DATE : 07/05/2017 Test Booklet Code

P
(TARA)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2017
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA
1. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing Answer (4)
I– ions the pair of species formed is
Sol. Fact.
(1) HgI2 , I3– (2) HgI2 , I–
4. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
(3) HgI2– –
4 , I3 (4) Hg2I2 , I –
isoelectronic and isostructural?
Answer (3) (1) BeCl2, XeF2 (2) Tel2, XeF2
Sol. In a solution containing HgCl2, I2 and I–, both HgCl2
and I2 compete for I–. (3) IBr2 , XeF2 (4) IF3, XeF2
Since formation constant of [HgI4]2– is 1.9 × 1030 Answer (3)
which is very large as compared with I3– (Kf = 700)
Sol. IBr2–, XeF2
 I– will preferentially combine with HgCl2.
HgCl2 + 2I–  HgI2 + 2Cl– Total number of valence electrons are equal in both
Red ppt the species and both the species are linear also.
HgI2 + 2I–  [HgI4]2– 5. The species, having bond angles of 120° is
soluble
(1) PH3 (2) CIF3
2. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the
(3) NCl3 (4) BCl3
following reaction
H2O, H2SO4 Answer (4)
H 3C C CH HgSO4
intermediate product
(A) (B) Cl
120°
(1) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3 Sol. B
Cl Cl
SO4 O
6. Which of the following is a sink for CO?
(2) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH2
(1) Haemoglobin
OH SO4
(2) Micro-organisms present in the soil
(3) A : H3C C CH3 B : H3C C CH
(3) Oceans
O (4) Plants
(4) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3
Answer (2)
OH O Sol. Micro-organisms present in the soil is a sink for CO.
Answer (4)
7. Which one of the following pairs of species have the
OH same bond order?
Sol. H3C – C  CH H3C – C = CH (1) CO, NO (2) O2, NO+
(A)
O (3) CN–, CO (4) N2, O2–
Tautomerism
H3C – C – CH3 Answer (3)
(B)
Sol. CN(–) and CO have bond order 3 each.
3. The correct statement regarding electrophile is
8. Of the following, which is the product formed when
(1) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
followed by heating?
from a nucleophile
O
(2) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
from another electrophile (1) (2)
(3) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons OH O
from a nucleophile
(4) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively (3) (4)
charged species and can form a bond by
accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile OH O O
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (2) 12. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl

formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
O O
complexes : CoCl36NH3, CoCl35NH3, CoCl34NH3
H respectively is
(i) OH(–)
Sol. + H
(ii) 
(1) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
O (2) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
9. Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified
(3) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
KMnO4 solution:
(4) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(1) CO2 (2) SO2
(3) NO2 (4) P2O5 Answer (3)

Answer (2) Sol. Complexes are respectively [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ,

[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
Sol. SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4.
13. Which one is the most acidic compound?
10. Which one is the wrong statement?
OH OH
h
(1) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by   ,
mv (1) (2)
where m = mass of the particle, v = group
velocity of the particle
CH3
h
(2) The uncertainty principle is E  t  OH OH
4
O2N NO2
(3) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater (3) (4)
stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement
NO2 NO2
(4) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
Answer (4)
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
Sol. –NO2 group has very strong –I & –R effects.
Answer (4)
14. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the
Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of
following compounds is
hydrogen like atoms is equal.
NH2 NH2 NH2
11. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of
absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Co3+ is
(1) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
NO2 CH3
(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+ (I) (II) (III)
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+ (1) II < III < I (2) III < I < II
(4) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+ (3) III < II < I (4) II < I < III
Answer (1) Answer (4)
Sol. The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series Sol. –NO2 has strong –R effect and –CH3 shows +R
H2O < NH3 < en effect.

Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be  Order of basic strength is
in the order NH2 NH2 NH2
[Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+
Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite < <
order
i.e., [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+ NO2 CH3
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

15. In which pair of ions both the species contain 19. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated
S – S bond? container against a constant external pressure of 2.5
atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume
(1) S2O72–, S2O32– (2) S4O62–, S2O32–
of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
(3) S2O72–, S2O82– (4) S4O62–, S2O72– gas in joules will be
Answer (2) (1) 1136.25 J (2) –500 J
(3) –505 J (4) +505 J
O O O
Answer (3)
Sol. O– S S S S O– , S
O– Sol. U = q + w
O O S
O–
For adiabatic process, q = 0
[S4O6]2(–) [S2O3]2(–)
 U = w
16. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as = – P·V
(1) Analgesic (2) Antiseptic = –2.5 atm × (4.5 – 2.5) L
(3) Antipyretic (4) Antibiotic = –2.5 × 2 L-atm

Answer (2) = –5 × 101.3 J

Sol. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as = –506.5 J
antiseptic.
 –505 J
17. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
20. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1
(1) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C  mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
CH > CH  CH
(1) Sublimation
(2) CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3
(2) Chromatography
– CH3
(3) Crystallisation
(3) CH  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH > CH3
– CH3 (4) Steam distillation
(4) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH > Answer (4)
CH  CH
Sol. Steam distillation is the most suitable method of
Answer (2) separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para
nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in
Sol. Correct order is
ortho nitrophenol.
H – C  C – H  H3 C – C  C – H  H2C  CH2  CH3 – CH3
(Two acidic 21. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of
(One acidic
hydrogens) hydrogen) the following statements is true?

18. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces. (1) Bond angle remains same but bond length
changes
(1) Ethyl chlorides
(2) Bond angle changes but bond length remains
(2) Iodobenzene
same
(3) Phenol
(3) Both bond angle and bond length change
(4) Benzene
(4) Both bond angles and bond length remains
Answer (3) same
Answer (4)
O – CH3 OH
Sol. There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths
HI
Sol. + CH3I in the conformations of ethane. There is only change
in dihedral angle.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

22. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at 24. For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol –1 and
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers at : (Assume that H and S do not vary with
is now decreased by moving the movable piston temperature)
fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the
(1) T < 425 K (2) T > 425 K
container, when pressure of CO 2 attains its
maximum value, will be (3) All temperatures (4) T > 298 K


 Answer (2)
(Given that : SrCO3(s)  SrO(s) + CO 2(g).
Kp = 1.6 atm) Sol. ∵ G = H – TS
(1) 5 litre (2) 10 litre For a reaction to be spontaneous, G = –ve
(3) 4 litre (4) 2 litre i.e., H < TS
Answer (1)
H 35.5  103 J
Sol. Max. pressure of CO2 = Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium  T 
S 83.6 JK –1
For reaction,
i.e., T > 425 K


