M.

Tech in Bioelectronics
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours

Answer either Part-A or Part – B

Write the answer in the block provided

PART – A
Q.1 In the design of logic circuits, there is a trade-off between
(a) Propagation delay & power dissipation (b) Switching time & fan-out
(c) Fan-out & power dissipation (d) Switching time & noise margin.
Q.2 The astable multivibrator has
(a) two stable states (b) one stable and one quasi-stable state
(c) two quasi-stable states (d) none of the above.
Q.3 A binary to decimal decoder is called 1 of 10 decoder, because
(a) at a time one i/p is high (b) o/p is high if all i/ps are high
(c) only one of its o/p lines is high at a time (d) it has 10 i/p lines
Q.4 A counter displays a sequence of numbers. If a reading corresponds to the hexadecimal number F 52 E, the next
two readings are respectively
(a) F 52 F, F 520 (b) F 530, F 531
(c ) F 52 F, F 530 (d) F 52 F, F 52 G
Q.5 The Bipolar Technology giving the fastest logical family is
(a) DTL (b) TTL
(c ) ECL (d) None of these.
Q6. In sign magnitude numbers,
(a) the leading bit stands for the sign (b) the leading bit is part of the magnitude
(c ) the leading bit is always 0 (d) the leading bit is always 1.
Q.7 The ‘Excess 3 code’ for number 3 is
(a) 0 1 1 0 (b) 0 0 1 1
(c) 0 0 0 1 (d) 1 0 0 1
Q.8 The problem of ‘current hogging’ is associated with
(a) DCTL gates (b) DTL gates
(c) ECL gates (d) CMOS gates.
Q.9 In Logic circuits,
(a) The sink current is greater than source current
(b) The source current is greater than sink current
(c) The sink current flows from the driver to driver gates.
(d) The source current flows from the driver to driver gates.
Q.10 Lissajous patterns are used to measure
(a) voltage and frequency (b) frequency and phase shift
(c) frequency and amplitude distortion (d) amplitude and flux.

PART – B

Q1 Which of the following is an example of restriction endonuclease?

(a) Phosphorylase b (b) Protein kinase A
(c) BamH1 (d) Phospholipase C
Q2 A typical plasmid vectors containing a fragment of phage DNA including
its att site is known as
(a) Cosmid (b) Phasmid
(c) Bacmid (d) None of these
Q3 The blotting technique that has been devised to detect protein is known as –
(a) Eastern blotting (b) Western blotting
 (c) Southern blotting (d) Northern blotting
Q4 The type of in-vitro culture technique, where an isolated ovary is grown is known as
(a) Embryo culture (b) Protoplast culture
(c) Tissue culture (d) Organ culture
Q5 Which of the following is the botanical name of garlic
(a) Alium sativum (b) Alium capa
(c) Apium graveolens (d) Capsicum annuum
Q6 Which of the following group of scientists developed the Hybridoma Technology for monoclonal antibody
production?
(a) G.F. Koehler and T.H.Morgan (b) G. Haberlandt and G.F.Koehler
(c) C.Milstein and G.F. Koehler (d) T.H.Morgan and C.Milstein
Q7 To generate hybridoma cells for the production of monoclonal antibody, the following cell lines are used-
(a) Antibody producing normal B-lymphocytes with myeloma B-lymphocytes
(b) Antibody producing myeloma B-lymphocytes with normal B-lymphocytes
(c) Antibody producing normal B-lymphocytes with normal B-lymphocytes
(d) Antibody producing myeloma B-lymphocytes with myeloma B-lymphocytes
Q8 Which of the following protein digestive enzyme is most widely used in
detergent industry-
(a) Trypsin (b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Subtilisin (d) Papain
Q9 The technique of direct transfer of genes into plant protoplast is known as –
(a) electrophoresis (b) Electroporation
(c) genoploration (d) None of these
Q10 Which is the following sweetener is the fruit of biotechnology
(a) Aspartame (b) Glutartame
(c) Xanthane (d) None of these
 ONE-YEAR certificate COURSE IN CHINESE (FULL TIME)
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
Part I - English Grammar
(A) Change the Parts of Speech of the following words as directed in the parentheses: (5´1=5)
1. Strong (into Noun) 2. Suffice (into Adjective)
3. Practical (into Verb) 4. Extend (into Adverb)
5. Destroy (into Noun)
(B) Give the opposite words for the following: (5´1=5)
1. Best 2. Able
3. Visible 4. Management
5. Technical
(C) Change the following Affirmative sentences into Negative ones keeping the meanings intact:
1. Only a kind man can act thus. 2. She is the best in her class. (5´1=5)
3. Jack is sometimes foolish. 4. Everybody will agree to my opinion.
5. A poor man’s life is hard.
(D) Change the following Assertive sentences into Interrogative ones keeping the meanings intact:
1. Everybody loves his country. 2. He was a fool to act thus. (5´1=5)
3. No one can trust such a liar. 4. I will never forget those happy days in school.
5. It does not matter if he comes.
(E) Choose suitable prepositions from the parentheses to fill up the blanks: (5´1=5)
1. He is not able to cope ________ the situation. (with/in)
2. Jim is dull_________ Mathematics. (in/at)
3. Elizabeth is engaged___________ Mr. McDonald. (to/with)
4. Jack has brought disgrace _________ his whole family. (for/to)
5. Mr. Smith died __________ illness.(of/by)
(F) Change the Gender of the following nouns: (5´1=5)
1. Duke 2. Widow
3. Hunter 4. Cow
5. Host
(G) Change the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs given within the parentheses:
1. Mr. Thomson and his family____________ London tonight. (leave) (5´1=5)
2. They _____________ John for several months. (see)
3. Ruby ______________ here since 1991. (work)
4. Mr. Jones ______________ the letter before his friend comes. (write)
5. Simon ______________ to Scotland 30 years ago. (go)
(H) Write a letter (in not more than 200 words) - (15)
1. To your friend abroad describing an Indian festival you are fond of.
OR
2. To your father/mother explaining why you want to learn a foreign language.
OR
3. To the editor of a newspaper about the problems of blindly imitating the West.
(I) Write an essay (in not more than 300 words) on any one of the following: (20)
1. Environmental pollution 2. Globalization and India
3. National integration 4. The role of media in the Indian society
(J) Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below: (10)
It is a matter of common knowledge that in underdeveloped countries such as India with a growing
population, there is an unusual pressure on land cultivation. Here, more people are engaged in agriculture partly or
wholly than are necessary.
What is the result? When more people are engaged in agriculture than are really needed for the purpose, they are
really surplus. If they are withdrawn from the rural areas and put in other occupations and professions it will not
mean any decrease in agricultural output. On the other hand, it might increase, as it is said, “Too many cooks spoil
the broth”. In absolute terms the total volume of rural unemployment is much larger than that of any other country.
No wonder, it poses the most challenging problem for the planners to tackle.
1. Suggest a suitable title for the text. 2
2. In which literary category would you classify the text- 2
i. A report ii. A story
iii. An advertisement iv. An essay
3. Complete the following sentence with words or phrases that best suit the context. Choose from the alternatives
suggested: 3x2=6
i. In India there are many more people engaged in land cultivation than are-
a) demanded b) needed
c) expected
ii. “They are really surplus” means-
a) there are too many of them b) they are really useless
c) they are really needed
iii. India has the largest number of-
a) unemployed persons in the urban areas
b) unemployed persons in the village areas
c) unemployed persons in the planning department
33

