D) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

D
29. For the first order opposed by first order reaction :
kf

A B
kb

N
kf = 9 × 10–3 min–1 and kb = 2 × 10–3 min–1

I
If we start with the concentration of A equal to 1 (M) what will be concentration of B in 103 /11 mins ?
(A) 0.818 (M) (B) 0.409 (M) (C) 0.517 (M) (D) 0.190 (M)

S
30. In cubic ZnS, the radii of the Zn and S atoms are 0.83 Å and 1.74 Å respectively. What is the edge length of the unit
cell of ZnS ?
(A) 2.57 Å (B) 3.64 Å (C) 2.97 Å (D) 5.935 Å

O O
E T

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 5
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. Which one of the following liquid-pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law -
(A) Acetone-chloroform (B) Benzene-methanol
(C) Water-Hydrochloric acid (D) Water-nitric acid
2. An oxalate of alkaline earth metal is insoluble in bases but soluble in dilute strong acid. It is also a component of
most kidney stones. It is –
(A) MgC2O4 .2H2O (B) CaC2O4 .2H2O
(C) BaCr2O4 (D) None
3. The De-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated by a potential difference of ‘V’ Volts is given by the relation-
12.28 12.28 12.28 12.28
(A) Å (B) cm (C) m (D) Å
V V V V

A
4. Which is steam volatile –

I
(A) o – nitrophenol (B) Aniline
(C) Glycerol (D) p – nitrophenol
5. The conversion of oxygen to ozone occurs to the extent of 15% only. The mass of ozone that can be prepared from

D
67.2 L oxygen at S.T.P. will be -
(A) 14.4 gm (B) 96 gm (C) 640 gm (D) 64 gm
6. Products obtained on hydrolysis of XeF2 is / are

N
(A) XeO2F2 (B) XeO2F4 (C) XeO3 (D) All of the above

I
CP
7. CP and CV represent molar specific heat at constant pressure and at constant volume respectively and 
CV

S
which of the following relation (s) are applicable for reversible adiabatic process only ?

CP   P  R /CP 
(A) PCV .V CP  constant (B) W   n  T1 1   2  

O
   P1  

Where T1, P1 represent initial temperature and initial pressure respectively and P2 represent final pressure
(C) T  / (1 ) P  constant (D) All of the above are correct

O
8. In which pair of complex entities given below the EAN of metal atom/ion is same –
(A) [Ni(en)2]2+, [Sc(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)6]3–

T
4–
(C) [Ni(CO)4], [Fe(CN)6] (D) [Ni(en)2]2+ , [Fe(H2O)6]2+
Kp

E
9. For which reaction at 298 K, the value of is maximum and minimum respectively -
Kc

(a) N 2 O 4 (g)  2NO2 (g) (b) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)

(c) X(g)  Y(g)  4Z(g) (d) A(g)  3B(g)  7C(g)


(A) d,c (B) b, d (C) c, d (D) a, d
10. In presence of PbS and ZnS in a mineral the froath floatation process require NaCN because –
(A) ZnS goes into the solution as soluble complex [Zn(CN)4]2–
(B) Zn(CN)2 is precipitated
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) ZnS forms insoluble complex [Zn(CN)4]2–
11. Standard electrode potential data are useful for understanding the suitability of an oxidant in a redox titration. Some
half cell reactions and their standard potentials are given below -
MnO4– (aq.) + 8 H+ (aq.) + 5 e–  Mn2+ (aq.) + 4H2O () Eo = 1.51 V
Cr2O72– (aq.) + 14H+ (aq.) + 6e–  2Cr3+ + 7H2O() Eo = 1.38 V

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

Fe3+ (aq.) + e–  Fe2+ (aq.) Eo = 0.77 V


– –
Cl2 (g) + 2e  2Cl (aq.) Eo = 1.40 V
Identify the only incorrect statement regarding the quantitative estimation of aqueous Fe (NO3)2
(A) MnO4– can be used in aqueous HCl (B) Cr2O72– can be used in aqueous HCl
(C) MnO72– can be used in aqueous H2SO4 (D) Cr2O72– can be used in aqueous H2SO4
12. Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction when –
(A) White P is heated with NaOH (B) Red P is heated with NaOH
(C) Ca3P2 reacts with water (D) P4O6 is boiled with water
13. What volume of 3 molar HNO3 is needed to oxidise 8 g of Fe2+ to Fe3+, HNO3 gets converted to NO :
(A) 8 mL (B) 16 mL (C) 32 mL (D) 64 mL

A
14. At 80° C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘A’ is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid ‘B’ is 1000 mm Hg. If a mixture

I
solution of ‘A’ and ‘B’ boils at 80° C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of ‘A’ in the mixture is (1 atm
= 760 mm Hg)
(A) 34 mol percent (B) 48 mol percent (C) 50 mol percent (D) 52 mol percent

D
15. A 2 litre solution (X) contain 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. 1 litre of this
solution is taken –

N
X + AgNO3 (excess)  Y mole AgBr 

I
X + BaCl2 (excess)  Z mole BaSO4 
Values of Y and Z are –

S
(A) 0.01, 0.02 (B) 0.02, 0.02 (C) 0.02, 0.01 (D) 0.01, 0.01

16. The five d-orbitals are designated as dxy, dyz, dxz, d x2  y2 and d z 2 Choose the correct statement
(A) The shapes of the first three orbitals are similar but that of the fourth and fifth orbitals are different.

O
(B) The shapes of all the five d-orbitals are similar
(C) The shapes of the first four orbitals are similar but that of the fifth orbital is different
(D) The shapes of all the five d-orbitals are different.

