Ese Ce Solution

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)
ESE - 2014
Exam Solutions With Detailed Explanation
Civil Engineering Paper-1(Objective)
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Explanation of Civil Engg. Paper-I (ESE - 2014)
SET - A
1. Which IS code is used for classification of 3. The plies in plywood are so placed that the
timber for seasoning purposes? grains of each ply are
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(a) IS : 4970-1973 (b) IS : 1708-1969 (a) parallel to each other
(c) IS : 1141-1958 (d) IS : 399-1963 (b) at right angle to one another
(c) 45° oblique to adjacent grain
Ans. (c)
Sol. IS 1141  Seasoning of timber

IS 399  Classification of commercial
timber and their zonal distribution
TE (d)
Ans. (b)
4.
not constrained by any consideration
Which of the following is an ODD one as

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IS 1708  18 parts  For different test regards ‘requirements of good brick-earth?
of timber performed in laboratory (a) It must be free from lumps of lime
IS 4970  Key for indentification for (b) It should not be mixed with salty water
commercial timbers (c) It must be non-homogeneous
(d) It should not contain vegetable and
2. Consider the following with regard to ‘the
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organic matter
application of preservation of timber’ :
1. Increase in the life span of the member Ans. (c)
2. Increase in the strength of the timber
3. Removal of moisture 5. The compressive strength of heavyduty
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bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should be not

4. Prevention of growth of fungi
less than
Which of the above are correct? (a) 440 kg/cm2 (b) 175 kg/cm2
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 100 kg/cm2 (d) 75 kg/cm2
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) Sol. The code for heavy duty bricks is IS 2180
Sol. The preservation of timber is carrid out to and not IS 2980. As per Cl 3.1 2180, the
achieve the following three objective: compressive strength should be classified
as:-
1. Increase in the life of timber.
Classification:
2. Make the timber durable.
Class 400: Compressive strength not less
3. Protect the timber structures from the than 40.0 0 N/mm2. (400 kgf/cm2)
attack of destroying agencies such as Class 450: Compressive strength not less that
fungi insects etc. 45.0 N/mm2. (450 kgf/cm2)

6. Consider the following statements : (a) Magnesium oxide (b) Silica
1. Brickwork will have high water tightness. (c) Alumina (d) Calcium sulphate
2. Brickwork is preferred for monument Ans. (b)

structures.
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3. Bricks resist fire better than stones. 9. Which type of cement is recommended in
4. Bricks of good quality shall have thin large mass concrete works such as a dam?
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mortar bonds.
(a) Ordinary Portland
Which of the above statements are correct? (b) High Alumina
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) Low-heat Portland
(d) Portland Pozzollona
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
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Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following statements regarding

7. Consider the following statements :
‘setting of cement’ :
A good soil for making bricks should contain
1. Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
1. 30% alumina
2. Final setting time decides the strength of
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2. 10% lime nodules

cement.
3. Only small quantity of iron oxides
3. Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona
4. 15% magnesia is 30 minutes.
Which of the above statements are correct? 4. Air-induced setting is observed when
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stored under damp conditions.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3
5. Addition of gypsum retards the setting
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
time.
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Ans. (b) Which of the above statements are correct?

Sol. Properties of various ingredients is as below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5
Silica 50–60%
Alumina 20–30%
Ans. (c)
Lime 10%
Magnesia < 1%
Ferric oxide < 7% Less than 20%
‘strength of cement’ :
Alkalis < 10%
Carbon dioxide 1. Strength test on cement is made on cubes
Sulphur trioxide Very small percentage of cement sand mix.
Water 2. Water to be used for the paste is 0.25P,
where P is the water needed for normal
8. Which compound of cement is responsible for consistency.
strength of cement?

3. The normal consistency is determined on 14. Consider the following parameters of
Le Chatelier’s apparatus. concrete:
4. Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof 1. Impermeability 2. Compactness
moulds further compacted in each layer
3. Durability
by vibration on a machine.
4. Desired consistency
Which of the above statements are correct? 5. Workability
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(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Which of the above parameters are relevant
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 for ‘water-cement ratio’?
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following ingredients refer to

binding materials of mortar?
TE (a) 4 and 5
(c) 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
(b) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 5
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1. Cement 2. Lime 15. Consider the following statements :
3. Sand 4. Ashes
Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads
Select the correct answer using the code given to
below. 1. expansive reaction in concrete
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 2. cracking of concrete
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(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 3. disruption of concrete

4. shrinkage of concrete
Ans. (c)
Which of the above statements are correct?
13. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
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1. Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

2. Mortars make bricks damp proof.
Ans. (c)
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3. Strength of brick in masonry is improved

by plastering.
16. The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate
4. Addition of lime improves workability. by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as
5. Marine constructions need sulphate- the sum of the individual masses of fine and
resistant cement mortar. coarse aggregates (kg), for M 20 grade of
concrete, is
Which of the above statements are relevant
for ‘cement mortar’? (a) 625 (b) 480
(c) 330 (d) 250
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) Sol. As per Table 9, IS 456:2000, for M20 it is

250 kg.

17. If aggregate size of 50–40 mm is to be tested 1. increased shrinkage
for determining the proportion of elongated 2. decreased setting time
aggregates, the slot length of the gauge 3. decreased shrinkage
should be
4. increased setting time
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(a) 45 mm (b) 53 mm
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 81 mm (d) 90 mm
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
TE
Ans. (c) (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
50  40
Sol. Slot length =  1.8  81 mm Ans. (d)
2
18. Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to 21. If the Poisson’s ratio for a material is 0.5,
the difference expressed in appropriate then the elastic modulus for the material is
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proportion in water content between
(a) three times its shear modulus
(a) a wet aggregate and a dry aggregate (b) four times its shear modulus
(b) a dry aggregate and an oven-dry aggregate (c) equal to its shear modulus
(c) a saturated surface-dry aggregate and a (d) not determinable
dry aggregate
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(d) a saturated surface-dry aggregate and an Ans. (a)

oven-dry aggregate Sol. Elastic modulus = E
Ans. (c) Shear modulus = G

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E = 2G1  )
19. Consider the following statements concerning
‘elasticity of concrete’. Given  = 0.5, E = 2×1.5×G = 3G
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1. Stress-strain behaviour of concrete is a 22. A metal bar of 10 mm diameter when

straight line up to 10% of ultimate stress. subjected to a pull of 23.5 kN gave an
2. Strain determination is obtained from elongation of 0.3 mm on a gauge length of
tangent modulus. 200 mm. The Young’s modulus of elasticity
of the metal will nearly be
3. Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also
called as secant modulus. (a) 200 kN/mm2 (b) 300 kN/mm2
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 360 kN/mm2 (d) 400 kN/mm2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only Ans. (a)

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Sol.
Ans. (b) l = 200 mm
P = 23.5 kN
The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in Dia = 10 mm

l = 0.3 mm 70  103  2  103
l 0.3 l1 =
  =   / 4  402  2  105
l 200
After boring,
P
  = E 70  103  X  103
A
l2 =
23.5  103 2.3  / 4  (402  252 )  2  105
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 = E
 / 4  102 200 70  103   2  X   103

235 200  / 4  402  2  105
 E = 
Given, l2 = 1.2 l1
TE
0.785 0.3
 200  103 N / mm2 350x 350  2  x  1.2  400

  
 / 4  65  15  / 4  1600   1600
 E = 200 kN/mm2
x 2x 1.2  2
  =
23. A steel rod, 2 m in length, 40 mm in diameter, 3  13 64 64
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is subjected to a pull of 70 kN as shown in 64x  78  39x 2.4
the figure  =
39  64 6.4
 25x = 39 × 2.4 – 78
70 kN 70 kN
2m  x = 0.624 m
24. A member ABCD is subjected to a force

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To what length should the bar be bored

centrally from one end so that total extension system as shown in the figure
will increase by 20% under the same force
A B C D
(the bore diameter is 25 mm and E is 2 × 105
N/mm2)? 45 365 450 130
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(a) 0.46 m (b) 0.55 m The resistive force in the part BC is

(c) 0.87 m (d) 0.62 m
(a) 365 (compressive) (b) 450 (tensile)
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Ans. (d) (c) 85 (compressive) (d) 320 (compressive)
Sol Ans. (d)

Sol.
70 kN 70 kN
A B C D
45 365 450 130
x (2 – x)
FBD
Pl
l = 45 32 320 130
AE 45
45
Initially when no boring, 365 450
A B B C C D
 Thus BC has 320 (Compressive) force.

25. Consider the following statements : tensile stress x = 1.5 N/mm2 and shear stress
 = 1.20 N/mm2, when cracking of concrete is
If the planes at right angles carry only shear
just impending. The permissible tensile
stress of magnitude q in a certain instance,
strength of the concrete is
then the
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1. diameter of Mohr’s circle would be equal (a) 1.50 N/mm2 (b) 2.17 N/mm2
to 2q. (c) 2.08 N/mm2 (d) 2.29 N/mm2
2. centre of Mohr’s circle would lie at the
TE
origin Ans. (b)
3. principal stresses are unlike and are of Sol. Given, x = 1.5 N/mm2 (tensile)
magnitude q each
4. angle between the principal plane and the y = 0
plane of maximum shear would be 45°
T = 1.20 N/mm2
AS
Which of the above statements are correct? Here, permissible tensile strength will
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only correspond to principal tensile stress as
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 cracking will be initiated in the plane of
principal stress-
Ans. (d) x  y
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1/2 =
Sol. 2
2
(o, q)  x  y  2
    Txy
 2 
q
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2
1.5  1.5  2
(–q, o) (o, o) (q, o) =     1.2
2  2 
1 = 2.165  2.17
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(o, –q)
2 = – 0.665
Its a case of pure shear. Hence Mohr’s Hence, permissible tensile strength
circle is as shown
= 2.17 N/mm2
Diameter of Mohr’s circle = 2q
Centre is at origin 27. Two-dimensional stress system on a block
Principal stress are q and –q. Hence they made of a material with Poisson’s ratio of
are equal in magnitude but unlike in 0.3 is shown in the figure
direction. 
Angle b/w normal to principal plane and A B
normal to maximum shear is 90º in Mohr’s 60 N/mm2
circle. so it would be 45º.
The limiting magnitude of the stress s so as
26. The state of two-dimensional stresses acting to result in no change in length AB of the
on a concrete lamina consists of a direct block is

(a) 60 N/mm2 (b) 120 N/mm2 160  80
Centre = ,0 = (40, 0)
(c) 200 N/mm2 (d) 240 N/mm2 2
Maximum shear stress intensity = radius
Ans. (c)
Sol.
= 160  40 2  02
= 120 N/mm2
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A B
y
2 29. An element of a certain material in plane
60 N/mm x strain has
Given, x = 60, y =  &  = 0.3
In x - direction x = 0
For no change in length
x y
TE x = 800 × 10–6
y = 400 × 10–6
xy  300  10 6
What is the maximum shearing strain?

AS
  = 0 (a) 150 × 10–6 (b) 355 × 10–6
E E
(c) 250 × 10–6 (d) 500 × 10–6
 x =  y
Ans. (d)
 60 = 0.3 × 
0 Sol. x = 800 × 10–6
 = = 200 N/mm2
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
0.3 y = 400 × 10–6
28. The principal stresses at a point in a bar are  xy = 300 × 10–6
160 N/mm 2 (tensile) and 80 N/ mm 2
Maximum shear strain
(compressive). The accompanying maximum
2 2
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shear stress intensity is  max  x  y   xy 

=    
(a) 100 N/mm2 (b) 110 N/mm2 2  2   2 
(c) 120 N/mm2 (d) 140 N/mm2 = 250 × 10–6
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max = 500 × 10–6

Ans. (c)
Sol. Given, 1 = 160, 2 = – 80 30. Consider a circular member of diameter D

subjejctjed to a compressive load P. For a
Thus Mohr circle is as condition of no tensile stress in the cross-
section, the maximum radial distance of the
load from the centre of the circle is
D D
(a) (b)
6 8
(–80, 0) (40, 0) (160, 0) D D
(c) (d)
12 4

Ans. (b) 32. In a two-dimensional stress system, the
principal stresses are  1 = 200 N/mm 2
Sol, A = 0 (tensile) and s2 (compressive). The yield stress
e in both simple tension and compression is
P M P
  y = 0 A
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A I 250 N/mm2, with  = 0.25. What will be the
P Pe D
value of 2 according to the maximum normal
 2
 4
y = 0 strain theory?
 / 4D D 2
TE
(a) 160 N/mm2 (b) 100 N/mm2
64
(c) 200 N/mm2 (d) 250 N/mm2
D
 e =
8 Ans. (c)
31. At a point in the web of a girder, the bending
Sol. 1 = 200 N/mm2
and the shearing stresses are 90 N/mm 2
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2 =  (say)
(tensile) and 45 N/mm2 respectively. The
principal stresses are y = 250 N/mm2
(a) 108.64 N/mm2 (tensile) and 18.64 N/mm2  = 0.25
(compressive) Acc. to maximum normal strain theory,
(b) 107.60N/mm2 (compressive) and 18.64 N/
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mm2 (tensile) 1  2 < y

(c) 108.64 N/m2 (compressive) and 18.64 N/  200 – 0.25 (  ) < 250
mm2 (tensile)
(d) 0.64 N/mm2 (tensile) and 0.78 N/mm2  200 + 0.25  = 250
(compressive) 50
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  =  200N / mm2
0.25
Ans. (a)
33. A simply supported beam has uniform cross-
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Sol x = 90 N/mm2 section, b = 100 mm, d = 200 mm, throughout

its length. The beam is subjected to a
y = 0 maximum bending moment of 6 × 107 N-mm.
Txy = 45 N/mm2 The corresponding bending stress developed
in the beam is
x  y
 1/2 = (a) 30 N/mm2 (b) 60 N/mm2
2
(c) 90 N/mm2 (d) 120 N/mm2
2
 x  y  2
=     Txy Ans. (c)
 2 
2 M
90  0  90  0  2 Sol.  = y
=     45 I
2  2 
1 = 108.63 N/mm2 6  107  200 
=  
2 = – 18.63 N/mm2  2003   2 
100   
 12 
= 90 N/mm2

34. A steel plate is bent into a circular arc of 36. A solid shaft of 80 mm diameter is
radius 10 m. If the plate section be 120 mm transmitting 100 kW of power at 200 r.p.m.
wide and 20 mm thick, with E = 2 × 105 N/ The maximum shear stress induced in the
mm2, then the maximum bending stress shaft will nearly be
induced is
(a) 60 N/mm2 (b) 56 N/mm2
(a) 210 N/mm2 (b) 205 N/mm2
(c) 52 N/mm2 (d) 48 N/mm2
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(c) 200 N/mm 2 (d) 195 N/mm2
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
Sol. d = 800 mm, P = 100 kN
Sol.

l
M E
120
20 TE N = 200 rpm
P =
T =
2NT
60
100  103  60
N-m
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=  
y I R 2  200
My Ey  100  103  60 
 =    N  mm
I R T
max =   2  200 3
20 Zp   80
2  105 
= 2 16
3
10  10
M
= 46.875 N/mm2
= 200 N/mm2
37. The power transmitted by a 75 mm diameter
shaft at 140 r.p.m., subjected to a maximum
35. A fletched beam composed of two different
shear stress of 60 N/mm2, is nearly
pieces, each having breadth b and depth d,
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supports an external load. This statement (a) 68 kW (b) 70 kW

implies that (c) 73 kW (d) 76 kW
1. the two different material are rigidly
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connected Ans. (c)

2. there will be relative movement between Sol. D = 75 mm
the two materials N = 140 rpm
3. for transforming into an equivalent single-
max = 60 N/mm2
material, section under ‘streng th’
considerations, the depth is kept constant T 2NT
 max = , P =
and only the breadth is varied Zp 60
Which of the above statements are correct?    753

T = 60 
16
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 2  140  60  753
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3  P = 16  60
Ans. (b) = 73.8 kW

38. A circular shaft of diameter D is subjected to = 72.75 N/mm2
a torque T. The maximum shear stress of
72.7  12 
the shaft will be Ti =  
 16   2 
(a) proportional to D3  
 2 
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(b) proportional to D4 = 54.56 N/mm2
(c) inversely proportional to D3
40. A rigid bar shown in the figure is hinged at
(d) inversely proportional to D4
TE
A, is supported by a rod at B, and carries a
Ans. (c) load W at C.
T T  16
Sol. max = 
Zp D2 W
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1 l/2 l/2
 max  3
D A B C
39. A hollow shaft of 16 mm outside diameter

and 12 mm inside diameter is subjected to a The resistive force in the rod is
torque of 40 N-m. The shear stresses at the (a) 0.5W (b) 1.0W
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outside and inside of the material of the shaft (c) 1.5W (d) 2.0W
are respectively
(a) 62.75 N/mm2 and 50.00 N/mm2 Ans. (d)
(b) 72.75 N/mm2 and 54.54 N/mm2 Sol.
N/mm2 N/mm2
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(c) 79.75 and 59.54

(d) 80.00 N/mm2 and 40.00 N/mm2
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R W
Ans. (b) R
A
T T l/2 l/2
Sol. D0 = 16 mm, 
r J
D i = 12 mm M A = 0
T = 40 N-m l
 Wl  R = 0
Tr 2
 T =   R = 2W
J
 164  124  41. The symmetry of the stress tensor at a point
J =
32 in a body when at equilibrium is obtained
16 from
40  103 
 T0 = 2 (a) conservation of mass
164  124  (b) force equilibrium equations

32

(c) moment equilibrium equations Sol.
(d) conservation of energy
16 M P
W
3l
Ans. (c) M
MP
C
B B
42. A hinged support in a real beam W/4 C MP
R
(a) becomes an internal hinge in a conjugate M
beam l/2
l/2
(b) changes to a free support in a conjugate
beam
TE
(c) changes to a fixed support in a conjugate
beam
(d) remains as a hinged support in a conjugate
beam
A
From FBD of BC
W
16 M P
3l
D
AS
Ans. (d)
M MP MP MP
43. For portal frame shown in the figure, collapse l/2

B l/2
load W has been calculated as per combined C
4 MP 4 MP
4 MP 4 MP
16M P 3l 3l
M
mechanism as W = 3l 3l
3l
MP  M 4MP
 =
W l/2 3l
2 MP
B E C  MP– M =
W/4 3
MP l/2
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l/2
2MP MP
 M = MP  
3 3
2MP l MP l 3WL WL
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 M = 
16  3 16
A D
44. The simply supported beam shown in the
figure
What is the bending moment at B at collapse
conditions? W
Wl Wl
(a) (b)
16 8 
A C B
3Wl 3Wl
(c) (d)
16 8
l
Ans. (a) is
(a) determinate and stable
(b) determinate and unstable

(c) indeterminate and stable load of 200 kN with G = 8.4 × 104 N/mm2.
(d) indeterminate and unstable The stiffness of the spring is nearly
(a) 5.25 N/mm (b) 6.50 N/mm
Ans. (b)
(c) 7.25 N/mm (d) 8.50 N/mm
R
45. The bending moment at C for the beam
46. (a)
shown in the figure
Sol. D = 100 mm  R = 50 mm
TE
2 kN
d = 10 mm
1.6 m E
D 1 kN n = 20 turns
1.2 m p = 200 kN
B A G = 8.4 × 104 N/mm2
C
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1.6 m 3.2 m
is Gd 4 8.4  104  104
K =  = 5.25 N/mn
(a) –3.2 kN-m (b) –4.4 kN-m 64 R3n 64  503  20
(c) –6.2 kN-m (d) –7.2 kN-m
47. For the plane frame as shown in the figure
Ans. (b) Hinge
M
Sol.
2 kN
2 kN 3.2 kNm
1 kN 1 kN
1.6 m
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1 kN 3.2 kNm 2 kN
1.2 kN the degree of kinematic indeterminacy,

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4.4 kNm neglecting axial deformation, is

1 kN (a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9
2 kN
Alternatively Ans. (d)
BM at C = Moment from either left end or Sol. Neglecting axial deformation
right end at that section
1 , 2 , x
3
Moment from left end at C
= 2 × 1.6 + 1 × 1.2
= 4.4 kNm (hogging)
Thus BM at C = 4.4 kNm
4
46. A close helical spring of 100 mm mean
diameter is made of 10 mm diameter rod,
and has 20 turns. The spring carries an axial  Dk = 5

48. The carry-over factor CAB for the beam as 50. Force method in structural analysis always
shown in the figure ensures
(a) compatibility of deformation
A B (b) equilibrium of forces
(c) kinematically admissible strains
L L (d) overall safety
R
is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 Ans. (a)
(c) 0.75 (d) 1.00
51. Fixed end moments at A and B for the fixed
Ans. (d)
Sol.
MA
A B
TE beam shown in the figure, subjecjted to the
indicated uniformly varying load, are
respectively
AS
W/unit length
MA A B
l
A
MA MA MA l
M
l l l Wl 2 Wl2 Wl 2 Wl2
(a) and (b) and
30 20 20 30
MA
 MB =  l  MA
l Wl 2 Wl2 Wl 2 Wl2
(c) and (d) and
12 8 8 12
Hence, COF = 1
S
Ans. (a)
49. The ratio of (i) the moment required for unit
IE
rotation of the near end of a prismatic 52. Fixed end moments developed at both the
member with its far end fixed to (ii) that of
ends in a fixed beam of span L and flexural
a different moment required for the same rigidity. EI, when its right-side support
effect when the far end is hinged is settles down by , is
3
(a) 1 (b) 6EI  12EI 
4 (a) (sagging) (b) (sagging)
4 1 L2
L2
(c) (d) 6EI  12EI
3 2 (hogging) (hogging)
(c) (d)
Ans. (c) L2
L2
4EI / l 4 Ans. (b)

Sol. Ratio = 
3EI / l 3

Sol.
Sol.
 W
6EIS A B
2 6EIS 3l/4 l/4
l
R
L2
Thus there is sagging moment at right end

MP
TE
and hogging moment at left end. Thus,
assuming . We are asked to define the 3WL
fixed end moment right end, the answer 16
MP MP
6EI
is (sagging)
L2
AS
3WL
Hence, most appropriate answer is (b)  2M P =
16
53. The Muller-Breslau principle for influence 32MP
line is applicable for  W =
3L
(a) simple beams
55. The plastic modulu s of a section is
(b) continuous beams 4.8 × 10–4 m3. The shape factor is 1.2. The
M
(c) redundant trusses plastic moment capacity of the section is 120

(d) all of the above kN-m. The yield stress of the material is
(a) 100 MPa (b) 240 MPa
Ans. (d)
(c) 250 MPa (d) 300 MPa
S
54. For a fixed beam with a concentrated load W

Ans. (c)
1
ZP = 4.8 × 10–4 m3
IE
at of span from one end, the ultimate Sol.

4
S.F. = 1.2
load is
M P = 120 kN-m
16 M P 4MP
(a) (b) Mp = fy1 Zp
3L L
120  106 N  mm
32 M P  fy =
6M P 4.8  104  109 mm3
(c) (d)
3L L = 250 MPa
[adopting standard notations]
56. A propped cantilever beam shown in the
Ans. (c) figure has a plastic moment capacity of M0.

P For the depth of plastic neutral axis from
the top of the T-section to be 9.583 mm, the
C
B flange width b must be
A
(a) 100 mm (b) 110 mm
L/2 L/2
(c) 120 mm (d) 130 mm
The collapse load is
R
4M 0 6M 0 Ans. (c)
(a) (b)
L L Sol. Plastic N.A. divides the section into equal
8M 0 12M 0 areas.
(c)
Ans. (b)
Sol.
L
P
(d)
L
TE 

Hence,
9.583 × b = (10–9.583)× b + 10 × 110
b = 120 mm
AS
9.583
10
A B
l/2 l/2
C
110
M
MP
PL
4 MP
MP
2
MP
PL 10
MP  =
S
2
4
3MP
PL 58. The shape factors of a triangle section and a
 = diamond section are respectively
24
IE
6MP 6M0 (a) 2.343 and 2.0 (b) 2.0 and 2.343
 P = 
l l (c) 1.343 and 2.0 (d) 2.0 and 1.343
57. The dimensions of a T-section are shown in
the figure Ans. (a)
b
10 mm 59. For a skeletal frame shown in the figure
110 mm
10 mm

static and kinematic indeterminacies are (a) 8 kN (b) 20 kN
(a) 3 and 11 (b) 3 and 9 (c) 22.5 kN (d) 24 kN
(c) 3 and 6 (d) 6 and 3
Ans. (b)
R
Ans. (a) Sol. Bearing strength = 16 × 5 × 250
Sol. = 20 kN
TE
62. The effective length of a battened strut of
actual length L, effectively held in position
at both ends but not restrained in direction,
is taken as
(a) L (b) 1.1L
AS
(c) 1.5L (d) 1.8L
Ans. (b)
Sol. Effective length of column should be
increased by 10% to counter act the shear
D S = 3C – R1
deforemation.
M
= 3 × 4 – (1 + 2) The column is held in position and not

= 9 restrained against rotation at both the ends,
hence normal effective length = L and
External indeterminacy
considering battened it is = 1.1 L.
= 9 – (3 + 2 + 1) = 3
S
63. The slenderness ratio (as per IS : 800) of a

Dx = 3×9 – (3+2+1) – 10 = 11 member, carrying compressive loads arising
Hence, most appropriate answer is (a) from combined dead loads and imposed loads,
IE
should not exceed

60. The effective length of a fillet weld is taken
as the actual length (a) 180 (b) 250
(c) 350 (d) 380
(a) plus twice the size of the weld
(b) minus twice the size of the weld Ans. (a)
(c) plus the size of the weld
64. A mild steel tube of mean diameter 20 mm
(d) minus the size of the weld
and thickness 2 mm is used as an axially
loaded tension member. I f f y = 300 MPa, what
Ans. (b)
is the maximum load that the member can
carry?
61. An angle ISA 50 × 50 × 6 is connected to a
gusset plate 5 mm thick, with 16 mm bolts. (a) 11.25 kN (b) 22.5 kN
What is the bearing strength of the bolt when (c) 30.0 kN (d) 37.5 kN
the hole diameter is 16 mm and the allowable
bearing stress is 250 MPa? Ans. (b)

Sol. T = A × (0.6 fy) =  × 20 × 2 ×0.6 × 300 (a) no stiffeners
= 37.5 kN (b) horizontal stiffeners
(c) intermediate vertical stiffeners
65. Localized bearing stress caused by the
transmission of compression from the wide (d) vertical and horizontal stiffeners
flange to the narrrow web causes a failure
Ans. (c)
called
R
(a) web buckling (b) web shear flow 1000
Sol.  =  166.66
6
(c) web bearing (d) web crippling
85 <  < 200 hence only intermediate vertical
Ans. (d)
66. The best-suited rolled steel section for a

tension member is
TE 70.
stiffeners are required.
When designing steel structures, one must
ensure that local buckling in webs does not
take plate. This check may not be critical
when using rolled steel sections because
AS
(a) angle section (b) T-section
(c) channel section (d) flat section (a) quality control at the time of manufacture
of rolled sections is very good
Ans. (d) (b) web depths available are small
Sol. In this case the whole section will be utilized, (c) web stiffness is built-in in rolled sections
no out standing arm hence no shear lag (d) depth to thickness ratio of the web is
M
effect. always appropriately adjusted
67. In a plate girder, the web is primarily Ans. (d)

designed to resist
(a) torsional moment (b) shear force 71. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is
S
(c) bending moment (d) diagonal buckling provided to safeguard against web buckling
due to
IE
Ans. (b) (a) shear

(b) compressive force in bending
68. Lacing of compound steel columns
(c) tensile force in bending
(a) increases the load-carrying capacity (d) heavy concentrated load
(b) decreases the chances of local buckling
(c) decreases overall buckling of the column Ans. (b)
(d) assures unified behaviour
72. In an industrial steel building, which of the
Ans. (d) following elements of a pitched roof primarily
resist loads parallel to the ridge?
69. A welded plate girder, consisting of two flange (a) Bracings (b) Purlins
plates of 350 mm × 16 mm each and a web (c) Columns (d) Trusses
plate of 1000 mm × 6 mm, requires
Ans. (a)

73. For a compression member with double angle 75. (c)
section, which of the following sections will 5/3 My
give larger value of minimum radius of
gyration?
R
(a) Equal angles back-to-back
(b) Unequal angles with long legs back-to-
back
TE
My My
(c) Unequal angles with short legs back-to-
x
back
(d) None of the above l
Ans. (b) x = ?
AS
l 3 
x = l  2   My 
74. According to IS : 875 Part 3, design wind
 2 5M y 
speed is obtained by multiplying the basic
x = l – 0.6l = 0.4l
wind speed by factors k1, k2 and k3, where k3
is x  0.4l
(a) terrain height factor
M
[adopting standard notations]

(b) structure size factor
(c) topography factor 76. Battens provided for a compression member
(d) risk coefficient shall be designed to carry a transverse shear
equal to
S
Ans. (c) (a) 2.5% of axial force in the member

(b) 5% of axial force in the member
75. The length of beam over which the moment
(c) 10% of axial force in the member
IE
is greater than the yield moment is called as

(d) 20% of axial force in the member
the plastic hinge length. What is the plastic
hinge length for a simply supported beam of
Ans. (a)
circular cross-section loaded at mid-span
5 77. In which of the following cases is the
(shape factor for the section = )
3 compression flange most susceptible to buckle
laterally?
(a) 0.15l (b) 0.33l
(c) 0.4l (d) 0.5l (a) An I-section supporting a roof slab with
shear connection
(b) Purlin of a roof supporting dead and live
loads

(c) Encased beam (a) parabolic over the full depth
(d) A steel I-section supporting a point load (b) parabolic above the neutral axis and
when acting as a cantilever rectangular below the neutral axis
(c) rectangular over the full depth
Ans. (d)
(d) rectangular above the neutral axis and
Sol. The end of the cantilever is free, hence not parabolic below the neutral axis
R
laterally restrained.
Ans. (c)
78. The serviceability criterion for a plate girder
TE
design is based upon Sol. Actual stress distribution
(a) width of flange
(b) depth of web
(c) minimum thickness of web
N A
(d) stiffness of web d
AS
78. (b) Depth of web will affect the floor to
ceiling clear height and thus it will affect
the serviceability.
79. If any tension reinforcement in an RC beam Nominal stress distribution according to

attains its yield stress during loading before
M
the concrete in the compression zone fails IS code

due to crushing, the beam is said to be
(a) under-reinforced (b) over-reinforced
(c) balanced (d) non-homogeneous
S
Ans. (a) N A
d
IE
80. The distance between the centroid of the area

of tension reinforcement and the maximum
compressive fibre in a reinforced concrete
beam design is known as
82. Assuming the concrete below the neutral axis
(a) overall depth
to be cracked, the shear stress across the
(b) effective depth
depth of a singly reinforced rectangular beam
(c) lever arm section
(d) depth of neutral axis
(a) increases parabolically to the neutral axis
Ans. (b) and then drops abruptly to zero value
(b) increases parabolically to the neutral axis
81. In a reinforced concrete section, the shape of and then remains constant over the
the nominal shear stress diagram is remaining depth

(c) increases linearly to the neutral axis and Ans. (c)
then remains constant up to the tension
steel 86. The problems of lateral buckling can arise
(d) increases parabolically to the neutral axis only in those steel beams which have
R
and then remains constant up to the (a) moment of inertia about the bending axis
tension steel larger than the other
(b) moment of inertia about the bending axis
Ans. (d)
TE
smaller than the other
83. Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs (c) fully supported compression flange
is (d) None of the above
(a) at a distance of effective depth of slab from Ans. (a)

the periphery of the column/the drop panel
AS
d
(b) at a distance of from the periphery of
2 The design depth of the footing for an isolated
the column/the capital/the drop panel column is governed by
(c) at the drop panel of the slab 1.maximum bending moment
2.maximum shear force
M
(d) at the periphery of the column

[adopting standard notations] 3.punching shear

Ans. (b)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
S
84. The enlarged head of the supporting column (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
of a flat slab is called
Ans. (c)
(a) capital (b) drop
IE
(c) panel (d) block Sol. During design we check depth of footing for
all three above mentioned criterias.
Ans. (a)
88. Spalling stresses are produced in post-
tensioned pre-stressed concrete members at
85. The critical section for maximum bending
moment in the footing under masonry wall (a) locations of maximum bending moment
is located at only
(a) the middle of the wall (b) locations of maximum shear zone
(b) the face of the wall (c) anchorage zone

(d) bond-developing zone
(c) mid-way between the face and the middle
of the wall
Ans. (c)
(d) a distance equal to the effective depth of
footing from the face of the wall Sol. Spalling stress (bursting) is occured for post
tensioned beam at ancharage zone due to
heavy bearing stress.

89. In a pre-stressed member, it is advisable to Select the correct answer using the code given
use below.
(a) low-strength concrete (a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(b) high-strength concrete (c) 3 and 5 (d) 2 and 4
(c) high-strength concrete and high-tension
steel Ans. (d)
R
(d) high-strength concrete and low-tension
steel Sol Engin power  density of air,
P
Ans. (c)
90. The percentage loss of pre-stress due to

anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete beam
of length of 30 m which is post-tensioned by
TE 92.
density of air 
T
.
Consider the following statements in respet

of ‘mixers’ :
1. Mass batch mixing of ingredients is the
AS
a tendon subjected to an initial stress of 1200 most desirable method.
N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity equal to 2. Charging all materials into a drum mixer
2.1 × 105 N/mm2, is is done ‘at once’.
(a) 0.0175% (b) 0.175% 3. The quantity of material fed into a mixer
(c) 1.75% (d) 17.5% should be not more than the quantity that
can be used in less than 30 minutes after
M
90. (c) completion of mixing.

4. Reversing mixers have less capacity than
3 4 tilting mixers.
Ans. =  10 = strain loss
30  103 5. In large mixers, additional time of mixing
 Stress loss = E = 2.1 × 10 = 21 N/mm2 is allowed.
S
21
 Percentage loss =  100 = 1.75% Which of the above statements are correct?
1200
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 5
IE
91. Engines are rated at specified conditions.

Then which of the following statements are (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 4 and 5
correct?
Ans. (b)
1. Power developed increases as local Sol.
temperature increases.
 Batch mixing is always desirable as per
2. Power developed increases as local the mass or weight of ingradients.
temperature decreases.
 Normally initial setting time is 30
3. Power developed is not dependent on local
minute, hence placing of concrete should
temperature.
be done before it.
4. Power developed increases as local
atmospheric pressure increases.  For large mixers, additional time of
mixing is allowed.
5. Power developed increases as local
atmospheric pressure decreases.

93. Consider the following statements about Ans. (d)
‘cranes’ :
Q2
1. Mobile cranes are suitable in small Sol. Static head = 80 m. hm = 80  , from the
operations. 120
R
options provided it is clear that value of
2. Whirley crane is a stationary crane with
manometric head is near about 82m, hence
a long boom. the answer is clearly near 18 lps (from the
3. Tower crane is used in lifting heavy chart provided) as total hm = 82m at this
TE
machinery. discharge.
4. A guy-derrick can operate in a limited  Q = 17.75 lps.
area only.
95. Which system of network given below
Which of the above statements are correct? completely eliminates the use of dummy
activities?
AS
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (a) A-O-A (Activity-on-Arrow)
(b) A-O-N (Activity-on-Node)
Ans. (a) (c) PERT
Sol. (d) CPM
 Whirley crane means it can rotate 360°,
M
it may be stationary or moving. Ans. (b)

 Tow er cr ane is used in lifting
construction materials. 96. Free float can be associated with which of
the following?
94. Extracts from th e head-discharge
S
1. In one of two sub-paths between any two

characteristics of two centrifugal pumps are
adjacent nodes
tabulated with respective subscripts 1 and 2;
manometric head him is given in metres; and 2. In the last activity in the sub-apths, less
IE
discharge Q is given in lps : by at least one of the sub-paths, between

any two nodes
Q 12 14 16 18 20 3. Following all sub-activities in a laddered
hm1 50.2 50.8 51.3 50.0 30.0 network
hm2 42.4 38.8 35.7 32.0 25.0 4. Whenever mandatory calendar dates are
prescribed for major milestone events
The pumps are connected in series against a
static head of 80m; the estimate of the total Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
Q2
of head losses is m . What is the delivered (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
120
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
discharge?
(a) 15.80 lps (b) 16.35 lps Ans. (c)
(c) 17.35 lps (d) 17.75 lps 97. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of
activities follow

(a) normal distribution curve Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) -distribution curve below.
(c) Poisson’s distribution curve (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) binomial distribution curve (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
97. (b) Ans. (d)
R
98. Three consecutive activities A, B and E (in
that order) have their T-duration (in days) 100. List the following processes in their correct
sequence, from earliest to latest, in project
vs. C–Direct Cost (in monetary units)
relationship expressed in the following table:
T
8
A
C
15
T
6
B
C
7
T
4
C
C
11
TE implementation planning :
1. Project duration
2. Resource histogram
3. Standardized input/performance for each
activity including alternatives
AS
9 14 7 6 5 12 4. WBS
10 16 8 7 6 13 5. Resourc e optimization consider ing
constraints
What is the optimum duration for the 6. Activites and their inter-relationships
corresponding minimum total direct cost for
all the three activites when taken up Select the correct anser using the code given
M
consecutively without pause or disruption? below.

(a) 22 days (b) 21 days (a) 2, 1, 3, 5, 6 & 4 (b) 2, 6, 3, 5, 1 & 4
(c) 20 days (d) 19 days (c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 6 & 2 (d) 4, 6, 3, 5, 1 & 2
S
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
Sol. Minimum combination

IE
Directions :
A B C Total
Each of the following twenty (20) items consists
T C T C T C T C of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’
9 14 7 6 4 11 20 31 and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine
these two statements and select the answers to
99. In an Activity-on-Arrow network, which of these items using the code given below.
the following rules of network logic are Code :
mandatory?
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
1. Any two events can be directly connected individually true and Statement (II) is the
by not more than one activity. correct explanation of Statement (I).
2. Event numbers should not be duplicated (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
in a network. individually true but Statement (II) is not
3. Before an activity may begin, all the the correct explanation of Statement (I).
activities preceding it must be completed.

(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is 105. Statement (I) : Preparing mortar by using
false. masonry cement improves workability as well
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) as the finish during plastering.
is true Statement (II) : Masonry cement is easy to
R
101. Statement (I) : Bricks are soaked in water handle.
before using in brick masonry for removing
dirt and dust. Ans. (a)
TE
Statement (II) : Bricks are soaked in water 106. Statement (I) : Grading of concrete is based
before using in brick masonry so that bricks on 28-day strength.
do not absorb moisture from the bonding
cement mortar. Statement (II) : Concrete does not gain any
furthers strength after 28-day curing.
AS
Ans. (d)
Ans.. (c)
102. Statement (I) : Brick masonry in mud
mortar is weak in strength.
Statement (II) ; Cement mortar enhances
the strength of the bricks relative to mud
M
Strength
mortar.
Ans. (a)
28 days 90 days
103. Statement (I) : Quick-setting cement with Age
S
initial setting time of 5 minutes is used in

underwater constructions.
107. Statement (I) : Addition of admixture
IE
Statement (II) : Aggregate and cement are improves the workability of concrete.
mixed dry, and the mixture is then dumped
in water. Statement (II) : Addition of admixture
increases the strength of concrete.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
104. Statement (I) : Water needed for hydration
decides the quantity of the water to be used 108. Statement (I) : There are two independent
in mortar preparation. elastic constants for an isotropic material.
Statement (II) : Excess water in mortar Statement (II) : All metals at micro-level
reduces its strength. are isotropic.
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)

109. Statement (I) : Mohr’s theory is based on 113. Statement (I) : A simply supported beam
logical arrangement of experimental results. AB of constant EI throughout, when subjected
to pure terminal couples as shown in the
Statement (II) : Mohr’s theory generalizes
figure, will bending into an arc of a circle.
Coulomb’s theory.
Ans. (c) M M
R
A B
110. Statement (I) : The most-suited failure
theory for concrete is maximum shear L
TE
strength theory.
Statement (II ) : Theory of simple bending
Statement (II) : Ductile materials are
establishes relationships from among M, f,
limited by their shear strength.
R, y, E and I.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
AS
111. Statement (I) : In simple bending, strain in
the bent beam varies linearly across the beam M f E
Sol  
depth. I y R
M 1
Statement (II) : As per Hooke’s law, within hence, 
EI R
elastic limit, the stress is proportional to the
for constant M, R will be constant.
M
strain.
Ans. (c) 114. Statement (I) : Concrete of desired strength

can be achieved by weight-batching method.
Sol. The stress is proportional to the strain is
S
Statement (II) : Volume-batching method

valid upto proportional limit not elastic limit. does not take into account bulking of
112. Statement (I) : The failure surface of a aggregates, hence concrete of desired strength
IE
standard cast iron specimen of circular cross- cannot be achieved by volume-batching.

section subjected to torsion is on a helicoidal
surface at 45° to its axis. Ans. (a)
Statement (II) : The failure occurs on a 115. Statement (I) : Hoe is not very advantageous
plane of the specimen subjected to maximum in digging trenches and basements.
tensile stress, and cast iron is weak m
tension. Statement (II) : In a hoe, the digging action
results from the drag of the bucket.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
Sol. Torsion causes shear and shear causes
diagonal tension. Cast iron is brittle and Sol. Hoe is efficient in digging trenches and
weak in tension. basements.

