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FULL LENGTH GS (PT-05) EXPLANATIONS– 2019
1. Which of the following schools of architecture
of Medieval India adopted the ‘Stellate’
ground plan?
a. Hoyasala School
b. Mathura School
c. Golconda School
d. Pahari School
Answer: (a) The Hoysala temple art and architecture
is an important architectural feature of Indian
art history in general and Karnataka in
particular. Hoyasala School used the stellate
ground plan. The stellate or the star shaped
plan is an originality that was introduced by the
Hoysala artists.
2. Farazi Movement was
a. A movement against the import of foreign
cotton clothes.
b. A movement against the partition of
Bengal.
c. The first ever no-tax campaign against the
British.
d. A campaign in favour of conducting the
Indian Civil Services exam in India.
Answer: (c ) Farazi Movement (1838-1848) was the
first ever no-tax campaign against the British
Government led by Shariatullah Khan and Dadu
Mian. Their band of volunteers fought heroically
with the armed group of Indigo planters and
zamindars. It brought together all the
cultivators of Bengal against the tyranny and
illegal extractions by the landlords.
3. With reference to Tanjore paintings, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. These paintings were originally done on
wood but later these were executed on glass.
2. The distinctive features are aristocratic or
religious figures adorned with jewellery and
embellishments.
3. This style of painting was characterised by
bold drawing, techniques of shading and the
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use of pure and brilliant colours
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) Tanjore Painting is an interesting
combination of art and craft that grew in the
region of Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu under Maratha
influence. This style of painting was
characterised by bold drawing, techniques of
shading and the use of pure and brilliant
colours. The main colours were red, yellow,
black, and white. The distinctive features were
aristocratic or religious figures adorned with
jewellery and surrounded by elaborate
architectural arches and doorways. Originally
done on wood, it is encrusted with semi-
precious stones. Later the paintings were
executed on glass. The glass paintings are
coloured from outside inwards. The outlines
and final touches have to be done first since the
artist paints the picture from the reverse side of
the glass. A typical example of the Tanjore
painting is an illustrated wooden panel of early
19th century showing the coronation of Rama.
4. Which among the following site are
extensively studied sites for Mesolithic
Culture?
a. Adamgarh
b. Chopani Mando
c. Bagor
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) Bagor in Rajasthan, Damdama and
Mahdahain Uttar Pradesh are extensively
studied sites for Mesolithic Culture. Other
various sites of the Mesolithic period were
located in: Langhnaj in Gujarat Sarai Nahar Rai,
Chopani Mando in Uttar Pradesh Bhimbetka and
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Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Kerala,
Andhra Pradesh
5. Who among the following introduced paper
manufacturing in Kashmir, built an island in
the middle of Wular Lake and is also fondly
remembered as the ‘Akbar of Kashmir’?
a. Zain-ul-abbiddin
b. Sikander shah
c. Suha bhatt
d. Shamsuddin shah
Answer: (a) Zain-ul-abbiddin is called as the ‘Akbar
of Kashmir’, who introduced paper
manufacturing in Kashmir, and built Zaina Lank -
an island in the middle of Wular Lake.
6. Which of the following statements is/are true
about ex-situ conservation?
1. It aims to safeguard populations which are
in danger of genetic deterioration.
2. Ex-situ conservation ensures the ongoing
process of evolution and adaptation within
their environments.
3. Protected Areas like National Parks, Wildlife
Sanctuaries and Biosphere Reserves are an
example of ex-situ conservation.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (a) Protected Areas like National Parks,
Wildlife Sanctuaries and Biosphere Reserves are
an example of in-situ conservation which deals
with the on-site conservation of the wild genetic
resources/genetic diversity in natural habitat.
Botanical garden is an example of Ex-situ
conservation (outside natural habitats). Ex-situ
conservation techniques are implemented in
well-defined situations:
• To safeguard populations or individuals that
are in danger of physical destruction when
protection in situ is not possible;
• To safeguard populations which are in danger
of genetic deterioration;
• To ensure a readily available, continuous
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supply of reproductive material, either creating
a production source or through storage;
• To allow commercial improvement of a
species through breeding activities and supply
of genetically improved reproductive material.
7. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh was
dethroned and exiled to Calcutta on the plea
that-
a. he was in secret alliance with the French
b. his son was adopted
c. the region was being misgoverned
d. he disrespected the british
Answer: (c ) Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was dethroned
and exiled to Calcutta on the plea that the
region was being misgoverned. The British
government also wrongly assumed that Wajid
Ali Shah was an unpopular ruler. On the
contrary, he was widely loved, and when he left
his beloved Lucknow, there were many who
followed him all the way to Kanpur singing
songs of lament.
8. Which of the following events does not take
place before the setting up of the Deccan Riots
Commission:
1. Revolt of 1857
2. Jallianwala bagh massacre
3. Abolition of sati
4. Introduction of railway
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 , 2 and 3 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 4 Only
d. 2 Only
Answer: (d) The commission was set up in 1875.
Jallianwal Bagh Massacre – 1919. All other dates
precede 1875.The Bengal Sati Regulation which
banned the Sati practice in all jurisdictions of
British India was passed on December 4, 1829
by the then Governor-General Lord William
Bentinck.Railways were introduced during
British Rule in India. The first passenger train
was in 1853 from Bombay (now Mumbai) to
Thane
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9. Damin-I-Koh was a large area of land
demarcated by the British for the benefit of
which of the following tribes?
a. Santhals
b. Kauris
c. Panchalas
d. Kurubas
Answer: (a) The Santhals were given land and
persuaded to settle in the foothills of Rajmahal.
By 1832 a large area of land was demarcated as
Damin-i-Koh. This was declared to be the land of
the Santhals. They were to live within it,
practise plough agriculture, and become settled
peasants.
After the demarcation of Damin-i-Koh, Santhal
settlements expanded rapidly. From 40 Santhal
villages in the area in 1838, as many as 1,473
villages had come up by 1851. Over the same
period, the Santhal population increased from a
mere 3,000 to over 82,000. As cultivation
expanded, an increased volume of revenue
flowed into the Company’s coffers.
10.Which among the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The Tura Range in Gora Hills of Meghalaya is
a gene sanctuary for preserving the rich native
diversity of wild Citrus and Musa species.
2. The Eastern Himalayas area is recognized as
‘Cradle of Speciation’ as it serves as a rich
centre of primitive flowering plants.
Select the correct statements using the codes
given below:
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Phytogeographically, the Eastern
Himalayas forms a distinct floral region and
comprises Nepal, Bhutan, neighbouring states
of east and north-east India, and a contiguous
sector Yunnan province in south western China.
In the whole of Eastern Himalayas, there are an
estimated 9000 plant species, with 3500 (i.e.
39%) of them being endemic. In India’s sector of
the area, there occur some 5800 plant species,
roughly 2000 (i.e. 36%) of them being endemic.
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At least 55 flowering plants endemic to this area
are recognized as rare, for example, the pitcher
plant (Nepenthes khasiana). The area has long
been recognized as a rich centre of primitive
flowering plants and the area is recognized as
‘Cradle of Speciation’. The Tura Range in Gora
Hills of Meghalaya is a gene sanctuary for
preserving the rich native diversity of wild Citrus
and Musa species.
11.Who among the following was not a leader in
the revolt of 1857?
a. Gonoo
b. Shah mal
c. Maulvi Amidullah shah
d. None of the above
Answer: (d) All of them were involved. Gonoo, a
tribal cultivator of Singhbhum in Chotanagpur,
became a rebel leader of the Kol tribals of the
region. Shah Mal mobilised the headmen and
cultivators of chaurasee des, moving at night
from village to village, urging people to rebel
against the British. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
was one of the many maulvis who played an
important part in the revolt of 1857.