O
17. The metal present in chlorophyll, haemoglobin and vitamin B12 are respectively
(A) Fe, Mg and Co (B) Mg, Fe and Co

T
(C) Co, Mg and Fe (D) None of the above is correct.
18. A reaction takes place by the following mechanism

E
A + BC  AC + B
AC + D A + CD

II
IV
Potential energy

III

I V
Reaction progress

The potential energy profile for this is shown below


Transition state are shown by :
(A) I, V (B) II, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) III only

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

19. Carborundum is obtained when silica is heated at high temperature with


(A) Carbon (B) Carbondioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Calcium carbonate

d
20. The temperature coefficient, of the emf i.e.  0.00065 volt.deg 1 for the cell Cd | CdCl2(1M) | AgCl(s) | Ag at
dT
25°C. Calculate the entropy changes S298K for the cell reaction, Cd + 2AgCl  Cd2+ + 2Cl– + 2Ag -
(A) –105.5 JK–1 (B) –150.2 JK–1 (C) –75.7 JK–1 (D) –125.5 JK–1

21. In the conversion of N2 into N2+ the electron will be lost from which of the following molecular orbitals ?
* *
(A)  2Pz (B)  2Pz (C)  2PX (D)  2PX
22. The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction
P4 (g)  2P2 (g)

I A
is 1.4 at 400°C. Suppose that 3 moles of P4(g) and 2 moles of P2(g) are mixed in 2 litre container at 400°C. What is the

D
value of reaction quotient (Q) -
(A) 3/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 1 (D) None of these
23. Structure of blue vitriol shows presence of

N
(A) Coordinate bond (B) Covalent bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) All of these

I
24. Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen peroxide is not true ?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide is a pale blue viscous liquid

S
(B) Hydrogen peroxide can act as oxidation as well as reducing agent
(C) The two hydroxyl groups in hydrogen peroxide lie in the same plane

O
(D) In the crystalline phase, H2O2 is paramagnetic
25. K3[Fe(CN)6]+ MX+ (aq)  ppt of complex salt
Which of the following cation does not respond above reaction.

O
(A) Cu2+(aq) (B) Fe3+(aq) (C) Zn2+(aq) (D) None of these
26. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by –

T
(A) Dissolving ferric hydroxide in dilute HCl.
(B) Dissolving ferric hydroxide in conc. HCl

E
(C) By passing dry Cl2 gas over heated scrap iron
(D) By passing dry HCl gas over heated scrap iron
27. The radius of a divalent cation M2+ is 94 pm and of divalent anion X2– is 146 pm. Thus, M2X2– has -
(A) rock salt (NaCl) structure (B) zinc blendestructure
(C) antifluorite structure (D) BCC (CsCl) structure
st
28. Correct order of I I.P are –
(i) Li < B < Be < C (ii) O < N < F (iii) Be < N < Ne

(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii) (C) (i), (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii)
29. Difference between H and E for the combustion of liquid benzene at 27°C is -
(A) 7.48 KJ (B) 3.74 KJ (C) 14.86 KJ (D) 5.73 KJ
30. Consider a reaction A(g)  3B(g) + 2C(g) with rate constant 1.386 × 10–2 min–1. Starting with 2 moles of A in 12.5 litre vessel, if
reaction is allowed to takes place at constant pressure & at 298 K then find the concentration of B after 100 min -
(A) 0.04M (B) 0.36 M (C) 0.09 M (D) None of these

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Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. The number of photons of light having wavelength 100 nm which can provide 1.00 J energy is nearly
(A) 107 photons (B) 5 × 108 photons (C) 5 × 1017 photons (D) 5 × 107 photons
2. Which of the following statements regarding boric acid is false –
(A) It acts as a tribasic acid
(B) It has a planar structure
(C) It acts a monobasic acid
(D) it is soluble in hot water
3. CaCO3 is decomposed by HCl (density 1.825 g/cc)
CaCO3 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
Volume of HCl required to decompose 10 g of 50% pure CaCO3 is:

A
(A) 1.825 mL (B) 3.65 mL (C) 0.9125 mL (D) 2 mL

I
4. Give the correct increasing order of electrical conductivity of aqueous solution of following complex entities –
I. [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 II. [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 III. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl IV. K2[PtCl6]
(A) III < IV < II < I (B) IV < II < III < I
(C) II < I < IV < III (D) I < II < IV < III

D
5. At room temperature the reaction between NO(g) and O2(g) producing NO2 (g) is faster while, the reaction between
CO (g) and O2 (g) producing CO2 (g) is slower.

N
Because

I
(A) the size of CO (g) is smaller than that of NO (g).
(B) CO (g) react with the liberation of heat.

S
(C) the activation energy required for the reaction between NO (g) & O2 (g) is lower.
(D) bond distance of CO is lower.
6. Calculate the S2– ion concentration in a saturated solution (0.1 M) of H2S whose pH was adjusted to 2 by addition

O
of HCl. (Ka = 1.1× 10–21)
(A) 1.1 × 10–18 M (B) 1.1 × 10–20 M (C) 1.1 × 10–22 (D) 1.1 × 10–16 M
7. The maximum covalency is equal to –
(A) The number of unpaired p–electrons

O
(B) The number of paired d–electrons
(C) The number of unpaired s and p–electrons

T
(D) The actual number of s and p–electrons in the outermost shell
8. In H2 – O2 fuel cell the reaction occurring at cathode is -
(A) 2H2O + O2 + 4e–  4OH– (B) 2H2 + O2  2H2O()

E
1
(C) H+ + OH–  H2O (D) H   e  H2
2
9. The correct decreasing order of electropositive character among the following elements is
(A) Fe > Sc > Rb >Br > Te > F > Ca
(B) Ca > Rb > Sc >Fe > Te > F > Br
(C) Rb > Ca > Sc > Fe > Br > Te > F
(D) Rb > Ca > Sc > Fe > Te > Br >F
10. In which case Kp is less than Kc ?
(A) PCl5  PCl3  Cl 2 (B) H 2  Cl 2  2HCl
(C) 2SO2  O2  2SO3 (D) All of these
11. K2Cr2O7 is preferred to Na2Cr2O7 for use in volumetric analysis as a primary standard because –
(A) Na2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic while K2Cr2O7 is not
(B) K2Cr2O7 is hygroscopic while Na2Cr2O7 is not
(C) K2Cr2O7 is pure while Na2Cr2O7 is impure
(D) None of these

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INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

12. Consider the following six electronic configurations (remaining inner orbitals are completely filled) and mark the
incorrect option.
3s 3p 3s 3p
I. II.