116. Statement (I) : In close-range works of Statement (II) : A squared scheduled
excavation, power shovel is suitable. network drawn after alloocating activity
Statement (II) : Power shovel has greater durations, with consideration of floats that
rigidity and gives greater output than have been originally available, may yet have
the inputs-scheduling pending.
R
draglines.
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
TE
Sol. Power shovels have very low travelling 119. Statement (I) : A dummy job takes zero
speed, hence close range work will be ideal. time to perform.
117. Statement (I) : Reciprocating pump is self- Statement (II) : It is used solely to illustrate
priming. precedence relationship.
AS
Statement (II) : Reciprocating pump is used
Ans. (a)
to pump dirty water in excavations.
Ans. (c) 120. Statement (I) : In resource levelling, project

completion time is not extended provided
there is no constrainst on availability of
Sol. Centrifugal pump will be ideal choice to resources.
M
pump out dirty water in excavation. The

requirement here is low head and high Statement (II) : There is generally a
discharge. constraint against exceeding the project
duration time.
118. Statement (I) : A linked-bar chart is
S
premised on a resource-based scheduled

Ans. (a)
network, and so is unique to the relevant
project. Sol. In resource levelling project completion is
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extended only when there is constraint on

availability of resources

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)
ESE - 2014
Exam Solutions With Detailed Explanation
(Civil Engineering Paper-II (Objective)

Explanation of Civil Engg. Paper-II (ESE - 2014)
SET - A
1. The standard atmospheric pressure is 101.32 Ans. (d)
kPa. The local atmospheric pressure is 91.52
Sol.
R
kPa. If a pressure at a flow path is recorded
as 22.48 kPa (gauge), it is equivalent to
(a) 69.04 kPa (abs) (b) 88.84 kPa (abs)
TE
(c) 114.0 kPa (abs) (d) 123.0 kPa (abs)
Ans. (c) 0.1 m
Sol. Asbolute pressure = local atmospheric

pressure + guage pressure
u = 3.0 sin ( 5y )
AS
= 91.52 + 22.48 kPa
 du 
= 114.0 kPa  =   dy 
 
2. A rectangular ponton has a width of 6 m, a du
length of 12 m, and a draught of 1.5 in fresh = 15 cos(5y),
dy
water (density = 1000 kg/m3). Its draught in  = 0.5 SI unit.
M
sea water having density of 1025 kg/m3 is


(a) 1.04 m (b) 1.24 m
= {15 cos(5y)}
(c) 1.46 m (d) 1.50 m
y  0.05m
Ans. (c) = 16.7 N/m2

S
1
Sol. In both the case mass of water displaced   = 0 for height above y = = 0.1 m
10
will be same,
As,Cos ( 5y ) = 0
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6 × 12 × 1.5 × 1000 = 6 × 12 × h × 1025


h  1.46 m 5y =
2
y = 0.1
3. The velocity distribution in a laminar flow
adjacent to a solid wall is given by u = 3.0 4. A h orizontal ventu rimeter with in let
sin (5y). The velocity of the fluid is 5 poise. diameter of 30 cm and throat diameter of 15
What is the shear stress at a section cm is used to measure the flow of water. The
(i) y = 0.05 m (ii) y = 0.12 m? reading on a differntial manometer connected
to the inlet and the throat is 20 cm of
(a) 16.7 N/m2 and 6.1 N/m2 mercury. If Cd = 0.98, the rate of flow is
(b) 33.4 N/m2 and Zero nearly
(c) 16.7 N/m2 and 12.3 N/m2
(a) 12.5 l/s (b) 25 l/s
(d) 16.7 N/m2 and Zero
(c) 125 l/s (d) 250 l/s

Ans. (c) 
= × (0.1)2 ×10.184 × 103
Sol. Inlet dia = 0.30 m = d1. 4
Throat dia = 0.15 m = d2. = 80 l/s.
Head difference = 20 cm of mercury
R
6. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular
Cd = 0.98. channel of bed width 5 m, the hydraulic
Cd a1a2 radius is equal to
 Q = 2 gh (G  1) h
TE
a1v  a2v (a) 2.5 m (b) 1.25 m
(c) 5 m (d) 2 m
2
 
0.98     0.302  0.152
4  Ans. (b)
 Q =  2  9.81  0.20  12.6 Sol. For most efficient ractangular channel,


AS
0.304  0.154 y B
4 R =   1.25m
2 4
 Q = 0.125 m3/sec = 125 l/s
7. A two-dimensional water jet strikes a fixed
5. In order to estimate the energy loss in a two-dimensional plate at 30° to the normal
pipeline of 1 m diameter through which to the plate. This causes the jet to split into
kerosene of specific gravity 0.80 and dynamic two streams in which the ratio of larger
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viscosity 0.02 poise is to be transported at discharge to smaller discharge is

the rate of 2 m3/s, model tests were conducted
(a) 14.0 (b) 3.0
on a 0.1 m diameter pipe using water at 20°C.
If the absolute viscosity of water at 20°C is (c) 2.0 (d) 1.0
1.00 × 10–2 poise, then the discharge required
S
for the model pipe would be Ans. (b)
(a) 60 l/s (b) 80 l/s Q = Q1 + Q 2

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(c) 120 l/s (d) 160 l/s

1
30°
Ans. (b)
2
Sol. VP =  2.546 m/sec
 2 3
 dP2
4 Q1 Q2
(Re)p = (Re)m (Reynolds law)
Velocity at points 1, 2, 3 are same as
 pV p Dp mVm Dm the plate is frictionless (It can be proved
 p = m appling Bernoulli’s theorem)
0.80 w  2.546  1 w  Vm  0.1 Fx = 0
 1 = 3
0.02  10 1  10
 QV sin 30º = Q2V  Q1V
 Vm = 10.184 m/sec.
 (Q1 + Q2)sin 30º = Q2 – Q1
Required discharge
 Q2 (1 – sin30º) = Q1 (1 + sin 30º)

1  sin 30º (a) No change in the depth of flow
 Q2/Q1 = 3
1  sin 30º (b) Decrease in the depth of flow
(c) Gradually decreasing flow
8. A triangular open channel has a vortex angle
(d) Increase in the depth of flow
of 90° and carries flow at a critical depth of
0.3 m. The discharge in the channel is Ans. (d)
R
(a) 0.41 m3/s (b) 0.11 m3/s Sol. Due to extreme cold when canal surface
(c) 0·21 m3/s (d) 0.31m3/s freezes the wetted perimeter wll increase.
 For same discharge the area of flow has
TE
Ans. (b)
to increase
Sol. For critical flow condition,  depth of flow will increase.
Q2T
= 1, T = 2yc = 0.6 11. Consider the following statements regarding
gA 3 a gradually varied flow in a prismatic open
A = 0.5 × 0.6 × 0.3 = 0.09 channel:
AS
9.81  (0.09)3 1. Total energy line remains parallel to the
Q2 =
0.6 water surface.
Q  0.11 m3 / sec 2. The rate of energy loss at the section is
inversely proportional to dx where d is
9. At a hydraulic jump the depths at the two flow depth with index x.
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sides are 0.3 m and 1.4 m. The head loss in 3. In analyzing the flow, the energy equation
the jump is nearly of flow is not applicable.
(a) 1.0 m (b) 0.95 m 4. Pressure distribution at every section can
be assumed to be hydrostatic.
(c) 0.79 m (d) 0.45 m
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Ans. (c)
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
( y2  y1 )3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and’3
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Sol. EL =
4 y1 y2
Ans. (b)
(1.4  0.3)3
EL =
4  1.4  0.3 1
Sol. Q = AR2/5S1/2
f
EL  0.79 m n
2
 Qn  d (hf )
10. It is expected that due to extreme cold   =
weather, the entire top surface of canal  AR2/3  d( x )
carrying water will be covered’ with ice sheet dhf (Qn)2 (Qn )2 Qn2
=  
for some days. If the discharge in the canal dx ( AR2/3 )2 ( Bd ) (d )2/3 Bdx5/3
were to remain unaltered, this condition 1
would lead to  Rate of energy loss 
dx5/3
Also due to smaller slope of water surface line

or stream line having less slope, normal CV K
acceleration can be neglected. Head = , Now, C =
g 
 Pressure distribution can be taken as
hydrostatic V K
 Pressure head =
R
g 
12. In a laminar flow through a circular pipe of
diameter 200 mm, the maximum velocity is 14. A centrifugal pump lifts 100 l/s of a liquid
found to be 1 mls. The velocity at a radial against a net head of 150 kPa. The brake
TE
distance of 50 mm from the axis of the pipe power required is 18.0 kW when the liquid is
will be water with a specific weight of 9·8 kN/m3.
(a) 0.50 m/s (b) 0.25 m/s What would be the brake power if the liquid
is a solvent having a relative density of 0.8
(c) 0.75 m/s (d) 1.25 m/s
instead of water, with alI other factors
AS
Ans. (c) remaining the same as before?
Sol. We know for laminar flow through a circular (a) 14.4 kW (b) 18.0 kW
pipe, (c) 22.5 kW (d) 17.2 kW
 r2  Ans. (a)
u = Umax 1  2 
 R 
Sol. All the other factors remaining same brake
M
 502  power  specific weight. Brake power,

u = 1 × 1  
 1002  required in second case
 2500  3 = 0.8 × 18 kW = 14.4 kw.
u = 1    m / sec .
 10000  4 15. For circular cylinders, with Reynolds number
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u  0.75,sec greater than 1000, how would the Strouhal

number behave?
13. A liquid of density  and bulk modulus K
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(a) Varies as Re1/6 (b) Varies as Re1/4

flows with a mean velocity V in a long rigid
pipe of diameter D. A sudden closure of a (c) Almost  0.16 (d) Constant at 0.21
valve at the downstream end of the pipe will
produce a maximum water hammer head of Ans. (d)
V  V g 0.47
(a) (b) Smooth
g K  K 0.4 surface
St 0.3
V K V
(c) (d) 0.2
g  gK 0.1 Rough surface
2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. (c) 10 10 10 10 10 10
Sol. Water hammer pressure in rigid pipe in R
rapid clossure case = CV

16. A centrifugal pump has its impeller of 50 cm
diameter at inlet, and it rotates at 1200 rpm.

The tangential velocity of the impeller at the 18. In a Francis turbine, the runner blades are
inlet is radial at the inlet and the discharge leaves
the runner radially at the exit. For this
(a) 16  m/s (b) 10  m/s
turbine
(c) 12  m/s (d) 100  m/s
(a) The relative velocity is radial at the outlet
Ans. (b) (b) The absolute velocity is radial at the outlet
R
(c) The guide vane angle is 90°
DN
Sol. Tangential velocity = (d) The velocity.of flow is constant
60
TE
  50  12005102 Ans. (b)
=
60
= 10 m/sec. 19. Consider the following statements
1. The normal annual rainfall of a station is
17. The following data were noted from an
obtained as the arithmetic average of the
irrigation field :
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successive annual rainfall in the last 30
1. Field capacity = 20% years.
2. Permanent wilting point = 10% 2. The “normal rainfalls” are updated by
3. Permissible depletion of available soil deleting the needful number of oldest
moisture = 50% years’ data from the record and adding
the needful number of most recent years’
4. Dry unit weight of soil = 15 kN/m3
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data to the record.

5 Effective rainfall = 50 mm
3. The standard deviation computed for the
The net irrigation requirement per metre rainfall of the same 30 years of rainfall
depth of soil will be data is taken as a measure of the
variability of the rainfall during the self-
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(a) 75mm (b) 125 mm same set of years.

(c) 50 mm (d) 25 mm 4. If the observed rainfall in any year is less
than the current normal annual rainfall,
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Ans. (d) then that year is called a dry year.

Sol. Total irrigation water required per cycle
(Unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3)
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
15
= 0.5×(0.2–0.1)× ×1000 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
10
15 Ans. (b)
= 0.05 × × 1000
10
= 75 mm 20. The double mass analysis is adopted to
Supplied by rainfall = 50 mm. (a) Estimate the missing rainfall data
Net requirement = 25 mm. (b) Obtain intensities of rainfall at various
durations

(c) Check the consistency of data Sol.
(d) Obtain the amount of storage needed to  Peak discharge of DRH = 300 – 20
maintain a demand pattern = 280 m3/s
 Direct runoff = 6 – 2 = 4 cm
R
Ans. (c)
 The peak value of 4 hr unit hydrograph
21. The successive annual rainfall magnitudes
at a place for a period of 10 years from 2001 280
=  70 m3 /s
TE
to 2010, both inclusive, are 30.3, 41.0, 33.5, 4
34.0, 33.3, 36.2, 33.6, 30.2, 35.5 and 36.3 cm.
23. The rainfall on 5 successive days in a
The mean and median values of this annual
catchment was 2, 7, 8, 4, and 3 cm. If the 
rainfall series are, respectively
index for the storm is 3 cm/day, the total
(a) 33.8 cm and 34.39 cm direct runoff volume generated from a 195
AS
(b) 34·39 cm and 33·8 cm km2 catchment is
(c) 34.39 cm and 40.2 cm (a) 19.5 Mm3 (b) 23.4 Mm3
(d) 33·8 cm and 40.2 cm (c) 15.6 Mm3 (d) 32.5 Mm3
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)

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Sol. Sol. Total direct runoff

 Mean value = = 195 × 106 × (0 + 4 + 5 + 1) × 10–2
30.3  41  33.5  34.0  33.3  36.2 = 19.5 × 106 m3
x  33.6  30.2  35.5  36.3 = 19.5 Mm3

n 10
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24. The best estimate of runoff represented by

= 34.39 cm
57 mm of runoff depth from a basin area
 If we arrange the variables in decreasing 3300 km2 is nearly
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order then we get. 41.0, 36.3, 36.2, 35.5,

34, 33.6, 33.5, 33.3, 30.3, 30.2 (a) 2300 cumec-days (b) 2225 cumec-days
(c) 2175 cumec-days (d) 2020 cumec-days
 Median = (34+33.6)/2 = 33.8 cm
Ans. (c)
22. The peak magnitude of a flood hydrograph
during 4-hr study duration over a catchment Sol. Best estimated runoff
is 300 m3/s. The total depth of rainfall is 6 3300  106  57  103
=
cm; and the infiltration loss during the said 24  60  60
4-hr period is 2 cm. A constant uniform base = 2177 cumec-days
flow of 20 m3/s is premised throghout. The
peak value of the corresponding 4-hr unit 25. ‘The probability of a 10-year flood to occur at
hydrograph is“ least once in the next,5 years is
(a) 75 m3/s (b) 70 m3/s (a) 35% ‘(b) 41%

(c) 50 m3/s (c) 40 m3/s (c) 60% (d) 65%
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)

1 Ans. (d)
Sol. = 1 – (1 – p)n P =  0.1
10 Sol. Irrigation water requirement
= 1 – (1 – 0.1)5 n = 5
14.70
= 1– 0.95 = 0.4 × (0.3 – 0.1) ×  103
9.8
= 41%
14.70
= 0.08   103 = 120 mm
R
26. That extreme flood that is physically possible 9.8
in a region from a severe-most combination,  Net irrigation requirement = 120 – 30
including rare combination of meteorological = 90 mm
TE
and hydrological factors, is designated as the
29. A lift irrigation scheme using a discharge of
(a) Design flood 96 m3/hr is planned to raise a crop with an
(b) Standard project flood average  of 0·375 m. Intensity of irrigation
(c) Probable maximum flood is 60%. Assuming 3600 hours of working of
(d) Flash flood the tubewell for a year, the culturable
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command area is
Ans. (c)
(a) 96 Ha (b) 48 Ha
27. When 3.5 million m3 of water was pumped (c) 144 Ha (d) 120 Ha
out from an unconfined aquifer of 6·3 km2
area extent, the water table was observed to Ans. (c)
go down by 2.5 m. The specific yield of the
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Sol. Apply mass cconservation,

aquifer is best approximated is 0.375 × 0.6 × A × 104 = 3600 × 96
(a) 32% (b) 28% A  153.6 ha
(c) 25% (d) 22%
30. A field measures 40 hectares. When 8 cumecs
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Ans. (d) of water was supplied for 6 hours, 30 cm of

water was stored in the root zone. The field
Sol. Considering volumetric approach Specific
application efficiency is nearly
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3.5  106 (a) 70% (b) 80%

yield =
6.3  106  2.5 (c) 85% (d) 90%
Specific yield = 22%
Ans. (a)
28. For an irrigated field having: Field capacity
= 30%, Permanent wilting point = 10%, Sol. Field application efficiency
Permissible depletion of available moisture
0.30  40  104
= 40%, Dry weight of soil = 14·70 kN/m3 Unit =  100 = 70%
weight of water = 9’8 kN/m3 and Effective 8  6  3600
rainfall = 30 mm, what is the net irrigation 31. A direct runoff hydrograph due to a storm
requirement per meter depth of soil? idealized into a triangular shape has a peak
(a) 300 mm (b) 150 mm flow rate of 60 m3/s occurring at 25 hours
(c) 120 mm (d) 90 mm from its start. If the base width of this
hydrograph is 72 hours, and the catchment

area is 777.6 km2, the runoff from the storm Ans. (b)
is
Sol. The water table falls 0.2 m. Soil mass under
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm water table is fully saturated, hence water
(c) 5 cm (d) 10 cm loss = yielded water
R
= 0.15 × 0.2 × 100 × 106 = 3 Mm3
Ans. (a)
34. Ground water flows through an aquifer with
Sol. Applying mass conservation, a cross-sectional area of 1.0 × 104 m2 and a
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777.6 × 106 × h = 0.5 × 60 × 72 × 3600 length of 1500 m. Hydraulic heads are 300
h = 0.01 m = 1 cm m and 250 m at the ground water entry and
exit points in the aquifer respectively. Ground
32. A tubewell of 30 cm diameter penetrates fully water discharge into stream is at the rate of
into an artesian aquifer. The strainer length 1500 m3/day. The corresponding hydraulic
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is 15 m. The yield from the well under a conductivity of this aquifer will be
drawdown of 3 m through the aquifer
(a) 3.5 m/day (b) 4.5 m/day
consisting of sand of effective size of 0·2 mm
and coefficient of permeability of 50 m/day, (c) 5.0 m/day (d) 5.5 m/day
with radius of drawdown of 150 m, is nearly
Ans. (b)
(a) 240 l/s (b) 120 l/s
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50
(c) 24 l/s (d) 12 l/s Sol. Q = kiA 1500 = K   1  104
1500
Ans. (c)  K = 4.5 m/day
35. Consider a wide rigid-boundary canal with

2 kb (h3  h1 )
S
Sol. q = bed slope of 0.004, Manning’s n = 0.18, and

R depth of flow = 0.88 m. The average boundary
ln  
r shear stress will be
IE
 50  (a) 17.2 N/mm2 (b) 18.2 N/mm2

2     15  3
 86400  (c) 19.2 N/mm2 (d) 16.2 N/mm2
q =
 150 
ln  
 0.15  Ans. (*)
q  23.6 l /s Sol. max = w RS
33. An unconfined aquifer of porosity 35%, max = 9.81 × 0.88 × 0.004 × 103
permeability 40 m/day, and specific yield of max = 34.53 N/mm2
0.15 has an area of 100 km2. If the water
table falls uniformly throughout the aquifer 36. If the direction of advance of a storm is the
area by 0·2 m during a drought, the volume same as the direction of the resulting runoff
of water lost from storage is in the drainage basin, such runoff will
(a) 1.5 Mm3 (b) 3.0 Mm3 generally
(c) 7.0 Mm3 (d) 8.0 Mm3 (a) Be more than the ‘rational’ runoff through
a short time

(b) Result in increased infiltration through a V2
short time Sol. R = 2.5
f
(c) Be less than the ‘rational’ runoff through
0.882
a short time R= 2.5 
1.1
(d) Result in increased evaporation, as also
R = 1.76 m
transpiration, loss
R
40. At the base of a gravity dam section, the
Ans. (a) vertical stress at the toe was found to be 2.4
MPa. If the downstream face of the dam has
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37. In a Lacey regime channel : a slope of 0.707 horizontal: 1 vertical, and if
there is no tail water, the maximum principal
1. The bed load is zero
stress at the toe of the dam is
2. The suspended load is zero
3. The bed slope is a function of the full (a) 1.7 MPa (b) 2.4 MPa
supply discharge and the silt size (c) 3.6 MPa (d) 4.8 MPa
AS
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans. (c)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only 0
Ans. (b) 
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38. A regime canal carries silt of median size

0.25 mm. The Lacey’s silt factor of this silt is 2.4
(a) 0.66 (b) 0.88
(c) 0.44 (d) 0.22
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90–
Ans. (b)
1
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tan  =  2
Sol. f = 1.76 0.25 0.707
f  0.88     = 54.7356°
 
39. A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has a  – 2.4 =  cos 2 [ (90  )]  0
2 2
velocity of 0.88 m/sec. The silt factor is 1.1.
Then hydraulic mean depth will be              = 3.6 MPa
(a) 1.95 m (b) 1.76 m 41. The top width and the bottom width at river
(c) 1.63 m (d) 1.50 m thalweg level of a concrete gravity dam are
6 m and 24 m respectively. The vertical
Ans. (b) section of the dam at the thalweg alignment
is 38 m above the thalweg. The upstream

face is vertical and the depth of water on the found to be 120 mg/l. If the value of carbonate
upstream side is 36 m. The moment of hardness is 50 mg/l, the non-carbonate
hydrostatic force about the toe at that level hardness and alkalinity are, respectively
is
(a) 170 mg/l and 70 mg/l
R
(a) 77760 kN-m (b) 25292 kN-m (b) 170 mg/l and 50 mg/l
(c) 6480 kN-m (d) 51840 kN-m. (c) 70 mg/l and 50 mg/l
(d) 50 mg/l and 70 mg/l
TE
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
36
Sol. M = 0.5× (36 × 9.81) × 36 × Sol. NCH = TH – CH= (120 – 50) mg/l
3
= 70 mg/l
M  76282.56 kNm
Alkalinity = Min {CH, TH} = 50 mg/l
AS
42. Which of the following outlets are of semi- 45. Population levels over 5 decades of a small
modular type? town are given below.
1. Khanna’s module Year Population
2. Adjustable proportional module 1960 2,50,000
3. Submerged pipe outlet
M
1970 2,80,000
4. Open flume outlet 1980 3,40,000
5. Kennedy’s gauge outlet
1990 4,20,000
(a) 2,4 and 5 (b) 1,2 and 4
2000 4,90,000
(c) 2,3 and 5 (d) 3,4 and 5
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The population of the town in the year 2020

Ans. (a) estimated by Arithmetic Increase method will
be
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43. If the channel index at an irrigation outlet is

5/3, “setting” of an orifice type outlet .in order (a) 5,10,000 (b) 5,90,000
to have proportionality is (c) 6,10,000 (d) 6,90,000
(a) 0.90 (b) 0.67 Ans. (c)

(c) 0.30 (d) 0.15
Sol. Average increase per decade
Ans. (c) 90000  60000  80000  70000
=
4
1 = 60000
Sol. For orifice type outlet m =
2 Thus, P2020 = P2000 + 2 × 60000
H 1 3 = 4,90,000 + 1,20,000
 Setting =    0.3
D 2 5 = 6,10,000
44. The total hardness value obtained from the 46. The dissolved oxygen in a water sample is
complete analysis of a water sample was
generally estimated by modified Winkler

method. Accordingly, approximately 200 ml the filter and its underdrainage system to
volume of dissolved-oxygen-fixed solution the nearest approximation?
shall be titrated with
(a) 10 and 0.032 sq.m
(a) Sodium thiosulphate reagent using soluble (b) 11 and 0.022 sq.m
starch as an indicator (c) 12 and 0.045 sq.m
(b) Sodium thiosulphate reagent using ferroin (d) 15 and 0.062 sq.m
R
as an indicator
(c) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reagent Ans. (a)
using soluble starch as an indicator
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(d) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reagent Sol. Q = 1 MLD = 1 × 106 l/d
using ferroin as an indicator
Rate of filtration = 4000 l/hr/m2
Ans. (a) 106
1 l /hr
Size of filter = 24 = 10.42 m2
47. A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of 2
4000 l /hr/m
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water per day. If it consumes 20 kg chlorine
per day, then the chlorine dosage would be  10 m2
Size of underdrainage system
(a) 3.00 mg/l (b) 3.75 mg/l
(c) 4.25 mg/l (d) 3.33 mg/l = 0.3% of size of filter
= 0.03 m2
Ans. (d)
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50. Consider the following statements in respect

20 kg 6
20  10 mg of injecting chlorine between rapid sand filter
Sol. Dosage = 3
 and storage tank :
6000 m 6000  103 l
= 3.33 mg/l 1. More contact time is available.
2. Chlorine demand is reduced.
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48. When a turbid stream flows into the ocean, 3. NHCl2 is formed which is more effective
the ionic content of the water increases than residual chlorine.
drastically. This causes coagulation and
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4. Break point chlorination takes place.

settling which leads to formation of deposits
(deltas). Such coagulation mechanism is Which of the above statements are correct ?
called
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Adsorption and charge neutralization ‘ (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(b) Interparticle bridging
(c) Ionic layer compression Ans. (c)
(d) Sweep coagulation
51. What is the settling velocity of a discrete
Ans. (c) particle in a wide body of water when the
relevant Reynolds number is less than 0·5 ?
49. A rapid sand filter for a town with water The diameter and specific gravity of the
requirement of 1 MLD is to be provided with particle are 2×10–3 cm and 2.65, respectively.
rate of filtration at 4000 l/hr/m 2, with Water temperature is 20°C. (Kinematic
backwash system. What would be the size of

viscosity = 2 × 10–2 cm2/sec)
95  106  300
(a) 0.018 cm/sec (b) 0.025 cm/sec Sol. Population equivalent =
75
(c) 0.18 cm/sec (d) 0·25 cm/sec = 380 × 106
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Ans. (a) 54. As per Manual on Sewerage and Sewage
Treatment, Central Public Health and
Sol. Re < 0.5 Environmental Engineering Organization,
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 Stokes equation can be applied Ministry of Urban Development, Government
(  s   w ) d2 of India, when a sewer connects with another
 Vs = sewer having a difference of 600 mm in level
18 
between the water lines (peak flow levels) of
(2.65  1)  9.81  (2  105 )2 main line and the invert level of branch line,
=
18  2  102  10 4 the connection may be provided using a
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= 0.018 cm/sec (a) Side entrance manhole
52. If the length dimension of a square filter bed (b) Junction manhole
increases to two times (while the rate of (c) Flushing manhole
filtration remains unchanged), the amount (d) Drop manhole
of water filtered would become
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Ans. (d)
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times
(c) 1 time (d) 16 times Sol. A manhole which is constructed to connect
the high level branch sewer (> 0.6m) to the
Ans. (a) low level main sewer by vertical dropping
pipe is known as drop manhole.
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Sol. Let ROF = x l/d/m2

Now, for a square filter, if length dimension 55. In an aerobic attached-culture system, the
becomes two times, the area will become biomass present at the biofilm-medium
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four times. Hence amount of water filtered surface interface experiences

= ROF × Area (a) Aerobic and endogenous metabolism
= x × 4A = 4 times the initial amount (b) Anaerobic and exogenous metabolism
53. If the average sewage .from a city is 95 × 106 (c) Anaerobic and endogenous metabolism
l/day and the average 5-day BOD is 300 (d) Aerobic and exogenous metabolism
mg/l against a standard of 75 mg/day per
capita at 20°C, th en the population Ans. (c)
equivalent, of the city will be
56. A sewage sludge has a water content of 99%.
(a) 28,500 (b) 285 × 106
What will be the concentration of suspended
(c) 3,80,000 (d) 380 × 106 solids in the sludge?
Ans. (d) (a) 10 mg/l (b) 100 mg/l

(c) 1000 mg/l (d) 10,000 mg/l
Ans. (d)

Sol. Given moisture content = 99% of sludge BOD = (DOi  DOf )  D.F
 Now, as sp.gr. of wet sludge is not given {in Corrosion is caused by acidic water. This
general it is approximately 1.03} we assume has no relation with DO as DO is used by
it to be bacteria to oxidize only organic matter (bio
degradable). This does not in any way
Hen ce 100 kg wet sludg e makes
change the pH content of water.
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100 kg
= 0.1 m3 volume of wet 58. The major source of ‘Carbon monoxide’ in
1  1000 kg / m3
the urban atmosphere is due to
sludge.
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(a) Decomposition of organics
 Con centration of suspended solid
(b) Chamical reaction between VOC and NOx
1 kg 1  106 mg (c) Incomplete combustion of fuel
=  = 1×104 mg/l
0.1 m3 0.1  103 l (d) Incomplete combustion in the presence of
sunlight
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57. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (c)
1. The quality of waste water is determined
on the basis of DO. Sol. Chief source of CO in urban atmosphere is
2. The BOD test is based on DO. incomplete combustion of fuel i.e., especially
3. Determination of DO helps in controlling due to automobile exhaust.
corrosion.
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59. Consider the following statements relting

Which of the above statements are correct? zones of atmosphere to altitude
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Temperature decreases with altitude in
troposphere.
2. Speed of sound decreases with altitude in
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Ans. (b)
troposphere.
Sol. Dissolved oxygen in water bodies is vital for 3. Temperature increases with altitude in
survial of living beings such as fishes, stratosphere.
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aquatic plants etc. If biodegradable organics 4. Ozone is present in stratosphere which

is present in water, bacteria tend to oxidise protects peoples from harmful effects of
it and grow in number utilizing this DO. solar radiation.
More the amount of organic matter, more
will be the depletion of DO by bacteria. Thus, Which of the above statement are correct?
the quality of wastewater can be indirectly (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
determined on the basis of DO.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
BOD or biochemical oxygen demand is a
method of determining the quality of water Ans. (d)
and this test is based on the DO.

Sol. (a) Filtration
(b) Electrostatic precipitation
Thermosphere (c) Impaction
100
(d) Gravitational setting
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80 Ans. (b)
Altitude (km)
Mesosphere Sol. In electrostatic precipitators, the emitted gas
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(flue gas) is passed through a highly ionised
50
atmosphere (high-voltage field); and there
Stratosphere in that zone particulates get electrically
charged with the result that they get
10 separated out from the gaseous stream with
the help of electrostatic forces.
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Troposhere
61. A soil sample has a void ratio of 0.5; its
Temp (°C)
porosity will be
Sound wave propagates through vibration. (a) 50% (b) 66%
In atmosphere, the molecules of air are not (c) 100% (d) 33%
physically connected but they still vibrate
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under influence of sound wave. The speed Ans. (d)

of sound is directly related to frequency at
which these molecular collision occur and
Sol. Gas
that frequency is directly related to density VV = eVS
of how those molecules are packed. The = 0.5 VS
S
density of atmosphere decreases with Liquid

altitu de an d h en c e speed of sou n d
decreases.
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VS Solid
The ozone layer acts as a filter for Ultra-
Violet (UV) r adiation from the sun.
Therefore, this process serves as a protective VV 0.5 VS 1
n =    0.33  33%
shield to human life against the adverse V 1.5 VS 3
effects of UV like burn and some types of
skin cancer. It is obvious that any depletion 62. A sample of sand has a volume of 1000 ml in
of stratospheric ozone would be harmful to its natural state. Its minimum volume when
life on this earth. Hence, ozone layer is compacted is 750 ml. When gently poured
termed as ozone umbrella. into a measuring cylinder, its possible
maximum volume is 1320 ml. What is the
60. The principle involved in collection and relative density?
sampling fo particulate matter in which the
particles are drawn through a device by (a) 56 (b) 52
deflecting them from their original paths is (c) 58 (d) 60
called
Ans. (a)

Sol. V = 1000 ml Sol. Permeability increases with increases in
Vmin = 750 ml moisture content upto 80% of moisture
content. Beyond that it becomes independent
Vmax = 1320 ml
of moisture content.
Vv
e = Void ratio = V Natural moisture content of marine clay
s
varies from 39% to 129%
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Here, VS = constant for all conditions only
VV changes. 64. A saturated specimen is mercury and
displaced volume was 21.8 cc. The weight of
Let Vs = x {VV = VS = V}
the sample was 32.2 gm. After oven drying
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Vv V  Vs V for 48 hours, weight reduced to 20.2 gm while
 e = V  V  1
s s Vs volume came down to 11.6 cc. The shrinkage
1000 limit of the soil is
For natural state, e = 1
x (a) 7.9% (b) 8.0%
1320 (c) 8.9% (d) 9.8%
For max compacted state, emax = 1
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x
Ans. (c)
750
For min compacted, emin = 1
x
Sol. Given, V1 = 21.8 cc
emax  e
 R.D = e  100%
max  emin W = 32.2 gm
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1320  1000  WS = 20.2 gm

  1    1
 x   x   100% Vd = 11.6 cc
=  1320   750 
  1    1 (V1 – V d) WS = 20.2 gm
 x   x 
320 Air
S
W1 = 32.2 gm
V1 = 21.8 cc
water
x
Vd = 11.6 cc
= 570  100%  56.14% Water Air

X
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Solid Solid Solid

63. Consider the the following statements:
Original soil Soil at Over dried
1. Knowledge about, moisture content is shrinkage limit soil
necesary to determine permeability.
Water content at shrinkage limit
2. Some typical marine clay may have
moisture content as high as 400%. WW
3. Sand-bath method of moisture content S.L = WS
determination is not suitable for soils
containing organic matter. WW = W1 – WS – (V1 – Vd) w
Which of the above statements are correct? = 32.2 – 20.2 – (21.8 – 11.6) × 1
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only = 1.8 gm
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only WW 1.8
S.L = W =  8.91 %
S 20.2
Ans. (d)

65. A sand sample has a bulk density of 20 Sol. T T
kN/m3 and a degree of saturation of 70%. If  
the specific gravity of soil grains is 2.65,
the value of critical hydraulic gradient for
the soil will be
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(a) 1.02 (b) 1.05
(c) 1.10 (d) 1.15
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Ans. (c)
d 2
 h w = T cos   d
 G  Se  4
Sol. t =  1  e  w 4T cos 
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 
 h = w d
 2.65  0.7  e  Thus capillary height is dependent on pore
20 =  1e   10 size and hence empirical formula has to be
  used
C h A eB (D10 )B
2.65  0.7 e h = e D  h  e (D )
 = 2
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10 B A 10 A
1e
 eB   (D10 )B  1
 2.65 + 0.7 e = 2 + 2e =  e  (D )   2  3  1.5
 A   10 A 
 1.3 e = 0.65
67. Compression index developed by Casagrande is
0.65
S
 e =  0.5
1.3 (a) Cv = 0.009 (LL + 10%)
(b) Cv = 0.009 (LL – 10%)
G  1 2.65  1.65 (c) Cv = 0.0009 (LL + 10%)
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 ic=    1.1
1  e 1  0.5 1.5 (d) Cv = 0.0009 (LL – 10%)
66. The void ratio of a given soil A is twice that
Ans. (b)
the another soil B, while the effective size of
particles of soil A is one-third of that of soil
68. When a structural load is applied on a soil
B. The ratio of height of capillary rise of
stratum, which of the following soil types will
water in soil A to that in soil B will be
have the minimum settlement?
(a) 0.67 (b) 1.0
(a) Over-consolidated clay stratum
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
(b) Clayey silt stratum
Ans. (c) (c) Normaly consolidated clay stratum
(d) Sandy clay stratum
Ans. (a)

69. Consider the following statements: pressure and also decreases the passive
earth resistance of the soil.
1. The water content of a soil remains
unchanged during the entire duration of 3. Wall friction decreases the active earth
a ‘quick’ test. pressure and increases the passive earth
resistance of the soil.
2. Effective stress cum shear parameters of
clay can be obtained from drained triaxial Which of the above statement is/are correct?
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shear test.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Strain-controlled shear test is good option
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
since this test procedure maintains better
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control on the rate of loading than other
Ans. (d)
tests.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 72. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only 1. Uniform surcharge increases active earth
pressure even as it decreases passive
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resistance.
Ans. (a) 2. For analyzing the conditions at a
masonary gravity wall, application of
70. Consider the following statements: Coulomb’s theory of earth pressure is
preferrd.
1. The static cone penetration test is
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unsuitable for layered deposits of sands, 3. Culmann’s method is applicable to a

silts and clays. stratified backfil; whereas Poncelet’s
method is not.
2. The results of groundwater investigation
are recorded as water-table contours over Which of the above statements are correct?
the site.
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(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

3. Closed piezometers are used to measure
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
pore water pressure in soils having low
permeability.
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Ans. (c)
Which of the above statement are correct? Sol. Uniform surcharge increases both active and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only passive earth pressure
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 73. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (a) 1. In the case of footings on purely cohesive
soils, the benefit due to surcharge or depth
71. Consider the following statements: of foundation is only marginal.
2. The bearing capacity of a footing in pure
1. According to Terzaghi, the average angle
clay may be increased by increasing its
of wall friction may be taken equal to two-
size.
thirds of the respective angle of internal
friction. 3. Facter of safety should be applied only to
the net ultimate bearing capacity.
2. Wall friction increases the active earth

Which of the above statements are correct? FOS = 6
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only 25  80
=  90.09 kN
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 6  (1.2  2.5)
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Ans. (d)
1. Initial load tests and routine load tests
74. The gross bearing capacity of a footing is are carried out on test piles and working
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450 kN/m2. If the footing is 1.5 m wide and piles, respectively.
is at a depth of 1 m a clayey soil which has 2. In a pile test, the allowable load can be
a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, then the net taken equal to half the ultimate load at
bearing capacity is which the total settlement amounts to one-
tenth of the pile diameter.
(a) 410 kN/m2 (b) 420 kN/m2
3. In a pile load test, the allowable load can
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(c) 430 kN/m2 (d) 440 kN/m2 be taken equal to two- thirds of the total
load wich causes a plastic settlement of 6
Ans. (c) mm.
Sol. qg = 450 kN/m2
Whcih of the above statements are correct?
qn = qg – Df
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
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= 450 – 20 × 1.0
= 430 kN/m2
75. A drop hammer is used to drive a wooden Ans. (a)

pile. The hammer weight is 25 kN. and its Sol.
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free falling height is 0.8 m. The penetration Initial test are carried out on test pile

in the las blow is 12 mm. What is the nearest to asses tha alowable load or to check
approximation to the load carrying capacity the settlement at working load.
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of the pile according to the Engineering News

 Where as routine tests are carried out
Formula?
on working piles for the assessment of
(a) 125 kN (b) 110 kN settlement under working load.
(c) 3000 kN (d) 90 kN Allowable load on single shall be
minimum of the following cases: As per
Ans. (d) IS - 2911 part IV.
Sol. W = 2 kN (i) 50% of the ultimate load at which
h = 0.8 m = 80 cm total settlement is equal to the 1/10
S = 12 mm = 1.2 cm of the diameter of pile.
As per engineering news formula, (ii) 2/3rd of the load at which total
W.h settlement is 12 mm.
Qallowable = (iii) 2/3 rd of the load at which net
FOS (S  C)
settlement is 6 m (i.e . total
C = 2.5 cm for drop hammer
settlement - elastic settlement).

77. A theodolite was set up at P and the angle
Sol. A = r 2
of elevation to the top of a mobile tower ST
was 30º. The staff reading held at a station 0.05
dA = 2r dr  2 80  
of RL 110 m was 2.555 m, the telescope being 2
horizontal. The horizontal distance between
the foot of the tower and the instrument = + 12.56 m2.
station is 810 m. The RL of the top of the
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79. The length of a survey line when measured
tower is with a chain of 20 m nominal length was
(a) 578.25 m (b) 579.50 m found to be 841.5 m. If the chain used is 0.1
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(c) 580.25 m (d) 582.40 m m too long, the correct length of the measured
line is
Ans. (c) (a) 845.7 m (b) 837.39 m
Sol. (c) 843.6 m (d) 839.4 m
A
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Ans. (a)
h Sol. 20 m used for actual 20.1 m
30º
2.555m 20.1
841.5 m.............  841.5
20
= 845.7 m
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RL = 110 m
810 m
80. In a cross staff survey, the perpendicular
h offsets are taken on right and left of the chain
Tan 30º = line AD as shown in figure - all values are in
810
1 ‘meters’. The area enclosed by ABCDEFA,
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 H = 810 × computed by trapezoidal method is

3
 RL of top of tower = RL of station +
F(40) m
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staff reading + h
E(30) m
810
= 110 + 2.555 +
3 30 m 45 m
= 580.208 m. A0m 35 m 65 m D 90 m
78. The measured radius of a circle is 80 m with
a possible error of 0.05 m in its diameter. B (20) m
The error in the computed area will nearly C (30) m
be
(a) + 6.5 m2 (b) – 0.65 m2 (a) 3650 m2 (b) 3200 m2
(c) + 12.6 m2 (d) + 8.2 m2 (c) 3475 m2 (d) 3500 m2
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)

Sol. (c) A is 0.4825 m below B
(d) B is 0.5825 m below A
Ans. (c)
F (40 m)
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E (30 m)
Sol. 2.645 m
6 5 4 2.30 m
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30 m 45 m
A D A
35 m 65 m B
(0 m) 1 2
(90 m)
3
1.665 m 1.085 m
B
(20 m)
C A B
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(30 m)
True difference of level between A and B
1
Area of (1) = × 30 × 20 = 300 m2
2 (2.645  2.30)  ( 1.085  1.665)
1 = 0.4625
Area of (2) = ×(20 + 30) × 15 = 375m2 2
2
A is below B
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1
Area of (3) = × 30 × 45 = 675m2
2 82. A plane, which is perpendicualar to the
1 plumb line through a point and is tangential
Area of (4) = × 25 × 30 = 375m2
2 to the level surface at that point is called a
1
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Area of (5) = ×(40 + 30)×30 = 1050m2 (a) Tangential plane (b) Vertical plane
2
1 (c) Level plane (d) Horizontal plane
Area of (6) = × 30 × 45 = 700m2
2
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 Area of ABCDEFA = 3475 m2 Ans. (d)
81. In levelling between two points A and B on 83. The magnetic bearing of a line is 55º 30 
the opposite sides of a river, the level was
first set up near A and the staff readings on and the magnetic declination is 4º 30  east.
A and B were 2.645 m an d 2.30 m The true bearing of a line will be
respectively. The level was then moved near
(a) 60º (b) 34º 30 
B and set up; the respective staff readings
then were 1.085 m and 1.665 m on B and A (c) 49º 30  (d) 51º
respectively. What is the true difference of
level between A and B? Ans. (a)
(a) A and B are at same level
(b) A is 0.5825 m below B

Sol. Ans. (c)
TN MN Sol. RADAR (Radio Detection And Ranging) is
AB an object detention system that uses radio
0
 waves to determine the range, direction or
30
º3
55
4º
speed of object. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
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86. The observations made over the same area
on different dates to monitor ground features
like crop growth is called
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(a) Temporal resolution
(b) Radiometric resolution
(c) Spatial resolution
True bearing of line AB
(d) Spectral resolution
= 55º 30  + 4º 30 
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= 60º Ans. (a)
84. Staff reading on the floor of a verandah of a 87. In a transit theodolite, any incidental error
school building is 1.815 m and staff reading due to eccentricity of verniers is primarily
when held with bottom of staff touching the counteracted by
ceiling over the verandah is 2.870 m. R.L. of
the floor is 74.500 m. Height of the ceiling (a) Reading both the verniers
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above floor is (b) Reading different part of main scale

(c) Reading right and left faces
(a) 4.270 m (b) 4.685 m
(d) Taking both right swing readings
(c) 3.955 m (d) 4.920 m
Ans. (a)
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Ans. (b)
Sol. Height of cieling above floor 88. In setting up the plane table at a station P,
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= (1.815 + 2.870) m the corresponding point on the plan was not

= 4.685 m acc urately c entred above P. If the
displacement of P was 50 cm in a direction
85. Consider the following parameters in respect perpendicular to the ray, how much on the
of RADAR principle: plan would be the consequent displacement
of a point from its true position if the scale
1. It is an active sensing system.
was 1 cm = 10 m?
2. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength
is in centimeter range. (a) 5 mm (b) 1 mm
3. It operates in visible region. (c) 0.5 mm (d) 0.05 mm
4. It comprises Radio detection and ranging.
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (c)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Sol. 1 cm = 10 m
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4  10 m on ground = 1 cm on plan

10 × 100 cm on ground = 1 × 10 mm on plan This should not be more than
1  10 75 75
 50 cm on ground =  50 on plan = % %  1%
10  100 R 75
= 0.5 mm on plan  Compensated gradient = Ruling gradient –
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Grade compensation
89. If a vehicle travelling at 40 kmph stopped
within 1.8 sec after the application of the = 6% – 1% = 5%
brakes, then the average skid resistance
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91. What is the deflection at the surface of a
coefficient is flexible pavement due to a wheel load of 40
(a) 0.63 (b) 0.73 kN and a tyre pressure of 0.5 MPa? The value
(c) 0.83 (d) 0.93 of E for pavement and subgrade is 20 MPa.
(a) 15 mm (b) 11 mm
Ans. (a)
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(c) 9 mm (d) 6 mm
Sol. u = 40 kmph, v = 0
Ans. (d)
t = 1.8 sec.
Sol. For flexible plate,
v = u – at = 0
 u = at p.a
 = 1.5 E  F2
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5 s
40 
 a = u 18 m/s2
p = contact pressure due to wheel load
t 1.8
= 0.5 MPa
 Avg. skid resitance
a = Radius of contact area
a 200
S
= 
g 18  1.8  9.81 Wheel Load
Now, contact area =
= 0.63 Tyre Pressure
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90. While aligning a hill road with a ruling 40  103 N

=
gradient of 6%, a horizontal curve of 75 m 0.5N / mm2
radius is encountered. The compensated = 80 × 103 mm2
gradient at the curve will be    a 2 = 80 × 103
(a) 1% (b) 2%
(c) 3% (d) 5% 80  103
 a =  159.617 mm

Ans. (d)
Es = 250 MPa
Sol. R = 75
F2 = 1 (assume)
30  R
Grade compensation = %
R  1.5  0.5  159.617  1
 =
30  25 20
= % = 1.4% = 6 mm
75

92. In a flexible pavement 1000V 1000  70
 C = 
(a) Vertical compressive stresses decreases S 101
with depth fo the layer = 698 veh/hr.
(b) The vetical compressive stress is the Hence, the most appropriate Ans. is (b).
maximum at the lowest layer
95. An electric locomotive running at 60 kmph
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(c) Tensile streses get developed on a curved track of 1.68 m guage laid at
(d) Traffic stress induced by a given traffic 800 m radius should be provided with
load is dependent on the location of the superelevation of the rail by an amount of
TE
load on the pavement surface
(a) 50.5 mm (b) 55.5 mm
Ans. (a) (c) 59.5 mm (d) 65.5 mm
Ans. (c)
93. Benkleman beam deflection method is used Sol. V = 60 kmph
AS
for design of G = 1.68 m
(a) Rigid overlays on rigid pavements R = 800 m
(b) Rigid overlays on flexible pavements GV 2 1.68  602
 e = 
(c) Flexible overlays on flexible pavements 127 R 127  800
(d) Flexible overlays on rigid pavements = 0.0595 m
M
= 59.5 mm
Ans. (c)
96. ‘Composite Sleeper Index’ is employed to
94. The design speed of a traffic lane is 70 kmph. determine
What is the theoretical capacity per hour
(a) Sleeper density requirement
S
taking the total reaction time to be 2 seconds

(b) Number of fixtures required for a certain
and average length of vehicles as 8 m.
type of sleeper
(a) 828 (b) 728
IE
(c) Durability of sleeper

(c) 628 (d) 428 (d) Mechanical strength of wooden sleeper
whereby its suitability for use is assesed
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
1000V
Sol. Theoretical capacity = C = ,
S 97. Which of the following types of Elastic
V = 70 kmph fastenings can be used on all type of sleepers
S = avg. c/c spacing b/w vehicles (like Wooden, Cast-Iron or Concrete) on
Indian Railways?
 0.278V 2 

