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QUESTION NO: 1
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What
are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The
module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?
A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.
B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.
C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.
D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the
integrity of the system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches
are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data
center core? (Choose three.)
A. virtualization
B. unified I/O
C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card
D. support for Data Center Service Modules
E. high performance
F. high availability
Answer: B,E,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoE
NPV mode.
B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch.
C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function
as a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder.
D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such
as IVR.
E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder
and Fibre Channel Bridge functions.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is
true?
A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.
B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.
C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and
destination ID load balancing are used.
D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches.
E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain
inactive.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 9
If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a
module that does not match the resource type is installed?
A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state.
B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.
C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.
D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for
the system MAC address?
A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco.
B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to
ensure uniqueness.
C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system
backplane.
D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed
in the switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure
full remote access via management 0?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choose
two.)
A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status,
from one device to another.
B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs.
C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes.
D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled.
E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which
A. Changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216
B. Using the command system jumbomtu 9216
C. Using the command interface MTU 9216
D. Configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS
policy map
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication mode
responds to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server falls back to local authentication.
B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+.
C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials.
D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings requires an authentication license.
E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary
areas of this operation?
Answer: C
Explanation:
What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
Fabric Extender?
A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo.
B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS.
C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required.
D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of
these? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems?
(Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 20
Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features,
including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets that
are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature enables local forwarding
of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link.
Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center
environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to
standard enterprise-management tools.
Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only
interfaces? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus
devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device.
Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)
Answer: A,B,C,D,F,H
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of
operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot be
applied as a rule? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-
capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTV
configuration is applied.
Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)
A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the
frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and
sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site,
the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and
sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is
resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP state
changes? (Choose two.)
A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message
hold time.
B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message
hold time.
C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking
over as the HSRP active router.
D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking
over as the HSRP active router.
E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.
F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated
traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network.
Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)
A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined
as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c
use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a
combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are
provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.)
A. encryption—scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized
sources
B. password—a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for
added protection
C. authentication—determines that the message is from a valid source
D. message integrity—ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit
E. user—to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What are
the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 30
Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of
message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XML-
based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when
sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX-
OS Software? (Choose three.)
A. short-text-destination
B. prerecorded audio alerts
C. CiscoTAC-1
D. dial911
E. full-text-destination
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.
B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.
C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated
promiscuous ports.
D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for
the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each
multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)
A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.
B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.
C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.
D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA
servers are down.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a
checkpoint
B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL
capture enablement
C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP
configuration
D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write
erase
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirements
B. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modes
C. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active mode
D. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address non-standard
replies to the physical MAC address
QUESTION NO: 38
On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and
what is the main purpose of virtual output queues?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component?
A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the
CPU
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18
from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1
You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the
command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the interface.
A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.
B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to
Ethernet1/18.
C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18.
D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface
connecting to Ethernet1/18.
E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on Cisco
Nexus switches?
A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors.
B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration.
C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the
configuration against the hardware and software resources available before applying it.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform which
tasks?
A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can
transmit multicast and broadcast.
B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network.
C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given
VLAN within a site.
D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true?
(Choose three.)
A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp-
snooping command.
B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the
DHCP snooping binding database.
C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping binding
database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP snooping is enabled
globally and for each specific VLAN.
D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch.
E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or the
configuration of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing,
and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on managed
devices.
B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to
managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has the
network operator role.
C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LAN
server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices.
D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use
default credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device.
E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are
supported.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Nexus# conf t
% Permission denied
Nexus(config)# ?
What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN?
(Choose three.)
A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supported
with any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device.
B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by the
DCNM server, and the administrator can supply the device management IP address and
credentials.
C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device.
D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configuration
change management.
E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose
three.)
A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP
routers will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required.
B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP
routers will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled.
C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts
while providing the default router redundancy.
D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration.
E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters
are collected and reported individually per VDC.
B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is
possible.
C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled.
D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.
E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is only
compatible with other Cisco routers.
B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a process
restart. When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes a grace period
that tells NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface.
C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it
experiences a cold reboot.
D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, or
if the network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down adjacency with
the restarting OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart.
E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close-
session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config.
B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close-
session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session.
C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions.
D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software.
E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for
communication with the device.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol
bridges?
