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MOCK TEST-4

IIT JEE, 2019


Paper Code
PAPER-I 100390.1
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 207

A. Question Paper Format


1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics-Part-I, Chemistry-Part-II, and Mathematics-Part-III) and each
part consists of four sections.
2. Section A(i) contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
3. Section A(ii) contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
4. Section A(iii) contains 2 groups of questions. Total 5 questions based on two paragraphs. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
5. Section - C contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the
section.

B. Marking scheme:
6. For each question in Section A(i), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( 1) mark will be
awarded.
7. For each question in Section A(ii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
8. For each question in Section A(iii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( 1) mark will be
awarded.
9. For each question in Section C, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section

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Mock Test-4 Paper-1 (100390.1)-CMP-IITJEE-2

PART I

SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. There is a uniform but variable magnetic field B B0 t ( k) , in a Y


2 2 2 Q
cylindrical region, whose boundary is described by x + y = a .
Q
2a
E.dy is
p X
P
(A) 0 (B) (B0 a2 ) 2a
4
B0 a 2
(C) (B0 a2 ) (D)
8 8

2. In a capillary rise experiment, radius of curvature of liquid surface


(approximately spherical) is R. If approximate rise in h, the surface h

ghR ghR
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) zero

3. A source and observer are approaching each other with same speed V. Velocity of sound in the
medium is Vs. Source emits sound of frequency f. Wavelength of sound pulse towards observer is
V Vs V Vs
(A) s (B)
f Vs V f
Vs V Vs V
(C) (D)
f f

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4. A thin shell is composed of a material which acts like a blackbody.


Radius of outer surface is R. A heating coil of power P is R
symmetrically placed at centre. Outside the shell is vacuum with

constant is b. In steady state, the wavelength at which the spectral


radiance becomes a maximum is
1 1
4 4 bR 4 4
(A) b R (B)
P P
4 bR 4
(C) b R (D)
P P

5. In a YDSE experiment the primary source S (which is far Screen


away from the slits) is moved towards slits symmetrically
and slowly. As a result d
(A) Fringe width increases O
S
(B) Fringe width decreases
(C) Positions of corresponding maxima remains same.
(D) Intensity of fringes decreases. D

6. Initially block is at rest and springs just relaxed. Now block is String Spring
displaced a little away and released. The time period of
k2 3k
oscillation of block is
m m m
(A) (B) 2 k1 k
k k
3 m 2 m Spring
(C) (D)
2 k 3 k

7. All surfaces are frictionless ratio of acceleration C


a m
of block B and acceleration of block A. B is B
aA
(A) 1 2m
1
(B)
2 A
(C) 3 m
(D) 2

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Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE are correct.

8. Plates of a capacitor have charges 2 C and C initially. Now the 2C C


switch S is closed. Which of the following statements is true? Assume
that the battery, resistor and wires do not have any capacitance.
(A) There is no change in charge at outer surfaces of the capacitor.
(B) There is no change in charge at inner surfaces of the capacitor. S
(C) Charge flowing through battery is zero
C R
(D) Charge flowing through the battery is
2

Y
9. There is a uniform horizontal magnetic field along ( k) and a uniform
gravitational field g( j) . A particle with charge q is projected from the B

origin along positive x-axis with speed V0, and is found to cross P (a, b) V0 X
O
after some time. Which of the following is true?
(A) The speed while crossing P is more than V0 g
(B) The speed while crossing P is less than V0 P
(C) Both magnetic field and gravitational field do work on particle
(D) Only gravitational field does work on particle.

10. A string is wrapped over a uniform cylinder, as shown in diagram (side view).
When cylinder is released, string unwraps without any slipping and cylinder
comes down. Which of the following is true?
(A) Work done by Tension force on the cylinder is zero
(B) Work done by the Tension is negative
1
(C) Ratio of rotational kinetic energy and translational kinetic energy is .
2
(D) Ratio of rotational kinetic energy to translational kinetic energy is 2.

11. Which of the following is true about ideal L C oscillatory circuit? Ignore any radiation.
(A) Total energy of the circuit dissipates with time.
(B) Total energy of the circuit remains conserved.
(C) Total charge on both plates of the capacitor (taken together) remains conserved.
(D) Total charge on both plates of the capacitor (taken together) oscillates simple harmonically.