 SrO(s)  CO2
SrCO3 (s) 
25. In the electrochemical cell :
Kp  PCO2  1.6 atm = maximum pressure of CO2
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this
Volume of container at this stage, Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4
is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to
nRT 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following,
V …(i)
P which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
Since container is sealed and reaction was not RT
earlier at equilibrium (Given, = 0.059)
F
 n = constant
(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1 < E2
PV 0.4  20
n  …(ii) (3) E1 > E2 (4) E2 = 0 ≠ E1
RT RT
Answer (3)
Put equation (ii) in equation (i)
Sol. Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu
⎡ 0.4  20 ⎤ RT
V⎢ ⎥ =5L
⎣ RT ⎦ 1.6 o 2.303RT (0.01)
 E1  Ecell –  log
23. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 2F 1
10–2 s–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the
When concentrations are changed
reactant to reduce to 5 g?
(1) 238.6 second o 2.303RT 1
 E2  Ecell –  log
(2) 138.6 second 2F 0.01

(3) 346.5 second i.e., E1 > E2

(4) 693.0 second 26. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
compound is :
Answer (2)
(1) Ruthenocene
0.693
Sol. t1/2  second (2) Grignard's reagent
10–2
For the reduction of 20 g of reactant to 5 g, two t1/2 (3) Ferrocene
is required. (4) Cobaltocene
0.693 Answer (2)
 t  2 second
–2
10 Sol. Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded
= 138.6 second organometallic compound.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

27. The equilibrium constants of the following are. Answer (3)



N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3 K1 Sol. [Mn(CN)6]3–


N2 + O2 
 2NO K2 Mn(III) = [Ar]3d4
CN – being strong field ligand forces pairing of
1
H2  O2  H2O K3 electrons
2
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction: 4 0
This gives t2g eg
5 K

2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O, will be  Mn(III) = [Ar]
2

(1) K1K33 / K2 (2) K2K33 / K1

3d 4s 4p
(3) K2K3 / K1 (4) K32K3 / K1
2 3
d sp
Answer (2)
∵ Coordination number of Mn = 6
2
[NH3 ]  Structure = octahedral
Sol. (I) 

N2  3H2 
 2NH3 ; K1 
[N2 ] [H2 ]3
[Mn(CN)6]3– =

[NO]2


(II) N2  O2 
 2NO; K 2  [Ar]      
[N2 ] [O2 ]
2 3
d sp
1 [H2 O]
(III) H2  O2  H2O; K 3  30. Identify A and predict the type of reaction
2 [H2 ] [O2 ]1/2

(II + 3  III – II) will give OCH3

5 K
 NaNH2
2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O; A
2
Br
 K  K 2  K33 / K1

28. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. OCH3

It will belong to which of the following family group
and electronic configuration?
(1) and substitution reaction
(1) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
NH2
(2) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
(3) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4 OCH3
NH2
(4) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6
(2) and elimination addition reaction
Answer (2)
Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family
OCH3
Electronic configuration = [Rn]5f146d107s27p2
Br
29. Pick out the correct statement with respect (3) and cine substitution reaction
[Mn(CN)6]3– :
(1) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
OCH3
(2) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
(3) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral (4) and cine substitution reaction
(4) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (1) Answer (4)

OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 Sol. Due to denaturation of proteins, globules unfold and
Sol. H helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological
NH2
activity.
Br Br
Benzyne 33. Which is the incorrect statement?

OCH3 (1) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency

defect
NH2
OCH3 X
a
(Less stable) (2) Density decreases in case of crystals with
NH2 Schottky's defect
OCH3
OCH3 (3) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor,
b H–NH2
silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric
crystal
NH2
NH2
(4) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic
More stable as –ve charge is close to electron compounds in which sizes of cation and anions
withdrawing group are almost equal
∵ Incoming nucleophile ends on same ‘C’ on which
Answer (1 & 4)
‘Br’ (Leaving group) was present
 NOT cine substitution. Sol. Frenkel defect occurs in those ionic compounds in
which size of cation and anion is largely different.
31. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the
valence shell to participate in bonding that Non-stoichiometric ferrous oxide is Fe0.93–0.96O1.00
(1) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising and it is due to metal deficiency defect.

(2) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing 34. The IUPAC name of the compound
(3) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
O O
(4) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
C
Answer (1) H is ________.
Sol. Inability of ns 2
electrons of the valence shell to
participate in bonding on moving down the group in
heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect (1) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
(2) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
(3) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
 Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
 Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV) Answer (1)

 Sn(II) is reducing agent

O O
32. Which of the following statements is not correct?
C 2 3
(1) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a Sol. H 4

human body 1
5 6
(2) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(3) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene
involved in blood clotting in numbering of principal C-chain.
(4) Denaturation makes the proteins more active  3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

35. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in Answer (4)
actinoids is attributed to
Sol. Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of
(1) The radioactive nature of actinoids solvent and is independent of molality.
(2) Actinoid contraction 40. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
(3) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies X2 + Y2  2XY is given below :

(4) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies (i) X2  X + X (fast)

Answer (3) 


(ii) X + Y2 
 XY + Y (slow)
Sol. It is a fact.
(iii) X + Y  XY (fast)
36. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with
The overall order of the reaction will be
CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Liquation (2) Distillation
(3) 0 (4) 1.5
(3) Zone refining (4) Displacement with Zn
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces Sol. The solution of this question is given by assuming
them. step (i) to be reversible which is not given in question

From Native ore, Overall rate = Rate of slowest step (ii)

Leaching
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2  = k[X] [Y2] ...(1)
4Na[Ag(CN)2 ]  4NaOH k = rate constant of step (ii)
Soluble
Sodium dicyanoargentate(I) Assuming step (i) to be reversible, its equilibrium
Displacement
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn 
 constant,
Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag 1 1
[X]2
k eq  ⇒ [X]  k eq 2 [X2 ] 2 ...(2)
37. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal [X2 ]
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts
Put (2) in (1)
are put under an electric field?
1 1
(1) Na (2) K
Rate = kk eq 2 [X2 ] 2 [Y2 ]
(3) Rb (4) Li
1 3
Answer (4) Overall order = 1
2 2
Sol. Li+ being smallest, has maximum charge density
41. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution
 Li+is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product
ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is therefore, of Ag2C2O4 is
largest.
(1) 2.42 × 10–8 (2) 2.66 × 10–12
 Moves slowest under electric field.
(3) 4.5 × 10–11 (4) 5.3 × 10–12
38. Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
Answer (4)
(1) Molality (2) Molarity

  2
(3) Mole fraction (4) Weight percentage Sol. Ag2C2O4 (s)  2 Ag (aq)  C2O4 (aq)
2s s
Answer (2)
KSP = [Ag+]2 [C2O42–]
Sol. Molarity includes volume of solution which can
change with change in temperature. [Ag+] = 2.2 × 10–4 M

39. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value 2.2  104
 [C2O24 ]  M  1.1 104 M
of molal depression constant (Kf) will be 2
(1) Doubled (2) Halved  KSP = (2.2 × 10–4)2 (1.1 × 10–4)
(3) Tripled (4) Unchanged = 5.324 × 10–12
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

42. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with 44. Consider the reactions :
the geometry in column II and assign the correct Cu / [Ag(NH3)2]
+

code X A Silver mirror observed

573 K –OH, 
(C2H6O)
–OH, 
Column I Column II Y
O
NH2 – NH – C – NH2
(a) XX (i) T-shape
Z
(b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal Identify A, X, Y and Z
bipyramidal (1) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate
ion, Z-hydrazine
(c) XX5 (iii) Linear
(2) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid,
(d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal Z-Semicarbazide
(3) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal,
(v) Tetrahedral Z-Semicarbazone
Code : (4) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone,
Z-Hydrazone
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (3)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Sol. Since 'A' gives positive silver mirror test therefore, it
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) must be an aldehyde or -Hydroxyketone.
Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be
(3) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) an aldehyde or ketone.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Reaction with OH – i.e., aldol condensation (by
assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is
Answer (2)
aldehyde as aldol reaction of ketones is reversible
Sol. XX  Linear and carried out in special apparatus.
These indicates option (3).
XX3  Example : CIF3  T-shape + –
Cu [Ag(NH3)2] ,OH
CH3–CH2OH CH3–CHO CH3–COOH
XX5  Example : BrF5  Square pyramidal (X)
573 K
(A)


ethanal
XX7  Example : IF7  Pentagonal bipyramidal
O
OH
–
43. Which one of the following statements is not H2N – NH – C – NH2 OH
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO
correct? O
3-Hydroxybutanal
CH3 – CH = N – NH – C – NH2 
(1) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction
(Z)
CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
(2) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in (Y)
the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at But-2-enal
equilibrium 45. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for
converting acetamide to methanamine?
(3) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
(1) Carbylamine reaction
(4) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of
(2) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
enzyme
(3) Stephens reaction
Answer (2)
(4) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
Sol. A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the Answer (2)
forward and backward reaction by same amount,
O
therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward

reaction by same rate. Sol. CH3 – C – NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH
CH3 – NH2 + 2NaBr + Na2CO3 + 3H2O
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by
catalyst at a given temperature. This is Hoffmann Bromamide reaction.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

46. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes 51. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete
suspended solids? antibacterial lysozyme?
(1) Tertiary treatment (2) Secondary treatment (1) Argentaffin cells (2) Paneth cells

(3) Primary treatment (4) Sludge treatment (3) Zymogen cells (4) Kupffer cells
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. – Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
Sol. Primary treatment is a physical process which
involves sequential filtration and sedimentation. – Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells.

47. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ – Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as
conservation of threatened animals and plants? anti-bacterial agent.
– Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells.
(1) Wildlife Safari parks (2) Biodiversity hot spots
52. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They
(3) Amazon rainforest (4) Himalayan region do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
Answer (1) because of :
Sol. Ex.situ conservation is offsite strategy for (1) Residual Volume
conservation of animals and plants in zoological park (2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
and botanical gardens respectively.
(3) Tidal Volume
48. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 (4) Expiratory Reserve Volume
acceptor in :
Answer (1)
(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants
Sol. Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration
(3) C2 plants (4) C3 and C4 plants as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of
alveoli even after forceful expiration.
Answer (2)
53. Viroids differ from viruses in having :
Sol. PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2
acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4 (1) DNA molecules with protein coat
plants like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc. (2) DNA molecules without protein coat
49. Which one of the following statements is not valid for (3) RNA molecules with protein coat
aerosols? (4) RNA molecules without protein coat
(1) They are harmful to human health Answer (4)
(2) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns Sol. Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA
particles, without protein coat.
(3) They cause increased agricultural productivity
54. Which of the following are not polymeric?
(4) They have negative impact on agricultural land
(1) Nucleic acids (2) Proteins
Answer (3) (3) Polysaccharides (4) Lipids
Sol. Aerosols can cause various problems to agriculture Answer (4)
through its direct or indirect effects on plants. Sol. – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides
However continually increasing air pollution may
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids
represent a persistent and largely irreversible threat
to agriculture in the future. – Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides
– Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol
50. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with
55. Select the mismatch :
flagellated cells called :
(1) Pinus – Dioecious
(1) Ostia (2) Oscula
(2) Cycas – Dioecious
(3) Choanocytes (4) Mesenchymal cells (3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
Answer (3) (4) Equisetum – Homosporous
Sol. Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel Answer (1)
in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide Sol. Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and
circulation to water in water canal system. female cones on same plant.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

56. A gene whose expression helps to identify Answer (3)

transformed cell is known as Sol. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector longitudinally which makes easy for the stoma to
(3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene open.
Answer (1) 61. Which of the following statements is correct?
Sol. In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers (1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
helps in identifying and eliminating non transformants impermeable to water
and selectively permitting the growth of the (2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
transformants. impermeable to water
57. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause (3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable
the release of to water
(1) Renin (4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(2) Atrial Natriuretic Factor permeable to electrolytes
(3) Aldosterone Answer (1)
(4) ADH Sol. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
Answer (2) water but impermeable to electrolytes while
Sol. A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the ascending limb is impermeable to water but
release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while permeable to electrolytes.
increase in blood pressure / volume stimulates the 62. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which conditions?
cause vasodilation and also inhibits RAAS (Renin (1) Archaebacteria
Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that
(2) Eubacteria
decreases the blood volume/pressure.
(3) Cyanobacteria
58. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of
(4) Mycobacteria
(1) Stipules (2) Adventitious root
Answer (1)
(3) Stem (4) Leaf
Answer (3) Sol. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions
because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane
Sol. Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for
which reduces fluidity of cell membrane.
protection. These are modified stem
Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats.
59. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is 63. The morphological nature of the edible part of
(1) Absence of notochord coconut is
(2) Ventral tubular nerve cord (1) Perisperm (2) Cotyledon
(3) Pharynx with gill slits (3) Endosperm (4) Pericarp
(4) Pharynx without gill slits Answer (3)
Answer (3) Sol. Coconut has double endosperm with liquid
endosperm and cellular endosperm.
Sol. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as
well as in chordates. Notochord is present in 64. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood.
chordates only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is (1) Organic compounds are deposited in it
characteristic feature of nonchordates. (2) It is highly durable
60. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal (3) It conducts water and minerals efficiently
aperture? (4) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified
(1) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells walls
(2) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells Answer (3)
(3) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the Sol. Heartwood is physiologically inactive due to
cell wall of guard cells deposition of organic compounds and tyloses
(4) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in formation, so this will not conduct water and
the cell wall of guard cells minerals.