Part II - General knowledge on China

(K) Answer the questions (any ten): (10x2 =20)
1. What is the staple food of the Chinese people?
2. When was the People’s Republic of China founded?
3. Name a famous Chinese poet.
4. Name a great philosopher of China.
5. Name the last dynasty of China.
6. Name one mountain range of China.
7. Name the sea to the east of China.
8. Name three neighbouring countries of China.
9. Name the national animal of China.
10. Which is the longest river of China?
11. Name the Indian Prime Minister who visited China in 1993.
12. Name the Chinese President who visited India in 1996.
 M. Sc. in APPLIED CHEMISTRY
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Total Marks : 100 No negative marks, for wrong answers Time : 2 hours
1. One kilowatt-hour is equal to
a) 3.6 x 105 J b) 3.6 x 106 J
12
c) 3.6 x 10 J d) 3.6 x 102 J x2
2. If y=ò cost dt, then dy/dx is equal to 0
a) 2x cosx2 b) -2x cosx2
2
b) c) -2x sinx d) 2x sinx2
3. If BELIEF is written as afkkdi, how is SELDOM written in the code ?
a) rdkcnl b) tfenp
b) c) rfkenn d) rfkjnp
4. What will be the degree of polymerization of polyethylene of average molecular weight of 56000?
5. What happens when fatty acid reacts with SOCl2 ?
6. Calculate the degree of freedom in a system containing solid CaCO3 and CaO and CO2 gas?
7. Does He2 molecule exist? Justify your answer.
8. Write down the chemical structure of monomer of each of the following polymers:
Polymethyl acrylate and Polypropylene
9. What is the main product of nitration of nitrobenzene and why it is so ?
10. Give the set of quantum numbers that describe an electron in a 3p orbital.
11. Describe how the origin of viscosity for gases and liquid are different.
12.Osmotic pressure of dil. aqueous solution of NaCl remarkably differs from ideal behaviour. Why?
 M. A. IN CULTURAL STUDIES
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Maximum Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
The Written Test consists of the following :
(i) General information on North East India particularly of Assam.
(ii) Elementary knowledge about the artistic heritage of India with particular emphasis on North East India.
(iii) An essay to be written, on a topic of contemporary and general interest.
Moreover, short answer / objective type questions will be set mostly on General Knowledge relating to Art,
History, Culture, Literature, Language, Contemporary events etc.
1. Locate the following spots shown in the map of India supplied herewith :
(a) Mysore (b) Varanasi
2. Label the names of three SAARC countries in the map supplied.
3. Write an essay on
(i) 17th FIFA World Cup or (ii) The Computer.
4. Deabbreviate - ISRO, ASEAN.
5. Name the authors of - War and Peace, Mrityunjay.
6. Choose the correct answer :
(a) Patua menas - scroll painter / glodmith / carpenter.
(b) Ramcharitnamas was composed by - Madhabdev / Tulsidas / Chaitanyadev.
7. Answer :
(a) Name one philosopher-scientist of ancient India.
(b) Name the only Indian recipient of a prize for peace.
8. Choose the right match : Manipur Onam
Tamil Laiharaoba
Kerela Kuchipudi
Andhra Pongal
 M. Tech. in Electronics Design & Technology
Model Questions for Entrance Examination

Full Marks :100 Time :2 Hours

Section A
1. Darlington paris are frequently used in linear ICs because they
a. resemble emitter followers.
b. can be readily formed from two adjacent transistors.
c. have enormous impedance transformation capability.
d. none of the above.
2. A free wheeling diode in a phase controlled converter
(a) causes smoothing of load current.
(b) improves the converter p.f
(c) reduces the current rating of the SCRs
(d) does all the above
3. For telephonic conversation the Bandwidth required is approximately
(a) 1KHz
(b) 6KHz
(c) 3KHz
(d) 8KHz
4. In the BPSK Scheme the number of transmitted symbols are
(a) 4
(b)2
(c) 6
(d) 8
5. MSK gives the minimum separation of two frequencies used for transmission based on the principle of
a. power levels
b. orthogonality
c.noise levels
d. centre frequency
6. In a mobile communication system , frequncy reuse is accomplished by employing
(a) a good modulation scheme
(b) a low noise amplifier
(c) a cellular structure
(d) an efficient coding system
7. In digital data communication, the type of transmission in which binary code is transmitted by shifting a carrier
frequency between two preset frequencies is called
(a) FSK
(b)ASK
(c) PSK
(d) DPSK
8. ATM uses a fixed -frame structure called
(a) a header
(b) a cell
©a byte
(d) an octet
9. A time delay t0 in a signal of frequency w
(a) changes its phase spectrum by wto
(b) changes its phase spectrum by -wto
(c) changes both amplitude spectrum and phase spectrum by wto
(d) none of these
10. In order to achieve the same time dealy , higher frequency sinusoids must undergo
( a) lower phase shifts
(b) higher phase shifts
(c) no phase shifts
 (d) none of these
11. In CMOS technology the static power dissipation is
(a) low
(b) high
(c) depend on design
(d) none of these
12. In VLSI technology the most commonly used pull up is
(a) load resistance
(b) nMOS E-mode
(c) C-MOS
(d) none of these
13. The trapped charges in the oxide of a N-channel E-MOS normally
(a) increases V TH
(b) decreases VTH
(c) do not effect VTH
(d) none of these
14. If we touch the gate terminal of a MOSFET,the ESD may damage the device by breaking down the
(a) drain substrate junction
(b)oxide layer
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) insulator - semiconductor interface
15. Alieasing distortion occurs
(a) if a signal is sampled at a rate lower than the Nyquist rate
(b)if a signal is sampled at a rate higher than the Nyquist rate
(c) if a signal is quantigied with less number of bits
(d) if the reconstruction D to A converter does not have proper Low pass filter
16. Which of the following is not a property of DTFT X(w)
(a) X (w) is 2 p periodic
(b) X (w) is always real
(c) X (w) is inevitable
(d) X (w) contains information about the corresponding analog spectrum
17. A digital signal has redundancy if
(a) the samples are correlated
(b) all the values of the samples occur with unequal probability
(c) a sample can be predicted from the previous sample
(d) all the above
18. VCO generates
(a) an output voltage
(b) an output frequency
(c) an output current
(d) none of these
19. Compensation of a second order system is useally done to
(a) increase its damping ratio
(b) decrease its damping ratio
(c) increase the time constant
(d) decrease the time constant

Section B

20 Design an asynchronous ripple counter of mod -10 using JK flip flop.

21. A 10 bit bipolar successive approximation type ADC with a reference voltage of +5 volts works from a clock of
10 MHz. Determine the resolution , maximum conversion error and maximum time of conversion.
22. A copper - Constantine thermocouple of sensitivity 40 mV/0C is heated to a temperature of 2000C with
reference junction temperature at 250C.The output voltage is amplified by an amplifier of gain 100 and then
displayed in a 31/2 digit multimeter. What is the displayed voltage and find also the resolution.
.
M. Tech. IN ENERGY TECHNOLOGY
Model Questions for Entrance Examination

Maximum Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours

The written test consists of the following sections

A. General Aptitude in Energy :50 marks B. Mathematics : 20 marks
C. Physics : 15 marks D. Chemistry : 15 marks
Total Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
SECTION -A
(General Aptitude in Energy)
1. Choose the correct answer (Use ü mark) (1x30)
I. Thermocouple sensors used for measurement of temperature are of the type
a) J.K.S and T b) A.C.N.and P c) K,L,T and U d) None of these
2. The alternative fuel used in automobiles is
a) Alcohol b) Glycol c) Benzol d) None of these
ll. Expand the following (1x10)
1. BEE
2. CFC
lll. Fill in the blanks (1x10)
1. Solar radiation consists of visible as well as ..........parts of electromagnetic radiation.
2. Green house effect leads to increase in the global mean.............