12. Which of the following rivers are tributaries
of Mahanadi river?
a. Musi and Bhima
b. Hasdeo and Tel
c. Dhaleshwari and Sonai
d. Shimsha and Bhavani
Answer: (b) Mahanadi rises from Raipur district of
Chhatisgarh and flows for about 851 km before
its outfall into the Bay of Bengal. Its main
tributaries are the Seonath, the Jonk, the
Hasdeo, the Mand, the ib, the Ong and the Tel.
Dhaleshwari (Tlawng) and the Sonai (Tuirial) are
tributaries of barak river. Shimsha and Bhavani
are tributaries of Kaveri river. Musi and Bhima
rivers are tributaries of Krishna river.
13.As per World Health Organisation, which of the
following is the definition of 'Stillbirth'
applicable for international comparison is:
a. A baby that has died in the womb.
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b. A baby born with no signs of life at or
after 28 weeks' gestation
c. A baby born with no signs of life
regardless of the duration of gestation.
d. A baby that dies during premature
delivery before 14 weeks' gestation.
Answer: (b) "A baby born with no signs of life at or
after 28 weeks' gestation" also means that the
baby might have died when in the womb, not
necessarily during delivery. This WHO page says,
"Almost half of stillbirths happen when the
woman is in labour".
14. Consider the following statements, with
reference to the e-governance system:
1. It provides exchange of information with
citizens and government departments only.
2. It involves restructuring of administrative
processes.
3. It provides speedier and more efficient
delivery of public services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (c ) E- Governance involve the use of ICTs
by government agencies for any or all of the
following reasons: Exchange of information with
citizens, businesses or other government
departments • Speedier and more efficient
delivery of public services. • Improving internal
efficiency. • Reducing costs / increasing revenue.
• Re-structuring of administrative processes and •
Improving quality of services.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of
information is not limited to citizens and
government departments, business groups are
also involved in the use of ICT for E-governance.
15. Consider the following statements:
1. World Conservation Monitoring Centre led
by IUCN, works with scientists and policy
makers to help decision-makers take full
account of the values of biodiversity.
2. The Species Survival Commission is a
science-based network of volunteer experts,
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working to reduce the loss of diversity of life
on earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) The UN Environment World
Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP-WCMC)
works with scientists and policy makers worldwide
to place biodiversity at the heart of environment
and development decision-making to enable
enlightened choices for people and the planet.
Based in Cambridge, UK, UNEP-WCMC is a
collaboration between UN Environment and the
UK charity, WCMC.
The Species Survival Commission (SSC) is one of
the six volunteer Commissions within the IUCN,
with the mission to conserve biological diversity
by developing and executing programmes to
study, save, restore and manage wisely, the
species and their habitats. SSC is the source of
information for IUCN on the conservation of
species. On behalf of the IUCN, the SSC promotes
and delivers its knowledge, advice and policies to
those who can influence the implementation of
conservation action. The SSC has its headquarters
at the IUCN.
16. Which of the following statements is/are true
about monsoon theory in India?
1. Thermal theory is based on basic theory of
high pressure and low pressure and change in
direction due to Ferrel's law.
2. Jet stream theory suggests the presence of
the easterly jet stream to the north of the
Himalayas and the tropical easterly jet stream
over the Indian peninsula during summer.
3. El Niño theory suggests a weak low
pressure in Indian subcontinent and strong
low pressure in Indian Ocean.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
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Answer: (b) Thermal theory is based around
theory of high pressure and low pressure and
change in direction due to Ferrel's law.
The movement of the westerly jet stream to the
north of the Himalayas and the presence of the
tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian
peninsula during summer. Thus 2nd statement is
incorrect
El Niño theory suggests a weak low pressure in
Indian subcontinent and strong low pressure in
Indian Ocean.
17. Arrange below given list of African lakes from
North to South orientation
1. Lake Victoria
2.Lake Tanganyika
3. Lake Malawi
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
a. 1-2-3
b. 1-3-2
c. 3-2-1
d. 2-3-1
Answer: (a) With reference to the physical map of
Africa it is clearly visible that Lake Victoria is in the
most northern side of given three lakes. Then to
the South of it we find Lake Tanganyika and the
lake Malawi is in the South of both the above
given lakes.
18. During the Quit India Movement, who among
the following leaders said, “the presence of
the British in India is an invitation to Japan to
invade India”?
a. M.K.Gandhi
b. Jawahar lal Nehru
c. Subash Chandra Bose
d. B.R.Ambedkar
Answer: (a) The failure of the Cripps Mission made
the Indians frustrated and embittered. It was time
to launch another mass movement against the
British rule – the Quit India Movement. Discontent
of Indian people was increasing due to wartime
shortages and growing unemployment. There was
a constant danger of Japanese attack. The Indian
leaders were convinced that India would be a
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victim of Japanese aggression only because of
British presence in India. Gandhiji said, “the
presence of the British in India is an invitation to
Japan to invade India”. Subhash Chandra Bose,
who escaped from India in 1941, repeatedly spoke
over radio from Berlin arousing anti-British feeling
which gave rise to pro-Japanese sentiments
19. One of the important indices of population
concentration is the density of population.
Consider the following statements with regard
to Population Density:
1. Population Density is defined as the
number of persons living within a constituency
based on the electoral roll.
2. The density of population increased in all
states and union territories between 1991 and
2011.
3. Among major states, Uttar Pradesh is the
most thickly populated state followed by West
Bengal.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. None of the above
Answer: (b) One of the important indices of
population concentration is the density of
population. It is defined as the number of persons
per sq.km. The population density of India in 2011
was 382 per sq. km-decadal growth 17.72 per
cent. The density of population increased in all
states and union territories between 1991 and
2011. Among major states, Bihar is the most
thickly populated state with (a population density
of) 1,106 persons per sq.km followed by West
Bengal 1,028 and Kerala 860.
20. Consider the following statements about Basic
Lavas:
1. Basic lavas contains small amount of silica.
2. Basic lavas have low melting point.
3. Basic lavas involve explosive volcanic
activity.
4. It builds gently sloping cones.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
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b. 1, 2 and 4 Only
c. 1, 3 and 4 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (b) Acidic lavas contain large amount of
silica, are highly viscous/sticky, have a high
melting point, are slow flowing, seldom travel far,
build steep sided cones and involve explosive
volcanic activity.
Whereas Basic Lava contains small amount of
silica, are highly fluid, have a low melting point,
fast flowing, travel long distances, build gently
sloping cones, and are quiet, without much
explosive activity.
21. Which among the following subjects are
included in the Mahapuranas:
1. Manvantara
2. Sarga
3. Surya Vamsha
4. Vamshanucharita
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 2, 3 and 4 Only
b. 1, 2 and 4 Only
c. 1, 3 and 4 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) The Mahapuranas have five subjects.
These are : (1) Sarga, the original creation of the
universe, (2) Pratisarga, the periodical process of
destruction and re-creation, (3) Manvantara, the
different eras or cosmic cycles, (4) Surya Vamsha
and Chandra Vamsa, the histories of the solar and
lunar dynasties of Gods and sages, (5)
Vamshanucharita, the genealogies of kings.
Around this core skeleton of the five subjects any
Purana adds other diverse materials like matters
of religious concern, customs, ceremonies,
sacrifices, festivals, the duties of various castes,
different types of donations, details of the
construction of temples and images, and
descriptions of places of pilgrimage.
