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MODULE 10 –CAR DGCA QUESTION PAPER 2018 DATE – 07 / 02/18.

ACADEMY OF CARVER AVIATION PVT. LTD. BARAMATI . BATCH – 01ST

1) Document to be carried on board is in accordance with ………… of rule 07 .


a) Sub-rule 01
b) Sub-rule 02
c) Sub –rule

2) Power of central government to issue direction is given in section…..


a) 5
b) 5A
c) 9
d) 9A

3) Fees for type certificate of newly imported aircraft having weight less than 1000 kg
a) 15000
b) 20000
c) 25000
d) 40000

4) Application for certificate of registration is made on ……………


a) CA FORM 25
b) CA FORM 28
c) CA FORM 30

5) Cancellation ,and suspension of approval certificate is accordance with …………of rule 19.
a) Sub-rule 01
b) Sub-rule 02
c) Sub-rule 03

6) Application for initial issue of AME licence is made on …..


a) CA 19-01
b) CA 19-02
c) CA 19-03
7) Who is responsible for implementation of SMS
a) Accountable executive
b) Safety manager
c) Service provider

8) Who is responsible for running the organization


a) Accountable manager
b) CEO
c) Both (a) and (b)

9) Person from CAMO and management review shall provided with ………..
a) Phase 01 only
b) Phase 02 + continuation training
c) Phase 01+ phase 02+ continuation training

10) Operator technical log does not contains……


a) Current CRS
b) Process and guidance for maintenance staff
c) Airworthiness directive comply report

11) Repairs that are not approved by DGCA are covered in


a) SRM
b) IPC
c) FAA-CA-JAA

12) Experience requirement for cat. B2, B1.1 and B1.3………..


a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years

13) Component certifying staff are qualified in accordance with ……


a) CAR SECTION 02 SERIES L PART IX
b) CAR SECTION 02 SERIES L PART X
c) CAR SECTION O2 SERIES L PART XI
14) Who is responsible for loading and distribution of weight in aircraft…………
a) PIC
b) Operator
c) Quality control manager

15) Which of the following document provides guidance material to operator for obtaining
AIR OPERATOR PERMIT.
a) CAP-3100
b) CAP-3200
c) CAP-3300
d) CAP- 8100
16) MTCS – repairs
a) Repairs that are not approved by DGCA are covered in SRM
b) Those repair covered in SRM , does require DGCA approval
c) Both (a) and ( b) are correct
d) Repair has does not need of any approval

17) The altitude at which pilot decides the correct approach or go around , this minimum
altitude is known as…….
a) Alert height
b) Decision height
c) Warning height
d) Visible rang altitude
18) If newly designed aircraft is imported in India , then for registration which of the
following is necessary ?
a) Licensed AME IN India
b) Licensed AME outside India
c) TC must be approved by DGCA
d) TC and TCDS must be approved by AED of DGCA

19) If operator fails to comply the requirement of DGCA relative to their operation then…
a) Penalties imposed
b) Suspension , cancellation of AOP
c) Suspension , cancellation and revocation of AOP
d) All are correct.
20) COA validity up to ……………….
a) As soon as ARC remains invalid
b) One year
c) Two year
d) None ( COA is valid through- out its operating life)

21) SMS shall be reviewed for


a) Ensure that relevant organization complies the requirement of its SMS
b) Ensure that safety objective are complied or not.
c) Gap analysis

22) Manufacturer gives instruction in the form of ….


a) SB
b) SL
c) SI
d) All of the above

23) FTS includes……..


a) CDCCL items
b) Basic training of maintenance
c) Manpower estimation
d) Training program to amend maintenance program

24) Human factor training given to person ….


a) Not later than 6 month after joining
b) Not later than 3 month after joining
c) 12 months Before joining
d) Not later than 12 months after joining

25) Hazard identification incudes……….


a) ….
b) ……..
c) ..
d) ATA + distribution of safety information
26) Phase 01 – objective
a) Familiarization with basic element of FTST issues
b) Able to give simple description of historical background
c) Able to use typical term
d) ATA

27) Sufficiency of hanger space to to carry out planned base maintenance should be
determined by projected hanger visit plan in relative to
a) Aircraft maintenance program
b) Maintenance data
c) Either of the above

28) AOP holders requires - -


a) CAMO is require as part of AOP , to manage continuing airworthiness of their aircraft
b) As in (a) or it can contract to other CAMO
c) AMO must

29) Service provider shall take in consider responsibilities and accountabilities of…………
a) Management
b) Employs
c) Both management and employs

30) To satisfactory determining cause of defect what is required to carry out…


a) Ground test
b) Test flight
c) Ramp test
31) AOP……
a) Shall be carried out on board to aircraft
b) Certified true copy of the AOP shall be carried out with operational specification
c) Both are correct
d) Does not require to carry on board
32) The observed actual climb performance shall be in the case of test flight is lower by
more than
a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 4%
33) CAT. A license holder can issue CRS on
a) minor schedule line maintenance
b) simple defect rectification
c) both (a) and (b) are correct
d) minor schedule line maintenance and simple defect rectification endorsed on his
license

34) Aircraft technical log preserved for…….


a) 24 months from the aircraft withdrawn from use
b) 36 month from the aircraft withdrawn from use
c) 36 month from the date of last entry

35) A condition or an object with the potential to cause contribute an aircraft in accident or
incident is called………
a) Error
b) Hazard
c) defence

36) Application for issue or grant of approval of organization is made on


a) CA FORM 02
b) FORM 02
c) CA FORM 03

37) When owner or operator wants change from one approved program to other then
a) Transfer check
b) Inspection to be performed to implement he change
c) Both are correct

38) Aircraft technical log section 01 contains –


a) Deferred defect
b) Name and address of the operator
c) Information necessary to continued safe operation of aircraft
39) Group of person representing maintenance management structure of organization
should require FTST
a) Phase 01
b) Phase 02
c) Phase 01+ phase 02+ continuation training
40) Refer definition
a) Minimum usable fuel
b) Minimum critical fuel
c) EDTO critical fuel

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