SECTION B
(Mathematics)
Attempt the following (4x5)
1. Evaluate
ll. Find the maximum and minimum values of (x-1)(x-2)(x-3)

SECTION C
(Physics)
Attempt the following (3x5)
1. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 22%It operates between constant temperature reservoirs differing in
temperature by 750C. What are the temperatures of the two reservoirs?
ll. Light strikes a sodium surface causing photoelectric emission. The stopping potential for the ejected electrons is
5.0 V and the work function of sodium is 2.2 eV . What is the wavelength of incident light?

SECTION D
(Chemistry)
Attempt the following (3x5)
1. What is meant by ‘Octane number’ of Gasoline? Mention the name of some additives that are used for increasing
the octane number.
ll. What is the pHof 10-8 N HCL ?
The format is subject to change
 M.A. IN ENGLISH
Model Questions For Admission Examination

Maximum marks :100 Time allowed: 2 hours

There are 10 questions in all. Ensure that you answer all questions. Please answer all questions in the space
provided.
1. Use the correct forms of the verbs given in brackets to complete the following sentences:
a. If I…. ……….(be) as strong as you, I …………………..(kill) you. 2+1=3
b. If anybody had asked me I …………………(can tell) them everything.
2. Use appropriate question tags to complete the following sentences: 1x3=3
a. You will stay till lunch,……………..………...…..?
b. Don’t tell my mother,………………………?
c. I love coffee, ……………………….……..?
3. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words: 5
I began by arguing……..literature did not exist……..in that case can……….theory exist
either? There……two familiar ways in……… any theory can provide ……..with a distinct
purpose……….identity. Either it can…………..itself in terms of……..particular methods of
enquiry,….it can define itself in terms of the particular object that is being enquired into.
4. Correct the following sentences 3
a. The hostel is not suitable for disabled.
b. They are arriving on March the 25th.
c. The train fare is very cheap.
5. Explain the differences in the sense of plum in the two sentences given below: 2
a. I like plum jam very much.
b. She has managed to get a plum job.
6. Choose the appropriate word given in brackets to fill the blanks: 4
a. You should never ………………….between a husband and wife. (intervene/interfere)
b. We use rice, cereal and vegetables as the …………………… diet. (staple, stable)
c. I think the politician………………….….the crowd to violence. (incited/inspired)
8
d. Please …………………………... the posters off the wall. (peal/peel)
7. Develop (in about 200 words) the following outline to write a coherent paragraph, and also suggest an appropriate
title. 16
literature – a vague term—different societies, different times, and different notions of literature—some talk
of distinction between fictional and factual, imaginative and historical, creative and non-creative etc—some
focus on language—literature as a special kind of or use of language—difficult to define precisely—
questions of value, attitude, outlook arise---some kind of qualitative judgement involved—some way
related to life ,reality, man’s response to these—various theories, various assumptions about literature—
traditional distinction between literature-non-literature disappearing
8. Write an essay in not more than 250 words on any one of the following topics. 18
a. Theatre of the Absurd
b. Victorian Novel
c. Restoration Comedy

9. Write short notes in not more than 75 words on any five of the following: 5x5=25
sonnet, picaresque novel, neoclassicism, catharsis, metaphor, imagination
10. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow it:
The Stranglehold of English Lit
Those questions, sister,
Those questions
stand
stab
 jab
and gore
too close to the centre!

For if we had asked

why Jane Austen’s people
carouse all day
and do no work

would Europe in Africa

have stood
the test of time?
and would she still maul
the flower of our youth
in the south?
Would she? Your elegance of deceit,
Jane Austen,
lulled the sons and daughters
of the dispossessed
into a calf-love
with irony and satire
around imaginary people.
While history went on mocking
the victims of branding iron
and sugar-plantations
that made Jane Austen’s people
wealthy beyond compare!
Eng. Lit. , my sister,
was more than a cruel joke-
it was the heart
of alien conquest.
a. Who is the speaker in the poem? 2
b. What does the reference to Jane Austen suggest? 4
c. What is meant by “ history went on mocking”? 4
d. How is irony used in this poem? 5
e. How does English literature becomes a mask of “conquest” in the colonies under British Empire? 6
 M. Sc. In Environmental Science
Model question for entrance Examination

The test paper shall have both objectives as well as of short descriptive type questions covering (a) 10 + 2 level
science subjects (Biology, Chemistry, and Physics) and (b) Basic concepts of environmental science,
environmental pollution, current environmental issues, agro-ecosystems, agro-ecology, agriculture including
hill agriculture, weather and climate system.
(No negative marking for wrong answer)
Marks: 100 Time: 2 hours
I. Choose the most correct answer by using tick mark (each question carry 1 mark)
1. Colligative properties of the solution depends upon
(a) nature of solute (b) number of solute particle present in the solution
(c) nature of solvent (d) number of moles of solvent
2. Electro magnetic power generation is governed by
(a) Kirchoff’s law (b) Faraday’s law
(c) Ohm’s law (d) Thomson’s law
3. Which of the following has the smallest wave length
(a) Infrared radiation (b) X-ray
(c) gamma– ray (d) UV- radiation
4. Most of the day-to-day weather activities take place in
(a) troposphere (b) stratosphere
(c) ionosphere (d) mesosphere
5. Lighting level is measured in terms of
(a) Lux (b) Joules
(c) Watt (d) Seimond
II. Encircle the correct answer (each question carry 1 mark)
6. The most primitive angiospermic family is Magnoliaceae / Gramineae/ Ranunculaceae/ Papilionaceae
7. Bowman’s capsule is the organ found in the human lung/ kidney/ heart/ brain.
8. CO2 compensation point in C4 photosynthetic pathway is high/ low/ nil/ none of these
III. Fill in the blanks (each question carry 1 mark)
9. Sulphur is an important component of a hormone in human body, the name of the hormone is _____.
10. The causal organism of downy mildew of sorghum is ______.
11. The direct conversion of light energy to electrical energy is accompanied in a ____.
IV. Answer the following in brief (each question carry 2 to 5 marks)
12. Write notes on
(a) bio-fertilizer (b) short day plant (c) in breeding depression.
13. What are the theories of ascent of sap?
14. Give a brief account of rice pest.
15. Why chloroform is kept in dark bottles?
16. Halogens are coloured, why so?
 M. TECH. IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Model questions for Entrance Examination
Total Marks :100 Time :2 hrs

 ·· The question paper consists of three Sections A, B and C.