22. Waterfalls and rapids landforms are formed in
which of the following stages?
a. Forms in youth stage and disappears in
mature stage.
b. Forms in mature stage.
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c. Forms in mature stage and disappear in
old stage.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Waterfalls and rapids may exist in
youth stage where local hard rock bodies are
exposed but disappear in mature stage.
23. Which among the following are Major
biodiversity threats
1. Filling up of wetlands
2. Extension of agriculture
3. Uncontrolled commercial exploitation
4. Habitat destruction
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 Only
b. 2, 3 and 4 Only
c. 1, 2 and 4 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) Major Biodiversity threats are as
follows:
• Habitat destruction
• Extension of agriculture
• Filling up of wetlands
• Conversion of rich bio-diversity site for human
settlement and industrial development
• Destruction of coastal areas
• Uncontrolled commercial exploitation
24. Consider the following statements in regard to
ecological footprints:
1. The Ecological Footprint standards
measures how much biologically productive
area is required to produce the resources
needed by humans and to absorb humanity’s
carbon dioxide emissions.
2. Ecological Footprints can be calculated for
individual people, groups of people including a
nation and, activities such as manufacturing a
product).
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct
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25. Tarnetar fair and Madhavrai fair are held in
which of the following states?
a. Rajasthan
b. Gujarat
c. Haryana
d. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (b) Tarnetar fair is held at village Tarnetar
of Surendranagar district in the honour of Lord
Shiva. This fair is held every year in the month of
Bhadrapada (August/ September). Madhavrai fair
at Madhavpur near Porbandar (Gujarat) is held on
the ninth day of the bright half of the month of
Chaitra (March/April).
26. Consider the following about Non-Banking
Financial Companies:
1. The repayment of deposits by NBFCs is
guaranteed by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. NBFCs are allowed to accept demand
deposits (i.e., the saving and current
accounts).
3. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and
settlement system and cannot issue cheques
drawn on itself.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. None of the above
Answer: (c ) A Non-Banking Financial Company
(NBFC) is a company registered under the
Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of
loans and advances, acquisition of
shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued
by Government or local authority or other
marketable securities of a like nature, leasing,
hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business
NBFCs are not allowed to accept demand deposits
(i.e., the saving and current accounts). The
repayment of deposits by NBFCs is not guaranteed
by the Reserve Bank of India. NBFCs do not form
part of the payment and settlement system and
cannot issue cheques drawn on itself.
27. Consider the following about Global Learning
and Observation to Benefit the Environment
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(GLOBE):
1. Indian Environmental Society is the
implementing agency for Globe in India.
2. It aims to bring together the most
developed space agencies of tropical countries
to work towards better understanding of
cyclones.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) The Global Learning and Observations
to Benefit the Environment (GLOBE) Program is an
international science and education program that
provides students and the public worldwide with
the opportunity to participate in data collection
and the scientific process, and contribute
meaningfully to our understanding of the Earth
system and global environment. Announced by
the U.S. Government on Earth Day in 1994, GLOBE
launched its worldwide implementation in
1995.The Ministry of Environment and Forests
(MoEF) has appointed Indian Environmental
Society as a Nodal Agency for implementing the
Global Learning and Observations to Benefit the
Environment (GLOBE).
28. With reference to Ganges Dolphin consider
the following statements:
1. Ganges River Dolphin is the India’s National
Aquatic Animal
2. Ganges Dolphin is the only "obligate"
freshwater dolphins
3. Ganges River Dolphin is placed under
“Endangered Category” in the IUCN Red List
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (b) 2nd Statement is wrong as Ganges
dolphin is among the four "obligate" freshwater
dolphins - the other three are the baiji now likely
extinct from the Yangtze river in China, the bhulan
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of the Indus in Pakistan and the boto of the
Amazon River in Latin America. Indus River
Dolphin is found in Indus River in Pakistan and also
in Beas and Sutlej rivers in India.
29. Uruguay round is mentioned in the context of
a. World Trade Organization (WTO)
b. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c. World Economic Forum
d. World Health Organization (WHO)
Answer: (a) The Uruguay Round was the 8th round
of multilateral trade negotiations (MTN)
conducted within the framework of the General
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), spanning
from 1986 to 1994 and embracing 123 countries
as "contracting parties".
The Round led to the creation of the World Trade
Organization, with GATT remaining as an integral
part of the WTO agreements.
30. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates
which of the following aspects of Commercial
Banks in India?
1. Issuance of licences for opening of banks
2. Expansion and approval of Indian banks to
operate overseas
3. Monitoring maintenance of SLR and CRR by
banks
4. Dealing with policy issues relating to
customer service
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 Only
b. 2, 3 and 4 Only
c. 1, 3 and 4 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) Statement 1 and 2: Licences for
opening of banks; ‘Authorisations’ for opening of
branches by banks in India, governing foreign
banks entry and expansion and approval of Indian
banks to operate overseas etc. are regulated by
RBI.
Statement 3 and 4: Policy formulation, review and
implementation on Prudential Norms, Basel
frameworks, validation of quantitative
models on Credit, Market and Operational Risks,
Stress testing, CRR, SLR adherence etc are also
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seen by the RBI.
It also approves appointments of chief executive
officers (private sector and foreign banks) and
their compensation packages.
31. Consider the following about bills referred to
a Joint Committee of the
Parliament.
1. A Joint Committee cannot recommend
amendment of the bill, and can only record its
observations on the bill.
2. A Money bill cannot be referred to a Joint
Committee of the Houses.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) If a Bill is referred to a Select or a Joint
Committee, it considers the Bill clause-by-clause
just as the House does. Amendments can be
moved to the various clauses by the members of
the
Committee. After the report of the Select or Joint
Committee has been presented to the House, the
member-in-charge of the Bill usually moves the
motion for consideration of the Bill, as reported
by the Select or Joint Committee, as the case may
be
32. Ubiquitous computing is an emerging domain
referring to
a. Decentralization of computing power to
human brain
b. Trend towards embedding
microprocessors in everyday objects so
they can communicate information
c. Low cost supercomputing powers
d. Bridging the digital divide between rural
and urban regions
Answer: (b) It is the growing trend towards
embedding microprocessors in everyday objects
so they can communicate information.
Check - http://deity.gov.in/content/ubiquitous-
computing
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33. Communal representation was for the first
time by way of separate
electorates was introduced by
a. Government of India Act of 1858
b. Minto- Morley Reforms of 1909
c. Indian Councils Act of 1892
d. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation
Answer:(b)The Minto- Morley reforms never
desired to set up a parliamentary form of
government in India.
• The principle of election to the councils was
legally recognized. But communal representation
was for the first time introduced in the interests of
Muslims. Separate electorates were provided for
the Muslims.
• The number of members in provincial legislative
councils of major provinces was raised to 50.
• The Councils were given right to discuss and
pass resolutions on the Budget and on all matters
of public interest. However, the Governor-
General had the power to disallow discussion on
the budget.
• An Indian member was appointed for the first
time to the Governor- General’s Executive Council.
Sir S. P. Sinha wasthe first Indian to be appointed
thus.
34. With reference to the Insolvency &
Bankruptcy Code 2016 (IBC), consider the
following statements.
1. IBC provides that insolvency resolution
process should be completed within 90 days.
It can be extended by 90 days if the case is
complex.
2. Under IBC, either the creditor (banks) or the
loaner (defaulter) can initiate insolvency
proceedings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) IBC provides that insolvency
resolution process should be completed within
180 days. It can be extended by 90 days if the case
is complex.
