POB MOCK TEST -1

1) Primary dealers also known as PDs, deal in

a) Shares and Stocks
b) Mutual Funds
c) Bancassurance products
d) Government Securities

.
2) Urban Cooperative Banks are controlled by
a) State governments and RBI
b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and State
Governments
c) State governments and RBI and Sponsoring Public sector bank
d) None

.
3) The Central Bank provides liquidity support on a temporary basis through the facilityof
a) MSF
b) REPO
c) Reverse Repo
d) Collatarised Borrowing Scheme

.
4) Which of the following policy rate is the prescribed percentage of Demand and Time liabilities of a
bank to be held in prescribed securities, mostly government
securities/Gold/Cash?
a) CRR
b) SLR
c) Bank Rate
d) MSF

.
5) Equity and Debt Market in India is regulated by ........
a) RBI
b) Ministry Of Finance
c) SEBI
d) All
.

6) Whom among the following hold securities in demat form?

a) Depository Participant(DP)
b) Depository
c) Certifying and Registering Authority(VRA)
d) SEBI

.
7) Which of the following entity was set up in 1994 to oversee the Indian Financial
System, comprising not only commercial banks, state cooperative banks, but also the All India Financial
Institutions (AIFIs) and Non-Banking Finance Companies
(NBFCs).?
a) Central Board of Directors(CBD)
b) RBI
c) Board of Financial Supervision (BFS)
d) IDBI

.
8) which of the following specialised financial institutions has not been created by RBI?
a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
b) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (DICGC)
c) National Housing Bank(NHB)
d) MUDRA bank

.
9) According to new rules, the floor rate and ceiling rate of CRR is.....
a) 3-15
b) 5-15
c) 2-18
d) No floor or ceiling rate
.
10) Whom among the following were the first Indian to assume office of Governor of RBI?
a) Benegal Rama Rau
b) C. D. Deshmukh
c) K G Ambegaonkar
d) H V R Iengar
.

11) The failure of Laxmi Bank and the subsequent failure of the Palai Central Bank in 1960 catalyzed the
introduction of which of the following scheme in Indian Banking system?
a) Banks Nationalisation
b) Lead Bank Scheme
c) Credit Authorisation Scheme
d) Deposit insurance

.
12) which of the following organisation was established as a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India with
the purpose of providing long term industrial finance and later took over business of Refinance
Corporationof India in September, 1964?
a) ICICI Ltd
b) IDBI Ltd
c) IFCI Ltd
d) Development Credit Bank of India(DCB)

.
13) National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM) is located at
a) Mumbai
b) HYDERABAD
c) Pune
d) Kolkata

.
14) Which of the following is a a money market institution?
a) The Discount and Finance House of India
b) SEBI
c) NHB
d) LIC

.
15) Which among the following is the Housinf Finance Regulator?
a) HUDCO
b) HDFC
c) NHB
d) RBI
.

16) Certificates of Deposit (CDs) and Commercial Paper (CPs) are the instruments widely used in which
of the following Financial Sector market?
a) Credit Market
b) Stock Market
c) Corporate Debt Market
d) Money Market

.
17) phased reduction in the SLR and CRR,accounting standards,, income recognition norms and capital
adequacy norms are some of the key recommendations of which of the following Committee?
a) S. Chakravarty Committee
b) Raga Rajan Committee
c) All-India Rural Credit Survey Committee
d) Narsimahmam Committee

.
18) Which of the following committe report lead to the establishment of SBI?
a) Narsimahmam Committee
b) S.CHAKRAVARTHY Committee
c) All India Rural Survey Committee
d) RBI

.
19) Insider trading is a term, relting to.......
a) Stock Market
b) Money MARKET
c) Forex Market
d) Debt Market

.
20) The minimum rate for all loans, that banks are permitted to resort to any lending but not below this
rate.....
a) Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)
b) Bank Rate
c) Repo Rate
d) Base Rate
.
21) Committee on Reform of the Insurance Sector' was headed by
a) RN Malhotra
b) B.Natarajan
c) S. Chakravarty
d) Narasimham

.
22) The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest
(SARFAESI Act) came in to force in the year.....
a) 2000
b) 2006
c) 2002
d) 2009

.
23) Interest Rate Swaps (IRS) and Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs) are
a) OTC derivatives
b) Forex instruments
c) FII realted terms
d) FDI realted terms
.
24) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Limited established as a fully owned subsidiary of the Reserve
bank. has it's Bank note press at
a) Mysore
b) Dewas
c) Nashik
d) Noida

.
25) The Reserve Bank facilitates remittance of funds from a bank's surplus account at one
location to its deficit account at another. Such transfers are electronically routed
through a computerized system called
a) RTGS
b) NEFT
c) e-Kuber
d) ECS
.