A. C84C.75FA.6000
B. 0100.5E11.02FD
C. C84C.76FA.6000
D. 4000.0000.0001
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange
MAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the feature isis
command before OTV adjacencies can be established.
B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with
other OTV edge peers.
C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join
the overlay network.
D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches?
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Number of router-ports: 0
Number of groups: 0
Active ports:
Po100 Po111
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on
the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback
interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
A. 128
B. 32
C. 64
D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2,
which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature pim
!
interface loopback1
ip address 10.0.0.1/32
ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip address 2.2.2.2/32
ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0
ip pim sparse-mode
!
ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1
ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2
ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
B. feature pim
!
interface loopback1
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the
overlay?
A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control-group
multicast address for transport
B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlay
C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group
multicast address for transport
D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data
center? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command?
switch(config)#
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine,
and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated?
A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information
tree is updated.
B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.
C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated.
D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco
FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.)
A. Root priority
B. System ID
C. Bridge ID
D. Switch ID
E. Port ID
F. Subswitch ID
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 65
By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.)
A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.
B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on
which traffic is to be forwarded.
C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.
D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.
E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent
unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP
messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3?
(Choose two.)
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity
between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the
fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection.
Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose
two.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which two statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true?
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled?
A. Cisco AV-pair
B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute
C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute
D. privilege level attribute
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true
about LACP port priority? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Nexus7000# config t
Nexus700(config-if)# exit
Nexus700(config)#
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer
allocated to each QoS group?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total
processes, and CPU state?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?
A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the
control-plane traffic.
C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco
switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a
single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system?
(Choose four)
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000
platforms? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. fabric binding
C. IVR
D. port tracking
E. FICON
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10).
The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.
Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the
host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is
true?
A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus
5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX.
B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links
or channels.
C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF.
D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only
active/active is supported.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Flow ID. 44
-------------------------
Feature Status:
---------------
Write-Acceleration enabled
A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist
B. The zone set has not been activated
C. The target is not logged into the fabric
D. The pWWN used for the target is invalid
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a
lossless class of Ethernet traffic?
A. LLDP
B. LACP
C. PFC
D. FIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000
Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can
exist in the team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 89
A. Cannot be disabled
B. Cannot have the CoS changed
C. Can have "Packet Drop" enabled
D. Is multicast optimized
E. Can have the MTU changed
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a Fibre Channel fabric, each host or disk requires an FCID. Use the show flogi database
command to verify if a storage device is displayed in the Fabric login (FLOGI) table as in the
examples below. If the required device is displayed in the FLOGI table, the fabric login is
successful. Examine the FLOGI database on a switch that is directly connected to the host HBA
and connected ports.
Examples
The following example displays details on the FLOGI database.
switch# show flogi database
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
INTERFACE VSAN FCID PORT NAME NODE NAME
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
sup-fc0 2 0xb30100 10:00:00:05:30:00:49:63 20:00:00:05:30:00:49:5e
fc9/13 1 0xb200e2 21:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c 20:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c
fc9/13 1 0xb200e1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61
fc9/13 1 0xb200d1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64
fc9/13 1 0xb200ce 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb
fc9/13 1 0xb200cd 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7
ReferencE. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/san-
os/command/reference/CR02_sh.html#wp1248139
QUESTION NO: 92
Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?
A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.
B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.
C. The system is running with the default QOS policies.
D. The link is oversubscribed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose
two.)
A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 95
Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?
A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.
B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet
segments.
C. It is not used to build the FCoE links.
D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.
QUESTION NO: 96
Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame?
A. Ethernet FCS
B. Source address
C. Destination address
D. EtherType
E. Protocol type
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
A. Up to 25 m bus length
B. Only one device per SCSI bus
C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus
D. Half-duplex operation
E. Full-duplex operation
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE
frame from the directly connected FCoE host?
A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.
B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the
fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port.
C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch.
Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue?
npiv is enabled
External Interfaces:
===============
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose
three.)
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels
required?
A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.
B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command
Answer: E
Explanation:
How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)
A. accounting
B. authentication
C. authorization
D. network monitoring
E. network planning
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Answer: E
Explanation:
vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose
two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an
intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the Cisco
NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V
supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine
security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature.
DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default.
When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust
settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports?
A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are
trusted.
