DATE : 04/05/2014 Test Booklet Code

R
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for
AIPMT-2014
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(1)
1. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of Answer (1)
DNA? Sol. Joint between carpals is gliding joint.
(1) Cosmid
6. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most
(2) Bacterial artificial chromosome likely disrupt
(3) Yeast artificial chromosome (1) Regulation of body temperature
(4) Plasmid (2) Short term memory
Answer (4) (3) Co-ordination during locomotion
Sol. Plasmid can clone only a small fragment of DNA (4) Executive function, such as decision making
about 10 kbp size
Answer (1)
Cosmid – 45 kbp
Sol. Hypothalamus regulates body temperature.
YAC – 1 Mbp/ 1000 kbp – 2,500 kbp
7. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained
BAC – 300 to 350 kbp from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown
2. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in below?
(1) Mode of reproduction
(2) Cell membrane structure
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Cell shape
Answer (2)
Sol. Cell membrane of archaebacteria possesses branched
chain lipids.
3. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric (1) Pain-killer (2) Hallucinogen
current is
(3) Depressant (4) Stimulant
(1) Scoltodon (2) Pristis
Answer (2)
(3) Torpedo (4) Trygon
Sol. The plant illustrated in diagram is Datura which has
Answer (3) hallucinogenic properties.
Sol. Torpedo-Electric ray can produce electric current. 8. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of
4. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge source and function
digesters?
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall
(1) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2 increases the blood pressure
(2) Methane and CO2 only (2) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and
(3) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2 maintenance of mammary glands
(4) Methane, hdyrogen sulphide and O2 (3) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal
rhythm of sleepwake cycle
Answer (3)
(4) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulation of
Sol. In anaerobic sludge digesters, bacteria produce a
growth and activities of female secondary sex
mixture of gases like CH4, H2S and CO2.
organs
5. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with
Answer (3)
the example in human skeletal system :
Sol. Atrial Natriuretic factor is secreted by atrial wall of
Type of joint Example
heart. Oxytocin is synthesised by hypothalamous.
(1) Gliding joint - between carpals
9. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
(2) Cartilaginous joint - between frontal and urinary system in the human male is
pariental
(1) Vasa efferentia (2) Urethra
(3) Pivot joint - between third and
fourth cervical (3) Ureter (4) Vas deferens
vertebrae Answer (2)
(4) Hinge joint - between humerus Sol. In human male, urethra is urinogenital duct carry
and pectoral girdle urine and sperm both.

(2)
10. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how 15. An example of edible underground stem is
much energy will be available to peacock as food in (1) Potato (2) Carrot
the following chain?
(3) Groundnut (4) Sweet potato
Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock Answer (1)
(1) 0.0002 J (2) 0.02 J Sol. Sweet potato, Carrot – Edible root.
(3) 0.002 J (4) 0.2 J Potato – Edible underground stem.
Answer (2) 16. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
Sol. Plant → 20 J another without any particular direction, the
condition is termed as
Mice → 20 × 10% = 2 J
(1) Valvate (2) Vexillary
Snake → 2 × 10% = 0.2 J (3) Imbricate (4) Twisted
Peacock → 0.2 × 10% = 0.02 J Answer (3)
11. The organization which publishes the Red List of Sol. Imbricate aestivation – Cassia, gulmohur.
species is
17. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle
(1) WWF (2) ICFRE (1) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(3) IUCN (4) UNEP (2) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
Answer (3) (3) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
Sol. The IUCN Red List of threatened species (also known (4) Chromosome number is increased
as the IUCN Red List or Red Data List), founded in Answer (2)
1964, is the world's most comprehensive inventory
Sol. S or synthesis phase marks the period where DNA
of th global conservation status of biological species.
synthesis takes place. During this time the amount
12. Which one of the following growth regulators is of DNA per cell doubles.
known as ‘stress hormone’? 18. Geitonogamy involves
(1) Indole acetic acid (2) Abscisic acid (1) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a
(3) Ethylene (4) GA3 flower of another plant belonging to a distant
population
Answer (2)
(2) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from
Sol. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the another flower of the same plant
epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to
(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the
various kinds of stresses. same flower
13. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the (4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
working of the heart? flower of another plant in the same population
(1) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases Answer (2)
(2) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output Sol. Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from the
anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
(3) Heart rate is increased without affecting the
plant.
cardiac output
19. Person with blood group AB is considered as
(4) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase universal recipient because he has
Answer (2) (1) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
Sol. Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous antibodies
system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart (2) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies
rate and cardiac output. in the plasma
14. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in (3) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(1) Potato (2) Apple (4) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the
plasma
(3) Banana (4) Tomato
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. Person with blood group AB has both A and B
Sol. Tomato–edible part is pericarp and placenta. antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

(3)
20. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves 25. Select the correct option
transfer of
(1) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian Direction of Direction of reading
tube RNA synthesis of the template DNA
strand
(2) Ovum into the fallopian tube
(1) 3 – 5 3 – 5
(3) Zygote into the fallopian tube
(4) Zygote into the uterus (2) 5 – 3 3 – 5
Answer (3) (3) 3 – 5 5 – 3
Sol. In IVF, zygote or the embryo upto 8-celled stage is
transferred into the fallopian tube (4) 5 – 3 5 – 3
21. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
Answer (2)
(1) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse
(2) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon Sol. RNA Polymers catalyse polymerisation only in one
direction, that is 5′ → 3′ and the strand that has the
(3) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
polarity 3′ → 5′ act as a template.
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
26. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand
Answer (3) and capsomeres?
Sol. Wings of bat are skin folds stretched mainly between
(1) Retrovirus
elongated finger but the wings of birds are a feather
covering all along the arm. They look similar because (2) Polio virus
they have a common use for flying, but their origin
(3) Tobacco mosaic virus
are not common. This makes them analogous
characteristics rather than homologous (4) Measles virus
characteristics.
Answer (3)
As per 10th class NCERT option (2) can also taken
as correct option. Sol. RNA is single stranded helically coiled with 6400
ribonucleotides.
22. Which one of the following fungi contains
hallucinogens? 27. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Ustilago sp. (2) Morchella esculenta (1) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
(3) Amanita muscaria (4) Neurospora sp. (2) Transcription-Writing information from DNA to
Answer (3) t-RNA
Sol. Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic (3) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to
properties, with its main psychoactive constituent make protein
being the compound muscimol.
(4) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop
23. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in
enzyme synthesis
the immediate future is called
(1) Extinct (2) Vulnerable Answer (1)

(3) Endemic (4) Critically Endangered Sol. Operon consist of - regulator gene, promotor gene,
operator gene and structural genes.
Answer (4)
Sol. A taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in 28. Given below is the representation of the extent of
the immediate future is called critically endangered. global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four
portions (A-D) represent respectively?
24. Which one of the following is a non-reducing
carbohydrate?
D
C
(1) Ribose 5-phosphate (2) Maltose
B
(3) Sucrose (4) Lactose
Answer (3) A

Sol. Lactose, Maltose, Ribose 5-phosphate all are reducing

sugars.