S=  0.278VtR   L  (a) Sigma clip (b) IRN-202 clip
 2 fg 
(c) LG-20 Lock spike (d) Pandrol clip
= 101 m
Ans. (d)

98. According to the wave action theory for creep curvature. compensation in BG is 0.04% per
of rails, the pitch and depth of wave depend degree of curve. So while providing the
upon: gradient in a curve, case is to be taken for
compensation. It should be such that
1. Section of rails 2. Track modulus
calculated grade in curvature without
R
3. Stiffness of track compensation should not be steeper man
4. Stability of foundation ruling gradient.
5. Weight of the train
TE
Grade compensation = 0.04%×2 = 0.08%
Which of these are correct?  Compensated gradient
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
 1 0.08  1
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 5 =   
 200 100  238.9
Ans. (c) Directions: Each of the next twenty (20) items

AS
Sol. Wave action is controlled by pitch and depth consists of two statements, one labelled as the
of wave. Pitch and wave depends upon : - ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’.
You are to examine these two statements carefully
 Track modulus
and select the answer to these items using the
 Track stiffness codes given below:
 Track stability
M
Codes:
99. Two parallel railway tracks are to be (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement
connected by a reverse curve, both segments (II) are individually true and R is the
having the same radius. If the centre lines of correct explanation of Statement (I)
the tracks are 8 m apart and the maximum
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement
S
adaptable distance between the tangent

points is 32 m, the allowable radius for the (II) are individually true but R is not
curves is the correct explanation of Statement
IE
(I)
(a) 4 m (b) 8 m
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement
(c) 32 m (d) 64 m
(II) is false
Ans. (c) (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
(II) is true.
100. The steepest gradient on a 2º curve on a Broad
Guage line with a stipulated ruling gradient 101. Sta temen t (I) : Instantaneous unit
of 1 in 200, given that grade compensation is hydrograph (IUH) is used in theoretical
0.04% per degree of curve, is analyis of rainfall excess-runoff characteristics
of a catchment.
(a) 1 in 200 (b) 1 in 150
(c) 1 in 238 (d) 1 in 283 Statement (II) : For a given catchment, IUH,
being independent of rainfall characteristics,
Ans. (c) is indicative of the catchment storage
characteristics.
Sol. Grade compensation in curvature is provided
to off. load the extra resistance due to Ans. (a)

102. Statement (I) : Theoretically an infinite 107. Statement (I) : The rate of biomass
number of unit graphs are possible for a given production will always be lower than the rate
basin of food utilization in a biological system
having a mixed culture of micro-organism.
Statement (II) : The rainfall duration and
its areal distribution affect the hydrograph. Statement (II) : Catabolism converts part of
the food into waste products.
R
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
103. Statement (I) : The sharp corners in the
TE
cross-section of a canal are rounded. 108. Statement (I) : Electrostatic precipitators
(ESP) can remove particles of sub-micron
Statement (I) : The corners may not become
size.
zones of stagnation.
Statement (II) : Due to high voltage supply,
Ans. (c) ESPs attract any charged particle.
AS
104. Statement (I) : During an epidemic of Ans. (a)
infective hepatitis, the supplied water is
super chlorinated. 109. Statement (I) : A semi-log plot is used to
represent the grain size distribution of a soil
Statement (II) : Spore-forming bacteria
sample.
M
which cause this disease are effectively

removed from water by super chlorination. Statement (II) : In a semi-log plot, wide
range of grain sizes can be accomodated.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
105. Statement (I) : When waste water is treated
S
at an oxidation ditch, anaerobic sludge 110. Sta temen t (I ): Clays exhibit more
digester is not required. hygroscopicity than sands.
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Statement (II) : Oxidation ditch admits an Statement (II) : Clays are colloidal and
extended aeration process whereby sludge consequently their specific surface is very high.
gets mineralized.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
106. Statement (I) : Dilution fo the wastewater 111. Statement (I) : The zero-air curve is non-
sample with organic-free, oxygen-saturated linear
watr is necessary to measure 5-days 20ºC Statement (II) : The dry density at 100%
BOD values greater than 7 mg/l. saturation is a non-linear function of void
Statement (II) : The saturation for oxygen ratio.
in water at 20º C is approximately 9 mg/l.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)

112. Statement (I) : In a consolidation test, 117. Sta temen t (I ): Th e regions of the
pressure on the soil specimen is doubled at electromagnetic spectrum in which the
each step. atmosphere is tran sparent ar e called
atmospheric windows.
Statement (II) : It is intended that the soil
R
always remains in a normally consolidated Statement (II): The atmosphere is practically
conditon. transparent in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum.
TE
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
113. Statement (I): For a cantilever retaining
wall, Rankine’s theory of earth pressure may 118. Statement (I): Scattering is more in lower
be used. wavelengths than in higher wavelengths.
AS
Statement (II) : For a retaining wall with Statement (II) : Scattering effect decreases
smooth vertical back, Rankine’s theory is the signal value.
appropriate.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
119. Statement (I) : The process by which the
M
114. Statement (I) : Microwave bands are geometr y of an image area is made
composed of radiation with wavelength planimetric is called rectification.
between 1 mm and 1 m. Statement (II) : It is the most precise
Statement (II) : Microwaves are capable of geometric correction.
S
penetrating through the atmosphere under

almost all conditions. Ans. (b)
120. Statement (I) : The effective head of a turbo-

IE
Ans. (c)
machine is equal to: Gross head minus the
115. Statement (I): Multistage imaging refers to head loss in penstock and the velocity head
viewing a given area in several narrow bands. at the turbine inlet.
Statement (II) : Multistage imaging is also Statement (II) : A turbo-machine becomes

susceptible to cavitation if pressure falls
called spatial resolution.
below the vapour pressure of the liquid.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
116. Statement (I): Spectral reflectance curves
describe the spectral response of a target.
Statement (II) : Every object on the Earth
has its unique spectral reflectance.
Ans. (a)

ESE-2015
Detailed Exam Solutions
(Objective Paper-I)
Civil
solutions
Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-I (ESE - 2015)
SET - C
1. Two simply supported beams are made up of 2. A simply supported beam is subjected to a
the same material and are of the same cross- couple at a section within its span. It will
R
section. Both beams carry uniformly distributed produce
loads of equal intensities. One beam is 2 m
1. SF diagram of zero magnitude
long and the other is 4 m long. The 2 m long
beam shows a central deflection of 1 mm. What 2. Uniformly varying triangular BM diagram
is the central deflection of the 4 m long beam ?
(a) 16 mm
(c) 8 mm
Ans. (a)
(b) 2 mm
(d) 1 mm
TE 3. Sudden change in sign of BM at the point
of application of the couple
4. Equal and opposite reactions at supports.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
AS
Sol. We know that (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
5 L4
 =  Ans. (c)
384 EI
M
f or both beam, ,E and I will be same M

therefore Sol.
  = K  L4 M/ M/
Reaction
will be equal
For beam 1
S
and opposite
1 = K  24
M/ SFD
IE
 1 = K  24 [1 = 1 mm]
For beam 2
M/2
4
2 = K  4
+
BMD
4
= 16  K  2
–
M/2
= 16  1
= 16 mm Hence option (c) is correct

Telephone : 011-41013406, Mobile : 8130909220, 9711853908
3. If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly B.M. at mid-span = +ve (sagging)
loaded cantilever beam is 15 mm and the slope x 2
of the deflection curve at the free end is 0.02 B.M. at support = 
2
radian, then the length of the beam is 2
  
R
(a) 0.8 m (b) 1.0m B.M. at mid-span =    x  
22  8
(c) 1.2 m (d) 1.5   
support reaction = 2 
TE
Ans. (b)
2
x 2   
Sol. Deflection of free end = 15 mm   =    n 
2 22  8
 L4
 = 15×10–3 ...(i)  x2   2  x  2
8EI  =  
2 4 2 8
Slope of free end = 0.2 radian x2 x 2
AS
  =0
L3 2 2 8
 = 0.02 ...(ii)
6EI Solving we get
Dividing equation (i) by (ii), we get
  2  1
3 x =
6 L 15  10 2
=
8 0.02
M
 Distance b/w support =   2 x

 L = 1 m
  2  1
4. A beam of over all length l , with equal =  2
2
overhangs on both sides, carries a uniformly
distributed load over the entire length. To have = 2  2 
S
numerically equal bending moments at the = 0.586 

centre of the beam and its supports, the
distance between the supports should be 5. A single-bay single-storeyed portal frame ABCD
IE
is fixed at A and D as shown in the figure. IF

(a) 0.277l (b) 0.403l axial deformation is neglected, the kinematic
indeterminacy is
(c) 0.586l (d) 0.7078l
B C
Ans. (c)
Sol.
 
2 2
x x
A D
Let overchange be of length ‘x’ (a) 3 (b) 2
B.M. at support = – ve (hogging) (c) 6 (d) 4

Ans. (a) Sol. If we design the fillet weld we showed design
Sol. Dt = 3 J – r – m 1 at per the resultant stress because fillet weld
resists even the bending stress through
where J = no. of joint
shearing action hence strength of the weld
r = no. of external reaction should be greater than,
m1 = no. of in tensible member
402  1202 = 126.49 MPa.
R
 Dk = 3 × 4 – 6 – 3
Hence ans. is (c)
=3
8. Degree of static indeterminacy of the structure
6. What is the number of kinematic indeterminacy
TE
as shown in the figure is
for the building frame as shown in the figure
Hinge
when members are inextensible ?
Link
Hinge
AS
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
(a) 8 (b) 10 Ans. (a)
(c) 12 (d) 16 B
M
A
Ans. (b) Sol.
Sol. Dk = 3 J – r – m 1
D E
= 3 × 9 – (3 + 2 + 2) – 10 C
= 27 – 7 – 10
S
= 10 Ds = support removed - constraint added

7. For the welded joint shown in the figure, the to make cantilever to make cantilever
IE
direct vertical shear stress on the weld is 40

Support removed = (2 at E) + (1 at D) = 3
MPa and the bending stress is 120 MPa. For
what strength should the weld be designed. Constraint added = (1 at A) + (1 at B) +
(1 at C) = 3
Front View Side View
 Ds = 3 – 3 = 0
P
9. Which one of the following statements is correct
for the pin-jointed truss shown in the figure?
B C D
(a) 80MPa (b) 120 MPa

A E
(c) 132 MPa (d) 160 MPa H G F
Ans. (c)

(a) The truss is externally determinate but 400 200 400 1200
internally indeterminate.
(b) The truss is both externally and internally 60 A 60 B 60 C 60 D 60
determinate
R
1360
(c) The truss is externally determinate and
internally indeterminate and is unstable 400  240 200  180 400  120 1200  60
840    
300 300 300 300
(d) The truss is externally determinate and
TE
As per general cable theorem
internally indeterminate and is stable.
Hyd1 = 840 × 60 = 50400
Ans. (c)
10. Which one of the following methods is not Hyd2 = 840 × 120 – 400 × 60 = 76800
classifiable as a Force Method ? Hyd3 = 840 × 180 – 400 × 120 – 200 × 60
AS
(a) The Theorem of Three Moments
= 91200
(b) The Moment Distribution Method
Hyd4 = 840 × 240 – 400 × 180 × 200 × 120
(c) The Method of Consistent Deformation – 400 × 60
(d) Castigliano’s Theorem = 81600
Ans. (b) Hence max sag will occur at (c)
M
11. A cable of negligible weight is suspended 12. A single-bay portal frame of height h, fixed at
between two points spaced 300 m apart the base, is subj ected to a horizontal
horizontally, with the right support being 12 m displacement  at the top. The base momentss
higher than the left support. For vertical loads developed are each proportional to
S
of magnitudes 400, 200, 400 and 1200 kN are

1 1
applied at points A, B, C and D which are 60, (a) (b)
h h2
120, 180 and 240 m horizontally respectively
1 1
IE
from the left support. The largest sag of the (c) 3 (d) 4
cable will be at h h
Ans. (b)
(a) A (b) B
6EI
(c) C (d) D Sol. end moment will be proportional to
h2
Ans. (c) 1
Hence M 
Sol. h2
9.6 H 13. The total (both external and internal) degrees
7.2 of indeterminacy of the point-jointed structure
4.8
12 m shown in the figure is
2.4 yd4
H
yd1 yd3
yd2
(A) (D)
(B) (C)
400 1200
200 400

(d) E
A
Ans. (a)
Sol. Slope of B.M.D gives shear force
R
• As given B.M.D is linear therefore shear force
must be constant.
TE
W • Slope of BMD change it sign at mid-span
(a) 4 (b) 3 therefore shear force changes it sign at
mid-span
(c) 2 (d) 1
Hence option (a) is correct.
Ans. (d)
15. For the structure shown in the figure, all of I,
AS
Sol. Total indeterminancy = m + r – 2 j
EI and L are of respective unit values. The
m = 19 equivalent stiffness constant for the structure
r =2× 3 = 6 is
I, EI
j = 12 m
 Total indeterminancy = 19+6–2 × 12 = 1

M
K=3
14. The bending moment diagram of a beam is
shown in the figure.
C L
S
(a) 1 (b) 1.5

A B D E
(c) 4.5 (d) 9
IE
Ans. (c)
The shear force diagram of the beam is
represented by Sol.
(a) I, EI B P=mg
A
A C E
k=3
(b)
E
A
D L C
(c)
A C E

P Ans. (c)
Zp
R
Sol. Shape factor = Z
c
R
where Zp = plastic section modulus
R
Ze = elastic section modulus
K
value of shape factor is always greater than
TE
R 1.0.
R 17. A fillet-welded joint is shown in the figure. The

size of the weld is 8 mm. Safe stress in the
weld is 110 N/mm2. What is the saf force (to
(def lection of B) – (deflection of C) = the nearest magnitude) to which the weld can
AS
(compression in spring be subjected ?
P  R  3 R3 80 mm
R
  =
3EI 3EI K
Since L = 1, EI = 1 & I = 1
P  R  R 60 mm
R
M
 =
3 3 3
P (a) 125 kN (b) 130 kN
 R=
3 (c) 140 kN (d) 135 kN
P
Equivalent stifness of the structure = Ans. (d)
 P  R  3
S
3EI Sol. Assuming throat thickness = 0.7 × size of

3P 3P 3P 9 weld
= P  R  = P  P/3 = 2P/3 = 2 = 4.5
IE
Safe force = 110 × [80 + 60 + 80] × 0.7 × 8

= 135.52 kN
16. In considering Plastic Analysis, which of the
following is a valid comprehensive statement ? 18. A circular shaft of diameter 120 mm is welded
to a rigid plate by a fillet weld of size 6 mm. If
(a) Shape factor is the ratio of Plastic Section a torque of 8 kNm is applied to the shaft, what
Modulus to the Elastic Section Modulus is the maximum stress in the weld (to the
(b) Shape factor is the ratio fo Elastic Section nearest unit) ?
Modulus to the Plastic Section Modulus (a) 84 N/mm2 (b) 87 N/mm2
(c) Shape factor is the ratio of Plastic Section (c) 90 N/mm2 (a) 95 N/mm2
Modulus to the Elastic Section Modulus and
its value is always greater than 1.0 Ans. (a)
(d) Shape factor is the ratio of Elastic Section T  r 8  106  60

Sol.  = =
Modulus to the Plastic Section Modulus and IP 2  603  t
its value is always less than 1.0
 IP = 2 R3 t 

where t = throat thickness = 0.7 × 6 = 4.2 Ans. (d)
Sol. We know,
8  106  60 2
  = = 84.2 N/mm
3
2  60  4.2 P = T.
P
19. Two plates of dimensions 150 mm × 16 mm  T=
and 150 mm × 12 mm at their welding edges 
R
are joined by butt welding as shown in the Again,
figure. What is the maximum tension that this T.r
 = I
single V-butt weld joint can transmit ? The P
permissible tensile stress in the plates is 150
MPa.
Taper 1 in 15
(on both faces)
TE 

 =

1

1 2
P.r
IP .
AS
 
12 mm 16 mm 2 1
70 1.5  2

2 3  2
(a) 168.75 kN (b) 270 kN
 2 = 140 MPa
(c) 218 kN (d) 1350 kN 21. Consider the following statements :
M
Ans. (a) Correct estimation of loss of prestress is

Sol. Generally if not given single V-butt weld will be required for assessing
assumed to be incomplete penetration butt 1. The serviceability behavior of a PSC beam.
weld. The complete penetration is mostly
2. The ultimate shear resistance of a PSC
S
ensured in double butt joint

beam
Maximum tension = 150 × 3. The ultimate moment of resistance of a PSC
IE
5  beam
 of thickness of thinner plate  ×
8  Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
permissible stress (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
5 (c) 2 only (d) 1 only
= 150   12  150 Ans. (a)
8
= 168.75 kN 22. Which of the following statements are correct
in case of vertical intermediate stiffeners ?
20. A solid shaft transmits 150 kW at a shear stress
of 70 MPa running at a frequency of 3 Hz. 1. These are required only when the ratio of
W hat will be the shear stress when the web depth to thickness is greater than 150.
frequency is 1.5 Hz ?
2. They should be provided throughout the
(a) 35 MPa (b) 50 MPa length of beam at spacing less than 1.5
times web depth.
(c) 57 MPa (d) 140 MPa

3. These can be fitted between flanges with 27. A wall carries an axial load, 12 kN/m and also
clear gaps at top and bottom. an eccentric load of 27 kN/m at 72 mm from
the central axis of the wall. The equivalent
eccentricity e is nearly
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
R
(a) 65 mm (b) 60 mm
Ans. (b)
(c) 55 mm (d) 50 mm
23. The relation between the strength of brick
TE
Ans. (d)
masonry f w, the strength of bricks f b, and the
strength of mortar f m is given by (where Kw is Sol. Equivalent eccentricity
a coefficient based on the layout of the bricks 2  e 27  72
and the joints). e =    = 12  27
1 2
fb fb = 49.84  50mm
AS
(a) fw  K w f (b) fw  K w f
m m
28. A shear wall of length 5 m, height 3 m and
(c) fw  K w fb fm (d) fw  K w fb fm thickness 250 mm has to resist the force due
Ans. (d) to horizontal earthquake in its plane. The
relevant Section Modulus of the wall section is
24. As per IS 3102-1965, for F1 class bricks, the
(a) 3.75 × 108 mm3 (b) 10.41 × 108 mm3
M
percentage water absorption after 24 hrs of

immersion in cold water shall not exceed. (c) 31.25 × 10 mm3 (d) 75 × 108 mm3
(a) 20% (b) 12% Ans. (b)
(c) 25% (d) 5%
250 (5000)3
S
Ans. (b) Sol. For inplace bending Z =

12  (2500)
25. The effective height of a masonry wall of height
H restrained fully at its top and partially at its = 10.41  108 mm3
IE
bottom, is
(a) 0.75 H (b) 0.85 H
250 mm
(c) 1.00 H (d) 1.50 H
Ans. (b) 5m
Sol. SP–7 : 1970
29. In reinforced brickwork slabs, the diameter of
26. The effective length of masonry wall stiffened main reinforcement shall, preferably not exceed
by buttresses on both ends and continuing (a) 8 mm (b) 10 mm
beyond these buttresses at both ends is
(c) 12 mm (d) 16 mm
(a) 1.0 L (b) 2.0 L
Ans. (c)
(c) 0.9 L (d) 0.8 L
Sol. In reinforced brickwork slab, the dia. of main
where L is the c/c length of the wall between
reinforced shall preferably not exceed 12 mm
successive buttresses.
Ans. (a)

30. Consider two RCL beams, P and Q, each of  Vus = (1.33 – 0.75) × bd
width 400 mm and effective depth 750 mm,
= 175 kN
made with concrete having a c max  2.0MPa .
Beam Q
For the reinforcement provided and the grade
of concrete used, it may be assumed that b = 400 mm & d = 750
Vu = 750 kN
R
c max  0.75MPa . If the design shear for the
beams P and Q is 400 kN and 750 kN, Vu
v =
respectively, which of the following statements bd
TE
is true considering the provisions of IS 456- 750  103
2000 ? = 2.5 N/mm2
400  750
(a) Shear reinforcement should be designed for
v > c max Not safe
175 kN for beam P and the section for beam
Q should be revised 31. The minimum strain at failure in tension steel
AS
(b) Nominal shear reinforcement is required for having yield stress f y = 415 MPa and Young’s
beam P and the shear reinforcement should Modulus Es = 200 GPa, as per Limit State
be designed for 120 kN for beam Q Method of Design, is
(c) Shear reinforcement should be designed for (a) 0.0025 (b) 0.0038
175 kN for beam P and the section for beam (c) –0.0045 (d) 0.0050
Q should be designed for 525 kN for beam
M
Q Ans. (b)
(d) The sections for both beams, P and Q need Sol. Minimum strain at failure as per IS 456:2000
to be revised. 0.87 fy
=  0.0020 = 0.0038
Ans. (a) Es
S
Sol. Beam P 32. Which one of the following Mohr’s Circles

represents the state of pure shear ?
b = 400 mm & d = 750 mm
IE

c max = 2.0 MPa
(a) 
c = 0.75 MPa O
Vu = 400 kN

V
v = u
bd
400  103
= = 1.33 N/mm2 O
400  750 (b) 
v < c max
 v > c

 34. A mechanism shown in the figure consists of
equally long steel and copper wires which carry
the applied load in equal shares. What shall
O be the ratio of the diameter of the copper wire
(c) 
to that of the steel wire, when both the wires
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undergo equal strains ?
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
Steel wire Copper wire

ES = 200 GPa ES = 100 GPa
(d)
AS

O
Ans. (b) (a) (b) 1.0
2
33. Activity A, Activity B and Activity C are cast into
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1 1
a ladder diagrammatic CPM network, with (c) (d)
2 2
splitting each into three equal parts as A1, A2,
A3 and B1, B2, B3; and C1, C2, C3. Typical Ans. (a)
sequencing as in a lader diagram is adopted Sol. Both wire share equal load and undergo
(like B2 following A2 and B1). The optimum equal strain
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number of dummy arrows needed for a

satisfactory and correct ladder diagram will be Pc P  P 
 s
  strain  AE 
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(a) 1 (b) 2 Ac Ec A sEs
(c) 3 (d) 4 Pc = Ps
Ans. (b)  Ac Ec = As Es
Ac Es
Sol. 
A s Ec
A1 A2 A3 d2c 200
 
d2s 100
B1 B2
dc
B3   2
ds
C1
C2 C3
Optimum no. of dummy arrow = 2

35. Consider the following related to sand in t 0  4 tm  tp
mortars : te =
6
1. It increases the volume of the mortar mix. 16  4  19  28
te =
6
2. It increases the strength of masonry t e = 20 days
3. The cost of the mortar is reduced 38. Consider the following statements :
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4. Shrinkage of the mortar is almost prevented 1. Modulus of Elasticity of concrete increases
5. Surkhi can replace sand in cement mortar with increase in compressive strength of
concrete
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used in plastering and this modified mortar
is more durable 2. Brittleness of concrete increases with
Which of the above are relevant to ‘sand’ in decreases in compressive strength of
mortar ? concrete.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 3. Shear strength of concrete increase with
increase in compressiv e strength of
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(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only concrete.
Ans. (b) Which of the above statements are correct ?
36. In a concrete mix, if the maximum size of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 3
coarse aggregate is increased, the proportion
of fine to coarse aggregate should be
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Ans. (c)
(a) Increased (b) Decreased
(c) Kept the same 39. A three-hinged parabolic arch of span ‘ l ’ and
rise ‘h’ is subjected to a u.d.l. of intensity ‘  ’;
(d) Not dependent on size of aggregates
then the horizontal thrust at the supports is
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Ans. (b)
l 2 l
Sol. If maximum size of coarse aggregate is (a) (b)
8h h
increased, the v oid space created will
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l hl
decrease and hence fine aggregate can be (c) (d)
8h2 8
decreased. Ans. (a)
37. It is estimated that an activity can be assigned
40. A rectangular beam of width 230 mm and
an optimistic duration of 16 days, a pessimistic
duration of 28 days and a must likely duration effective depth 300 mm is proposed to carry a
of 19 days. What is the expected duration for BM and SF of 120 kNm and 270 kN,
this activity ? respectively. If M 30 grade of concrete and Fe
(a) 20 days (b) 19 days 415 steel are used for which c max  3.5MPa ,
which one of the following statements is
(c) 22 days (d) 18 days
correct?
Ans. (a)
(a) It can be designed as a singly reinforced,
Sol. t 0 = 1.6, t m = 13, t p = 28 under-reinforced section

(b) It can be designed as a doubly reinforced Ans. (b)
section
Sol. Bulk density of portland cement = 1440 kg/
(c) The section is unsaf e f rom shear m3 v ol um e of 50 kg cem ent =
considerations
50
R
3
= 0.0347m
(d) It can be designed as a doubly reinforced 1440
section but it is unsaf e f rom shear
considerations. Hence 34.7 liters  35 liters.
TE
Ans. (d) 42. AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed
by the Forest Research I nsti tute,
Sol. 230 Dehradun, com pri ses of ch em i cal s :
As2O5 .2H2O, CuSO4 . 5H2O and K2Cr2O7 in the
300
proportion of
AS
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 3
Mu = 1.5 × 120 = 180 kN-m (c) 1 : 2 : 4 (d) 1 : 3 : 4
Vu = 270 × 1.5 = 405 kN-m Ans. (d)
M30, fy = 415 Sol. AsCu is special preservative developed by

forest research Institute, Dehradun.
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Mu lim = 0.36 f ck Xu lim - b (d – 0.42

Xu lim) It’s composition is as below
= 0.36 × 30 × 0.48 × 300 × • 1 part by weight of hydrated arsemic part

230 (300 – 0.42 × 0.48 × oxidy (As2O 5.2H2O)
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300) • 3 parts by weight of blue vitriol or copper

Mu lim = 85.67 kN-m sulphate, (Cu SO 4.5H2O)
• 4 parts by wei g ht of potassi um
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Since Mu > Mu lim hence (Double reinforced beams)

di chrom a t i c, (k 2 Cr 2 O 7 ) or sodi um
As section is coming over reinforced so it is dichromate (Na2Cr2O 72H2O).
designed as a double reinforced section.
43. The minimum number of annular rings to be
Vu 405  10 3 seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction
v = = from the core for timber to be classified as
bd 230  300
‘Dense’ is
= 5.86 N/mm2
(a) 10 (b) 20
v > c max (3.5) Not safe in shear (c) 25 (d) 30
41. One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, Ans. (b)

would normally have a bulk volume of 44. Consider the following statements related to
autoclave bricks :
(a) 30 l (b) 35 l
1. Less water absorption compared to
(c) 40 l (d) 45 l other bricks.

2. Noise reduction. 3. Interlayer water
3. It is cheap compared to other types of bricks. 4. Adsorbed water
4 Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in Which of the above forms of water will, on
joints being relatively less compared to other its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
types of brick masonry.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
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5. Not recommended for outer walls.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Which of the above statements are relevant to
Ans. (d)
the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 2, 4 and 5
TE 47. A specimen is subjected to a pure shear stress
regime of intensity  . The resulting tensile and
compressive stresses  , which occur on planes
inclined at 45° to the direction of the shear
stresses, would be
AS
45. If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall 
is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its (a)  (b)
2
effective height is 2.82 m and its code-specified

stiffening coefficient is 1.2, then, for design (c) (d)
2 2
considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall
will be taken as Ans. (a)
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(a) 11.8 (b) 12.4 48. Consider the following statements :

High early strength of cement is obtained as a
(c) 14.2 (d) 14.8
result of
Ans. (b) 1. Fine grinding.
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h L 2. Decreasing the lime content.

Sol. Slenderness ratio SR = t  k or t whichever 3. Burning at higher temperature.
n
is less
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4. Increasing the quantity of gypsum.

h = 2.82 Which of the above statements are correct ?
kn = 1.2
2.82 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
SR = = 12.36
0.19  1.2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
2.7 Ans. (a)
or = 14.21 whichever is less
0.19
SR = 12.4 49. Consider the following statements related to
‘composite mortar’:
46. Consider the following forms of water in a 1. Addition of lime to cement mortar
hydrated cement paste: improves its workability.
1. Capillary water 2. Composite mortar is obtained by adding
10% by weight of cement and mixing with
2. Chemically combined water water.

3. Composite mortar is not preferred in tall  x + 2x + 4x + 0.6x = 2400
buildings.  7.6x = 2400
4. Mechanical grinding is essential for 2400
developing composite mortar. x =
7.6
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Which of the above statements are true in this 2400
 weight of water required =  0.6
case ? 7.6
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only = 189.47 kg
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(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 = 189.47 litre
52. For a given elastic material, the Elastic
Ans. (b)
Modulus E is 210 GPa and its Poisson’s Ratio
50. Consider the following statements related to is 0.27. What is the approximate value of its
‘non-destructive testing5 of concrete : Modulus of Rigidity?
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1. Indentation test is used to assess the quality (a) 105 GPa (b) 83 GPa
of concrete. (c) 159 GPa (d) 165 GPa
2. Resonant Frequency Method is based on a Ans. (b)
laboratory test.
E
3. Compressive strength of concrete is Sol. G =
2(1  )
M
estimated through Pulse Velocity

Measurement. 210
 = 82.67 GPa
2  1.27
4. Dynamic Modulus of Elasticity is
determined by a Sonometer Test. 53. A mild steel bar is subjected to an axial force
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5. Thickness of concrete can be estimated by P, resulting in an axial stress  x  100 N/mm2 .

in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
What would be the normal stress n on a plane
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n-n making an angle  = 45° with its axis?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 5 only
(a) 25 N/mm2 (b) 40 N/mm2
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 50 N/mm2 (d) 100 N/mm2
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
51. What is the amount of water required for a
workable RC of mix 1 : 2 : 4 by weight, when Sol. Mohr circle will be
W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 (50, 50)
kg/m3?
(a) 165 l (b) 205 l

(0, 0) (50, 0) (100, 0)
(c) 245 l (d) 285 l
Ans. (*)
Normal stress on a plane inclined at 45° will
Ans. Amount of water required for 1m3 of concrete
be 50 N/mm 2.
= x kg (say)

54. What is the ratio of the strain energy in bar X 56. The state of stress on an element in plane
to that in bar Y when the material of the two stress is shown as in the figure.
bars is the same? The cross-sectional areas
are as indicated over the indicated lengths. 
q
R
2
150 N/mm
A l/2 A
Bar X
l/2
Bar Y
A/2
TE What is the value of  if the values of the
principal stresses are 164 N/mm 2 and 36
N/mm2, both tensile?
(a) 100 N/mm2 (b) 75 N/mm2
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(c) 62-5 N/mm2 (d) 50 N/mm2
P P Ans. (d)
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 Sol.   150  164  36

(c) 4/3 (d) 1/6   = 50 N/mm 2
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Ans. (b)
57. Lead, as a material used in construction, has
E = 15 GPa and K = 50 GPa. What is its
1 PL P2L Poisson’s Ratio ?
Sol. Strain energy in bar X = P 
2 AE 2AE
(a) 0.225 (b) 0.30
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Strain energy in bar (c) 0.40 (d) 0.45

L 1 L
P PP Ans. (d)
1 2 2 2
Y = P
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2 A AE
E E
2 Sol. K =
3(1  2)
P2L P2L 3 P2L
=  =
2AE 4AE 4 AE 15
 50 
P2L 3(1  2)
2AE  2
 Required ratio = 1  2  0.1
3P2L 3
4AE   = 0.45
55. Which of the following stresses is measured
58. For a block with Young’s Modulus of its material
on inclined surface in Mohr’s Circle Method ?
being 210 GPa and its Poisson’s Ratio being
(a) Principal stress (b) Normal stress 0.25, when subjected to a stress system as
(c) Tangential stress (d) Maximum stress shown in the figure, what is the magnitude of
Ans. (a) the stress  for no strain along AB?

 stress at this point (along a duly identified plane)
is
2 2
(a) 20 MPa (b) 40 MPa
60 N/mm 60 N/mm
(c) 60 MPa (d) 80 MPa
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A B Ans. (c)

Sol. Mohr circle will be
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(a) 30 N/mm2 (b) 60 N/mm2
(c) 120 N/mm2 (d) 240 N/mm2
Ans. (d)
(–40, 0) (80, 0)
Sol. For no strain along AB
AS
60 .
 0 Maximum shear stress = radius of Mohr circle
E E
60 60 80  40
     0.25 =  60 MPa
2
  = 240 N/mm 2 Directions : Each of the next twenty (20) items
consists of two statements, one labelled as the
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59. Two planks each of 50 mm x 50 mm section

‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You
are glued together along the length to form a
are to examine these two statements carefully and
section 50 mm x 100 mm; and used as a beam.
select the answers to these items using the codes
If the shear force at a section is 1000 N, what
given below :
is the maximum shear stress on the glue?
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Codes:
(a) 0.15 MPa (b) 0.3 MPa
(c) 0.6 MPa (d) 2.4 MPa
individually true and Statement (II) is the
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Ans. (b) correct explanation of Statement (I)

Sol. (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
50 individually true but Statement (II) is not the
Shear stress at glue correct explanation of Statement (I)
100 (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
= 1.5 avg
false
1000 (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
= 1.5  true
50  100
= 0.3 MPa 61. Statement (I) : Timber suitable for furniture is
obtained from conifers only.
60. The state of stress at a point in 2-D stress Statement (II) : Woods with distinct annual
system is characterized by direct stresses of rings are conifers.
40 MPa compressive and 80 MPa tensile, on
mutually perpendicular planes. Shear stress is Ans. (d)
absent on these planes. The maximum shear

62. Statement (I) : Seasoning of timber gives 68. Statement (I) :is an essential Admixture in
dimensional stability, safety against attack by concrete constituent of concrete.
fungi and improved workability. Statement (II) : Admixture helps in improving
Statement (II) : Seasoning of timber removes or modifying specific qualities in concrete.
moisture in the form of sap from timber.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
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69. Statement (I): The failure surface of an axially
63. Statement (I) : Strength of brick wall is loaded mild steel tension specimen of circular
dependent on the type of bricks and the mortar cross-section is along a plane at 45° to the
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used. axis of the specimen.
Statement (II) :Slenderness ratio of masonry Statement (II) : The failure occurs on a plane
decides the strength of the wall, and also mortar of the specimen subjected to maximum shear
type to be used. stress and mild steel is relatively weak in shear.
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
AS
64. Statement (I) : Fly ash bricks are used in 70. Statement (I) : In pin-jointed roof trusses,
construction as alternatives to burnt clay bricks. purlins are kept above nodes in the top chord.
Statement (II) :Fly ash bricks are lighter in Statement (II): The top chord is continuous
weight and are stronger than burnt clay bricks. through the nodes of the truss.
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
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65. Statement (I) : Air-entraining cement has a 71. Statement (I):Repeated passes are needed
higher initial setting time than o.p.c. and resists with sheep-foot rollers for optimum compaction.
frost action better. Statement (II) : Even if optimum moisture
Statement (II) : Air-entraining cement has content is ensured, repeated passes are
S
a longer final setting time compared to opc needed to ensure right and even distribution of
moisture within the soil volume.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
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66. Statement (I) : A merging node will have

a uniquely, determinable Late Event Time. 72. Statement (I) : Dewatering pumps for use in
Statement (II) : A merging node is defined as shallow pits are often of nearly straight-blade
a node where more than one incoming activity centrifugal types.
arrow leads in. Statement (II) : Centrifugal pumps can lift water
Ans. (b) to high lifts.
67. Statement (I) : Deadweight of a structure can Ans. (c)

be reduced by using light weight concrete in 73. Statement (I) : Crawler-mounted excavator is
construction. more suitable for excavation in soft ground.
Statement (II) : Aerated concrete, being of light Statement (II) : Crawler-mounted excavator
weight, is used in R.C.C. multi-storied can be moved at low speeds.
construction.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)

74. Statemen t (I) : In a project inv olv ing 79. Statement (I) : Activity streams along a
construction of several self-similar multi-storey component Work-Breakdown Structure along
houses, the Scheduled Bar Chart is best a sub-path can refer also to an auxiliary Work-
converted into Lines of Balance Diagram — Breakdown Structure considered vertically in
which yet remains a ‘Stacked’ Bar Chart. segments of adjacent sub-paths.
R
Statement (II) : It is necessary to ensure that Statement (II) : Work-Breakdown Structures
no set of Lines of Balance slope forward in refer to a single sub-path with a progressive
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time, from last block to first block, or top to duration along the activity arrows.
bottom.
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
80. Statement (I) :In a multi-path PERT network,
75. Statement (I) : At positions of curtailment of the project duration resulting from the
flange plates in a built-up structure, web critical path always has a 50% probability of
AS
stiffeners are also necessarily to be provided. completion by that duration.
Statement (II) :This improves the architectural Statement (II): The expected through-path
beauty of the structure. duration together x with 3-times the standard
Ans. (c) deviation of that expected duration must be
considered for all the paths in the network.
76. Statement (I) : AON networks do not generally
M
have any dummy links. Ans. (b)
Statement (II) : Links express activity 81. An electrical resistance strain rosette indicates
dependencies exhaustively and completely. strains of –400, +800 and + 500 along the x,
y and 45° axes. What is the shearing strain
Ans. (d)
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 xy ?
77. Statement (I) : ‘Lift’ and ‘lead’, even if wherever
relevant, do not affect any activity duration (a) 100 (b) 800
during the course of implementation of a project.
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(c) 600 (d) –200

Statement (II) : Procurement of materials, Ans. (c)
particularly, is normally from assigned, or
designated, quarry sites, which are already x  y   x  y 
Sol. 45 =   cos(2  45)
fixed while starting the project. 2  2 
 xy
Ans. (d)  sin(2  45)
2
78. Statement (I) : Time-Cost Study for a project 400  800  xy
must be adopted only when project duration is 500 = 0
2 2
to be crashed.
 xy
Statement (II): When there are unmanageable  300 =
2
restrictions in realizing a predetermined
resource histogram, Time-Cost Study may have   xy  600
to consider extension of project duration as
well.
Ans. (b)

82. The biaxial stress system in an element is 84. A machine element develops principal stresses
shown in the figure. Which of the following will of magnitudes 2P and P. What is the maximum
give the normal stress in N/mm2 in the plane magnitude of P before the material reaches
BD making an angle of 45° with the plane BA? the yield stress f y as per Distortion Shear
Energy Theory?
2 = 40 N/mm2
n
fy
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D A (a) f y (b)
2
fy fy
1= 60 N/mm2 1= 60 N/mm2 (c) (d)
TE
45° 2 3 3
Ans. (d)
C B
Sol. As per distrotion theory :
2 = 40 N/mm2
1
(a) 25 (b) 20 [(1  2 )2  (2  3 )2  (3  1)2 ]  fy2
2
AS
(c) 15 (d) 10
1
[(2P  P)2  (P  O)2  (O  2P)2 ]  fy2
Ans. (d) 2
1 2
1  2  1  2  [P  P2  4P2 ]  fy2
Sol. x45 =   cos(2  45) 2
2  2 
M
3P2  fy2
60  40
 x45   0 = 10 N/mm 2
2 fy
P
83. A cylindrical pressure vessel is 1200 mm in 3
diameter. It is made of rolled mild steel plate. 85. A structural element is subjected to a two-
S
The vessel is subjected to an internal pressure dim ensional stress system, wherein
of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200 N/
mm 2, what should be the minimum safe 1 = 225 N/mm2 (t ensile) wit h 2 being
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thickness of the plate, based on Maximum compressive. The yield stress in both simple
Principal Stress Theory?
tension (y )t and simple compression (y )c is
(a) 18 mm (b) 15 mm
250 N/mm2 and  = 0.25. What is the value of
(c) 12 mm (d) 9 mm
2 , according to Maximum Strain Theory?
Ans. (d)
(a) 200 N/mm2 (b) 150 N/mm2
Pd y (c) 125 N/mm2 (d) 100 N/mm2
Sol. 
2t F.O.S
Ans. (d)
2  1200 200
  [Assuming F.O.S = 1.5] Sol. For tensile strain
2 t 1.5
1 ( 2 ) / 4 250
 t  9 mm  
E E E

 225 + .2  250 Ans. (c)
Sol.
2  100 N/mm2 …(i)
2
t = 150 N/mm
For compreimse strain
R
2 1 250 yt
 
E E E 300 mm
TE
 2 250  0.25  225 yb
2 193.75 N/mm2
2
…(ii) b = 50 N/mm
My t
From (i) and (ii) value of 2 will be 100 N/mm2  150
I
86. A simply supported beam of length 4 m is  I 
AS
 yt = 150  
subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 2 M
kN/m. What is the maximum shear stress if the Similarly,
cross-section is rectangular, 100 mm wide and
Myb
200 mm deep?  50
I
(a) 0.2 N/mm2 (b) 0.1 N/mm2  I 
 yb = 50  
M
(c) 0.4 N/mm2 (d) 0.3 N/mm2 M

yt + yb = 300
Ans. (d)
I
Sol. Maximum shear force is at support and is   1.5
M
equal to
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 yb = 50 × 1.5 = 75 mm
.L 2  4
Vmax    4 kN 88. A circular shaft of diameter ‘D’ is made of a
2 2
material for which Young’s Modulus of Elasticity
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max = 1.5avg is ‘E’ and Poisson’s Ratio is ‘v’. The ratio of

flexural rgidity to torsional rigidity for the shaft
4  103
= 1.5  is
100  200
= 0.3 N/mm 2 (a) 4 (1 + v) (b) 1.5 (1 – 2v)
(c) (1 + v) (d) 0.25 (1 + v)
87. A m ild steel structural section is an
unsymmetrical I-section, with the greater width Ans. (c)
at the top and the smaller width at the bottom.
Flexural ligidity EI
The overall depth of the beam is 300 mm, and Sol. 
Torsional rigidity GJ
the flange stresses at the top and the bottom
of the beam are 150 N/mm2 and 50 N/mm2,  4
E. D
respectively. What is the height of the neutral 64
= 
axis of the beam from its bottom? G. D4
32
(a) 125 mm (b) 100 mm E
=
(c) 75 mm (d) 50 mm 2G

E  E  91. A beam of square cross-section is placed such
= E  G  2(1  )  that its neutral axis coincides with its diagonal,
2  
2(1  ) and it is subjected to a shear force F. What is
the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the
= 1  shear stress at the neutral axis?
89. A closely coiled helical spring of round steel (a) 9/8 (b) 8/9
R
wire 5 mm in diameter having 12 complete coils
(c) 7/8 (d) 8/7
of 50 mm mean diameter is subjected to an
axial load of 100 N. Modulus of Rigidity of the Ans. (a)
TE
spring is 80 kN/mm2. What is the deflection of
92. The intensity of u.d.l. which, when its acts over
the spring?
the entire span of 1 m of a cantilever beam of
(a) 12 mm (b) 24 mm rectangular cross-section of width of 100 mm
and depth 200 mm, would produce a maximum
(c) 36 mm (d) 48 mm
shear stress of 1.5 N/mm2, is
Ans. (b)
AS
(a) 20 kN/m (b) 30 kN/m
3
64PR n (c) 26.6 kN/m (d) 36.6 kN/m
Sol. 
G.d4 Ans. (a)
3
 50  Sol. max  1.5
64  100     12
=  2 
 1.5  avg  1.5
M
80  103  54
= 24 mm  avg  1
V
90. What is the shear stress at the neutral axis in 1
100  200
a beam of isosceles triangular section with a
 V = 100 × 200 N
S
base of 40 mm and height 20 mm subjected to

a shear force of 3 kN?  V = 20 kN
(a) 3 MPa (b) 6 MPa Maximum shear force is at support and is
IE
equal to .L
(c) 10 MPa (d) 20 MPa
Ans. (c)  .L = 20
Sol. Shear stress at neutral axis in isoceles or  = 20 kN/m [ L  1m]

triangle
93. A solid conical bar of circular cross-section is
4 suspended vertically as shown in the figure.
=  av
3 The diameter of the bar at the base, D, equals
4 V 100 mm and its length, L, is 0.5 m. If E = 200
= 3  bh
GN/m2 and its weight per unit volume is 80 kN/
2 m3, the elongation of the bar under self-weight
4 3  103  2 is
=  = 10 MPa
3 40  20

D both springs]
 A nA
 
B nB
A 1

R
L  B 2
95. What is the diameter d of a solid circular shaft
when subjected to a torque T wit h a
TE
(a) 1.50 × 10–6 mm (b) 1.67 × 10–5 mm corresponding maximum shear stress of
magnitude f s?
(c) 1.71 × 10–6 mm (d) 1.87 × 10–5 mm
16 T  fs
(a)  f (b)
Ans. (b) s 16 T
AS
l2 16 T 16 T
Sol. Elongation under self t() = (c) (d) 3
6E  fs  fs
where  = unit weight of material Ans. (d)
 80  103  96. A cubical element of a structural part made of

3 2
   (0.5  10 ) midl steel is subjected to a tri-axial compressive
 109 
M
stress as shown in the figure. The vertical

 =  200  109 
6  compressive stress is 1. The Modulus of
 106 
Elasticity and Poisson’s Ratio are E and ,
80  106  0.52  106
  = respectively. What should be the uniform lateral
6  200  103
S
pressure 2 in terms of 1 and , so that

= 1.67 × 10–5 mm
lateral strain is prevented?
94. Two closely coiled helical springs A and B are
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1
equal in all respects but for the number of turns,
2
with A having just half the number of turns of
that of B. What is the ratio of deflections in
terms of spring A to spring B?
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4
2 2
(c) 1/2 (d) 2/1
Ans. (c)
64PR3n 2
Sol.  1
Gd4  
(a)  (b) 1
 n 1  1 1   1   
 1 
[Given that all other factors are same for (c)  (d) 
1  1 1  1

Ans. (a) 1003  150  2  10  106
= kW
2 1 2 16
Sol.   0
E E E = 187.5 kW
2 (1  ) 1
 
E E 99. What is the Polar Modulus of a solid circular
1
R
metal shaft of diameter 8 cm?
2 =
1 
(a) 64  cm3 (b) 32  cm3
97. A metal shaft of solid circular section rotates at
(c) 16  cm3 (d) 8  cm3
TE
160 rpm and is subjected to a torque of 1500
Nm. What is the power, in kW, transmitted by Ans. (b)
the shaft?
 3
(a) 32  (b) 16  Sol. T d
16
(c) 12  (d) 8 
AS

Ans. (d) =  8  8  8 = 32 cm 3
16
Sol. P = T.
100. A hollow circular shaft has the diameters 50
2 cm and 30 cm and is subjected to a torque. If
= 1500  160   10 3 kW
60 the realized maximum shear stress is 30 N/
2 mm2, what is the applied torque to nearest
= 15  16 
M
60 units?
= 8 kW (a) 160 Nm (b) 320 Nm
98. What is the power transmitted by a 100 mm (c) 80 Nm (d) 32 Nm
diameter solid shaft at 150 rpm without
Ans. (*)
S
exceeding a maximum stress of 60 N/mm 2?