B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are
not trusted.
C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not
trusted.
D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are
trusted.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these?
A. Upstream switch
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. VMware distributed switch
D. VMware vSwitch
E. Service virtual machine
Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that
traffic will be sent out upon?
State enabled
Vmware port-group
No shut
State enabled
Vmware port-group
No shut
Answer: C
Explanation:
What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)
Answer: B,C,E,F
Explanation:
A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs
and is intended for use with an N1Kv.
Channel-group 10 mode on
No shut
Channel-group 10 mode on
No shut
No shut
Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile?
A. MAC pinning
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinning
C. Mode On
D. Mode Active
E. No port channel configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted
hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.)
A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response
messages from DHCP servers
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports
C. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about
untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses
D. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted
hosts
E. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table
entry or static IP source entry
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine named
Vethernet5 is up
Active on module 5
Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10
Vethernet6 is up
Active on module 5
Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type of
configuration (Choose three.)
vmware port-group
no shut
state enabled
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
vmware port-group
no shutdown
state enabled
vmware port-group
no shutdown
state enabled
VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve this
issue?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does
not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter.
connection VC:
ip address: 10.10.10.30
remote port: 80
certificatE. default
sync status: -
version: -
VSM-PRI-188# conf
VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect
ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use
Answer: D
Explanation:
An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given below
configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.)
L3 control interfacE. NA
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640
CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at?
A. 800 MHz
B. 900 MHz
C. 1066 MHz
D. 1333 MHz
E. 1666 MHz
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)
A. B200
B. C210
C. B250
D. C260
E. C460
A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation.
B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices.
C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package.
D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches.
E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 12
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port.
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS
WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two
statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon
disassociation? (Choose two.)
A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased.
B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed.
C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade
system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades), what type of
backup would provide the most complete set of information?
A. logical configuration
B. all configuration
C. full state
D. system configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified?
(Choose four.)
A. name
B. best-effort
C. burst
D. rate
E. host control
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation:
Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA.
B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS environment
send and receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send buffer for a port fills.
C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used.
D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort, Fibre
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment are
true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host mode
used for?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. Server
B. End device
C. Node
D. Host
E. Virtual
Answer: A
Explanation:
san-port-channel 12 is up
Port mode is NP
Port vsan is 1
Speed is 8 Gbps
Member[1] : fc2/3
Member[2] : fc2/4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?
A. Trunk
B. Physical
C. Uplink
D. Switch
E. End host
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: E
Explanation:
In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to?
Answer: A
When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles
B. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created
C. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster
information
D. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details
B. A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial
configuration
C. A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details
D. An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial
configuration
E. A text file with the NX-OS running configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature enabled.
Which statement is true?
Answer: A
Explanation:
An administrator is creating a service profile but receives an error when applying to a blade. The
administrator checks the faults tab of the service profile and finds the following error (Refer to the
exhibit).
Answer: B
Explanation:
What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three statements are possible causes for the "fltAdaptorHostIfLink-down" fault in UCS
Manager? (Choose three.)
A. The fabric interconnect is in the end-host mode, and all uplink ports have failed.
B. The server port to which the adapter is pinned has failed.
C. A transient error has caused the link to fail.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are
true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
If uplink 1 fails, to which addresses will Fabric Interconnect B transmit a GARP on Uplink 2?
A. AA and BB only
B. C1 and C2 only
C. A1, B1, AA, and BB
D. AA, BB, C1, and C2
E. No GARPs will be transmitted
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Cisco UCS fabric interconnect in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port types?
(Choose four.)
Answer: B,C,E,F
Explanation:
All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host mode.
Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4.
A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports to
Fabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B.
B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects from
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame with source MAC
address 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19.
A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to show
that 0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and no longer dynamically learned on
Eth5/1/6.
B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has moved
ports, and the upstream network needs to be notified of the new location.
C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager?
(Choose three.)
A. Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXes
B. Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXes
C. Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnects
D. Two RJ45 Ethernet cables
E. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the configuration
in the provided exhibit.
Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnects
B. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric Extender
C. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric Extenders
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
E. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280
F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices that no
traffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C).
A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the port
channel IDs do not match.
B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always
be the root bridge.
C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root
bridge.
D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are a
higher priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D).
E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected.