(4)
 Options : 31. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to
escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
B C D thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other
(1) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal extremely cold northern regions move to
Groups (1) Keolado National Park
(2) Insects Crustaceans Other animal Molluscs (2) Western Ghat
Groups
(3) Meghalaya
(3) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal
Groups (4) Corbett National Park

(4) Molluscs Other animal Crustaceans Insects

Answer (1)
Groups Sol. Every winter the famous Keolado National Park
(Bharatpur) in Rajasthan host thousands of
migratory birds coming from Siberia and other
Answer (1) extremely cold northern region.
Sol. A – Insects 32. Match the following and select the correct answer
B – Molluscs Column I Column II

C – Crustaceans a. Centriole (i) Infoldings in

mitochondria
D – Other animal groups
b. Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
29. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by c. Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
R.H. Whittaker is not based on
d. Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or
(1) Complexity of body organisation flagella
(2) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Mode of reproduction
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) Mode of nutrition
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer (2) (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Sol. The main criteria of Whittaker's system are :- Cell Answer (2)
type, Thallus organisation, Nutrition, Reprodution
Sol. Ribozyme is catalytic RNA.
& phylogenetic relationship.
33. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus
30. Match the following and select the correct option : cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks
(A-D). Identify the blanks.
(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
Consumers C
(b) Succession (ii) Detritivore
D
(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality A

(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination Uptake

Soil solution
Run off
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) B

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Options :

(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) A B C D

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) Producers Litter Rock Detritus
fall minerals
Answer (1) (2) Rock Detritus Litter Producers
minerals fall
Sol. Detrivores, (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into
smaller particles. (3) Litter Producers Rock Detritus
fall minerals
The species that invade a base area in succession is
(4) Detritus Rock Producer Litter
called pioneer species. minerals fall

(5)
Answer (4) 37. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa
cells of intestine by the process called
Sol. A – Detritus
(1) Co-transport mechanism
B – Rock minerals
(2) Active transport
C – Producer
(3) Facilitated transport
D – Litter fall
(4) Simple diffusion
34. A man whose father was colour blind marries a
woman who had a colour blind mother and normal Answer (3)
father. What percentage of male children of this Sol. Fructose is absorbed with the help of the carrier ions
couple will be colour blind? like Na + . This mechanism is called facilitated
transport.
(1) 75% (2) 25%
38. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is
(3) 0% (4) 50%
to produce
Answer (4)
(1) Relaxin only
Sol. X+Y X X+ Xc (2) Estrogen only
(3) Progesterone
X+ Y X+ Xc (4) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Answer (3)
+ c + c + c
XX XX XY XY Sol. Corpus luteum secretes steroid hormones
progesterone and estrogen.
 Colour blind male = 50% 39. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :
35. Select the option which is not correct 0with respect (1) Being lignified
to enzyme action
(2) Having casparian strips
(1) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic
dehydrogenase (3) Being imperforate

(2) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site (4) Lacking nucleus

(3) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
malonate
(4) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at
a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
Answer (3)
Sol. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is
an example of competitive inhibition. This is
reversible reaction. On increasing the substrate
(succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is
removed and Vmax remain same.
36. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of
(1) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood
sugar levels
(2) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased
metabolic rate
(3) The kidney, leading to suppression of
reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(4) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased
secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene
Answer (4)
Sol. In fight or flight reactions, emergency hormones are
secreted by adrenal medulla.
Answer (3)
Sol. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube like structure made
of many cells, called vessel members, each with
lignified walls and a large central cavity. Vessel
members are interconnected through perforation in
their common walls.
40. Function of filiform apparatus is to
(1) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(2) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(3) Stimulate division of generative cell
(4) Produce nectar
Answer (1)
Sol. Filiform apparatus, present in synergids, play an
important role in guiding the pollen tube into the
synergid.
41. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(1) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous
epithelium
(2) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated
epithelium
(3) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular
epithelium
(4) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal epithelium

(6)
Answer (4) 46. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is
Sol. Moist surface of buccal cavity – Stratified present in
non-keratinised squamous epithelium (1) Pinus (2) Pteris
Inner surface of bronchioles – Ciliated epithelium
(3) Funaria (4) Lilium
Inner lining of salivary ducts – Cuboidal epithelium
Answer (4)
42. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the
trees indicates that the Sol. Male gametophyte is highly reduced in angiosperm
and is known as pollen grain. It is 2 or 3-celled.
(1) Location is not polluted
(2) Trees are very healthy 47. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark
room. After a few days they were found to have
(3) Trees are heavily infested
become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the
(4) Location is highly polluted following terms will you use to describe them?
Answer (1) (1) Defoliated (2) Mutated
Sol. Lichens are very good pollution indicators, they do
not grow in polluted areas. (3) Embolised (4) Etiolated

43. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide Answer (4)

absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
(1) As carbamino-haemoglobin
(2) As bicarbonate ions
(3) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
(4) By binding to R.B.C.
Answer (2)
Sol. Nearly 20 – 25 percent of CO2 is transported by
RBCs, whereas, 70 percent of it is carried as
bicarbonates. About 7 percent of CO2 is carried as
dissolved state in plasma.
Sol. Etiolation is depigmentation is leaf when plant is
placed in dark for more than 36 hrs.
48. A human female with Turner's syndrome
(1) Is able to produce children with normal husband
(2) Has 45 chromosomes with XO
(3) Has one additional X chromosome
(4) Exhibits male characters
Answer (2)

44. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron Sol. Turner's syndrome is caused due to the absence of
occurs at one of the X chromosomes i.e. 45 with XO
(or 44 + XO).
(1) The sacroplasmic reticulum
(2) The neuromuscular junction 49. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
(3) The transverse tubules (1) Ex situ conservation
(4) The myofibril (2) In vitro fertilization
Answer (2) (3) Breeding programmes
Sol. Neuromuscular junction is the junction between
(4) Supplementing food
motor neuron and muscle fibre.
45. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to Answer (4)
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Sol. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and it has become
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food
population is supplements.
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.4
50. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.6
(1) Uterus is removed surgically
Answer (4)
Sol. According to Hardy Weinberg principle. (2) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied
up
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1; (p + q)2 = 1
(3) Ovaries are removed surgically
(AA) p2 = 360 out of 1000 individual or p2 = 36 out
of 100 (4) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
q2 = 160 out of 1000 or q2 = 16 out of 100 Answer (2)
so q = .16 = .4. As p + q = 1 Sol. In tubectomy, small part of fallopian tube is removed
so, p is 0.6. or tied up.