2
Take  = 10. Sol. d0 = 50 cm = 0.5 m
(a) 187.5 kW (b) 18.75 kW di = 30 cm = 0.3 m
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(c) 1.875 kW (d) 1875 kW T = ?

Ans. (a)  = 30 N/mm 2 = 30 × 106 N/m 2
 4 d 
 d T 0 
  IP 32   d3   2
Sol. T = =   4
r d 16 d0  di4 
2 32 
Power = T. 
30  106 
(0.54  0.34 )
T 32
  d3 2
=  150   0.5 
16 60  
 2 
60  d3  150  22 = 640884.9 N-m
=
16  60

101. What is the maximum number of 20 mm 3. The function of the flanges in a plate girder
diameter bolts that can be accommodated in a is to resist the bending moment and hence
single row on a 140 mm wide flat strip used as their respective areas can be reduced near
one of the structural elements involved in the the supports of a simply supported beam.
process?
R
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 5
TE
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
Sol. Nominal dia = 20 mm
dia of hole = 22 mm 104. Consider the following statements:

minimum pitch = 2.5 × nominal dia = 50 mm In a plate girder
AS
minimum end/edge distance = 1.5 × 22 = 33 mm 1. Bearing stiffeners are designed for bearing
forces and they must also be chekced for
To accomodate 3 bolte, width required is
safety against compressive forces.
= 2 × 33 + 2 × 50
33 2. The length of any staggered intermittent fillet
= 166 mm > 140 O
weld should not be less than 10 times the
50
thickness of the stiffener.
M
O
50 3. Bearing stiffeners must be provided at the
O
33 point of maximum bending moment.
 Only 2 bolt can be accomodated in 140 mm
S
wide flate. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
102. What is the nearest magnitude of strength of a (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6 mm fillet weld of 100 mm length made
IE
Ans. (c)
between two flats each 10 mm thick? The
allowable shear stress on the weld is 110 MPa 105. Consider the following statements:
(a) 23 kN (b) 33 kN Secondary stresses are induced in a roof truss

due to
(c) 46 kN (d) 66 kN
1. Purlins placed at intermediate points on
Ans. (c)
panel lengths.
Sol. Strength = 0.7 × 6 × 100 × 110 = 46.2 kN 2. Rigidity of joints.
103. Consider the following statements: 3. Eccentricity of the bolt line relative to the
centroid of the member.
1. The thickness of the gusset plate should
not be more than the thickness of the Which of the above statements are correct?
structural members being connected. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. A plate girder is essentially a beam and its (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
moment of resistance depends upon its
section modulus. Ans. (d)

106. In the case of an axially loaded column,
machined for full bearing, the fastenings 0.138fckbd2
Sol. Working moment by LSM =
connecting the column to the base plates 1.5
through gussets are to be designed for
Working moment by WSM = 0.130cbcbd2
(a) 100% of the load on the column
(b) 50% of the load on the column 0.138fck bd2
R
 A =
1.5  0.130  cbc  bd2
(c) 25% of the load on the column
0.138  20
(d) Respective erection conditions only =
1.5  0.130  7
Ans. (d)

1. When analyzing by the Ultimate Load
Method, the eccentrically loaded fastener
TE = 2.02
109. A singly reinforced rectangular concrete beam
has a width of 150 mm and an effective depth
of 330 mm. The characteristic compressive
strength of concrete is 20 MPa and the tensile
AS
group rotates about an instantaneous centre. strength of steel is 415 MPas. Adopt the stress
2. The rivet which is the farthest from the block for concrete as per IS 456 - 2000 and
centre of gravity of the rivet group and may take the limiting value of depth of neutral axis
also be the nearest to the applied load line as 0.48 times the effective depth of the beam
is the most ‘critical’ one. for considering as a balanced section. What is
the likely approximation for the limiting value
M
3. The deformation at each rivet is not

of the moment of resistance of the beam?
proportional to its distance from the centre
of rotation. (a) 15 kNm (b) 25 kNm
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 45 kNm (d) 75 kNm
Ans. (c)
S

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Sol. b = 150 mm
d = 330 mm
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Ans. (c)
f ck = 20 mm
108. For a reinforced concrete beam with M 20
concrete with Fe415 steel, the working moment f y = 415
corresponding to ‘balanced failure’ by the Limit Xulim = 0.48 d
State Method of Design is A times of the
relatabel magnitude of the working moment Xulim = 0.36 f ck Xulim b(d – 0.42
computed by the Working Stress Method. This Xulim)
value of A is nearly = 0.36 × 20 × 0.48 × 330 ×
150 (330 – 0.42 × 0.48
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.5
× 330)
(c) 2.0 (d) 2.5
= 45.07 kN-m
Ans. (c)

110. If the stirrup spacing is equal to 0.75 times the = (0.075 ± 0.02) N/mm 2
effective depth of an RC beam, then the shear = (0.075 ± 0.02) × 103 kPa
capacity of stirrup steel is equal to  Maximum stress = 75 + 20 = 95 kPa
(a) 1.25 (f y Asv) (b) 1.16 (f y Asv) minimum stress = 75 – 20 = 55 kPa
R
(c) 1.00 (f y Asv) (d) 0.80 (f y Asv) 112. Carry-over factor at a support/end is defined
as
where f y is yield strength and Asv is cross-
TE
sectional area of the stirrup steel. (a) Modulus of Elasticity EI
Ans. (b) (b) The ratio of moment produced at the far
end to the applied moment at that support
Sol. Shear capacity = 0.87f A  d
y sv
sv end
d (c) The value of the moment to be applied to
= 0.87fy A sv 
AS
0.75d that end to cause a local slope of one radian
= 1.16(fy Asv ) (d) 2 EK

Ans. (b)
111. A concrete column carries an axial load of 450
kN and a bending moment of 60 kNm at its 113. What is the pH value of potable water, as
base. An isolated footing of size 2 m × 3 m specified byIS 456 – 2000?
M
with the 3 m side along the plane of the bending

(a) Equal to 7 (b) Between 6 and 9
moment is provided under the column. Centres
of gravity of the column and the footing (c) Less than 6 (d) Not less than 6
coincide. The net maximum and minimum
Ans. (d)
pressures, in kPa, on the soil under the footing
S
are, respectively Sol. As per clause 5.4.2 of 1S 456 : 2000, PH

value of potable water shall be not less than
(a) 95 and 75 (b) 75 and 55
6.
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(c) 95 and 55 (d) 75 and 75

114. A certain RC structure has to be constructed
Ans. (c) along a sea coast. The minimum grade of
Sol. 3000 mm concrete to be used as per IS 456 : 2000 is
(a) More than M 20
2000 mm (b) More than M 20 and less than M 30

(c) Not less than M 30
(d) Less than M 45 and more than M 30
 P My 
Extreme stress =    Ans. (c)
A I 
Sol. For sea water grade of concrete lower than
 450  103 
  M30 shall not be used in reinforced concrete.
=  3000  2000  N/mm2 (As per IS 456: 2000).
 60  106  1500  12 
  
 2000  30003 

115. W hat is the m inimum area of tension 118. Which of the following statements are correct
reinforcement in beams when Fe 415 is used? in respect of welded connections?
(a) 0.8% (b) 0.12% 1. Strength of Butt weld is equal to the strength
of components joined.
(c) 0.15% (d) 0.2%
2. Fillet welds carry the loads computed based
Ans. (d)
on the tensile strength characteristics of
R
Ast 0.85 fusion material.
Sol. 
bd fy
3. For effective transmission of load by fillet
A st
TE
0.85 weld, the fusion faces shall subtend an angle
  100   100 = 0.2%
bd 415 between 60° and 120°.
116. If a 2-legged 8 mm diameter HYSD bar is used (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
as shear reinforcement for a beam of width (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
230 mm and effective depth 300 mm, what is
Ans. (d)
AS
the nearest magnitude of the spacing of
minimum shear reinforcement? 119. A post-tensioned beam of span 25 m is
(a) 420 mm (b) 390 mm prestressed with 20 numbers of 40 mm
diameter cables, each stressed to 1500 MPa,
(c) 350 mm (d) 320 mm
with eccentricity e = 0 at supports and e = 500
Ans. (b) mm at midspan, varying parabolically. If the
M
shear force at the support section due to

Sol. For mini shear reinforcemnt
externally applied load is 4500 kN, what is the
A sv 0.4 nearest magnitude of the shear force resisted
bSv  0.87 fy by the stirrups?
 2 (a) 3060 kN (b) 4540 kN
2 8
S
0.4
4  0.87  415
230  Sv (c) 250 kN (d) 1480 kN
Sv  394.32 Ans. (d)

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nearest ans. is (b) Sol.
117. Web buckling occurs in a beam due to P

e P
excessive
(a) Direct tensile stress in the web w
2
(b) Bending tensile stress in the web wl
 Pe
8
(c) Torsional shear stress in the web 
8Pe 8  1500  20  (40)2  500
(d) Compressive stress in the web w= = 4
l2 (25000)2
Ans. (d)
= 241.152 N/mm = 241.152 kN/m

upward load due to prestressing force (a) 9 MPa (b) 13 MPa
= 241.152 × 25 = 6028.8 kN (c) 11 MPa (d) 15 MPa
reaction due to this at support = 3014.4 kN
Ans. (b)
Net shear force created at support
R
Sol. Es = 200 GPa
= 4500 – 3014.4 = 1485.6 kN
This is the shear that has to be approximately Ec = 35.35 GPa
resisted by the stirrups
TE
sc = 200
120. For a pre-tensioned beam, Young’s Modulus  = 1.6
of steel and concrete are 200 GPa and 35.35
GPa, respectively. If the ultimate shrinkage Shrinkage less = sc Es
strain and Ultimate Creep Coefficient are 200  200 
microns and 1.6, respectively, what is the level Creep loss = m  fc =    1.6  fc = 3 × sc.Es
AS
 35.35 
of sustained stress in concrete at the level of
fc  13 MPa
‘steel’ if the loss due to creep is three times
the loss due to shrinkage?
M
S
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ESE-2015
(Objective Paper-II)
Civil
solutions
Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-II (ESE - 2015)
SET - C
1. Consider the following statements in respect of Re duction by
 
Anaerobics
electrostatic precipitators:
R
N2 + NH3 + organic acid + Heat
1. Power requirement is very small compared
to other air pollution control devices and so Nitrogenous organic matter
they are cheaper to perform than other   NO3  Heat
TE
aerobic
devices.
2. Can handle both gases and mists for high  Ammonia nitrogen is called free ammonia
volume flow.
NH3  H2O  NH4  OH 
3. Very small particles can be collected, either
wet or dry. NH4  H2O  NO3  2H   H2O
AS
3. What is the required plan size of a square
sedimentation tank (as the prim ary
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
sedimentation tank in sewage treatment), given
Ans. (b) that its effectie depth is 3 m, and the flow rate
is 40 MLD with admissible surface loading of
Sol. Power req ui rem ent i n el ec t rostat i c 100,000 l/m2/day?
M
precipitator is very high.

(a) 23.5 m × 23.5 m (b) 30 m × 30 m
2. Consider the following statements: (c) 20 m × 20 m (d) 15 m × 15 m
1. Ammonia nitrogen is a measure of nitrogen Ans. (c)
S
present as ammonium hydroxide and

ammonium salts. It will progressively Sol. rate of flow = 40  106  / day
decrease as sewage gets treated.
40  106
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2. Organic nitrogen is the total nitrogenous surface area = = 400 m 2

matter in sewage excepting that present as 105
ammonia nitrogen, nitrites and nitrates. It B  L  400
becomes ammonia in anaerobic
decompositon and nitrites or nitrates in B = 20
aerobic decomposition. L = 20
4. Consider the following statements related to
(a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
ozone:
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Tropospheric ozone is harmful
Ans. (b) 2. Stratospheric ozone is beneficial
Sol. Nitrogenous organic matter 3. During prevalence of photochemical smog,
O3 is formed

Which of the above statements are correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
R
Sol.  O 3 is a secondary pollutant produced by 7. A soil deposit has a void ratio of 1.0. If the void
photochemical pollution, being the largest ratio is reduced to 0.60 by compaction, the
TE
constituent of photo chemical smog along percentage volume loss is
with PAN.
(a) 10% (b) 20%
 ozone in traposphere is harmful because (c) 30% (d) 40%
we take air from troposphere so ozone
al ong wi t h ai r can cause sev ere Ans. (b)
AS
diseases.
Vv1
5. Consider the following statements related to Sol. e = 1 =
Vs
noise: Vv1
1. The range of sound power and = 1 Vv1  Vs  V1
Vs
sound pressures produced is f rom V1  Vs
M
1
0.0002  bars to 10000  bars. Vs
2. Human ears do not respond linearly to V1  Vs  Vs
increase in sound pressures. V1  2Vs
3. Regular exposure to moderate noise makes V1
Vs  ... (i)
S
the human ear more resistant to occasional 2

exposures of high-intensity noise. Vv2
Which of the above statements are correc? 0.6  Vv2  v2  v s
Vs
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v2  vs
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 0.6 
vs
Ans. (a) v2  v1 / 2 2v2  v1
0.6  =  .6
v1 / 2 v1
6. Consider the following statements in respect of = 2v2  1.6v1 ... (ii)
effect of air pollutants on vegetation: v1  v2
% volume loss =  100
1. Necrosis refers to killing of tissue v1
2. Chlorosis refers to loss or reduction of green v1  .8v1
=  100 = 20%
plant pigment v1
3. Leaf abscission refers to the dropping of
leaves 8. The specific gravity of a soil sample is 2.7 and
its void ratio is 0.945. When it is fully saturated,
4. Leaf epinasty ref ers to a downward
the moisture content of the soil will be
curvature of a leaf due to a higher rate of
(a) 25% (b) 30%
growth on the upper surface
(c) 35% (d) 40%

Ans. (c) (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Sol. G s = 2.7 Ans. (d)
e = 0.945
Sol.  the fine clay particles react with lime and
s = 1
get flocculated or aggregated into larger
w = ? particle groups which are fairly stable
R
es = w × G s even under subsequent soaking due to
this flocculation the lime-treated clays
0 .945  1 = w  2.7
indicate different grain size distribution.
TE
w = 0.35
 I ncrease i n l i m e cont en t causes
9. If the co-efficient of permeability is doubled and considerable reduction in swelling and
the co-efficient of volume compressibility is increase in shrinkage limit.
simultaneously halved, the co-efficient of
11. Arrange the following soils with respect to
consolidation
increasing order of realizable friction ratio:
AS
(a) increases by 2 times
1. Loose gravel fill
(b) decreases by 2 times
2. Sands or gravels
(c) increases by 4 times
3. Clay sand mixtures and silts
(d) decreases by 4 times
4. Clays and peats
Ans. (c) (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 4, 2, 3 and 1
M
(c) 1, 3, 2 and 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, and 1

Sol. K1  Cv1 mv1  w
Ans. (d)
K 2  Cv2 mv2  w
12. In a 7 m thick soil stratum, with its initial void
S
K1 Cv1 mv1 ratio of 0.40, the void ratio decreases to 0.30

 
K 2 Cv 2 m v 2 when the effective pressure on the stratum is
K Cv mv increased by 1.0 kg/cm 2. The consolidation
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 1  1 2 settlement of the stratum will be

2K Cv 2 mv1
(a) 5 cm (b) 50 cm
Cv2  4 Cv1
(c) 100 cm (d) 150 cm
10. Consider the following statements: Ans. (b)

Lime stabilization of soil leads to
Sol. Sc  mv H0 
1. Decrease in shrinkage limit
e  1 
2. Increase in plastic limit =    1  e   H0  
3. Decrease in liquid limit  0 
0.1 1
4. Flocculation of clay particles =  700  1
1 kg / cm 
2 1.4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 700
=  50 cm
14

13. A footing 1 m × 1 m in size rests on the surface 15. Consider the following statements regarding the
of an infinite layer of soil. It is subjected to a overflow rate of a sedimentation tank:
load of 600 kN. W hat is the immediate
1. Temperature of water affects the overflow
settlement of the soil by considering Eu = 2.0
rate
MPa, N = 0.5 and influence factor = 0.95?
R
2. Size of particle intended to be removed does
(a) 22.5 mm (b) 25.5 mm not affect the overflow rate
(c) 27.5 mm (d) 30.0 mm 3. Density of particle intended to be removed
TE
affects the overflow rate
Ans. (*)
qB 1  2  IF
Sol. Si  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
E
Ans. (d)
AS
600  103 N / mm2   1  0.52   0.95  1000
= Sol.  when temperature decreases rate of
1 10 6
2  N / mm2 
settling becomes slower.
95  1  0.52   6
Si = = 213.75 mm  density current caused by the weight of
2
solids in tank, try to distribute the floc
14. A stratum of soil consists of three layers of unevenly through out the tank so it does
M
equal thickness. The permeability of both the not settle at even rate.
top and the bottom layers is 10–4 cm/s; and
that of the middle layer is 10–3 cm/’s; then the 16. The virgin compression curve for a particular
value of the horizontal coefficient of permeability soil is as shown in the above figure on the
for the entire composite of the soil layers is standard graphical format. The compression
S
index of the soil is

(a) 2 × 10–4 cm/s (b) 3 × 10–4 cm/s
(c) 4 × 10–4 cm/s (d) 5 × 10–4 cm/s
1.4
IE
Ans. (c)
e
Sol.
4
10 cm / s H
1.0
3
10 cm / s H
104 cm / s H 1.0 10.0
K1H  K 2H  K 3H P
KH  (a) 0.3 (b) 0.4
3H
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.6
104  104  103
= Ans. (b)
3
4
12  10 Sol. e1  e2 = 1.4  1 = 0.4
= = 4  104 cm / s Cc 
3  2   10 
log10   log10  
   1 
 1

17. In a triaxial compression test, the major principal 19. Consider the following statements related to
stress was 90 kPa and the minor principal the properties of a good quality soil sample:
stress was 30 kPa, at failure. The pore pressure
1. Area ratio should be low
at failure was observed to be 10 kPa. The
tangent of the angle of shearing resistance of 2. Cutting edge should be thick
the sandy soil that was tested was 3. Inside clearance should be high
4. Outside clearance should be low
R
1 1
(a) (b) Which of the above statements are correct?
2 3
2 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
TE
(c) (d) (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
3 4
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
1f  3 f Sol.  the area ratio should be kept as low as

Sol. sin  = possi bl e so as t o reduc e sam pl e
1f  3 f
disturbance.
AS
 90  10    30  10 
=   outside clearance should be low. Its value
90  10    30  10 
usually lies between 0 and 2 percent.
60 6
sin  = =
100 10 20. Consider the following statements regarding
ta n  = 3 biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of river
4
M
water:
18. A cylindrical soil specimen of saturated clay, 1. The BOD rate constant varies with river
3.50 cm diameter and 8 cm length, is tested in water temperature
an unconfined compression testing machine. 2. The BOD rate constant does not depend on
The specimen failed under a vertical load of the BOD of the river water
S
50 kg together with an accompanying additinal 3. The BOD rate constant is often different for
deformation of 8 mm. What is the unconfined different river waters
compressive strength of this clay?
IE
4. The BOD rate constant cannot be

(a) 4.67 kg/cm2 (b) 5.0 kg/cm2 determined in a laboratory
(c) 5.5 kg/cm2 (d) 6.0 kg/cm2 Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
A0 A 2
Sol. Af  = A0    3.50 
1 0 4 Ans. (b)
A 0  9.62cm2 Sol. 1. KDT  KD20 1.047 T 20

9.62 2. The BOD rate constant KD can be
Af  9.62
.8 = = 10.69cm2
1 .9 computed from BOD values measured
8
at various times.
50
qu   4.67 kg / cm2
10.69

21. W hich of the following Remote Sensing Ans. (a)
Systems employs only one detector?
Sol. for state highway camber is providide at rate
(a) Scanning of 1 in 50
(b) Framing
R
(c) Electromagnetic spectrum 14  m  1
Rise of crown = 
(d) All of the above 2 50
Ans. (a)
TE
14  100
22. The maximum superelevation to be provided = 14 cm
100
on a road curve is 1 in 15. If the rate of change
of superelevation is specified as 1 in 120 and 25. Consider the following statements:
the road width is 10 m, then the minimum length
of the transition curve on each end will be 1. Effective stress in a sand layer below a lake
AS
with standing water does not alter as the
(a) 120 m (b) 100 m water level fluctuates.
(c) 80 m (d) 180 m
2. Regarding water table below the ground
Ans. (c) surface, any rise in the water table causes
equal changes in both pore pressure and
1
Sol. L = e Nw =  120  10 = 80 m effective stress.
M
15
3. Capillary saturation will cause the effective
23. A four-lane div ided highway, with each stress to increase.
carriageway being 7.0 m wide, is to be
constructed in a zone of high rainfall. In this
stretch, the highway has a longitudinal slope (a) 1, 2 and 3
S
of 3% and is provided a camber of 2%. What (b) 1 and 2 only

is the hydraulic gradient on this highway in this (c) 2 and 3 only
stretch?
(d) 1 and 3 only
IE
(a) 4.0% (b) 3.6%

Ans. (d)
(c) 4.5% (d) 3.0%
Ans. (d) Sol.  due to water level fluctuation below a lake
Sol. drai nage i s prov i ded wi t h sl oope total stress and pore water pressure
approximately equal to longitudinal slope. changes with same value so effective
stress does not change.
24. In an area of heavy rainfall, a State Highway of
high-type bituminous surface with four lanes  due to capillary saturation negative pore
(14.0 m wide) is to be constructed. What will water pressure generates so effective
be the height of the crown of the road relative stress increases.
to the edges for a composite camber (i.e.
middle half as parabolic and the rest as straight •     u ,     u , If  & u are
lines)? equal in magnitude    0
(a) 14 cm (b) 21 cm But due to rise in water table total stress
(c) 28 cm (d) 7 cm will charge because soil moisture content
will increase.

26. A descending gradient of 4% meets an 2. The settlement of the footing on sand
ascending grade of 1 in 40 where a valley curve increases with increase in its width.
of length 200 m is to be formed. What will be Which of the above statements are correct?
the distance of the lowest point on the valley (a) 1 only (b) Both 1 and 2
curve from its first tangent point?
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 100 m (b) 111 m
R
Ans. (b)
(c) 125 m (d) 118 m
Ans. (b) Sol. from plate load test

qf B f
Sol. X  L
X  200
n1
2N
.040
2  0.065
TE 1. q  B
2.
p
Sf1
p
qf  Bf
 Bf Bp  30  
 1 
Sp  Bp Bf1  30  
 
2
AS
X  110.94 2
Sf2 Bf
 2
Bp  30  
X  111 m 
Sp  Bp
 Bf2  30  
2
27. What will be the non-passing sight distance on Sf1  Bf 2
 30   Bf12
a highway for a design speed of 100 kmph  2 2
Sf2 B f  30    Bf2 
when its ascending gradient is 2%? Assume
M
1
2
coefficient of friction as 0.7 and brake efficiency  30 
as 50%. 1 B 
 f2 
(a) 176 m (b) 200 m =  30 
2 Bf2  Bf1
(c) 150 m (d) 185 m 1  B 
S
 f1 
Ans. (a) Sf1

1
Sf2
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Sol. design speed = 100 kmph

Sf2  Sf1
f = .7 × .5 = .35
V2
SSD  .278 Vt  29. The duration of green time in a traffic signal
254  f  .01 n 
depends on
1002
SSD  .278 100  2.5  (a) traffic density (b) traffic volume
254 .35  .02 
(c) traffic speed (d) All of the above
SSD = 175.9 m
Ans. (b)
30. What will be the theoretical maximum capacity
1. The ultimate bearing capacity of a footing (to nearest 10 units) for a single lane of highway
on sand increases with an increase in its given that the speed of the traffic stream is 40
width. kmph?

(a) 3000 veh/h (b) 2860 veh/h then compensation for 4° curve
(c) 2010 veh/h (d) 2510 veh/h = .04 × 4 = 0.16
1
Ans. (b) Now ruling gradient 1 in 200 =  100  .5
200
R
Sol. Theorectical maximum capacity So maxm allowable gradient
1000V
C = = 0.5 – .16 = .34
S
TE
.34
v = kmph =  100  .34%
100
S = average centre to centre spacing of
vehicles in m 33. In the layout of an MG track, the versine of a
horizontal circular curve is measured over a
V = 40 kmph
11.8 m chord length. What would be the radius
AS
S = .278 Vt + L of the curve if the value of the versine was 2
cm?
S = .278 × 40 × .7 + 6.2 = 13.984
1000  40 (a) 900 m (b) 800 m
C = (c) 870 m (d) 850m
13.984
C = 2860.41 Veh/hour Ans. (c)
M
31. The lowest height above the runway where the Sol. 11.8 cm
A
pilots make the decision to continue the landing
manoeuvre or to cut it short is called the Versine = 2 cm
S
(a) Runway height C/2 C/2

C D
(b) Decision height B
(c) Threshold height
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(d) Runway visual range

R R
Ans. (b)
32. What would be the admissible gradient for a

O
BG track when the grade resistance coupled
with a 4° curve resistance shall equal the AB × (2AO – AB) = CB × BD
resistance due to a ruling gradient of 1 in 200? (property of triangle)
(a) 0.30% (b) 0.40% C C
V × (2R – V) = 
(c) 0.24% (d) 0.34% 2 2
C2
Ans. (d) 2RV – V2 =
4
Sol. As per recom mendation of I .S grade V < < R

compensation of B.G is .04% per degree of C2
2RV =
curve. 4

pressures on the inner and the outer wheels to
C2 be equal?
V =
8R
(a) 5% (b) 6%
V = .02 m (c) 7% (d) 8%
C = 11.8 m Ans. (d)
R
11.8 2
R = = 870.25
8 .02 V2
Sol. e
127 R
34. What will be the optimum depth of ballast
cushion required for a BG railway track below
the sleepers with sleeper density of (M + 5)
and bottom width of 22.22 cm?
(a) 25 cm
(c) 28 cm
(b) 21 cm
(d) 30 cm
TE 37.
e
702
127  480
= 8%
The runway length for an airport located at

460m above MSL, corrected for elevation, is
AS
3670m. The monthly means of maximum and
Ans. (a) mean daily temperatures for the hottest month
of the year are 27°C and 18°C, respectively.
Sol. length of each rail on B6 What will be the final corrected length of the
track = 12.8 m runway with correction incorporated also due
to temperature effects?
M
sleeper density = M + 5
(a) 4500 m (b) 4000 m
= 12.8 + 5 = 17.8
(c) 3750 m (d) 3400 m
12.8 m
spacing = = 71.9 cm Ans. (b)
17.8
S
optimum depth of ballast

Sol.
SW 71.9  22.22
= = Standard temp at elevation = 15° – 0.0065 × 460
2 2
IE
= 24.84 = 12.01°C
 Tm  Ta 
35. Which one of the following items of hill road Airport reference temp = Ta   
construction does not help in the prevention of  3 
landslides during the monsoon season?  27  18 
= 18   
(a) Breast walls (b) Hair-pin bends  3 
(c) Catch-water drains (d) Retaining walls = 21
Ans. (b) 3670

Correction for temp = (21  12.01)
100
36. The radius of horizontal circular curve is 480 = 329.933
m and design speed therein 70 kmph. What Corrected length = 3670 + 329.933
will be the equilibrium superelevation for the = 4000 m

38. The magnetic azimuth of one end of a runway 40. What shall be the radius of an exit taxiway with
is 80° measured clockwise from the magnetic design exit speed of 90 kmph and coefficient
north. The other end of the runway will be of friction 0.13?
numbered as
(a) 550 m (b) 500 m
R
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 475 m (d) 449 m
(c) 26 (d) 8
Ans. (b)
TE
Ans. (c)
v2
Sol. R 
127 F
80° Given end
902
R
127  0.13
AS
260°
d
R  490.61m  500 m
en
er
th
O
41. A ship has a metacentric height of 0.90 m and

its period of rolling is 20 seconds. The relevant
As magnetic azimuth of other end is 260°, radius of gyration is nearly
M
therefore its number should be 26 (a) 5.5 m (b) 7.5 m

(c) 9.5 m (d) 11.5 m
39. What will be the initial traffic after construction,
in commercial vehicles per day (CVD) for the Ans. (c)
following data?
S
Annual average daily traffic at last count k2

Sol. T = 2
= 400 CVD g.GM
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Rate of traffic growth per annum = 7% k2

 20  2
The road is proposed to be completed in 3 9.81  0.9
years
202  9.81  0.9
(a) 500 (b) 421  k2 
42
(c) 490 (d) 449
 k = 9.459
Ans. (c)
42. A square gate, 1.5 m × 1.5 m, on one of the
Sol. CVD = Annual avg daily traffic at last count vertical sides of a fully filled water tank, has
n one side on the free water surface. It is hinged
 r 
= 1   on the lower horizontal side and is held in
 100  position by a force applied on the vertical
3
 7  central line at a depth of 0.75 m below the free
= 400  1  
 100  surface. The right magnitude of this force is
= 490 (a) 500 × 9.81 N (b) 600 × 9.81 N
(c) 750 × 9.81 N (d) 1000 × 9.81 N

Ans. (*) 2.5  .05
 T = 0.0156 N/m
8
Sol. 45. A mercury water manometer has a gauge
difference of 0.8 m The difference in pressure
F 1.5 measured in metres of water is
0.75
R
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.06
hinge
(c) 10.05 (d) 8.02
 1.5 
TE
F  0.75   g  0.75 1.5 1.5     Ans. (c)
 3 
 F = 1125 × 9.81 N P 
Sol. hw  hm  m  1
P
 w 
43. A certain water needs alum treatment to the
 13.6 
extent of 10 ppm. How much alum, in quintals  hw  0.8   1
 1 
AS
per day, would be needed to treat 10 MLD of
water? = 0.8 × 12.6
(a) 10 (b) 1.0 = 10.08 m
(c) 100 (d) 1000
46. A sphere is moving in water with velocity of 1.6
Ans. (b) m/s. Another sphere of twice the diameter is
M
placed in a wind tunnel and tested with air

Sol. Quantity of alum which is 750 times less dense and 60 times
less viscous (dynamically) than water. The
= 10 mg /   10  106  / day
velocity of air that will model dynamically similar
= 100  106 mg / day conditions is
S
(a) 5 m/s (b) 20 m/s

= 100kg / day
(c) 10 m/s (d) 40 m/s
IE
= 1 quintal/day
Ans. (c)
44. The surface tension in a soap bubble of 50  PVd   PVd 

mm diameter with its inside pressure being 2.5 Sol.      
 m  p
N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure is
w
(a) 0.0125 N/m (b) 0.0156 N/m  V  2d
w  1.6  d 750
(c) 0.2 N/m (d) 0.0312 N/m = w = w
60
Ans. (b)
60  2V
 1.6 =
 2 750
Sol. T   2  d   P  d
4  V = 10 m/s
pd
 T
8

47. The flow in a river is 1500 cumecs. A distorted Ans. (b)
model is built with horizontal scale of 1/150
and vertical scale of 1/25. The flow rate in the Sol. For V notch
model should be Q = KH5/2
R
(a) 0.04 m3s–1 (b) 0.06 m3s–1 5
 dQ  K.H3/2 .dH
(c) 0.08 m3s–1 (d) 0.10 m3s–1 2
dQ 5 dH

TE
Ans. (c) 
Q 2 H
Sol. For distorted model of river. dQ 5 .15
  
Q 2 75
3/2
Qr  LrH   Lrv  dQ 5 .15
  100 =   100
3/2 Q 2 75
AS
Qp LpH  Lpv 
    = 0.5%
Qm LmH  Lmv 
1500 3/2 50. At a hydraulic jump, the depth at its two sides
 150   25 
Qm are 0.3 m and 1.2 m. The head loss in the
jump is
 Qm  .08 m3 / sec
(a) 1.0 m (b) 0.8 m
M
(c) 0.5 m (d) 0.45 m

48. 10 MLD water is to be chlorinated in a clear
water reservoir (CWR) with 0.8 mg/l chlorine Ans. (c)
dose with providing contact time of 40 minutes.
 y2  y1 3
S
The required CWR capacity is nearly

Sol. E2 
4 y1 y2
(a) 220 m3 (b) 280 m3
(c) 28 m3 (d) 22 m3 1.2  0.3 3
IE
= = 0.50 m
4  1.2  0.3
Ans. (b)
51. Field observations are carried out to assess
6 3
10  10  10 m  40 3 the discharge of a river. Measurements are
Sol. = = 277.79 taken in a 2000 m straight reach. Slope is
24  60
approximately 1 in 4000. Bed slope is
 280 determinable to a possible accuracy of 0.4 cm;
wetted perimeter is determinable within 4% of
49. The head over a V-notch at the end of a possible error; and sectional area within 6% of
channel is 75 cm. If an error of 0.15 cm is possible error. Using Chezy’s equation, the
possible in the measurement of the head, then assessed discharge will be accurate to within
the percentage error in computing the discharge
(a) 9.6% (b) 10.8 %
is
(c) 11.4 % (d) 12.7 %
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.75 (d) 1.0

Ans. (c) 53. In turbulent flow through rough pipes, the ratio
of the maximum velocity to the mean velocity
Sol. Length = 2000 m is
Slope = 1/4000 (a) 2 (b) 4/3
(c) 1.1
and bed slope is determinable to a accuracy
of 0.4 cm (d) Dependent on the friction factor
R
0.4 Ans. (d)
 percentage error in slope =  100
 2000 
   100 54. Two reservoirs are connected by two pipes P
 4000 

dS
S
 100 = 0.8%
From chezy’s equation

Q  A.C R.S
TE and Q. The pipes have the same diameter and
length and are placed in parallel. If the friction
factor of P is 9 times that of Q, then the
discharge in P to that in Q is
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.45
AS
A (c) 0.33 (d) 0.27
 Q  A.C .S
P
Ans. (c)
Q  C.A3/2 .P1/2 .S1/2
dQ 3 dA 1 dP 1 dS Sol. Head low in both pipes will be same
   
Q 2 A 2 P 2 S fPLPQP2
2
fQLQQQ
dQ 3  dA  1  dP   
M
  100  .   100     100  12.1dP5 5

12.1 dQ
Q 2  A  2 P 
1  dS  LP = LQ and dP = dQ
   100 
2 S   fPQP2  fQQQ
2
3 1 1 9 fQ .QP2  fQ .QQ
2
=  6   4  .8  fP  9 fQ 
S
2 2 2
QQ
= 9 + 2 + .4 QP 
3
= 11.4% (Maximum) QP  0.33  QQ
IE
52. Consider the following statements in respect of

55. A sludge had 100 m3 volume when its moisture
cast iron pipes employed for water supply:
content was 95%. What would be its volume if
1. Easy to make joints its moisture content changed to 90%?
2. Strong and durable (a) 200 m3 (b) 50 m3
3. Corrosion resistant (c) 94.7 m3 (d) 105.5 m3
4. Long life
Ans. (b)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Sol. V1 100  P1   V2 100  P2 
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
100  5  V2  10
Ans. (d)
V2  50 m3

56. The Sludge Volume Index for mixed liquor 58. A hydraulic turbine has an output of 6000 kW
having suspended solids concentration of 2000 when it works under a head of 25 m and runs
mg/l and showing a settled volume of 200 ml at 100 rpm. Then the type of turbine used is
from a one litre sample would be (a) Pelton wheel (b) Francis
R
(a) 0.1 (b) 1000 (c) Kaplan (d) Propeller
(c) 100 (d) 10 Ans. (b)
TE
Ans. (c)
N P
Sol. S.V.I = Volume occupied in ml by one Sol. Ns 
H5/H
gm of solid in the mixed liquor
after settling 30 min. 100  6000
=
255/H
AS
200 ml
SVI 
2000 mg /  Ns  138.25
200  103 ml Hence, it is francis turbine.

= = 100 m / gm
2000 gm 59. The velocity heads of water at the inlet and
outlet sections of a draft tube are 3.0 m and
57. The number of impellers required for a
M
0.20 m, respectively. The frictional and other

multistage pump to lift 4500 litres/minute against losses in the draft tube are 0.4 m. What is the
a total head 190 m at a speed of 750 rpm with efficiency of the draft tube?
specific speed not to exceed 700 is
(a) 15% (b) 67%
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 86 % (d) 92 %
S
(c) 10 (d) 12
Ans. (*)
Ans. (*)
IE
N Q
 Ve2  Vexit
2
 h
f
Sol. Ns  Sol. n  2g
H3/4 d
Ve2
Let n = no. of pumps required 2g
4500  103 3  .2  .4
750 =
60 3
 700 = 3/4
 190  2.4
  = = 0.8
 n  3
3/ 4
 190  60. Consider the following statements regarding
    0.29
 n  valves in a pipe line:
190
 .1949 1. In long pipe lines, air will accumulate in the
n
low point of the line and will interfere with
 n  975 pumps the flow.

2. Pressure relief valves are used in pipe lines in the upper portion than in the lower portion in
where pressure may increase beyond the case of positive surges.
maximum permissible pressure.
Ans. (b)
3. Non-return valves prevent water flowing
back, i.e. in the opposite direction.
63. Statement (I) : Total energy line and the
Which of the above statements are correct? hydraulic gradient line for a pipe flow cannot
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intersect each other.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement (II) : The vertical differences
between these two lines must equal the velocity
Ans. (b)
Directions: Each of the next Twenty (20) items

consists of two statements, one labelled as the
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’.
TE 64.
head.
Ans. (a)
Statement (I) : In a reciprocating pump, the

piston is considered to be moving with simple
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Examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given harmonic motion on the assumption that the
below: connecting rod is very large compared to the
crank length.
Codes: Statement (II) : There is acceleration at the
(a) Both Statements (I) and Statement (II) are beginning and retardation at the end of each
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individually true and Statement (II) is the stroke.

correct explanation of Statement (I) Ans. (b)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is not the 65. Statement (I) : Possibility of cavitation is an
correct explanation of Statement (I) important consideration in the selection of a
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turbine for a given head and a range of

(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
corresponding specific speed.
false
Statement (II) : High-speed turbines are used
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(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is

true for high heads.
Ans. (c)
61. Statement (I) : Open channel flow in a channel
is said to be critical when the specific force is
66. Statement (I) : By providing Air Vessels on the
maximum for a given discharge.
suction and delivery sides of a reciprocating
Statement (II) : Direct integration for steady pump, it is possible to increase the delivery
non-uniform flow by Bresse’s method was head of the pump.
developed for very wide rectangular channels.
Statement (II) : The Air Vessel terminates the
Ans. (d)
acceleration head and contributes to the
62. Statement (I) : A moving hydraulic jump is outgoing discharge becoming reasonably
called a surge. steady and uniform.
Statement (II) : The travel of a wave is faster Ans. (b)

67. Statement (I) : If the soil moisture is only 73. Statement (I) : An alluvial channel is defined
slightly more than the wilting coefficient, the as a channel in which the flow transports
plant must expend extra energy to obtain the sediment of the same physical characteristics
water, and hence the plant will not grow as the material in the wetted surface of the
healthily. channel.
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Statement (II) : Excessive water supply retards Statement (II) : This ensures that the channel
plant growth. cross-section and the channel slop do not
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Ans. (b) change.
Ans. (c)
68. Statement (I) : Dracontiasis is transmitted by
drinking contaminated water. 74. Statement (I) : The excavation of side slope of
an irrigation canal for clayey type of soil should
Statement (II) : Dracontiasis can be controlled
be made at 1:1 (i.e. 1 horizontal to 1 vertical)
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by filtration of the drinking water.
which is taken as nearly equal to the angle of
Ans. (b) internal friction of the soil.
69. Statement (I) : Coagulation is the process of Statement (II) : The angle of internal friction
charge neutralization on colloids. represents the stable slope when the excavated
soil, or soil in loose conditions, assumes when
Statement (II) : Flocculation is the process to
dumped in situ.
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grow the chargeless colloids into settleable

flocs. Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
75. Statement (I) : Composting is basically a
70. Statement (I) : The flow in water distribution treatment method for inorganic waste from a
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pipes takes place due to gravity. community.