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35. Which of the following is NOT a Non-Banking
Financial Company (NBFC)?
a. Chit funds
b. Companies engaging in Insurance business
c. Companies engaging in stock broking
d. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) that raise loans
from cooperatives
Answer: (d) India has financial institutions which
are not banks but which accept deposits and
extend credit like banks. These are called Non-
Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India.
So, clearly (d) is not a NBFC, since it doesn’t
extend credit or accept deposits.
36. Son-Meta Preference mentioned in the
Economic Survey 2017-18, refers to:
a. It is where male children are given better
nutrition
b. It is where parents continue to have
children until they have the desired
number of sons
c. It is where female children are
discouraged for education
d. Sex selective abortion
Answer: (b) Many Indian parents are opting to
continue having children till they have the desired
number of sons. The survey calls this the son
“meta” preference, and suggests that while it
avoids sex-selective abortion, it can still hurt
female children by reducing the resources
available to them.
37. Global Climate Risk Index is prepared by?
a. World Meteorological Organization
b. International Energy Agency
c. Germanwatch
d. World Economic Forum
Answer: (c ) India is the sixth most vulnerable
country in the world in terms of facing extreme
weather events with Haiti, Zimbabwe, Fiji, Sri
Lanka and Vietnam taking top five positions in the
fresh list of nations facing climate risk.
The ranking was released by the Germanwatch, an
independent Berlin-based development and
environmental organization, in its latest global
climate risk index (CRI).
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38. With reference to Nilgiri Tahr, consider the
following statements
1. It is the state animal of Kerala
2. The Nilgiri tahr is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills
and the southern portion of the Western
Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
in Southern India
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) Nilgiri tahr is an endangered mountain
ungulate listed in schedule I of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act 1972 and considered as
endangered by the IUCN. 1st statement is wrong
as it is state animal of Tamil Nadu
39. With reference to Farmer Producer
Organizations, consider the following
statements
1. These are hybrid organizations combining
features of a shareholder-owned company
and cooperatives
2. In Farmer Producer each producer or
member has voting rights proportional to the
number of shares held.
3. They are owned and governed by
shareholder farmers (or artisans) and
administered by professional managers.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (b) On the recommendations of an expert
panel led by Y.K. Alagh, Centre had amended the
Indian Companies Act, 1956, in 2002-03 to provide
for “producer companies”. A Farmer Producer
Company is a hybrid between cooperative
societies and private limited companies. The
objective of the concept of FPC is to organize
farmers into a collective to improve their
bargaining strength in the market.
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2nd statement is wrong as The Farmer Producer
companies have democratic governance, each
producer or member has equal voting rights
irrespective of the number of shares held.
40. In the Lok Sabha, who decides the sitting
order of the members?
a. Member can sit at a place of their
preference barring the first rows
b. Secretary General, Lok Sabha
c. Leader of the House
d. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Answer: (d) These rules pertain to Lok Sabha’s
“SUMMONS TO MEMBERS, SEATING, OATH OR
AFFIRMATION AND ROLL OF MEMBERS:”
The Secretary-General shall issue summons to
each member specifying the date and place for a
session of the House. The members shall sit in
such order as the Speaker may determine.
41. With reference to National Biodiversity
Authority, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established under the
Biological Diversity Act (BDA), 2002
2. It shall have the same powers as are vested
in a civil court under the Code
3. Its headquarter is in Chennai
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) The National Biodiversity Authority
(NBA) was established by the Central Government
in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity
Act (2002). The NBA is a Statutory Body and it
performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory
functions for the Government of India on issues of
conservation, sustainable use of biological
resources and fair and equitable sharing of
benefits arising out of the use of biological
resources.
42. With reference to the Ujjwala Plus, consider
the following statements
1. The scheme will allow people to donate
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cooking gas connections for poor households
2. Donors can pay the cost of the Ujjwala LPG
connection to a non-profit company floated
by the oil ministry
3. Each connection costs Rs 1,600, donors will
not get tax benefit
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (a) The package, to be called 'Ujjwala
Plus', will allow good samaritans — corporates
included — to donate cooking gas connections for
poor households. 3rd Statement is wrong as
donors to get relief under Section 80G of tax
norms
43. Kisan Suvidha and Pusa Krishi for benefit of
farmers are
a. Mobile applications
b. Agriculture Extension Centres
c. Soil Health cards
d. Government sponsored GM seed centres
Answer: (a) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
Welfare has launched two mobile apps called
Kisan Suvidha and Pusa Krishi for benefit of
farmers and all other stake holders.
Pusha Krishi app will provide farmers with
information related to new varieties of crops
developed by Indian Council of Agriculture
Research (ICAR), resource conserving cultivation
practices as well as farm machinery and its
implementation will help in increasing returns to
farmers. Both have been developed in house.
44. The Indian Parliamentary Group is
a. An autonomous body, membership of
which is open to all current
or former members of the Indian
Parliament.
b. A standing committee of the Parliament
presided by the Speaker
c. A youth forum eliciting their participation
in active national
politics
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d. An attached office under the Ministry of
Parliamentary Affairs
that trains and assists the newly elected
MPs in discharge of their
responsibilities
Answer: (a) The Indian Parliamentary Group is an
autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in
pursuance of a Motion adopted by the
Constituent
Assembly (Legislative) in 1948.
Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is
open to all Members of Parliament and ex-
Members of Parliament.
45. Consider the following statements.
1. They are cut into the volcanic lava of the
Deccan in the forest ravines
of the Sahyadri Hills.
2. These caves contain carvings that depict the
life of Buddha.
3. The carvings and sculptures in the cave are
considered to be the
beginning of classical Indian art.
The above refers to?
a. Ajanta caves
b. Barabar caves
c. Nural caves
d. Kailasha Caves
Answer: (a) Barabar caves are in Bihar. So, (b)
can’t be the answer, as Sahyadri hills do not
pass through Bihar. Nural caves is a made up
name, and Varaha Cave, as also clear from the
name, hosts sculptures of Lord Vishnu. So, the
only possible answer is (a), which is
also quite renowned.
46. What is termed as a late converger stall in the
economic development?
a. It is a phenomenon wherein a low-income
country that hopes to grow into a middle-
or high-income country, after witnessing a
period of high economic growth, fails to
achieve its goal
b. It is a phenomenon where high income
countries goes through negative growth
rate
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c. It is a phenomenon where the growth rate
of high income country and low income
country converges
d. It is a phenomenon where the trade
between high income country and low
income country converges
Answer: (a) This refers to phenomenon wherein a
low-income country that hopes to grow into a
middle- or high-income country, after witnessing a
period of high economic growth, fails to achieve
its goal. Instead, it gets trapped in its lower
income status due to various reasons. Rapid
growth witnessed by such countries turns out to
be the result of favorable economic conditions
and hides the structural weaknesses in those
economies. Resource-rich economies generally
witness high growth during periods of increasing
commodity prices, which in turn leads to hopes of
sustained economic growth. Such hopes come
crashing down after commodity prices fall.
47. With reference to the Wildlife Crime Control
Bureau, consider the following statements
1. It is a statutory multi-disciplinary body to
combat organized wildlife crime in the
country.
2. It’s headquarter is in New Delhi.
3. It is mandated under Environment
Protection Act 1986
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (a) 3rd Statement is wrong as it is
mandated under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972, to collect and collate intelligence related to
organized wildlife crime activities and to
disseminate the same to state and other
enforcement agencies for immediate action so as
to apprehend the criminals.