(7)
51. Which one of the following statements is correct? 56. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of
(1) A sterile pistil is called a staminode (1) Ulva
(2) The seed in grasses is not endospermic (2) Rhodospirillum
(3) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit (3) Spirogyra
(4) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in (4) Chlamydomonas
maize grain Answer (2)
Answer (4) Sol. In Rhodospirillum, electron donor is organic
Sol. Mango – seeded fruit compound during photosynthesis.
Sterile stamen – staminode 57. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
Seeds in grasses – endospermic (1) Inhibitory genes (2) Recessive epistasis
52. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is (3) Dominant epistasis (4) Complementary genes
carried out by? Answer (3)
(1) Pepsin (2) Lipase Sol. Dominant epistasis is the phenomenon of masking
(3) Trypsin (4) Rennin or supressing the expression of a gene by a dominant
non-allelic gene.
Answer (4)
eg, fruit colour in Cucurbita pepo (Summer squash)
Sol. The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is
carried out by rennin. 58. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually
show symptoms of AIDS?
53. An example of ex situ conservation is
(1) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
(1) Sacred Grove (2) National Park transcriptase
(3) Seed Bank (4) Wildlife Sanctuary (2) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
Answer (3) person
Sol. In situ conservation strategies – National park, (3) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
biosphere reserve, sanctuaries, sacred groves. (4) When HIV damages large numebr of helper T-
54. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of Lymphocytes
whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used Answer (4)
in flying are an example of :
Sol. Symptoms of AIDS would appear in the late stage of
(1) Convergent evolution HIV infection, when the virus attacks 'Helper-T-cells'
(2) Analogous organs and causes their depletion
(3) Adaptive radiation 59. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(4) Homologous organs (1) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in
rods only
Answer (4)
(2) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual
Sol. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking, forelimbs of photopigments
whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used
in flying are the examples of homologous. All are (3) In retina the rods have the photopigment
modified forelimbs, with the same types of bones, rhodopsin while cones have three different
photopigments
they have become different due to adaptation to
habitat (4) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
55. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Answer (4)
southern hybridisation technique does not use Sol. Retinal pigment is an aldehyde of vitamin A.
(1) PCR 60. Transformation was discovered by
(2) Electrophoresis (1) Watson and Crick
(3) Blotting (2) Meselson and Stahl
(4) Autoradiography (3) Hershey and Chase
Answer (1) (4) Griffith
Sol. PCR is only for amplification of DNA. Answer (4)

(8)
Sol. In 1928, Frederick Griffith performed transformation Answer (2)
experiment by using Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Sol. F.W. went isolated auxin from Avena coleoptile tip.
61. Which structures perform the function of
mitochondria in bacteria? 66. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from
(1) Mesosomes (2) Nucleoid (1) Multicarpellary superior ovary
(3) Ribosomes (4) Cell wall (2) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
Answer (1)
(3) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
Sol. Mesosomes help in respiration, secretion processes,
to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane (4) Complete inflorescence
and enzymatic contact.
Answer (3)
62. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra
Uterine Device (IUD)? Sol. Aggregate fruits are developed from multicarpellary
apocarpus gynoecium.
(1) Vault (2) Multiload 375
67. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both
(3) LNG-20 (4) Cervical cap
marine and fresh water species
Answer (3)
(1) Cnidaria (2) Echinoderms
Sol. LNG-20 is a hormone releasing intra-uterine device
(IUD). (3) Ctenophora (4) Cephalochordata
63. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA Answer (1)
in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is
denoted as 2C? Sol. Members of ctenophora, cephalochordata and
(1) G2 and M (2) G0 and G1 echinodermata are exclusively marine.

(3) G1 and S (4) Only G2 68. Which one of the following shows isogamy with
non-flagellated gametes?
Answer (4)
Sol. In M-phase, both 4C and 2C of DNA are present in (1) Spirogyra (2) Sargassum
different stages.
(3) Ectocarpus (4) Ulothrix
64. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized
by Answer (1)

(1) Microscopy Sol. Spirogyra shows isogamy with non-lagellated

gametes.
(2) PCR and RAPD
(3) Northern blotting 69. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
chiefly regulated by
(4) Electrophoresis and HPLC
Answer (2) (1) Ribosomes (2) Mitochondria

Sol. Now a days PCR & RAPD technique are used for the (3) Vacuoles (4) Plastids
characterisation of in vitro clonal propagation in Answer (3)
plants.
Option (1) is also correct. Sol. Vacuoles

65. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed
and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would
produce a bending when placed on one side of
freshly cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance
is this experiment?
(1) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
(2) It made possible the isolation and exact
identification of auxin
(3) It is the basis for quantitative determination of
small amounts of growth-promoting substances
(4) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
70. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium
reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
(1) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
(2) Increase in aldosterone levels
(3) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(4) Decrease in aldosterone levels
Answer (2)
Sol. Aldosterone stimulates Na+ and water reabsorption
in DCT.