3s 3d 4s 3d
III. IV.

4s 4p 4s 3d
V. VI.

(A) Stability order : II > I > IV > III


(B) Order of spin multiplicity : IV > III = I > II

A
(C) V does not violate all the three rules of electronic configuration
(D) If VI represents A and A+ when kept near a magnet, acts as diamagnetic substance.

I
13. The oxidation number of platinum in [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 is –
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
14. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr and that of

D
toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a solution containing 78 g of benzene and
46 g of toluene in torr is –
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 53.5 (D) 37.5

N
15. The idea which prompted Bartlett to prepare a first ever compound of noble gas was –

I
(A) High bond energy of Xe–F
(B) Low bond energy of F–F in F2

S
(C) Ionisation energies of O2 and xenon were almost similar
(D) None of these
–1
16. If the enthalpy of vapourisation of water is 186.5 J mol , the entropy of its vaporisation will be -

O
(A) 0.5 JK–1 mol–1 (B) 1.0 JK–1 mol–1 (C) 1.5 JK–1 mol–1 (D) 2.0 JK–1 mol–1
17. Match the items under list (1) with items under list (2) select the correct answers from the sets (A), (B), (C) and
(D) –

O
List (1) molecule List (2) shape
(a) PCl5 (i) V–shaped
(b) F2O (ii) Triangular planar

T
(c) BCl3 (iii) Trigonal bipyramidal
(d)NH3 (iv) Trigonal pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral

E
(A) a-i, b-v, c-iv, d-iii (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v (D a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
18. False statement related to adiabatic change is -
(A) q =0 (B) V < 0
(C) Internal energy of system increases (D) E is negative
19. Ferrocene is an example of
(A) Sandwiched complex
(B) Pi-boned complex
(C) A complex in which all the five carbon atoms of cyclopentadiene anion are bonded to the metal
(D) All of these
20. Which of the following ionic substances will be most effective in precipitating the sulphur sol ?
(A) KCl (B) BaCl2 (C) Fe2(SO4)3 (D) Na3PO4
21. Mercury on heating with aqua regia gives –
(A) Hg(NO3)2 (B) HgCl2 (C) Hg(NO2)2 (D) Hg2Cl2
22. A binary solution of ethanol and n-heptane is an example of -
(A) Ideal solution (B) Non ideal solution with + ve deviation
(C) Non ideal solution with –ve deviation (D) Unpredictable behaviour

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23. Match list I with list II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below –
List I List II
(1) NaNO3 (a) Baking soda
(2) Na2B4O7.10H2O (b) Chile salt peter
(3) NaHCO3 (c) Borax
(4) Na2CO3.10H2O (d) Washing soda
Code is :
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(A) a b c d (B) b c a d
(C) c a b d (D) d a b c

A
24. Assertion : For a Daniell cell:

I
Zn| Zn2+ | | Cu2+ | Cu with Ecell = 1.1 V, the application of opposite potential greater than 1.1.V results into the flow of
electrons from cathode to anode.
Reason : Zn is deposited at anode and Cu is dissolved at cathode.

D
(A) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(B) Assertion is True, Reason is True ; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.
(C) Assertion is True, Reason is False.

N
(D) Assertion and Reason both are False.

I
25. Removal of FeWO4 is not possible by gravity separation because –
(A) FeWO4 is having wetting characteristics
(B) FeWO4 is having magnetic property

S
(C) FeWO4 is having density almost that of SnO2
(D) None of these
26. If the density of a mixture of O2 & N2 at NTP is 1.3 g/l, then

O
(A) partial pressure of O2 will be 0.28 atm (B) partial pressure of O2 will be 29.12 atm
(C) partial pressure of O2 will be 1 atm (D) partial pressure of O2 will be 0.72 atm
27. Which has maximum dipole moment ?

O
Cl Cl Cl

Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl

T
(A) (B) (C) (D)

E
Cl Cl Cl

28. The number of molecules of water needed to convert one molecule of P2O5 into orthophosphoric acid is –
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
29. There is formation of H2O2 in the upper atmosphere
H2O + O  2OH  H2O2
H = 72 kJ mol–1 Ea = 77 kJ mol–1
Ea for the biomolecular recombination of two OH radicals to form H2O and O is :
(A) 149 kJ mol–1 (B) –149 kJ mol–1 (C) 5 kJ mol–1 (D) – 5kJ mol–1
30. The intermediate compound LiAg crystallises in a cubic lattice in which both Li and Ag atoms have co-ordination
number of 8. To what crystal class does the until cell belong :
(A) NaCl (B) CsCl (C) ZnS (D) CsF2

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1. The equilibrium constant for the reaction ;


N 2(g )  O 2(g)  2NO (g) is 4 × 10–4 at 200 K. In the presence of a catalyst the equilibrium is attained 10 times faster..
Therefore the equilibrium constant in presence of catalyst at 200 K is -
(A) 4 × 10–3 (B) 4 × 10–4 (C) 4 × 10–5 (D) None of these
2. The correct order of the O–O bond length in O2, H2O2 and O3 is –
(A) O3 > H2O2 > O2 (B) O2 > H2O2 > O3
(C) O3 > O2 > H2O2 (D) H2O2 > O3 > O2
3. Which of the following graphs correspond to one node ?