26) Which of the following satements are true

1. Banks are required to maintain a portion of theirNet Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) as cash
reserves (CRR) with the Reserve Bank
2. CRR does not earn them any interest to Banks
3. banks have to adhere to a requirement of 95 per cent of CRR daily (including on
Saturdays) and 100 per cent on a fortnightly basis
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) All are correct
.
27) RBI is empowered to increase SLR ratio up to
a) 50% of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
b) 40% Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
c) 30% Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
d) 60% Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)

.
28) According to Banking Companies Act of 1949 which of the following Banks were exempted from
keeping CRR?
a) Local Area Banks(LABs)
b) Urban Cooperative Banks(UCBs)
c) RRBs
d) Any bank given special exemption by RBI
.
29) Which of the following scheme enables Banks to borrow up to 1% of their respective Net Demand
and Time Liabilities"?
a) Repo Rate
b) Bank rate or Rediscounting rate
c) Base rate
d) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF):
.

30)b)There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used inthe formulation and implementation
of monetary policy. RBI's framework is basedon a
a) Qualitative approach
b) Selective approach
c) Multiple indicator approach
d) Quantitative approach

.
31) Which is that credit control tool that RBI uses widely for infusion or absorption of liquidity on a
repurchase basis, through repo (liquidity injection) and reverse repo (liquidity absorption) auction
operations, using government securities as collateral?
a) Qualitative Credit Control
b) Quantitative Credit Control
c) Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS)
d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

.
32) RBI issues licenses to banks and other institutions to act as ......................... in the foreign exchange
market
a) Primary Dealers
b) Authorized Dealers
c) Forex Dealers
d) Denovo dealers

.
33) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) and Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs)
are governed by
a) FDI guidelines
b) FII guidelines
c) External Commercial Borrowings(ECB) guidelines
d) FEMA act
.

34) Which of the following satements are true

1. NABARD supervises Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) as well as State and District
Rural cooperative Banks.
2. NHB regulates housing finance companies
3. SIDBI regulates the State Finance Corporations (SFCs)
4. Rural Cooperative banks, which, except in terms of their ownership structure, are very much, like other
banks. Their management is largely left to the Registrar of cooperatives of the state and statutory
supervision to NABARD.
a) 1,2,3 are correct
b) 1,3,4 are correct
c) 2,3,4 are correct
d) All are correct

.
35) Factoring is sometimes called
a) Accounts receivable financing
b) Book Debts financing
c) NPA financing
d) Deficit financing

.
36) Maximum Interest Rate payable on public deposits by NBFCs should be
a) 13.5 per cent per annum
b) 14.5 per cent per annum
c) 10.5 per cent per annum
d) 12.5 per cent per annum

.
37) The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed by the
Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act. It is Appointed/nominated for a
period of....
a) 6 years
b) 5 years
c) 4 years
d) 3 years
.

38) Which of the following is/are Fully owned subsidiaries of RBI?

a) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India(DICGC) Mumbai
b) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited(BRBNMPL) Mysore
c) National Housing Bank(NHB)
d) All
.
39) ASBA (Applications Supported by Blocked Amount) is a process developed by the Stock Market
Regulator SEBI enabling the investors to apply for shares in Initial Public Offering (IPO)....
a) without their bank account debited until shares are allotted to them
b) without having Demat Account
c) without paying any application fee
d) without having to specifically mentioning shares likely to buy

.
40) Based on the findings of the inspection by RBI , banks are assigned supervisory ratings based on the
CAMELS rating. In the acronym CAMELS, 'A' stands for.....
a) Amortisation
b) Asset Quality
c) Adequacy of Capital
d) Absolute Asset

.
41) Off Site Surveillance and Monitoring System by RBI is known as......
a) CAMELS
b) OSMOS
c) Prudential Norms
d) CFT

.
42) Section 5 (b) of Banking Regulation Act 1949 defines the term
a) NBFC
b) Bank
c) BANKING
d) Financial Institution(FI)
.

