CBT 1 CIVIL @engineerswork MADE EASY @engineerswork

1/16/2018 MADE EASY CBT
Solution Report For Mini Gate Exam 2018 CBT-1 (CE)
Q. No Question Status
Q.1 Select the word that is most SIMILAR in meaning to the bold word in capital letters.
COMMISERATE
a. Sympathy
b. Placate
c. Commemorate
d. Consecrate
Correct Ans. a Solution
Q.2 Select the word that is FARTHEST in meaning to the bold word in capital letters.
CAPACIOUS
a. Changeable
b. Foolish
c. Caring
d. Limited
Correct Ans. d Solution
Q.3 Choose the correct statement
a. The United States was an allay of Great Britain in two world wars.
b. The United States was an ally of Great Britain in two world wars.
c. The United States was an alley of Great Britain in two world wars.
d. None of these
Correct Ans. b Solution
Q.4 Which of the following term is wrong in the given series?

G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N S90L
a. G4T
b. J10R
c. M20P
d. P43N
Q.5 A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. The percentage increase in the surface area due to cutting is
________ %.
Correct Ans. 300 Solution
https://cbt.onlinetestseriesmadeeasy.in/madeeasy/index.php?pageName=solutionReportForUnattempted 1/15
Q.6 Choose the correct pair of words to form a meaningful sentence:

The priest and the lad reached __________ early morning and saw that the place was occupied by both
_________ and infantry, waiting for the orders of the senior command about when to press forward.
a. Calvary and Cavalry

b. Cavalry and Cavalry
c. Calvary and Calvary
d. Cavalry and Calvary
Q.7 In a right angle triangle ABC, the perpendicular sides are a and b. The maximum possible area of square
that can be inscribed when one of the vertex of square coincide with vertex of right angle triangle, is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.8
The 288th term of the series
a, b, b, c, c, c, d, d, d, d, ...
a. u
b. v
c. w
d.
Q.9 The difference between CI and SI for 3 years at 10% per annum was Then principal was
a. 3000
b. 3333
c. 3330
d. 3030
Q.10
What is the remainder when 7342 is divided by 9?
Q.11 At a certain section at a distance from one of the supports of a simply supported beam, the intensity
of loading, bending moment and shear force are respectively. If the intensity of
loading is varying continuously along the length of the beam then the invalid relation is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.12 A three hinged semi-circular arch of radius 10 m carries a concentrated load of 100 kN vertically at the
crown. The horizontal thrust acting on the arch at the hinged ends will be:
a. 50.00 kN
b. 42.44 kN
c. 66.67 kN
d. 100.00 kN
Q.13 For stability of a structure, the lateral sway at the top of the structure under transient wind load should
not exceed × 10–3 × H, where H is total height of the structure. The value of is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Q.14 The problems of lateral buckling can arise only in those steel beams, which have
a. Moment of inertia about the bending axis larger than the other
b. Moment of inertia about the bending axis smaller than the other
c. Fully supported compression flange
d. None of these
Q.15 To avoid lateral skidding of a vehicle having width b, height of center of gravity h. The centrifugal ratio
should be
a. Greater than
b. lesser than
c. Greater than μ
d. Lesser than μ
Q.16 A 10 m thick saturated clay layer underlain by a sand layer of 20 m depth. The water table is 5 m below
the surface of clay layer. The soil above the water table is capillary saturated. The value of for clay
is 19 kN/m3. The unit weight of water is If now the water table rises to the surface, the effective
stress at a point 10 m below the interface will
a. increase by
b. remain unchanged
c.
decrease by
d. data insufficient
Correct Ans. c Solution
Q.17 While assessing physical property of portable water with reference to odour, if A is the volume of
odorous sample of water and B is the volume of odour-free water required to produce a mixture which
is tasteless and odourless, then the threshold odour number is
a.
b.
c.
d. None of these
Q.18 The total energy line is always higher than the hydraulic grade line and the vertical distance between
these two lines represents
a. the datum head

b. the pressure head
c. the velocity head
d. the Piezometric head
Q.19 The radius of a curve, if it is designated as 3° curve on a 30 m arc, will be
a. 573 m
b. 548 m
c. 535 m
d. 523 m
Q.20 Consider the following for a material under compressive load:

I. It can be crushed down to powder.
II. It crumbles to pieces.
III. It fails under definite angles.
The material can be
a. ductile
b. brittle
c. viscous
d. plastic
Q.21 Match the List-I (Typical cost-time curve) with List-II (Type of cost) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
Q.22
If then the value of will be
a.
b.
c.
d. 0
Q.23
A vector field is given by The value of integral where C is
the circular path given by is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.24
At a point in two dimensional stress system = 100 N/mm2, N/mm2. The radius of the
Mohr’s circle for stress drawn with a scale of 1 cm = 10 N/mm2 is _______ cm.
Correct Ans. 5 (4.99 - 5.01) Solution
Q.25 Wet concrete mixing is done in mechanical mixer. Mixing should be continued until there is a uniform
distribution of the materials and the mass is uniform in colour and consistency. As per IS 456:2000, the
mixing time should be atleast ____________ minutes.
Q.26 The length of runway under standard conditions is 1650 m. Airport site has an effective elevation of 300
m. Airport reference temperature is 33.50°C. The corrected length of runway after elevation correction is
____________ m.
Correct Ans. 1765.5 (1765 - 1766) Solution
Q.27 If vehicles are moving at a speed of 30, 36, 45, 50, 60 kmph. The space mean speed is _________ kmph.
Q.28 The value of compression index (CC) for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 40% is ___________.
Correct Ans. 0.21 (0.20 - 0.22) Solution
Q.29 A simply supported beam carries three loads, two of magnitude 15 kN each at points X and Y
respectively, which produce a deflection of 4 mm at point Z. To produce deflections of 4 mm and 8 mm
at X and Y respectively, the load required at Z would be ______________ kN.
Correct Ans. 45 (44.99 - 45.01) Solution
Q.30
A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow of 4620 m3/day of municipal waste water. The
overflow rate is 35 m3/m2/d. The diameter of clarifier is ____________ m.
Q.31 The normal annual rainfall at stations A, B and C in a basin are 175 cm, 180 cm and 150 cm respectively.
In the year 2000, station B was inoperative and stations A and C recorded annual precipitation of 150 cm
and 135 cm respectively. The annual rainfall at station B in that year could be estimated to be nearly
__________ cm.
Q.32 The difference of pressure head between the two ends of a pipe of diameter 300 mm is 4 m of water. The
two ends are 400 m, apart. The discharge through the pipe is _______ litre/s. Assume the friction factor
as 0.036.
Q.33 An open circular tank of 20 cm diameter and 120 cm long contains water upto a height of 80 cm. The
tank is rotated about its vertical axis at 31.41 rad/sec angular velocity. The depth of parabola formed at
the free surface of water is _____________ cm.
Q.34 Consider the 3 × 3 matrix given below:
If the eigen vector corresponding to one of the eigen values is [–1 1 2]T, then the sum of the remaining
eigen values will be _______.
Q.35 For special security in a certain protected area, it was decided to put three light bulbs on a pole. If each
bulb is burning out in the first 100 hours of service with a probability of 0.3, then the probability that
atleast one of them is still good after 100 hours of service is ________.
Q.36 Shear force diagram for a beam is shown below:
If the bending moment at B is –9 kNm then the magnitude of bending moment at C i.e, |BMC| is
a. 58 kNm
b. 48 kNm
c. 40 kNm
d. 34 kNm
Q.37 Find the rotation at B for the frame shown below.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.38 Consider the following statements related to limit state method. Which one of the following is
INCORRECT?
a. The limit state of collapse is defined as the acceptable limit for the stresses in the materials.
b. Limit state method is one that ensures adequate safety of structure against collapse.
c. In the limit state design method, actual stresses developed at collapse differ considerably from theoretical
values.
d. All of the above
Q.39 A fixed beam ABCD, with variable plastic moment of resistance is loaded as shown.
The collapse load is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.40 The theoretical capacity (vehicle/hr) of a traffic lane with one way traffic flow at a stream speed of 40
kmph will be if it is given that average space gap between vehicles follow the relation Sg = 0.278 Vt
where V is the stream speed in kmph and, t is average reaction time of 0.7 sec and average length of
vehicle is 6 m.
a. 726
b. 928
c. 1632
d. 2902
Q.41 Consider the following statements:

1. The constant head permeability test is the most reliable and accurate for clayey soils.
2. In sandy soils, the seepage velocity is equal to Darcy’s flow velocity.
The correct statement(s) is(are):
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of these
Q.42 The stress-strain behaviour of soils as shown in the figure corresponds to
a. Curve-1: Loose sand and normally consolidated clay Curve-2: Loose sand and over consolidated clay
b. Curve-1: Dense sand and normally consolidated clay Curve-2: Loose sand and over consolidated clay
c. Curve-1: Dense sand and over consolidated clay Curve-2: Loose sand and normally consolidated clay
d. Curve-1: Loose sand and over consolidated clay Curve-2: Dense sand and normally consolidated clay
Q.43 A raw water contain the following impurities
Atomic weight: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, S = 32, Cl = 35.5 and Ca = 40.
The annual requirements (in kg/day) of slaked lime and soda for heating 100,000 litres of water daily are
respectively
a. 24.56 and 28.42

b. 26.09 and 26.89
c. 28.42 and 24.56
d. 26.89 and 26.09
Q.44 A fluctuating noise level with a sound of 60 dB lasting for 6 minutes, followed by a sound 80 dB lasting
for the next 16 minutes and then followed by a sound of 50 dB lasting for the next 28 minutes. The
equivalent noise level (in dB) for above mentioned fluctuating noise level of 50 minutes is
a. 64.58
b. 70.6
c. 75.07
d. 94.58
Q.45 For an elementary gravity dam, consider the following parameters

(i) Height = 100 m
(ii) Specific gravity of dam material = 2.3
(iii) Seepage coefficient of base = 0.75
The width of the gravity dam for above values will be
a. 85.15 m
b. 82.15 m
c. 80.32 m
d. 78.32 m
Q.46 The hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is defined as
a. the ratio of power developed by runner to the net power supplied by the water at entry in to the turbine
b. the ratio of power supplied by water at entry to the power utilized by runner
c. the ratio of power of available at the turbine shaft to that supplied to it by the runner
d. the ratio of the power supplied by the runner to the power available at the shaft
Q.47 The scale of an aerial photograph 25 cm × 25 cm is 100 km = 10 m. If the longitudinal overlap is 60% and
the side overlap is 30% then the number of photographs required to cover an area of 20 km × 15 km will
be
a. 384
b. 346
c. 298
d. 252
Q.48
A balloon is rising up with an acceleration of 3 m/s2. What fraction of weight of balloon must be emptied
out to make it accelerate at 6 m/s2? [Assume the force acting on the balloon is constant]
a. 0.19
b. 0.38
c. 0.16
d. 0.32
Q.49 A 3 × 3 matrix is given by,
Another matrix B is defined by B = A3 + A2 + A +

The determinant of matrix B is
a. 59
b. 259
c. 794
d. 2400
Q.50
The integrating factor of the differential equation is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Q.51 A wooden cantilever beam 140 mm wide and 240 mm deep has a span of 4 m. If a point load is applied at
the mid-span and the deflection observed at the free end is 10 mm then the value of point load at the
mid-span is _____________ kN. [Take modulus of elasticity as 6 GPa]
Q.52 Length of each member of the truss shown in figure below is 3 m. Members AB and CD are subjected to
a temperature increase of 30°C and coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 × 10–6/°C. The magnitude of
vertical deflection at joint E is __________ mm.
Q.53 A beam is subjected to an axial compressive load of 100 kN along with the transverse loading.
Maximum shear force in the section is 100 kN and it has longitudinal tension reinforcement of 1000
mm2. Take M20 grade concrete and Fe415 grade steel. Corresponding to 0.6% of tension steel, the
design shear strength of M20 concrete is 0.512 N/mm2. The design shear strength of the beam section
is ___________ N/mm2.
[Use LSM]
Q.54 A falling gradient of 1 in 20 meets a rising gradient of 1 in 40 on a highway having design speed of 80
km/hr. If safe stopping sight distance is 120 m than length of valley curve is ___________ m.
Q.55 The bulk specific gravity of bituminous mix is 2.35, the theoretical specific gravity is 2.43. The
percentage of bitumin in the mix is 4% by weight with specific gravity 1.03. Then voids in bitumin (VFB)
are __________%.
Q.56 A consolidated undrained triaxial compression test was performed on a saturated sand at a cell
pressure of 80 kPa. The ultimate deviator stress was 270 kPa and the pore pressure at peak stress was
50 kPa (negative). The effective angle of internal friction of soil is ___________ degree.
Correct Ans. 30.63 (30.5 - 31) Solution
Q.57 A clayey soil has a saturated moisture content of 18%. Its saturation percentage is 70%. The soil is
allowed to absorb water and saturation increased to 92% after sometime. Assuming specific gravity of
soil to be 2.72, the water content in later case is ___________ %.
Q.58 The plastic limit and liquid limit of a soil are 33% and 45% respectively. The percentage volume change
from the liquid limit to the dry state is 36% of the dry volume. Similarly, the percentage volume change
from the plastic limit to the dry state is 24% of the dry volume. The shrinkage limit will be __________ %.
Q.59
A volume of 36000 m3 is treated in an activated sludge treatment plant (with 90% efficiency) per day,
which has an influent BOD of 250 . Concentration of mixed liquor suspended solids and waste
sludge suspended solids are 2500 and 9700 respectively. If the hydraulic retention time of
the sludge in the aeration tank is 8 hrs, then food to microorganism ratio is ________ kg BOD per day/
kg MLSS.
Q.60 Assuming the initial infiltration rate of 8 mm/hr, final infiltration rate of 4 mm/hr and the constant value
(describing the rate of decay of the difference between the initial and final infiltration rates) as 0.95 h–1,
the total infiltration depth for a storm lasting 6 hour will be __________ mm.
Correct Ans. 28.2 (28 - 28.5) Solution
Q.61 A triangular channel has a side slope of 2 horizontal : 1 vertical and is laid on a longitudinal slope of 1 is
1000. The normal depth required to pass a discharge of 1 m3/s is _____ m.