 ·· Section A consists of 40 multiple choice questions of 1 marks each, section B consists of 15 short questions of
2 marks each and Section C consists of conventional questions on Programming in C of total 30 marks.
 ·· The topics covered in the test are - Programming in C, Computer Organization , Data Structure (in C) ,
DBMS, Digital Logic, System Software, Operating System and Theory of Computation.
 ·· Answers to the questions should appear in the space provided and nowhere else.
 ·· There will be no negative marks but no partial credit will be given for questions in section A.
SECTION A
(40 multiple -choice questions of 1 mark each)
Q1. Start and Stop bits do not contain any ‘information’ but are used in serial communication for the following
A. Error detection B. Error Correction
C.Synchronization D. Slowing down the communication
Q2. A page replacement policy is not necessary for
A. Fully associative caches B. Set associative caches
C. Directly mapped caches D. Write- through caches
Q3. The number of select input lines in a 8- to -1 multiplexer is-
A.1 B.8
C.256 D. None of these
Q4. In a heap with n elements with the highest element at the root, the 7th highest element can be found in time
A. O (nlog n) B. O (n)
C. O(log n) D. O(1)
Q5. Which one of the following permutations can obtained in the output ( in the same order) using a stack assuming
that the input is the sequence 1,2,3,4,5, in that order?
A. 3,4,5,1,2, B. 3,4,5,2,1
C. 1,5,2,3,4 D.5,4,3,1,2
Q6. Part of a compiler that keeps record of names of variable and their associated attributes /values is known as
A. Parser B. Symbol Table
C. Lexical Analyzer D. Intermediate Code
Q7. In SQL, which of the following is not a DDL command
A.RENAME B. REVOKE
C. GRANT D. UPDATE
Q8. Which of the following features cannot be captured by CFGs
A. Syntax of if -then-else statement
B. Syntax of recursive procedures
C. Whether a variable has been declared before its use
D. Variable names of arbitrary length
SECTION B
(15 short questions of 2 marks each)
Q1. Assume that a CPU has only two registers R1 and R2 and that only the following instruction is avaiable.
XOR Ri , Rj ;{ Rj ! Ri Å Rj , for i, j=1,2}
Using this XOR instruction , find an instruction sequence in order to exchange the contents of the Registers R1and
R2.
Q2. A binary search tree is generated by inserting in order the following integers-50, 15, 62, 5, 20, 58, 91, 3. The no.
of nodes in the left and right subtree of the root respectively is ?
Q3 Suppose you are given an array s[1..n] and a procedure reverse (s,i,j,). Which reverses that order of elements in s
between position i and j (both inclusive)? What does the following
sequence do, where 1<=k<n
reverse(s,l,k)
reverse(s,k+l,n)
 reverse (s,l,n)
Q4. Give a production grammar for the language L={aibi|i,j >= 1,i!=j}
Q5. Given the following Relational Schema
EMP (emp_no, dept_no,emp_name,salary)
DEPT(dept_no,dept_name,location)
Write SQL query to find all the department names where the number of employees in the department is greater than
500.
Q6. Consider n processes sharing the CPU in RR fashion . Assuming that each process switch takes s seconds. What
must be the quantum size q such that the overhead resulting from process switching is minimized, but at the same
time each process is guaranteed to get its turn at the CPU at least every t seconds?
SECTION C
(Conventional questions related to programming in C of 30 marks)
Q1 Find the output of the following C programs: 3
a) #include <stdio.h>
void main (void)
{char a=0XAA;
int b;
b=(int)a;
b>>4;
printf(%x,b);
}
b) #include<stdio.h> 4
void main(void)
{int newval(int);
int in [ ]=12, 24, 45, 0};
int i,sum=0;
for(i=0; in[i];i++)
sum+=newval(in[i]);
printf(“Sum= =%d”, sum);
}
int newval (int x)
{static int div =1;
return(x/div + +);
}
Q2. Write a program to evaluate the following series to 0. 0001% accuracy.
Sin x=x-x3/3!+x5/5!-x7/7!+.... 5
Q3. A data file contains 500 positive integers in the range 1 to 25. Write a program that will read the data and print
the frequency distribution i. e .the number of times each of the integers occur in the data. 5
3
 M. Sc. IN MOLECULAR BIOLOGY AND BIOTECHNOLOGY
Model Question for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Each question carries equal marks. Time : 2 hours

Q 1. Ribulose-1,5-biphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase is the product of gene complemen-

tation between
(i) chromosome and DNA (ii) mRNA and DNA
(iii) chloroplast and nuclear genomes (iv) mitochondial and chloroplast genomes
Q 2. The modern unit of light intensity measurement is
(i) foot metre (ii ) candle foot
(iii) m E m-2 sec-1 (iv) foot gauge
Q 3. Which molecule is more abundant in nature but not utilized directly?
(i) O2 (ii) CO2
(iii) N2 (iv) H2
Q 4. Find out the missing number of the series 6, 11, 26, 47, _______
(i) 66 (ii) 117
(iii) 83 (iv) 98
Q 5. The chemical responsible for the depletion of ozone in the stratosphere is
(i) CF4 (ii) CCl4
(iii) CF2Cl21 (iv) CHF3
Q 6. Totipotency is the ability of
(a) A plant cell to grow into a whole plant in suitable media.
(b) An animal cell to grow into an animal in suitable media.
(c) A blood vessel to supply blood to the whole body.
(d) The nervous system to provide all types of impulsive responses.
Q 7. Epinastic banding is the response of seedlings
(a) Towards heat (b) Towards darkness
(c) Towards sound (d) None of the above
Q 8. The first enzyme involved in the Kreb’s Cycle is
(a) Ribulose-1,6-biphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase
(b) Ribulose-1,2-biphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase
(c) Ribulose-1,5-triphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase
(d) None of the above.
Q 9. Curd is the product of milk acted upon by
(a) Bacillus subtilis (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Lactobacillus milkiformis (d) None of the above.
Q 10. Crossing over takes place between
(a) Two different bivalents. (b) Two daughter nuclei.
(c) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent. (d) Two endoplasmic reticulum.
Q 11. Haemophilia disease prevents blood clotting and is caused by
(a)Eschericia coli (b) T4 bacteriophage virus
(c) Aspergillus niger (d) None of the above.
Q 12. Rhizobium bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in a
(a) Symbiotic association with the leaves of leguminous plants.
(b) Symbiotic association with the roots of cruciferous plants.
(c) Symbiotic association with the roots of leguminous plants.
(d) Symbiotic association with the roots of graminae plants.
Q 13. Mutation causes
(a) Change in the eyesight of human beings.
(b) Sudden and abrupt change in the hereditary complex of living beings.
(c) Variation in the turgor pressure in the plants.
(d) None of the above.
Q 14. If we cross a heterozygous tall and red female with a homozygous dwarf and white male (TtRr X ttrr)
(a) All offsprings will be tall and red. (b) 90% of the offsprings will be tall and red.
(c) 25% of the offsprings will be tall and red. (d) 50% of the offsprings will be tall and red.
Q 15. Ability of a gene to have many effects is known as
(a) Pleiotropy (b) Polygeny
(c) Epistasis (d) Polygamy
Q 16. Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome can spread through
(a) Improper blood transfusion. (b) Unsafe and multi-partner sex.
(c) Multiple use of non-sterile syringe. (d) All of the above.
Q 17. Plants take nitrogen from soil in the following two forms
(a) NH4 and NO3 (b) NH3OH and NO2COOH.
(c) NO3 and NO2. (d) NH and NO.
Q 18. RBD stands for
(a) Rapid biodegradation. (b) Round bound design.
(c) Randomized block design. (d) None of the above.
Q 19. Complete the series 3, 5, 14, 43, 128, ____________
(a) 384 (b) 386
(c) 390 (d) 385
Q 20. mRNA is synthesized within
(a) Ribosome. (b) Opened up DNA double helix.
(c) Intron of DNA. (d) Splicing of DNA.
 MASTER OF COMPUTER APPLICATION (MCA)
Model Questions for Entrance Examination

Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours

The entrance examination question paper will contain three sections :

1. Section I (Logical Reasoning) : 40 marks

2. Section II (Mathematics or Computer Basics) : 30 marks
3. Section III (English Composition & Comprehension) : 30 marks

To qualify for selection a candidate must secure at least 20% marks in each of the sections.

Model Questions

Section I
Each correct answer will fetch 2 marks and
for every wrong answer 1 (one) mark will be deducted.