(9)
71. Choose the correctly matched pair :
(1) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
(2) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
(3) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(4) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
Answer (4)
Sol. Areolar and adipose tissue are loose connective
tissue while tendon is dense connective tissue.
Cartilage is specialized connective tissue.
72. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased
one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of
the diseased plant will be taken?
(1) Epidermis only
(2) Apical meristem only
(3) Palisade parenchyma
(4) Both apical and axillary meristems
Answer (4)
Sol. Apical and axillary meristems are free of virus.
73. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is
present is called
(1) Troposphere (2) Ionosphere
(3) Mesosphere (4) Stratosphere
Answer (4)
Sol. Good ozone is found in the upper part of the
atmosphere called the stratosphere and it acts as a
shield absorbing UV rays from the sun.
74. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
(1) Globule is male reproductive structure
(2) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(3) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(4) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
Answer (4)
Sol. Nucule/oogonium/upper sex organ
Globule/antheridium/lower sex organ
75. An alga which can be employed as food for human
being is
(1) Polysiphonia (2) Ulothrix
(3) Chlorella (4) Spirogyra
Answer (3)
Sol. Chlorella is rich in proteins and are used as food
supplements even by space travellers.
(10)
76. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a
dicot root. Which of the following anatomical
structures will you use to distinguish between the
two?
(1) Cortical cells
(2) Secondary xylem
(3) Secondary phloem
(4) Protoxylem
Answer (4)
Sol. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith)
and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch.
In root, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and
metaxylem lies towards the centre, such arrangement
is called exarch.
77. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are
(1) T/A Cloning Vectors
(2) T-DNA
(3) BAC and YAC
(4) Expression Vectors
Answer (3)
Sol. Commonly used vectors for human genome
sequencing are BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome)
and YAC (Yeast Artificial chromosome)
78. Which one of the following living organisms
completely lacks a cell wall?
(1) Blue - green algae (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Sea - fan (Gorgonia) (4) Saccharomyces
Answer (3)
Sol. Gorgonia (sea-fan) is an animal. All animal lack cell
wall.
79. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin
activity in a normal pregnant female
(1) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of
endometrium
(2) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the
thickening of endometrium
(3) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation
of the embryo
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of
estrogen and progesterone
Answer (4)
Sol. In pregnant female, hCG maintains the corpus luteum
which secretes estrogen and progesterone.
80. The motile bacteria are able to move by 86. Viruses have
(1) Pili (2) Fimbriae (1) Both DNA and RNA
(3) Flagella (4) Cilia (2) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
Answer (3) (3) Prokaryotic nucleus
Sol. Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions (4) Single chromosome
from their cell wall called flagella. Answer (2)
81. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial Sol. Nucleoprotein particles
plant removes
87. Non-albuminous seed is produced in
(1) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or
less (1) Pea (2) Maize
(2) Gases like sulphur dioxide (3) Castor (4) Wheat
(3) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or Answer (1)
above Sol. Seed of garden pea is ex-albuminous or non
(4) Gases like ozone and methane endospermic.
Answer (2) 88. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a
diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of
Sol. A sucrubber can remove gases like SO2 in which monomer are known as
the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or
lime. (1) Lamins (2) Microtubules
82. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage (3) Microfilaments (4) Intermediate filaments
of meiosis? Answer (3)
(1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene Sol. Microfilaments are ultramicroscopic long, narrow
(3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene cylindrical solid rods or protein filaments
(actin protein) of approx 8 nm in dm.
Answer (2)
89. The first human hormone produced by recombinant
Sol. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process and DNA technology is
the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
(1) Progesterone (2) Insulin
83. Planaria possess high capacity of
(3) Estrogen (4) Thyroxin
(1) Bioluminescence
Answer (2)
(2) Metamorphosis
Sol. The first hormone produced by recombinant DNA
(3) Regeneration technology is insulin.
(4) Alternation of generation 90. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not
Answer (3) released?
Sol. Planaria, is a flatworm which possess a high power (1) Lactate fermentation
of regeneration. (2) Aerobic respiration in plants
84. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are (3) Aerobic respiration in animals
visible first in
(4) Alcoholic fermentation
(1) Buds (2) Senescent leaves
Answer (1)
(3) Young leaves (4) Roots
Answer (2) Sol. Glucose

Sol. N and K are mobile elements. 2NAD+

85. Which of the following is responsible for peat 2NADH + H
+

formation?
(1) Sphagnum (2) Marchantia 2 × Pyruvic acid
(3) Riccia (4) Funaria 2NAD+
Answer (1) 2NADH + H+
Sol. Species of Sphagnum, a moss provides peat that have
long been used as fuel. 2 × lactic acid

(11)
91. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 Answer (3)
and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between plates of a
parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The 1 1
Sol.  2
 2
variation of electric field E between the plates with d n 2 4r n 2
distance d as measured from plate P is correctly
shown by 1

r2
P+ Q
94. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z)
–
= 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z
are in metres. The electric force experienced by a
charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is

(1) 4 35 N (2) 6 5 N
+ –
K1 K2
(3) 30 N (4) 24 N
Answer (1)
E E
Sol. V = 6x — 8xy — 8y + 6yz
(1) (2) V
Ex    (6  8 y )  2
0 0 x
d d
V
Ey    ( 8x  8  6 z)  10
y
E E
V
(3) (4) Ez    6 y  6
z
0 d 0 d
E  Ex2  E y2  Ez2  4  100  36  140
Answer (4)
Sol. Electric field inside parallel plate capacitor having  2 35 N/C
Q
charge Q at place where dielectric is absent 
A 0 F  qE  4 35 N

Q 95. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3

where dielectric is present  connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The
KA0
mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough
92. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric poiwer is sent horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = μ)
from one city to another city through copper wires.
The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The
resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire downward acceleration of mass m1 is
is (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
(1) 12.2 kW (2) 19.2 W
m2 m3
(3) 19.2 kW (4) 19.2 J P

Answer (3)
Sol. Resistance = 150 × 0.5 = 75 Ω
m1
V 8
I   16 A
R 0.5
g(1  2 ) g(1  g )
P = I2R = (16)2 × 75 W = 19200 = 19.2 kW (1) (2)
2 9
93. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius r)
is inversely proportional to 2 g g(1  2 )
(3) (4)
3 3
(1) r (3) r3
(2) r2 (4) r Answer (4)

(12)
 98. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding
m  g  2g 
Sol. a  m1 g  (m2  m3 )g  the internal resistance of a given cell. The main
m1  m2  m3 3m battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an
emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The
g potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the
 1  2  resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has
3
values of
a a
P (i) Infinity
m2g m3g (ii) 9.5 Ω,
the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are
found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively.
a
The value of internal resistance of the cell is
(1) 0.75 Ω (2) 0.25 Ω
m1g
96. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It (3) 0.95 Ω (4) 0.5 Ω
suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each Answer (4)
of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with
equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated l 
due to explosion is Sol. r   1  1  R
 l2 
(1) 4 mv2 (2) mv2
3  3  0.15
(3) m v (4) 2 mv2   1  9.5    9.5 
2  2.85  2.85
Answer (3) = 0.5 Ω
Sol. Initial momentum = Pi = 0 99. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16
 times its previous value, the percentage change in the
Final momentum Pf = 0 = mviˆ  mvjˆ  P3
de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is

⇒ P3  mv 2 (1) 50 (2) 25
(3) 75 (4) 60
P32 1 1 Answer (3)
Total KE   mv 2  mv 2
22m 2 2
h h
Sol.    ( p  2 mE )
2m 2 v 2 3 mv 2 p 2 mE
=  mv 2 
4m 2
h 
97. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. '    0.25 
2 m(16 E) 4
When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass
of water present will be: % change = –75%
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1°C–1 and latent 100. Light with an energy flux of 25 × 104 Wm–2 falls on
heat of steam = 540 cal g–1] a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If
(1) 22.5 g (2) 24 g the surface area is 15 cm2, the average force exerted
on the surface is
(3) 31.5 g (4) 42.5 g
Answer (1) (1) 3.0 × 10–6 N (2) 1.25 × 10–6 N

Sol. Heat gain by water = Heat lost by steam (3) 2.50 × 10–6 N (4) 1.20 × 10–6 N

20 × 1 × (80 – 10) = m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80) Answer (3)

⇒ 1400 = 560 m 2 I A 2  25  10 4  15  10 4
Sol. Fav   N
⇒ m = 2.5 g c 3  10 8
Total mass of water = 20 + 2.5 = 22.5 g = 250 × 10–8 N = 2.5 × 10–6N