Statement (II) : The flow in sewers takes place Statement (II) : In the incineration method of
due to gravity.
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refuse disposal, the refuse is burnt off and the

Ans. (d) volume is much reduced.
71. Statement (I) : Anaerobic digestion of sewage Ans. (d)

is unsuitable in the vicinity of a crowded locality.
76. Statement (I) : Gases are normally formless
Statement (II) : Aerobic digestion of sewage is
fluids and can be changed to liquid or solid
costly but is suitable at a crowded locality.
states by change of temperature and pressure.
Ans. (b)
Statement (II) : Smog refers to the occurrence
72. Statement (I) : Duty of drip irrigation is very of a heavy, cloudy, hazy floating layer in the
high atmosphere formed by a mixture of smoke,
dust, fog and mist.
Statement (II) : Losses are least in drip
irrigation Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)

77. Statement (I) : The specific speed (NS) of a = 3.8 + 2.6 = 6.4 cm
centrifugal pump is defined as the speed (in  Runoff volume = 6.4 × 10–2 × 250 ×
rpm) at which it works most efficiently.
106 × 10–4 ha–m
Statement (II) : The specific speed is a = 1600 ha–m
characteristic of pumps that can be used as a
basis for comparing the perf ormance of 82. Return period Refers to
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centrifugal pumps.
(a) The Probability of Exceedance of an event
Ans. (d)
(b) The Probability of Non-Exceedance of an
event
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78. Statement (I) : Permanent lowering of ground
water table results in settlement of foundations. (c) The Inverse of the Probability of Exceedance
of an event
Statement (II) : Increase in effective stress (d) The Inverse of the Probability of Non-
does not result in settlement of strata. Exceedance of an event
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
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79. Statement (I) : Boussinesq equation is not 83. Orographic rain occurs when the air is cooled
suitable for sedimentary deposits. sufficiently as a result of
Statement (II) : Sedimentary deposits do not (a) lifting due to flow over a mountain barrier
represent an isotropic-cum-homogeneous (b) relative movement of two large air masses
system. (c) violent upthrow of air arising from localized
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Ans. (a)
heating
(d) cyclonic conditions
80. Statement (I) : In cohesive soils, the ultimate
bearing capacity is independent of foundation Ans. (a)
width.
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84. A Double-Mass-Curve Analysis is useful in

Statement (II) : The ultimate bearing capacity
(a) Consistency Analysis
of cohesive soils increases with depth below
(b) Frequency Analysis
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ground level.
Ans. (b) (c) Storage Computation Analysis
(d) Guessing missing data in cases of non-
81. A 4-hour rainfall in a catchment of 250 km 2 homogeneous terrain.
produces rainfall depths of 6.2 cm and 5 cm in Ans. (a)
successive 2-hour unit periods. Assuming the
 index of the soil to be 1.2 cm/hour, the runofff 85. Consider the following steps which are involved
volume is in arriving at a unit hydrography :
(a) 1.6 ha-m (b) 16 ha-m 1. Separation of base flow

(c) 160 ha-m (d) 1600 ha-m 2. Estimating the surface runoff in volume
3. Estimating the surface runoff in depth
Ans. (d)
4. Dividing surface runoff ordiante by depth of
Sol. Runoff depth = (6.2 – 1.2 × 2) + (5 – 1.2 × 2) runoff

Which is the correct sequence of these steps ? (c) Evaporation and Infiltration
(a) 4, 3, 2 and 1 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Evaporation and Transpiration from the
cropped area
(c) 4, 2, 3 and 1 (d) 1, 3, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
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90. In a uni f orm semi -inf i nite aqui f er, the
86. Probability of a 10-year flood to occur at least
dependable discharge of a loan circular open
once in the next 5 years is
well is increased most easily by
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(a) 35% (b) 40%
(a) increasing the diameter
(c) 50% (d) 65%
(b) making it into one with a square kerb
Ans. (b)
(c) deepening the well
Sol. Required probability (d) providing coarser screening filter
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5
 1 Ans. (c)
= 1  1  = 40.9%
 10 
91. In a ski-jump bucket provided in an overflow
87. S-curve Hydrograph is the hydrograph spillway, the lip angle is 30°, and the actual
(a) producing 1 cm of runoff over the basin velocity of flow entering the bucket is 30 m/s.
The maximum vertical height attained by the
(b) of flow from a 1 cm intensity rain of infinite
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trajectory of the jet, measured above the lip of

duration
the bucket, is nearly
(c) having a volume of 1 cm3
(d) of the total storm duration in any single storm (a) 45 m (b) 35 m
rainfall (c) 22 m (d) 11 m
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Ans. (b) Ans. (d)

88. Surface Runoff represents the total water
/s y
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(a) flowing in surface channels after the rainfall m B

(b) obtained after deducting fromn rainfall water 30
= h x
v
what has infiltrated and/or evaporated, from Sol. 30°
the total rainfall
(c) excluding the base flow in surface channels
30°
after the rainfall
vertical component of velocity = v.sin30°
(d) flown (or flowing) through all channels over
a specified period of time. at top-point B, vertical velocity is zero
Ans. (b)  v.sin30  gt  0
v.sin30
89. Consumptive Use refers to the loss of water  t =
as a result of g
(a) Evaporation and Transpiration

(b) Crop Water Requirement

Now of 2cm/second. It is desired to have the strainer
1 2 of slot sizes 20 mm × 0.2 mm with number of
h = v.sin 30 t – gt slots per cm length of the strainer as 100.
2
v2 sin2 30 (a) 8 m (b) 1 m
 h =
2g (c) 12 m (d) 10 m
1
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302  Ans. (d)
= 4 = 11.47 m
2  9.81 Sol. Let length of strainer be ‘x’ m
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92. The discharge capacity required at the outlet
to irrigate 3000 ha of sugarcane having a kor x   20  .2  106    2  102   100  100 
depth of 173 mm and a kor period of 30 days
= 8  103
is
(a) 2.0 m3/s (b) 1.0 m3/s x = 10 m
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(c) 20 m3/s (d) 0.20 m3/s 95. The population of a city in the year 2000 was
Ans. (a) 82,300. If average per cent increase in
population per decade is 35% , the population
of the city in the year 2020 estimated
3000  104  173  103
Sol. Q required  geometrical increase will nearly be
30  24  3600
(a) 1,00,000 (b) 1,25,000
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= 2m3 / sec
(c) 1,50,000 (d) 1,75,000
93. By considering the channel index as 5/3, the Ans. (c)

setting of an orifice type irrigation outlet to have 2
proportionality is  r 
Sol. P2  P0  1  
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 100 
(a) 0.90 (b) 0.67 2
 35 
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.15 = 82300  1  
 100 
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Ans. (c) = 149991.75

outlet index  1.50,000
Sol. Setting = channel index
Outlet index for orifice type outlet is 1/2 96. The different actions that take place in
1 anaerobic decomposition process are
 Setting = 2 [  channal index = 5/3] 1. Alkaline fermentation

5/3 2. Acid fermentation
= 0.3 3. Acid regression
4. Methane formation
94. What is the strainer length required for a deep
tube well giving a discharge of 8 liters per What is the correct sequence of these actions
second ? Assume permissible entrance velocity (from earlier to later)?

(a) 4, 3, 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3, 1 and 4 Sol. The two filter differ in respect of the effective
(c) 4, 1, 3 and 2 (d) 2, 1, 3 and 4 size of sand used in them.
Ans. (b)
99. How many kg of a bleaching powder is needed
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per day to chlorinate 4 MLD of water so that,
97. What is the rapid sand filter surface area after 40 minutes of contact, there remains
required for filtering of 10 MLD water assuming
residual chlorine of 0.25mg l . The input water
a filtration rate of 100,000 l /m2/day ?
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has a chlorine demand of 1.25mg l , and that
(a) 100 m2 (b) 10 m2 the bleaching powder has only 25% available
(c) 1 m2 (d) 1000 m2 chlorine.
(a) 8 kg (b) 20 kg
Ans. (a)
(c) 24 kg (d) 6.6 kg
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Sol. Q = 10 MLD
Ans. (c)
6
Q = 10  10  / d
Sol. Total chlorine dose = chlorine demand +
Residual chlorine
Filtratan rate = 100000  / m2 / day
= 1.25 + 0.25
10  106
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Surface area = = 1.5 mg / 

105
 Total chlorine required per day
2
= 100 m
= 4  106  1.5  106 kg
= 6 kg
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98. Consider the following statements in respect of

slow sand filter and rapid sand filter : Bleaching powder has 25% available chlorine
1. The two filters differ in respect of the 6
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standards regarding non-uniformity of the  Bleaching powder required per day =

0.25
sand used in their filtering media.
= 24 kg
2. The two filters do not differ in respect of the
effective size of the sand used in them. 100. Which of the following help to prevent water
3. The two filters differ in respect of their pollution due to land-disposal of waste?
respective under-drainage system 1. Proper consolidation of waste to reduce pore
4. The two filters differ in respect of their space and permeability
respective rate of filtration 2. Disposal over impervious strata
3. Layer of impervious soil on the top and the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 sides of the deposited solid waste
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)

101. The time taken to construct a building was from
2. The pressure bulb profiles under a strip
April 1992 to September 1993. In September
footing form as co-axially imaginable bulbs
1996, the average settlement was found to be
under its length
5.16 cm. If the ultimate settlement is estimated
to be 25 cm, then the settlement in January 3. Friction piles are also called ‘floating piles’.
1997 would have been Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
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(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm
(c) 8 cm (d) 9 cm (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
Sol. the reckoning of time is conventionally done

from mid-way through the construction of
loading
so in 3.75 year settlement = 5.16 cm
TE 103. Which of the following factors affect the bearing
capacity of cohesive soils ?
1.
2.
Density of the soil
Angle of shearing resistance of the soil
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5.16 3. Depth of the footing
U = = .2064
25 4. Width of the footing
 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
TV = u = .0334
4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Cv t
= .0334 Ans. (a)
H2
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Cv Sol. qu  CNc  Df

= 8.906 × 10–3
H2
for cohesive soil bearing capacity does not
Settlement in January 1997
depend on width of footing.
Time = 4 year 1 month
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Cv t 104. Consider the following statements :

= Tv
H2 1. The required yield of a retaining wall to reach
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8.906  103  4.083  Tv equilibrium in the active case is less than

for the passive case.
 2
36.36  103  Tv  u 2. The activ e pressure caused by a
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cohensionless backfill on a smooth vertical
u = .2151
retaining wall may be reduced by
H  .2151  H compacting the backfill.
3. Given a choice, one should pref er a
H  5.37
cohesive soil for a backfill vis-a-vis a non-
cohesive soil.
Which of the above statement are correct ?
1. The proportioning of footing in sand is more
often governed by settlement rather than by (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
bearing capacity. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b) 1. To work from part to whole
2. To locate a new station by measurements
Sol. For Active earth presure from at least two fixed reference points
H .2% for dense sand already established and/or identifiable.
 100   
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H .5% for loose sand  Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
for passive earth pressure (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
H 2% for Dense sand (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 100 
H (5  10)% for Loose sand
Ans. (b)
Problems regarding f oundations to be
constructed in expansive soils are solved by 1. Dynamic resistance of a soil is not much
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different from its static resistance.
1. Resorting to light foundation pressure
2. The most comprehensive pile driving formula
2. Using under-reamed piles for light loads is Hiley’s formula
3. Making the structure rigid enough so that 3. Pile driving formulae are more useful if the
settlement and uplift would not affect them subsoil consists of coarse grained soils.
4. Providing a well-designed basement with the Which of the above statements are correct ?
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foundation below the neutral point.

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (c)
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Ans. (b) 109. The whole Circle Bearing of line AB is 50° and
of line BC is 120°. The deflection angle at B
106. Which of the following tests are essential for from AB to BC is
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designing a foundation on expansive soils ?

(a) 50° (b) 70°
1. Swelling pressure test (c) 110° (d) 120°
2. Free swell test
3. Estimation of differential free swell Ans. (b)
4. Shrinkage limit test
Sol. 50°
120°
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only B 70°
Ans. (c) 50°
A
C
The general principles of surveying are ?
Deflection angle = 70°

110. The levelling staff held at a distance of 200 m, 112. Consider the following statements regarding
is read at 4.54 m with the bubble out of centre excreta disposal without water carriage system:
by 2 divisions towards the observer. If the
1. Pit-Privy is a pit in the ground with the toilet
sensitiveness of the bubble is 25 secs/division,
seat located directly over it.
and 1 division = 2 mm, then actual staff reading
must have been 2. Bore-Hole Latrines do not cause nuisance
due to flies and odour.
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(a) 4.5 m (b) 4.492 m 3. Aqua-Privy works on the same principle as
(c) 4.54 m (d) 4.62 a septic tank.
4. In the context of a Bore-Hole Latrine, a pit
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Ans. (b)
of about 30 cm to 40 cm diameter is dug to
a depth of 4 m to 8 m.
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Sol. Senstivity  =  206265 Which of the above statements are correct ?
nD
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
S (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
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25 =  206265
2  200
Ans. (c)
25  2  200
S = 113. Which of the following minor instruments are
206265
used for setting out right angles in chain
S = 0.0484 m surveying ?
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Staff reading = 4.54 – 0.0484 1. Cross staff

2. Optical square
= 4.492 m
3. Prism square
111. In a levelling survey, the summation of all 4. Auto level
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backsights and the summation of all foresights (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
are 7.475 m and 7.395 m, respectively. The
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
reduced level of the initial benchmark is
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100.000 m. The reduced level of the last point Ans. (c)

where the staff is held will be
(a) 100.000 m (b) 100.080 m 114. Regarding a Prismatic Compass, which one of
the following statements is correct ?
(c) 107.395 m (d) 107.475 m
(a) The object is sighted first. The observer then
Ans. (b) moves to the side of the object vane to take
the reading
Sol. B.S = 7.475 m
(b) Sighting and reading are done
F.S = 7.395 m simultaneously
R.L of last point = R.L. of B.M. B.S  F.S (c) The readings are taken from the north end
(d) The compass has an edge bar needle.
= 100 + 7.475 – 7.395
= 100.08 Ans. (b)

115. With regard to Trigonometric Levelling, which (c) the upper plat is clamped and the lower
one of the following statements is correct at its plate is unclamped
simplest applications ? (d) both the plates are clamped
(a) Determination of the elevations of station is Ans. (d)
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based on the observed vertical angles and
the horizontal distances 118. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Determination of the horizontal distances is ecology :
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based on the observed vertical angles
1. Climax ecosystem is a stage in the evolution
(c) Determination of the vertical angles is based
of an ecosystem, at which all the species
on the observed horizontal distances
are in dynamic equilibrium among
(d) Determination of the horizontal distances is themselves as also with the environment.
based on the observed vertical angles and
2. Ecological niche means all the physical,
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the measured elevations.
chemical and biological factors that a
Ans. (a) species needs in order to live and reproduce
exist
116. Consider the following statements : 3. Edge effect refers to the presence of rich
and unique biological diversity found in an
1. The component of the distance between two
ecotone.
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points measured in the north-south direction

is called the latitude of the line, between Which of the above statemetns are correct ?
the points. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
2. The component of the distance between two (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
points measured in the east-west direction Ans. (a)
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is called the departure of the line, between

the points 119. For better accuracy in measuring and plotting
3. The latitude is considered as positive when the sides of a triangle by triangulation, the
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reckoned southward angles of the triangle

4. The departure is considered as negative (a) should not be more than 30°
when reckoned westard. (b) should not be less than 30° or more than
Which of the above statements are correct ? 120°
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) are not restricted in magnitude
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) should not be less than 120°
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
120. To uniquely determine the position of the user
117. For minor adjustments of horizontal angles using GPS, one needs to receive signals from
meaured using a theodolite, the tangential at least
screw is adjusted after (a) 1 satellite (b) 2 satellites
(a) both the plates are unclamped (c) 3 satellites (d) 4 satellites
(b) the lower plate is clamped and the upper
Ans. (d)
plate is unclamped

ESE-2016
(Objective Paper-I)
Civil Engineering
solutions
Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-I (ESE - 2016)
SET - A
1. Consider the following statements : 4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of
wood.
1. There will be no defects in select grade
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timbers. Which of the above statements are correct ?
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
timer without defects may be reduced by (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible
stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with
a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a
TE Ans. (a)
Sol. Seasoning of timber causes increases in
strength, durability, workability and resilience.
Timber for treatment must be sound and
dried to an appropriate moisture content. All
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modification factor of 1.33 is adopted.
wood working processes like cutting to size,
boring, etc. shall be done prior to treatment.
Seasoning reduces shrinkage and warping
Ans. (c) ASCU treatment is a method of preservation
of timber, which results in durability of wood
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Sol. Some defects are permitted in all grades of and not strength.
timber and all other defects unlikely to affect
any of the mechanical strength properties. 3. Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition
of timber is /are mainly
 As IS: 1331 –1971 provides for reduction in
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strength of Grade-II timber without defects (a) Methane and Hydrogen

not by more than 37.5%. (b) Hydrogen Sulphide
 Permissible stress in ungraded timbers is (c) Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
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adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.80. (d) Ammonia

 Modification factor of 1.33 is adopted in case Ans. (c)
of wind and earthquake forces
Sol. Rot in timber is decomposition or putrefaction
2. Consider the following statements regarding generally caused by damp atmosphere which
timber : causes emission of gasses mainly carbonic
acid & hydrogen.
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln
seasoning.
4. Efflorescence of bricks is due to
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to
treatment. (a) Excessive burning of bricks
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of (b) High silt content in brick clay
warping.
, 8010009955
(c) High porosity of bricks 7. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(d) Soluble salts present in parent clay regarding the strength of cement ?
Ans. (d) 1. Particle sizes less than 3m increases the
Sol. Effloresence is caused because of alkalies viscous nature of the cement.
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present in clay. Salts such as sulphates of 2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced
soidum and potassium, if present in clay are by fly-ash to improve the strength.
dissolved by the absorbed water. On drying
grey or white powder patches appear on the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
bri ck sur f ace, whi ch i s c al l ed as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
efforescence.
5. T
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is
primarily due to
Ans. (c)
Sol.  As particle size decreases viscous nature
of cement decreases.
AS
1. Efflorescence  Fly ash reacts with available lime and alkali
in concrete, producing additional
2. Magnesium sulphate in bricks
cementitious compounds as calcium silicate
3. Calcined clay admixtures hydrate (C–S–H) binder.
4. Kankar nodules
This additional binder produced by fly ash
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
M
reaction with available binder allows fly ash

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only concrete to gain strength over time. This
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 will ultimately exceed the strength of fly ash
concrete than of cement concrete mixes.
Ans. (d)
8. The constituent compound in Portland cement
S
6. Consider the following test : which reacts immediately with water, and also
sets earliest, is
1. Transverse strength test
(a) Tricalcium silicate
IE
2. Water absorption test

3. Impact test (b) Dicalcium silicate
4. Breaking strength test (c) Tricalcium aluminate
Which of the above are relevant to testing of (d) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
tiles ? Ans. (a)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Sol. Rate of hydration is
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only C3A > C4AF > C3S > C2S
(c) 3 and 4 only
C4AF and C3A are responsible for flash set.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 When water is added to the cement, the
Ans. (d) quickest to react with water is C 3A.
Sol. As per IS 13630 : 2006, all the four tests are 9. Which of the following statements are correct
performed. with regard to cement mortar ?
, 8010009955
1. Workability of cement mortar can be where :  = shear stress,
improved by addition of lime.
0 = (initial) yield value,
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering
 = at-point plastic viscosity
jobs.
 =at-point rate of shear
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely Ans. (a)
R
crushed fire bricks. Sol. Concrete is most often assumed to behave as
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a bingham fluid.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only Hence,   0  
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
Sol. Addition of saw dust decreases the workability

TE 12. W hich method of curing of concrete is
recommendable for rapid gain of strength of
concrete ?
(a) Sprinkling water
AS
because of water absorption. (b) Membrane curing
(c) High-pressure steam curing
10. In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the
(d) Infrared radiation curing
actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have
undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of Ans. (c)
cement, will be Sol. High pressure steam curing is generally
M
(a) 3.00 (b) 3.45 recommended for rapid gain of strength of

concrete.
(c) 4.50 (d) 6.00
Ans.(b) 13. Which of the following is appropriate as simple
Sol. Mix proportion = 1 : 3 : 6 field method for assesing consistency of
S
concrete ?
Let the volume of cement = 1 m3
(a) Compacting factor (b) Slump test
(unit volume of cement)
(c) Vee-Bee test (d) Kelly Ball test
IE
Volume of sand = 3 m3
Ans. (d)
Volume of aggregate = 6 m 3
15  Sol. Kelly ball test is field method for assessing
 3
Actual volume of sand = 3  1    3.45m consistency of concrete while compaction
 100 
factor test, slump test and vee-Bee test is used
11. The Rheological behavior of concrete, when to measure workability of concrete.
represented by shear stress vs rate of shear,
is characterized as 14. W hich of the following are relatable to
Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
(a)   0  . (b)  0    .
1. Light weight

(c)   . (d)   . 2. Strong
0
, 8010009955
3 Inorganic Sol. (c)
4. Nontoxic
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |longitudinal strain| = 3 × |lateral strain|
R
Ans. (d) lateral strain
Possions ratio  =
longitudinal strain
Sol. Properties of autoclaved aerated concrete are
TE
as follows : 1
 =
(i) Thermal efficiency 3
E
(ii) Superior fire resistance Bulk modulus K =
3(1  2)
(iii) Light weight
E
AS
(iv) Great ventilation
K = 3  1  2  1 

(v) Non toxic  3
K = E = 1 × 105 N/mm2)
(vi) Strong
(vii) Inorganic 17. For an elastic material, Poisson’s ratio is  ,
Modulus of Elasticity is E, Modulus of Rigidity
M
15. The workability of concrete becomes more

is C and Bulk Modulus is K.  is expressible
reliable depending on
in terms of K and C as
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit 6K  2C 6K  2C
(a) (b)
S
3. Grading of the aggregate 3K  2C 3K  2C

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 6K  2C 3K  2C
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) (d)
IE
6K  2C 6K  2C
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
Sol. Workability of concrete depends upon all the
3K  2G
three components. Sol. Poisson ratio,  =
6K  2G
16. The longitudinal strain of cylindrical bar of 25 18. A mild steel bar of length 450 mm tapers
mm diameter and 1.5 m length is found to be uniformly. The diameters at the ends are 36
3 times its lateral strain in a tensile test. What mm and 18 mm, respectively. An axial load of
is the value of Bulk Modulus by assuming E = 12kN is applied on the bar. E = 2×105 N/mm2.
1×105 N/mm2 ? The elongation of the bar will be
(a) 2 × 105 N/mm2 (b) 1.1 × 105 N/mm2 1 1
(a) mm (b) mm
(c) 1 × 105 N/mm2 (d) 2.1 × 105 N/mm2 3 6
3 2
(c) mm (d) mm
2 3
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Ans. (b) 3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the
applied stress are known as lateral strain.
36 mm 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume
18 mm
is known as volumetric strain.
12 KN 12 KN
Sol. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
450 mm (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
R
4PL (c) 3 and 4 only
Elongation of bar =
d1d2E (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4  12  103  450 Ans. (b)
TE
= 5
  36  18  2  10 Sol. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in
1 longitudinal and compressive strain in lateral
= mm
6 directions.
19. Which of the following statements are correct Statement I, III and IV are true.
for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular
AS
faces of a plane element ? 21. The state of stress on an element is as shown
in the figure. If E = 2×105 N/mm2 and Poisson’s
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually
ratio = 0.3, the magnitude of the stress  for
perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of
no strain in BC is
the principal stresses.

2. The shearing stresses in two mutually
M
A B
perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude
and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the 2 2
difference between principal stresses. 80 N/mm 80 N/mm

S
D C
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 
Ans. (d) (a) 84 N/mm2 (b) 64 N/mm2
IE
Sol. Shearing stresses in two m utually (c) 34 N/mm2 (d) 24 N/mm2

perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude Ans. (d)
but not same in direction.

Statement-I and III are true.
A B
20. Which of the following statements are correct?
Sol.
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is
80
known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear D C
and lateral directions.

, 8010009955
E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 dimension of the body so that its geometry
and properties of material can be assumed to
 = 0.3
be unchanged (i.e. dilation is taken as
for no strain in BC invariant).
R
1 2
 = 0 24. W hi ch one of the f ollowi ng represents
E E constitutive relationship ?
 1 = 0.3 × 80
TE
(a) Vertical displacements in a structure
 1 = 24 N/mm2 (b) Rotational displacements in a structure
(c) System of forces in equilibrium
22. In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer (d) Stress-strain behavior of a material
can occur in
Ans. (d)
AS
(a) Inner Bark and Sap Wood
Sol. Constitutive relation is relation between two
(b) Pith and Heart Wood physical quantities that is specific to the
(c) Sap Wood and Heart Wood material.
(d) Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Hence stress strain behaviour of solid material
Ans. (a) is constitutive relationship.
M
Sol. Cambium layer occurs in innerbarks and sap

wood. 25. A square element of a structural part is
subjected to biaxial stresses as shown in the
23. Consider the following statements : figure. On a plane along BD, the intensity of
the resultant stress due to these conditions will
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is be
S
taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic 2
sum of all normal stresses. 100 N/mm
IE
3. The shearing modulus is always less than D A

the elastic modulus.
2 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 300 N/mm 300 N/mm
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 C B
Ans. (d) 100 N/mm
2
E E
Sol. G (a) 25 5 N mm2 (b) 50 5 N mm2
3 2
(c) 75 5 N mm2 (d) 100 5 N mm2
In infinitesimal strain theory displacement of
material is much smaller than any relevant
, 8010009955
Ans. (d) Sol. This is a case of pure shear.
2
100 N/mm Principal streses in this case is  ,   
D A
1 = 80 N/mm2 (Tension)
 2 = –80 N/mm2 (Compresion)
45° 2
300 N/mm
R
Given  y = 240 N/mm2
B
C Factor of safety as per maximum normal stress
y
theory =
TE
Hence BD is plane of maximum shear stress 
240
1   2 =  1   2 
 = 80
2
= 3
300  100
Shear stress  = = 100 N/mm2
2 27. Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and
AS
  2 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in
Normal stress  = 1 = 200 N/mm2 simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2.
2
The values of factors of safety according to
Resultant stress = (100)2  (200)2
maximum principal stress theory and maximum
= 100 5 N/mm2 shear stress theory, respectively, are
(a) 2.5 and 2.5 (b) 2.5 and 5
M
26. A structural element is subjected to pure shear

(c) 5 and 5 (d) 5 and 1.67
of 80 N/mm2, as shown in the figure. The yield
stresses both in tension and in compression Ans. (a)
are 240 N/mm2. According to the maximum
normal stress theory, the factors of safety in Sol. Given 1  80N mm2 ,  2  40N mm2
S
tension and compression are, respectively

 y = 200 N/mm2
2
80 N/mm
IE
Max. principal stress = 80 N/mm 2 = P

FOS as per Max. principal stress Theory
80 N/mm 2 80 N/mm2
y
= 
P
80 N/mm2 200
=  2.5
(a) 2 and 2 (b) 2.5 and 2.5 80
    2 1  2 
(c) 3 and 3 (d) 4 and 4 Max. shear stress = Max. of  1 , ,
 2 2 2 
Ans. (c)
 80  40 80 40 
= Max. of  , ,
 2 2 2 
, 8010009955
= Max. of (20, 40, 20) when bent, as a circular arc, subtends a central
= 40 N/mm2 angel   60 . Take E = 2×106 kg/cm2. The
max maximum stress induced in the ruler and the
FOS as per Max. shear stress theroy = magnitude is

R
 200 2  (a) 2618 kg/cm2 (b) 2512 kg/cm2
=  
 40  (c) 2406 kg/cm2 (d) 2301 kg/cm2
= 2.5 Ans. (a)
TE
28. The principal stresses at a point are 2 Sol. Given :
(tensile) and  (compressive), and the stress Cross-section of ruler = 0.0625 cm × 2.5 cm.
at elastic limit for the material in simple tension
is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear
strain theory, the value of  at failure is
AS
2.5 cm
(a) 70 N/mm2 (b) 105 N/mm2
(c) 140 N/mm2 (d) 210 N/mm2
0.0625 cm
Ans. (a)
Sol. Given 1  2, 2   Angle subtended = 60°
M
 y = 210 N/mm2  l =R

As per Max. shear strain theory. 25 = R   60
180
max fy
 2G  R = 23.87 cm
G
S
l
   2 1  2 
max = Max. of  1 , ,
 2 2 2 
IE
 2     2  
= Max. of  2
, , 
2 2
 R
  60°
= Max. of  1.5, , 
 2
= 1.5  Max. stress in the ruler will be on the extreme
1.5  210 end.
 f E
G 2G
 =
210 y R
 
2  1.5 f 2  106
0.0625 =
  70 N/mm2 23.87
2
29. A thin steel ruler having its cross-section of  f = 2618 Kg/cm2
0.0625 cm × 2.5 cm is bent by couples applied
at its ends so that its length l equal to 25 cm,
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30. Which of the following statements are correct ? 100
 Alumi = 3 × 0.5
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or
hoisting loads. 100
 Alumi =  66.7MPa
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power 1.5
shovels can be used as hoes. 32. In order that the extreme fibre stresses in
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often
ER
bending will be in the ratio 4:3 in the beam
used comfortably in the working of a tractor. shown in the following figure, the width b of the
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines upper flange (b < 10cm) of the beam section
if the material is water-saturated. is to be
b
2.5 cm
Ans. (a)
31.
T
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are
2.5 cm 10 cm
AS
heated to a same temperature. Forces are 2.5 cm
applied at the ends of the bars to maintain
10 cm
their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s
moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the (a) 6.1 cm (b) 6.6 cm
ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of (c) 5.1 cm (d) 5.6 cm
Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the Ans. (d)
M
stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on

Sol. Since b < 10 cm, top fibre will have higher
the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
stress.
(a) 16.7 MPa (b) 66.7 MPa 4
(c) 136.7 MPa (d) 150.0 MPa 15 – y
S
Ans. (b)
y
Esteel 
Sol. Given :  3, steel  0.5
IE
E Alumi  alumi 3 Strain

Stress distribution
 steel  100MPa  Aluni  ? distribution
Let the stress in extreme fibres be 4 and
We know,
3 .
 = E Let the distance of neutral axis from bottom =
Here,  = T f M E
y. We know  
1 E1 1 y I R
  2 = E 2 2 4 3
 =
steel Esteel   steel  T 15  y y
 Alumi = 4y = 45 – 3y
E Alumi   Alumi  T
7y = 45
, 8010009955
y = 6.428 cm from bottom 34. The bending moment at A for the beam shown
C.G. from bottom below (With BD being a rigid bar) is
10  2.5  1.25  10  2.5  7.5  b  2.5  13.75 3m B
= A
10  2.5  10  2.5  b  2.5 (Vertical)
R
87.5  13.75b
= 3m 1m
20  b C
D
87.5  13.75b 3 kN
Now,  6.428
TE
20  b (a) Zero (b) 12 kN-m
 87.5  13.75b  128.56  6.428b (c) 8 kN-m (d) 6 kN-m
7.322b = 41.06 Ans. (b)
A
 b = 5.6 cm 3m
33. A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical Sol. RBD
AS
I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam
RBD
is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and C 1m
bottom are 120 N/mm 2 and 80 N/mm 2 ,
respectively. The depth of the natural axis from 3m 3 KN
the top of the beam will be
Since, there is a hinge at C,
(a) 120 mm (b) 100 mm
M
(c) 80 mm (d) 60 mm   MC = 0
3  4  RBD  3  0
Ans. (a)
 RBD = 4 KN
S
Sol. Overall depth = 200 mm. Now,

 top = 120 N/mm2 MA = RBD × 3
=4× 3
IE
bottom = 80 N/mm2
= 12 KNm
Let the depth of netural axis from top = y Alternatively
f1 f2
 y1 = y 2
120 80 3
=
y 200  y
2(200 – y) = 2y 3
600 – 3y = 2y 3m
R
600 R
y =
5 R
= 120 mm from top. 3
3–R
, 8010009955
 (3 – R) × 3 + 3 = 0 Ans. (a)
 R =4 Sol. Given N = 200 rpm, T = 1500 Nm
 MA = 4 × 3 = 12 kNm 2N 2  200 20

 =    rad s
35. The bending moment diagram for the beam 60 60 3
shown below is
P = T.
R
D E (Rope tied at B
turned at fixed 20
point E, and on = 1500   10000 watt
pulley at D) 3
2m 1m
TE
A B
C = 10  kW
2 kN
2 kN-m 37. Torques are transmitted to the solid circular

shaft as shown in the figure below. If the
corresponding permissible stress in the shaft
(a)
is 60 N/mm2, the diameter of the shaft is nearly.
AS
2m
4 kN-m 900 N-m 2150 N-m
2 kN-m
A B C D
(b) 450 N-m 800 N-m

2m 2m
M
4 kN-m (a) 57.3 mm (b) 47.3 mm

2 kN-m (c) 37.3 mm (d) 27.3 mm
Ans. (b)
(c) Sol.
S
A B
800
4 kN-m
B C D
2 kN-m 900N-m 1250
IE
2150 1250 D
900 1250
900
800
(d) 900 450
4 kN-m Max. torque at ny section = 1250 N – m

Ans. (*)
perm = 60N/m2
36. A circular shaft rotates at 200 rpm and is subject
 T
to a torque of 1500 Nm. The power transmitted  =
r J
would be
60 1250  1000
 =
(a) 10 kW (b) 15 kW d2 d4 32
(c) 20 kW (d) 30 kW  d = 47.34 mm
, 8010009955
38. A solid circular shaft has a diameter d. It polar As we know,
modulus will be  T
=
r J
 2  3
(a) d (b) d 420 13569
16 64 =
R
4
d/2   4  d 
 3  2 d    
(c) d (d) d 32   2  
16 32 
Ans. (c) 840 13569
TE
=  15
Sol. Polar moment of inertia for a d   d4
32 16
d4
Circular saft =  d = 5.6 cm
32
J d4
 40. Two thin-walled tubular members made of the
Plar modulus = y 32  d
AS
same material have the same length, same
2
wall thickness and same total weight and are
d3
= both subjected to the same torque of magnitude
16
T. If the individual cross-sections are circular
Where y = distance of maximum stress fibre and square, respectively, as in the figures, then
from centre.
the ratios of the shear stress  reckoned for
39. A hollow steel shaft has outside diameter and
M
the circular member in relation to the square

inside diameter d/2. The value of d for the shaft, member will be
if it has to transmit 200 hp at 105 rpm with a
Figures not to scale
working shear stress of 420 kg/cm2, is
(a) 5.6 cm (b) 2.6 cm t
S
(c) 12.1 cm (d) 15.5 cm

Ans. (a)
IE
A0́ A´0´
Sol. d/2 d
(a) 0.785 (b) 0.905
(c) 0.616 (d) 0.513
Given, P = 200 hP, Ans. (a)
N = 105 rpm T
Sol. For thin walled section shear stress   2tA
m
max = 420 Kg/cm2
Am = mean area
P = T.
2  105
200 × 746 = T  Am
60
T = 13569 N-m
, 8010009955
Weight of the two member is same hence 42. A mild steel bar, 1.5 m long, has a square
section 40 mm × 40 mm. The bar is subjected
to a two-dimensional stress,  x =310 N/mm2
t R
(tensile) and  y =300 N/mm2 (compressive).
E=2×105 N/mm2, Poisson’s ratio   0.3 . The
R
a elongation of the bar is the direction of  x will
4at = 2R  t be
TE
R (a) 1.25 mm (b) 1.75 mm
a =
2 (c) 2.25 mm (d) 3 mm
Ratio of spear stress, Ans. (d)
 T  40
c  
 2A m t c
AS
=
s  T  Sol. 40
 
 2A m t s
Ams  a2, Amc = R2 neglecting thickness l = 1.5 m
c A ms a2  x = 310 N/mm2

M
=
s A mc R 2
 y = –300 N/mm2
2
 R 
c  
2    x  y
s
=  =  0.785 x =



R 2 4
310 0.3  ( 300)
S
41. In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, = 5


2  10 2  105
the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a 
= 0.002
IE
1. Point of Contraflexure l
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force  = 0.002 × 1500
3. Point of Inflection = 3 mm
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 43. A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of
200 m/minute, which can increase by 25%
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
when the load is removed/deposited. Generally,
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed
Ans. (a) (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where
Sol. haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per
round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an
BMD average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and
deflected shape
, 8010009955
unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. 40×75
A
What is its effective cycle time ?
(a) 157 seconds (b) 161 seconds
40
(c) 173 seconds (d) 182 seconds
R
Ans. (b)
40 × 75
Sol. Running speed of loaded tractor
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= 200 × 0.8 = 160 m/minute 40
Running speed of unloaded tractor

= 200 × 1.25 × 0.8
MA = 40 × 45 – 40 × 180
= 200 m/minute
= – 4200 kNmm
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Total time for the trip
45. In the pin-end cantilever truss shown below,
120  60 120  60 member FG had been fabricated 10 mm longer
=   50  30
160 200 than required. How much will point E deflect
= 161 seconds vertically ?
44. The bending moment at A for the beam shown F G H J K

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below (not to scale) is a
A B A B C D E
180 mm 75 mm 4×a = 4a
D C (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
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75 mm
40 kN (c) 30 mm (d) 40 mm
(a) 3200 kN.mm (b) 3600 kN.mm Ans. (c)
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(c) 4200 kN.mm (d) 4800 kN.mm uFg

Ans. (c)
a
Sol. E
a a a a 1
UFg ×a = 1 × 3a
A 180 mm B
UFg = 3
75 mm E  uii  10  3  30 mm
D C
75 mm 46. The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column
40 kN is to
(a) Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
(b) Facilitate compaction of concrete
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(c) Increase the load carrying capacity of the Sol.
column
(d) Facilitate construction
Ans. (a)
Sol. Lateral ties are provided to avoid buckling of
longitudinal bars. 1 restraint 1 restraint
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required required
47. When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected 1 restraint 2 restraint
to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal required required
thrust at the support will
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Increase
Decrease
Remain same
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Increase or decrease depending on the span
No. of cuts required = 2
No. of restraint required = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5
Degree of static
indeterminacy = 3C – r
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= 3× 2– 5 = 1
Ans. (a)
Sol. Horizontal t hrust due to increases in 49. In the slope-deflection equations, deformations
are considered to be caused by
temperature by T
(a) Shear forces and bending moments only
·t· l (b) Axial forces, shear forces and bending
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H = 2 moments
l y ds
0 EI (c) Axial forces and bending moments only
(d) Bending moments only
48. The degree of static indeterminacy for a rigid Ans. (d)
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frame as shown below is

Sol. In slope deflection equation, deformation are
considered to be caused by bending moments
only.
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50. The maximum bending moment caused by a

Hinge set of concentrated moving loads is
(a) Always at the midpoint of span
(b) Between the midpoint and concentrated load
next to the midpoint of the span
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) Not definable
(c) 2 (d) 3
(d) Always under a load close to the centroid of
Ans. (b)
the set of loads
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Ans. (d) 53. Muller-Breslau Principal for obtaining influence
lines is applicable to
Sol. The maximum bending moment caused by a
set of concentrated moving loads occurs when 1. Statically determinate beams and frame
the mid point of span lies midway between the 2. Statically indeterminate structures, the
R
C.G. of load and the concerned load. Max B.M. material of which is elastic, and follows
always occurs under a load. Hooke’s law.
3. Any statically indeterminate structure
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51. Force method of analysis of a structure is
particularly preferred when (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
1. The degrees of freedom of the structure
Ans. (a)
become large
2. The structure has less number of static, and 54. The plastic neutral axis
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more number of kinematic, indeterminacies
1. Divides the given section into two equal
3. The structure has more numbers of static,
halves
and less numbers of kinematic,
indeterminacies 2. Divides the given section into two unequal
parts
3. Lies on the centroidal axis of the section
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Ans. (b)
Sol. Force method uses force as basic unknown
Ans. (a)
v ari abl e whi ch is a f uncti on as stat ic
indeterminacies so, force method is preferred 55. The plastic moment capacity MP is
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when there is less no. of static and more

numbers of kinematic indelerminacies. (a) Less than the yield moment
(b) Equal to the yield moment
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52. Stiffness matrix method is the category of (c) Greater than the yield moment
1. Compatibility method (d) Dependent on section dimensions
2. Displacement method Ans. (c)
3. Force method Sol. Plastic moment capacity is greater than the
4. Equilibrium method yield moment because in plastic stage all
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only the fibres are yielded where as in other only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only outer fibre yieldes.
Ans. (d) 56. Web crippling is caused by
Ans. Stiffness matrix method is modification of (a) Excessive bending moment
sl ope def l ect i on m et hod whi ch uses
(b) Failure of web under point loads
equi li brium equation to det ermi ne t he
ki nem at i c (di spl acem ent ) response of
structure and then force response
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(c) Width of flanges ratio is restricted to 120, the maximum column
(d) Column action of web height will be
Ans. (b) (a) 1.0 m (b) 2.4 m
Sol. Web crippling is actually local buckling that (c) 4.0 m (d) 4.8 m
occur when the web is slender. It occur due Ans. (c)
to high magnitude of point load which result
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in stress concentration and bearing failure. L
Sol. Sr  1.2 
57. The block shear failure of a bolted joint in ry
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tension occurs because of
L
120  1.2 
1. Use of higher shear strength bolts 40
2. Use of paltes with higher bearing strength L = 4.0 m
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 60. As per I S 800 – 2007, the permit ted
slenderness ratio for a bracing member in case
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neithter 1 nor 2
of hangers shall be
Ans. (c)
(a) 140 (b) 145
Ans. W hen high shear strength bolt and high
bearing strength plates are used, length of (c) 150 (d) 160
connection gets reduced leading to block Ans. (d)
shear failure
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Sol. Clause 12.8.2.2 of IS 800 : 2007

58. As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch 61. A rectangular beam of depth d is under bending.
allowed in bolted joints of tension members is Load has been gradually increased when the
nominally top fibre has obtained five times the strain at
(a) 12 times the thickness of the plate the first yield. What detph of the beam will still
S
respond by elastic conditions?