1. What is the next number in the series – 121, 169, 289, 361, 526, _ ?
(A) 841 (B) 625 (C) 784 (D) 729 (E) none of these

2. The missing letters in the sequence - “ _ a b b b _ b _ b a b b ” are –

(A) a, b, b (B) a, a, b (C) b, a, a (D) b, a, b (E) b, b, a

3. TMXK : ULXJ : : WQFY : ?

(A) VRGX (B) XPGZ (C) XRGX (D) XPGX (E) none of these

4. A cube with all sides painted is divided into small cubes of equal sizes. The edge of a small cube is exactly one-
fourth as that of the original cube. Therefore the number of small cubes with only one side painted is –
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 24 (E) 36

5. Himanshu is older than Chittaranjan. Vikas is older than Shridhar. Manik is

not as old as Vikas but is older than Chittaranjan. Shridhar is not as old as
Chittaranjan. Who is the youngest?
(A) Himanshu (B) Chittaranjan (C) Shridhar (D) Manik

Questions 6 to 8 are based on the following –

A professor is asked to judge a film contest. There are six films –

X, Y, Z, R, T-Part I and T-Part II. The films will be shown over a six-day period, from Monday to Saturday.
(1) No film is shown more than five times.
(2) Film X is shown every day except Friday and Saturday.
(3) Film R is shown on either Monday or Friday.
(4) Both parts of film T are shown every day except for Monday
(5) when only Part I is shown and Saturday when only Part II is shown.
(6) Film Z is shown on alternate days beginning on Monday.
(7) Film Y is shown on three days in succession between Monday and Friday.
(8) Only one film is shown at a time.
(9) The two parts of film T must be viewed in order and on separate days, though not necessarily
on consecutive days.
(10) Film Y and R are both shown on a day on which film X is not shown.
(11) The professor cannot view any film on Thursday.

6. What is the minimum number of films shown on one day ?

 (A) none (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4 (E) 5

7. What is the maximum number of films which can be viewed on one day ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5 (E) 6

8. What is the maximum number of times the professor may view both parts of the film T ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 10 (E) 14

Section II
In this Section answer questions in either Group A or Group B

Group A

Each correct answer will fetch 2½ marks and for every wrong answer 1 (one) mark will be deducted.

1. A circle passes through the points (0,0), (a,0) and (0,b). The co-ordinates of its centre are –

(A) ( a/2, b/2 ) (B) ( b/2, a/2 ) (C) ( a, b ) (D) ( b, a ) (E) none of these

2. The square root of 49 + 20  6 is

(A) 2   3 (B) 7   3 (C)  ( 5 + 2  6 ) (D)  ( 7 – 2  6 ) (E) none of these

3. The term independent of x in the expansion of ( x 2 - 1/x ) 4 is

(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) 48 (D) 0 (E) none of these

4. If 1/ (b-a) + 1/ (b-c ) = 1/a + 1/c then a, b, c are in

(A) AP (B) HP (C) GP (D) HP and GP both (E) none of these

5. If f(x) = Sin[x] / [x] for [x]  0

=0 for [x] = 0
([x] is the largest integer less than or equal to x )
then lim f(x) equals –
x0

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D) 0.81 (E) none of these

6. If the complex numbers Z1, Z2, Z3 represent the vertices of an equilateral triangle such that
| Z1 | = | Z2 | + | Z3 | = 3 then | Z1 + Z2 + Z3 | is equal to –

(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 9 (D) 3 (E) none of these

7. The number of solutions of the equation Sin4  - 2 Sin2  - 1 = 0 at (-,) is-

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 2 (E) none of these

Group B
 Each correct answer will fetch 2 marks and for every wrong answer 1 (one) mark will be deducted.

1. Assuming normal rules of precedence, the equivalent postfix form of the arithmetic expression
a + b * c / d - e * f is

(A) a + ((b * c) / d ) - (e * f) (B) a b c * d / + e f * -

(C) - + a / * b c d * e f (D) a b c d e f + * / - *

2. The 8-bit 2's complement binary representation of -35 is

(A) - 00100011 (B) 11100011
(C) 110111101 (D) 10110001

3. An EPROM with 16-bit address bus and 4-bit data bus contains –

(A) 32 KB (B) 64 KB (C) 256 KB (D) 128 KB

4. Each surface of a disk in hard-disk pack containing 10 double-sided disks has 20 tracks and each track has eight
sectors. The number of cylinders in the hard disk is -

(A) 160 (B) 3200 (C) 20 (D) 8

5. The output of the following C program is –

main ()
{
int i = 10 ;
for ( i - = 1 ; i <= 18 ; i ++ )
printf (" % d", (i % 3 ? i : ++i ));
}

(A) -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
(B) 10111314161719
(C) 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
(D) 101113141617

6. If four processes with individual processing time requirements of 10, 8, 12, 14 respectively, are scheduled in the
sequence without being descheduled, then the average turn around time will be –

(A) 25.5 (B) 11 (C) 92 (D) 14.5

7. The output of the following C program is –

int f ( int x)
{
char i
for ( i = 0 ; x ; x >>= 1 )
if ( x & 1)
i ++;
return ( (int) i );
}

(A) tests if x is very much larger than 1. (B) calculates the square of x.
(C) calculates the number of bits in x. (D) calculates the number of '1' bits in x.

Section III
1. Write a precis in about 50 words for a given passage. 10 marks

2. Comprehension: Read the given passage and answer the set of questions
based on it. 10 marks

3. Vocabulary test.. 10 marks

 M. A. IN MASS COMMUNICATION & JOURNALISM
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Total Marks : 100 No negative marks for wrong answers Time : 2 hours

 ·· The Admission Test Booklet has been designed to test your knowledge in the English language, general
knowledge, current affairs, media, culture and tradition of North East India, etc.
 ·· There will be passages and questions following them. You will have to read the passages thoroughly and then
answer the questions.
 ·· There will be some questions on synonyms and antonyms.
 ·· There will be some questions with jumbled sentences. You will have to rearrange the jumbled parts into a
meaningful sentence.
Example: Women
(P) are more likely to give birth prematurely (Q) and their babies are at increased risk
(R) who are poorly nourished or sick (S) of death and disability
(A) RQSP (B) RPQS (C) QSPR (D) QSRP
Ans: (B)
 ·· Some idioms or phrases might also be given and you will have to choose the right option for the correct
meaning of the phrase.
Questions on general knowledge, current affairs and media might be on the following lines
1. 'Folio' is the supplement of which newspaper:
(A) The Hindu (B) The Statesman (C) Assam Tribune (D) The Telegraph
2. Which of the following newspapers has recently launched a North -east edition from Guwahati?
(A) The Asian Age (B) The Times of India (C) The Hindu (D) The Pioneer
3. Who is the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) Gegong Apang (B) Mukut Mithi (C) Tarun Gogoi (D) None of these
4. Which movie won the Oscar Award in Best Foreign Film Category in 2003 ?
(A) Lagaan (B) No Man’s Land (C) Lord of the Rings (D) A Beautiful Mind
5. Life ho to Aisi is the advertising slogan of which of the following
(A) Coca-Cola (B) Pepsi (C) Thums Up (D) LIMCA
6. For many years, Neighbour's Envy, Owner's Pride was the advertising catchline of which of the following ?
(A) PHILIPS TV (B) ONIDA TV (C) BPL TV (D) LG TV
 ·· There will also be short answer type questions
7 . ‘Young India’ was edited by ______________________________
8. Nogkrem is a folk dance form in the state of ___________________
Besides the above, you will be asked to writeTWO essays/ features on a contemporary issue issue or a theme OR a
feature by taking clues from a photograph. This is to test your perception, vocabulary, style of writing, presentation
and analytical skills etc.
 M. A. / M. SC. IN MATHEMATICS
Model Questions for Entrance Examination

Time: 2 hours Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions to the candidates

1. There are two sections: Section A and Section B.

1
2. Section A consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each for the correct answer.
2
All questions are to be answered from this section. Select the correct answers and write the
corresponding letters a,b,c or d in the box provided on the right margin.