48. With reference to Mid-day Meal Scheme ,
consider the following statements
1. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme launched on
August 15, 1995 by the Ministry of Human
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Resource Development
2. The scheme presently covers students of
Class I-VIII of Government and Government
aided schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct. The
Mid-Day Meal Scheme launched on August 15,
1995 by the Ministry of Human Resource
Development with a view to enhance enrolment,
retention, attendance and simultaneously
improve nutritional levels among students in
primary schools initially in 2,408 blocks in country,
was extended to all the blocks in 1997-98
The Department of Food and Public Distribution
allocates annual requirement of food grains under
the Scheme to Department of School Education
and Literacy, Ministry of Human Resource
Development, which further allocates food grains
to states/union territories and FCI releases food
grains to states/union territories at BPL rates as
per allocation.
49. With reference to SABLA Scheme, consider
the following statements
1. The SABLA Scheme was launched on
November 19, 2010 by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development
2. The scheme aims at empowering
adolescent girls of 11-18 years by improving
their nutritional and health status and
upgrading various skills.
3. The requirement of food grains under the
scheme for nutrition is @ 100 gm. of grains
per beneficiary per day for 300 days in a year
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (c ) 1st statement is wrong as The SABLA
Scheme was launched on November 19, 2010 by
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the Ministry of Woman and Child Development by
merging two schemes namely Nutrition
Programme for Adolescent Girls (NPAG) and
Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) into a single scheme to
be implemented in 200 selected districts across
the country.
50. Highest total replenishable ground water
resources lie in which river basin?
a. Brahmaputra
b. Godavari
c. Krishna
d. Ganga
Answer: (d) Highest is in Ganga, followed by
Godavari, Brahmaputra, Indus, Krishna.
Ganga’s groundwater resources are at least 4-5
times the resources in these rivers.
51. Consider the following statements about Nag
Missile
1. It is a "Fire and Forget" anti-tank missile
2. It is a guided missile
3. Developed by DRDO under Integrated
Guided Missile Development Program.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above are correct about Nag
Missiles
The NAG ATGM has strike range of over 2.5km
with fire and forget capabilities. It has top attack
capabilities that can effectively engage and
destroy all known enemy tanks during day and
night. The missile incorporates an advanced
passive homing guidance system and possesses
high single-shot kill probability. It is designed to
destroy modern main battle tanks and other
heavily armoured targets. Nag can be launched
from land and air-based platforms.
52. With reference to Invest India, consider the
following statements
1. The Government of India has established
“Invest India” as the National Investment
Promotion and Facilitation Agency
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2. A full-fledged “Investment Facilitation Cell”
has been set-up in ‘Invest India’
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Invest India is set up as a non-profit
venture under the Department of Industrial Policy
and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and
Industries, Government of India. Invest India is
transforming the country’s investment climate by
simplifying the business environment for
investors. Its experts, specializing across different
countries, Indian states and sectors, handhold
investors through their investment lifecycle ⎯
from pre-investment to after-care. Invest India’s
specialists provide multiple forms of support such
as market entry strategies, deep dive industry
analysis, partner search and location assessment,
and policy advocacy with decision makers.
53. The GRIHA Council performs which of the
following functions?
1. Monitoring housing shortages in India and
coordinating with Ministry of Urban
Development to execute cooperative housing
projects
2. Resettlement of slum residents to in
metropolitan areas
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) GRIHA is mandated to promote
development of buildings and habitats in India
through GRIHA.
It is an independent platform for the interaction
on scientific and administrative issues related to
sustainable habitats in the Indian subcontinent,
not execution of projects. So, 1 is wrong. Similarly,
2 is wrong, as GRIHA is not an executive agency,
but a think tank.
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54. Small and payments banks are niche banks
that
a. Lend large sums of money to MNCs and
only cooperative banks
b. Regulate local finance institutions
c. Raise funding for Micro-finance
Institutions operating in rural areas
d. None of the above
Answer: (d) Small banks primarily undertake basic
banking activities of acceptance of deposits and
lending to small farmers, businesses, MSMEs and
unorganized sector entities.
Payment bank is restricted to acceptance of
demand deposits and provision of payments and
remittances. It cannot lend money to people like
small banks. So, none of the options (a), (b) or (c).
55. There are no tiger reserves in which state(s)?
1. Gujarat
2. Maharashtra
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 4 Only
d. 1 and 4 Only
Answer: (d) Gujarat and HP have other protected
areas but not a tiger reserve.
56. With reference to Biodiversity hotspots,
consider the following statements:
1. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was
given by Norman Myers
2. Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF)
provides fund for management of hotspot
3. To qualify as a hotspot, a region has to have
lost at least 50 percent of its original habitat
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
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Answer: (a) 3rd Statement is wrong as to qualify
as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict
criteria:
• It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular
plants (> 0.5 percent of the world’s total) as
endemics.
• It has to have lost at least 70 percent of its
original habitat.
57. As per Directive Principles in Part IV of the
Constitution, the State shall
direct its policy towards securing that the
ownership and control of the
material resources of the community so that
1. Concentration of wealth is avoided
2. Means of production are nationalized
3. Private ownership is gradually discouraged
Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. None of the above
Answer: (a) Article 39 (b) says—The State shall
direct its policy towards securing that the
ownership and control of the material resources
of the community are so distributed as best to
subserve the common good.
Article 39 (c) says—The state shall direct its policy
towards securing that the operation of the
economic system does not result in the
concentration of wealth and means of production
to the common detriment (it doesn’t imply
either nationalization or shunning of private
properties). So, both 2 and 3 will
be wrong.
58. From which country’s constitution has India
borrowed the procedure for electing Rajya
Sabha members?
a. Australia
b. South Africa
c. Germany
d. Japan
Answer: (b) Borrowing from South Africa
• Election of members of the Rajya Sabha
• Amendment of the Constitution
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59. Consider the following about Chemical
Weapons Convention.
1. It bans the possession and development of
Chemical weapons for
countries other than P-5 members of the
UNSC.
2. India is a signatory to the convention.
3. It was negotiated at UN only after some
concerns were raised about
the use of Chemical weapons in the Syrian
Civil War.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. None of the above
Answer: (b) Statement 1is incorrect. It is a
universal non-discriminatory, multilateral,
Disarmament Treaty which bans the development,
production, acquisition, transfer, use and stockpile
of all chemical weapons. The Treaty puts all the
States Parties on an equal footing. Countries
having stockpiles of chemical weapons are
required to declare and destroy them.
The Convention was opened for signature on 13th
January, 1993 in Paris. India signed the
Convention on in January, 1993. Syrian Civil war is
recent post-Arab spring (2011 onwards).
statement 3 thus incorrect
60. C and Ku-bands often in news are related to
a. Communication satellites
b. Indo-China border skirmishes
c. Air quality standards India
d. None of the above
Answer: (a) The INSAT communication satellite
system in the C, Extended C and Ku-bands
provides services to telecommunications,
television broadcasting, satellite news gathering,
societal applications, weather forecasting, disaster
warning and Search and Rescue operations.
61. With reference to the Nagoya Protocol,
consider the following statements
1. It was adopted in 2010 and entered into
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force in 2014
2. It is not a legally binding treaty
3. Its objective is the fair and equitable sharing
of benefits arising from the utilization of
genetic resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (b) The Nagoya Protocol on Access to
Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable
Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization
(ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD) is a supplementary agreement to the
Convention on Biological Diversity. It provides a
transparent legal framework for the effective
implementation of one of the three objectives of
the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits
arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
2nd statement is wrong; it is a legally binding
treaty
62. Consider the following statements regarding
Financial Emergency:
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for
its operation.