43) Licensing of foreign banks BY rbi is done U/S ......of BR Act, 1949
a) Section 20
b) Section 21
c) Section 22
d) Section 23
44) Maximum permissable foreign investment in a private bank in India as permitted by
RBI is........
a) 49%
b) 51%
c) 60%
d) 74%
.
45) Every commercial Bank must transfer...........percaentage of their net profits to a Statutory Reserve
Fund every
year mandatorily
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 40%
.
46) As per new Licencing policy of RBI,Entities/groups in the private sector, entities in public sector and
non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) shall be eligible to set up a bank through a ........
a) Non-operative financial holding Trust (NOFHT)
b) Non-operative financial holding Society(NOFHS)
c) Non-operative financial holding company (NOFHC)
d) Non-operative financial holding Entity (NOFHE)

.
47) short-term co-operative credit structure in India operates with a
a) Two-tier system
b) three-tier system
c) Four-tier system
d) Multi-tier system
.

48) Powers have been delegated to National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) to
conduct inspection of State and Central Cooperative Banks. This mandate is as per ....
a) Sec 35-A of the Banking Regulation Act
b) Sec 35-A of the Banking Regulation Act (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies)
c) Sec 25-A of the Banking Regulation Act (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies)
d) Sec 25-A of the Banking Regulation Act

.
49) The consolidation and merging process of RRBs is recommended by
a) Tondon Committee
b) Chakravarthy Committee
c) V S Vyas Committee
d) All the above

.
50) On 23 September 2013, Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services for Small Businesses and
Low Income Households, headed by Nachiket Mor has recommended the formation of a new category of
bank called....
a) Ultra Small Banks(USBs)
b) Local Area Banks(LABs)
c) Payments banks
d) Small Finance Banks(SFBs)

.
51) A short-term interest bearing 90 days tenure advances made by RBI – to the
Governments, to meet temporary liquidity shortages is known as......
a) Gilt Funds
b) Traesury Bills
c) Government Securities(G-SECs)
d) Ways and Means Advances (WMA)

.
52) The Reserve Bank established this board to encourage transparency in lending and fair pricing and
customer servicing
a) Board of Finacial Supervision(BFS)
b) Banking Ombudsman
c) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
d) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
.

53) Currently how many Banking Ombudsmen are being operational covering 29 states.of
India?
a) 20
b) 18
c) 15
d) 19

.
54) The targets and sub-targets set under priority sector lending(PSL) for all scheduled commercial banks
are calculated on .......
a) Adjusted Net Bank Credit [ANBC]
b) Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure
c) Either Adjusted Net Bank Credit [ANBC] or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-
Balance Sheet Exposure
d) Adjusted Net Bank Credit [ANBC] or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure,
whichever is higher.

.
55) Within the 18 percent PSL target for agriculture, how much sub target is prescribed for Small and
Marginal Farmers, which is to be achieved in a phased manner by 2017?
a) 8 percent
b) 6 percent
c) 4 percent
d) 2 percent

.
56) What is the total Priority Sector Lending target for Foreign banks with 20 branches and
above?
a) 32 percent
b) 34 percent
c) 36 percent
d) 40 percent
.

57) Which of the following refers to sale or purchase of government securities by RBI in the open market
with a view to increase or decrease the liquidity in the banking
system?
a) Repo
b) Reverse Repo
c) Liquidity Adjustment Fecility(LAF)
d) Open Market Operations (OMOs)

.
58) Banks provide preshipment finance in the form of
a) Export Packing Credit (EPC)
b) Export Bill Negotiation
c) Export Bill Purchase and Discounting
d) Letter of Credit(LC)

.
59) EEFC stands for
a) Exchange Earnings Foreign Currency a/c
b) Exchange Earnest Foreign Currency a/c
c) Exchange Earners Foreign Currency a/c
d) Exchange Eqated Foreign Currency a/c

60) Offering all types of financial products like banking, insurance, mutual funds, capital market related
products-all at one place is known as.....
a) All in All Banking
b) Whole sale Banking
c) Unique Banking
d) Universal Banking

.
61) A type of negotiable (transferable) financial instrument that is traded on a local stock exchange of a
country but represents a security, usually in the form of equity/Share that is issued by a foreign company?
a) Depository Instrument(DI)
b) Depository Receipt (DR)
c) Diverse Receipt (DR)
d) Depository Investor (DI)
.