Answer: C
Explanation:
On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this Cisco UCS domain?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric Interconnect
A Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anything outside of the Cisco UCS domain.
However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric failover, then vNIC 1 can use
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Your company would like to deploy this topology design. Which statement applies?
Answer: C
Explanation:
What interface is created when an FC Port Channel is created on a Cisco Unified Computing
System?
Answer: A
Explanation:
You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the MAC pool
named "vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be assigned to the vNICs? (Choose
two.)
A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01
B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01
C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01
D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01
E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for its
network connectivity?
Answer: C
Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing device
should send a client request for service.
Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
(Choose three.)
A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or
destination IP address, or both
B. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URL
C. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination
MAC address, or both
D. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header name
E. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring
health probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). A probe can be one of many
types. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. Java scripting
C. TCL scripting
D. RADIUS
E. TACACS
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being
used as the DNS?
A. Client IP
B. Proxy IP
C. Client and proxy IP
D. Neither client nor proxy IP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.)
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver.
B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP.
C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server.
D. It shows details on HTTP session entries.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
How many concurrent GUI logins are possible per user account on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. 128
B. 96
C. 64
D. 32
Answer: D
Explanation:
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. IPsec
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface
1/4?
A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.
D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. The management firmware package that is referenced by the service profile has been deleted.
B. The Cisco UCS Manager version is 2.1 or later.
C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller firmware should be managed via the host firmware
policy.
D. You cannot modify the management firmware directly when a policy has been assigned.
E. The user that is logged into Cisco UCS Manager does not have sufficient privileges.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Which three concepts influenced the evolution of data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Consolidation
B. Expansion
C. Automation
D. Virtualization
E. Commoditization
F. Economics
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
A. Simplicity of configuration
B. Automatic OSPF routing
C. Scalability
D. Dynamic link selection
E. Spanning tree loop prioritization.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A. vPC+
B. standard vPC
C. enhanced vPC
D. express vPC
E. fabric vPC
Answer: C
Explanation:
The interface remains in a down state after entering the command that is shown in the exhibit.
What is the cause of the problem?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. FCID
B. Domain ID
C. WWPN
D. LUN ID
E. VSAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
What are the three prerequisites for enabling FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 7000? (Choose three.)
A. M Series module
B. F Series module
C. no-drop QoS policy
D. NPIV feature
E. FCoE module license
F. Fabric Extender configured
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
How many virtual interfaces do the Cisco UCS 1280, 1240, and 1225 Virtual Interface Cards
support?
A. 128
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 100
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you connect two Cisco devices through 802.1Q trunks, the devices exchange spanning tree
BPDUs on each VLAN that is allowed on the trunks. Which two statements are correct about the
BPDUs that are sent on the native VLAN of the trunk? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-
00-00-00).
B. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1q spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-
00-00-00).
C. BPDUs are sent to the reserved SSTP multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd).
D. BPDUs are tagged with the VLAN number when they are sent.
E. BPDUs are untagged when they are sent.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a
compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer to
verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which two statements about virtual
port channel graceful consistency checks are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a
compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer to
verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which option is considered as a
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
A. sparse mode
B. dense mode
C. sparse-dense mode
D. dense-sparse mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which configuration command (or commands) will produce the output that is shown in the exhibit?
A. no feature igmp
B. no feature igmp snooping
C. vlan 201
no ip igmp snooping
D. vlan configuration 201
no ip igmp snooping
E. interface vlan 201
no ip igmp snooping
Answer: D
Explanation:
The following message output was displayed while configuring PIM on Nexus 7000. Which
command should be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to allow the desired
configuration?
A. feature multicast
B. feature pim
C. ip multicast-routing
D. ip pim routing
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is
shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?
A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch.
C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC.
D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Answer: C
Explanation:
How many ACL capture sessions can be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
Answer: B
Explanation:
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured?
A. Access ports
B. SPAN destination port
C. trunk ports
D. public VLAN-enabled ports
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which statement is true about DHCP snooping on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two statements about VDC configuration and limitations are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
You configured a port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch as a trunk port. Which VLANs are allowed on
the trunk port based on the port configuration in the exhibit?
A. No VLANs are allowed by default. Use the switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-4094 command to
allow all VLANs.