(13)
101. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of
5 R
three segments into which a string is divided, then Sol. Initially,  ...(i)
l1 100  l1
the original fundamental frequency n of the string is
given by
5 R
(1) n = n1 + n2 + n3 Finally,  ...(ii)
1.6 l1 2(100  1.6l1 )
1 1 1 1
(2) n  n  n  n R R
1 2 3  
1.6(100  l1 ) 2(100  1.6 l1 )
1 1 1 1
(3)     160 – 1.6 l1 = 200 – 3.2 l1
n n1 n2 n3
 1.6 l1 = 40
(4) n  n1  n2  n3  l1 = 25
From Equation (i),
Answer (2)
5 R

l1 l2 l3 25 75
Sol.
n1 n2 n3  R = 15 Ω.
103. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
1 T 1 T 1 T
n1  ; n2  ; n3  monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of
2 l1  2l2  2l3  spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will
be
1 T (1) 10
n (l = l1 + l2 + l3)
2l 
(2) 3
(3) 2
1 2l 2l 2l 2l 1 1 1
   1  2  3   
n T T T T n1 n2 n3 (4) 6
    Answer (4)

102. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge hc 6.63  10 34  3  10 8
Sol. Energy incident   eV
are 5  and R  , respectively. When the resistance  975  10 10  1.6  10 19
R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new
balance point is at 1.6 l1. The resistance R, is : = 12.75 eV
The Hydrogen atom will be excited to n = 4

4(4  1)
5 R Number of spectral lines  6
2

104. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is

so strong that even light cannot escape from it.
G
To what approximate radius would earth
A B (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be
l1 100 – l1
a black hole?

(1) 25 Ω (1) 100 m

(2) 10 Ω (2) 10–9 m

(3) 15 Ω (3) 10–6 m

(4) 20 Ω (4) 10–2 m

Answer (3) Answer (4)

(14)
 107. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
2GM fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are
Sol. Ve  C
R
(1) [F V–1 T] (2) [F V T–1]

2GM 2  6.67  10 11  5.98  10 24 (3) [F V T–2] (4) [F V–1 T–1]

 R 
C2 (3  10 8 )2 Answer (1)
Sol. F = [M V T–1]
2  6.67  5.98
  10 3 m ⇒ M = [F V–1 T]
9
108. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of
3
 8.86  10 m  10 m 2 him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that
traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at
105. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If
m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle 'θ' the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the
without slipping and slipping down the incline honk as heard by him will be
without rolling is
(1) 1454 Hz
(1) 7 : 5 (2) 5 : 7
(2) 1332 Hz
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 5 (3) 1372 Hz
Answer (2) (4) 1412 Hz
Sol. aslipping = gsinθ Answer (4)

g sin  5 Sol. v0 = 36 km/h = 10 m/s vS = 18 km/h = 5 m/s

a rolling   g sin 
K2 7 O S f = 1392 Hz
1
r2
 v  v0   343  10 
f ' f    1392    Hz
a rolling

5  v  vs   343  5 
a slipping 7
353
106. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is  1392  Hz  1412 Hz
348
free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless
string is wound round the cylinder with one end 109. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
the string required to produce an angular acceleration emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV
of 2 revolutions s–2 is to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is

(1) 157 N (2) 25 N (1) 1.5 eV

(3) 50 N (4) 78.5 N (2) 0.65 eV

(3) 1.0 eV
(4) 1.3 eV
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. T
r Sol. E  hv  
⇒ 0.5  hv   ...(1)
Again 0.8 = 1.2 hv – φ ...(2)
Tr  I From equation (1) × 1.2 ⇒ 0.6 = 1.2 hv – 1.2 φ
I mr  mr 2
Equation (2) 0.8 = 1.2 hv – φ
T   
r 2 r 2
  
50  0.5  2  2 0.2  0.2 
 N = 157 N
2   1 eV

(15)
110. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an Answer (4)
acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should
Sol. Step - 1 Isothermal Expansion
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with
an acceleration a?
P
PV = P22V ⇒ P2 
ma 2
(1)
ga Step - 2 Adiabatic Expansion

2 ma P2V2  P3V3
(2)
ga
5 5
P
2 ma ⇒ (2V ) 3  P3 (16 V ) 3
2
(3)
ga
5 5
ma P  2V  3 P  1  3 P
(4) ⇒ P3       
ga 2  16 V  2 8 64

112. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in

Answer (2) the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes.
The temperature of the surroundings is
B
(1) 10°C (2) 45°C
(3) 20°C (4) 42°C
Sol. a mg – B = ma …(i)
Answer (2)

1  2    2 
Sol. Newtons law of cooling K 1  0  .
mg t  2 

B 70  60
First   K  65  0 
5

 2  K  65  0 

a ...(i)

60  54
Next   K  57  0  ...(ii)
(m – m0)g 5

B – (m – m0)g = (m – m0 )a …(ii) Diving (i) and (ii)

Equation (i) + equation (ii) 5 65  0


⇒ mg – mg + m0g = ma + ma – m0a 3 57  0

2 ma  285  50  195  30

⇒ m0 
ga
 2 0  90
111. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume
V expands isothermally to a volume 2 V and then 0  45º
adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure of
113. The number of possible natural oscillations of air
5
the gas is (take γ = ) column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm
3 whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are (velocity of
(1) 16 P (2) 64 P sound = 340 ms–1)
(1) 6 (2) 4
P
(3) 32 P (4) (3) 5 (4) 7
64

(16)
Answer (1) (1) It is for a LED and points A and B represents
Sol. lc = 0.85 m open circuit voltage and short circuit current
respectively
v 340 ms 1
f0    100 Hz (2) It is V – I characteristic for solar cell where point
4 l c 4  0.85m
A represents open circuit voltage and point B
fn = (2n + 1)f0 = f0, 3f0, 5f0, 7f0, 9f0, 11f0, 13f0 short circuit current
= 100 Hz, 300 Hz, 500 Hz, 700 Hz, (3) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent
900 Hz, 1100 Hz open circuit voltage and current, respectively
114. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on : (4) It is for a photodiode and points A and B
a. Type of semiconductor material represent open circuit voltage and current,
b. Amount of doping respectively

c. Temperature Answer (2)

Which one of the following is correct? Sol. Solar cell → Open circuit I = 0, potential V = emf
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b only
→ Short circuit I = I, potential V = 0
(3) b only (4) b and c only
117. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through
Answer (1) the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G,
Sol. It depends on all. the resistance of ammeter will be
115. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of
earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly 500 1
(1) G (2) G
represented by 499 499

E E 499 1
R (3) G (4) G
O O 500 500
(1) R r (2) r
Answer (4)

I 100
E E Sol. n    500
R I g 0.2
O r O
(3) R (4) r
G G
RA  
Answer (2) n 500

E 118. A radio isotope X with a half life 1.4 × 109 years

GMr
Sol. E in   decays of Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from
R3 R r a cave was found to contain X and Y in the ratio 1 : 7.
O
The age of the rock is
GM
E out  
r2 (1) 8.40 × 109 years
116. The given graph represents V – I characteristic for a (2) 1.96 × 109 years
semiconductor device.
(3) 3.92 × 109 years
(4) 4.20 × 109 years
I
Answer (4)

A Sol. X : Y = 1 : 7
V X : (X + Y) = 1 : 8 = 1 : 23
B ⇒ 3 half life
Which of the following statement is correct? ∴ ΔT = 3 × 1.4 × 109 yrs = 4.2 × 109 yrs.