62) A type of contract notes which are issued by registered Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) to
entities /Investors that want to invest in the Indian stock market but do not want to register themselves
with the SEBI is known as ........
a) Depository Receipt (DR)
b) ADR
c) GDR
d) Participatory notes

.
63) The process which refers to the transition process of a stock exchange from a 'mutually
owned' association to a 'shareholders-owned' company is......
a) Mutualisation
b) Corporatisation
c) Denovation
d) Demutualisation

.
64) Red Herring Prospectus is a prospectus
a) which is issued in red colour
b) which contains some clauses in red colour
c) which does not have details of either price or number of shares being offered or the amount of issue
d) Information regarding Rights Issue/Shares issue

.
65) As per SEBI guidelines, in a Book Building process the cap in the price band
a) should be at least 10 per cent of the floor price
b) should not be more than 20 per cent of the floor price
c) no limits
d) None

.
66) As per SEBI guidelines, any entity/person engaged in the marketing and selling ofmutual fund
products is required to pass a certification test and obtain a registration number from
a) SEBI
b) NSE
c) AMFI
d) No test required
.

67) The primary legislation that deals with insurance business in India is
a) Insurance Act, 1938
b) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999
c) Both Insurance Act, 1938 and IRDA Act, 1999
d) IRDAI act 2000

.
68) The type of arrangement under which a bank pays the seller the value of the bill and later collects it
from the buyer on the due date is called
a) Bill discounting
b) Factoring
c) Forfeiting
d) None

.
69) Letter of Credit is issued as per
a) Indian Contract Act
b) Negotiable Instruments Act
c) Transfer of Property Act
d) UCP 600 standards

.
70) Forfaiting enables the exporter to avoid the following risks
a) interest-rate risk
b) currency risk
c) credit risk and political risk
d) all

.
71) Forfaiting provides to the exporter against receivables
a) 100 per cent financing
b) 80 per cent financing
c) depending on the contract with the forfaiter
d) none.
.

72) Under the Basel I Accord,only the credit risk element was considered and the minimum requirement
of capital funds was fixed at ..............of the total risk weighted assets called Capital-To-Risk-Weighted
Asset Ratio (CRAR)
a) 8 per cent
b) 9 per cent
c) 10 per cent
d) 15 per cent

.
73) Operational risk is the risk of loss arising from various types of
a) human error
b) failed systems and procedures in the bank
c) breakdown in internal controls
d) all of the above

.
74) In case of receipt of request for transfer of borrowal account, the consent or objection of the lender, if
any, should be conveyed within
a) twenty-one days from the date of receipt of request
b) fifteen days from the date of receipt of request
c) immediately on receipt of request
d) none

.
75) The 'Bankers' Fair Practice' code was brought out in June 2004 by
a) IBA
b) RBI
c) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
d) Government of India

.
76) If the banker provides safe deposit lockers to the customers who hire them on lease basis. The
relationship therefore, is that of
a) Pawner and pawnee
b) lessor and lessee
c) Trustee and beneficiary
d) None
.

77) One of the ancillary services rendered by the bank is remittance, collection of cheques, bills, etc. on
behalf of the customers.This service relatiionship of a banker and customer is like........
a) AGENT-PRINCIPAL
b) INDEMNIFIER AND INDEMNIFIED
c) LESSOR AND LESSEE
d) BAILEE-BAILOR
.
78) What relationship is created when the bank collects a cheque in clearing?
a) holder for value
b) clearing member and principal
c) agent and principal
d) collecting bank and holder