  

A
(A) (B) (C) (D)

I
a0 a0 a0 a0

4. TlI3 is an ionic compound which furnishes the following ions in solution :

D
(A) Tl+3 and I– ions (B) Tl+ and I3– ions
(D) Tl+, I– and I2 ions (D) Tl+ and I– ions

N
5. 80 g of H2 are reacted with 80 g of O2 to form water. Which substance is the limiting reagents ?
(A) H2 (B) O2 (C) H2O (D) None of these

I
6. The solution of the complex [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in water –
(A) Will give the tests of Cu2+ ions (B) Will give the tests of NH3

S
(C) Will give the tests of SO42– ions (D) Will not give the tests of any of the above species
7. In electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, 2.4L of oxygen at STP was liberated at anode. The
volume of hydrogen at STP liberated at cathode would be
(A) 1.2L (B) 2.4L (C) 2.6L (D) 4.8L

O
8. Preparation of looking mirror involve the use of –
(A) Red lead (B) Ammonical silver nitrate
(C) Ammonical AgNO3 + Red lead (D) Ammonical AgNO3 + Red lead + HCHO

O
9. A solution contains 0.2 M NH4Cl and 0.2 M NH4OH. If 1.0 ml of 0.001 M HCl is added to it. What will be [OH–] of the
resulting solution (Kb = 2×10–5)
(A) 2 × 10–5 (B) 5 × 10–10 (C) 2 × 10–3 (D) None of these

T
10. Halides of alkaline earth metals from hydrates such as MgCl2.6H2O, CaCl2.6H2O, BaCl2.2H2O and SrCl2.2H2O.
This shows that halides of group 2 elements –

E
(A) Are hydroscopic in nature (B) Act as dehydrating agents
(C) Can absorbs moisture from air (D) All of these
11. A gas is allowed to expand at constant pressure from a volume of 1.0 litre to 10.0 litre against an external pressure
of 0.50 atm. If the gas absorbs 250 J of heat from the surroundings, what are the values of q, w and E ?
(Given 1 L atm = 101 J)
q w E
(A) 250 J – 455 J – 205 J
(B) – 250 J – 455 J – 710 J
(C) 250 J 455 J 710 J
(D) – 250 J 455 J 205 J
12. The correct order of the size is –
(A) Ca+2 > K+ > Ar > Cl– > S2–
(B) K+ > Ca+2 > Cl– > Ar > S2–
(C) S2– > Cl– > Ar > K+ > Ca+2
(D) S2– > Ar > Cl– > Ca+2 > K+

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13. The work done by the system in the conversion of 1 mol of water at 100° C and 760 torr to steam is 3.1 KJ. Calculate
the E for the conversion (Latent heat of vaporisation of water is 40.65 KJ. mol–1)
(A) 43.75 KJ (B) 101.35 KJ (C) 37.55 KJ (D) – 40.65 KJ
14. H2O2 is manufactured these days
(A) By the action of H2O2 on BaO (B) By the action of H2SO4 on Na2O
(C) By electrolysis of 50% H2SO4 (D) By burning hydrogen in excess of oxygen
–3 –1
15. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 10 min at 300 K. The temperature coefficient of the reaction is 2. What
is the rate constant of the reaction at 350 K approximately ?
(A) 16 × 10–3 (B) 64 × 10–3 (C) 32 × 10–3 (4) 250

16. Hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion is found to be high spin complex, the probable hybrid state of cobalt in it is –

A
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp3

I
3
(C) sp d (D) sp3d2
17. 3 g of an oxide of a metal is converted to chloride completely and it yield 5 g metal chloride. The equivalent weight
of metal is -

D
(A) 33.25 (B) 3.325 (C) 12 (D) 20
18 Match the column - I with column II
Column-I Column-II

N
(Orbitals involved (Predicted

I
in the hybridisation) Geometry)

(P) s,px,py,pz ,dx2 y2 ,dz2 (1) Trigonal bipyramidal

S
(Q) s, p x, p y, d x 2  y 2 (2) Tetrahedral

(R) s, dxy,dyz,dxz (3) Square planar

O
(S) s, p x , p y, p z , d z 2 (4) Octahedral
Codes

O
P Q R S
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (1) (4) (2) (3)

T
(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)

19.

20. E
Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same temperature -
(A) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
(C) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4

(A) In the presence of NaCl


(B) In the presence of fluorite
(B) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(D) 0.1 M Ca(NO3) and 0.1 M Na2SO4
Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall–Heroult process is carried out

(C) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature
(D) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature
21. At a given temperature, total vapour pressure in Torr of a mixture of volatile components A and B is given by
P = 120 – 75 XB
hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are -
(A) 120, 75 (B) 120, 195 (C) 120, 45 (D) 75, 45
22. Which species is completely dissolved in dil. HCl
(A) Ag2O (B) FeS (C) Pb (D) Cu

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23. In an antibonding molecular orbital, electron density is minimum –


(A) Around one atom of the molecule
(B) Between the two nuclei of the molecule
(C) At the region away from the nuclei of the molecule
(D) at no place
24. Which of the following is not oxidation & reduction reaction ?
(A) VO 2  
 V2 O 3  Na 
(B) Na  (C) CrO 24  
 Cr2 O 72 (D) Zn 2 
 Zn
25. Which of the following statement regarding H3PO3 is incorrect.
(A) Its pKa value is less than H3PO2
(B) On heating it gives PH3 and H3PO4
(C) It can be prepared by hydrolysis of both PCl3 and P4O6

A
(D) It is formed during reaction of white phosphorus with alkali

I
26. The standard reduction potentials E°, for the half reactions are as :
Zn  Zn 2   2e  , E  0.76 V

D
Fe  Fe 2   2e  , E  0.41V
2+ 2+
The emf of the cell reaction, Fe + Zn  Zn + Fe is -
(A) –0.35 V (B) +0.35 V (C) +1.17 V (D) –1.17 V

27.