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65. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a 69. Which among these is the correct combination of
protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at aquatic mammals?
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the
(1) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered? (2) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(1) 1 (2) 11 (3) Whales, Dolphins Seals
(3) 33 (4) 333
(4) Trygon, Whales, Seals
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98
bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will Sol. Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of
be altered. chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale,
dolphin and seals are aquatic mammals belong to
66. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally
class mammalia.
protected and where no human activity is allowed is
known as : 70. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
(1) Core zone (2) Buffer zone (1) Heart (2) Stomach
(3) Transition zone (4) Restoration zone (3) Kidneys (4) Intestine
Answer (1) Answer (4)
Sol. Biosphere reserve is protected area with Sol. In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries
multipurpose activities. maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver.
It has three zones 71. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
(a) Core zone – without any human interference into:
(b) Buffer zone – with limited human activity (1) Ovule (2) Endosperm
(c) Transition zone – human settlement, grazing (3) Embryo sac (4) Embryo
cultivation etc. are allowed.
Answer (3)
67. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
Sol. Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic
(1) Autogamy and xenogamy
generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three
(2) Autogamy and geitonogamy successive generations of free nuclear mitosis to
(3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.
(4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy 72. Mycorrhizae are the example of :
Answer (2) (1) Fungistasis (2) Amensalism
Sol. When unisexual male and female flowers are present (3) Antibiosis (4) Mutualism
on different plants the condition is called dioecious
Answer (4)
and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
68. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? Sol. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with
roots of higher plants.
(1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+
is reduced to NADH + H+ 73. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to
non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
(2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is
immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
reduced to FADH2
(3) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic (1) Autoimmune response
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised (2) Cell-mediated immune response
(4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl (3) Hormonal immune response
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
(4) Physiological immune response
citric acid
Answer (4) Answer (2)

Sol. Kreb cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA Sol. Non acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted
(2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune
(6C). response.

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74. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the 78. An example of colonial alga is
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
(1) Chlorella (2) Volvox
explanation for this feature?
(3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra
(a) They do not need to reproduce
Answer (2)
(b) They are somatic cells
Sol. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite
(c) They do not metabolize
number of vegetative cells.
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
transport 79. A disease caused by an autosomal primary
non-disjunction is
(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a)
(1) Down's syndrome
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
Answer (1)
(3) Turner's syndrome
Sol. In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during
maturation which provide more space for oxygen (4) Sickle cell anemia
carrying pigment (Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the Answer (1)
cell organelles including mitochondria so respires
anaerobically. Sol. Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of
21st chromosome.
75. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time:
80. DNA fragments are
(1) Ecological Biodiversity
(1) Positively charged
(2) Laws of limiting factor
(2) Negatively charged
(3) Species area relationships
(3) Neutral
(4) Population Growth equation
(4) Either positively or negatively charged depending
Answer (3)
on their size
Sol. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a
region species richness increases with the increases Answer (2)
in area. Sol. DNA fragments are negatively charged because of
76. Attractants and rewards are required for : phosphate group.
(1) Anemophily (2) Entomophily 81. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of
(3) Hydrophily (4) Cleistogamy (1) Fibrous joint
Answer (2) (2) C artilaginous joint
Sol. Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible (3) Synovial joint
pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. While (4) Saddle joint
some plants also provide safe place for deposition of
eggs. Answer (3)

77. Which one of the following statements is correct, Sol. Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow
with reference to enzymes? considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of
synovial joint which provide rotational movement as
(1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral
(2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme column.
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme 82. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
(4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor when
Answer (2) (1) The value of 'r' approaches zero
Sol. Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein (2) K = N
part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
(3) K > N
Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their
(4) K < N
association with apoenzyme is only transient and
serve as cofactors. Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Sol. A population growing in a habitat with limited Answer (2)

resources shows logistic growth curve. Sol. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates
For logistic growth anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of
gonadotropins (FSH and LH).
dN ⎛K – N⎞
 rN ⎜ ⎟
dt ⎝ K ⎠ 86. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does
not cause further increase in height, because
K –N
If K = N then =0 (1) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
K
(2) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
dN
 the = 0, (3) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone
dt
in adults
the population reaches asymptote.
(4) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
83. Myelin sheath is produced by
Answer (2)
(1) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
Sol. Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of
(2) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells bone which close after adolescence so
(3) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
(4) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes cause further increase in height.
87. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?
Answer (1)
(1) Forest ecosystem (2) Grassland ecosystem
Sol. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce
myelin sheath in central nervous system while (3) Pond ecosystem (4) Lake ecosystem
Schwann cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral Answer (1)
nervous system.
Sol. High productive ecosystem are
84. The process of separation and purification of
– Tropical rain forest
expressed protein before marketing is called
– Coral reef
(1) Upstream processing
– Estuaries
(2) Downstream processing
– Sugarcane fields
(3) Bioprocessing
88. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented
(4) Postproduction processing
by the application of
Answer (2)
(1) Cytokinins (2) Ethylene
Sol. Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in
(3) Auxins (4) Gibberellic acid
recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming
process while after completion of biosynthetic stage, Answer (3)
the product has to be subjected through a series of Sol. Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.
processes which include separation and purification
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit
are collectively referred to as downstreaming
drop in Citrus.
processing.
89. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came
85. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
from the experiments of
reproduction, acts on
(1) Griffith
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and oxytocin (2) Hershey and Chase

(2) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion (3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
of LH and FSH (4) Hargobind Khorana
(3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion Answer (2)
of oxytocin and FSH Sol. Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which
(4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion ended the debate between protein and DNA as
of LH and relaxin genetic material.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

90. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
(1) Equidae (2) Perissodactyla
(3) Caballus (4) Ferus
Answer (2)
Sol. Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class
mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed
mammals.
91. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
values of X and Y and provides their explanation :
(1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral
column and ventrally to the
sternum
(2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral
column and sternum on
the two ends
(3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
attached to vertebral
column but are free on
ventral side
Sol. Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria)
Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
AIDS – HIV (Virus)
93. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
the correct statement.
(1) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(2) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(3) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules
(4) Sickle cell anemia is due to a guantitative
problem of globin molecules
Answer (3)
Sol. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that
the former is a quantitative problem of synthesising
too few globin molecules while the latter is a
qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly
functioning globin.

(4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally 94. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
attached to vertebral (1) Xylem parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
column but are free on (3) Phellem (4) Phloem
ventral side
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. Cork cambium undergoes periclinal division and cuts
Sol. In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 off thick walled suberised dead cork cells towards
pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to outside and it cuts off thin walled living cells i.e.,
vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum. phelloderm on inner side.
92. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases 95. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play
(Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) school and passes through a dental check-up. The
and select the correct option. dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth.
Column - I Column- II Which teeth were absent?
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV (1) Incisors (2) Canines
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria (3) Pre-molars (4) Molars
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema Answer (3)
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Sol. Total number of teeth in human child = 20.
Papilloma-Virus Premolars are absent in primary dentition.