(17)
119. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of Answer (3)
radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R
and volume V. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid, 90
Sol. Power ouput = 3kW   2.7 kW
then 100
(1) Energy is neither released nor absorbed Ib  6 A

1 1  2.7 kW
(2) Energy = 4VT    is released VS   450 V
r R 6A

1 1 3 kW
(3) Energy = 3VT    is absorbed IP   15 A
r R 200 V

122. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of

1 1 
(4) Energy = 3VT    is released length l. When this wire is subjected to a constant
r R
force F, the extension produced in the wire is l .
Answer (4) Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
Sol. Energy released = (Af – Ai)T
1
(1) l versus l (2) l versus
3 R 3
3V l
A f  4 R 2  4 
3 R R
1
(3) l versus l2 (4) l versus
V 3V l2
Ai  n  4 r 2  4 r 2 
4 3 r Answer (3)
r
3
Fl Fl Fl 2
1 1  Sol. V = Al, Y   l  
⇒ Energy released = 3VT    Al AY VY
r R
120. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then  l  l 2
magnifying power of
123. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius
(1) Microscope will decrease but that of telescope r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
will increase magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential
(2) Microscope will increase but that of telescope difference developed across the ring when its speed
decrease is v, is

(3) Microscope and telescope both will increase × × × ×

(4) Microscope and telescope both will decrease Q B
× × × ×
Answer (1)
r
× × × ×
L  P
Sol. MP of microscope  1   P R
f0  fe 
(1) 2rBv and R is at higher potential
f0  fe  (2) Zero
MP of telescope  1  D 
fe   (3) Bvπr2/2 and P is at higher potential
121. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working (4) πrBv and R is at higher potential
on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in
the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the Answer (1)
secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively are Sol.

(1) 600 V, 15 A (2) 300 V, 15 A ε = BLeffv (Leff = Diameter)

(3) 450 V, 15 A (4) 450 V, 13.5 A = B 2Rv

(18)
124. A particle is moving such that its position Answer (3)
coordinates (x, y) are Sol. Normal incidence at silvered surface
(2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0,
A
(6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and A
90–
(13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s A
2A

Average velocity vector (Vav ) from t = 0 to t = 5 s is

sin i sin 2 A 2 sin A cos A

11 ˆ ˆ   so,    2 cos A
(1) (i  j ) sin r sin A sin A
5
127. Following figures show the arrangement of bar
magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has
1
(2) (13iˆ  14 ˆj ) 
magnetic dipole moment m . Which configuration
5
has highest net magnetic dipole moment?
7 ˆ ˆ N
(3) (i  j )
3 N S
a. b.
(4) 2(iˆ  ˆj ) S N
S S N
Answer (1)
N
 ( x  x1 )iˆ  ( y 2  y1 ) ˆj N
Sol. Vav  2
t 2  t1
c. 30° d. 60°
SS N SS
(13  2)iˆ  (14  3) ˆj N

50 (1) d (2) a
(3) b (4) c
11iˆ  11 ˆj 1 ˆ ˆ
  (i  j ) Answer (4)
5 5
M1 = m 2
7 4
125. The binding energy per nucleon of 3 Li and 2 He
nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In m
Sol. a.
the nuclear reaction 73 Li  11 H  42 He  24 He  Q , the
value of energy Q released is m
m
(1) 17.3 MeV (2) 19.6 MeV   ⇒ M2 = 0
b. 
m

(3) –2.4 MeV (4) 8.4 MeV
Answer (1) m

Sol. Q = 2(BE of He) — (BE of Li) c. 30°

= 2 × (4 × 7.06) — (7 × 5.60) m
= 56.48 – 39.2 = 17.3 MeV M 3  m (1  cos 30)2

126. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting  3

surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of  m  1  2 m 2 3
 2 
incidence 2A on the first surface returns back
through the same path after suffering reflection at the m
silvered surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism is
d. 60°
(1) tan A (2) 2sin A
m
1 M4 = 2 mcos30°  m 3
(3) 2 cos A (4) cos A
2

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128. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with 130. In the Young's double-slit experiement, the intensity
a velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle θ with the horizontal. of light at a point on the screen where the path
Another projectile fired from another planet with a difference is λ is K, (λ being the wavelength of light
velocity of 3 ms –1 at the same angle follows a used). The intensity at a point where the path
trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the 
difference is , will be
projectile fired from the earth. The value of the 4
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms–2) (1) Zero (2) K
is (given g = 9.8 ms–2)
(1) 110.8 (2) 3.5 K K
(3) (4)
4 2
(3) 5.9 (4) 16.3
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
Sol. Path difference λ means maxima Imax = K
2
gx
Sol. y  x tan    2  1
2 u2 cos 2  I  K cos 2  K cos 2    
2   4 2
For equal trajectories for same angle of projection
 K
 K cos 2 
g 4 2
 constant
u2 131. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal
surface is represented by the equation,
9.8 g
  X = Acos(ωt)
52 32
where X = displacement at time t
9.8  9 ω = frequency of oscillation
g   3.528 m/s2  3.5 m/s2
25
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly
129. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated the variation a with t?
by the force-time graph shown below. The change in
momentum of the particle over the time interval from
a
zero to 8 s is
O T t
(1)

6
3
F (N)

a
0
2 4 6 8 O
–3 (2) T t
t (s)

a
(1) 6 Ns (2) 24 Ns
O T t
(3) 20 Ns (4) 12 Ns (3)

Answer (4)

Sol. Change in momentum = Area below the F versus t

graph in that interval a
O T t
(4)
1 
   2  6   (2  3)  (4  3)
 2 
Here a = acceleration at time t
= 6 – 6 + 12 = 12 Ns
T = time period