B. Only Native VLAN 1 will be allowed.
C. VLANs 1 to 3967, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.
D. VLANs 1 to 3900, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.
E. VLANs 1 to 4094 are allowed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which three prerequisites must be met before configuring FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000
switch? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Which two types of multicast trees are supported by Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.)
A. private trees
B. shared trees
C. unicast trees
D. anycast trees
E. unidirectional trees
F. bidirectional trees
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
A. ip access-list LO_FILTER
statistics per-entry
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 permit ip any any
B. ip access-list LO_FILTER
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 permit ip any any
C. ip access-list LO_FILTER
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 deny ip any any
D. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip access-group LO-FILTER in
E. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-list LO-FILTER in
F. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-group LO-FILTER out
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Which two statements about Fibre Channel Class 2 are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Which two options describe the results of a switch sending an RCF SW_ILS frame to neighbor
switches? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the management server of a requesting switch to the
Management Server of a responding switch.
B. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the name server of a requesting switch to the Name
Server of a responding switch.
C. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the domain controller of a requesting switch to the
Domain Controller of a responding switch.
D. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the alias server of a requesting switch to the Alias
Server of a responding switch.
E. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the time server of a requesting switch to the Time
Server of a responding switch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which three parameters are carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.)
A. control messages
B. SCSI commands
C. parameters that specify redundant paths
D. iSCSI PDUs
E. primitive signals
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is
identical to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the
Cisco MDS switch.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link
down because of an error?
A. 500
B. 166
C. 250
D. 125
E. 1000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two options describe possible causes of the failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Two switches have the same zone set name, but different zone names and different zone
members.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Given an E3 WAN link, which mode of compression would be the most appropriate choice?
A. Mode high
B. Mode medium
C. Mode low
D. Mode 1
E. Mode 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats iscsi x/y
detail command? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
When a CNA host connects to the virtual interface of the switch, what will happen?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime DCNM
provides? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
What action must be taken to make fc1/1 capable of being an ISL port channel member operating
at 4 GB?
A. One of the interfaces between fc1/2 and fc1/6 must be placed in out-of-service mode to free up
bandwidth in the port group so that fc1/1 can use that bandwidth.
B. Interface fc1/1 must be placed into dedicated rate mode.
C. The B2B credit value of interface fc1/1 must be raised to a minimum of 100.
D. No action is necessary because shared rate mode ports are fine for ISLs.
E. No action is possible because module 1 is oversubscribed and will only support ISLs if the ports
operate at 2GBs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two statements about the FCIP Write Acceleration feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of WAN latency for write operations.
B. The Write Acceleration feature does not have to be enabled on both sides of the FCIP link.
C. The FCIP Write Acceleration feature can only be used with multilink port channels if they are
constructed with port channel protocol.
D. The Write Acceleration feature cannot be used across FSPF equal cost paths in FCIP
deployments.
E. The Write Acceleration feature works by immediately returning the SCSI status on the initiator
side of the FCIP link.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions,
and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
B. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions,
and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, advanced networking
functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching but does not provide
advanced networking functions or a common network management model in a virtualized server
environment.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group
configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these interfaces
and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group (for example,
VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group and the same VLAN.
B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you can
use the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM management VLAN
is really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, network
administrators can designate a special VLAN for network device management.
C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined as
the primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts.
D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Which two methods can be used in communications between the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM and
the VSM? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a host
to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join the VSM. Given the
configuration in the exhibit, which three configuration items must be included in the configuration?
(Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Where can port profiles be created for the Cisco Nexus 1000V?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two
components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A port profile is created in the VSM, but it is not seen in vCenter and cannot be assigned to a
virtual machine. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VSM command will resolve this
issue?
A. vmware port-group
B. vmware port-active
C. profile-active
D. port-group active
E. shutdown / no shutdown
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. The port is connected when the VM is powered on and disconnected when the VM is powered
off.
B. The port is created when the VM is powered on and destroyed when the VM is powered off.
C. The max-port limits are enforced.
D. The max-port limits are not enforced.
E. The port is always connected.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The network administrator is adding a new Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to vCenter, but does not
see the new switch under the vCenter networking tab. The administrator issues the command that
is shown in the exhibit on VSM to troubleshoot this problem. When the administrator attempts to
fix the issue, the error that is shown in the exhibit is seen. Which option describes the most correct
cause of this error?