I N k 
1/2

A certain reaction proceeds in sequence of three elementary steps with rate constant k1, k2 & k3. If k obs   1  .k 3
 k2 

S
the observed Ea is -

1/ 2
1  E1  E3  E 1  E1  1
(A) 2  E   E 3 (C) E 3  

O
(B) (D) E 3  [E1  E 2 ]
 2 2  E2  2

28. In coordination compounds, the hydrate isomers differ –


(A) In the number of water molecules of hydration only

O
(B) In the number of water molecules only present as ligands
(C) Both (A) and (B)

T
(D) In their coordination number of the metal atom
29. What is the diameter of the largest sphere that will fit in the void at the centre of the cube edge of a BCC crystal of
edge length a ?

E
(A) 0.134 a (B) 0.76 a (C) 0.05548 A (D) 0.098 A
30. Which out of the following gases is obtained when ammonium dichromate is heated –
(A) Oxygen (B) Ammonia (C) Nitrogen (D) Nitrous oxide

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1. Gold schmidt thermite process is used for –


(A) Welding of broken iron pieces
(B) Converting iron into steel
(C) Extraction of sulphur
(D) Reduction of metallic oxide by aluminium
2. According to the Pauli exclusion principle :
(A) atoms generally require 8 electrons in order to fill up their valence shell.
(B) if a set of orbitals all have the same energy, then each orbital in the set must be occupied by one electron
before any pairing of electrons will occur in those orbitals.
(C) no two electrons in the same atom can have all four of their quantum numbers the same.

A
(D) the total mass remains constant during a chemical reaction.

I
3. Among the interhalide species
IF2–, IF3, IF4– and IF7
(A) All iodine centres are either sp3d or sp3d2 hybridised

D
(B) The minimum angular separation between fluorine atoms is 60°
(C) The anionic species are both isoelectronic and isostructural to XeF2 and XeF4 respectively

N
(D) There is no species having a single lone pair of electrons

I
4. Which of the following is not correct in case of kinetic theory of gases ?
(A) Gases are made up of small particles of negligible size as compared to container size
(B) The molecules are in random motion always

S
(C) When molecules collide they lose energy
(D) When the gas is heated, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules increase
5. Which one of the following on heating will give mixture of SO2 and SO3 ?

O
(A) ZnSO3 (B) CuSO4 (C) Na2SO4 (D) FeSO4

 d(G)   dE cell 
6. G  H  TS and G  H  T   then  dT  is -

O
 dT P  
S nE
(A) (B) (C) nFE cell (D) nEFcell

T
nF S
7. The correct order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is –
(A) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+

E
(C) [Ni(H2O)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4– (D) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4–
8. The specific conductance of a 0.20 M solution of an electrolyte at 20°C is 2.48 × 10–4 ohm–1cm–1. The molar
conductivity of the solution is -
(A) 1.24 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 (B) 4.96 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 (C) 1.24 ohm–1 cm2 (D) 4.96 ohm–1 cm2
9. In which one of the following compounds the radius of chromium ion is smallest –
(A) K2CrO4 (B) CrO2 (C) CrF3 (D) CrCl3
10. A 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.01 M solution of glucose at same temperature. The apparent
degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 85%
11. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives –
(A) Na2S4O6 (B) NaHSO4 (C) NaCl (D) NaOH

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12. CO(g)  H 2 O(g)  CO 2 (g)  H 2 (g) K p  4.0 at a certain temperature. If we start with equimolar amounts of CO
and H2O and their amounts at equilibrium are 1 mole each, the amount of CO2 and H2 will be -
(A) 1.5 moles (B) 3.0 moles (C) 2.0 moles (D) 2.5 moles
13. Which of the following statements regarding covalent bond is not true ?
(A) The electron are shared between atoms
(B) The bond is non–directional
(C) The strength of the bond depends upon the extent of overlapping
(D) The bond formed may or may not be polar
14. Heat evolved in the reaction H2 + Cl2  2HCl is 182 KJ. Bond energies H-H = 430KJ/ mole, CI-CI = 242 KJ/ mole. The
H-CI bond energy is -

A
(A) 763 KJ mole–1 (B) 427 KJ mole–1 (C) 336 KJ mole–1 (D) 154 KJ mole–1

I
15. The correct IUPAC name of the complex Fe(C5H5)2 is –
(A) Cyclopentadienyl iron (II) (B) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (II)
(C) Dicyclopentadiency ferrate (II) (D) Ferrocene

D
16. Reaction : 2Br– + H2O2 + 2H+  Br2 + 2H2O
take place in two steps :

N
(a) Br   H   H 2 O 2 
slow
 HOBr  H 2 O

(b) HOBr  Br   H  

I
fast
H 2 O  Br2

S
The order of the reaction is -
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 0
– st rd +
17. Find the ratio of frequency of e in 1 orbit of H atom to 3 orbit of He ion.

O
27 4 54 27
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 27 4 8
18. AgNO3(s) produce black stain on the skin because of the reaction –

19.

TO
(A) 2AgNO3  2Ag + 2NO2 + O2

(C) Both of these


(B) 2AgNO3  Ag2O + NO2 +

(D) None of these


1
O
2 2

A stationary mass of gas is compressed without friction from an initial state of 0.3 m3 and 0.105 M Pa to a final state

E
of 0.15 m3 and 0.105 M Pa. The pressure remaining constant. During the process there is transfer of 37.6 KJ of heat
from the system. During the process the amount of internal energy change is -
(A) – 28.85 KJ (B) – 21.85 KJ (C) – 21.85 MJ (D) – 53.35 KJ
20. Compounds of alkaline earth metals are less soluble in water than corresponding alkali metals due to –
(A) Their increased covalent character (B) Their high ionisation potentials
(C) High lattice energies (D) None of the above
21. In a solid AB having the NaCl structure, A atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face centre atoms
along one of the axis are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is -
(A) AB2 (B) A2B (C) A4B3 (D) A3B4

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22. Regarding Ba2XeO6 which of the following is/are correct ?