[Assume manning’s coefficient, n = 0.02]
Q.62 A tank is filled with mercury and water as shown in figure. The vertical distance of point of application
of resultant force on plane AB, measured from the free surface is ______ m. Assume inside width of
tank as 3 m and specific gravity of mercury as 13.6.
Q.63 For a project, network diagram is given below, after 10 days, it was found that
1. Activity A, B are completed.
2. Activity C, D are started but has 3 days remaining.
3. Activity E has its duration reduced to 6 days.
4. Activity F remain unchanged.
After updating, number of days still required to complete the project is ______________.
Q.64 A quadrilateral is cut out from an ellipse such that its corners are the points where ellipse cuts the co-
ordinate axis. The equation of ellipse is given as The ratio of area of ellipse to area of
remaining portion of ellipse after the quadrilateral is cut out, is ________.
Q.65 The missing terms in the table representing a cubic polynomial are found using Newton forward
difference interpolation.
The value of “b” is ________.

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1/16/2018 MADE EASY CBT

Solution Report For Mini Gate Exam 2018 CBT-1 (CE)

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. d Solution

Q.3 Choose the correct statement

Correct Ans. b Solution

Q.4 Which of the following term is wrong in the given series?

Correct Ans. b Solution

Correct Ans. 300 Solution

Q.6 Choose the correct pair of words to form a meaningful sentence:

a. Calvary and Cavalry

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. d Solution

Correct Ans. d Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

Correct Ans. d Solution

Correct Ans. c Solution

Correct Ans. c Solution

a. the datum head

Correct Ans. c Solution

Q.19 The radius of a curve, if it is designated as 3° curve on a 30 m arc, will be

Correct Ans. a Solution

Q.20 Consider the following for a material under compressive load:

Correct Ans. b Solution

Correct Ans. c Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

the circular path given by is

Correct Ans. b Solution

Correct Ans. 5 (4.99 - 5.01) Solution

Correct Ans. 2 Solution

Correct Ans. 1765.5 (1765 - 1766) Solution

Correct Ans. 41.66 (40 - 43) Solution

Correct Ans. 0.21 (0.20 - 0.22) Solution

Correct Ans. 45 (44.99 - 45.01) Solution

overflow rate is 35 m3/m2/d. The diameter of clarifier is ____________ m.

Correct Ans. 12.96 (12.50 - 13.50) Solution

Correct Ans. 158.14 (157 - 159) Solution

Correct Ans. 90.4 (89.5 - 92.5) Solution

Correct Ans. 50.28 (50 - 51) Solution

Q.34 Consider the 3 × 3 matrix given below:

Correct Ans. 5 Solution

Correct Ans. 0.973 (0.95 - 0.99) Solution

Q.36 Shear force diagram for a beam is shown below:

Correct Ans. c Solution

Q.37 Find the rotation at B for the frame shown below.

Correct Ans. d Solution

Correct Ans. a Solution

The collapse load is

Correct Ans. a Solution

Q.41 Consider the following statements:

Correct Ans. d Solution

Q.42 The stress-strain behaviour of soils as shown in the figure corresponds to

Correct Ans. c Solution

Q.43 A raw water contain the following impurities

a. 24.56 and 28.42

Correct Ans. d Solution

Correct Ans. c Solution

Q.45 For an elementary gravity dam, consider the following parameters