Which option is valid for connecting the fabric interconnect to the I/O module?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration
with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
Assume that the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects are equipped with 16 port
expansion modules. What is the impact of the last command in the exhibit?
Answer: C
Explanation:
You have configured a Cisco UCS C460 M2 Rack-Mount Server with two VIC 1225 adapters for
single-wire management with Cisco UCS Manager. Which statement correctly describes the
operation of these adapters?
A. One VIC is designated to carry management, and the other VIC is designated to carry data
traffic.
B. Both VICs will be used for management and data traffic.
C. One VIC will carry management, and both VICs will carry data traffic.
D. The Cisco UCS C460 M2 does not support two VIC 1225 adapters simultaneously.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which option describes the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. hard-pinning mode
B. soft-pinning mode
C. port channel mode
D. physical-pinning mode
E. vlan pinning mode
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Which four port types are included in the VLAN port count? (Choose four.)
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
What is the default MTU for Fibre Channel on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. 2112
B. 2240
C. 2000
D. 9216
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two items have an impact on the maximum number of virtual interfaces that can be created
on a virtual interface card? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Which feature must be enabled on the upstream Fibre Channel switch if the fabric interconnect is
configured in end-host mode?
A. NPV
B. NPIV
C. Zoning
D. Smart Zoning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two statements about the output and diagram are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
You are about to assign a static UUID to a service profile. This particular UUID is also defined
within the range of a UUID pool. The duplicate UUID in the pool has not yet been allocated.
What will be the result of applying the static UUID?
A. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID exists within a defined
resource pool.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: D
Explanation:
How many traffic monitoring sessions can you create on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fault suppression allows you to suppress SNMP trap and Call Home notifications during a
planned maintenance period. Which three commands are necessary to activate these suppression
polices in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Assume that there is no disjoint Layer 2 configuration. Based on the output, what will happen if
uplink eth1/7 on FI-A fails?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A load balancer performs an operation on a predefined parameter, such as the IP address, HTTP
cookie, or URL, when a new connection is made so that another connection with the same
parameter will always reach the same server. Which load-balancing predictor does this statement
describe?
A. round robin
B. least-connections
C. hashing
D. least-loaded
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. server NAT
B. dual NAT
C. port redirection
D. transparent mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client
request?
A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. HTTP
B. Telnet
C. Java scripting
D. TCL scripting
E. XML scripting
F. SSH
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
A. SSL termination
B. SSL initiation
C. end-to-end SSL
D. SSL testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. ICMP
B. SCP
C. IPv4
D. SCTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the basic DNS resolution process, which component receives the query and sends it to the
location that knows the IP address for the destination?
A. DNS resolver
B. D-proxy
C. root server
D. intermediate server
E. authoritative server
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
OTV is a MAC-in-IP method that extends Layer 2 connectivity across a transport network
infrastructure. Which three options are high-availability features? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
What is the purpose of this command on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. The command enables conversational learning on FabricPath VLANs 1 through 10 for the F
Series module.
B. The command enables the FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1 through 10.
C. There is no need for this command because conversational learning is enabled by default for all
VLANs.
D. The command enables conversational learning on a classic Ethernet VLAN for the F Series
module.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which three statements describe the use of the vPC peer link in this topology? (Choose three.)
A. The peer link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between SW1 and SW2.
B. The peer link is used for control plane traffic only.
C. The peer link provides necessary transport for multicast traffic.
D. The peer link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
E. The peer link does not prevents the loops in the topology.
F. The peer link always consists of two 10GB ports in a port-channel.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
What is the default vPC peer-keepalive timeout on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch?
A. 5 seconds
B. 256 milliseconds
C. 500 milliseconds
D. 1 second
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, ACL capture sessions are supported on which two modules?
(Choose two.)
A. M1 modules
B. M2 modules
C. F1 modules
D. F2 modules
E. M3 modules
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Which three configurations for ACL capture are valid? (Choose three.)
A. on a VLAN interface
B. in the ingress direction on all interfaces
C. in the ingress direction only on the M2 module
D. in the egress direction on all interfaces
E. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces
F. in the ingress direction only on M1 module
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
A new Nexus device, Router-B, was recently added to the network. The engineer wants to make
Router-B the designated IGMP querier for this network. Which two configurations should be
applied to the devices on the network to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The customer is trying to configure a rendezvous point, but for some reason it is failing. Which
configuration should be applied on both Nexus devices to configure the rendezvous point?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. The Fabric Extender provides two user queues for its QoS support, one for all no-drop classes
and one for all drop classes.