For example: The first even number is

(a ) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Ans:
b
3. Section B consists of 8 questions carrying 5 marks each . Any 5 questions are to be answered
from this section .
4. No separate sheet for rough calculation will be supplied. All calculations will have to be done
in the blank space available In the booklet.

Section A
2
(1) Lim ( tanx x )1 / x is equal to
x 0

(a) 0; (b) 1;

(c) e1 / 3 ; (d) e.

(2) The area bounded by parabola y  x 2 and the line y  2 x is

4 8
(a) square units; (b) square units;
3 3
16
(c) square units; (d) 4 square units;
3

3 2 i sin 
(3) 1 2 i sin  is purely imaginary for  equal to

(a) n ; (b) n   / 3 ;
(c) n / 2 ; (d) n / 2   / 6 .

1 i 100 1 i 100
(4) ( 2 ) + ( 2) is equal to
 (a) 0; (b) 1;

(c) 2; (d) -2.

(5) The sum of the series n  1  (n  1)  2  (n  2)  3        1  n is equal to

n( n  1) n(n  1)(n  2)
(a) ; (b) ;
6 6
( n  1) n( 2n  1) n( n 2  3n  8)
(c) ; (d) .
3 6
1 3
(7) 0
 is equal to
sin 10 cos 10 0

(a) 1; (b) 2;

(c) 3; (d) 4.

(8) 5 cos  3 cos (   / 3)  3 lies between

(a) –10 and –4 ; (b) –4 and 10;

(c) 10 and ; (d) none of these.

(9) If the cube roots of unity are 1,  ,  2 , then the roots of the equation ( x  1) 3  8  0 are

(a)  1, 1  2 , 1  2 2 ; (b)  1, 1  2 , 1  2 2 ;

(c)  2,  2 ,  2 2 ; (d)  1,  1  2 ,  1  2 2 .

(10) The sides of a triangle are in the ration 2 : 6 : ( 3  1) . The angles of the triangle will be in

(a) 1: 2 : 3; (b) 2 : 3 : 4;

(c) 3 : 4 : 5; (d) 1 : 3 : 5.

(11)Everybody in a room shakes with everybody else. The total number of handshakes is 66. The total
number of persons in the room is

(a) 11; (b) 12;

(c) 13; (d) 14.

(12) If the events A and B be mutually exclusive, then P ( A  B ) will be equal to

(a) P ( A)  P ( B ) ; (b) P ( A) . P ( B ) ;

(c) P ( A) / P ( B ) ; (d) P ( A)  P ( B ) .
(13) The function f ( x ) | x |  | x  1 | is

(a) continuous but not differentiable at x  0, 1 ;

(b) not continuous;

(c) continuous at x  0 but not at x  1 ;

(d) continuous and differnetiable at all points.

(14) The function f ( x)  ( x  3) 5 ( x  1) 4 has

(a) a maximum value at x  3 ;

(b) a minimum value at x  3 ;

(c) no extreme values;

(d) neither a maximum nor a minimum but an extrme value at x  3 .


(15) 0
xF (sin x) dx is equal to

 
(a) 
2  0
F (sin x )dx ; (b)  0 F (sin x) dx ;
 
(c) 
 
2 
F (sin x) dx ; (d) 4 0
F (sin x )dx .
0

(16) Everywhere the curve y  log x is

(a) concave upwards; (b) convex downwards;

(c) concave downwards; (d) Neither concave nor convex.

1 n n n 
(17) The value of Lim   2 2  2  ......  2 
2  is equal to
n  n n  1 n  2 2
n   n  1
 

(a)  / 4 ; (b)  / 2 ;

(c) 1 ; (d) .
(18) The system of equations
 x  y  3z  0
xz 0
x yz 0
has

(a) a unique solution; (b) finitely many solutions;

(b) infinitely many solutions; (d) no solution.

(19) which of the folloowing sets of vectors in  3 are linearly dependant?

(i) (2, -1, 4), (3,6,2), (2,10,-4);

(ii) (3,1,1), (2,-1,5), (4,0,-3)
(iii) (6,0,-1), (1,1,4);
(iv) (1,3,3), (0,1,4), (5,6,3), (7,2,-1).

(a) (i) and (ii); (b) (i), (ii) and (iv);

(c) (iii) and (iv); (d) (iv) only.

(20) Let  2 have the Euclidean Inner Product. Which of the following form orthonarmal sets?

1 1 1 1
(a) (1, 0), (0, 2); (b) ( , ),( , );
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
(c) (  , ),( , ); (d) (1, 0), (0, 0).
2 2 2 2

(21) The rank of the matrix

6 1 0 3 
 
2 3 0 2 
4 1 2  3 

is

(a) 4; (b) 3;

(c) 2; (d) 1.

(22) The matrix

 0 1 b 
 
1 0 4a 
 2a 2b 0 
 
is skew-symmetric if b is equal to
 (a)-1; (b) 2a;

(c) –2a; (d) –2.

(23) Product of a matrix and its adjoint matrix is

(a) a null matrix; (b) a scalar matrix;

(c) a unit matrix; (d) the matrix itself.

(24) Given that

1 2 2
 
A  2 1 2
2 2 1 

satisfies the equation A 2  4 A  5 I  0 . Then A 1 is equal to

 3 2 1   2 2  3
1  1 
(a)  2 3 2 ; (b)   3 2 2 ;
5 3
 2 2  3   2 3 2 
2  3 2   3 2 2 
1  1 
(c)  2 2  3 ; (d)  2 2  3 .
5 3
3 2 2   2 3 2 

  
(25) Two vectors A and B are intersecting at a point O . The number of normals to the plane of A

and B at O is

(a) 1; (b) 2;

(c) 4; (d) 0.

   
(26) If r  iˆx  ˆjy  kˆz and A is a constant vector, then  ( r . A) is equal to
 
(a) A ; (b) r ;
   
(c) r . A; (d) r  A.

(27) The probability of getting two heads by tossing 3 coinssimultaneously is

1 1
(a) ; (b) ;
4 8
3 1
(c) ; (d) .
8 2
(28) A spherical ball of radius r placed on the ground subtends an angle 60 0 at a point A of the
ground. Then the distance of the point from the centre of the ball is
 (a) r / 2 ; (b) r;
(c) 3r / 2 ; (d) 2r .
dy
(29) The solution of the differential equation x  y  0 subject to boundary condition y (1)  1 is
dx

(a) y  x ; (b) y  x 2 ;
1 1
(c) y= ; (d) y  .
x x2

(30) If both a and a 2 are generators of a finite group then the order of the group is

(a) even; (b) odd;

(c) zero; (d) any positive integer.