.
79) A cheque drawn for Rajkumar or order is stolen. The thief made endorsement as Rajkumar on the
cheque in his favour. The cheque is presented in clearing and paid by bank. True owner later on sent legal
notice to bank. What is the liability of the bank?
a) the paying bank will get protection under N.I. Act as it is a endorsed cheque
b) forgery does not give any rights to bank, hence liable
c) under section 85, the paying bank is liable
d) under section 131, the paying bank is liable

.
80) A credit voucher for Rs. 44,444 favouring Tarun was wrongly posted to Varun by the bank, the
relationship established by bank with Varun is of
a) trustee and beneficiary
b) debtor and guarantor
c) creditor and indemnifier
d) creditor and debtor

.
81) Banker's lien is an / a
a) bailment of goods
b) implied pledge
c) agreement
d) an stoppage
.

82) Person to whom power of attorney is given is called ----- and who gives it is called -----
a) debtor-creditor
b) bailor-bailee
c) pawner-pawnee
d) donor-donee

.
83) Payment in 'due course' means
a) Payment made on on due date
b) Payment made in accordance with apparent tenor of the instrument
c) Payment made in accordance with apparent signature and specimen
d) Payment made despite insufficient funds

.
84) Sans recourse means
a) without fear
b) without liability to anyone
c) without liability to me
d) without liability to payee

.
85) A bank on whom a cheque is drawn by the customer is
a) collecting bank
b) paying bank
c) advising bank
d) issuing bank

.
86) Section 26 of the N.I. Act provides that a minor may draw, endorse, deliver and negotiate a negotiable
instrument and as such, a minor can draw a cheque. Ordinarily, balances in such accounts are subject to a
maximum amount and age of the minor should be above
a) 10 years
b) 12 years
c) 13years
d) 14 years
.

87) On the death of any of the joint account holders, who are entitled to the whole amount
in his Account?
a) His Heirs
b) His Nominees
c) survivors of the joint Account
d) Bank

.
88) Who has an implied authority to avail loan and execute the necessary documents on behalf of a Hindu
undivided family (HUF)?
a) Karta of HUF
b) All Adult members of HUF
c) Co parcenaries of HUF
d) None

.
89) In case of any internal dispute among partners, if any of them gives notice of stoppage of operation in
thier Account, then the bank would allow operation of account by
a) all partners jointly
b) By Court appointed partner
c) Altogether stops Account
d) As per new partnership deed

.
90) Delegation of powers under a trust is
a) Possible
b) Not possible
c) On Beneficiary's permission
d) on Charity commissioner's permission

.
91) Two or more minors if desirous of opening a bank a/c whether they can open as
a) Either or Survivor
b) Jointly
c) Cannot open
d) can open with a major
.

92) A customer is entitled to issuance of a duplicate DD in place of the lost one, provided
a) he gives due intimation to the issuing branch
b) payment of DD not already made by the drawee branch
c) execution of an indemnity Bond
d) All above

.
93) Cardinal principles of lending are
a) Safety and liquidity
b) profitability and diversification of risks
c) purpose and security
d) All of (i) to (iii)
.
94) Working capital means
a) Capital Requirements for the day-to-day transactions
b) Excess of current assets over current liabilities
c) Fixed assets - Current assets
d) None of above

.
95) Term loan means
a) Payable after one year to ten years
b) Repayments are done in instalments
c) Term loans are utilised for acquisition of fixed assets
d) All of above

.
96) Housing Loans granted to individuals up to Rs.----- for construction of houses
(excluding loans granted by banks to their employees) are treated as priority sector
advances
a) 5 lakh
b) 10 lakh
c) 20 lakh
d) 15 lakh
.

97) Educational loans granted to individuals for educational purposes up to Rs................for studies in
India, will be classified as priority sector
a) 7.5 lakh
b) 10 lakh
c) 15 lakh
d) 20 lakh

.
98) A micro enterprise in manufacturing sector is one where the investment in plant and machinery does
not exceed Rs.................
a) Rs. 10 lakh
b) Rs. 20 lakh
c) Rs. 25 lakh
d) Rs. 50 lakh

.
99) When banks give home loans, the nature of charge created is
a) Hypothecation
b) Mortgage
c) Assignment
d) Pledge

.
100) As per the Stamp Act, a document executed in India shall be stamped
a) only before execution
b) at any time, but before filing suit
c) within 30 days after execution
d) before or at the time of execution

.
101) One of the following statements is not true in the right of set-off.
a) Set-off means partial or total merging of a claim of one person against another in a counter claim of the
latter against the former.
b) Both debts must be for certain sum
c) A debt accruing due cannot be set-off.
d) A banker can set-off the credit balance in the guarantor's account before the
liability of the guarantor to the bank is determined.
.