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Answer (4) Answer (1)
Sol.
Sol. X = Acosωt
P
C B
3 P0
a
2 P0 E
O t
P0 D
A
V0 2V0 V
W = Area of BCE + Area of ADE

dx = –W0 + W0 = 0
v   A sin t
dt 134. A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source
falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away.
d 2x The distance between first dark fringes on either side
a   A 2 cos t
dt 2 of the central bright fringe is
(1) 2.4 mm
132. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q.
The electric potential and the electric field at the (2) 1.2 cm
centre of the sphere respectively are (3) 1.2 mm
Q (4) 2.4 cm
(1) Both are zero (2) Zero and 4 R2
0
Answer (1)
Q Q Q
(3) 4 R and zero (4) 4 R and 4 R2 Sol. Distance between 1st order dark fringes = width of
0 0 0 principal max
Answer (3)
2 D 2  600  10 9  2
x 
Q d 10 3
Sol. Electric potential, V 
40 R
= 2400 × 10–6
Electric field E = 0. = 2.4 × 10–3m = 2.4 mm
133. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process 135. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD
ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the are placed at right angle to each other, with one
system in the cycle is above other such that O is their common point for
the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents,
respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O
P along a direction perpendicular to the plane
C B containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point
3 P0
P will be
2 P0
0 2 2
 
1/2
(1) I1  I 2
P0 D 2 d
A
V0 2V0 V
0  I1 
(2) 2 d  I 
(1) Zero  2
(2) P0 V0
0
(3) 2P0 V0 (3) ( I1  I 2 )
2 d
P0V0
(4) 0 2
2 (4) (i1  I 22 )
2 d

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Answer (1) Answer (4)
Sol. Sol. Fact.
139. Which of the following statements is correct for the
I1
spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
B2
d (1) ΔS is positive and, therefore, ΔH should also be
I2 B1 highly positive
(2) ΔS is negative and, therefore, ΔH should be
highly positive
(3) ΔS is negative and therefore, ΔH should be highly
0 2 1

B B B  2
1
2
2
2 d
 I 1  I 22  2 negative
(4) ΔS is positive and, therefore, ΔH should be
136. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken
negative
in a container of volume V at temperature 27°C in
identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of Answer (3)
gases H2 : O2 : methane would be Sol. For adsorption ΔS = –ve, ΔH = –ve.
(1) 8 : 1 : 2 (2) 8 : 16 : 1
140. When 0.1 mol MnO 2–
4 is oxidised the quantity of
(3) 16 : 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 : 2
electricity required to completely oxidise MnO 2–
4 to
Answer (4)
Sol. Ratio or moles (volume) MnO–4 is

W W W (1) 96.50 C (2) 96500 C

⇒ : :
2 32 16 (3) 2 × 96500 C (4) 9650 C
⇒ 16 : 1 : 2 Answer (4)
137. Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic 7 6
1F
addition reaction? Sol. MnO 24   MnO 42 
1 mole

CHO
∴ For 0.1 mole 0.1 F is required.

CHO 141. Which one of the following is an example of a

(1) (2) thermosetting polymer?
NO2
OH OH
CH2 CH2
CHO (1)
n
COCH3
(3) (4)
—
(CH2 — C = CH — CH2—
)n
CH3 (2)
Cl

Answer (1) —
(CH2 — CH)—
n
(3)
Sol. Electron withdrawing group i.e., –NO 2 favours Cl
nucleophilic attack.
H H O O
138. Which of the following molecules has the maximum
(4)
dipole moment? —
(N — (CH2)6 — N — C — (CH2)4 — C)—
n

(1) NF3 (2) CO2 Answer (1)

(3) CH4 (4) NH3 Sol. Novolac is thermosetting polymer.

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142. Which one of the following species has plane Answer (3)
triangular shape?
Sol. Fact.
(1) CO2 (2) N 3
146. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in
water?
(3) NO–3 (4) NO–2
(1) CuSO4 (2) KCl
Answer (3)
(3) NaCl (4) Na2CO3
–
O Answer (4)
N Sol. Salt of strong base and weak acid.
Sol.
O O 147. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light
of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h = 6.63 ×
N is sp2 hybrid and no lone pair. 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
143. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium (1) 4.42 × 10–18 (2) 6.67 × 1015
salt RN 2 X – ? (3) 6.67 × 1011 (4) 4.42 × 10–15
Answer (1)
(1) C 6 H 5 CH 2 N 2 X – (2) CH 3 N 2 X –

 –  – hc 6.63  10–34  3  108

(3) C 6 H 5 N 2 X (4) CH 3 CH 2 N 2 X Sol. E  
 45  10–9
Answer (3)
= 4.42 × 10–10 J
Sol. Resonance stabilization
148. D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields
144. In the following reaction, the product (A) an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be
+
N  NCl– NH2 CH = NOH CH = NOH
H – C – OH H – C – OH
H+
+ (A) HO – C – H HO – C – H
Yellow dye
(1) H – C – OH (2) HO – C – H
is H – C – OH
H – C – OH
CH2OH CH2OH
(1) N=N NH2

CH = NOH CH = NOH
(2) N = N – NH HO – C – H HO – C – H
HO – C – H H – C – OH
NH2 (3) H – C – OH (4) HO – C – H
(3) N=N H – C – OH H – C – OH
CH2OH CH2OH
NH2
Answer (1)
(4) N=N
Sol. Glucoxime is formed.

Answer (1) 149. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic
conditions gives :
Sol. Major product is formed by para attack.
(1) Mn4+ and MnO2
145. Which of the following complexes is used to be as
an anticancer agent? (2) Mn4+ and O2

(1) Na2CoCl4 (2) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3] (3) Mn2+ and O2

(3) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2] (4) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2] (4) Mn2+ and O3

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Answer (3) 154. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K′p are the
equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2,
Sol. 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +
respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is
8H2O + 5O2
constant in temperature range between T1 and T2, it
150. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a is readily observed that
quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2
at STP will be 1
(1) K p  (2) K p  K p
K p
(1) 108.0 g (2) 5.4 g
(3) 10.8 g (4) 54.0 g (3) K p  K p (4) K p  K p
Answer (1) Answer (2)

5600 Sol. Assuming T2 > T1.

Sol. WO2   32 = 8 g = 1 equivalents
22400 155. Among the following sets of reactants which one
= 1 equivalent of Ag produces anisole?

= 108 g (1) C6H5 – CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3

151. Which one of the following is not a common (2) CH3CHO; RMgX
component of Photochemical Smog?
(3) C6H5OH; NaOH; CH3I
(1) Chlorofluorocarbons
(4) C6H5OH; neutral FeCl3
(2) Ozone
Answer (3)
(3) Acrolein
(4) Peroxyacetyl nitrate OH ONa OCH3

Answer (1) Sol. NaOH CH3Br

Sol. Fact.
152. Which of the following compounds will undergo 156. Which of the following hormones is produced under
racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses? the condition of stress which stimulates
glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
CH2Cl
(1) Estradiol (2) Thyroxin
(i) (ii) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(3) Insulin (4) Adrenaline
Answer (4)
CH3 CH3
Sol. Fact
(iii) H 3C CH CH2Cl (iv) C
H Cl 157. (a) H2O2 + O3 → H2O + 2O2
C2H5
(b) H2O2 + Ag2O → 2Ag + H2O + O2
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i) and (ii) Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv) respectively

Answer (No answer) (1) Oxidizing in (a) and (b)

153. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is (2) Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)
(1) Decreasing screening effect (3) Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)
(2) Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals (4) Reducing in (a) and (b)
(3) Increasing nuclear charge Answer (2)
(4) Decreasing nuclear charge
Sol. (a) H2O2 is reduced.
Answer (2)
(b) Ag2O is reduced.
Sol. Fact.