O O

O O O
O

(A) Xe (B) Xe

O O O
O

O O

O
O
O

I A
D
(C) Xe (D) Both (A) and (C)
O O

N
O

23.

24.
of x ? [Cu = 63.5, S = 32, O = 16]
(A) 3 (B) 4

S I
If the percentage of water of crystallization in CuSO4.xH2O is 56.6% by weight of its anhydrous salt, what is the value

(C) 5 (D) 6
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I (Equivalent conductance) List II (Formula)

(2) 97

O O
(1) 229

(3) 404
(4) 523
Code :
(i) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(ii) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl
(iii) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(iv) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4

T
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) ii i iv iii (B) i iv iii ii

E
(C) ii iii iv i (D) iii ii i iv
25. Which of the following equilibrium reactions would be affected by change in pressure ?
(a) N 2 (g)  O2 (g)  2NO(g) (b) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)

(c) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl 2 (g) (d) H 2 (g)  Cl 2 (g)  2HCl(g)
(A) b, c (B) a, b (C) c, d (D) a, b, c, d
26. Which can not be explained by VBT –
(A) Overlapping (B) Bond formation
(C) Paramagnetic nature of oxygen (D) Shapes of molecules.
27. Colloidal solution of gold prepared by different methods are of different colours because of :
(A) Different diameters of colloidal gold particles
(B) Variable valency of gold
(C) Different concentrations of gold particles
(D) Impurities produced by different method

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28. How many electrons in copper atom (29Cu) have (n  ) = 4


(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 4
29. The first ionization energy of Al is smaller than that of Mg because –
(A) Atomic size of Al is more than that of Mg
(B) The electronic configuration of Mg is more stable than that of Al
(C) Atomic size of Al is less than that of Mg
(D) None of these
30. A second order reaction in which both the reactants have same concentration, is 20% completed in 500 seconds.
How much time it will take for 60% completion ?
(A) 500 sec (B) 1000 sec (C) 2000 sec (D) 3000 sec

I A
N D
S I
O O
E T

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1 3
1. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K–1 mol–1 , respectively. For the reaction, X 2  Y2  XY3
2 2
H  30 KJ, to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
(A) 500 K (B) 750 K (C) 1000 K (D) 1250 K
2. The activation energy for a reactions is 9.0 kcal/mol. The increase in the rate constant when its temperature is
increased from 298 K to 308 K is -
(A) 10% (B) 100% (C) 50% (D) 63%
3. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond character follows the order –
(A) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

A
(B) LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(C) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

I
(D) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
4. A sample of Na2CO3. H2O weighing 1.24 g is added to 200 mL of a 0.1-N H2SO4 solution. The resulting solution

D
becomes -
(A) acidic (B) strongly acidic (C) alkaline (D) neutral
5. In the commercial method of preparing hydrochloric acid, it is dried over –

N
(A) P4O10 (B) Quick lime

I
(C) CaCl2 (D) conc. H2SO4
6. 72.5 g of phenol is dissolved in 1kg of a solvent (Kf = 14) which leads to dimerization of phenol and freezing
point is lowered by 7 kelvin. What percent of total phenol is present in dimeric form ?

S
(A) 40 % (B) 25 % (C) 35 % (D) 30 %
2+ 2+
7. The complex ion [Co(NH3)5(NO2) ] and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)] are called –

O
(A) Ionization isomers (B) Linkage isomers
(C) Coordination isomers (D) Hydrate isomers
8. According to Kohlrausch law, the limiting value of molar conductivity of an electrolyte A2 B is -

O
1 
(A)  (A  )   (B


)
(B)  (A  )   (B ) (C) 2 (A  )   (B
)
(D) 2 (A )   (B  )
2

T
9. Which is not true statement about KMnO4 ?
(A) Its solution is unstable in acidic medium

E
(B) Its small quantity added to conc. H2SO4, a green coloured solution containing MnO3+ ion is formed
(C) MnO4– changes to Mn2+ in basic solution
(D) It is self – indicator in Fe2+ or C2O42 – titration,
10. The ratio of the difference in energy of electron between the first and second Bohr’s orbits to that between second
and third Bohr’s orbits is : (For Hydrogen)
1 27 9 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 5 4 9
11. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below –
List-I List-II
(Ion) (Radius)
+
(a) Li (i) 216
+
(b) Na (ii) 195

(c) Br (iii) 60

(d) I (iv) 95

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 2
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii ii i
12. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K)  (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) With a change
in internal energy E = 30 L atm. The change in enthalpy (H) in the process in L-atm is -
(A) 40.0 (B) 42.3
(C) 44.0 (D) Not defined, because pressure is not constant

A
13. H2O2 restores the colour of old lead paintings, blackened by the action of H2S gas by

I
(A) Converting PbO2 to Pb (B) Oxidising PbS to PbSO4
(C) Converting PbCO3 to Pb (D) Oxidising PbSO3 to PbSO4
14. The following equilibrium is established when HCl is dissolved in acetic acid

D
HCl + CH3COOH Cl– + CH 3 COOH 2+
The set that characteristics the conjugate acid base pair is

N
(A) (HCl, CH3COOH) and (CH3 COOH2+Cl– ) (B) (HCl, CH3COOH2+) and (CH3COOH,Cl–)

I
(C) (CH3COOH2+,HCl) and (Cl–, CH3COOH) (D) (HCl, Cl–) and (CH3 COOH2+ , CH3 COOH)
15. The boiling points of ICl is nearly 40°C higher than that of Br 2 although the two substances have the same
relative molecular mass. This is because :

S
(A) ICl is ionic compound
(B) I–Cl bond is stronger than Br–Br bond
(C) ICl is polar covalent molecular while Br2 is non polar