Section B

 1 1 
1. Evaluate Lim   .

x 0  x
2
sin x 
2. A twice differentiable function f is such that f (a )  f (b)  0 and f (c)  0 for a  c  b . Prove
that there exists at least one value  between a and b for which f ( )  0 .
3. Determine the dimension and a basis of the subspace  ( a, b, c, d ) : a  b  c  d  of  4 .
4. Solve the following system of linear equations:

x yz 3
x  2 y  2z  6
x  ay  3 z  8


5. If the eigen values of a 3  3 matrix A are 1, 2, and 3 then find the value of det A) 2  det A . 
6. Find the area bounded by the parabola y  x 2 and the line y  2 x .
7. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 6 : ( 3  1) . Find the ratio of the angles of the triangle.
1
8. Evaluate  dx .
(1  x ) 2  x 2
2
 M. Sc. IN NANO SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours

Syllabus: B.Sc. Physics(Hons), Chemistry (Hons) and Biology (Hons) syllabus of any Indian University
Entrance test has two parts, Part A and Part B of 50 marks each and is of a total duration of 2 hrs.
Part A consists of 50 objective type questions of one mark each. Duration for this part is one hour.
Part B consists of short descriptive type questions to examine the conceptual clarity and reasoning ability of the
candidate. The candidate is required to attempt any five questions of 10 marks each out of about ten given questions.
Typical questions for Part A and Part B are given below:
PART – A
1. Rutherford’s model of the atom fails to explain
a) the neutral nature of atom
b) the presence of a positively charged nucleus
c) the heavy mass of the nucleus
d) the stability of the atom
2. The vector 2i+j+k is perpendicular to i- 4j + lk, if l is equal to
a) 0 b) –1
c) 2 d) 3
3. The relation between two current amplification factors of a transistor is
a) b = a/1+a b) b = (1-a)/a
c) b = a/1-a d) b = (1+a)/a
4. Which of the following electronic configurations corresponds to a noble gas
a) 2, 8, 4 b) 2, 8, 18, 8
c) 2, 8, 18, 7 d) 2, 8, 3
5. Which one of the following is not a viral disease
a) Polio b) Common cold
c) Syphilis d) Pox
36
PART – B
1. (a) Show that a free particle cannot absorb a photon completely. (3)
(b) Explain why is Compton effect experimentally not observed for visible light. (3)
(c) An X-ray photon is found to have its wavelength doubled on being scattered through 90o. Find the wavelength
and energy of the incident photon. (Compton wavelength of electron = 0.024 Ao). (4)
2. (a) An electron with a velocity 107 m/s enters a region of uniform magnetic field B =0.1Tesla, the angle between
the direction of field and the initial velocity of the electron being 30o. Find the axial distance between the two turns
of the helical path. (6)
(b) A point charge of 2 x 10-7 C is situated at the centre of a cube of side 0.6 m. Calculate the electric flux through
the entire surface. (4)
3. (a) Calculate the change in entropy when 50 gm of water at 150oC is mixed with 80 gm of water at 40oC.
(Specific heat of water 1 cal/gm/oK) (5)
(b) Calculate the change in the boiling point of water when the pressure is increased from 1.0 to 1.2 atmospheres.
Given: Specific volume of steam 1677 cm3/gm, latent heat of steam = 540 cal/gm, boiling point of water at one
atmospheric pressure = 373 oK, 1 atmospheric pressure = 1.0 x 105 N/m2. (5)
4. (a) The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27oC is 0.3 m/s. Calculate the average velocity at 927oC. (5)
(b) Given that
O(g) + e- ® O-(g), DH = -142 kJ/mole
O(g) + 2e- ® O2-(g), DH = +702 kJ/mole
Calculate heat of reaction for
O-(g) ® O2-(g) – e- (5)
5. (a) What are the basic differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
(b) What is cancer? How carcinogens are related to cancer? (5)
 M. Sc. IN PHYSICS
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
Syllabus: B.Sc. Physics (Honours) syllabus of any Indian University
Entrance test has two parts, Part A and Part B of 50 marks each and is of a total duration of 2 hours.
Part A consists of 50 objective type questions of one mark each. Duration for this part is one hour.
Part B consists of short descriptive type questions to examine the conceptual clarity and reasoning ability of the
candidate. The candidate is required to attempt any 5 questions of 10 marks each out of about 10 given questions.
Typical questions for Part A and Part B are given below:

PART – A
1. Excitons are
(a) excited electrons in pairs (b) neutron-proton pairs
(c) bound electron-electron pairs (d) bound electron-hole pairs
2. Hamiltonian formalism is easier to handle than Lagrangian formalism because Hamiltonian formalism involves
(a) first order differential equations
(b) generalized momentum instead of generalized co-ordinates
(c) only cartesian co-ordinates
(d) no time derivatives
3. An electric potential field is produced by joint charges 1 mC and 4 mC located at (-2, 1, 5) and
(1, 3, -1) respectively. The energy stored in the field is
(a) 2.57 mJ (b) 5.14 mJ
(c) 0.28 mJ (d) 20.56 mJ
4. Which of the following potentials does not satisfy the Laplace's equation?
(a) V = 2x + 5 (b) V = 10 xy
(c) V = 2x2y + 5x + 2 (d) V = 3y + 10
5. The expression which implies the nonexistence of magnetic monopoles is
(a) Ñ x E = -¶B/¶t (b) Ñ.B = 0
(c) Ñ x B = m0J (d) Ñ.J + ¶r/¶t = 0

PART - B
1. Starting from the Langragian equation, prove that the equation of motion a simple pendulum is
.. g
θ + — sin θ = 0
l
where θ, g and 1 are angular displacement, acceleration due to gravity and length of the string respectively.
2. Find the energy release, if two 1H2 nuclei fuse together to form 2He4 nucleus where the binding energies per
nucleon of 1H2 and 2He4 are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively.
3. The electrostatic potential due to a certain charge distribution is given by the expression :
V(x, y, z) = - (x2yz + xy2z + xyz2) volts
Calculate the electric field and charge density at the point (2, 1, 3)
4. A half wave rectifier uses load resistor RL = 8kW and shunt filter capacitor of 12mF. The sinusoidal input voltage
is 20sin2p50t. The angle of conduction is 400. Assuming the rectifier to be ideal (Rf = 0, Rp = ¥) calculate :
1) dc load current Idc
2) dc output voltage Vdc
3) ripple voltage VR
4) ripple factor y (cos 400 = 0.7660)
5. (i) Explain which of the following nuclear reactions are allowed or forbidden.
(a) 0n1®1p1+-1e0+ve
(b) 0n1®1p1+-1e0+ve
(ii) Draw the energy level diagram showing anomalous Zeeman effect. Can it be explained by classical theory ?
Explain.
 M. TECH. IN COMPUTATIONAL SEISMOLOGY
Model Questions for Entrance Test

Total Marks: 100 Time: 2hrs.

 The question paper shall consist of Two Sections: SECTION A and SECTION B.
 Section A shall consist of 25 multiple-choice questions (all compulsory) of 2 marks each.
Section B shall consist 25 descriptive type questions
both sections covering the topics from
1. Mathematics 2. Statistics 3. Physics 4. Earth Sciences 5. Engineering.
In section B, there will be 5 questions from each subsection (1 to 5). In this section candidates are to select a
maximum of 3 subsections and answer any 10 questions of 5 marks each from these 3 subsections only.
 There will be no negative marks but partial credit will be given for questions in section B. Answers to the
questions should appear in the space provided and nowhere else.

Section A
(Choose the correct answer using  mark.)

1. The unit vector normal to the surface xyz  4 at the point (1,2,3) is
1 ˆ 1 1 1
(A) (3i  6 ˆj  2kˆ) (B) (6iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ) (C) (6iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ ) (D) (3iˆ  6 ˆj  2kˆ )
7 7 7 7

2. In the complex plane, let C be the circle | z | 2 with positive (counterclockwise) orientation. Then
dz
 ( z  1)( z  3)
C
2


i i
(A) 0 (B) 2i (C) (D)
4 8

3. Let A and B be two independent events such that P(A) <P(B). Which one of the following is
true?

(A) P(Ac)< P(Bc) (B) P(A/B)> P(B) (C) 1-P(AB)< P(B) (D) P(AB)<P(B)2

4. The electric field due to a dipole P at a point, which is z distance from the midpoint of the dipole, and on the
axis through the particles is

(A) E=(1/20)(p/z3) (B) E=(1/40)(p/z2) (C) E=(1/20)(p/z2) (D) E=(1/40)(p/z3)

5. The Gondwana group of rocks were deposited during

(A) Upper Carboniferous-Jurassic (B) Upper Carboniferous-Cretaceous

(C) Permian-Jurassic (D) Permian-Eocene

6. The superposition theorem is applicable only for

 (A) Linear bilateral network (B) Nonlinear bilateral network (C) Only nonlinear network (D) None

Section B
(Candidates can choose a maximum of 3 (three) subsections only)

Subsection 1: Mathematics

1. Given u  Cy , v  Cx, w  0, show that the motion is possible. Find the equations of streamlines. Find the
equations of the surfaces, which are orthogonal to the streamlines. Does the velocity potential exist? The fluid is
incompressible.