Options : 96. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible

for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
(a) (b) (c) (d) ATP ?
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondrion
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Answer (4)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Sol. Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of
Answer (1) carbohydrates to generate ATP.

15

97. Capacitation occurs in
(1) Rete testis
(2) Epididymis
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Female Reproductive tract
Answer (4)
Sol. Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of
sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.
98. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
indicates:
(1) Transcription is occurring
(2) DNA replication is occurring
(3) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre
(4) The DNA double helix is exposed
Answer (3)
Sol. The association of H1 protein indicates the complete
formation of nucleosome.
Therefore the DNA is in condensed form.
99. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is
not correct?
(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have
much lower temperature optimum
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher
yield
Answer (3)
Sol. In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher
temperature due to increased photorespiration.
C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because
of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase
enzyme, which is sensitive to low temperature.
100. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by:
(1) mating of related individuals of same breed
(2) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(3) mating of individuals of different breed
(4) mating of individuals of different species
Answer (1)
Sol. Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity.
Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same
breed will increase homozygosity.
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NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA
101. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis?
(1) codensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
 crossing over  segregation  telophase
(2) condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
 arrangement at equator  centromere
division  segregation  telophase
(3) condensation  crossing over  nuclear
membrane disassembly  segregation 
telophase
(4) condensation  arrangement at equator 
centromere division  segregation 
telophase
Answer (2)
Sol. The correct sequence of events during mitosis would
be as follows
(i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes
become visible occurs during early to
mid-prophase.
(ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late
prophase or transition to metaphase.
(iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs
during metaphase, called congression.
(iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during
anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
(v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as
daughter chromosomes separate and move to
opposite poles.
(vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter
nuclei.
102. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
in male frogs :
(1) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa
efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal
Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal 
Ureter  Cloaca
(4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
Answer (4)
Sol. In male frog the sperms will move from
Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca.
103. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of :
(1) Plants (2) Fungi
(3) Animals (4) Bacteria
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (4)
Sol. Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during
post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in
eukaryotes only as split genes are absent as
prokaryotes.
104. Which one from those given below is the period for
Mendel's hybridization experiments?
108. Which of the following is correctly matched for the
product produced by them?
(1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
(2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

(1) 1856 - 1863 (2) 1840 - 1850 Answer (4)

(3) 1857 - 1869 (4) 1870 - 1877 Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called
Brewer’s yeast. It causes fermentation of
Answer (1) carbohydrates producing ethanol.
Sol. Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea 109. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
was published in 1865 (according to NCERT).
(1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
105. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
can be visualised after staining with : (2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
moves
(1) Bromophenol blue
(3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(2) Acetocarmine
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(3) Aniline blue
Answer (2)
(4) Ethidium bromide
Sol. During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate
Answer (4)
(resolve) according to their size through sieving effect
Sol. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA provided by agarose gel.
fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands
110. Zygotic meiosis is characterstic of
under UV light.
(1) Marchantia (2) Fucus
106. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's
is : (3) Funaria (4) Chlamydomonas
(1) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising Answer (4)
capacity of sperms Sol. Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence
(2) They inhibit gametogenesis showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis.
(3) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation 111. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
(1) Haplontic, Diplontic
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Answer (1) (2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

Sol. Cu 2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence (3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity (4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
of sperms. Answer (3)
107. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical Sol. Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus
layers depending on their height can be seen best has diplontic life cycle.
in :
112. Which among the following are the smallest living
(1) Tropical Savannah cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
(2) Tropical Rain Forest to plants as well as animals and can survive without
(3) Grassland oxygen?

(4) Temperate Forest (1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas

Answer (2) (3) Mycoplasma (4) Nostoc

Sol. The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the
basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation,
shrubs, short canopy trees, tall canopy trees and
tall emergent trees.
17
Answer (3)
Sol. Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes,
pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both
plants and animals.
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

113. Root hairs develop from the region of 118. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi.
(1) Maturation (2) Elongation Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(3) Root cap (4) Meristematic activity
(1) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Answer (1)
(2) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
Sol. In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation.
This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root (3) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
hairs. (4) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
114. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are Answer (3)
packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
Sol. Husband  Wife
AB A
(1) Water (2) Bee I I I i

(3) Wind (4) Bat

+ IA IB
Answer (3)
IA IAIA IAIB
Sol. Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers i A
Ii IBi
having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous
flowers packed in an inflorescence. Wind pollination Number of genotypes = 4
is a non-directional pollination. Number of phenotypes = 3
115. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on IAIA and IAi = A
(1) Membranes of synaptic vesicles IAIB = AB
(2) Pre-synaptic membrane IBi = B
(3) Tips of axons 119. Which of the following components provides sticky
character to the bacterial cell?
(4) Post-synaptic membrane
(1) Cell wall
Answer (4)
(2) Nuclear membrane
Sol. Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of
neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The (3) Plasma membrane
receptors sites for neurotransmitters are present on (4) Glycocalyx
post-synaptic membrane. Answer (4)
116. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores Sol. Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to
and show vivipary belong to glycocalyx or slime layer. This layer is rich in
(1) Mesophytes (2) Halophytes glycoproteins.

(3) Psammophytes (4) Hydrophytes 120. Which of the following RNAs should be most
adundant in animal cell?
Answer (2)
(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA
Sol. Halophytes growing in saline soils show
(3) m-RNA (4) mi-RNA
(i) Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination
Answer (1)
(ii) Pneumatophores for gaseous exchange
Sol. rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes
117. DNA replication in bacteria occurs 80% of total RNA of the cell.
(1) During s-phase 121. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein
(2) Within nucleolus degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
(3) Prior to fission of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell,
which of the following is expected to occur?
(4) Just before transcription
(1) Chromosomes will not condense
Answer (3)
(2) Chromosomes will be fragmented
Sol. DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission.
Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due (3) Chromosomes will not segregate
to their primitive nature. (4) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (3) 126. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is

Sol. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein (1) Pineal gland
necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes
(2) Corpus cardiacum
during anaphase. If APC is defective then the
chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase. (3) Corpus luteum
122. Among the following characters, which one was not (4) Corpus allatum
considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea? Answer (3)
(1) Stem-Tall or Dwarf Sol. Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure
(2) Trichomes-Glandular or non-glandular formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible
(3) Seed-Green or Yellow for the release of the hormones like progesterone,
oestrogen etc.
(4) Pod-Inflated or Constricted
127. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to
Answer (2)
(1) Phelloderm (2) Primary phloem
Sol. During his experiments Mendel studied seven
characters. (3) Secondary xylem (4) Periderm
Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular Answer (3)
was not considered by Mendel. Sol. During secondary growth, vascular cambium gives
123. Select the mismatch : rise to secondary xylem and secondary phloem.
(1) Frankia - Alnus Phelloderm is formed by cork cambium.