102) The nature of charge created while advancing against LIC policies is
a) Assignment
b) Lien
c) Pledge
d) Set-off

.
103) Documents of title to goods has been defined in
a) Indian Contract Act
b) Negotiable Instruments Act
c) Transfer of Property Act
d) Sale of Goods Act.

.
104) In the terms of Section 19(2) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, 'no bankingcompany shall hold
shares in any company, whether as pledgee, mortgagee or absolute owner, of an amount exceeding thirty
per cent of the paid-up share capital of that company or thirty per cent of its ----- , whichever is less'.
Shares held in a demat form should also be included for the purposes of determining the exposure limit
a) own paid up share capital and reserves
b) tangible net worth
c) risk weighted assets
d) paid-up capital

.
105) In star topology
a) Each node is joined to the central node by a separate link
b) Devices are connected in a closed loop
c) Information is passed from one node to the another in series
d) Devices on the network are connected to a single continuous cable

.
106) In Core banking system
a) Branches are connected to a central host
b) Branch automation modules and delivery channels are incorporated
c) Transactions are done centrally and online
d) All of above
.

107) Cheque truncation can be done by

a) using MICR data
b) using electronic image of the cheque and processing it at CTS centre
c) using data processing
d) None

.
108) MODEM does the following
a) modulates digital signals into analog
b) demodulates analogue signals into digital
c) both (a) and (b)
d) converts data into image

.
109) The committee which has recommended for establishment of data warehouse is known as
a) Vasudevan Committee
b) Rangarajan Committee
c) Saraf Committee
d) Shere Committee

.
110) The universal set of standards for Electronic Dat Interchange( EDI) is known as
a) EDI
b) BIS
c) EDIFACT
d) ISO

.
111) IS audit for the software used is carried out by CAATT. This type is known as:
a) The audit around the computer
b) The audit through the computer
c) The audit with the computer
d) All of above
.

112) This gives added value to products (is part of the product) in an attempt to augment their products
with values and associations that are recognised by and are meaningful to their customers:
a) Promotion
b) Brand
c) Product
d) Price

.
113) This sets out what an organization wants to become
a) Marketing objectives
b) Mission statement
c) Vision statement
d) Marketing Strategy

.
114) SWOT is an acronym for
a) Strategy, working, opinion, tactical
b) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
c) Strategy, work, openness, toughness
d) Strategy, weakness, opinions, tactics

.
115) . When a market is dominated by a strong competitor and that leader does not want to enter some
small segments of market, what would be the most suitable objective for another competitor in the
market?
a) Niche
b) Hold
c) Harvest
d) Divest
.

116) In the famous book "The Fortune at the Bottom of the Pyramid: Eradicating Poverty through Profits"
of C K Prahalad, who recently died, the "Bottom of the Pyramid" refers to the poorest of the poor people.
The Financial Pyramid is inspired by which of the following _____?
a) The Pyramid Theory of Heinrich
b) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
c) Orion Correlation Theory
d) Two-factor theory

.
117) Each individual working in the bank is a
a) Employer only
b) marketing person
c) Service person
d) None
.
118) Bank marketing deals with providing Services to satisfy customers'
a) Social needs
b) Economic needs
c) financial needs
d) None

.
119) b) The Main purpose of marketing in a bank is............
a) Commercial objective to make profit at any cost
b) Social objectives which is a developmental particularly in the rural areas.
c) to create, win and keep a customer
d) None

.
120) It is the aggregate of functions, directed at providing services to satisfy customers' financial (and
other related) needs and wants, more effectively and efficiently than the competitor, keeping in view the
organizational objectives of the bank'
a) Bank's Mission Statement
b) Bank's vision Statement
c) Bank's Objectives Statement for maximisation of profits
d) Bank's Marketing objective
.