(b) 12 times the diameter of the bolt
(a) 0.16 d (b) 0.20 d
(c) 16 times the thickness of the plate
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(d) 16 times the diameter of the bolt (c) 0.25 d (d) 0.40
Ans.(c) Ans. (b)
Sol. maximum longitudinal pitch allowed is 16

times the thickness as the plate
5y y
 
59. ISMB 100 (rx = 40 mm, ry = 10 mm) has been Sol. d x
used as a column in a industrial shed. Along 2
the minor axis, the the column has restraints in d
the form of purlins at 1.0 m intervals. Effective x  0.1d
10
length factor along major and minor axes are depth of elastic section = 2x = 0.2d
1.2 and 1.0, respectively. If the slenderness
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5 y Which of the above cases are considered for
safe design of R.C members in flexure?
y d d/2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only

x
R

Ans. (b)
Sol. Under-reinforced section which result in
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tension failure give ample warning before
5 y collapse.
62. The ultimate moment capacity of a mild steel 65. The bond between steel and concrete is mainly
section is usually due to
(a) Equal to the plastic moment capacity 1. Mechanical resistance
AS
(b) More than the yield moment capacity 2. Pure adhesive resistance
3. Frictional resistance
(c) Let than the yield moment capacity
(d) More than the plastic moment capacity
Ans. (a) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
63. The portal bracing in a truss-bridge is used to

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Ans. (d)
(a) Transfer load from top of end posts to Sol. 1. Mechanical resistacne is developed due
bearings to bearing stress against the rib. whereas
(b) Maintain the rectangular shape of the bridge friction and adhesive property develop at the
cross-section contact of steel and concrete.
S
(c) Stiffen the structure laterally 66. The carbonation process is demonstrated more
by
(d) Prevent the buckling of top chord under side
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sway (a) Atmospheric corrosion

Ans. (c) (b) Choloride corrosion
Sol. Portal bracing stiffens the structure laterally (c) Stress corrosion
and transfer the wind and seismic load from (d) Hydrogen embrittlement
top of end posts to bearing.
Ans. (a)
64. Consider the following cases in the design of
Carbonation occure when carbon dioxide
reinforced concrete members in flexure:
from the air penetrates the concrete and
1. Over-reinforced section reacts with hydroxides such as cacium
2. Tension failure hydroxide to form cabonates
3. Compression failure
Ca(oH)2 + CO 2  CaCo3 + H2O
4. Under-reinforced section
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This reaction reduces the pH of the pore (a) Diagonal tension failure
solution as low as 8.5, at which the passive
(b) Diagonal compression failure
film on the steel is not stable.
(c) Flexural tension failure
67. When a sprially reinforced short column is
(d) Flexural compression failure
loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is
subjected to Ans. (b)
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(a) Bending and compression Sol.  cmax is based on diagonal compression
failure.
(b) Biaxial compression
70. Footings shall be designed to sustain the
(c) Triaxial compression
(d) Uniaxial compression
Ans. (c)
The concrete inside the core is subjected to
tri-axial compression. It is confined by hoop
TE 1. Applied loads
2. Moments and forces under relatable loading
conditions
3. Induced reactions
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(a) 1and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
stress in spiral reinforcement and axial load
transfer path. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
68. In a reinforced concrete section, shear stress Ans. (d)

distribution is diagrammatically Sol. As per IS 456 : Clause 34.1
(a) Wholly Parabolic 71. Reinforced concrete slabs are designed for
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(b) Wholly Rectangular 1. Shear

(c) Parabolic above NA and Rectangular below 2. Flexure
NA 3. Positive bending moment
(d) Rectangular above NA and Parabolic below 4. Negative bending moment
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NA (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only

Ans. (c) (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Ans. (c)
Sol. Sl abs are desi gned f or be ndi ng and
def lect ion and not desi gned f or shear
N.A because
(i) Slabs have much small depth than beams.
Sol.
(ii) Most of slabs subjected to unif ormly
distributed loads.
72. As compared to the working stress method of
design, the limit state method of design
69. As per IS 456 – 2000, the maximum permissible premises that the concrete can admit
shear stress, Cmax ' is based on
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(a) A lower stress level loading a parabolic profile with convexity
downward is provided.
(b) A higher stress level
(c) Occasionally higher, but usually lower, stress 75. In a post-tension pre-stressed concrete beam,
the end block zone is in between the end of
level
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the beam and the section where
(d) Only the same stress level
Ans. (b) (a) The shear stresses are maximum
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73. The bending stress in a T-beam section is (b) Only shear stresses exist
maximum (c) No lateral stresses exist
1. At top fibre (d) Only longitudinal stresses exist
Ans. (d)
2. At centroidal fibre
Sol. The zone between the end of the beam and
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3. At bottom fibre
the section where only longitudinal stress
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ex i st i s g eneral l y ref erred t o as t he
(c) 3 only anchorage zone or end block zone.
(d) At a level which is dependent on the loading 76. In the pre-tensioning method
condition.
1. Tension in concrete is induced directly by
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Ans. (d) external force

Sol. At lower stress value bottom fibre has 2. Tension is induced in the tendons before
maximum stress whereas if we increase concreting
loading, concrete under tension undergoes 3. Concrete continues to be in tension after
cracking in such condition maximum bending pre-stressing
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stress can be at top fibre (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

74. If the loading on a simply supported pre- (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
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stressed concrete beam is unif ormly Ans. (b)

distributed, the centriod fo the pre-stressing
tendon should be as Sol. In pretensioning, tension is induced in the
tendons before concreting. Once the concrete
(a) A straight profile along the lower edge of
sets and hardens, tendons are cut and
the kern
prestress is transferred to concrete. Hence after
(b) A parabolic profile with convexity downward application of prestress, concrete is in
(c) A straight profile along the centriodal axis compression.
(d) A circular profile with convexity upward 77. Flexural collapse in over-reinforced beams is
Ans. (b) due to
Sol. The centriod profile as tendon must be (a) Primary compression failure
provided such that section is under uniform (b) Secondary compression failure
compression. For unif ormly destributed
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(c) Primary tension failure (a) 33  2 lps (b) 35  6 lps
(d) Bond failure
(c) 37  0 lps (d) 38  2 lps
Ans. (b)
Ans. (d)
Sol. Over reinforced beam undergo compression
failure which is a sudden failure due to crushing Sol. L = Stroke length = 25 cm
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of concrete in compression zone. this type of
N = speed = 135 rpm
failure of compression zone is called secondary
compression failure. D = Dia. of piston = 30 cm
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Slip = 4%
78. If a beam is likely to fail due to high bonding
stresses, then its bond strength can be  Qacutal 
increased most economically by % slip =  1  Q   100
 Theotical 
(a) Providing vertical stirrups
(b) Increasing the depth of the beam
AS
 Qacutal 
1  100
(c) Using smaller diameter bars in  4 =  ALN 
 
correspondingly more numbers  60 
(d) Using higher diameter bars by reducing their
numbers  Qac 
1   100
4 =   N
 (D)2  L  
Ans. (c)  4 60 
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 135
Sol. To increase bond strength we should use (1  0.04) (0.3)2  0.25  = Qac (m3 /s)
4 60
smaller diameter bars in correspondingly large = 38.17 l /s
numbers (such that area of steel remains
80. In the design of pre-stressed concrete
same). This would effectively increase surface
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structures, which of the following limit states

area of contact between steel and concrete.
will qualilfy as the limit states of serviceability?
Stirrups are used in beams to counter shear 1. Flexural
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force. Increase in depth of beam would not 2. Shear

bring any change in bond strength. 3. Deflection
79. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke 4. Cracking
of 25 cm, speed of 135 rpm, and a piston of 30 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
cm diameter. If its slip has been estimated as (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
4% at a particular operating condition, what is
the corresponding realized discharge through Ans. (b)
a height of 14 m?
Sol. In the method of design based on limit state
concept, the structure shall be designed to
, 8010009955
safely all loads liable to act on it. The resistance Type of Cement Type of Line
Nature of work
to bending, shear, torsion and axial loads at Mortar Mortar
every section shall not be less than the Reinforced 1:3 which means 1
appropriate value at that section produced by Brikwork part cemnt.
3 part Scmed
the probable most unfavorable combination of
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(in term of volume)
loads on the structure using the appropriate Plaster work 1:3 to 1:4 1:2
partial safety factors. This constitutes assessing Stone Masonary 1:2 lime
limit state of collapse. with ordinary 1:6 being hydraulic
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stones lime
The structure shall also satisfy limit states of Stone Masonary 1:2 lime being
with best variety hydraulic lime
serviceability requirements, such as limitations of stones
on deflection and cracking. Think joints in 1:3; lime being
brickwork fat lime
AS
General RCC
1:3
works
1. Pumps used in series are generally of the
Construction work 1:3 lime being
centrifugal type. in water logged 1:3 hydraulic lime
areas & exposed
2. Centrif ugal pumps, though yielding conditions
comparatively smaller discharges than axial
Damp proof
flow pumps, yield higher heads (at each courses and
1:2
cement - concrete
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stage) compared to axial flow pumps.

roads
83. The efficacy of pumpcrete is based primarily
on
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The capacity of pump
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Ans. (c) 2. The aggregate size, which should not

exceed 8 cm
82. When steel reinforcing bars are provided in 3. The diameter of pipe being large, with more
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masonry, the bars shall have an embedment

than 30 cm being desirable
with adequate cover in cement-sand mortar not
4. The performance of the agitator
leaner than
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 6
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Sol. Efficiency of concrete pump depends on
 Length of horizontal pipe–300 to 400 m
 Length of vertical pipe
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 Number of bends 750  4000 / 60
720  780
 Diameter of pipe line (150 mm – 200 mm) =
2 Hn3/4
 Slump of concrete (> 75 mm)
 Hm = 16 m
 Capacity of pump
80
 Maximum size of Aggregate = 40 mm  No. of impellers = 5
16
 Performance of Agitation
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86. A 15 cm centrifugal pump delivers 6 lps at a
84. In a non-tilting type drum mixer,
head of 26 m running at a speed of 1350 rpm.
1. Large size aggregate up to 20 – 25 cm can A similarly designed pump of 20 cm size runs
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be handled at the same speed. What are the most likely
2. Mixing time is less than 2 minutes nearest magnitudes of discharge and delivery
3. Discharge is through buckets onto the head provided by the latter pump?
platform
(a) 11 lps and 46 m (b) 14 lps and 52 m
4. For large size mixers, the mixing time should
(c) 11 lps and 52 m (d) 14 lps and 46 m
AS
be slightly increased if handling more than
800 litres of the mix Ans. (d)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Pump 1 Pump 2
Sol.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only D  15 cm D1  20 cm
Q  6 lps Q1 
Ans. (d)
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H  26 m H1 
Sol. In Non tilting mixtures large size of aggregates N  1350 rpm N1  1350 rpm
upto 80 mm can be used. N1D1
ND
As per IS-456 : 2000 mixing time shall be closer = H
H 1
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to 2 min 20
15
= H
85. How many impellers are required for a multi- 26 1
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stage pump to lift 4000 lpm against a total head H1 = 46.22 m

of 80 m at a speed of 750 rpm; given that Ns Q Q1
for each impeller should be between 720 to Also 3 = 3
D1 N1
DN
780 units? 3
 20 
(a) 6 (b) 5  Q1 = 6   
 15 
(c) 4 (d) 3 = 14.22 lps
Ans. (b) 87. Which fo the following statements are correct
as operating characteristics of centrifugal
N Q pump?
Sol. NS = 3/4
Hm
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1. As discharge increases from zero value, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
head slightly increases; then the head Ans. (c)
declines gently; and beyond a certain
discharge, the head falls steeply. P0 T
2. As discharge increases, efficiency increases Sol. H0 = HS   S
R
PS T0
from zero, rising fast to a maximum value
and then falls rapidly, more rapidly than the H0 = Observed horse power
head-discharge curve.
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HS = Standard horse power
3. BHP increases from a non-zero (positive)
value at zero discharge, the increase being P0 = Observed barometric pressure
only moderate before it starts falling beyond PS = Standard barometric pressure
a certain discharge.
TS = Absolute temperature f or
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
standard conditions
AS
T0 = Absolute temperature f or
Ans. (a)
observed condition.
Power increases when pressure increases and
temperature decreases.
Head
89. Manometric head developed hm in m, and
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Sol.
 discharge Q in lps in respect of two pumps, 1
poner and 2, are tabulated. The pumps are connected
Q in series against a static head of 100 m. Total
head losses for a discharge of Q are as
S
88. Engines used in earthwork equipment are Q2

(m). What is the delivered discharge?
qualified by the power developed under 100
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sepcified conditions. As operating conditions

Qin lps 15 18 20 22 25
change, the power developed will increase with
local ambience, if hm1 in m 60  6 61 2 62  0 55  0 48  0
hm1 in m 50  8 51  0 48  8 45  8 40  0
1. Ambient temperature increases
2. Ambient temperature decreases (a) 20  15 lps (b) 21  25 lps
3. Ambient pressure increases (c) 21  95 lps (d) 22  20 lps
4. Ambient pressure decreases
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Ans. (b) developed = 25 m; Input shaft horse power
= 11.9 W. What is the non-dimensional specific
Sol.  2 
Required head  100  Q  speed of the pump it it was running at 1500
Available  100  rpm? (May adopt the following (all in S.I. units):
Q
head Vd2
neglecting velocity head 1/4
= 1  77 , g1/2 = 3  132 , g3/4 = 5  544 ,
2g g
15 111.4 102.25
ER
18 112.2 103.24 2 = 1  414 , 5 = 2.236 and 10 = 3  162 )
20 110.8 104.0 (a) 165 (b) 155
21 105.8 104.41 (c) 145 (d) 135
21.5 103.3 104.615 Ans. (b)
22 100.8 104.82
25 88.0
T
106.25
Hence, discharge Q will lie between 21 and
Sol. Given that  = 40 lps (centrifugal pump)
manometric head, Hm = 25 m
AS
21.5.
N Q
90. A reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, Non dimensional specific speed Ns =
(gHm )3/4
spped of 100 rpm, and a piston of 22  5 cm
1500  40
diameter. It discharge and 18  9 lps . What is the NS =
(9.81 25)3/4
slip of the pump?
NS =153.07 rpm
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(a) 3.12 % (b) 3  54%

(c) 4  15% (d) 4  95% (Discharge has been taken in lps instead of
Ans. (d) m3/s which is actually not correct).
92. The total head to be developed by a centrifugal
 Qac 
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Sol. %slip =  1  Q   100 pump is expected to be up to 50 m. The normal

 th  ratio of radii of impeller rim and impeller eye of
ACN  100 3 2 is maintained. The design is for a speed of
 (0.225)2  0.3 
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Qth = m /s 1300 rpm, What is the nominal diameter of the

60 4 60
= 0.01987 m3/s 1
impeller? Take g  3  13 and  0  318 .

= 19.87 l/s
Qac = 18.9 l/s (a) 53 cm (b) 57 cm
(c) 60 cm (d) 64 cm
 18.9  Ans. (a)
 % slip =  1    100 = 4.95%
 19.87 
For starting of pump min centrifugal head
91. The following data were recorded when a developed > Hm
centrifugal pump worked at its maximum Hence,
efficiency: Q = 40 lps ; Manometric head
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2 2
 DBN   DAN 
    A B1 B2
Hm =  60   60   50 m 8,3 3,1 3,1 B3
2g C1 4,2 3,1
C2
DB
R
4,2
Given that D = 2 Sol. D 4,2 C3
A 6,3 1
D2 D3
 DBN 
2   D 2  6,3 6,3
 60  1   A  
  DB   = 2g ×50
TE
   
2 If activity B is divided into 3 equal parts then
  DB  1300  2  9.81 50
each part will have duration 3 units and
  
 60  (1  0.52 )
standard deviation 1
DB  53 cm
12  12  12
AS
where 4.5 =
93. Activities A, B, C and D constitute a small (3  1)
project; their interrelationship, expected duration
2
and standard deviation of this expected duration  1 =  4.5
3
are shown in the figure, respectively.
2
Similarly, S.D. of C1, C2, C3 =2=  3 each
A B C D 3
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8, 3 9, 4  5 12, 3 18, 1 5 2
S.D. of D1, D2, D3 = 3 =  1.5 each
3
W ith a view to improving the speed of
implementation, each of B, C and D are split Modified project duration
into three equal segments, maintaining = 8+ 3+ 4 + 6 + 6
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appropriate inter-relationships between A and

= 33 units
each of these nine segments. What will be the
standard deviation of the modified project Modified project S.D.
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1 2 2
duration after segmentation (to the nearest 32   4.52   32
10 3 3
unit)? = 2 
   1.5 2   3
 3 
(a) 6  2 (b) 5  6
= 5.7
(c) 5  2 (d) 4  6
Ans. (b) 94. W hich of the f ollowing is/are the main
drawback(s) in adopting bar charts?
1. All the activities are shown as being
independent of each other
2. The sequence of activities is not defined at
all
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3. It is difficult to judge whether an activity is Ans (b)
completed or not
Sol. Length of arrows in network diagram has no
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only significance.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
An activity lies between two nodes. Number
Ans. (d)
of nodes increase as the activity progresses.
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Sol. Bar chart does not show intedependency of
97. Which of the following statements are implicit
activities. Hence they seem to be independent
in developing the critical path network?
of each other and their sequence is not shown.
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1. Only one time estimate is required for any
Bar chart does not depeict review of project activity
progress hence it is difficult to judge whether
2. Time only is the controlling factor at this
an activity is complete or not.
stage
95. The purpose of work-break-down structure in 3. Time and cost both are controlling factors
project planning is mainly to at this stage
AS
1. Facilitate and improve the decision-making 4. Critical events may have positive, negative,
on procurement of resources or zero float
2. Relate activities under particular trade (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
specializations to help in organizing for (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
project staff
Sol. (b)
3. Co-ordinate regarding milestone events
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across trade specializations to improve the Ans. In CPM only one time estimate is given for
synergy between the trades each activity.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only In CPM time and cost both are controlling
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 factors.
Ans. (d)
S
Float is associated with activity hence 4 th

96. W hich of the following statements is/are statement is wrong.
correct? 98. In the crtical path method of project planning,
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1. An activity is in between two node numbers, free float can be

which need not be in an increasing order in
(a) Greater than independent float
the activity progress sequence.
2. The length of the arrow in a network has (b) Greater than total float
certain significance. (c) Less than independent float
3. Concurrent acitv ities are mutually (d) Equal to total float
independent and can possibly be taken up
Ans. (a)
simultaneously.
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only Sol. In critical path method.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Total float = LFT – EFT = LST – EST
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Free Float = F T – Sj P Q R
Independent Float = F f – Si T C T C T C
Free float will be greater then independent 8 250 6 340 8 400


float. 9 235 7 320 10 375
R
10 225 8 295 12 350
 Free float will be less than total float. 11 215 9 275
99. Slack time in PERT analysis For a total duration of 25 units of time, the
TE
(a) Can never be greater than zero least total direct cost for the complete project
(b) Is always zero for critical actvities will be
(c) Can never be less than zero (a) 965 units (b) 950 units
(d) Is minimum for critical events
(c) 940 units (d) 925 units
Ans. (d)
AS
Ans. (d)
Sol. In PERT analysis slack time can be
P Q R
(a) +ve i.e S > 0
(b) –ve i.e S < 0 Sol. T C T C T C
(c) Zero i.e S = 0 8 250 6 340 8 400

M
But for critical events slack will be minimum 9 235 7 320 10 375
or zero. 10 225 8 295 12 350
Slack is associated with ev ents hence 11 215 9 275
statements (b) is wrong
S
Normal project duration = 11+9+12 = 32 units

Note:- Generally for crtical activities slack
will be zero, but it can be minimum also. Normal project cost = 840 units
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100. A small project consists of 3 actvities P, Q and Crash P by 2 day.

R to be executed in that sequence. The Project duration = 30 units
relationship between time duration (in ‘Units of
Project cost = 860 units
tme-T) and corresponding total direct cost (C
units) for each of the activities, for alternate Crash R by 4 days.
mutually exclusive possible durations for each
Project duration = 26 units
activity, are tabulated herewith:
Project cost = 910 units
Crash P by 1 day.
Project duration = 25 units
Project cost = 925 units.
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Directions: Each of the next twenty (20) items Ans. (b)
consists of two statements, one labelled as the Sol. Hardwoods are used in special purpose heavy
‘statement (I)’ and the other as ‘statement (II)’. construction because they are strong in tension,
examine these two statements carefully and compression and shear, strong along and
select the answers to thse items using the across the grains.
codes given below:
All hardwoods have vessels (little pipelines) that
ER
Codes: are used in sap production. When the vessels
are cut across the end grain, they are referred
(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
to as pores, thus hardwoods are known as
individually true and statement (II) is the
“porous woods”.
correct explanation of statement (I)
103. Statement (I): In general, bricks cannot be
(b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are used in industrial foundations.
T
individally true but statement (II) is not the
correct eplanation of statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is
Statement (II): Heavy duty bricks can withstand
higher temperatures.
AS
false Ans. (b)
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is 104. Statement (I): In multistoried constructions,
true. burnt clay perforated bricks are used to reduce
101. Statement (I): Splitting of fibres is a type of the cost of construction.
seasoning defect in wood. Statement (II): Perforated bricks are economical
M
Statement (II):Seasoning of timber is a general and they also provide thermal insulation.
requirement for structural purposes. Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
105. Statement (I): Positive displacement pumps
Sol. Spliting is separation of fibers along the grain can be used for pumping of ready-mixed
and extends from one end of the blank to the concrete.
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other end it is due to seasoning defect.

Statement (II):The coarse aggregate in the mix
Seasoning of timber is a general requirement
is unlikely to be crushed during positive
for structural purpose because it helps in
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displacement.
1. Reducing tendency to sphit warp and shrink.
Ans. (a)
2. Immune from attack by insects.
3. Increasing strength durability, workability and 106. Statement (I): Fire resistance of plastering can
resilience. be achieved by mixing surkhi to the cement
mortar.
4. Reduce weight and minimize cost of
transportation. Statement (II): Insulation against sound and
5. Readily burning of timber, if used as fuel. fire be achieved by adding sufficient water in-
situ just before applying the mortar.
102. Statement (I): Hardwoods are used in special
purpose heavy constrctions. Ans. (c)
Statement (II):Hardwoods too are porous in 107. Statement (I): Water containing less than 2000
nature. ppm of dissolved solids can generally be used
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satisfactorily for making concrete. needle vibrators are preferred in foundation
concreting.
Statement (II): The presence of any of zinc,
manganese, tin, copper or lead reduces the Statement (II): Needle vibrators are susceptible
strength of concrete considerably. to get dysfunctional with leaking-in of cement
R
slurry – which is not the case with the shutter
Ans. (b)
vibrator.
108. Statement (I): Though a non-elastic material,
Ans. (b)
yet concrete exhibits a linear relationship
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between stress and strain at low values of 113. Statement (I): The forward edge of wheels or
stress. outriggers acts as a fulcrum in determining the
lifting capacity of a mobile crane.
Statement (II):The modulus of elasticity of
concrete is dependent on the elastic properties Statement (II): There is in-build security and
of aggregate and on curing. safety against sudden dropping of load, as well
AS
as against abrupt swinging, in the working of a
Ans. (b)
mobile crane.
109. Statement (I): Finer the cement, greater is the
Ans. (b)
need for water for hydration and workability.
Sol. The stability-limited rated load for a mobile
Statement (II): Bleeding of a mix occurs due to
crane supported on outriggers is 85% of tipping
low water-cement ratio.
M
load.
Ans. (c)
 Tipping takes about fulcrum.
110. Statement (I): The failure of a mild steel
114. Statement (I): Hand-operated chain-hoists
specimen of circular cross-section, subjected
include differential screw-geared types within
to a torque occurs along its cross-section.
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their range.
Statement (II): The failure occurs on a plane of
Statement (II): In case of a hoist-winch, the
the specimen subjected to maximum shear
capacity of the hoist is increased by a number
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stress; and mild steel is relatively weak in shear.

of gear reductions.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
111. Statement (I): In elastic analysis of structures,
Sol. Hand operated chain hoist are screw geared
the neutral axis is the intersection between the
and differential type i.e., they are self locking
plane of bending and the neutral plane.
and will automatically hold a load in position.
Statement (II): Neutral axis in the context of
Winch is used for pulling and hoisting objects,
plastic analysis of structures is always the Equal
lower is the gear ratio higher is the power.
area axis of the cross-section.
115. Statement (I): When employing weigh-batching
Ans. (d)
for mix preparation, bulking of sand has to be
112. Statement (I): Whereas shutter vibrators are accounted for.
preferred for use with pre-stressed beams,
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ingredients, the water needs too must be
Statement (II): Bulked sand will affect the properly computed and implemented.
proportional composition of the ingredients to Ans. (b)
be used in making wet concrete of the desired
118. Statement (I): Resources optimization is largely
eventual strength.
a pre-im plementati on pursuit whereas
Ans. (d) resources al locat ion i s a through-
116. Statement (I): Critical path(s) through a CPM implementation dynamic process.
R
network can be identified even without working Statement (II): Resources allocation has a
out the backward pass computations by a larger bearing on inventory management than
competent user. resoures optimization.
chain of activities from start to finish (not

excluding between splitting and merging nodes)TE
Statement (II): Critical path is the progressive
through the network where total float is absent

throughout (including through dummy arrrows,
Ans. (b)
119. Statement (I): Crashing of project duration
always increases the cost of the project on its
completion, no matter what the indirect, or
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overhead, costs are.
if appropriate).
Statement (II): The critical path along the project
Ans. (b) activities network diagram is compressed in the
process of investigating the crashing of the
Sol. Critical path is the longest path time wise which project duration, and not the non-critical
canbe determined from forward path method activities, up to a certain stage of crashing.
M
only
Ans. (d)
117. Statement (I): For implementing weigh-
batching, separate compartments are made for 120. Statement (I): In the operation of reciprocating
storing large quantities of the aggregates. pumps, slip can sometimes be negative.
Besided lifting and loading equipments, there Statement (II): Under conditions of high speed,
S
must be regular assessment of grading and long suction pipes (without cavitation) and short
also of moisture content. delivery pipes, inertia pressure can be relatively
rather high, causing the delivery value to open
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Statement (II): Whereas eventual strength of

the mix depends also on the grading of the before the discharge stroke begins.
Ans. (a)
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ESE-2016
(Objective Paper-II)
Civil Engineering
solutions
Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-II (ESE - 2016)
SET - A
1. A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of 2. In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream
relative density S floats in neutral equilibrium in function   2xy, the velocity at a point (3,4)
R
water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of
is
H to D if S = 0.6?
(a) 12.0 units (b) 10.0 units
(a) 0.86 (b) 0.72
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(c) 8.0 units (d) 6.0 units
(c) 0.52 (d) 0.46
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Stream function
Sol.
 = 2xy
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S=0.6

u =   –2x
y
G H

x B v =  2y
S=1.0 x

v = 2xi  2yj
M

Body will be floating at (3.4) v = 6i  8j
 AHS w = Ax w |v | = 62  82
x  0.6H
V  10 m/sec
For Neutral equilibrium
S
Metacentric height BM = BG 3. An open rectangular tank of dimensions

4m×3m×2m contains water to a height of 1.6m.
Centre of Bouyouncy will be at 0.3H from bottom
It is then accelerated along the longer side.
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as hence BG = 0.5 H – 0.3 H = 0.2 H

What is the maximum acceleration possible
I

  D4 / 64  without spilling the water? If this acceleration is
BM =
V D2 then increased by 10%, what amount of water
 0.6H
4 will be spilt off?
D2 (a) 1.472 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
BM =  0.2H
16  0.6H
(b) 1.962 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
2 1
H =
  (c) 1.472 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
D 16  0.12
(d) 1.962 m/s2 and 0.52 m3
H
 0.72 Ans. (b)
D
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Sol. Rectangular tank 4m × 3m × 2m 2. Zero throughout the passage.
3. Maximum at the plate boundaries and zero
0.4m 
d
at a plane away from each plate.
ax 2
R
2m
1.6m
g
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4m (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
For maximum acceleration Ans. (b)
ax 0.4 Sol.
=
g 2
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0.4  9.81
ax =
2 d
a x  1.962 m/sec 2
if acceleration is increased by 10% Velocity distribution shear stress distribution

in laminar flow in laminar flow
0.4 0.44
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tan  =  1.1  Hence statement 3 is correct

2 2
0.44 5. While conducting the flow measurement using
a triangular notch, an error of +2% in head
0.2m over the notch is observed. The percentage
S
1.56
error in the computed discharge would be
(a) +7% (b) –3%
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(c) +5% (d) –4%

Water remaining in the tank at this stage
Ans. (c)
= 1.56 ×3 × 4
Sol. For flow measurement using triangular notch
Inital volume of water in tank = 1.6 × 3×4
Volume of spilling of water = 0.04 × 3 × 4 discharge, Q  H5/2
dQ 5 dH
= 0.48 m3 Hence, =
Q 2 H
4. In a laminar flow between two fixed plates held
5
parallel to each other at a distance d, the shear % error in discharge =  (2%)   5%
2
stress is:
6. An orifice is located in the side of a tank with
d its centre 10 cm above the base of the tank.
1. Maximum at plane away from each plate The constant water level is 1.0 m above the
2
centre of orifice. The coefficient of velocity is
and zero at the plate boundaries.
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0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance (c) 8 m/s
from the vena-contracta to where the jet is 10 (d) 10 m/s
cm below vena-contracta is Ans. (d)
(a) 1.62m (b) 1.00m Sol. Whirlpool is an example of free vortex formation.
(c) 0.62m (d) 0.32m Hence
R
Ans. (c) C
V = i.e. Vr = Constant
r
V1r1 = V2r2
Sol.
1m H = 0.9 m
h=10cm
v
TE 8.
V1r1 60  2.5
V2 = r  15
2
V2 = 10 m/sec.
In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2m,
AS
and side slopes of 2V on 1H, critical flow occurs
at a depth of 1m. What will be the quantity of
Velocity of jet = Cv 2gH flow and the flow velocity? Take g as 10m/s2.
(a) 7.22 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
1 2
h = gt (b) 6.82 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
2
(c) 7.22 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
M
2h (d) 6.82 m3/s and 3.10 m/s

t =
g
Ans. (c)
horizontal distance x = ut Sol.
S
2h
= CV 2gH 
g
= CV 4Hh 1m 2
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= 0.98 4  1 0.1 1
x = 0.62 m 2m
7. The velocity of water at the outer edge of a B =2m

60cm diameter whirlpool, where the water level
Depth of yc = 1 m
is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at
a level where the diameter of the whirlpool is 15 1
Area, A =  B  B  y   y
cm, is 2
(a) 1 m/s 1
=   2  2  1  1
(b) 5 m/s 2
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2
= 2.5m 2 1.5 
= 1.06 
Top width, T = 3 m 19.62
= 1.18 m
For critical flow Fr = 1
R
10. A cylindrical vessel with closed bottom and open
V 2.5
= 1  V  9.81 top is 0.9 m in diameter. What is the rotational
gA T 3 speed about its vertical axis (with closed bottom
TE
Velocity, V = 2.86 m/sec. below and open top above) when the contained
Discharge, Q = VA = 2.86 × 2.5 incompressible fluid will rise 0.5m at the inner
circumference of the vessel and a space of
Q = 7.15 m3/s
0.4m diameter at the bottom will have no fluid
Hence Answer is (c) thereon? Take g = 10 m/s2.
9. A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 (a) 650 rpm (b) 600 rpm
AS
m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The (c) 580 rpm (d) 470 rpm
specific energy head of the flow is
(a) 1.18m (b) 1.78m 
(c) 2.18m (d) 2.78m
Ans. (a)
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Ans. (*) 0.5 m

Sol. Q = 12 m3/s
B = 7.5 m y
V = 1.5 m/s 0.2 m
S
h
0.9 m
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y
2 (0.2)2
=h
2g
B 2 (0.45)2
= h + y + 0.5
Q 12 2g
Area, A =   8m 2
V 1.5
(0.45)2  y = (y  0.5)  (0.45)2
By = 8m2
 (0.45)2  (h  y  0.5) (0.2)2  h 
8   
y =  1.06m  2 2 
7.5
 (0.2)2  h
U2 (0.45)2  0.5 = (0.45)2 [h  y  0.5] 
Specific energy = y  2 2
2g
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(0.45)2  0.5  (0.2)2 h 12. A fluid flow is described by a velocity field
= (0.45)2 (h  y) 
2 2 2 U  4x 2i  5x 2 yj  1k .
2
 0.2  What is the absolute velocity (in magnitude) at
0.5 = h + y –   h
 0.45  the point (2,2,1)?
16
 h  y = 0.5  h (a) (b)
1802 1828
R
81
2 (0.2)2
 =h (c) 1840 (d) 1857
2g
Ans. (d)
TE
2 (0.45)2 16
= 0.5  h  0.5 
2g 81 Sol. u = 4x 2 ˆi  5x 2 yj  1K
h(0.45)2 16h At (2, 2, 1)
2 = 1 
(0.2) 81 u = 4  22 i  5  22  2j  1K
81h 16 h 
 =1
AS
16 81 u = 16i  40j  1K
 h = 0.2056 m Absolute velocity, u = 16 2  40 2  1

2  10  0.2056
  = u = 1857 m s
(0.2)2
 = 10.139 rad/sec 13. A partially open sluice gate discharges water at
M
60  10.139 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a rectangular

N =  96 rpm
2 horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be
11. The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump the post-jump depth of flow on the downstream
formed in a rectangular horizontal channel is of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2?
10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow (a) 1.51 m (b) 1.70 m
S
is
(c) 1.85 m (d) 1.95 m
(a) 12.2 (b) 10.4
Ans. (a)
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(c) 7.42 (d) 4.21 Sol. y1 = 0.4 m

Ans. (c) v1 = 6 m/s
y2 1 B =5m
= 10   1  8F1  1
2
Sol.
y1 2 V1 6
Froude No. Fr1    3.0
Froud no. of super critical flow, gy1 10  0.4
y2 1
212  1 1  8Fr12  1
F1 = y1 = 2  
8
y2 1
F1  7.416 =  1  8  3 2  1  3.77
0.4 2
Post jump depth y 2  1.508m
, 8010009955
14. What is the maximum power available at the 15. In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to
downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long, 20 cm assume that due to aging of pipelines:
in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end 1. The effective roughness increases linearly with
at a pressure of 720 m of water, with the taking time
pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10m/s2?
R
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time
(a) 770 mhp (b) 740 mhp 3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly
(c) 700 mhp (d) 660 mhp lesser with time.
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Ans. (d)
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 3 only
Sol. In question, instead of friction coefficient it should
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only
be friction factor = 0.03
Ans. (d)
In case of max. power transmission through pipe, Sol. Effective toughness increases linearly with time
AS
head lost in friction = 1/3rd of total available statement 2 & 3 are incorrect.
head.
H 720 1. In flow through hydrodynamically smooth
 hf =   240 m
3 3 pipes, the friction factor f is always a constant.
2. In flow through hydrodynamically smooth
M
2 pipes, the friction factor f is always a function

flQ
hf = of the flow Reynolds number.
12.1D5
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow,
0.03  3000  Q 2 the friction factor f is a function of relative
= roughness only.
12.1 (0.2)5
S
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow,

240 = 23243.8Q2 the friction factor f is a function of the flow
Q = 0.1016 m3/s Reynolds number and relative roughness.
IE

Net available had = H – hf = 720 – 240 = 480m
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
P = QgH (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
= 1000 × 0.1016 × 10 × 480 Ans. (b)
Sol. Statement 2 & 3 are correct.
= 487.68 kW
17. Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected
In hp in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a
system. The pump curve of each of the pumps
487.68  103 is represented by H = 20 – 60Q2 where H is
P = = 663.5 hp
735 manometric head of the pump and Q is the
discharge of the pump. The head loss equation
= 663.5 × 1.0138
when two such fully-similar pumps jointly deliver
= 672.65 metric hp the same discharge Q will be
, 8010009955
(a) H = 40 – 15Q2 (b) H = 20 – 60Q2 15  0.3
 l =  (0.3)2 = 0.682 m
(c) H = 40 – 60Q2 (d) H = 20 – 15Q2   12
Distance between source/sink and stagnation
Ans. (d)
point = l – a = 0.682 – 0.3 = 0.382 m.
Sol. Given that H = 20 – 60Q 2
19. At the point of operation with maximum
When two pumps (joined in parallel) required efficiency, a turbine indicated unit power of 12
R
to deliver discharge Q each pump will be units and unit speed of 98 units and operates
delivering Q/2 discharge. Hence Head loss with 3300 kgf/s of flow. What are the speed in
equation rpm and the specific speed of the machine
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2 respectively when its design head is 8.5m?
Q
H = 20  60    (a) 285 rpm and 339 (b) 270 rpm and 360
2
(c) 285 rpm and 360 (d) 270 rpm and 339
H = 20  15Q2 Ans. (a)
18. A line source of strength 15  m s is situated Sol. Given that
AS
within a uniform stream flowing at –12 m/s (i.e., Unit speed = Nu  98
righ to left). At a distance of 0.6m downstream Unit power Pu = 12
from the source is an equal sink. How far will
Design Head, H = 8.5 m
the stagnation points be from the nearest source/
Unit speed is defined as speed of turbine working
sink?
under unit head
(a) 0.38m (b) 0.46m
M
Hence N = Nu H
(c) 0.52m (d) 0.58m
Speed N = 98 8.5  285.7rpm
Ans. (a)
3/2
Sol. Simlarly P = Pu  H
S
l l 3/2
P = 12  8.5 
P = 297.38 KW
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+m –m N P
Hence, Specific Speed Ns =
Source Sink H5/4
Stagnation Stagnation 285.7  297.38

0.3m = a 0.3m = a =
point
0.6m
point
 8.5 5/4
NS = 339.46 rpm
ma
l =  a2 20. A hydraulic turbine develops 8000 kW when
U
running at 300 rpm under a head of 45 m. the
m = 15 m/s speed of the same turbine under a head of 60m
0.6 m is
a =  0.3 m
2 (a) 224.4 rpm (b) 346.4 rpm
U = 12 m/s (c) 424.8 rpm (d) 485.8 rpm
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Ans. (c) the maximum length of the cylinder if equilibrium
Sol. Power P = 8000 KW is to be stable with the cylinder aixs veritcal?
Speed N = 300 rpm dSs
Head H = 45 m (a) 2 S S  S
R
s l s
N P
Specific Speed, NS = dSl
H5/4
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(b) 8Ss  Sl  Ss 
i.e. for same power
N  H5/4 dSl
5/4
(c) 2Ss  Sl  Ss 
 H2 
N2 = N1   d
 H1 
(d)
AS
8  Sl  S s 
5/4
 60  Ans. (b)
= 300   
 45  Sol. Let height at cylinder be H.
N2 = 429.82 rpm
Sp. gravity of cylinder = Ss
21. In a single-acting reciprocating pump, the Sp. gravity of liquid = Sl
M
acceleration head at the beginning of the suction

stroke is 3.5m. If the pump is 1.5m below the
Ss
water level in the supply reservoir, the pressure
head at the cylinder reservoir, the pressure head H
at the cylinder at that instant, considering the G
S
atmospheric pressure as 10.0m is x Sl

B
(a) 2 m (abs) (b) 4 m (abs)
(c) 8 m (abs) (d) 16 m (abs)
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Now, AH w S s = Ax w Sl

Ans. (c)
Sol. Available head at the entrance of cylinder would HS s
x = S
be 10 + 1.5 = 11.5 m. l
Suction head created by pump = –3.5m Hence, centre of bouyancy will be at x/2 from
Hence, pressure head at the cylinder bottom of cylinder.
= 11.5 – 3.5 H x
BG = 
= 8 m (abs) 2 2
22. A solid cylinder of circular section of diameter H  Ss 

BG = 2  1  S 
d is of material with specific gravity Ss. This  l 
floats in a liquid of specific gravity Sl. What is Let M be the meta centre
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 D 4  0.75 m
 64 
I
    D2
BM = V D 2 S S
 S H 16 S H
4 Sl Sl 1.8 m 1.95 m
For stable equilibrium

BM > BG
R
D2 H  SS 
> 1  
SS 2 Sl  2  3  4.5 1.95
16 H x =   0.91m
TE
Sl 7.5 3
D2
H2 <
S  S 
8 S 1  s 
Sl  Sl  x 0.91 m
DSl
H <
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8SS  Sl  Ss 
x 1.8
DSl =
Maximum height of cylinder = 0.91 1.95
8SS  Sl  SS 
 x = 0.84 m
23. A tank is 1.8m deep and square length of 4.5m
pressure at C.G × Area = pressure force
at the top and square length of 3m at the bottom.
M
The four sides are plane and each has the same 3  4.5
= x   1.95
trapezoidal shape. The tank is completely full of 2
oil weighing 936kg/m3. What is the resultant 7.5
pressure on each side? = 9.81 936  0.84   1.95
2
= 56401.4178 N
S
(a) 5750 kgf (b) 5500 kgf

(c) 5250 kgf (d) 5140 kgf = 5749.38 kgf
Ans. (a) 24. Over a basin of area 333 km2, there was a
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storm for 6 h with a uniform intensity of 2 cm/

h. The observed runoff was 20×106 m3. the
4.5 m
m average rate of infiltration for the basin was
4. 5
(a) 5 mm/h (b) 10 mm/h
Sol. 0.75 m (c) 20 mm/h (d) 40 mm/h
x
1.8 m Ans. (b)
Sol. Area of basin = 333 km2
Intensity i = 2 cm/hr
3m duraiton = 6 hr
3m
Runoff = 20 × 106 m3
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Ait  R Qd 455
Average rate of infiltration = QP of 6hr unit hydrograph = d =
At e 6.5
333  106  0.02  6  20  106

= 70 m 3/s
= 27. A new reservoir has a capacity of 12 Mm 3 and
333  106  6
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its catchment area is 400 km2. The annual
= 10 mm/hr
sediment yield from this catchment is 0.1 ha.m/
25. International Traffic Intelligent Survey Data are km2 and the trap efficiency can be assumed
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related with constant at 90%. The number of years it takes
for the reservoir to lose 50% of its initial capacity
(a) Origin and destination studies
is, nearly
(b) Speed and delay studies
(c) Classified traffic volume studies (a) 177 years (b) 77 years
(d) Accident profiling studies (c) 17 years (d) 7 years
AS
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
26. A peak flow of a flood hydrograph due to a six- Sol. Capacity of reservoir = 12 Mm3
hour storm is 470 m3/s. The corresponding
Catchment area = 400 km2
average depth of rainfall is 8 cm. Assume an
infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant Annual sediment yield = 0.1 ha.m/km2
M
base flow of 15 m 3/s. W hat is the peak Total sediment yield in a layer
discharge of 6 hour unit hydrograph for this = 400 × 0.1 × 0.9
catchment?
= 36 ha.m
(a) 60 m3/s (b) 70 m3/s 50% of initial capacity = 12 Mm 3 × 0.5
(c) 80 m3/s (d) 90 m3/s
S
= 6 × 106 m3
Ans. (b) Years required to lose 50% of initial capacity
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Sol. Given, 6  106

=
Qf = 470 m3/s 36  104
d = 8 cm i = 0.25 cm/hr, Qb=15 m3/s = 16.67 year
de = d – i × t  17 years
(de = effective depth of rainfall) 28. Cavitation is likely to occur if
= 8 – 0.25 × 6 1. Pressure becomes very high
= 6.5 cm 2. Temperature becomes low
Qd = Qf  Qb 3. Pressure at the specific points falls below
vapour pressure
= 470 – 15
4. Energy is released with the onset of a high
= 455 intensity wave due to noise and vibration of
the machine.
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Which of the above statements are correct? So transmissivity is not a dimensionless
number.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
30. The important parameters describing the
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
performance of a hydraulic machine are P the
Ans. (c) power input, H the head produced across the
machine and the efficiency,  . For a given
Sol. Cavitation occurs when at a point fluid
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temperature gets too high or the fluid pressure geometrical design of the machine, the
becomes too low. performance is characterized by the variables:
H - the head increase across the machine, 
In cavitation, energy is released with the start
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of a high intensity wave due to noise and - the fluid density,  - the angular velocity of
vibration of machine. the rotor, D - the diameter of the rotor,  - the
29. Which of the following statements are correct fluid viscosity and Q - the flow rate; and both P
as regards aquifer characteristics? and  are expressed thorugh these variables.
How many non-dimensional parameters are
1. The storage coefficient is the volume of water
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involved herein? Gravitational acceleration g has
released from storage from the entire aquifer
also to be considered necessarily?
due to unit depression of peizometric head.
2. The storage coefficient is the same as the (a) 7 (b) 6
specific yield for water table aquifer. (c) 5 (d) 4
3. Both the aquifer constants, viz. storage Ans. (d)
coefficient S and Transmissivity T are
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dimensionless numbers. Sol. P and n can be expressed in terms of 7

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only parameters viz H, H, , , D, u, Q, g .
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3  No. of non dimensional parameter = 7– 3=4
Ans. (b)
S
31. What are the values of coefficients a and c if

Sol. velocity distribution in a laminar boundary layer
on a flat is:
(i) Storage coefficient or storativity is the volume
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u
of water released from the storage per unit f n   a  bn  cn2  dn3
decline in piezometric head, per unit area of U0
aquifer. y
Where, n 
(ii) Water table aqifer  unconfined aquifer.. 
For unconfined aquifer, storage coefficient 1
(a) and 1 (b) 0 and 1
is approximately equal to the specific yield. 2
(iii) Storage coefficient is a dimensionless 1
(c)  and 0 (d) 0 and 0
number 2
Transmissivity = kd Ans. (d)
m
Unit =  m  m2 /day u
day Sol. = a + bn + cn2 + dn3,
U0
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y 4. Silt grade is constant, i.e. type and size of
n silt is always same.

At y = 0, u0 5. Channel is flowing through incoherent
 0 =a+ 0+ 0+ 0 alluvium, and it is of same grade which is
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 a =0 transported.
At y = , u  U0 33. Consider the following statements related to

uplift pressure in gravity dams:
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u0
 u0 = b + c + d =1 1. A drainage gallery reduces the uplift pressure
at all levels below the gallery.
du
And at y = , 0 2. A drainage gallery below uipstream water
dy
level reduces the uplift pressure at all levels
du below the upstream water level.
= b + 2cn + 3dn2
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dy 3. A grout curtain near the heel reduces
0 = b + 2c + 3d
seepage and uplift pressure everywhere on
d2u the gravity dam whatever the upstream water
at y =0 0
dy2 level.
 0 = 2c Which of the above statements are correct?
 c =0 (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
M
32. The conditions to be satisfied for a channel in (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
‘Regime’ as per Lacey are Ans. (a)
1. Constant discharge 34. A barrage on a major river in the Gangetic plains
2. Silt grade and silt concentration are constant has been designed for a flood discharge 7000
S
3. The channel is flowing in unlimited incoherent m3/s. It has been provided with a waterway of
alluvium of the same alluvial character as 360 m length. The losseness factor of this
that transported. barrage is
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Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1.7 (b) 1.1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.1
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans. (*)
Ans. (b) Actual width
Sol. Looseness factor =
Regime width
Sol. All three are the essential characteristics for
the true regime condition according to lacey Actual width = 360 m (Given)
According to Laceys theory for True Regime
According to Laceys theory
condition
Regime width
1. Discharge is constant.
2. Flow is uniform  W = 4.75 Q
3. Silt charge is constant, i.e. amount of silt is W = 4.75 7000
constant. W = 397.41
, 8010009955
360 37. Consider the following properties of fluorine:
Looseness factor = = 0.90
397.41 1. It is a member of the halogen family
35. A 20 m long horizontal concrete floor under a 2. It is a greenish yellow diatomic gas
barrage on a permeable foundation retains a 3. Chlorine, iodine, bromine and Helium are
5m head of water and has a 5 m deep members of the halogen family.
downstream end pile. The exit gradient is
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4. Even fireproof of asbestos burns in the
(a) 1 in 4 (b) 1 in 5 ambience of fluorine.
(c) 1 in 6 (d) 1 in 8 Which of the above are correct?
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Ans. (b) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
H 1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sol. GE = 
d   Ans. (c)
1  1  2 Sol. (i) Flourine is the lightest halogen and exists

 =
2 as a highly toxic pale yellow diatomic gas.
AS
b 20
 =  4 (ii) Helium is not a member of hologen family
d 5
(iii) Even fireproof abestos burns in the ambience
1  1  42 of fluorine
 =  2.56
2
5 1 38. The following are certain operating problems of
GE =  a rapid sand filter:
M
5 3.14  2.56
1 1. Sand depth should never be depleted by more
GE = than 10 cm.
5
36. Electrical conductivity (EC) of water and total 2. Air binding results due to development of
dissolved solids (TDS) are relatable as: negative head and fomration of air bubbles
S
in the filter sand.