(2) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza 128. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used
to enlongate
(3) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer
(1) The leading strand towards replication fork
(4) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(2) The lagging strand towards replication fork
Answer (2)
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork
Sol. Rhodospirillum is anaerobic, free living nitrogen fixer.
(4) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between fungi
and roots of higher plants. Answer (4)
124. Double fertilization is exhibited by : Sol. Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous
at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Algae
other on the lagging strand.
(3) Fungi (4) Angiosperms
Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA
Answer (4) polymerase at lagging strand in 5  3 direction.
Sol. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature New Okazaki fragments appear as the replication
exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and fork opens further.
triple fusion.
As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from
125. In case of a couple where the male is having a very the replication fork, the direction of elongation would
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for be away from replication fork.
fertilisation?
129. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk
(1) Intrauterine transfer output represents
(2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer (1) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this
(3) Artificial Insemination character in the population
(4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the
Answer (3) character in one direction

Sol. Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to (3) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one
inseminate the female or due to very low sperm yielding higher output and the other lower output
count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by (4) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
artificial insemination (AI). the population to produce higher yielding cows

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (2) (c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature

Sol. Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk (d) Heart is autoexcitable
output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will Options
be an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing
(1) Only (c)
selection, the organisms with the mean value of the
trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both (2) Only (d)
extremes get selected. (3) (a) & (b)
130. Which of the following options best represents the (4) (c) & (d)
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
Answer (4)
(1) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
Sol. Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having
(2) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because
(3) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin of this condition, it will keep on working outside the
body for sometime.
(4) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen,
procarboxypeptidase 134. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene
rich food
Answer (4)
Select the best option from the following statements
Sol. Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the
gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
juice. (b) The photopigments are embedded in the
131. Coconut fruit is a membrane discs of the inner segment
(1) Drupe (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(2) Berry (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments
(3) Nut
(1) (a) & (b)
(4) Capsule
(2) (a), (c) & (d)
Answer (1)
(3) (a) & (c)
Sol. Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from
monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded. (d) (b), (c) & (d)
132. The water potential of pure water is Answer (2)
(1) Zero Sol. Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in
formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative
(2) Less than zero
of vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual
(3) More than zero but less than one photopigments.
(4) More than one 135. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the
Answer (1) lymphoid tissue in human body
Sol. By convention, the water potential of pure water at (1) 50%
standard temperature, which is not under any (2) 20%
pressure, is taken to be zero.
(3) 70%
133. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues
(4) 10%
to beat for sometime
Answer (1)
Select the best option from the following statements
Sol. MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue & it
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm
constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation in human body.

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136. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm 1

radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were Sol. Resolving power 

halved and the temperature doubled, the power
R1  2
radiated in watt would be 
R2 1
(1) 225 (2) 450
6000 Å
(3) 1000 (4) 1800 
4000 Å
Answer (4)
3

Sol. Rate of power loss 2
139. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns
r  R 2T 4 per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100
r1 R12T14 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis
 coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the
r2 R22T24
solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A
1 in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 102 , the
= 4 total charge flowing through the coil during this time
16
is
450 1
 (1) 32C (2) 16 C
r2 4
(3) 32 C (4) 16C
r2 = 1800 watt
Answer (3)
137. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded
together as shown in figure. Their thermal d
Sol.   N
conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal dt
conductivity of the composite rod will be  N d

A K1 R R dt
T1 T2
B K2 N
dq  d
d R

K1  K 2 3  K1  K 2  N ( )
Q 
(1) (2) R
2 2
total
(3) K1 + K2 (4) 2(K1 + K2) Q 
R
Answer (1)
(NBA)
Sol. Thermal current 
R
H = H1 + H2 0 ni r 2

K1A(T1  T2 ) K 2 A(T1  T2 ) R
= 
d d Putting values

K EQ 2 A(T1  T2 ) A(T1  T2 ) 4  107  100  4    (0.01)2

 K1  K2  
102
d d

⎡ K  K2 ⎤ Q  32 C
K EQ  ⎢ 1 ⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦ 140. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
138. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
microscope for two wavelengths 1 = 4000 Å and (Kelvin) and mass m, is
2 = 6000 Å is h h
(1) (2)
(1) 8 : 27 (2) 9 : 4 mkT 3mkT
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 16 : 81 2h 2h
(3) (4)
Answer (3) 3mkT mkT

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (2) 143. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength series and the last line of Lyman series is
(1) 2 (2) 1
h
 (3) 4 (4) 0.5
mv
h Answer (3)
= 2m(KE) Sol. For last Balmer series

h 1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
 R⎢ 2  2⎥
3 b ⎣2  ⎦
2m( kT )
2 4
b 
h R

3mkT For last Lyman series
141. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
R⎢ 2  2⎥
3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular l ⎣1  ⎦
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with
1
a force of 30 N? l 
R
(1) 25 m/s2 (2) 0.25 rad/s2
4
(3) 25 rad/s2 (4) 5 m/s2 b R

Answer (3) l 1
R
40
Sol. cm b
4
l
144. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally
F = 30 N on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from
=I the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on
a scale placed just above the source L. When the
F × R = MR2
mirror is rotated through a small angle , the spot of
30 × 0.4 = 3 × (0.4)2  the light is found to move through a distance y on
12 = 3 × 0.16  the scale. The angle  is given by
400 = 16  y y
(1) (2)
 = 25 rad/s2 2x x
142. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted x x
(3) (4)
and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new 2y y
resistance will be Answer (1)
R Sol. When mirror is rotated by  angle reflected ray will
(1) nR (2)
n be rotated by 2.
R
(3) n2R (4)
n2
2
Answer (3)

R2 l 22 x
Sol. R  2
1 l1

n 2l12
 y
l12
y
R2  2
 n2 x
R1
y
R2 = n2R1 
2x

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

145. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same
current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fig.
Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire
‘B’ is given by
147. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion
with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its
time period in seconds is

B d C 5
(1)

90°
5
d (2)
2

A 4
(3)
5
0I 2 20I 2
(1) (2) 2
2d d (4)
3
20I 2 0I 2
(3) (4) Answer (3)
d 2d
Answer (4) Sol. v   A2 – x 2
Sol. Force between BC and AB will be same in a = x2
magnitude.
v a
d C
B  A2 – x 2  x 2
F
90° ⎛ 2 ⎞
(3)2 – (2)2  2 ⎜ ⎟
d F ⎝T ⎠
4
A 5
T
 0I 2 4
FBC  FBA  T 
2d 5
F  2FBC 1
148. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat
0 I 2 10
 2 engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on
2 d
the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed
 0I 2
F from the reservoir at lower temperature is
2d
(1) 1 J
146. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach
(2) 90 J
each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s
respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn (3) 99 J
having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by (4) 100 J
the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound Answer (2)
340 m/s]
1 
(1) 350 Hz (2) 361 Hz Sol.  =