Subsection 2: Statistics

E( X )
2. For a nonnegative random variable X, prove that P(X>a)< .
a

Subsection 3: Physics

3. In order to increase the efficiency of a Carnot engine most effectively, would you increase source temperature
(T1) keeping sink temperature (T2) constant. Or would you decrease T2 keeping T1 constant. Explain analytically.

Subsection 4: Earth Sciences

4. Give a brief account on the tectonic framework of North East India. Also discuss about its major tectonic
lineaments.

Subsection 5: Engineering

5. Find the conversion time of a successive approximation A/D conversion which uses a 2 MHz clock and a 5 bit
binary ladder containing 8V reference. What is the conversion rate?
 MA IN SOCIOLOGY
Model Question for Entrance Test
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
The written test consist of the following:
1. 30 Objective type questions on general knowledge
2. Two short essay type question on issues of socio-economic relevance carrying 10 mark each.
3. Two-essay type question on sociological themes carrying 25 marks each.

1. Deabbreviate the following:

VAT, AIDS, BTAD

2. Match the following:

i. The Incas i. Venezuela
ii. Hugo Chavez ii. Peru

3. Answer the following:

i. What is the Capital City of Mongolia?
ii. What is the boundary line between India and Pakistan called?

4. Write shot notes (within 150 words) :

i. Dowry system ii. Sustainable Development

5. Write essay on the following ( within 500 words):

i. Caste System in India
ii. Criminalization of Indian Politics
 P.G. DIPLOMA IN TOURISM MANAGEMENT
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
The Written Test consists of the following :
1. Test of GK : 40 marks
2. Test of reasoning : 30 marks
3. Test of English : 30 marks
Total marks : 100 No negative marks for wrong answers Time : 2 hours

General Knowledge :
1. Which is the largest sugercane producing state in India ?
(a) Bihar (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Assam
2. Which particular city is known as the “Garden City” of India ?
(a) Mysore (b) Bangalore (c) Agra (d) Varanasi
3. Mother Teresa arrived in India from Europe in the year
(a) 1910 (b) 1921 (c) 1929 (d) 1939
4. What is the name of the currency of Russia ?
(a) Mark (b) Yen (c) Ruble (d) Peso
English : Which of the Phases marked (1), (2) and (3) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the
following sentences.
1. She cooks, washes dishes, does her homework and take relaxing.
i) relaxing then
ii) then relaxes
iii) then relaxing
iv) take relaxes
v) no correction required
2. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given below
Charles Darwin was .................... (6) ................. to his studies to a point of madness. However, his findings ............
(7) ................. fruits when he got sucess in propagating the evoltionary principles. According to this theory, there is
always ....................... (8) ..................... for existence or the .................. (9) .......................... of the fittest. this theory
taught man to ................ (10) ....................... Himself to his prevailing environment.
Q. 6. (a) Addicted (b) Devoted (c) Given (d) Recommended
Q. 7. (a) Bore (b) Gave (c) Carried (d) Indicated
Q. 8. (a) Efforts (b) Striving (c) Struggle (d) Fight
Q. 9. (a) Life (b) Survival (c) Dominance (d) Destruction
Q. 10. (a) Adapt (b) Adopt (c) Adept (d) Adhere
Reasoning :
1. the age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Five years after, his age will be double the sum
of the ages of his sons. The father’s present age is
(a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years (d) 55 years
2. A town ‘P’ is located in a particular district. The town ‘A’ is West of P. Town ‘T’ is East of ‘P’. Town ‘K’ is East of
‘B’ but West of ‘T’ and ‘A’. They are all in the same district. Which town is the farther West ?
(a) P (b) K (c) B (d) A
Non-Verbal Reasoning :
1.
1234
2.
I II III IV V
In above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their positions in a regular direction. Folloing the
same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answers :
General Knowledge : 1(b), 2(c), 3(a), 4(c), 5(c)
English : 1(2), 6(b), 7 (a), 8(c), 9(b), 10(a)
Reasoning : 1(b), 2(c)
Non-Verbal Reasoning : 1(1), 2(c)
 M.Sc. in Food Processing Technology
Model Question for Entrance Examination

Full Marks: 100 Time :2hours

The test paper shall have both objectives as well as of short descriptive type questions covering Section A: 10+2
level science subjects viz. , Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology and Section B: Basic Food Chemistry/
Biochemistry/ Food and Nutrition, Basic Food Processing (e.g. fruits & vegetables, cereals, legumes, milk, fish,
meat, and poultry) and basic Food Microbiology.

(No negative marking for wrong answer)

Section: A
Part a: Mathematics (Marks 10.0)

1. Choose the correct alternatives:

(a) The term independent of x in the expansion of (x²+1/x)¹² is:
(i) 120 (ii) 285 (iii) 495 (iv) 595
(b) The sum of the terms of the sequence 1², 2², 3²,…….., 100² is
(i) 171700 (ii) 338350 (iii) 676700 (iv) none of these

Part b: Chemistry (Marks 10.0)

1. Short note on catenation.

2. What is the formal charge of carbon in CH4
(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 0 (iv) 4

Part c: Biology (Marks 10.0)

1. What are the basic differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

2. What is the basic difference between a plant cell and an animal cell?
3. Describe the various organelles in an animal cell.

Section B
Part a: Basic Food Chemistry/Biochemistry/Food & Nutrition (Marks 30.0)
1. Define the following:
(a) Freezing point of liquid.
(b) Water activity
(c) Nutrition
(d) Weaning food
(e) Glycolysis
(f) Gluconeogenesis

2. State whether the following statements are true or false:

(i) Sucrose is the sweetest of all sugars.
(ii) Sprouting increases the vitamin content in legumes.

3. Select the right answer from the multiple choices given:

(a) The complete oxidation of glucose yields ATPs equal to
(i) 64 (ii) 36 (ii) 121 (iv) 2
 (b) The normal blood glucose level/ 100ml in human body at fasting state is
(i) 70-90 mg
(ii) 120-140 mg
(iii) 50-60 mg
(iv) 140-160 mg

(c) The sole source of energy in human body except in starvation is

(i) Amino acid
(ii) Fatty acid
(iii) Glucose
(iv) Ketone bodies

4. “ Socioeconomic factors have a direct bearing on the nutritional status of the people”- Explain the
statement.

Part b: Basic Food Processing (e.g. fruit & vegetables, cereals, legumes, milk, fish, meat and poultry) (Marks
30.0)

1. Why is pasteurization important in milk industry?

2. What is tenderization of meat?
3. Write short note on:
(a) Fermented food
(b) Parboiled rice
(c) Food quality control
4. Write the processing methods for the following:
(a) Food dehydration
(b) Wine
(c) Butter
(d) Fruit juice concentrate

Part c: Basic Food Microbiology (Marks 20.0)

1. What is the relevance of microbiology in food processing and preservation?

2. Write the importance of yeast in foods.
3. Write short note on:
(a) Food poisoning
(b) Factors conducive for microbial growth
4. Presence of E. coli in drinking water suggests sewage concentration. (Yes/No)
5. In Clostridium perfringenes food poisoning the organism produces toxin in the _____.
(Fill the blank)