2. Repeated parliamentary approval is not
required for its continuation.
3. Financial Emergency may be revoked by the
president at anytime by a subsequent
proclamation without any parliamentary
approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) Once approved by both the Houses of
Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues
indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two
things:
• there is no maximum period prescribed for its
operation; and
• repeated parliamentary approval is not required
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for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of
financial emergency can be passed by either
House of Parliament only by a simple majority,
that is, a majority of the members of that house
present and voting. A proclamation of Financial
Emergency may be revoked by the president at
anytime by a subsequent proclamation. Such a
proclamation does not require the parliamentary
approval.
63. Insurance Penetration refers to
a. Ratio of premium underwritten in a given
year to the gross domestic product (GDP)
b. Ratio of premium underwritten in a given
year to the total population
c. Ratio of premium underwritten in a given
year to the adult population
d. Ratio of premium underwritten in a given
year to the gross national product (GNP)
Answer: (a) The Economic Survey 2018 mentioned
insurance penetration -- the ratio of premium
underwritten in a given year to the gross domestic
product (GDP) -- in India increased to 3.49% in
2016-17 from 2.71% in 2001. In comparison, some
of the emerging economies in Asia such as
Malaysia (4.77%), Thailand (5.42%) and China
(4.77%) have a higher insurance penetration than
India. The country's life insurance penetration was
2.72% and general insurance penetration was
0.77%; this compares to a global insurance
penetration of 3.47% for life and 2.81%.
64. With reference to Sagarmala Programme
consider the following statements:
1. Sagarmala programme is the flagship
programme of the Ministry of Shipping to
promote port-led development in the country.
2. It aims to reduce logistics cost for
international and domestic trade with minimal
infrastructure investment.
3. These projects are being implemented
primarily through Government agencies only.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
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d. 1 and 3 Only
Answer: (a) The prime objective of the Sagarmala
project is to promote port-led direct and indirect
development and to provide infrastructure to
transport goods to and from ports quickly,
efficiently and cost-effectively. Therefore, the
Sagarmala Project shall, inter alia, aim to develop
access to new development regions with
intermodal solutions and promotion of the
optimum modal split, enhanced connectivity with
main economic centres and beyond through
expansion of rail, inland water, coastal and road
services.
3rd Statement is wrong as all efforts would be
made to implement those projects through the
private sector and through Public Private
Participation (PPP) wherever feasible
65. Which of the following point to the art form
Mudiyettu?
a. It is a bamboo carving made by the use of
natural colours giving it a rich and sombre
feel.
b. These are rock carvings inscribed on the
temples of Chola Kingdoms.
c. It is a form of rod puppetry practiced in
the state of Andhra Pradesh.
d. It is a ritual theatre and dance drama of
Kerala.
Answer: (d) It is one of the intangible heritages of
India as accorded by UNESCO.
• It is performed for purification and rejuvenation
of the community.
• It is the enactment of the mythological tale of a
battle between the goddess Kali and the demon
Darika.
• The ritual is a part of the Bhagwati cult. It is
performed in just 4 districts of Kerela during the
four day festival dedicated to Goddess Kali after
the summer harvest.
66. Consider the following statements about Coal
Bed Methane (CBM)
1. It is a natural gas found in coal seams.
2. It mainly consists of Methane (CH4) with
minor amounts of nitrogen (N2), carbon
dioxide (CO2) and heavier
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hydrocarbons like ethane (C2H6).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct.
During the initial years of mining, CBM was vented
out and wasted into the atmosphere as it was
considered as serious safety hazard while
conducting coal mining operations.
However, later with advancement of technology it
was possible to extract CBM, a precious energy
resource and an unconventional form of natural
gas.
67. With reference to Hindustani Music, consider
the following statements
1. Hindustani Sangeet is usually considered to
be a mixture of traditional Hindu musical
concepts and Persian performance practice.
2. Purandardas is considered as the father of
Hindustani Music
3. Hindustani music is based on the raga
system
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (b) 2nd Statement is wrong as
Purandardas is considered as the father of
Carnatic Music. Hindustani music is based on the
raga system. A raga is a melodic scale, consisting
of notes from the basic seven known as sa, re, ga,
ma pa, dha, and ni. Khyal and Dhrupad are two
major types of compositions within the Hindustani
genre.
68. Sattriya Dance is related to which state?
a. West Bengal
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Assam
d. Kerala
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Answer: (c ) Sattriya Nritya was usually performed
in the Sattras (Assam monasteries) in a highly
ritualistic manner by male dancers alone. The core
of Sattriya Nritya has usually been mythological
stories.
69. Plant quarantine is vital to prevent the
introduction of
1. Non-indigenous potentially damaging pests
in the country
2. Diseases of plants in host country
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Less-developed countries and other
countries in transition are especially vulnerable to
the damaging effects of exotic pest introductions
because of often inadequate infrastructure and
the fragility of their economies.
Plant quarantine is a technique for ensuring
disease- and pest-free plants, whereby a plant is
isolated while tests are performed to detect the
presence of a problem.
It is crucial to prevent the introduction of non-
indigenous, potentially damaging pests and
diseases of plants into a country or to eradicate
them before they can become widespread and
well established.
70. With reference to Software Technology Parks
of India (STPI), consider the following
statements?
1. This is an autonomous society set up in
1991 by the Ministry of Science and
Technology.
2. STPI works jointly with venture capitalists
for providing financial assistance to the IT
industries.
3. STPI is the implementation agency for the
India BPO Promotion Scheme (IBPS) that
incentivizes establishment of seats in respect
of BPO/ITES operations across the country.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
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c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (c ) Software Technology Parks of India is
an autonomous society set up in 1991 by the
Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY).
71. Muga Silk culture is specific to which state
a. Bihar
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Jammu and Kashmir
d. Assam
Answer: (d) Muga is a golden yellow colour silk
and the pride of Assam state.
It is obtained from semi-domesticated
multivoltine silkworm, Antheraea assamensis.
These silkworms feed on the aromatic leaves of
Som and Soalu plants and are reared on trees
similar to that of tasar.
Muga culture is specific to the state of Assam.
The muga silk, a high value product is used in
products like sarees, mekhalas, chaddars, etc.
72. Which of the following food items may
contain the contaminant arsenic?
1. Infant Milk substitute
2. Virgin Olive oil
3. Dried herbs
Select the correct statements using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) All of them may contains the
contaminant arsenic
73. The boundary of the national park is from the
point where the Sankosh river cuts the Indo-
Bhutan international boundary. The
national park is
a. Neora national park
b. Namdapha national park
c. Digha national park
d. Manas national park
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Answer: (d) Manas extends over an area of 2837
Sq. Km from Sankosh river in the west to Dhansiri
river in the east, with a core area of 500 Sq. Km. of
the National park, which declared in 1990.
The average elevation of the area is 85 m above
mean sea level. The river Manas flows into the
national Park from the gorges of Bhutan and split
into two major streams of which the main water
course comes out of the National Park about 30
km downstream is known as ‘Beki”.
74. World Energy Outlook Report is published by
a. World Bank
b. United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change
(UNFCCC)
c. International Energy Agency (IEA)
d. United Nations Environment Program
(UNEP)
Answer: (c ) The IEA is an autonomous
organisation which works to ensure
reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 29
member countries and beyond.
The IEA has four main areas of focus: energy
security, economic development, environmental
awareness and engagement worldwide.