B. The class-all-flood and class-ip-multicast class maps are used on the Fabric Extender.
C. The Fabric Extender inherits the CoS configured on the upstream switch.
D. For a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ 10GE Fabric Extender, all fabric interfaces can be bundled into a
single fabric port channel.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. You
suspect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with a host HBA. The customer has
both a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to collect a trace and look
at the R_RDY flows between the MDS and the host. Which of the following actions is the best way
to start troubleshooting this problem?
A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing R_RDYs.
B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the detail is
needed to examine the R_RDY flow.
C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the R_RDY flow
between the host and MDS.
D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2 cannot
decode R_RDYs.
E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre Channel
Analyzer inline.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Basic zoning changes are accomplished through the use of four SW_ILS frames. Which option
identifies these frames in the correct order?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which SCSI action returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may be
issued?
A. Read Capacity
B. Test Unit Read
C. Report LUNs
D. Read
E. Inquiry
Answer: C
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which two statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/i
psvc/nxos/ipsvc/cfcip.html#pgfId-2465141
Given the displays from MDS-1 and MDS-2, which two options describe what will happen when
they attempt a zone merge for VSAN 120? (Choose two.)
A. The zone merge will complete with no warnings and each switch will contain three zones.
B. The zone merge will fail because the zone set members are not identical.
C. The zone merge will prompt the administrator to add zones ucs-1 and ucs-2 to the switches
where they are missing.
D. Zone merges are not permitted when running enhanced mode zoning.
E. The zone merge will fail because the active zone set names are not identical.
F. The zone merge will complete, but the administrator will be prompted to choose which zone set
to make active.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
A. QOS.
B. Snooping.
C. VSAN creation.
D. VLAN pruning.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose three.)
A. The differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not run
Spanning Tree Protocol. This characteristic may seem to be a significant departure from other
Ethernet switches, which might potentially cause catastrophic network loops. However, in reality,
the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implements a simple and effective loop-prevention strategy that
does not require Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol, it does
not respond to BPDU packets, nor does it generate them. BPDU packets that are received by
Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a physical
Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and destination MAC
address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Which two options correctly display IOM-to-Fabric Interconnect connectivity? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A. hard-pinning mode
B. soft-pinning mode
C. port channel mode
D. physical-pinning mode
E. vlan pinning mode
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two statements about disjoint Layer 2 networks are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?
A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link
B. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links
C. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network
edge
D. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
Your organization is purchasing Cisco devices as well as non-Cisco devices for switching.
Which three statements are correct about connecting Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud?
(Choose three.)
A. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs other
than the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do not recognize these frames as BPDUs
and flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN.
B. Cisco devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs. This
BPDU reception allows Cisco switches to maintain a per-VLAN spanning tree topology across a
cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices.
C. The non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single broadcast
segment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud through 802.1Q trunks.
D. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs using the industry standard IEEE 802.1D spanning
tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00), the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud will seamlessly
participate in spanning tree protocol.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose two.)
A. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet
devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPath
cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to the destination
switch ID.
B. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch
exclusively based on the destination switch ID.
C. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet
devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPath
cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a source address to the destination
switch ID.
D. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch
exclusively based on the source switch ID.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables
are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2).
The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches. On SW1 and SW2, ports
connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 are
also connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statement
describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?
A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.
B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.
C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link
connectivity is lost.
D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. on a VLAN interface
B. in the ingress direction on all interfaces
C. in the ingress direction only on the M2 module
D. in the egress direction on all interfaces
E. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces
F. in the ingress direction only on M1 module.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
A. The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
B. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
C. The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
D. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A. VLANs, because when a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces in the
VLAN are SPAN sources
B. fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
C. Layer 2 subinterfaces
D. satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
E. Layer 3 subinterfaces
F. Remote Span Ethernet Ports
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Which four statements about SNMP implementation on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch are
true? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context.
B. By default, Cisco NX-OS uses the default VDC for SNMP.
C. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities.
D. SNMP is VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP
notification host receiver.