(3) 411 Hz (4) 448 Hz
1 9
1
Answer (4) 10 10
 
1 1
⎡v  vo ⎤
Sol. fA  f ⎢ ⎥ 10 10
⎣ v  vs ⎦ =9
⎡ 340  16.5 ⎤ Q2
 400 ⎢ ⎥ =
⎣ 340  22 ⎦ W
fA = 448 Hz Q2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

149. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8' and Answer (4)
material 'B' has decay constant ''. Initially they have
Sol. hoil oil g = hwater water g
same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of
140 × oil = 130 × water
1
number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will be ?
e 13
oil = × 1000 kg/m3
14
1 1
(1) (2) oil = 928 kg m–3
 7
1 1 151. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
(3) (4) escalator was not working. She walked up the
8 9
stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she
Answer (2)
remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
Sol. No option is correct escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by
her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
NA 1
If we take 
NB e t1  t2 t1t2
(1) (2) t – t
Then 2 2 1

t1t2
N A e 8 t (3) t  t (4) t1 – t2
 t 2 1
NB e
Answer (3)
1
 e 7 t
e d
Sol. Velocity of girl w.r.t. elevator   v ge
–1 = –7t t1

1
t= d
7 Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v eG  then
t2
150. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is
partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with velocity of girl w.r.t. ground
water, is poured into one side until it stands at a   
distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other v gG  v ge  v eG
side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its
original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is i.e, v gG  v ge  v eG
Pa Pa
F d d d
A  
t t1 t 2
10 mm
E
Final water level 1 1 1
 
65 mm t t1 t2
Oil D
Initial water level t1t2
t
65 mm (t1  t2 )
B C 152. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
Water is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic
energy of resulting system

(1) 650 kg m–3 (1) Increases by a factor of 4

(2) 425 kg m–3 (2) Decreases by a factor of 2

(3) 800 kg m–3 (3) Remains the same

(4) 928 kg m–3 (4) Increases by a factor of 2

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (2) Answer (4)

Sol. wg + wa = Kf – Ki
Sol. C
1
mgh + wa = mv 2  0
2
1
10–3 × 10 × 103 + wa =  10 3  (50)2
2
V
wa = –8.75 J i.e. work done due to air resistance and
Charge on capacitor work done due to gravity = 10 J
q = CV 154. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device
to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because
when it is connected with another uncharged
the method involves :
capacitor.
q (1) Cells
C
(2) Potential gradients
(3) A condition of no current flow through the
galvanometer
(4) A combination of cells, galvanometer and
C resistances
q1  q2 q0
Vc   Answer (3)
C1  C2 C  C
Sol. Reading of potentiometer is accurate because during
V taking reading it does not draw any current from the
Vc  circuit.
2
Initial energy 155. Which one of the following represents forward bias
diode?
1
Ui  CV 2 0V R –2 V
2 (1)
Final energy
–4 V R –3 V
(2)
2 2
1 ⎛V ⎞ 1 ⎛V ⎞
Uf  C⎜ ⎟  C⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝2⎠ 2 ⎝2⎠ –2 V R +2 V
(3)
CV 2
 (4) 3V R 5V
4
Loss of energy = Ui – Uf Answer (1)
Sol. In forward bias, p-type semiconductor is at higher
CV 2
 potential w.r.t. n-type semiconductor.
4
156. Which of the following statements are correct?
i.e. decreases by a factor (2)
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with
153. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling
the centre of gravity of the body.
from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed
of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value (b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which
10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force the total gravitational torque on the body is zero
and the (ii) resistive force of air is (c) A couple on a body produce both translational
and rotational motion in a body.
(1) (i) – 10 J (ii) –8.25 J
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means
(2) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J
that small effort can be used to lift a large load.
(3) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J (1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(4) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (1) Answer (1 & 2)* Both answers are correct.

Sol. Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre Sol. 0 = 3250 × 10–10 m
of gravity.  = 2536 × 10–10 m
157. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km 1242 eV-nm
=  3.82 eV
above the earth is the same as at a depth d below 325 nm
the surface of earth. Then 1242 eV-nm
h =  4.89 eV
1 253.6 nm
(1) d  km (2) d = 1 km
2 KEmax = (4.89 – 3.82) eV = 1.077 eV
3 1
(3) d  km (4) d = 2 km mv 2  1.077  1.6  10 19
2 2
Answer (4) 2  1.077  1.6  10 19
v=
Sol. Above earth surface Below earth surface 9.1  10 31
v = 0.6 × 106 m/s
⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞
g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠ g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠ 160. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of
e e
glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined
2h d with another thin prism of glass of refractive index
g  = g R …(1) g = g R …(2) 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without
e e
deviation. The refracting angle of second prism
From (1) & (2)
should be
d = 2h (1) 4° (2) 6°
d = 2 × 1 km (3) 8° (4) 10°

158. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and Answer (2)

4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all Sol. (  1)A  (  1)A  0
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is (  1)A  (  1)A
(1) 4 RT (2) 15 RT
(1.42  1)  10  (1.7  1)A
(3) 9 RT (4) 11 RT 4.2 = 0.7A'
Answer (4) A' = 6°
f f 161. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is
Sol. U = n1 1 RT  n2 2 RT subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional
2 2
decrease in radius is
5 3
= 2 RT  4  RT p B
2 2 (1) (2)
B 3p
= 5 RT + 6 RT
3p p
U = 11 RT (3) (4)
B 3B
159. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is Answer (4)
3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected p
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength Sol. B 
⎛ V ⎞
2536 × 10–10 m is ⎜ V ⎟
⎝ ⎠
(Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1) V p

(1)  6 × 105 ms–1 V B

(2)  0.6 × 106 ms–1 r p

3 
r B
(3)  61 × 103 ms–1
r p

(4)  0.3 × 106 ms–1 r 3B

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

162. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one From (i), (ii) & (iii)
end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
What is the fundamental frequency of the system? 1
z=y= , x = –2
(1) 10 Hz (2) 20 Hz 2
(3) 30 Hz (4) 40 Hz 164. One end of string of length l is connected to a
Answer (2) particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the
Sol. Two successive frequencies of closed pipe
particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force
nv on the particle (directed towards center) will be
 220 ...(i)
4l (T represents the tension in the string)

 n  2 v  260 m v2
...(ii) (1) T (2) T 
4l
l
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
m v2
n  2 260 13 (3) T  (4) Zero
  l
n 220 11
Answer (1)
11n + 22 = 13n
n = 11 ⎛ mv 2 ⎞
Sol. Centripetal force ⎜⎜ l ⎟⎟ is provided by tension so
v ⎝ ⎠
So, 11  220
4l the net force will be equal to tension i.e., T.
v
 20 165. A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and
4l width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and
So fundamental frequency is 20 Hz. subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T.
163. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the
torque is
e2
can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity (1) 9.1 J (2) 4.55 J
40
(3) 2.3 J (4) 1.15 J
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e
is charge] Answer (1)
1 1
Sol. W = MB (cos1 – cos2)
1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
(1) 2 ⎢G ⎥ (2) c 2 ⎢G ⎥
c ⎣ 40 ⎦ ⎣ 40 ⎦ When it is rotated by angle 180º then

1 W = 2MB
1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 1 e2
(3) 2 ⎢ ⎥ (4) G W = 2 (NIA)B
c ⎣ G 40 ⎦ c 40
= 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85
Answer (1)
× 10–2
e2
Sol. Let  A  ML3 T –2 = 9.1 J
40
166. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio
l = CxGy(A)z 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new
L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y [ML3T–2]z force constant is k. Then they are connected in parallel
and force constant is k. Then k : k is
–y + z = 0  y = z ...(i)
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 9
x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
(3) 1 : 11 (4) 1 : 14
–x – 4z = 0 ...(iii)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (3) 168. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space
after having lost contact with their spaceship. The
1 two will:
Sol. Spring constant  length
(1) Keep floating at the same distance between
1 them
k
l (2) Move towards each other
i.e, k1 = 6k (3) Move away from each other
k2 = 3k (4) Will become stationary
k3 = 2k Answer (2)
In series Sol. Both the astronauts are in the condition of
weightness. Gravitational force between them pulls
1 1 1 1
   towards each other.
k ' 6k 3k 2k
169. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time
1 6 are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x

k ' 6k and y are in meters and t in seconds. The
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
k' = k
(1) 0
k'' = 6k + 3k + 2k
(2) 5 m/s2
k'' = 11k
(3) –4 m/s2
k' 1
 i.e k ' : k ''  1: 11
k '' 11 (4) –8 m/s2

167. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials. Answer (3)

20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V
Sol. x = 5t – 2t2 y = 10t
20 V

dx dy
A B A B A B A B = 5 – 4t = 10
dt dt

10 V
30 V
vx = 5 – 4t vy = 10
10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V
(a) (b) (c) (d)
dv dv
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each x–4 y  10
dt dt
diagram.
ax = – 4 ay = 0
(1) Maximum work is required to move q in
figure (c). Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is = –4 m/s2
(2) In all the four cases the work done is the same. 170. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in
air and then in a medium other than air. It is found
(3) Minimum work is required to move q in
that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th
figure (a).
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the
(4) Maximum work is required to move q in medium is nearly
figure (b).
(1) 1.25
Answer (2)
(2) 1.59
Sol. Work done w = qV
(3) 1.69
V is same in all the cases so work is done will be
same in all the cases. (4) 1.78

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (4) Answer (3)

D Sol. Fe = Fg
Sol. X1 = X5th dark = (2 × 5 – 1)
2d
1 e 2 Gm 2
 2
D 40 d 2 d
X2 = X8th bright = 8
d
9 × 109 (e2) = 6.67 × 10–11 × 1.67
X1 = X2
× 10–27 × 1.67 × 10–27
9 D D 6.67  1.67  1.67
8 e 2   10 74
2 d d 9

16 e  10 37
  1.78
9
174. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio
171. If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed
signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
resistance of collector is 3 k. If current gain is 100
then the true angle of dip  is given by
and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and
(1) cot2 = cot21 + cot22 power gain of the amplifier is
(2) tan2 = tan21 + tan22 (1) 200 and 1000

(3) cot2 = cot21 – cot22 (2) 15 and 200

(4) tan2 = tan21 – tan22 (3) 150 and 15000

Answer (1) (4) 20 and 2000

Sol. cot2 = cot21 + cot22 Answer (3)

172. The given electrical network is equivalent to Sol. Current gain () = 100

Rc
Y Voltage gain (AV) = 
A Rb
B
⎛ 3⎞
= 100 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
(1) AND gate 2

(2) OR gate = 150

(3) NOR gate Power gain = AV 

(4) NOT gate = 150 (100)

Answer (3) = 15000

175. Figure shows a circuit contains three identical
Sol. Y  A  B resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two
173. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each,
slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + e). If and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current
the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force 'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is
between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance
R R
d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, L
then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen +
–
mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg] R L C

(1) 10–20 C (1) 2 mA

(2) 10–23 C (2) 0.2 A
(3) 10–37 C (3) 2 A
(4) 10–47 C (4) 0 ampere

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

Answer (3*) Before the string is cut

kx = T + 3mg ...(1)
R3
L1 R2
Sol  +
– T = mg ...(2)
R1 L2 C T

At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3

m
i
mg
+  kx = 4mg
  R2
–
After the string is cut, T = 0

kx  3mg kx
a=
 3m
i
R2
3m m
18 4mg  3mg
= a=  a = g
9 3m
mg
=2A 3mg
g
Note : Not correctly framed but the best option out a= 
of given is (3). 3
177. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis
176. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is
respectively are connected by a massless and incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45º
by a massless spring as shown in figure. The with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately through P2 is
after the string is cut, are respectively
I0
(1)
2

I0
(2)
4
A 3m I0
(3)
8
B m
I0
g g (4)
(1) g,
3
(2)
3
,g 16
Answer (3)
g g
(3) g, g (4) ,
3 3 P1 P3 P2
Answer (2) I2
Sol.
kx I0 I1 I3

90°
Sol. 3m
45°
T

3mg

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-P) TARA

I0 Answer (2)
I2  cos2 45
2 Erms
Sol. c
I0 1 Brms
 
2 2
Erms
I0 Brms 
 c
4
I0 6
I3  cos2 45 
4 3  108
I0 Brms = 2 × 10–8
I3 
8
B0
178. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about Brms =
their regular axis passing through centre and 2
perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
velocities 1 and 2. They are brought into contact B 0  2  Brms
face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
expression for loss of energy during this process is
= 2  2  10 –8
= 2.83 × 10–8 T
1
(1) I (1  2 )2 180. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the
2 following diagram.

1
(2) I (1  2 )2 P
4
IV
i f
(3) I(1 – 2)2
I III
f
I f II
(4) (1  2 )2 700 K
8 f 500 K
300 K
Answer (2) V

1 I1I2 Match the following

Sol. KE  (1   2 )2
2 I1  I2 Column-1 Column-2
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
2
1 I Q. Process II b. Isobaric
 (   2 )2
2 (2I ) 1 R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
1
 I (1   2 )2 (1) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b
4
(2) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b
179. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean (3) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a
square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
peak value of the magnetic field is (4) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c
Answer (2)
(1) 1.41 × 10–8 T
Sol. Process I = Isochoric
(2) 2.83 × 10–8 T
II = Adiabatic
(3) 0.70 × 10–8 T III = Isothermal
(4) 4.23 × 10–8 T IV = Isobaric
  
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