O
(D) Ionization energy IP of Iodine is Less than that of Br
16. Caffeine has a molecular mass of 194. If it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of atoms nitrogen in one
molecular of caffeine is -

O
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 3
17. Coordination number and oxidation number of Cr in K3[Cr(C2O4)3] are, respectively –

T
(A) 4 and +2 (B) 6 and +3
(C) 3 and +3 (D) 3 and 0
18. For the gas phase reaction,

19.
E
C 2 H 4  H 2  C 2 H 6 ; H  136.8 KJ mol 1
Carried out in a closed vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H6 can be increased by -
(a) decreasing the temperature
(c) adding some H2
(A) Only a (B) a, b, c
Which of the following option is correct ?
(b) increasing the pressure
(d) adding some C2H6
(C) b, c, d (D) a, b, c, d

(A) C–C bond has highest bond dissociation energy in group 14 elements.
(B) P–P–P bond angle in white phosphorous is 60°.
(C) Magnitude of lowest electron enthalpy among Group 16 elements is of oxygen.
(D) All the above options are correct.
20. An ion Mn8+ has the magnetic moment equal to 4.9 B.M. The value of a is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 3
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

21. For the extraction of chromium from Cr2O3, the process adopted is –
(A) Carbon reduction process (B) Alumino thermite process
(C) Electrolytic process (D) None of the above
22. Consider the reaction : 2 NO2(g) + O3(g)  N2O5 (g) + O2(g)
The reaction of NO2(g) and O3(g) represented is first order in NO2(g) and in O3(g). Which of the following mechanism
is/are consistent with the rate law ?
Mechanism I : NO2(g) + O3(g)  NO3 (g) + O2 (g) (slow)
NO3(g) + NO2(g)  N2O5 (g) (fast)

Mechanism II : 
 O2 (g)  O
O3 (g) 
 (fast)

A
NO2(g) + O  NO3(g) (slow)

I
NO3(g) + NO2 (g)  N2O5 (g) (fast)
(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

D
23. Magnesium wire burns in the atmosphere of CO2 because –
(A) Magnesium acts as an oxidising agent
(B) Magnesium has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit

N
(C) Magnesium acts as a reducing agent and removes oxygen from CO2

I
(D) Mg forms complex with CO2
24. A solution containing one mole per litre of each Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2 is being electrolysed by using inert
electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts (reduction potential) are
Ag / Ag   0.80, 2Hg / Hg 22   0.79

Cu / Cu

O
2
 0.34, Mg / Mg 2
 2.37

S
With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be -
(A) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg (B) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag

O
(C) Ag, Hg, Cu (D) Cu, Hg, Ag
25. Identify the correct statement.
(A) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than Plaster of Paris.

26.

27. E T
(B) Gypsum is obtained by heating Plaster of Paris.
(C) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum
(D) Plaster of Paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum.
Silver bromide dissolves in hypo solution formatting –
(A) Ag2S2O3 (B) Ag2S
The complex that violates the EAN rule –
(C) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] (D) NaAgS2O3

(A) Potassium ferrocyanide (B) Potassium ferricyanide


(C) Tetra carbonyl Nickel (0) (D) Cobalt (III) hexammine chloride
28. The molal elevation constant of water = 0.52 K molality–1. The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous KCl solution
(assuming complete dissociation of KCl), should be
(A) 100.52°C (B) 101.04°C (C) 99.48°C (D) 98.96°C
+ +
29. N2 and O2 are converted to monocations N2 and O2 respectively, which is wrong statement –
(A) In N2+, the N–N bond weakens (B) In O2+, O–O bond order increases
(C) In O2+, the paramagnetism decreases (D) N2+, becomes diamagnetic
30. CsBr has bcc structure with edge length 4.3. The shortest interionic distance in between Cs + and Br– is -
(A) 3.72 (B) 1.86 (C) 7.44 (D) 4.3

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 4
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

1. An organic compound made of C, H adn N contains 20% nitrogen. What will be its molecular mass if contains only
one nitrogen atom in it ?
(A) 70 (B) 140 (C) 100 (D) 65
2. Number of anti-bonding electrons in N2 is –
(A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14

d
3. The rate of the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2 NH3 (g) was measured as [NH 3 ]  2 10 4 mol L1 sec 1 .
dt

The rates of the reaction expressed in terms of N2 and H2 are -


Rates in terms of N2 Rate in terms of H2

A
–1 –1
(mol L sec ) (mol L–1 sec–1)

I
(A) 1 × 10–4 1 × 10–4
(B) 3 × 10–4 1 × 10–4

D
(C) 1 × 10–4 1 × 10–4
–4 –4
(D) 2 × 10 2 × 10
4. In centre-symmetrical system, the orbital angular momentum, a measure of the momentum of a particle travelling

N
around the nucleus, is quantised. Its magnitude is

I
h h h h
(A)     1 (B)     1 (C) s  s  1 (D) s  s  1
2 2 2 2

S
5. The products of the chemical reaction between Na2S2O3, Cl2 and H2O are –
(A) S + HCl + Na2S (B) S + HCl + Na2SO4
(C) S + HCl + Na2S2O3 (D) S + NaClO3 + H2O

O
6. The reaction occurring at anode when the electrolysis of an aqueous solution containing Na2SO4 and CuSO4 is
done using Pt electrode is

O
 Cu 2   2e
(A) Cu  (B) 2SO 24   2H 2 O 
 2H 2SO 4  O 2  4e

 O 2  4H   4e
(C) 2H 2 O  (D) 2Cl 
 Cl 2  2e

T
7. In a buffer solution containing weak acid HA and A–, if solute M+ is added, then which of the following would occur
if MA is a sparingly soluble salt?
(A) The extent of ionisation of HA will be increased