E. Only SNMP version 3 is supported on NX-OS.
F. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per switch.
G. Each VDC can have multiple SNMP sessions configured in it.
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Which statement about the interface that is connected to the NPV core switch is true?
A. The switch that connects to the hosts is identified in the design as an NPV edge switch, and the
port that connects to the core is an NP port.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When an NP port becomes operational, the NP switch first logs itself into the core switch by
sending a FLOGI request (using the port WWN of the NP port). What will occur next?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The FCoE VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the corresponding VSAN. Which two
statements about this mapping are true? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Which option describes the capability that the FCoE setting allows?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two actions must occur to disable the LAN traffic on an FCoE link to a host? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other
switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a switch that supports enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command does it use
to determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the other switches in the fabric?
A. MR
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which three statements about the exhibit output related to Cisco Fabric Services are true?
(Choose three.)
A. The lock can only be released only by the operations manager user on the 10.1.1.11 switch.
B. The admin user on the 10.1.1.11 switch must clear the lock.
C. The tacacs+ commit command is the only command that can be used to clear the lock.
D. Any network-admin user can release the lock with the command clear tacacs+ session.
E. The operations manager user has started, but not committed, a configuration change for the
feature tacacs+ command.
F. If committed, the changes are automatically saved to the startup configuration on all switches.
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
Given the displays from N5K-1 and N5K-2, what is the expected result if the zone mode enhanced
vsan 1 command is issued on N5K-1?
A. The mode change will complete with a warning that the zone database from N5K-1 will be
distributed thoughout the fabric.
B. The mode change will not complete due to the mismatch in the default zone mode.
C. The mode change prompts the administrator to override the default zone mismatch and make
them the same.
D. The mode change completes, and the default zone setting remains unchanged in N5K-1 and
N5K-2.
E. The default zone setting is set to deny in both switches because it is more secure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In DCBX feature negotiation, the switch and CNA exchange capability information and
configuration values. Which three capabilities are supported in Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
Switches? (Choose three.)
A. PFC
B. support for logical link up or down
C. FCoE
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three management tools are available with DCNM-SAN Manager, Device Manager, and
Performance Manager? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated receiver for broadcast traffic
B. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated sender for broadcast traffic
C. the switching mode for which the Fabric Interconnect is configured
D. the uplink interface from which multicast traffic will be sourced
E. whether the last respond code was accepted or not
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A. Having a single iSCSI boot target would prevent the profile from associating, and would
generate a configuration error.
B. The server must complete a POST cycle before Cisco UCS Manager will update this
information.
C. The blade needs to be reacknowledged.
D. The server is in the process of a firmware upgrade.
E. There may be a configuration error in the service profile.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
You are configuring a UCS C-Series server for SAN boot over FCoE. The server fails to boot after
the HBA option ROM loads. Which option describes the most likely solution for this problem?
You are connecting a Cisco Nexus 2000 to an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect domain for
C-Series integration. Which option describes the next Cisco Nexus 2000 that will be discovered?
A. FEX0101
B. FEX0003
C. FEX0102
D. FEX1000
E. FEX1001
Answer: B
Explanation:
What is the most likely reason for the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?
A. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC have been deleted from Cisco UCS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. There are not enough local hard drives to satisfy the local disk configuration policy.
B. One of the resource pools is depleted (WWN, MAC, UUID).
C. The destination blade is equipped with an M61KR-B adapter.
D. The server is not equipped with adequate memory.
E. A User Ack maintenance policy has been applied.
Answer: C
Explanation:
You are setting up a service profile to iSCSI boot using a Cisco UCS VIC 1240. The service
profile returns a configuration error when you attempt to associate it. What is the problem, based
on the exhibit?
Answer: D
Explanation:
You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default
maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true?
Answer: C
Explanation:
How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects
licensed?
Answer: D
Explanation:
How many licenses are provided with the purchase of the Cisco UCS 6296 fabric interconnect?
A. 18
B. 16
C. 12
D. 8
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the figure, the load balancer acts a transparent TCP proxy, and establishes the connection with
the client on behalf of the real server. What is this type of spoofing called?
A. delayed binding
B. software-based load balancing
C. transport proxy
D. application binding
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which four options describe benefits of the global load-balancing solution? (Choose four.)
Answer:
Explanation: