MEDICAL COLLEGES OF NORTHERN PHILIPPINES

Alimannao Hills, Peñablanca Cagayan

College of Nursing
BSN II
Rotation examination

Name: ____________________________________________ Score: __________

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter of the correct answer before each number. Strictly no ERASURES.

1. The need for Vitamin K injection in the newborn is based the finding of a low level of the said Vitamin in the born infant.
It
a. prevents hemorrhagic disease of the infant c. prevents hypoglycemia
b. prevents convulsions d. prevents hyperglycemia
2. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for live birth?
a. birth weight of 2,000 gm c. spontaneous breathing
b. presence of heart beat d. absence of heart beat
3. Birth rate is defined as number of: c. live birth per 10,000 population
a. birth per 10,000 population d. live birth per 1,000 population
b. birth per 1,000 population
4. A baby after the 42nd week is a:
a. premature infant b. post mature infant c. mature infant d. immature infant
5. Which statement about deciduas is correct
a. decidual reaction is completed before nidation
b. decidual cells arise from stromal cells of the endometrium
c. decidual reaction occurs in response to human placental lactogen
d. decidual reaction occurs in response to placental expulsion
6. Uterine enlargement in pregnancy is MOST marked in the:
a. body b. lower uterine segment c. cervix d. fundus
7. Uterine blood flow near term umbilical cord is:
a. 100 ccb. 500 ccc. 900 cc d. 200cc
8. The average length of the umbilical cord is:
a. 35 cm b. 55 cm c. 65 cm d. 45cm
9. Which is NOT found in the umbilical cord at term:
a. left umbilical artery b. left umbilical vein c. right umbilical vein d. right umbilical artery
10. The concentration of oxygen is highest in which fetal vessel?
a. pulmonary artery b. umbilical vein c. aoarta d. pulmonary vein
11. The portion of the deciduas responsible for regeneration of the endometrium after pregnancy is:
a. decidua capularis b. deciduas basalis c. deciduas compacta d. NOTA
12. The normal vaginal acidity is due to the presence of:
a. candida albicans b. doderlain bacilli c. xiphoid process d. a & c
13. Uterine size is measured in centimeters using the distance of fundic height from the:
a. umbilicus b. symphysis pubis c. xiphoid process d. abdomen
14. In 3rd trimester of pregnancy, in breech presentation, fetal heart tones are best heard at the:
a. level of umbilicus b. lower quadrant c. upper quadrant d. epigastrium
15. Which bone of the skull is not paired?
a. parietal b. occipital c. temporal d. frontal
16. The leading cause of maternal mortality in the Philippines:
a. Hemorrhage c. Medical complication of pregnancy
b. Obstetrical anesthesia d. Infection
17. Which is a positive sign of pregnancy:
[