As per IEA website, “The annual World Energy
Outlook (WEO) is now the world’s most
authoritative source of energy market analysis and
projections, providing critical analytical insights
into trends in energy demand and supply
and what they mean for energy security,
environmental protection and economic
development.
75. Consider the following statements about
Chikungunya
1. Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne virus that
causes a disease.
2. It is transmitted by Aedes aegypti and
Aedes albopictus mosquitoes.
3. There is no specific antiviral drug treatment
for chikungunya.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. All of the above
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Answer: (d) There is no commercial chikungunya
vaccine. Chikungunya treatment is directed
primarily at relieving the symptoms, including the
joint pain using anti- pyretics, optimal analgesics
and fluids.
76. Micro-propagation is widely used in forestry
and in floriculture. It can be used for
1. Conserving rare or endangered plant
species
2. Obtaining a large number of plants within a
short time
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct.
Plants can be propagated by sexual (through
generation of seeds) or asexual (through
multiplication of vegetative parts) means. Clonal
(micro) propagation refers to the process of
asexual reproduction by multiplication of
genetically identical copies of individual plants.
Micro propagation has become a suitable
alternative to conventional methods of vegetative
propagation of plants. There are several
advantages of micro propagation.
77. The Sustainable land and Ecosystem
Management (SLEM) Programme is a joint
initiative of Government of India and
a. Global Environmental Facility (GEF)
b. UNESCO
c. World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
d. Conservation International
Answer: (a) The SLEM Programme is a joint
initiative of the Government of India and the
Global Environmental Facility (GEF) under the
latter’s Country partnership Programme (CPP).
The objective of the SLEM Programmatic
Approach is to promote sustainable land
management and use of biodiversity as well as
maintain the capacity of ecosystems to deliver
goods and services while taking into account
climate
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change It is a long-term and strategic arrangement
of individual yet interlinked
projects aimed at achieving large-scale impacts on
the global environment
78. Consider the following statements about the
Copernicus Programme
1. It is the world’s largest single earth
observation programme directed by NASA
2. It aims at achieving global, continuous,
autonomous, high quality, wide range Earth
observation capacity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) It is the world’s largest single earth
observation programme directed by European
Commission in partnership with the European
Space Agency (ESA).
79. Which of the following statements is not
correct about foot loose industries?
a. These are highly polluting industries and a
major contributor of carbon dioxide.
b. These industries can be located in a wide
variety of places having a transportation
network.
c. The location of these industries is not
influenced by any specific raw material.
d. These industries produce in small
quantities and also employ a small labour
force.
Answer: (a) Foot loose industries can be located in
a wide variety of places. They are not dependent
on any specific raw material, weight losing or
otherwise. They largely depend on component
parts which can be obtained anywhere. They
produce in small quantity and also employ a small
labour force. These are generally not polluting
industries. The important factor in their location is
accessibility by road network.
80. The practice of ‘Muraqaba’ in Sufism is
synonymous to
a. Baptism in Christianity
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b. Meditation in Hinduism
c. Pilgrimage in Hinduism
d. Chanting in Buddhism
Answer: (b) Muraqaba is the Science of Sufi
Meditation. It’s more like visualization/image
practice based on the Name of Allah or the deep
visualization or watching of the Sufi Master’s face.
The Word means observe, guard or control or
vigilance or being aware, in this context referring
to controlling and guarding one's thoughts and
desires.
81. Which of the following statements form part
of the criteria to declare a language as a
‘Classical Language’?
1. The state government should consider it as
a valuable heritage.
2. There should be no discontinuity between
the classical language and its later forms.
3. Its literal tradition may be borrowed from
another speech community.
4. It should have a recorded history over a
period of 1500-2000 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 4 Only
c. 3 Only
d. 4 Only
Answer: (d) The criteria evolved by the
Government to determine declaration of a
language as a Classical language is as under:-
I. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history
over a period of 1500-2000 years;
II. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is
considered a valuable heritage by generations of
speakers;
III. The literary tradition be original and not
borrowed from another speech community;
IV. The classical language and literature being
distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and
its later forms or its offshoots.
The following six languages have been declared as
‘Classical Languages’: Tamil (since 2004), Sanskrit
(since 2005), Telugu (since 2008), Kannada (Since
2008), Malayalam (since 2013).
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82. Consider the following statements about
Gravitational Waves
1. Gravitational waves are oscillations in the
fabric of space-time, moving at the speed of
light and caused by the
acceleration of massive objects.
2. They can be generated, for example, by
supernovas, neutron star binaries spiralling
around each other, and pairs
of merging black holes.
3.Hypothesised by Albert Einstein a century
ago
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) These waves will be particularly useful
for studying black holes (the existence of which
was first implied by Einstein’s theory) and other
dark objects, because they’ll give scientists a
bright beacon to search for even when
objects don’t emit actual light. With this, mapping
the abundance of black holes and frequency of
their mergers could get a lot easier. Since they
pass through matter without interacting with it,
gravitational waves would come to Earth carrying
undistorted information about their origin.
They could also improve methods for estimating
the distances to other galaxies.
83. With regard to Amended Technology
Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS) consider
the following statements :
1. The scheme is for technology upgradation
of the textiles industry
2. It promotes conversion of existing looms to
better technology looms for improvement in
quality and productivity
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c ) Amended Technology Upgradation
Fund Scheme (ATUFS) specifically targets:
• Employment generation and export by
encouraging apparel and garment industry, which
will provide employment to women in particular
and increase India’s share inglobal exports.
• Promotion of Technical Textiles, a sunrise sector,
for export and employment
• Promoting conversion of existing looms to
better technology looms for improvement in
quality and productivity
• Encouraging better quality in processing industry
and checking need for import of fabrics by the
garment sector.
84. Consider the following statements about
Bharatmala Pariyojana.
1. Bharatmala Pariyojana is aimed at bridging
critical infrastructure gaps through the
development of economic corridors.
2. Connectivity Improvement Program for
Char-Dham (Kedarnath, Badrinath,
Yamunothri & Gangothri) in Uttarakhand is
proposed under Bharatmala Pariyojana.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct.
85. Madrid Protocol is related to?
a. Copyright
b. Trademark
c. Climate Change
d. Renewable Energy
Answer: (b) The Protocol Relating to the Madrid
Agreement Concerning the International
Registration of Marks (Madrid Protocol) is an
international treaty that allows a trademark
owner to seek registration in any of the countries
that have joined the Madrid Protocol by filing a
single application, called an "international
application." The International Bureau of the
World Intellectual Property Organization, in
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Geneva, Switzerland administers the international
registration system.
86. Consider the following statements about
Wheat Blast
1. It is caused by the 'Magnaportheoryzae'
fungus, which also causes Rice Blast.
2. It thrives in hot and humid climates.
3. It was first identified in 1985 in Brazil and
has since spread to other countries of South
America
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) All the above statements are correct.
Wheat Blast is an agricultural disease that can
cause more than 75 per cent yield loss in affected
fields, rendering the region non-cultivable for
years.
87. Consider the following statements regarding
writ provisions in Indian Constitution :
1. Writ of quo-warranto can be issued if a
person holds an office beyond his
retirement age.
2. If the candidate is declared fit for the
appointment but the authority concerned
refuses to issue the appointment letter, the
aggrieved person can use writ of
'mandamus'.
3. The habeas corpus writ is issued only
against authorities of the State not to
private individuals or organizations
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (a) 3rd Statement is wrong as the
habeaus corpus writ can be issued against
authorities of the State, private individuals or
organizations
88. Firewall is a term associated with
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a. Computing
b. Agriculture
c. Aerodynamics
d. Mining
Answer: (a) A firewall is a network security
system, either hardware- or software-based, that
controls incoming and outgoing network traffic
based on
a set of rules.