E
(B) The buffer capacity will be reduced
(C) The pH of the solution will decreased
(D) All of the above would occur
8. Which of the following option is correct :
(A) N2O3 is an acidic oxide and the anhydride of HNO2.
(B) The power of halides of Boron to act as Lewis acids decreases in the order of BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C) Decreasing order of oxidizing power of perhalate ions in acidic medium is BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4–
(D) All the above options are correct
9. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and P and in which only pressure-volume work is being done
the change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS) satisfy the criteria -
(A) (dS)V,E = 0, (dG)T, P =0 (B) (dS)V,E = 0, (dG)T, P > 0
(C) (dS)V,E < 0, (dG)T, P < 0 (D) (dS)V,E > 0, (dG)T, P < 0

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 2
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

10. If  0  P , the correct electronic configuration for d4 system will be –

(A) t 42g eg0 (B) t 32g e1g (C) t 02g t g4 (D) t 22g eg2
11. The pH of two solutions are 5 & 3 respectively. What will be the pH of the solution made by mixing the equal
volumes of the above solutions
(A) 3.5 (B) 4.5 (C) 3.3 (D)4.0
12. FeSO4 solution give brown colour ring in testing nitrates or nitrites. This is –
(A) [Fe(H2O)5 NO]2+ (B) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)2]2+
(C) [Fe(H2O)4 (NO)4]2+ (D) [Fe(H2O)4 NO]2+
13. The coagulation of 100 mL of colloidal solution of gold is completely prevented by addition of 0.25 g of a substance
“X” to it before addition of 1 mL of 10% NaCl solution. The gold number of “X” is :

A
(A) 0.25 (B) 25 (C) 250 (D) 2.5

I
14. AgNO3 reacts with some reagent and produce coloured compounds match the reagents and the coloures of the
product formed –

D
Reagent Colours
(a) Na2S (i) Yellow
(b) NaCNS (ii) Black

N
(c) Na2CrO4 (iii) Red
(d) Na3PO4

(A)
(B)
a
(ii)
(ii)
b
(iii)
(iv)
c
(iv)
(iii)
d
(i)
(i)

S I
(iv) White

O
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
15. The difference between the incident energy and threshold energy for an elctron in a photoelectric effect experiment

O
is 5eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the electron is -

6.6  109 6.6  109 6.6 10 9 6.6 10 9


(A) m (B) m (C) (D) m

T
1456 145.6 1664 166.4
16. Which of the following element has lowest reducing strength –
(A) Na (B) S (C) Al (D) Si

E
17. The correct order of increasing C–O bond length of CO, CO32–, CO2 is –
(A) CO32– < CO2 < CO (B) CO2 < CO32– < CO
(C) CO < CO32– < CO2 (D) CO < CO2 < CO32–
18. 3 faraday of electricity are passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten NaCl taken three
different electrolytic cells. The amount of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the cathodes will be in the ratio of -
(A) 1 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole (B) 3 mole : 2 mole : 1 mole
(C) 1 mole : 1.5 mole : 3 mole (D) 1.5 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole
19. The osmotic pressure of aqueous solution of non-volatile, non-electrolyte is 5 atm at 20°C. The density of the
solution is 0.9 gcc. The vapour pressure of pure water at 20°C is 17 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of
solution. (R = 82.0 atm cc/deg/mol)
(A) 15.7 (B) 16.9 (C) 17.5 (D) 18.4

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 3
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA FINAL SOLUTION MASTER FOR NEET BY J.H. SIR
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING

20. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principal of –


(A) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity
(B) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than is the solid
(C) Higher melting of the impurity than that of the pure metal
(D) Difference in the densities of molten metal and impurities
21. For the oxidation of glucose, rH° = – 2808 KJ/mol and rG° = – 3000 KJ/mol. Assume 25% of energy is utilized for
muscular work. Therefore, in order to climb a hill of height 500 metres, how many gm of glucose is required for a man
of mass 100 kg ? (g = 10 m/s2).
(A) 100 gm (B) 180 gm (C) 200 gm (D) 120 gm
22. Which of the following alkali metal carbonate is the least stable and decomposes readily –

A
(A) Li2CO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) K2CO3 (D) Cs2CO3

I
23. Which of the following statement is/are wrong ?
(a) At equilibriumm, concentration of reactant and products become constant because the reaction stops
(b) addition of catalyst speeds up the forward reaction more than the backward reaction

D
(c) Chemical equilibrium is also known as dynamic equilibrium
(d) Kp is always greater than Kc
(A) a, c (B) a, b, c, d (C) a, b, d (D) b, c

N
24. Which would exhibit co-ordination isomerism –

I
(A) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] (B) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(C) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (D) [Cr(en)2Cl2]+

S
25. The rate of diffusion of a gas having molecular weight just double of hydrogen gas is 30 ml s–1. The rate of diffusion
of hydrogen gas will be
(A) 42.42 ml s–1 (B) 60 ml s–1 (C) 120 ml s–1 (D) 21.21 ml s–1

O
26. The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configuration is 2.84 BM. The correct one
is :
(A) d5 (in strong ligand field) (B) d2 (in weak as well as in strong fields)

O
(C) d2 (in weak ligand field only) (D) d4 (in strong ligand field)
27. k for a zero order reaction is 2 × 10–2molL–1s–1 If the concentration of the reactant after 25 s is 0.5 M, the initial

T
concentration must have been
(A) 0.5 M (B) 1.25 M (C) 12.5 M (D) 1.0 M
28. Which of the following option is correct :

E
(A) (SiO5)n2n- is the formula of double chain silicates.
(B) Nitrogen dioxide dissolves in water to form a mixture of nitrous and nitric acids.
(C) PH5, SCl6 and FCl3 does not exist.
(D) All the above options are correct
29. The ionic radii of Rb+ and I– are 1.46 and 2.16 Å. The most probable type of structure exhibited by it is -
(A) CsCl type (B) NaCl type (C) ZnS type (D) CaF2 type
30. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are –
(A) The same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(B) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(C) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(D) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively

Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 4
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303

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