a. uterine enlargement c. perception of fetal movement by the examiners

b. softening of the lower uterine segment d. fetal heart tone
18. The time between the start of a uterine contraction and the end of a uterine contraction is known as:
a. interval of labor pain b. duration of labor pain c. intensity of labor pain d. frequency of contraction
19. A tear involving the anal sphincter and rectum is known as:
a. 1st degree b. 2nd degree c. 3rd degree d. 4th degree
20. In the immediate postpartum period, Methylergometrine Meleate causes:
a. sustained uterine contraction c. intermittent contraction and relaxation
b. relaxation of the uterus d. vaginal bleeding
21. The blood pressure of the pregnant patient is lowest during:
a. 1st trimester b. 2nd trimester c. 3rd trimester d. postpartum
22. The main blood supply of a uterus comes from the:
a. internal iliac artery b. renal artery c. ovarian artery d. inferior vena cava
23. Which of the following does NOT contribute to difficulties in determining gestational age?
a. irregular menstrual cycle
b. menstrual cycle significantly longer than 30 days
 c. presence of an intrauterine device
d. regular menstrual cycle
24. In the adult, the umbilical vein is converted to
a. ligamentum venosiun b. ligamentum teres c. umbilical ligament d. ligamentum arteriosum
25. How much of the total iron content required in pregnancy is utilized for the production of maternal erythrocytes?
a. all b. 1/3 c. ½ d. 1/5
26. What is the prefered treatment for simple iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy?
a. parenteral iron b. blood transfusion c. oral iron d. parenteral infusion
27. The total amount of iron needed by the fetus and placenta during the entire pregnancy is:
a. 500 mg b. 300 mg c. 200 mg d. 150mg
28. In TRUE labor?
a. The intensity of contractions remains the same
b. the cervix dilates
c. the contractions occur at irregular intervals
d. the contractions occur at 5 minutes in between interval
29. The cervix is fully dilated at:
a. 8 cm b. 10 cm c. 12 cm d. 10cm
30. Which of the following nutritional recommendations should be made to pregnant women?
a. gain at least 30 lbs
b. do not add salt when cooking
c. take tablets of simple iron salts providing 30 to 60 mg. iron daily
d. weight loss of 3lbs
31. Which of the following is an oxytocic and is given after 3rd stage of labor?
a. adrenaline b. paracetamol c. methylergometric maleate d. mefenamic acid
32. The encirclement of the largest diameter of the head by the vulvar ring known as:
a. crowning b. caput succedaneum c. ballotment d. cephalhematoma
33. The primary mechanism by which bleeding in the placental site is prevented after delivery of the placenta is:
a. reduction of blood flow to the uterus
b. intravascular blood clotting
c. vasoconstriction produced by a well contracted myometrium
d. Ritgen’s manuever
34. In LOA presentation the sagital suture is along the
a. left oblique diameter b. right oblique diameter c. obstetric conjugate d. all of the above
35. A patient with contracted pelvis may develop a complication because of prolonged labor, which is?
a. uterine inversion b. uterine prolapsed c. uterine rapture d. uterine rupture
36. Another term for gestational age is:
a. menstrual age b. ovulatory age c. fertilization aged. pregnancy
37. Which of the following vaginal secretion is normal for pregnancy?
a. frothy red tinged discharge c. white curd-like discharge
b. white mucoid discharge d. thick mucoid secretion
38. Which of the following should be repeated at every prenatal visit?
a. urine test for sugar b. urine test for protein c. determining fetal heart tone d. none of these
39. Clinically the MOST useful unit of measures for a pregnant is:
a. weeks of gestation completed c. months of gestation completed
b. trimester d. days of gestation

SITUATION: Maria has an obstetrical score of 5-1-2-4

40. How many living children does she have?
a. 4 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3
41. How many full term deliveries?
a. 4 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3
42. How many abortions?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
43. Of the cardiovascular changes in pregnancy, one of the significant changes is the blood volume which increases from
the non-pregnant level to:
a. 40-50% b. 20-25% c. 10-15% d. 5-10%
44. In the puerperium, the uterus has descended into the true pelvis in:
a. 2 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 1 week d. 4 weeks
45. The weight of the uterus one week after delivery is:
a. 1000gm b. 500gm 300gm d. 250gm
46. Which of the following returns to their pre-pregnancy conditions after delivery?
a. cervix b. hymen c. lower uterine segment d. skin pigmentation
47. Fetal distress is suspected if the fetal heart rate is less than:
a. 100 min. b. 140 min. c. 160 min. d. 50 min
48. Which of the following makes rapture of the membranes significant?
a. risk of cord prolapse b. possible risk of infection c. PROM d. all of the above
49. In vertex presentation, what should be done before the delivery of the shoulders?
a. wipe face b. aspire mouth and nares c. suction secretions d. all of the above
50. Direct cause if fetal nerve injury during delivery occurs because:
a. pressure of the uterine fundus c. poorly timed episiotomy
b. traction in the axillae d. poor bearing down
51. A direct cause of mismanagement of the 3rd stage is:
a. inversion of the uterus b. prolonged labor c. prolapse of the cord d. PROM
52. Which of the following is correct?
a. after delivery of the baby the cord should be clamped about 2cm. from the baby’s abdomen.
b. neonatalhyperbilirium may result from infant transfusion
c. infant transfusion should be avoided as the circulatory overload is always dangerous to the infant
d. instruct the mother to bottle feed the baby
53. Which of the following about nutrition in labor is correct?
a. foods and coral fluids should be withheld during active labor.
b. taking raw egg and milk in labor helps the parturient
c. gastric emptying time is shortened in labor
d. Vit E is less important for pregnant mothers
54. Which of the following statements about care of the bladder in labor is correct?
a. bladder distention can cause dystocia
b. catherization of the bladder is routine in labor
c. it is better to have an in dwelling catheter when a woman is in labor
d. direct administration of catheter is done during admission
55. Which statement about delivery of the head is correct?
a. a properly times episiotomy can be prevented the long term effect of pelvic relaxation
b. the vulvo-vaginal opening may become smaller between contractions
c. a & b
d. all of the above
56. Which statement about amniotomy is correct?
a. amniotomy is beneficial to the fetus
b. aseptic technique is required
c. amniotomy will significantly shorten the first stage of labor
d. dopne during 1st stage of labor
57. During the 2nd stage of labor?
a. expulsion of feces indicates imminent delivery
b. the desire to hear down is relax and spontaneous
c. a woman should be coached to “push” as much as possible
d. a & c
58. The MOST common position used for vaginal delivery is
a. dorsal lithotomy position b. sitting position c. standing position d. squatting
59. The second stage of labor, uterine contraction last:
a. 30 sec b. 10 sec. c. 60 sec. d. 20 seconds
60. Excessively large infant (Macrosomic)
a. early uncontrolled diabetes mellitus c. heart disease
b. chronic renal disease d. diabetes
61. Molding of the head occurs when there is some degree of pelvic contraction. Normally molding may diminish the
biparietal and suboccipitoregmatic diameter by:
a. 3.5 – 4 cm b. 2.5 – 3 cm c. 0.5 – 1 cm d. 1.5-2cm
62. The 3RD maneuver of leopolds determined the:
a. fetal pole that occupies the fundus c. plane of the back
b. fetal pole that occupies the pelvic inlet d. fetal heart tone
63. Lochia Serosa is the vaginal discharge during the:
a. 3rd and 4th day b. 10th day c. 1st and 2nd day d. 5th & 6th day
64. In anterior asynclitism the sagittal suture is:
a. near the symphysis pubis
b. near the sacralpremontory
c. midway between the sacral promontory and symphysis pubis.
d. NOTA
65. In caput succedaneum, the borders:
a. are limited by the bounderies of a bone
b. may go beyond the borders of the skull bone
c. in between the sagittal bone
d. none of the above
66. A rough estimate of the length in centimeters from crown to heel duroing the 1 st months
can be obtained by:
a. The square of the number of the number of lunar months
b. Number of lunar months times 5
c. Number of weeks of menstrual age
d. Number of days times 5
67. A short umbilical cord may predispose to:
a. cord prolapsed b. true knot formation c. abruption of placenta d. cord coil
68. The pelvic inlet has 4 diameters. The most important of these is the obstetrical conjugate which is the:
a. transverse diameter b. oblique diameter c. antero-posterior diameter d. posterior diameter
69. Pregnancy induced hypertension that is complicated by edema and proteinuria is known as:
a. eclampsia b. chronic hypertension c. preeclampsia d. hypertension
70. The remnants of the hymen after the puerperium are converted to:
a. urethral caruncles b. caruncula myrtiformes c. bartholin duct cysts d. NOTA
71. The greatest transverse diameter of the fetal head is the:
a. bitemporal diameter b. mento-occipital diameter c. biparietal diameter d. occipito diameter
72. One of the positive signs of pregnancy is demonstration of fetal skeleton by x-ray. Fetal skeleton is visualized as early as:
a. 2nd month b. 4th month c. 8th month d. 1st month
73. The sacrum forms the:
a. anterior wall of the pelvis b. posterior wall c. lateral wall d. antero-posterior wall
74. Which of the following is NOT an internal organ of reproduction?
a. uterus b. fallopian tube c. clitoris d. vagina
75. The sign of ovulation where the cervical mucus can be stretched 10-12 cm is known as”
a. mittelschmers b. spinbarkeit c. gestation d. none of these
76. The group of cells from fertilization to the 1st 2 nd week is termed as:
a. fetus b. embryo c. ovum d. all of the above
77. In case of fetal distress, which of these actions should the nurse first do?
a. call the physician c. monitor fetal heart rate
b. turn the mother to her left side d. suction secretions
78. As a nurse, what would you do first after the placenta is delivered?
a. inject oxytocin c. check the placenta and membranes for completeness
b. repair laceration d. monitor the blood pressure
79. The 4th stage of labor is the period of
a. one hour after the delivery of the placenta c. one hour after the delivery of the baby
b. one hour after full dilation of the cervix d. one hour after 6-8 cm of cervical dilatation
80. Quickening is usually felt during the:
a. 12 weeks b. 18 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 10 weeks
81. Descent of the head in labor is brought about by
a. direct pressure of the fundus upon the breech c. full cervical dilatation
b. straightening of the fetal spine d. all of the above
82. Moderate ankle edema especially during the afternoon in a pregnant woman in the last trimester of pregnancy is BEST
treated by:
a. rest in lateral recumbent position c. administration of diuretics
b. marked restriction of fluid intake d. elevate both legs
st
83. The mean duration of pregnancy from the 1 day of the last normal menstruation is:
a. 287 days b. 280 days c. 300 days d. 250 days
84. The normal weight gain in pregnancy is:
a. 20 lbs. b. 24 lbs. c. 30 lbs. d. 50 lbs
85. Which of the following immunization is contraindicated during pregnancy:
a. poliomyelitis b. typhoid c. rubella d. Tetanus toxoid
86. The transverse diameter of the midplaine is also known as:
a. the interspinous diameter c. diagonal conjugate
b. plane of greatest pelvic dimension d. anteroposterior diameter
87. The pudendal nerve provides necessary innervation for the:
a. superior parts of the vulva and clitoris b. upper vagina c. perineum d. cervix
88. Crede’s prophylaxis is directed at preventing
a. respiratory distress syndrome c. infection of the cord
b. opthalmia neotorum d. cephalhematoma
89. The shortest period in a uterine contraction is the:
a. acme b. increment c. decrement d. frequency
90. Which of the following maneuvers is NOT related to delivery of the placenta?
a. Ritgen’s maneuvers c. modified Crede’s Maneuvers
b. Brandit Andrew maneuvers d. all of the above
91. In vertex presentation the:
a. occipital fontanella is presenting c. mouth presentation
b. anterior fontanelle d. shoulder presentation
92. The greatest transverse diamneter of the fetal head is the:
a. bitemporal b. mento-occipital c. biparietal d. fronto-parietal
93. Pocomelia is a congenital anomaly characterized by:
a. absence of skull c. increased celebrospinal fluid
b. absence of extremities d. none of the above
94. Oligohydramnios is a condition where the amniotic fluid is:
a. 1000 cc b. more than 2000 cc c. 500 cc or less d. 200cc or less

95. When the most dependent portion of the skull is at the level of the interspinous diameter, the head is:
 a. floating b. engaged c. station +1 d. station +2
96. To prevent congenital anomalies patient should be immunized before the childbearing age or before the embarks on a
pre-pregnancy against:
a. poliomyelitis b. rubella c. tetanus d. measles
97. As a preventive measures to protect health providers from contamination of HIV virus in the delivery of these patients,
it is recommended that the health provider:
a. wear gloves b. wear masks c. both a and b d. none of the above
98. The placenta abnormality characterized by an accessory lobe which is likely retained in the uterus is:
a. placenta succenturiata b. placenta circumvalata c. placenta bipartite d. none of the above
99. The opening between the 2 atria that shunts blood from the right to the left auricle is the:
a. ductus arteriosus b. ductus venosus c. foramen ovale d. aorta
100. Which of the following is necessary to facilitate crying of the newborn:
a. gently rubbing b. immersing the baby c. tapping the newborn d. positioning

Prepared by:

MERCEDES TAMARAY, RN, RM, MSN

Clinical Instructor

Noted by:

LIEZEL I. CANAPI, RN, RM, MSN

Clinical Coordinator

Recommending approval:

REYNALDO M. ADDUCUL, RN, RM, MSN

Dean, College of Nursing

Approved by:

PRESENITA C. AGUON, PhD.

Vice-President for Academic Affairs
 ANSWER KEY 53. A
54. A
1. A 55. C
2. A 56. B
3. B 57. B
4. C 58. A
5. B 59. C
6. A 60. A
7. B 61. A
8. B 62. B
9. C 63. A
10. C 64. B
11. B 65. B
12. B 66. A
13. B 67. C
14. C 68. C
15. B 69. C
16. A 70. B
17. C 71. C
18. A 72. B
19. A 73. B
20. B 74. C
21. B 75. B
22. A 76. C
23. C 77. B
24. B 78. C
25. C 79. A
26. C 80. B
27. B 81. C
28. B 82. A
29. B 83. B
30. C 84. B
31. C 85. C
32. A 86. A
33. C 87. C
34. B 88. B
35. C 89. A
36. C 90. A
37. B 91. A
38. B 92. C
39. A 93. B
40. A 94. C
41. C 95. B
42. B 96. B
43. A 97. A
44. A 98. A
45. B 99. C
46. C 100.A
47. A
48. C
49. C
50. B
51. A
52. B