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158. Which property of colloids is not dependent on the Answer (3)
charge on colloidal particles? Sol. μ = 2.83 BM, unpaired electrons = 2
(1) Tyndall effect (2) Coagulation
+2 = 3d8 =
28Ni
(3) Electrophoresis (4) Electro-osmosis
164. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed
Answer (1)
vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how
Sol. Tyndall effect is an optical phenomenon. much?
159. Among the following complexes the one which (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)
is (1) O2, 0.28 g (2) Mg, 0.16 g
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (3) O2, 0.16 g (4) Mg, 0.44 g
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]2+ Answer (2)
Answer (3) Sol. 24 g Mg requires 16 g oxygen
Sol. Fe+3 = d5 = t32geg2 , CFSE = 0. ∴ 0.56 g oxygen requires 0.84 g Mg
160. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium
∴ Mg left = 0.16 g
hydrogen carbonate?
(1) Benzenesulphonic acid 165. The pair of compounds that can exist together is

(2) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol (1) FeCl3, KI (2) FeCl3, SnCl2

(3) Benzoic acid (3) HgCl2, SnCl2 (4) FeCl2, SnCl2

(4) o-Nitrophenol Answer (4)
Answer (4) Sol. Sn+2 cannot reduce Fe+2.
Sol. o-nitrophenol is weaker acid than HCO3–. 166. For the reaction, X2O4(l) ⎯→ 2XO2(g)
161. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which ΔU = 2.1 kcal, ΔS = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K
one will exhibit the largest freezing point
Hence, ΔG is
depression?
(1) –9.3 kcal
(1) K2SO4 (2) KCl
(2) 2.7 kcal
(3) C6H12O6 (4) Al2(SO4)3
(3) –2.7 kcal
Answer (4)
Sol. Van't Hoff factor of Al2(SO4)3 is maximum i.e., 5. (4) 9.3 kcal

162. If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance Answer (3)
between the body centered atom and one corner atom Sol. ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT = 3.300 kCal
in the cube will be
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = –2.700 kCal
3 2
(1) a (2) a 167. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2 O7–2 to CrO5
2 3
which has two (—O—O—) bonds. Oxidation state of
4 3 Cr in CrO5 is
(3) a (4) a
3 4 (1) –10
Answer (1) (2) +5
(3) +3
3a
Sol. Half of body diagonal, .
2 (4) +6
163. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the Answer (4)
following ions?
O
(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28) O O
+6
Sol.
Cr
(1) Mn2+ (2) Ti3+
O O
(3) Ni2+ (4) Cr3+

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168. For the reversible reaction, 173. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be
identified with the following quantum numbers?
 2NH 3 (g)  Heat
N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g) 
n = 3, l = l, ml = 0
The equilibrium shifts in forward direction
(1) 4 (2) 1
(1) By increasing pressure and decreasing
temperature (3) 2 (4) 3
(2) By increasing the concentration of NH3(g) Answer (2)
(3) By decreasing the pressure Sol. Orbital is 3pz.
(4) By decreasing the concentrations of N2(g) and 174. Identity Z in the sequence of reactions,
H2(g)
HBr/H O C H ONa
Answer (1) CH3CH2CH = CH2 
2 2
 Y 
2 5
 Z
Sol. Le chatelier's principle. (1) CH3CH2 – CH(CH3) – O – CH2CH3
169. Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold (2) CH3 – (CH2)3 – O – CH2CH3
conditions only is
(3) (CH3)2CH2 – O – CH2CH3
(1) Alitame (2) Saccharine
(4) CH3(CH2)4 – O – CH3
(3) Sucralose (4) Aspartame
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
HBr/H2O2
Sol. Aspartame decomposes at cooking temperature. Sol. CH3– CH2CH = CH2 CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2
(Y)
170. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is Br
correctly represented?
CH3–(CH2) 3–O–CH2–CH3
(1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3– (2) H– > H+ > H (Z)
(3) Na+ > F– > O2– (4) F– > O2– > Na+
175. Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG° = +63.3 kJ, for
Answer (No answer) the following reaction,
Sol. All answer are incorrect.
 2Ag  (aq)  CO 23  (aq)
Ag 2 CO 3 (s) 
171. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of
Cl2(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal the Ksp of Ag2CO3(s) in water at 25°C is
to
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
(1) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)
(1) 7.9 × 10–2 (2) 3.2 × 10–26
(2) 1 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 8.0 × 10–12 (4) 2.9 × 10–3
(3) 2 mol of HCl(g)
Answer (3)
(4) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
Sol. ΔG° = –2.303 RT log Ksp
Answer (2)
63300 = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log Ksp
Sol. H2 + Cl2 ⎯→ 2HCl
Ksp = 8 × 10–12
Initial 22.4 L 11.2 L 0
Final 11.2 L 0 22.4 L = 1 mole 176. Which of the following organic compounds has same
hybridization as its combustion product
172. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions? –(CO2)?
(1) Mg2+ (1) Ethanol (2) Ethane
(2) H+ (3) Ethyne (4) Ethene
(3) Li+ Answer (3)
(4) Na+
Sol. Product Reactant
Answer (3)
OCO H – C  C– H
Sol. Both Be2+ and Li+1 have two electrons. sp sp sp

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177. Which of the following organic compounds
polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron? CH3 CH3
Br
(1) Benzoic acid and para HO — (C6H4) — OH
(2) and
(2) Propylene and para HO — (C6H4) — OH
CH3 CH3
(3) Benzoic acid and ethanol Br
(4) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
Answer (4) CH3 CH3
Sol. Fact. Br Br
178. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions (3) and
increases in the order CH3 CH3
(1) H2Se < H2Te < H2S
(2) H2S < H2Se < H2Te CH3 CH3
(3) H2Se < H2S < H2Te Br
(4) H2Te < H2S < H2Se (4) and

Answer (2) CH3 CH3

Br
Sol. Bond length increases from H2S to H2Te.
179. What products are formed when the following Answer (4)
compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of Sol. –CH3 group is o, p-directing.
FeBr3?
180. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen
CH3 present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4.
The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is
CH3 (1) 43.33 (2) 37.33
(3) 45.33 (4) 35.33
CH3 CH3
Answer (2)

(1) and 1.4  N  V 1.4  10  2

Sol. %N = = = 37.33%
CH3 Br CH3 w 0.75
Br



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