A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a
trusted, secure internal network and another
outside network, such as the Internet, that is
assumed not to be secure or trusted.
89. Consider the following statements about the
KUSUM scheme:
1. The KUSUM scheme has the potential to
revolutionise agriculture as well as the way in
which India moves towards the solar goal of
100 GW by 2022.
2. KUSUM scheme entails installation of solar
pumps, solar power plants, grid-connected
tube-wells or lift irrigation and drinking water
projects across rural areas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct.
KUSUM Scheme also includes replacement of
existing diesel-run pumps with solar ones. Farmers
will also be allowed to sell the surplus solar power
generated through these systems.KUSUM scheme
entails installation of 2.75 million solar pumps
(1.75 million standalone and 1 million grid-
connected), 10 GW of solar power plants with an
intermediate capacity of 0.5–2 MW, 50,000 grid-
connected tube-wells or lift irrigation and drinking
water projects across rural areas.
90. Which of the following is/are the example(s)
of Jain Architecture?
1. Gomateshwara Temple
2. Ranakpur Temple
3. Padmanabhaswamy Temple
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Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above
Answer: (a) Gomateshwara Temple Situated in the
Shravanabelagola town of Karnataka,
Gomateshwara temple is dedicated to Lord
Bahubali also known as Gomateshwara. Built in
the 10th century it is one of the most important
pilgrimage places for Jains.
Ranakpur Temple is in the Pali district of Rajasthan
and falls between Udaipur and Jodhpur. One of
the very famous pilgrimage sites in India, the
majestic 15th century Jain temple is dedicated to
Lord Adinatha. It is counted among the 5 major
sacred places of Jains.
Padmanabhaswamy Temple is dedicated to one of
the 108 Divya Desams (sacred dwellings of Lord
Vishnu) situated in Thiruvananthapuram, the
capital city of Kerala. The elegant and splendid
idol of Lord Vishnu is reclining over a 5 hooded
serpent called Anantha. The idol of the Lord is
very fascinating as it displays the supreme trinity
of Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh (or Shiva). Out of
the navel of Lord’s statue a lotus is seen as coming
out over which Lord Brahma (the protector) is
sitting. That is why Vishnu (the creator) is also
called Padmanabha, i.e. lotus-navel..
91. Internet Domain Name System (DNS) is
managed by
a. National governments
b. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names
and Numbers (ICANN)
c. UN Commission on Internet Governance
d. None of the above
Answer: (b) ICANN was formed in 1998. It is a not-
for-profit partnership of people from all over the
world dedicated to keeping the Internet secure,
stable and interoperable. It promotes competition
and develops policy on the Internet’s unique
identifiers.
ICANN doesn’t control content on the Internet. It
cannot stop spam and it doesn’t deal with access
to the Internet. But through its coordination role
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of the Internet’s naming system, it does have
an important impact on the expansion and
evolution of the Internet
92. The object of the Sandhurst Committee of
1926 was to
a. To study the condition of labour in
Industries and gardens.
b. To investigate the working of police.
c. To advise for cooperative finances.
d. To suggest Indianization of Indian army.
Answer: (d) Whitelay Commission (1929) - To
study the condition of labour in Industries and
gardens.
Fraser Commission (1902) - To investigate the
working of police
Maclagon Committee (1914-15) - To advise for
cooperative finances
93. Consider the below given list of islands
1.Ascension islands
2.Helena islands
3.Tristan de Cunha islands
Identify what is common between them?
a. They lie between Africa and latin America
b. They are british territories
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: (c ) Both of the above given islands are
part of British Overseas Territory.
94. Total number of satellite in IRNSS in space is
a. 3
b. 4
c. 7
d. 8
Answer: (c ) It is a constellation of total 7 satellite
launched in space and a ground facility on land to
receive signals from space satellites. 3 of its
satellite Located in Geostationary orbit and 4 are
inclined to geosynchronous orbit.
95. Consider the Following statements about
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
1. The IAEA was established as an
autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957.
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2. It is headquartered at Vienna, Austria.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c ) Both the statements are correct.
Though established independently of the United
Nations through its own international treaty (the
IAEA Statute), the IAEA reports to both the United
Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
96. Which of the following is/are the functions of
the Central Social Welfare
Board (CSWB)?
1. Implementing welfare programmes for
women and children through
voluntary organizations
2. Approving all major welfare schemes of
Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) The Central Social Welfare Board
(CSWB) was set-up in 1953 with the objective of
promoting social welfare activities and
implementing welfare programmes for women
and children through voluntary organizations.
• Thirty-three state social welfare boards were set
up with jurisdiction over all states and union
territories to work together with Central Social
Welfare Board in implementing the programmes
of the Board across the country.
• It is functioning as an interface between the
government and the voluntary sector.
• The Board has been making concerted efforts
for empowerment of women through family
counselling programmes, short stay homes,
awareness generation projects, condensed Course
of Education Programmes and other support
services. The Board was registered as a
Charitable Company in 1969.
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97. Consider the following about the transmission Answer: (d) Annie besant’s impatient followers,
of Japanese Encephalitis (JE) unhappy with her decision to wait till September,
1. It is transmitted by rice field breeding secured her permission to start home rule groups.
mosquitoes (primarily Culex tritaeniorhynchus Jamnadas dwarkadas, shankarlal banker and
group). indulal yagnik set up a Bombay paper young india
2. The mosquitoes transmit JE by feeding on and launched an all india propaganda fund to
domestic pigs and wild birds infected with the publish pamphlates in regional languages and in
Japanese encephalitis English.
virus (JEV).
3. It is transmitted from person-to-person. 100. Consider the following about Paika Rebellion
Which of the above statements is/are correct? of 1817 in Odisha.
a. 1 and 2 Only 1. It was famous for its non-violent means and
b. 1 and 3 Only the kind of success it had achieved
c. 2 and 3 Only 2. Walter Ewer Commission recommendations
d. All of the above were one of the contributors to the rebellion
3. Buxi Jagabandhu was the leader of the
Answer: (a) It is not transmitted from person-to- movement
person. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
98. With reference to coffee cultivation in india b. 1 and 3 Only
consider the following statements c. 2 and 3 Only
1. Mostly, Arabica variety of coffee is d. All of the above
produced in india
2. The cultivation of coffee is limited to north Answer: (c ) When the British started tinkering
east india only with the revenue system in 1803, the farming
Which of the above statements is/are correct? community of Odisha rose in rebellion. At that
a. 1 Only critical juncture, Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar —
b. 2 Only the military chief of the King of Khurda — led his
c. Both 1 and 2 motley army of Paikas forcing the British East India
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Company forces to retreat. The rebellion came to
be known as Paika Bidroh (Paika rebellion).
Answer: (a) There are three varieties of coffee i.e. After the defeat of the King of Khurda, the British
Arabica, robusta and liberica. India mostly grows were not comfortable with these aggressive,
superior quality Arabica coffee. warlike new subjects and set up a commission
Coffee is cultivated in the highlands of western under Walter Ewer to look into the issue.
ghats. So 2nd statement is incorrect The Company struggled initially but they managed
99. With reference to a newspaper young india, to put down the rebellion by mid-1817.
identify leaders who was/were associated
with it
1. Pherojshah Mehta
2. Shankarlal banker
3. Indulal yagnik
Select the correct code from below:
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All of the above

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