The value of EC will
3. Water softening with lime-soda leads to
(a) Decrease with increase in TDS incrustation of sand.
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(b) Increase with increase in TDS 4. Bumping of filter bed is caused due to
(c) Decrease initially and then increase with negative head.
increase in TDS Which of the above statements are correct?
(d) Increase initially and then decrease with (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
increase in TDS (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
Sol. EC×640 =TDS Sol. Sand bed should never be depleted more than
Hence, value of EC will increase with increase 10cm from the original thickness.
in TDS Bumping is caused by improper back wash.
, 8010009955
39. Consider the following characteristics of E.Coli Ans. (d)
bacteria: Sol. A water supply distribution system is designed
1. Gram negative
2. Spore-forming 
Max. daily demand  Fire demand
for Max. of Max. hourly demand 
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3. Facultative anaerobic
42. A combined sewerage system is m ore
4. Bacillus
appropriate for developed areas where
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Which of the above are correct?
(a) Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (b) Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout
the year
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Air temperatures are nearly unif orm
Ans. (c)
throughout the year
AS
Sol. E-coli bacteria is a gram negative, non-spore (d) Air temperatures through the year include
forming, facultatively anaerobic bacteria. extremes during certain runs of days
40. How much bleaching powder is needed to Ans. (b)
chlorinate 5000l of water whose chlorine Sol. A combined sewerage system is m ore
demand is 2 mg/l, assuming that the bleaching appropriate for developed areas where rainfall
powder has 25% available chlorine? occurs almost uniformly throughout the year.
M
(a) 4 g (b) 40 g
43. The velocity distribution in the boundary layer
(c) 140 g (d) 400 g
u y
Ans. (b) is given by  , where u is the velocity at a
U 
Sol. Bleaching power required to chlorinate 5000l
S
distance of y from the boundary and u = U at

of water y =  ,  being boundary layer thickness. Then
2  10 3 the value of momentum thickness will be
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= 5000  gm
0.25
= 40 gm  
(a) (b)
2 4
41. A water supply distribution system for an
averagely-populated township is to be designed  
(c) (d)
for 6 8
(a) Maximum daily demand Ans. (c)

(b) Maximum hourly demand and fire demand u y
(c) Average demand Sol. Given U  
0
(d) Maximum daily demand and fire demand or 
maximum hourly demand, whichever is  u  u
higher
Momentum Thickness =  1  U0  U0 dy
0
, 8010009955
 Ans. (b)
 y y
 =   1    *  dy Sol. Design overflow rate of sedimentation tank is
0
chosen considering diameter of teh particle
 intended to be removed.
y y2 
 =     2  dy Gs  1 gd2
0
Vs =
18 
R

y2 y3
 Vs = Setting velocity of particle
 = 2 3 2
0
d = diameter of the particle
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 
 =  46. Consider the following statements in respect of
2 3
flow equalization in a waste water treatement

 = plant :
6
1. Bilogical treatement is enhanced because
AS
44. 100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, 2. Flow equaliziation is an attrative option for
the volume of this sludge will then be upgrading the performance of overloaded
(a) 40.5m3 (b) 50m3 treatement plants.
(c) 75m3 (d) 94.7m3 3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH
can be stabilized
Ans. (b)
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4. Thickening perf ormance of primary

Sol. With the change in moisture content, volume of
sedimentation tanks following grit removal is
solids remains same in both case.
improved
Therefore equating the volume of solids in both Which of the above statements are correct?
cases.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
S
V1 1  P1  = V2 1  P2  (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a)
100 1  0.95   V2 1  0.9 
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Sol.
5 = V2  0.1
(i) Flow equalization is a method to overcome
V2 = 50 m3 problems related to fluctuations in flow rate
and pollution load.
45. The design overflow rate of a sedimentation (ii) It helps in lowering the strength of waste
tank is chosen considering water by diluting it with waste water already
(a) Flow rate through the tank present in equalization tank.
(b) Diameter of the particle intended to be (iii) Flow equalization basin is located after
removed screening and grit removal but before primary
sedimentation.
(c) Volume of the sedimentation tank
(d) Detention time in the tank
, 8010009955
(iv) Thickner/settler and filter performance gets Ans. (c)
enchanced and their surface area gets
reduced. Sol. (i) It is designed for typical detention time of 3
minutes at maximum flow.
47. A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its
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(ii) Diffusers are located at 0.45 – 0.6m from
BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/
the bottom
s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the
(iii) Excessive wear of grit handling equipment
value of the BOD of the combined flow after
and necessity of separate grit washer can
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complete mixing?
be eliminated by using aerated grit chamber.
(a) 3.6 mg/l (iv) An aerated grit chamber consists of a
(b) 13.6 mg/l standard flow aeration tank provided with air
(c) 33.6 mg/l diffusion tubes placed on one side of the
(d) 53.6 mg/l tank.
AS
Ans. (b) 49. The side of a square land was measured as
Sol. BOD after complete mixing 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the
corresponding error in the computed area of
QwBODw  QsBODs the land.
=
Qw  Qs
(a) 5 m2 (b) 10 m2
M
5  100  50  5
= (c) 15 m2 (d) 20 m2
5  50
Ans. (c)
= 13.63mg l
48. Consider the following statements in respect of Sol. Area = (side)2

aerated grit chamber: d (Area)
S
= 2 × side
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in d (side)
adv ancing sprial-f low aeration tanks, d (Area) = 2 × side × d (side)
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locationally preceded by grit chambers, led

d(Area) = 2 × 150 × 0.05
to the eventual development of aerated grit
chambers. d(Area) = 15 m 2
2. The excessive wear on grit handling 50. Consider the following statements in respect of
equipment is a major factor for the popularity anerobic sludge digester:
of aerated grit chambers.
1. It is less expensive compared to several
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to
other methods available.
provide detention period of 1 minute at
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the
maximum rate of flow.
environment to a minimum
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring
above the bottom of teh chamber.
disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
, 8010009955
Which of the above statements are correct? of land areation thereby leading to septic
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only conditions in the land
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Sol. Sewage sickness relates to clogging of pores in
soil due to excessive application of sewage
51. Consider the following statements as regards a loading to obstruction of land aeration thereby
R
Septic Tank: leading to septic conditions in the land.
1. The size required is large and uneconomical
53. The waste water of a certain large colony
when serv ing more than roughly 100
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contains 10–5.6 mmol/l of OH– ions at 25ºC.
persons.
The pH of this sample is
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80%
of suspended solids. (a) 8.6 (b) 7.9
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a (c) 5.4 (d) 4.5
plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can Ans. (c)
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hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
Sol. Concentraiton of OH– ion = 10–5.6 mmol/litre
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required
Which of the above statements are correct? = 10–5.6 × 10–3 mol/litre
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 = 10–8.6 mol/litre
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 pOH = – log [OH]
M
Ans. (c) = – log 10–8.6

Sol. (i) Septic tank canbe provided when number of = 8.6
user does not exceed 300 persons.
pH = 14 – pOH
(ii) Septic tank removes around (25 – 65)%
= 14 – 8.6
BOD and (40 –75)% of suspended solids
S
= 5.4
Statement 3 and 4 are correct.
52. Sewage sickness relates to 54. Consider the relevance of the following features
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for causing photochemical smog:

(a) Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’
1. Air stagnation
to treatment
2. Abundant sunlight
(b) Destruction fo aquatic flora and fauna due 3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water 4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere.
by the sewage Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) reduction in the waste purifying capacity of (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
the soil (b) 3 and 4 only
(d) Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
application of sewage leading to obstruction (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
, 8010009955
Sol. A photochemical smog is a chemical reaction (a) 0.5m (b) 1.25m
of sunlight, nitrogen oxides and volatile organic (c) 2.75m (d) 4.25m
compounds in the atmosphere, which leaves Ans. (b)
airborne particles and ground-level ozone.
Sol. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel,
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55. Consider the following statements related to y
ecology: hydraulic radius = and B = 2y for hydraulically
2
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1. All the physical, chemical and biological efficient channel
factors that a species needs in order to live
and reproduce is called ecological niche. B B 5
 R =    1.25 m
2. The boudnary zone between two ecosystems 22 4 4
is known as ecotone. 58. The standard plasticity chart by casagrande to
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as classify fine-grained soils is shown in the figure.
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tundra. PL(%) A line
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and
life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is P
more extensive and complex than an

ecosystem
M

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20 35 50 WL(%)
Ans. (d)
Sol. All the above statements are correct. The area marked P represents.
S
(a) Inorganic clays of high plasticity

56. Consider the f ollowing laws of ecology
(b) Organic clays and highly plastic organic silts
suggested by Barry Commoner:
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(c) Organic and inorganic silts and siltclays

1. Everything is connected to everything else. (d) Clays
2. Everything must go somewhere.
Ans. (a)
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch. PL(%) A line
Sol. CH
CI
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d) MH
CL MI
Sol. These are four laws of ecology formulated by
ML
ecologist Barry commoner.
20 35 50 WL(%)
57. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel  P lies in the area of inorganic clays of high
of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is plasticity.
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59. A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and 61. Which technique of stabilization for the sub-
the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The base is preferred for a heavy plastic soil?
porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
(a) cement stabilization
(a) 7.5% (b) 9.5% (b) mechanical stabilization
(c) 13.5% (d) 16.5% (c) lime stabilization
Ans. (c) (d) bitumen stabilization
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Sol. s = 6% GS = 2.6 Ans. (c)
Sol. Lime changes the nature of the adsorbed layer
At shrinkage limit, soil is fully saturated.
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and provides pozzolonic action. Plasticity index
Now Se = Gs of highly plastic soils are reduced by addition
as lime with soil. There is an increase in
1 × e = 0.06 × 2.6 optimum water content and a decrease in the
e = 0.156 maximum compacted density and the strength
and durability of soil increases.
AS
e 0.156
n =   0.135
1  e 1  0.156 62. A fill having volume of 150000 m 3 is to be
constructed at a void ratio of 0.8. The borrow
60. What is the dry unit weight of a clay soil when
pit solid has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of
the void ratio of a sample thereof is 0.50, the
soil required to be excavated from the borrow
degree of saturation is 70%, and the specific
pit will be
gravity of the soil grains is 2.7? Take the value
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of   to be 9.81 kN/m3? (a) 150000 m3 (b) 200000 m3

(c) 250000 m3 (d) 300000 m3
(a) 13.65 kN/m2 (b) 19.95 kN/m2
Ans. (b)
(c) 26.65 kN/m2 (d) 29.95 kN/m2
Sol. Solid volume required fill construction
S
Ans. (*)
150000
G  =  83333.33m3
Sol. d = 1  0.8
1 e
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Volume of soil excavated from borrow pit

2.7  9.81
=  17.658 KN m 3 = 83333.33  14 
1  0.5
(Gs  Se) w = Vd 1  1.4   200,000m3
bulk =
1 e
63. A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has a
(2.7  0.7  0.5)  9.81
= mean velocity of 1.1 m/s. The silt factor is 1.1.
1  0.5
Then hydraulic mean radius will be
= 19.95 kN/m3
(a) 1.13 m (b) 2.27 m
(In question it should be bulk and not dry )
(c) 3.13 m (d) 4.27 m
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Ans. (*) t t
2K   K  t  2K 
5 v2 2 2
=
Sol. R = t t
2 f t
2 2
R
5 1.12
R =  3Kt
2 1.1 =  1.5K
2t
R = 2.5 × 1.1
66. A uniform collapsible sand stratum, 2.5 m thick,
TE
R = 2.75 m has specific gravity of its sand as 2.65, with a
64. Consider the following assumptions as regards natural void ratio of 0.65. The hydraulic head
field permeability test: required to cause quick collapsible sand
condition is
1. The flow is laminar and Darcy’s law is valid.
(a) 2.50 m (b) 2.75 m
AS
2. The flow is horizontal and uniform at all the
points in the vertical section. (c) 3.25 m (d) 3.50 m
Ans. (a)
3. The velocity of flow is proportional to the
‘tangent magnitude’ of the hydraulic gradient. Gs  1 1.65
Sol. iCr =  1
1  e 1.65
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
M
h
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only iCr =
H
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 h = iCr  H
Ans. (d)
= 1 × 2.5
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65. In a three-layered soil system, the thicknesses

= 2.5 m
of the top and bottom layers each are half the
thickness of the middle layer. The coefficients 67. The ratio of dry unit weight to unit weight of
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of permeability of the top and bottom layers water represents

each are double the coefficient of permeability
(a) Specific gravity of soil solids
k of the middle layer. When horizontal flow
occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability (b) Specific gravity of soil mass
of the system will be (c) Specific gravity of dry soil
(a) 1.5 k (b) 3.0 k (d) Shrinkage ratio
(c) 4.5 k (d) 6.0 k Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Sol. Shrinkage ratio is mass specific gravity of the
soil in dry state
K1H1  K 2H2  K 3H3
Sol. KH = H1  H2  H3
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G w
Sol. d =
1 e
1.0 2.66  1
1+e =
68. 1.77
e = 0.5028
R
e wG 14.44  2.66
S = 
e 0.5028
= 76.39%
0.5
1.0 p
TE 10.0
70.
 77%
A rigid retaining wall of 6m height has a
saturated backfill of soft clay soil. What is the
critical height when the properties of the clay
soil are:
AS
The virgin compression curve with axes adopted
 sat  17.56 kN/m3 and cohesion C = 18kN/m2.
as per convention in this regard for a clay soil
is shown in the figure. The compression index (a) 1.1 m (b) 2.1 m
of the soil is (c) 3.1 m (d) 4.1 m
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 Ans. (d)
(c) 1.00 (d) 1.25 4C 4  18
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Sol. Hc = 2z0 = 
Ans. (b)  17.56
Sol. = 4.1 m
e 71. The Engineering News Record Formula,
Cc =
 
log10  2  Wh
S
 1  Qa  is used for the case of

6(s  0.25)
1  0.5
=  0.5 1. Drop hammer
 10 
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log10  
 1  2. Single acting hammer
69. Proctor’s compaction test for the maximum dry 3. Double acting hammer
density of a certain soil gave the results as :
Which of the above is/are correct?
1.77 gm/cc and OMC 14.44%. The specific
gravity of the clay soil grain was 2.66. What (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
was the saturation degree for this soil? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 44% (b) 55% Ans. (b)
(c) 66% (d) 77% Sol. Emperical factor ‘c’ taken as 0.25 cm for
Ans. (d) single-acting hammer.
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72. In a certain sea shore, the height of a retaining 2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two or
wall with smooth vertical back is 4.4 m. The more quantities is equal to the reciprocal of
foundation is over an expansive collapsible soil the sum of the individual weights.
and has horizontal surace at the level of the
3. If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied
top of the wall and carries a udl of 197 kPa.
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with a factor, then the weight of the resulting
The unit weight and angle of internal friction
quantity is obtained by dividing the original
are 19 kN/m3 and 30°, respectively. What is
weight by the square root of that factor.
the nearest magnitude of the total active
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pressure per metre length of this sea shore 4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided by
wall? a factor, then the weight of the resulting
quantity is obtained by multiplying the original
(a) 270 kN/m (b) 360 kN/m
weight by the square of that factor.
(c) 450 kN/m (d) 640 kN/m
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
AS
Ans. (b)
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Sol.
Ans. (c)
Sol. The weight of the algebric sum of two or more

quantities is equal to the reciprocal of the sum
of the reciprocal of their individual weights.
M
H If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied

with a factor, then the weight of resulting quantity
is obtained by dividing the original weight by
square of that factor.
S
Kaq KaH 74. Hypotenusal allowance is giv en by the

expression (adopting standard conventions)
1 
Pa = Ka   19  4.4  4.4  197  4.4 
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2  (a) (1  sec ) × measured distance
1  sin 30 1 (b) (1  cos ) × measured distance

where, Ka = 
1  sin30 3
Hence, Pa = 350.24 kN/m (c) (sec   1) × measured distance
73. Which of the following statements are rightly (d) ( cos   1 )× measured distance
associated with the laws of weights in the theory
Ans. (d)
of errors?
Sol. Hypotenusal allowance is correction for slope
1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight,
then the weight of the resulting equation is Cg = –L (1 – cos )
equal to the reciprocal of the weight of the  Cg = L ( cos   1 )
original equation. 75. The clogging of chain rings with mud introduces
(with ‘error’ defined in the standard way)
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1. Negative cumulative error 2. The algebraic sum of all the departures
should be equal to zero.
2. Positive cumulative error
3. The sum of the northings should be equal to
3. Compensating error
the sum of the southings.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Ans. (b) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Sol. Due to clogging of chain rings with mud, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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actual length of the chain will become less Ans. (a)
than nominal length of chain.
Sol. In a closed traverse, if the survey is error
 M.V > T.V free.
 Error = M.V – T.V
1. L  0
 Error = +ve
2. D  0
AS
76. The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle
mensuration basis) is 55° 30 East. The true 78. The rise and fall method for obtaining the
magnetic bearing of the line will be. reduced levels of points provides a check on
(a) 61 00 (b) 55 30 1. Foresight

2. Backsight
(c) 40 00 (d) 50 00
3. Intermediate sight
M
Ans. (a)
Sol. T.B = 55° 30 + 5° 30
T.B = 61°
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
T.N
S
M.N Ans. (d)

5°30
Sol. In rise and fall method R.L of back sight and

B fore sight sight are checked along with
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55°30 intermediate sight.

A
W E 79. Turning of the theodolite telescope in vertical
plane by 180° about the horizontal axis is known
as
(a) Setting (b) Centering
(c) Transiting (d) Swinging
77. In any closed traverse, if the survey work is Ans. (c)
error free, then
Sol. Turnning the theodolite telescope in vertical
1. The algerbraic sum of all the latitudes should plane by 180° about horizontal axis is called
be equal to zero. as transiting.
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Turnni ng the t heodol i te tel escope i n 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area
horizontal plane about vertical axis is called measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower
swinging. BP in the area also appears on the photograph.
The distance between images of top and bottom
80. W hich of the f ollowing are among the
of the t ower measures 0.5 cm on the
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fundamental lines of a theodolite?
photograph. The distance of the image of the
1. The vertical and horizontal axes top of the tower is 10 cm. The acutal height of
2. The lines of collimation and axis of the plate the tower is
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levels.
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m
3. The bublle line of the altitude level
(c) 20 m (d) 25 m
Ans. (d)
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) Sol. h = 250m, f = 25 cm, AB = 300m, ab = 15
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cm, d = 0.5 cm, r = 10 cm, height of tower
Sol. Fundamental lines of theodlite are: h2 = ?
(1) Vertical axis ab f
S = 
(2) Horizontal axis AB H  h
15 25
(3) Line of collimation =
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300 H  250
(4) Axis of plate levels H = 750
(5) Axis of telescope level rh2
d = Hh
1
81. Local mean time of a place of longitude of
10  h2
S
42 36 W is 8h 42 m 15 s AM. The 0.5 =

750  250
corresponding Greenwich Mean Time is
h2 = 25 m
(a) 10 h 32 m 40 s AM
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83. A tranportation trip survery was undertaken

(b) 11h 32 m 39s PM bet ween priv ate car, and public car
transportation. The proportion of those using
(c) 0 h 32 m 39s PM
private cars is 0.45. While using the public
(d) 11 h 32 m 39s AM transport, the further choices available are Metro
Ans. (d) Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by
a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such
42 30
Sol. GMT = 8h 42 m 15S  a situation, the choice of interest in using a
15
Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be
GMT = 11 hr 32 m 39 sec AM respectively.
82. A vertical photograph of a flat area having an (a) 0.25, 0.3 and 0.45 (b) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
average elevation of 250m above mean sea
(c) 0.25, 0.45 and 0.3 (d) 0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
level was taken with a camera of focal length
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Ans. (a) losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow
Sol. Pmetro = 0.55×0.45 = 0.2475 = 0.25 velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h,
Pmono = 0.55×0.55 = 0.3025 = 0.3 where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also,
may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
Pprivate car = 0.45
(a) 535 seconds (b) 516 seconds
m2
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84. An airfoil of surface area 0.1 is tested for lift (c) 485 seconds (d) 467 seconds
L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be
Ans. (d)
considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle
of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22
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kg/m 3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is
measured to be 3.2 kgf. W hat is the lift
coefficient? For a prototype wing of area
10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air
speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack
Sol.
x
h
3m
4x
AS
of 5°? 2 2
Area, A1 = 10 m Area = a Area, A 2 = 2.5 m
(a) 0.572 and 700 kgf
(b) 0.603 and 700 kfg h = 3 – 4x – x
 h = 3 – 5x
(c) 0.572 and 570 kgf
V = 1.75 3  5x
(d) 0.603 and 570 kgf
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If in time dt, water level falls by dx, then

Ans. (a)
V× a(dt) = Adx
U20 (1.75 3  5x )  2  103  dt = 10.dx

Sol. FL = CL A
2 For 2.5 m3 of water to flow, time required = T
S
2
CL  1.22  30   0.1 2.5 m3 = x0 × 10
3.2  9.81 =
2
x0 = 0.25 m
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CL = 0.572
0.25 10 T
2  0 dx   2  103 dt
 160  0.278   10  1.75 3  5x 0
FL  3.2      0.1 
 30     T = 467 sec
= 702.33 Kgf 86. The consistency and flow resistance of a sample
85. Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional of bitumen can be determined through which of
areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are the following tests?
connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = (a) Viscosity test (b) Penetration test
0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is
(c) Ductility test (d) Softening point test
3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m 3 of water to
flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit
, 8010009955
Ans. (a) Sol.
87. A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction GI = 0.2a  0.005ac  0.01bd
coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with where, a  62  35  27%
15 m difference in their water levels through a
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1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge b  62  15  47%
through the pipe? c= 0
d = 21 – 10 = 11
(a) 104 lps (b) 134 lps
TE
P.I. = L  P  21
(c) 165 lps (d) 196 lps
Ans. (a) GI = 0.2a  0.005ac  0.01bd  10.57  11 Poor 

fl V 2 ductility of bitumen:
Sol. h =
AS
2gd
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit
V = 1.26 m/s bitumen to undergo large deformation without
 2
breaking.
Q =  0.324   1.26  0.1038m3 s
4 2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally
= 103.8 l sec adhesive but do not have good cementing
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properties.
88. Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different
(a) Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen temperatures in order to pronounce on the
(b) Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only suitability of the material.
S
(c) Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
Ans. (c)
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(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

89. Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield
Ans. (a)
the following results:
91. A collapsible soil sub-grade sample was tested
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
using Standard Calif ornia Bearing Ratio
Liquid limit 35% apparatus; and the observations are given below
Plasticity Index 14%
Sl. No. Load Penetration
As per the group index classification of soil,
1. 60.55 kg 2.5 mm
what is the soil condition of the above soil
2. 80.55 kg 5.0 mm
sample?
Taking the standard assumption regarding the
(a) Poor (b) Fair
load penetration curve, CBR value of the sample
(c) Good (d) Excellent will be taken as
Ans. (a)
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(a) 3.9% (b) 4.0% 2  q2
= 0.4  5  0.4  5 
(c) 4.4% (d) 5.5% 9.81
Ans. (c) q = 7.3m 3 s
94. Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected

Load carreied by specimen
Sol. CBR = load carried by s tandardspecimen  100 section of a Highway are conducted by
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(a) Fast moving car method
At 2.5 mm penetration, CBR
(b) Enoscope
60.55
=  100  4.4% (c) Radar
=
1370
At 5 mm penetration, CBR
80.55
2055
 100  3.9%
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CBR is the maximum of above two ratio i.e.
95.
(d) Traffic contours
Ans. (a)
The surface tension of water at 20°C is 75 ×
10–3 N/m. The difference in water surface within
AS
and outside an open-ended capillary tube of
4.4%. 1mm internal bore, inserted at the water surface,
92. What is the critical thickness of a prestressed would nearly, be
concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s (a) 7 mm (b) 11 mm
Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum
(c) 15 mm (d) 19 mm
wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact.
M
Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm 2. Ans. (c)

Assume flexural strength of concrete as
50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade 4
Sol. h =
reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and d
modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
4  75  10 3
S
=  30mm
(a) 19.6 cm (b) 21.6 cm 9.81 10 3  1 10 3
(c) 23.6 cm (d) 25.6 cm If we take bore as radius then d = 2mm
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Ans. (*)  h = 15 mm
93. At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m 96. Survey of India was publishing toposheets using
a scale of
and 5 m at the upstream and downsteam,
respectively. The channle is wide rectangular. (a) 1 : 1000 (b) 1 : 5000
The discharge per unit width is nearly
(c) 1 : 10000 (d) 1 : 50000
(a) 5.8 m2/s (b) 6.4 m2/s Ans. (d)
(c) 7.3 m2/s (d) 8.3 m2/s Sol. Before adaptation of National Mapping Policy
Ans. (c) – 2005, Survey of India printed Topographical
2q2 maps on 1 : 2, 50,000, 1 : 50,000 and 1 : 25,
Sol. = y1y 2  y1  y 2  000. Scales.
g
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97. The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track 99. A pelton wheel works under a head of 400m.
having a curvature of 3° and cant of 10 cm with Friction loss through the pipe flow is limited to
allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for 10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is
conditions obtaining in India, is 0.98. What is the velocity of the jet? Take g =
10 m/s2.
R
(a) 87.6 km/h (b) 99.6 km/h
(a) 83 m/s (b) 71 m/s
(c) 76.6 km/h (d) 65.6 km/h
Ans. (a) (c) 65 m/s (d) 56 m/s
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Ans. (a)
1720 Sol. Head available at the nozzle = 0.9 × 400
Sol. D =
R = 360 m
R = 573.33 m V = C V 2gH
AS
127Re
V = = 0.98 2  9.81 360
G
= 82.36 m/s
127  573.33  0.176
= 100. The value of porosity of a soil sample in which
1.676
the total volume of soil grains is equal to twice
M
= 87.44 Km/h the total volume of voids would be
98. The gradient for a B.G railway line such that (a) 30% (b) 40%
the grade resistance together with curve (c) 50% (d) 60%
resistance due a 4° curve which will be Ans. (a)
S
equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1 in

150 is Sol. Vs = 2VV
(a) 1 : 180 (b) 1 : 200 VV 1
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n = 
(c) 1 : 300 (d) 1 : 400 VV  VS V
1 S
Ans. (b) VV
1 1
Sol. Grade resistance + Curve resistance =   33.3%
1 2 3
= Ruling gradient resistance
101. Consider the the following statements:
 
 0.0004D  1. In an Impulse turbine, the pressure of the,
x 150
flowing water remains unchanged and is
D = 4°
equal to atmospheric pressure.
x = 197.36  200
2. In Impulse turbines, the water impinges on
Gradient is 1 in 200. the buckets with ‘pressure energy’.
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3. In a Reaction turbine, the pressure of the, (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
flowing water remains unchanged and is true
equal to atmospheric pressure.
103. Statement (I): : The shear strain graph for a
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Newtonian fluid is linear.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Statement (II): The coefficient of viscosity  of
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the fluid is not a constant.
R
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
102. A Pelton wheel with single jet rotates at 600 104. Statement (I): : Reynolds number must be the
rmp. The velocity of the jet from the nozzle is same for model and the prototype when, both
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100 m/s. If the ratio of the bucket velocity of jet are tested as immersed in a subsonic flow.
velocity is 0.44 and the speed ratio is 0.43,
what is the coefficient of velocity of the nozzle? Statement (II): A model should be geometlically
(a) 0·817 (b) 0·882 similar to the prototype.
(c) 0·913 (d) 0.977 Ans. (b)
AS
Ans. (d)
105. Statement (I): The ogee spillway is a control
Sol. U1 = K U1 2gH weir’ having an S-shaped crest profile which
KU1 = Speed ratio provides a high discharge coefficient without
U1 = 0.44  100  44m s causing cavitations.
V = C V 2gH Statement (II): The crest profile of ogee
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spillway conforms to the lower nappe of flow

V 100
CV =   0.977 over a ventilated sharp-crested weir and
2gH 44 0.43 ensures a constant discharge coefficient for all
Directions: heads.
Each of the next Eighteen (18) items consists of Ans. (c)
S
two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ Sol. If head of water over the Ogee spillway is less
and the other as ‘Statement (II)’, Examine these two than design head then falling jet of water will
statements carefully and select the answers to ‘these adhere to the crest of the spillway hence an
IE
items using the codes given below : positive hydrostatic pressure will be created
Codes: which will reduce the discharge coefficient.
(a) Both Statement (1) and’ Statement (II) are
106. Statement (I): In open channel flow, the
maximum velocity does not occur on the free
correct explanation of Statement (I)
surface.
individually true but Statement (II) is not the Statement (II): There is wind drag on the free
correct explanation of Statement (I) surface of an open channel.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is Ans. (b)
false
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111. Statement (I): Multistage centrifugal pumps
107. Statement (I): The deeper a lake, the lesser are used to produce very high delivery heads.
the evaporation in summer and the more in Statement (II): Roto-dynamic pumps must
winter. have to be centrifugal rather than centripetal,
Statement (II): Heat storage in water bodies from the very basic principles of hydrodynamics.
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affects seasonal evaporation Also, the stages are in series.
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
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108. Statement (I): Flow over sharp-crested weirs, 112. Statement (I): The speed of a hydraulic turbine
standing wave flumes and abrupt free overfalls has to be maintained constant irrespective of
at ends of long straight channels are examples the load on the machine for keepirig the
of rapidly varied flow. electrical power generation frequency constant
Statement (II): The above-Ilsted flows are all Statement (II): Governing of hydraulic turbines
can be done by controlling the discharge through
AS
essentially local phenomena and can be utilized
for flow measurement in open channels. the turbines by adjusting the. spear valve in
Pelton turbines and the wicket in Francis or
Ans. (a) Kaplan turbines.
109. Statement (I): Negative skin friction will act on Ans. (a)
the piles of a group in filled-up reclaimed soils
113. Statement (I): : A channel in alluvium running
M
or peat soil.
with constant discharge and constant sediment
Statement (II): The filled-up’ or peat soils’ are’ charge will first from its flow section and then
not fully consolidated but start consolidating its final longintudinal slope.
under their own ov erburden pressure,
developing a drag on ,the surface of the piles. Statement (II): If a channel in alluvium has a
S
section too small for a given discharge and

Ans. (a)
slope steeper than required, degradation and
110. Statement (I): The possibility of quicksand’ aggradation happen and then the flow section
IE
attains final regime.

condition occuring is more on the downstream
of a weir on a permeable foundation than on Ans. (d)
the upstream’ end with an upward component
Sol. A channel in alluvium running with constant
of seepage velocity.
discharge and constant sediment charge will
Statement (II): Seepage lines end with an first from its longitudinal slope and then its final
upward component of seepage velocity at the flow section.
downstream reaches of such a weir.
114. Statement (I): The shear stress exerted by the
Ans. (a)
stream flow on the bed is responsible for the
Sol. Upward seepage reduces effective stress movement of bed sediment particles.
where as downward seepage increases Statement (II): The sediment will move when
effective stresses. the shear stress crosses a threshold limit
designated as a critical shear stress c .
, 8010009955
ESE
2017 Prelims Exam
Detailed Solution
CIVIL ENGINEERING (SET–C)
Office Address: F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016

Telephone: 011-41013406, Mobile: 8130909220, 9711853908
Web: www.iesmaster.org E-mail: info@iesmaster.org
Explanation of Civil Engg. Prelims Paper (ESE - 2017)
SET - C
1. Consider the following statements: slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at
the free end is
1. When the number of members (n) and
R
joints (j) are such that the equation (a) 49.27 mm (b) 39.27 mm
n = (2j – 3) is satisfied, the framed structure (c) 30.27 mm (d) 20.27 mm
is said to be a perfect structure.
TE
Ans. (b)
2. In a redundant frame, the number of
members is less than that required for a Sol.
perfect frame. w
3. If, in a framed structure, the number of  = 1°
l=3m 
members provided is more than that 
AS
required for a perfect frame, it is called as
deficient frame. wl3
 =
6EI
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only wl 4
 = P1 P2
8EI
M
 6l
Ans. (b) =
 8
Sol. Perfect structure or frame are the one which
6  3000 
can be analysed using the three conditions  = 
of static equilibrium. For these 8 180
S
m = 2j – 3 = 39.25 mm
Redundant frame is a frame having more 3. The maximum bending moment at a given
IE
number of members than required such that section, in which a train of wheel loads moves
there is always a member in which force occurs when the average load on the left
can not be computed using equations of segment is
static equillbrium
1. Equal to the average load on the right
n  (2j  3) segment.
Deficient frame is frame having less number 2. More than the average load on the right
of members than required for perfect frame segement.
3. Less than the average load on the right
n  (2j  3)
segment.
2. A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly Select the correct answer using the codes
distributed load over the entire length. If the given below:
, 8010009955
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only thebending moment is maximum when that
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only load is on the section.
4. A single degree of freedom system of mass
Ans. (b) 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If
Sol. w5 w4 w3 w2 w1 damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic
R
frequency and the damped circular frequency,
R1 respectively, are nearly
x R2
d
(a) 0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
TE
z c L–z (b) 0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
(c) 4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
Let R1 be the resultant of loads on the left of
the section and R2 be resultant of the loads (d) 0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
on the right of the section. Ans. (c)
AS
Distance between R1 and R2 be  and R1 be Sol. The natural frequency without considering
at a distance x from C. damping
Let ordinate ILD for moment at C be y1 under x
R1 and y2 under R2 and maximum ordinate at wn =
m
C be yc
K = 17 kN/m = 17 × 103 N/m
M
m = 22 kg
y1 yc y2
k 17  103
 wn =   27.8 rad/sec
MC = R1y1  R2 y m 22
S
Lx  (L  2)  (d  x) Damping, z = 2% = 0.02

= R1   yc  R2   yc
 z  (L  2) w d = wn (1 – z2)
IE
for MC to be maximum = 27.8 (1 – 0.022)

dMc Ry  y 
  1 c  R2   c   0  27.8 rad/sec
dx z L  z  So, damped cyclic frequency=27.8 rad/sec
R1 R wd
 2 Cyclic frequency f =
z Lz 2
Note : Seldom we get exactly equal average 27.8
load on both sides of the section. For example = = 4.4 Hz.
2
when load w1 is to the left of the section, the Alternative
avg. load on left side may be heavier when it
just rolls over the section, the avg load on w
The relation f = can be directly used to
right hand becomes heavier. 2
eliminate options.
Hence the above condition for maximum
bending moment can be interpreted as Only option ‘c’ satisfies the above relation.
, 8010009955
5. A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is 6. The design strength of a tension member is
supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the governed by
same level. The cable supports at its mid- 1. Rupture at a critical section
reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the
cable is nearly 2. Yielding of gross area
(a) 136 N (b) 131 N 3. Block shear of end region
(c) 126 N (d) 121 N Select the correct answer using the codes
R
given below:
Ans. (b)
Sol.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8m
TE
8m
Ans. (d)
Sol. Design strength of a tension member is
governed by there criterias
9m 9m
1. Rupture at a critical section
AS
2. Yielding of gross area
120 N 3. Block shear of end region
T T
1. Rupture strength of P plate is given by
  A f 
Tdn   n u   0.9
 m 
 1 
M
120 N
2T sin  p12
An = B.t  nd' t  t
4gi
120
fy  A g
2. Yield strength of plate =
S
m0
9m 2 2
9  8  17 3. Block shear strength of plate
  A vg fy
IE
A  0.9fu
8m   tn
 3 m0 m1
17 = min. of 
sin  
9  A vn 0.9fu  At g  fy
 3 m1 m0

2T sin   120
and design strength of tension member is
17 minimum of 1, 2, 3 given by above
 2T   120
9 7. Two parallel rails are running on railway
120  9 sleepers. The centre-to-centre distance
 T = between the rail is ‘b’ with the sleepers
2 17
projecting by an amount ‘a’ at each end
= 130.97 = 131 N beyond the rails. When the train passes over
, 8010009955
the rails, the reaction exerted by the ground wb2 wa2 wa2
can be taken as uniformly distributed over the  
8 2 2
b
sleeper. The ratio for the condition that the b2
a a2 =
maximum bending moment is as small as 8
possible is
R
b
(a) 2.83 (b) 2.90  2 2  2.82
a
(c) 2.50 (d) 3.00
8. The kinematic indeterminacy of the structure
TE
Ans. (a) shown in the figure is equal to
Sol.
B E C
A D
AS
a b a
loading diagram
wb/2 b/2
b/2 a (a) 14 (b) 15
wa Shear force diagram
(c) 16 (d) 17
M
maximum (+) bending moment will occur at Ans. (a)

the mid span of central span E and maximum
Sol. Kinematic indterminancy = 3j – r – m
-ve BM will occur at the supports B and C.
[Maximum +ve BM –BM at free end] = 0
S
 vdx = Area under SFD between A to E  r=2

IE
1 wb b 1
=     wa  a j = no. of joints = 12
2 2 2 2
r = Reaction = 3 + 2 + 2 = 7
wb2 wa2 m = No. of members = 15
Maximum +ve BM = 
8 2
Dk = 3j – k - m
[Maximum -ve BM – BM at free end]
= 3 × 12 – 7 – 15
= area ofSFD between A and B
= 14
1
=  wa  a 9. A beam-column is alternately bent either (1)
2
in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature.
wa2 The secondary moments induced are to be
Maximum -ve BM =
2 compared. These are indicated SM2 and SM2
maximum +ve BM = Max. – ve BM as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
, 8010009955
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8010009955, 9711853908
(a) SM1 > SM2 (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) SM1 < SM2 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) SM1 = SM2 Ans. (b)
(d) Cannot be ascertained Sol. Gantry girders are designed using latterly
Ans. (a) unsupported beams generally while they can
be designed as latterally supported beams.
Sol. P P
Also Gantry girders carry heavy loads and
R
M M
hence they should be designed as I section
 with plate or channels on compression flange.
Since the main member is only I-section, we
M

P
Single currature
M

P
Double currature
TE 11.
generally do not use channel as main member.
A three-hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span
of 20 m and a central rise of 4·0 m. The arch
has hinges at the ends and at the crown. A
train of two point loads of 20 kN and 10 kN,
AS
• A beam column is a member which 5 m apart, crosses this arch from left to right,
carry bendi ng mom ent wi t h ax ial with the 20 kN load leading. The maximum
compressive force. thrust induced at the supports is
(a) 25·0 kN (b) 28·13 kN
• Due to bending deflection (  ), the axial
force P induces additional moment = (c) 31·25 kN (d) 32·81 kN
P
M
Ans. (c)
• This P   moment is called secondary Sol.
moment. 10 kN 20 kN
• In single curvature, maximum moment
S
in member will be greater than the 5m

appl i ed m om ent , but i n doubl e
4m
curvature, maximum moment neet not
IE
be greater than the applied moment.

• In single curvature, P   moment will 20 m
be more than that in double curvature Case-I
because o f l ower  i n doubl e
10 kN 20 kN C
curvature.
5m
10. Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
HB
2. As laterally unsupported beams. H
RA RB
3. By using channel sections.
x 20 m
Select the correct answer using the codes
For vortical R×N RB,
given below:
, 8010009955
M  0 at A 1. Bearing stiffeners have to resist bearing
and buckling loads.
 RB  20  20x  10 (x  5) 2. Bearing area and the area resisting
RB = 1.5 x – 2.5 buckling load are the same.
Taking moment about C, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
R
MC  0
RB  10  H  4
TE
Ans. (b)
Sol. • Bearing stiff eners are prov ided at
10
H (1.5x  2.5) locations of support reactions and
4
concentrated loads.
H is a linear function of x • Bearing stiffeners have to resist direct
AS
So value of H will be maximum when x = 0 bearing of support reaction and also
or at x = 10 (max. value of x) resist the buckling of web of girders.
at x = 10 • Bearing area and bucking area are not

same.
H  31.25 kN • Bearing area is calculated at root of
web by dispersion at a slope of 1:2.5.
M
12. According to IS : 875 Part 3, the design wind

• Buckling area is calculated at neutral
speed acting on industrial roof is estimated
axis by dispersion at 45º.
based on the basic wind speed by multiplying
it by factors K1,K2 andK3, where K1 is called 14. In a plate girder, the web plate is connected
(a) Terrain height factor to the flange plates by fillet welding. The size
S
of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist

(b) Structure size factor
(a) The bending stresses in the flange
(c) Topography factor
IE
(b) The vertical shear force at the section

(d) Risk coefficient
(c) The horizontal shear force between the
Ans. (d) flanges and the web plate
Sol. According to IS-875 part 3 the design wind (d) The forces causing buckling in the web
speed is calculated by multiplying basic wind
speed to different factor K1, K2, K3 Ans. (c)
Flange
K1 – risk coefficient Sol. plate
K2 – terrains, height and structure size factor
K3 – Tapography factor
Web plate
13. Consider the f ollowing two statements
regarding Bearing stiffeners provided at the
location of a concentrated load:
, 8010009955
Fillet weld is good in resisting shear and 
×  202  4 × 4
hence it resists horizontal shear f orce 4
between the flanges and the web plate. = 1069.41 kN
15. For a rectangular cross-section, when the 17. A rectangular 230 mm × 350 mm beam is
extreme fibre strain was y , the yield moment (effective depth). The factored shear force
capacity is My. What would be the value of acting at a section is 80 kN. If the permissible
the resisting moment when the extreme fibre shear stress in concrete is 0·25 MPa, the
R
strain is 2y ? design shear force is nearly
(a) 100 kN (b) 80 kN
(a) 1·000 My (b) 1·250 My
(c) 60kN (d) 20 kN
(c) 1·375 My (d) 1.550 My
Ans. (c)
Sol.
M MP

My My

1
K 
2
TE Ans. (c)
Sol.
230 mm
AS
2 
 Ky  350 mm
K 2y
 2
Ky y
Shear force resisted by concrete section only
M 3 1 (Fc)
   M  1.375 My
My 2 8 = 230 × 350 × 0.25 × 10–3
M
16. A certain R.C. short column with 300 mm = 20.125 kN

square cross-section is made of M 20 grade Design shear force (that will be resisted by
concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter, shear stirrups)
longitudinal bars of Fe 415 grade steel. It is F d = factored shear force – F c
S
under the action of a concentric axial

F d = 80 – 20.125
compressive load. Ignoring the reduction in
the area of concrete due to the steel bars, the F d = 59.875 kN
IE
ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the

Fd  60 kN
column as by the relevant code is
(a) 1069 kN (b) 1198 kN 18. In a combined footing for two columns carrying
unequal loads, the maximum hogging moment
(c) 1548kN (d) 1659 kN
occurs at
Ans. (a)
(a) The inside face of the heavier column
Sol. Ultimate axial load carrying capacity for short
(b) A section equidistant from both the
column
columns
 0.4 f ck Ac + 0.67 f y Ast (c) A section subjected to maximum shear
= 0.4 f ck Ac + 0.67 f y Ast force
= 0.4 × 20 × 300 + 0.67 × 415 (d) A section subjected to zero shear force
, 8010009955
Ans. (d) (a) Through the geometrical centre of the
Sol. beam
P1 P2 (b) At the junction of the rib and the flange

(c) Below the slab
(d) Within the flange
R
Ans. (d)
Sol.
TE
bf 0.45 fck
For the above loading BM is maximum when
A
shear force = 0.
1. The minimum steel requirements of slabs
AS
are based on considerations of shrinkage
and temperature effects alone, and not on d
strength.
2. Providing excessive reinforcement in
beams can result in congestion, thereby xu < D f
adversely affecting the proper placement When xu > Df = Neutral axis lies in flage.
M
and compaction of concrete.