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Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 13

Two identical blocks are placed on a smooth horizontal surface, View from above
connected by a light string of length 2 . String touches a fixed smooth l l

pulley at its mid-point initially. B A


Shaded parts are two smooth vertical walls. Block A is given a speed V0 V0
perpendicular to string as shown in diagram. B strikes the pulley and Fixed smooth pulley
stops.
Smooth Vertical Walls

12. Speed of block B when it hits the pulley is


V 3
(A) 0 (B) V0
2 2
3
(C) V0 (D) V0
8

13. Speed of A when it hits the wall is


V 3
(A) 0 (B) V0
2 2
3
(C) V0 (D) V0
8

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

In a hypothetical atom, a negatively charged particle having a charge of magnitude 3e and mass 3m revolves
around a proton. Here, e is the electronic charge and m is the electronic mass.
Mass of proton may be assumed to be much larger than that of the negatively charged particle, thus the
proton is at rest.
h
mvr n
2
It is given that for the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom: radius of orbit is r0, speed of electron is v 0, and total
energy is E0.

Now answer the following questions.

14. Speed of the revolving particle is, in the first Bohr orbit.
(A) v0 (B) 9v0
v
(C) 3v0 (D) 0
9

15. Radius of hypothetical atom is


r0
(A) r0 (B)
9
r0 r
(C) (D) 0
27 81

16. The momentum of an emitted photon when it makes a transition from the second excited state to
ground state, is
8E0 E
(A) (B) 0
c c
81 E 0 27E0
(C) (D)
4 c c

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SECTION C
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

1. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of unknown


height. Ball strikes a vertical wall whose plane is normal to the
plane of motion of ball. Collision is elastic and ball falls on
H
ground exactly at the midpoint between the tower and the wall.
Ball strikes the ground at an angle of the
Find the height of the tower (in meter). 30

8 3m

2. Four identical point charges are fixed at the four corners of a Q


square of a side length l. Another charged particle of mass m
and charge +q is projected towards centre of square from a Q
large distance along the line perpendicular to plane of square. m C
The minimum value of initial velocity v0 required to cross the A v0
square is?
l
Q
(m = 1 gm, l = 4 2 m, Q = 1 c, q = 0.5 c)
Q

3. Two identical convex lens of focal lengths 20 cm are Y


placed co-axially with separation 20 cm between them.
Optical centre of first lens is origin and axis as X-axis. A Point Object
bright point object has co-ordinates ( 20, 1) in cm, as
shown. Distance of final image from optical axis is (in ( 20 ,1)
cm X
cm). O

L1 L2
20cm

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4. A uniform vertical cylinder of cross-sectional area a l 80cm


floats, 90% submerged, in an unknown liquid inside a l
tank with cross-sectional area four times that of
10
cylinder. When cylinder is pushed down gently and 1
released it performs SHM. The maximum possible
amplitude (in cm) for this SHM is

4a(Cross sectional area)

5. Horizontal surface below block B is rough but B m


inclined surface below A is smooth as shown in
diagram. When A is given a small impulse down the g=10 m/s2
incline, blocks are found to slide with constant m=0.5 kg
M A
speed. T is tension in the string and is coefficient M=1 kg
of friction between block B and horizontal surface.
T
The value of is (in newton)

6. A rope whose mass is not negligible supports a block of mass three


times that of rope. A pulse is generated in string near lower end,
2
the pulse moves up with acceleration in(m/s ).

7. For P-V diagram shown for a diatomic ideal gas, heat given to 3
P (1unit 10 N/m)
2
2 B
the gas from A to B is(in kJ).

A
1

(1unit 1m3 )
V
1 2

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PART II

SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. An evacuated glass vessel weighs 70.0 g when empty, 180 g when filled with a liquid of density 1.1 g
-1
mL , and 71 g when filled with an ideal gas at 760 mm of Hg at 300 K. Determine the molar mass of
the gas
-1 -1
(A) 46 g mol (B) 246 g mol
-1 -1
(C) 123 g mol (D) 141 g mol

2. The reaction of an alkene (X) with Br2/CCl4 gives on optically active compound. The alkene (X) on
ozonolysis in presence of Zn gives two compounds (Y) and (Z), both gives yellow ppt. with NaOH/I2.
Which of the following can be alkene (X)?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

3. Product of which of the reaction cannot exhibit positive iodoform test?


Hg OCOCH3 /THF/H2O
(A) 2
(B) HOOC COOH
NaBH4 / OH

Br
O O CH
C
(C) R C O C R
(D)
Mg
ether
A Where R CH3
HBr excess H3 O
1 eq.

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4. Which of the following statement is not a valid postulate of Valence bond theory?
(A) Overlaping orbitals have unpaired electron
(B) Greater is the extent of overlapping higher is the bond strength
(C) Greater is the orbital overlapping higher is the bond length
(D) Lateral overlapping of atomic orbitals results in formation of -bond

5. If a water tank of 10 K Ltr. contains 55.5 g of CaCl2, 47.5 g of MgCl2, 84 g of MgSO4 and 81.6 g of
CaSO4 then what will be the degree of hardness for 1 Ltr. of water from this tank? (Assuming density
of solution in tank = 1 g/ml)
(A) 26.86 ppm (B) 23 ppm
(C) 130 ppm (D) 286.6 ppm
o o
6. When 160 ml of water at 80 C is mixed with 90 ml of water at 30 C, what will be the final
temperature?(Assume that no heat is lost to surrounding; density of water is 1.00 g/ml).
o o
(A) 55 C (B) 26.24 C
o o
(C) 62 C (D) 48.4 C

7.
o
temeperature, but at 200 C it undergoes a first order break down with a half-life of 12.0 min. An
o
industrial flavor enhancing process requires that a biacetyl flavoured food be heated briefly at 200 C.
How long can the food be heated and retain 85% of its butter flavor? (log 1.176 = 0.0706)
(A) 2.81 sec (B) 169 sec
(C) 2 mins (D) 16.9 mins

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Multiple Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

8. Saccharine may be prepared from o-toluene sulphonyl chloride by its reaction with NH3 followed by
oxidation by neutral KMnO4. o-toluene sulphonyl chloride may be prepared by o-methylaniline as
following
NH2
CH3
i NaNO 2 /H2SO4 Cl2
ii SO 2 Cu
A NaOH
o toluenesulphonylchloride

Which of the following is correct


(A) Saccharine has only one ring in the molecule
(B) M.W. of o-toluenesulphonyl chloride is more than saccharine
(C) Saccharine belongs to amine family
(D) The difference between M.W. of saccharine and o-toluenesulphonyl chloride is less than 10 g

9. In the following reaction sequence


+
N2 Cl

CuCN H3 O Br2
A B FeBr3
C

Which is not true about compound (C)?


(A)
(B)
formation with aq. NaOH treatment under normal conditions of pressure and temperature
(C)
(D)

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10. In which of the following pairs of nucleophiles former is more nucleophilic in polar protic medium than
later?
(A) OH,H2 O (B) F , Cl
O
(C) O, (D) NH3 ,NH2

11. Which of the following relation(s) is/are correct?


RT PM
(A) PV (B) d
d RT
PV 2Md w2
(C) w2 (D) n
RT VMd
Where P = pressure (in atm)
V = volume (in litre)
T = temperature (in K)
-1 -1
R = gas constant (0.0821 atm L K mol )
n = mole
d = density g/L
M = molecular weight (in g)
w = weight (in g)

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Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices A), B), C) and D) out of WHICH ONLY ONE CORRECT.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 13

During the practice of isomerism in a class a student Paul was given an exercise by his teacher E.Smith as
following:
s among
carbon (C), hydrogen (H), deuterium (D) and oxygen (O). [MW of C(12), H(1), D(2), O(16)]
Condition 1: You cannot use more than three similar atoms in a molecule.
Condition 2: The molecule must be saturated.

Now, answer the following questions:

12. If Paul has to draw the structure of an optically active molecule with lowest possible molecular weight
by following above conditions then what would be the molecular weight of that structure?
(A) 46 (B) 47
(C) 48 (D) 49

13. What will be the lowest possible molecular weight for the compound which is optically inactive
prepared with using above conditions by Paul.
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

librium
over the time:

A B C D E

Gas X2 : Solid colour ( ) Gas Y2 : colourless ( )


Reaction as X 2 g Y2 g 2XY g

14. If each particle represents 0.2 moles of particles then what will be the value of reaction quotient (Q)
for scene B?
(A) 0.36 (B) 0.18
(C) 4 (D) 5

15. -
each of [X] and [Y] in scene A the equilibrium stage can be represented by which of the picture?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

16. in
terms of moles?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) None the above

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SECTION C
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

1. How many aldehydes with M.F. CnH2nO can give geometrical isomers on reaction with hydrazine
where n = 1 to 5 (including all).

2. How many of the following compounds contains ionic as well as covalent bond?
N2, NaN3, Li3N, Na2O2, HCl, KO2, CaC2, C2H2, KCN

3. The sum of the oxidation states of sulphur in the following compounds will be?
FeS2, K2S2O3, Na2S2O4, S2Cl2

4. Evacuated flask surrounded


P = Pressure
with water bath
T = Temperature
A B V = Volume

4 moles 3
P, T, V 4 T, V
x moles
1 P, T,1/4V
2
If stopcocks A and B are removed then the number of moles remained in flask (1) is y and flask
(3) is z then value of y + z (nearest integer)? (Assuming volume of connecting tubes is negligible)

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2+ 2+
5. The voltaic cell using Cu/Cu and Sn/Sn half cells is set up at standard conditions, and each
compartment has a volume of 240 mL. The cell delivers 0.15 A for 52.3 h then the concentration in
x
Cu chamber is so value of x is: [Given: Cu (M.W. = 63.5)]
10

6. What would be the atomic number of the missing species in the given transmutation
10
B ,n _____

7. How many of the following acids are relatively more acidic than acetic acid
COOH COOH COOH
CH3 OCH3
(A) (B) (C)

Cl
COOH OH
O2N NO2

(D) (E) (F) H2CO3

NO2 NO2
COOH
OH
I
(G) HCOOH (H) (I)

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PART III

SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2 2
1. A ray along the tangent drawn at point P(1, 1) on x + y = 2 gets reflected from line L at a distance of
2 units from point P. If reflected ray passes through the centre of circle then slope of line L can be
1 2 1 2 1 2 1
(A) tan , where is sin (B) tan , where is sin
4 2 3 2

1 2 1
(C) tan , where is sin (D) none of these
7 2

2
2. A variable chord PQ of the parabola y = 4x subtends a right angle at the vertex. Then the locus of
points of intersection of the tangents at P and Q is
2
(A) 4 y 1 16 x (B) y 4 0
(C) 4 y 4 4x2 (D) 4 y 1 0

3. A person writes a sequence of natural numbers randomly whose sum is 100. The probability that
there are exactly 45 terms in the sequence is
100 99
C45 C44
(A) 99
(B) 100
2 2
99 100
C44 C45
(C) 99
(D) 100
2 2

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4. There are twenty points A1, A2, ..... A20 on a circle. The number of ways of selecting 4 points such that
there are atleast two points in between any two selected points is
11
C3
(A) 20 C1 11C3 (B) 20 C1
4
10
C3
(C) 20 C1 (D) none of these
4

5. The foot of perpendicular drawn from A( ) on the line passing through B( ) and perpendicular to OB
(where O is origin and , are complex numbers) is

(A) (B)
2 2

(C) (D) none of these


2

1 1
6. The value of 2
dx is equal to
x x6

1 1 x4 1 1 x4 x2 1 1 x4 1 x4 x2
(A) ln c (B) ln c
2 x2 2 1 x4 x2 2 x2 1 x4 x2

1 1 x2 1 1 x4 x2
(C) ln c (D) none of these
2 x2 2 1 x4 x2

7. Number of positive integral solutions of x1x2x3x4 = 3 1 5 1 7 1 11 1


(where 1, 1, 1, 1 are integers such that 0 1 1, 0 1 1, 0 1 1, 0 1 1), is
(A) 625 (B) 580
(C) 550 (D) 650

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Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE or MORE are correct.

8. Let is the only point of intersection of three planes, r a p1 , r b p2 , r c p3 then which of


following is/are correct
(A) a b c 0 (B) a , b , c are the non coplanar vectors
(C) abc p3 a b p1 b c p2 c a (D) p1 b c p2 a b p3 c a

9. Let g(x) is twice differentiable function satisfying g(0) = 0, g(1) = 1. Then, which of following is/are
correct
(A) there exist distinct C1, C2 (0, 1) such that g' C1 g' C2 2
(B) there will be atleast one C such that g' C 1 for C (0, 1)
(C) there will be atleast one C (0, 1) such that g(C) = C for C (0, 1)
(D) if g( ) = for (0, 1) then there will exist atleast one C (0, 1) such that g" C 0

10. Family of curves which makes an angle of with the family of hyperbola xy = a, is
4
(a > 0, and a is a parameter)
2 2 2 2
(A) x 2xy y = A (B) y 2xy x = A
2 2 2 2
(C) x + 3xy y = A (D) y + 4xy x = A

11. If A and B are two square matrices of order 3 3 such that AB = A and BA = B, then which of
following is/are correct
4 4 10 10
(A) A + B = A + B (B) A + B = A + B
4 4 2 2
(C) A + B = A B (D) ABA BA + BAB AB = A + B

Rough work

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Mock Test-4 Paper-1 (100390.1)-CMP-IITJEE-20

Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based
on the other paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 13


2 2
From A(0, 0) two tangents AP and AQ are drawn to (x + 2) + (y + 2) = 4. The line MN (M and N are mid
x2 y2
point of AP and AQ) intersect the ellipse 1 at points R and S. Circle with RS as diameter intersects
9 4
ellipse at U and V.

12. Equation of circle passing through points R, S, U, V is equal to


2 2 2 2
(A) 13x + 13y + 8x + 8y + 3 = 0 (B) 13x + 13y + 10x + 8y 13 = 0
2 2
(C) 13x + 13y + 18x + 8y 59 = 0 (D) none of these

13. Power of point of (0, 1) with respect to the above circle is


(A) a negative number (B) a positive number
(C) 0 (D) none of these

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

x2 10x 8, x 2
2
Let continuous function f (x) = px qx r, 2 x 0 , where p
2
x 2x, x 0
y = f (x) at 3 points, then

14.
2 2 2 2
(A) x + y = 1 (B) x + y 2x 4y 9 = 0
2 2
(C) (y + 2) = 48 (x + 1) (D) (y + 2) = 13 (x + 1)

15. The value of p + q + r is equal to


(A) 5 2 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

16. Range of f (x) in [ 2, 0] is


(A) [ 8, 0] (B) [ 9, 1]
(C) [ 10, 3] (D) none of these

Rough work

Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
Mock Test-4 Paper-1 (100390.1)-CMP-IITJEE-21

SECTION C

Integer Answer Type


This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

3 20 N
1. Let N tan 4 sin . The value of is equal to (where [.] is G.I.F.) __________.
11 111 3

2. At a point A (1, 1) on ellipse equation of tangent is y = x. If one of the foci of ellipse is (0, 2) and the
co ordinates of centre of ellipse are ( , ), then the value of + is __________. (Given length of
major axis of ellipse is 4 10 units)

3. If complex number z satisfies the condition |z 2 + i| 1, then maximum distance of origin from
A(4 + i(2 z)) is __________.

2x 3y 3x y x 2y
4. If x 3z 2x z 3x 2z (x y z) for all x, y, z R, then the value of is equal to
y 2z 2y 3z 3y z
__________.

5. Area enclosed by y = g(x), x = 3, x = 5 and x axis where g(x) is inverse function of


3
f(x) = x + 3x + 1 is A, then [A] is __________. (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function

6. nes x + y = 1, z = 0 and x y = 2, y+ z = 3.
x y z 1 3 n
and the value of cos is ,
1 2 3 14 8
then [n] is __________, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function.
3 2
7. Let f (x) = x + x + 2x 1. The minimum value of [x] if x satisfy f (f(x)) > f (2x + 1) is _________,
where [.] denotes the greatest integer function.

Rough work

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website: www.fiitjee.com

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