Thus portion below neutral axis is not effective
in tension.
hence analsysis and design will be as per a
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 rectangular beam of width ‘bf’ and depth ‘d’
S
Ans. (c) 21. Consider the following statements in the light

Sol. (i) Minimum steel requirements of slab for of IS : 456 - 2000 :
IE
transverse reinforcement are based on 1. There is an upper limit on the nominal

consideration of shrinkage and temperature shear stress in beams (even with shear
effects alone and not on strength. reinforcement) due to the possibility of
(ii) Providing excessive reinforcement in crushing of concrete in diagonal
beams result in congestion because of too compression.
much reinforcement because of which
2. A rectangular concrete slab whose length
aggretage in the mix get stuck in the
is equal to its width may not be a two-way
reinf orcement and mix do not get
slab f or certain def inable support
distributed uniformly and hence affect
conditions.
proper placement and compaction of
concrete. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
20. A T-beam becomes identical to a rectangular (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
beam with width equal to its flange width when (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the neutral axis is
, 8010009955
Ans. (c) 2. Adding masses at floor levels
Sol. (i) G eneral l y concret e i s st rong i n 3. Ensuring ductility at the locations of
compression but under shear there is a maximum moments
chance of crushing of concrete due to 4. Providing shear walls
diagonal compression hence an upper
limit c max is defined for nominal shear 5. Providing basement
stress in diagonal compression. Select the correct answer using the code given
R
below:
(ii) A rectangular concrete slab whose length
is equal to its width may not be a two way (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
slab when there is absence of supports in (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
TE
two paralle edges. In this case it would be
Ans. (c)
one way slabe.
Sol. (i) Minimizing gravity loads will decrease the
22. A simply supported prestressed concrete beam
earthquake forces as mass is directly
is of 25m span. The initial stress is 1000 MPA.
proportional to earthquake force.
The slip in the jack during tensioning has been
2mm. If ES = 200 GPa, the loss of prestress Hence option (1) is correct
AS
due to anchorage slip is (ii) Adding of mass at floor levels will increase
(a) 16% (b) 12% the earthquake force. Hence option (2) is
incorrect.
(c) 10% (d) 1.6%
(iii) Ensuring ductility at the locations of
Ans. (d)
maximum moments is considered in
M
Sol. 0 = 1000 N/mm 2 earthquake loading as this will increase

the yielding capacity of joint. Hence option
0 = 2 mm (3) is correct.
l = 25 m (iv) Providing shear walls will increase the
lateral resistance of building and increase
S
Loss of prestress due to

lateral stability. Hence option (4) is correct.
l
Anchorage slip =  s (v) Providing basement without infill walls will
l
IE
decrease the lateral resistance of the

2 basement and hence option (5) may be
= 3
 200  103 incorrect.
25  10
So answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.
= 16 N/mm 2
24. The figure shows the plan view of single-storey
16 masonry shear wall building with rigid roof
% loss =  100  1.6% diaphragm. The traces of locations of the
1000
centre of mass (CM) and the centre of stiffness
23. Which of the following measures are relevantly (CS) are as shown. Neglecting accidental
considered for earthquake loading and lateral eccentricity, the direction of the twisting
stability of tall buildings? moment on the diaphragm, for the lateral force
1. Minimizing gravity loads direction shown, is
, 8010009955
Ans. (b)
V CM
Sol. Non critical activities i.e., sub-critical activities
can be done with normal attention and allows
(Lateral forces)
CS
some amount of freedom to act.
R
(a) Clockwise tendering for a civil work:
(b) Anticlockwise 1. Earnest money deposit (EMD) is a
(c) Opposite to the direction of lateral force prerequisite to tender for a work.
TE
(d) None of the above 2. It is not essential to call for the contractor’s
Ans. (a) credentials when a tender is invited.
Sol. Centre of stiffness – centre through which the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
restoring force of a system acts. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
AS
So, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
V CM Sol. Earnest money deposit is the amount to be
deposited by all the tenders when they
CS Resisting forces submit their tender. The EMD amount varies
M
from 1% to 3% of tender value.

It is mandatory to call for the contractor’s
credentials when tender is invited.
V
S
quality control:
1. It ref ers to absolute conf ormity to
Resisting forces
specifications.
IE
So, clockwise twisting moment will be 2. It may not vouch against overspending.
generated in the diphragm.
3. It may unknowingly resort to overdesign in
25. Which of the following statements is/are
the hope of risk minimization.
correct for a non-critical activity?
4. It is intended to reduce maintenance costs.
1. It demands very special attention and
action. Which of the above statements are correct?
2. One can do with normal attention to this (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
activity with some leeway for action. (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the codes Ans. (d)
given below:
Sol. Quality control refers to absolute conformity
to specification and it is intended to reduce
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 maintainance costs.
, 8010009955
28. Which of the following statements are correct? 29. W hich of the following factors are non-
1. Depression of mercury in a capillary tube dimensional?
is dependent on density and surface 1. C is Chezy’s equation
tension. 2. 11.6 as a measure of sub-layer
2. Modelling of flow-induced drag on a ship H
is done invoking both of Froude number 3. employed in comparing performance
N2D2
30. and Reynolds number. of pumps.
R
3. Flow of a fluid in a narrow pipe is relatable Q2
to both Reynolds number and Cauchy 4. employed in computations in pipe
D5
number. networks
4. Formation and collapse of a soap bubble
is analyzed through employing surface
tension and external pressure.
5. Flow over the downstream slope of an
ogee spillway can be affected by surface
TE 5.
U
gL
used in estimating wave-making drag

given below:
AS
(a) 2 and 5 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
tension.
(c) 1 and 5 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
given below: Ans. (a)
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only 30. An ocean linear, 240 m long and 24 m wide,
displaces 654 MN of sea-water
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
M
(   1025 kgf/m3 ). The second moment of

Ans. (a)
inertia of the water plane about its fore-aft
Sol. (1) Depression of mercury in capillary tube
2
4 cos  axis is of that of the circumscribing
= 3
rmsd rectangle. The position. The position of the
S
(2) In ship model we froude number and centre of buoyancy is 2.30 m below the centre
Reynolds number both of gravity. How high is the metacentre above
the centre of buoyancy (to the nearest cm)
IE
VD V
C C
 gy (a) 49 cm (b) 53 cm
(3) Flow of a fluid in a narrow pipe is (c) 58 cm (d) 65 cm
relatable to both reynolds number and Ans. (b)
weber number.
Sol.
(4) In soap bubble
8 240 m
p =
d
(5) Flow over the downstream slope of an
ogee spillway can not be affected by 24
surface tension.
So option (a) 1, 2 and 4 only.
, 8010009955
GM  BM  BG If it is 50 g / m3 it is measured by using
improv ed west and gacke method of
I
GM   BG measurement.
v
Explantion for (3) acid rain rsults when
I
GM   2.3 gaseous emissions of SO 2 and NO x interact
R
v
with water vapour and sunlight and are
chemi call y conv erted t o strong acidic
I 2 (240  243 ) 1025  9.81
   = 2.833 m compounds H2SO 4 adn HNO 3.
TE
v 3 12 654  106
GM  2.833  2.3
1. IIlite is the mineral largely responsible for
= 533 m = 53.3 cm the swelling and shrinkage behaviour of
31. Consider the following statements regarding clayey soils.
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air pollution: 2. A differential free swell value of 55%
1. The pollutant caused by incomplete indicates a soil with low degree of
combustion of organic matter is carbon expansiveness.
monoxide.
3. Higher the plasticity index of a soil, greater
2. Depletion of ozone in outer atmosphere its swelling potential.
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may trigger skin .

4. A low shrinkage limit of a soil indicates
3. Acid rains are caused by SO2 and NOx. possibility of swelling at low water content.
4. The permissible standard for SO2 in air for
residential areas in India is 80g / m3 .
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
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(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (d)

Ans. (a) Sol. 1. Illite is the mineral which has plasticity
Sol. 1. The pollutant caused by incomplete index and activity of intermediate level
combination of organic matter is CO while montmorillonite is the mineral
2. Depletion of ozone is causing ultraviolet which is largly responsible for swelling
rays to come directly on earth which may and shrinkage behaviour because it is
cause skin cancer present in most of the clayey soil and
has maximum level of plasticity index
3. Acid rain is caused by SO 2 and NO x
and activity.
4. Permissible standard for SO 2 in air for
residential areas in India is 80 g / m
3 2. Differential free swell value of 55%
m easured by usi ng ul t rav i ol et indicates a soil with very high degree of
flourescence. expansiveness.
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Degree of Differential free emax  enat
3. Relative density =
expansiveness swell(%) emax  emin
Low Less than 20 for relative density to be 1; e nat = emin.
Moderate 20 to 35 and degree of complete saturation does
not signify minimum void ratio.
High 35 to 50
Very high Greater than 50 Explanation for 1 positive pore water pressure
gets generated when soil goes into denser
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3. Higher the plasticity index means more state with consolidation.
amount of water can be absorbed in the
soil structure which will increase it’s
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swelling potential 1. Secondary consolidation of soil follows
Terzaghi’s one-dimensional theory of
4. A low shrinkage limit signifies that soil consolidation.
will start swelling at low water content
2. Consolidation is a function of total stress.
because soil is at saturated state at
shri nkage l i m i t . Hence af t er t hi s 3. Even after complete dissipation of excess
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whaatever the amount of water is added pore pressure, the soil undergoes a little
will increase the swelling more consolidation.
33. Consider the following effects as indicative of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
complete saturation of a soil sample: (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Pore water pressure is positive. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
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2. Volume of water to volume of voids is equal Ans. (a)

to 1. Sol. 1. Terzaghi’s one dimensional theory of
3. Relative density is equal to 1. consol i dat i on a ssum es a uni que
relat i onshi p, i ndependent of t im e,
between void ratio and effective stress.
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(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (i . e. , se condary consol i d at i on i s

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 neglected).
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Ans. (a) 2. Consolidation is a function of effective

stress.
Sol. 1. When soil is in completely starurated
stat e t hen pore water pressure i s 3. Ev en after complete dissi pation of
positive. ex cess pore pre ssure, t he soi l
undergoes a l i t t l e m ore m ore
2. Voids in soil sample consists of air when
consolidation which is called secondary
there is no water. As water is filled it
consolidation.
goes into voids and complete saturation
occurs when water completely fills all 35. An undrained triaxial compression test is
the voids at this point carried out on a saturated clay sample under
a cell pressure of 50 kN/m2. The sample failed
Volume of water at a deviator stress of 100 kN/m 2. The
1
Volume of voids cohesion of this clay sample would be
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(a) 25 kN/m2 (b) 50 kN/m2 1
de 
(c) 75 kN/m2 (d) 100 kN/m2 Specific surface area
Ans. (b) 1
Hence, K 
Sol. 3 = 50 kN/m 2 (cell pressure) (Specific surface area)2
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d = 100 kN/m 2 (deviator stress) (ii) Two types of oedometer, floating ring type
and fixed ring type, arc commonly used.
1 = 3  d = 150 kN/m 2
However, it is only in the fixed ring test the
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Undrained triaxial test drainage from the bottom porous stone can
be measured or controlled. Hence,
C measurement of permeability of the soil
can be made only in the fixed ring test.
(iii) Permeability decreases with decrease in
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temperature of water moving through the
aquifier.
Cu
50 37. Which of the following statements are correct
 1. Stress Isobar can be prepared using
50 150
Boussinesq’s stress distribution theory.
150  50 2. Equivalent point load method yields
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Cu   50 kN / m2
2 accurate results.
36. Consider the following statement regarding 3. Newmarks’s method relates the vertical
permeability of soils: stress with the help of influence chart.
1. Permeability of coarse grained soil is 4. W estergaard’s method helps in

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inversely proportional to the specific determination of stress distribution for

surface at a given porosity. layered soils.
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2. Direct measurement of permeability of a

soil specimen at any stage of loading in given below:
oedometer test can be made only fixed- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
ring type oedometer. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the above statements are correct Ans. (b)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Sol. (i) An isobar is a stress contour – it is a
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 line joining all the points of equal vertical
Ans. (a) st ress b el ow t he ground surf ace
Boussinesq’s theory can be used to
2  w e3 prepare vertical stress isobar diagram.
Sol. (i) K = C de
 1 e (ii) Equiv alent point load method is an
de = representative grain size approximate method for determining
stress distribution for loaded areas.
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(iii) Newmark developed influence chart to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
compute the vertical stress due to a (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
loaded area of any shape, below any
point either inside or outside of the Ans. (b)
loaded area. Sol. (1) Immediate settlement takes place due
(iv) Westergaard assumed water deposited to expulsion of air from voids. So it
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sedimentary soils, whi ch are quite occurs as soon as load is placed.
common in occurance, are formed by (2) Secondary settlement is significant in the
deposition of alternate layers of silts and case of peat organic soil and highly plastic
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clap. soil.
38. Consider the following statements: (3) Secondary settlement
1. Functions of reinforcements in reinforced CH0 t
soil and in reinforced concrete are H = log 2
1 e t1
comparable.
So option (b) 1, 2 and 3
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2. The design of a geotextile reinforced wall
is similar in principle to that of a reinforced 40. In a plate load test on a soil, at a particular
earth wall. magnitude of the settlement, it was observed
that the bearing pressure beneath the footing
is 100 kN/m 2 and the perimeter shear is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 25 kN/m2. Correspondingly, the load capacity
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of a 2m square footing at the same settlement
Ans. (c) will be
Sol. The term ‘reinforced soil’ refers to a soil that (a) 200 kN (b) 300 kN
has been strengthened by placement of (c) 400 kN (d) 600 kN
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reinforcing material within the soil mass in

Ans. (d)
the form of strips, bais sheels or grids
(meshes). W hen load is applied to the soil Sol. Q = Ab  Ps
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mass, these materials resist tensile stresses

which develop within the soil mass in a b = Bearing pressure
manner similar to that of the reinforcement.
s = Perimeter shear
1. Immediate settlement takes place as soon A = Plate base area
as the load is placed. P = Perimeter
2. Secondary settlement is significant in the Q = Load capacity
case of organic soil.
Q = 2 × 2 × 100 + 2 × 4 × 25
3. Secondary settlement is estimated based
on the ‘void’ ratio versus time curve’ for a Q  600 kN
particular load under consolidation test.
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41. Consider the following statements: 2. Cofferdams, braced or un-braced, are
1. According to Terzaghi, a foundation is temporary structures either on land or in
shallow if its depth is equal to or less than water bodies.
its width. 3. When sheet piling is used for retaining soil,
2. Spread footing, strap footing and raft or soil and water, without any bracing, it is
called a bulkhead.
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footing are types of shallow foundations.
3. Combined footing may be trapezoidal if Which of the above statements are correct?
the two columns carry unequal loads; and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
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rectangular if both columns carry equal (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
loads.
Ans. (b)
4. For water tanks, providing raft foundations
Sol. When sheet piling is used for retaining soil,
will avoid unequal settlements.
or soil and water, without any bracing, it is
Which of the above statements are correct? called cantilever sheet pile.
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(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only 43. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only 1. The maximum shear stress is one half of
Ans. (a) the normal stress in the case of uniaxial
stress field.
Sol. (i) According to Terzaghi a foundation is
2. In a biaxial stress field, acted upon by
shallow if its depth is equal to or a less
normal stresses unaccompanied by shear
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than its width.

stresses, the maximum shear stress is
(ii) anyone of the normal stresses.
Shallow foundations 3. The Mohr’s stress circle will be tangential
to the vertical axis in the case of uniaxial
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stress field.
Combined Spread Strap Which of the above statements are correct?
Isolated footing footing footing Raft
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
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footing foundations
(iii) Combined footings may be trapezoidal (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
if two columns carry unequal loads in Ans. (d)
order to make uniform stress distribution Sol. (i)
and uniform settlement.
(iv) Water tanks foundation carry heavy
loads with low and high safety level is
0  1
required for its construction hence its
f oundat i on i s d esi gned as raf t
foundation.
1. A braced cofferdam is used in shallow 1
trench excavation as . well as in deep max 
2
excavation exceeding 6 m in depth.
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Hence, in uniaxial stress field maximum T.B = 57° + 2° = 59° (constant)
shear stress is one half of the normal Now,
stress in case of uniaxial stress field.
 = 4° W
(ii) For biaxial stress field T.N
  2 63°
max  1
2
 = 4° 59°
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max
2 1
(iii) Mohr’s stress circle comes out to be

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tangential to the vertical axis in the case
Now M.B = 59° + 4° = 63°
i.e., N 63° E
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of uniaxial stress field. 45. Consider the following characteristics of
44. A line PQ in an old map had magnetic bearing contours:
of N 57° E when the local magnetic declination 1. A uniform slope is indicated when contour
was 2° E. If the magnetic declination is now lines are uniformly spaced.
4° W, what will be the magnetic bearing of the 2. Contour lines cannot end anywhere but
line PQ now? can close on themselves.
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(a) N 52°W (b) N 63° E 3. A set of closed contours indicates a

(c) N 54°E (d) N 52° E depression or a summit, according to the
Ans. (b) lower or higher values being respectively
inward.
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Sol. If an old map   2E then M.B = N57°E =

57° (WCB)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
M.N
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T.N (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (b)
57°(MB) 100
 = 2° 100
90 110
T.B = 59° 80 120
Lake Hill
Sol. Contour lines form close loop that may be

inside on outside the map.
T.S
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46. The type of levelling operations carried out (a) 2.25 loge 19 (b) 2 loge 19
for laying a railway track are (c) 2.25 loge 39 (d) 2 loge 39
1. Longitudinal levelling (LO.S.) Ans. (d)
2. Fly levelling Sol. We will first determine the steady state velocity
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3. Barometric levelling ‘v 0’ by the application of Bernoulli’s equation,
4. Cross-sectioning at steady state, between a point at the inlet
end of the pipe and a point at its outlet end as
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given below : v 20
H= (1  k)
(a) 1, 2, 3 and only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 2g
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only kv 20

includes frictional head loss and the
Ans. (d) 2g 
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minor losses (entry loss, valve loss etc.)
Sol.  Longitudinal levelling is done to setup
gradient. v 02
11.25 =  (1  98.1)
 Cross section levelling is done f or 2  9.81
estimation of filling or excavation. v 0 = 1.49 m/sec
 Fly levelling is done for approximate
Time taken for attaining 95% of steady state
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determination of R.L during preliminary

velocity be ‘t’
route survey.
Barometric levelling is a type of indirect Lv 0  v 0  v 
levelling in which elevation are determined  t = 2gH ln  v  v  (where v = 0.95v 0)
 0 
indirect ly f rom change in atm ospheric
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pressure. 294.3  1.49  1.95  v 0 

t = 2  9.81 11.25  ln  0.05v 
For railway track longitudinal, fly and cross  0 
sectional levelling are usually done. t = 1.99 × ln(39)

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47. Two reservoirs maintain a constant difference

t = 2  loge 39
of water levels of 11.25 m and are connected
by a 10 cm diameter pipeline of 294.3 m 48. Cleavage is a mode of folding :
length. The total of all head losses, by friction, 1. It is a process wherein all internal
valve losses, bend losses, inlet and exit losses, movements are along shear planes which
and velocity head can be taken as 98.1 v 2/2g do not change their position during the
(in m) where v is the flow velocity through the entire process.
pipe (in m/sec). Assuming that the valve at
2. it is a process wherein all internal
the downstream end is suddenly opened so
movements are along shear planes which
that there is no pressure wave, what will be
change their position during the process.
the time taken for the velocity of flow in the
pipe to attain 95% of the steady terminal 3. The process involves dilation in the vertical
1 direction.
velocity? Take  0.102.
9.81
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4. The process involves compression in a (ii) Transmissibility is the property of confined
lateral direction. aquifer.
Which of the above statements are correct? (iii) Volume of water lost = Specific yield ×
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Volume of soil
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only = 0.2 × 1 × 100 × 106
Ans. (d) = 20 × 106 m 3

= 20 million m 3
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49. Consider the following statements concerning
engineering geology : 51. The concentration of chloride ions in a water
1. Dams on sedimentary impervious strata sample is estimated by titration with
dipping upstream will be unsafe
2. In general, igneous rocks are hard and
are suitable for construction of large
hydraulic structures.
3. Construction of a major dam must be
TE (a) Sodium thiosulphate reagent using ferrion
as an indicator
(b) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reagent using
soluble starch as an indicator
(c) Silver nitrate reagent using potassium
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preceded by thorough geotechnical chromate as an indicator
investigations. (d) Silver nitrate reagent using potassium
4. Construction of dams is never indicated in dichromate as an indicator
any active zone of seismicity.
Ans. (c)
Sol. The concentration of chloride ion in a water
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(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only sample is estimated by titration with standard
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only silver nitrate solution using pottasium chromate
Ans. (c) as an indicator (Mohr’s method)
50. For an unconfined aquifer, the specific yield is 52. In revised CBR design method recommended
20%, specif ic retention is 15%, and by the IRC for the design of flexible pavement,
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permeability is 35 m 2/day. Consider the the total thickness depends upon

following statements : (a) Only the CBR value of the soil
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1. The porosity of the aquifer is 35%. (b) The CBR value of the soil and the
2. The transmissibility is 35 m2 /day. magnitude of wheel load
3. The volume of water lost from storage per (c) The CBR value of the soil cumulative
metre drop in the water table per 100 km2 standard axle loads
area of the aquifer is 20 million m3.
(d) The CBR value of the soil and number of
Which of the above statements are correct ? commercial vehicles passing per day
Ans. (c)
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sol. In revised CBR design method recommended
Ans. (a) by the IRC. For the design of f lexible
Sol. (i) Porosity () = Specific yield + Specific pavement IRC has provided charts f or
different CBR in which relation between
retention = 20% + 15% = 35%
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pavement thickness and cumulative traffic the length of cycle, cycle dimesion and the
axle is given. time schedule at each signalized intersection
with the help of a computer. This is the most
53. The following purposes served by a transition efficient system.
curve in a highway alignment include :
1. Gradual introduction of the centrifugal force pavements :
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on moving vehicles from zero on the
straight alignment to a constant final value 1. Rigid pavements are more suitable than
on the circular curve. flexible pavements for stage construction.
2. Rigid pavements are more affected by
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2. Enabling the gradual introduction of
superelevation on the roadway. temperature variations than flexible
pavements.
given below : 3. In a flexible pavement, any deformation in
the top layers is transferred to underlaid
layers; but, in rigid pavements, there is
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 slab or beam action due to which any
Ans. (c) deformation is only in the top layer of the
Sol. Transition curve in a highway alignment is concrete slab.
provided to include : Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Gradual introduction of centrifugal force (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
between the tangent point on straight curve
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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zero to max on circular curve.

Ans. (d)
2. To enable the driver turn the steering
gradually for has own comfort and security. Sol. 1. Rigid pavements are more suitable than
3. To provide gradual introduction of super flexible pavements for stage construction.
elevation.
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2. Rigid pavements have more temperature

4. To prov ide gradual introduction of venations.
extrawidening.
3. Flexible pavements transfer the load by
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5. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of

grain to grain contact which rigid
the road.
pavements resist the deflection through
54. The type of signalling system in which it is flexural action.
possible to vary the length of cycle, cycle
division and the time schedule at each signal 56. Consider the following statements concerning
point is called railways ;
(a) Simultaneous system 1. A level stretch equal to the maximum train
(b) Alternate system length is to be provided between the
(c) Simple progressive system gradient reaches where a rising gradient
is followed by a falling gradient.
(d) Flexible progressive system
2. Vertical curves in railway tracks are not
Ans. (d)
set out as parabolas.
Sol. Flexible progressive system : It is a type of
co-ordination of signals for road network. In 3. Diamond crossings can be laid on curves
this system it is possible to automatically vary also.
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4. Curves should be avoided at the top level 2. Water is in tension in capillary zone.
segment of bridges. 3. Capillary pressure is more in coarse
Which of the above statements are correct? grained soils.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Sol. Vertical curves in railway tracks are set out Ans. (a)
as parabola.
C
Diamond crossing can be laid on straight Sol. Capillary pressure head hc =
eD10
57.
line as well as curves.
A level stretch equal to the maximum train
length is to be provided in order to avoid
jerks at peak.
Which of the following options increase the
TE since D10 of coarse grain soil is more than
fine grain soil so hc is less for coarse grain
soil. Hence, capillary pressure is less in coarse
grained soil.
Due to capillary action (surface tension)
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sensitivity of a bubble tube? water get sucked into the voids and comes
1. Using a liquid of greater surface tension under the tension which makes pore water
pressure negative.
2. Increasing the diameter of the tube
3. Increasing the length of the tube
For a rigid footing placed at the ground surface
4. Decreasing the diameter of the tube
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on sand, the contact pressure

1. is maximum at the edges.
given below :
2. is zero at the edges
3. distribution is parabolic
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4. is uniform throughout the base of the

Ans. (b)
footing.
Sol. Sensitivity of level tube can be increased by
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changing the following parameter.
(i) By increasing the length of tube.
(ii) By increasing the diameter of tube.
Ans. (c)
(iii) By decreasing the viscosity of liquid.
(iv) By decreasing the roughness of inner Sol.
wall of tube.
58. Consider the following statements in the
context of capillary pressure in soils :
1. Pore water pressure is negative in capillary
zone. In case of rigid footing on sand no resistance
to deformation is offered at the outer edges
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of the footing, making the contact pressure Statement (II) : Impregnation of resins and
zero there. The pressure distribution is special curing methods are adopted to develop
parabolic with maximum value at the centre. ‘Compreg’ timbers.
60. Consider the f ollowing statements as Ans. (a)
suggestive of the bearing capacity of soil :
Sol. Processe d t i m ber whose c el l s are
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1. The maximum net loading intensity at impregnated with a resin and compressed
which neither the soil fails in shear nor is to reduce shrinkage and swelling and to
there excessive settlement detrimental to increase density and strength. The curing
the structure.
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of resin impregnated timbers (compreg
2. The maximum net pressure which the soil timber) is carried out under high temperature
can carry without shear failure. and high pressure. The specific gravity of
3. The net ultimate bearing capacity of the compreg timber is about 1.30 to 1.35. The
soil divided by a factor of safety. strength and durability of compreg timber
are more than normal timber.
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62. Statement (I) : Deccan trap (basalt) is used in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 13 only
the foundations of blast furnaces.
Statement (II) : Deccan trap has high
Ans. (c) compressive strength more than 150 N/mm2.
Sol. Bearing capacity is defined with respect to Ans. (a)
shear failure while safe bearing pressure is
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defined with respect to settlement. 63. Statement (I) : Contemporarily, even in high-
rise buildings, ordinary brick is being replaced
Directions: Each of the next Thirty (30) items consists by glass blocks for load-bearing walls.
of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’
Statement (II) : Bricks have high thermal
and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two
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conductivity and area not heat insulators.

statements carefully and select the answers to these
items using the codes given below: Ans. (d)
Codes: Sol. Statement (I) : In high rise buildings non
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(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are load bearing walls are used.
individually true and Statement (II) is the Statement (II) : True.
correct explanation of Statement (I) 64. Statement (I) : In recent practice, sponge iron
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are replaces pig iron in large foundries.
individually true but Statement (II) is not
Statement (II) : Sponge iron can be produced
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
in small plants using non-coking coal.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
Ans. (b)
false
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is Sol. Statement (I) : True.
true Statement (II) : True but not the correct
61. Statement (I) : ‘Compreg’ timbers have higher explanation.
specific gravity of up to 1.30 and are stronger Sponge iron is superior to pig iron as it is
than other timbers. richer in iron content.
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65. Statement (I) : The fundamental storage carbon and then melting in a furnace. The
equation through a river reach considers that mixture expands at the time of melting and
the total inflow in balanced by total outflow assume a form of black foam.
plus the change in storage in the reach over
Such a glass is fire proof (non-combustible)
the routing period as has been considered.
rigid and excellent heat insulator. It is
Statement (II) : To be adaptable for actual wi del y used i n ref ri gerat i on and ai r-
computations, the storage equation is recast
conditioning industry as a substitute for cork.
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in the form
68. Statement (I) : Slope-deflection method is a
1  1   1 
(I1  I2 )t   S1  D1t    S2  D 2 t  , displacement method of analysis.
2  2   2 
TE
where suffixes 1 and 2 denote values at start Statement (II) : Forces are the basic unknowns
and end respectively, of the routing interval t, in the slope-deflection method.
the I’s and D’s denote, respectively, the inflow Ans. (c)
and outflow at the respective points of time
Sol. Slope-deflection method is a displacement
and the S’s denote the storage in the reach at
method of analysis and unknown in this
the respective point of time.
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method are displacement (, ) .
Ans. (a)
Displacement method is suitable when DK < DS.
66. Statement (I) : Hollow shafts are preferred in
propeller shafts of airplanes. 69. Statement (I) : Hiring and firing is a poor
substitute for proper selection and proper
Statement (II) : Use of hollow shafts affords
considerable reduction in the weight of the training of labourers.
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shaft for equal performance. Statement (II) : Bad training facilities for new
Ans. (a) employees cause them to be discharged
Sol. For same weight strength of hollow circular during or at the end of the probationary period.
shaft is greater than that of solid circular Ans. (b)
shaft the weight of hollow shaft will be less
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70. Statement (I) : When flow through a pipeline

in hollow shaft most part of the material is
away from the centre and shear stress is measured through fixing a venturimeter, the
increases as distance from centre increases. computed flow will not be sensitive to the
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Hence, material strength is properly utilised. alignment of the centre line of the set-up –
67. Statement (I) : Foam glass is extensively used horizontal or sloping, up or down, along the
in air-conditioning units. flow direction.
Statement (II) : Foam glass is termite proof Statement (II) : The difference in the readings
and non-combustible. not he manometer limbs is by itself always
Ans. (b) adjusted for the ratio of the densities of the
two liquids – the manometer liquid and the
Sol. Foam glass contains 350 million inert air
liquid whose flow rate is being measured – in
cells per m 3. Hence, it floats in water and it
the development of the formula for computing
can be cut easily like wood. It is prepared
the discharge.
by throughly mixing finely ground glass and
, 8010009955
Ans. (a) Statement (II) : Collin’s method is ab initio
premised on the Bernard method where a unit
Sol. graph is necessarily to be proportional to the
net rain.
G2
G1 Ans. (a)
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P2/y x
P1/y 72. Statement (I) : Tiny quantities of over 30 rare
22° 5°-6° gases would warm the atmosphere over the
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Earth more rapidly than CO2.
Z1
Z2 Throat Statement (II) : A single molecule of some
Datum
CFCs, methane and nitrous oxide absorbs as
much heat as 15,000 molecules, 25 molecules
a1a 2 and 230 molecules of CO2, respectively.
Q = Cd a2 a 2 2gh
AS
1 2 Ans. (a)
Sol. Global worming potential for some green
G 
Where h   2  1 x house gases relative to CO 2 global warming
G
 1 
potential.
Gas GWP  Global War min g Potential 

M
CO 2 1
CH4 25
CFC 225 to 300

SF6 2200 to 25000
S
73. Statement (I) : The invert of the lower

ZA
 x ZB (outgoing) larger size sewer is depressed
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suitably so as to match with the crowns of the

upper (incoming) and the smaller size sewers.
G1 liquid
G2 liquid Statement (II) : It ensures that the smaller
sewer runs full by backwater effect from the
larger sewer even if the larger sewer does
Cda1a2 G  not run full.
Q =  2g  2  1 x
a12  a22 G
 1  Ans. (c)
Sol.
71. Statement (I) : Collin’s method for the
determination of the unit hydrograph for a Crown Crown
multi-period storm considers residuals as HGL
attributable to the unit graph of the period of Incom in

g se w er HGL
the largest rain.
Outgoing sewer
, 8010009955
The outgoing sewer HGL level should be Ans. (a)
below or at the same level (almost) of HGL
76. Statement (I): At shrinkage limit, the soil is
level of incoming sewer to ensure such
fully saturated.
conf i gurat ion t he i nv ert of t he lower
(outgoing) larger size sewer is depressed Statement (II): Montmorillonite clay minerals
suitably so as to match with the crowns of are non-expansive.
the upper (incoming) and the smaller size
Ans. (c)
sewer if such configuration is not maintained
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backing of sewer will take place. Sol. The max water content at which further
reduction in water content does not cause
74. Statement (I) : The rate of biomass production
will be always lower than the rate of food any reduction in the v olume is called
utilization in a biological system having a
mixed culture of micro-organisms.
Statement (II) : Catabolism converts part of
the food into waste products.
Ans. (a)
TE shrinkage limit. It is the minimum water
content at which soil is saturated.
Montmorillonite has large amount of water
and other exchangable ions can easily enter
between the layer causing the layers to be
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separated. So, it expansive in nature.
dx
Sol. Rate of biomass growth = 77. Statement (I): Cohesion and angle of internal
dt
friction are shear strength parameters of soils.
ds
Rate of food consumption =  Statement (II): Cohesion is zero for pure sand
dt
and angle of internal friction is zero for pure
ds dx
M
  clay.
dt dt
Ans. (b)
dx ds
 y
dt dt Sol. Statement (I) : True
y is the fraction of food mass converted to Statement (II) : True but not the correct
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biomass. explanation.
Some of food will get converted to biomass 78. Statement (I): Fine-grained soils are difficult
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and some part of food converted in energy to drain.

in catabolic reaction.
Statement (II): Capillary forces act on pore
75. Statement (I): In the computations of velocity
water.
triangles, or the torque of well-encased roto-
dynamic flow machines, whether of outward, Ans. (a)
or inward, flow type, the tangential component Sol. Statement (I) : True
of velocity at the smaller radius flow section
can be almost neglected. Stat em ent (I I) : True and the correct
explanation smaller the size of particles,
Statement (II): This follows from the very
smaller will be the pore size, resulting in
concept of ‘outward’, or ‘inward’, flow — to a
greater suction or capillary force on pore
large extent — in visualizing the working
features of the machine. water.
, 8010009955
79. Statement (I): Saturated fine, as well as 82. Statement (I): All old systems of surveying
medium, sands of uniform particle size are can be completely replaced by remote sensing
most susceptible to liquefaction. system basing on INSAT data.
Statement (II): Fine particles reduce the Statement (II): Reference data in-situ is
permeability which is a prime factor for essential in interpreting satellite imageries.
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liquefaction.
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
83. Statement (I): Mud bricks can be completely
Sol. If rate of loading is larger and soil is replaced by Flyash lime-Gypsum (Fal-G) bricks
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saturated +v e pore water pressure will in building.
develop. This will reduce effective stress and
hence strength. If effective stress reduce to Statement (II): Useful fertile soil is used in
zero the soil will loose all its shear strength. manufacturing mud bricks, causing high CO2
This phenomenon is known as liquefaction. release in the atmosphere.
Presence of f ine part icle reduces the
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Ans. (a)
permeability. Thus, it will increase the
84. Statement (I): Softening of clear groundwater
chance of liquefaction as dissipation of
should be carried out immediately after
excess pore water pressure become more
collection by pumping out, or from springs.
difficult.
Statemen t (II ): Iron and manganese
80. Statement (I): Reciprocal levelling is adopted
precipitates can foul the exchange medium
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to decide the difference of level between two

surface if oxidation occurs in, or prior to, the
points, a considerable distance apart, with
ion-exchange phase.
great precision.
Ans. (d)
Statement (II): Reciprocal levelling eliminates
errors due to curvature, refraction and Sol. Most common problem associated with
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collimation. ground water may be hardness. Generally

associated with an abundance of calcium
Ans. (a) and/or magnesium dissolved in water. At the
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81. Statement (I): Curvature correction must be same time iron and manganese are naturally
applied when the sights are long. occuring and most ground water contains
iron and manganese.
Statement (II): Line of collimation is not a
level line but is tangential to the level line. Softening of clear groundwater should not
be carried out immediately after collection
Ans. (a) by pumping out or from springs because
Sol. Level line is a curv ed line and line of zeolite process results in zero hardness. The
collimation is a horizontal line which is process is costlier for water containing Fe 2+
tangential to the level line. Therefore in case and Mn2+ because Fe and Mn zeolites are
of long sights horizontal line is not a level formed which can not be regenerated into
line and hence levels obtained by means of sodium zeolite.
levelling instrument are have to be corrected 85. Statement (I): Consolidation is the process of
for the curvature of earth expulsion of pore water by applying steady
Cc = –0.0785 d2 load for a long time.
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Statement (II): Volume change occurs contributions from both inflow and outflow and
immediately after the action of the load in case also the algebraic difference between them.
of consolidation tests.
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
89. Statement (I): Incrustation of sand occurs in
Sol. In consolidation test volume changes very rapid sand filter when water softened by lime-
showly and this is the reason consolidation soda is fed in for filtration.
test is performed in days.
Statement (II): The sand gets coated with
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86. Statement (I): The stresses and strains in a precipi tates of Ca(O H) 2 and Mg(O H) 2
soil mass depend on the stress-deformation generated during softening of water by lime-
characteristi cs, anisot ropy and non- soda process which leads to incrustation of
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homogeneity of the soil and also on the
sand.
boundary conditions.
Ans. (c)
Statement (II): Boussinesq’s theory of stress
distribution in soils deals with layered soils Sol. Statement I : True
only. Statement II : False
Ans. (c)
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Sand incrustation may occur either due to
Sol. Westergaard assumes soil mass as an deposition of sticky gelations materials from
isotropic but Boussinesq assumed that soil t he inf l uent water or due to an af ter
mass is isotropic Westergaard’s theory of crystallization of calcium carbonate is case
stress distribution in soil deals with layered where heavy line treatment of water is
soil while Boussinesq equation can be practiced.
applied to actual field problems.
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90. Statement (I): Dilution of the wastewater

87. Statement (I): When a loop rating curve is sample with organic-free, oxygen-saturated
prepared at a gauging station when a flood water is necessary to measure 5-day 20°C
wave passes, the maximum discharge occurs BOD values greater than 7 mg/l.
earlier than the maximum stage.
Statement (II): Saturation concentration of
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Statement (II): When a flood wave passes oxygen in water at 20°C is approximately 9
through a reach, during rising stages, some mg/l.
water may get into depressions on the
Ans. (b)
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floodplains of the river and, may be, only part

of this spill returns to the channel runoff when 91. A fluid flow field is given by
flood levels recede.
 z2 
Ans. (b) U  2xyi  yzj   2yz   k.
 2
88. Statement (I): The Muskingum method of
routing a flood through a river reach is not a 1. The flow is viscous.
simple recast of the storage equation 2. The flow is steady.
d 3. The flow is incompressible.
 D (S) .
dt 4. The magnitude of the total velocity vector
Statement (II): The Muskingum method first at a point (1, 4, 3) is nearest to 27 units.
develops trial storage loops considering
, 8010009955
Which of the above statements are correct? Sol. (i) Flow net is graphical representation of path
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only taken by water particle and head variation
along the path which are used for seepage
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only calculation.
Ans. (c) (ii) I n hydrau l i c st ruct ures whi ch are
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u generally used for retaining or restricting
Sol. = 2y water, water seeps into the soil below
x
structure and creates upward pore water
u pressure which can be calculated using
TE
= z
y flow net because it also gives head
variation along the path and gives idea

= –2y – z about exit gradient.
z
(iii) Since equations of flow net are derived
u   from Laplace equation i.e.,
 x  y  z = 0
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 2h  2h
 0
 Flow is steady and incompressible x 2 y2
Also, at (1, 4, 3) and the flow which satisfies Laplace
u =2 × 1 × 4 = 8 equation is irrotational flow. Hence,
 = 4 × 3 = 12
seepage through flownet is irrotational
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flow.
 9 93. Hydrauli c jum p f orms in a horizontal
 = 2  4  3  
 2 rectangular channel carrying a unit discharge
= – 24 – 4.5 of 1.019 m3/sec/m at a depth of 101.9 mm.
This jump is classified as
S
= – 28.5
(a) Weak jump (b) Oscillating jump
V = u2   2  2  64  144   28.5 2
(c) Steady jump (d) Strong jump
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= 31.94 m/s
Ans. (d)
flow net: q2 1.0192
Sol. Fr2 = gy 3  9.81 0.10193
1. It helps determine the quantity of seepage.
F r = 10
2. It helps determine the upward lift below a
F r > 9.0  Strong jump.
hydraulic structure.
94. A man, 65 kg, descends to the ground with
3. It is applicable to rotational flow only.
the help of a parachute, 18 kg. The parachute
Which of the above statements are correct? is hemispherical in shape, 2m diameter.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Density of air can be taken as 0.00125 g/cm3
and its kinematic viscosity as 0.15 stoke. What
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
is the terminal velocity of the parachute?
Ans. (a)
(Take CD = 1.5 and g = 1000 cm/sec2)
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(a) 16.6 m/sec (b) 15.8 m/sec 96. At a sluice gate across a rectangular channel,
(c) 15.0 m/sec (d) 14.1 m/sec the upstream flow conditions are: depth of 2.0
m; velocity of flow of 1.25 m/sec. The flow
Ans. (a) conditions at the v ena contract j ust
Sol. For terminal velocity total weight of man and downstream of the gate can be taken as: depth
parachute will be balanced by drag force of 0.44 m; velocity of flow of 5.68 m/sec. What
is the total thrust on the gate on its upstream
1 face (to the nearest 10 units)?
Drag force =  c 0AV12
R
2
(a) 770 kgf (b) 800 kgf
Total weight = 65 + 18 = 83 Kg
(c) 825 kgf (d) 870 kgf
1
TE
2
83 × g = c 0 AVt Ans. (a)
2
1  2 2 Sol.
83 × 10 =  1.5  1.25   2  Vt
2 4
Vt2 = 16.787 m/s
AS
So, terminal velocity = 16.78 m/s. y1 v1
v2
95. In a wide rectangular channel, the normal
depth is increased by 20%. This would mean y2
an increase in the discharge of the channel y1 = 2 m y2 = 0.44 m
nearly by
v 1 = 1.25 m/s v 2 = 5.68 m/s
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(a) 20% (b) 26%

(c) 36% (d) 56% F
F
Ans. (c) P2
P1
Sol. For wide rectangular channel v1 v2
S
By Ff
A
R = = B >>> y
P B  2y
P1 – P2 – F – F f =  Q(v 2 – v 1)
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Ry
F = P1 – P2 –  Q(v 2 – v 1)
1 2/3
Q = AR 5 (Neglecting F f)
n
Q  y5/3 y1 y
=  By1  2  By 2  By1v1(v 2  v1 )
2 2
Q1  y15/3
 9810 
Q2  y5/3
2 = B (4  (0.44)2 ) 
 2 
Q2  Q1 (y2 )5/3  (y1 )5/3
  B 1000  2  1.25(5.68  1.25)
Q1 (y1 )5/3
= 7595.392B N/m
(1.2)5/3  15/3
= = 35.51% = 774.25 Kgf/m
15/3
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97. A centrifugal pump has a impeller of 30 cm 99. In a hydraulic machine, the moment of
diameter and runs at 1000 rpm giving best momentum of water is reduced by 15915 N.m,
efficiency. It delivered 1.2 m 3/minute against when the machine is rotating at 600 rpm. The
a head of 25m. What is the non-dimensional power developed is
specific speed (based on flow expressed in (a) 1000 kW (b) 1500 kW
l.p.s.)? Take 9.81 = 3.132; and 9.81 =
R
(c) 2000 kW (d) 2500 kW
1.77.
Ans. (a)
(a) 55 (b) 63
Sol. P  Tw
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(c) 72 (d) 80
= 15915 Nm × w
Ans. (c) 2  600
=
60
N Q 1000  1.2m3 / min
Sol. Ns =  = 15915  20 Nm = 999968.94 w
(gH)3/4 3/4
 9.81m/s2  25 m 
AS
P  999.968 kN
1.2  103 100. Consider the f ollowing statements in
1000 
60 connection with hydraulic turbines:
Ns =
(9.81 25)3/ 4
1. The Kaplan turbine is a radial flow turbine
Ns = 72 in which the guide vane angles as well as
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the runner vane angles are adjustable.

a turbine: 2. Francis and Kaplan turbines are provided
with draft tubes which carry water from
1. Specific speed plays an important role in exit of runner to tailwater to increase the
the selection of the type of turbine. gross-head across the turbine.
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2. An increase in specific speed of the turbine 3. The parts of turbines susceptible to

is accompanied by higher maximum cavitation are the guide vanes and runner
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efficiency. vanes — drastically reducing the turbine

efficiency.
3. The runner of too high specific speed with
4. The specific speed of a 4-jet Pelton turbine
high available head increases the cost of will be 28 if the specific speed of a single-
the turbine on account of the high jet Pelton turbine is 14.
mechanical strength required.
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) Sol. 1. Kaplan turbine is axial flow turbine which
operates under low head and high
Sol. An increase in specific speed of turbine is
discharge.
accompanied by lower maximum efficiency.
, 8010009955
3. Changes of cavitation occurs where
(P  0.25)
velocity is maximum and pressure Q = for P > 0.25 …(i)
P  0.85
falls below the vapour pressure of the
liquid. This condition is most likely to Q = Daily runoff (mm)
occur near or in draft tube. P = Daily rainfall (100 mm on given)
4. NS multiple = n NS sin gle jet
jet  100 
where S = 254   1
= 4  14  28  CN 
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101. Consider the following statements: for CN = 75
1. Surge tanks are not substitutes for  S = 84.66 mm
TE
forebays. Hence for P = 100 mm and S = 84.66 mm
2. Pumped storage power plants are a boon We have Q  41 mm
to power generation. 103. Consider the following statements concerning
3. Water hammer in penstocks is not precipitation:
dangerous. 1. The Isohyetal map method of determining
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4. Kaplan turbines are used in low head the average precipitation is considered to
power plants. be better than the Thiessen method.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. There is no possibility of damaging the
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only storms because of cloud seeding activity.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 3. Water that percolates through the soil
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emerges as the dry weather flow in

Ans. (a) streams.
Sol. (i) Surge tanks can be substitutes f or Which of the above statements are correct?
forebays.
(ii) Pumped storage power plants are helpful
S
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

to power generation.
Ans. (b)
(iii) Water hammer in penstock is dangerous.
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Sol. 1. Isohyetal map method as most accurate

(iv) Kaplan turbines are axial flow turbines
m et hod of det er m i ni ng av erage
that are used for high discharge and low
precipitation because in it topographic
head.
influences are taken into account and
102. In the standard SCS-CN method of modelling new isohyets have to be made for each
runoff due to daily rainfall, if CN = 75, the rainfall event.
runoff magnitude for a one-day rainfall of 100
2. Cloud seeding is dropping the crystals
mm is nearly
in clouds in order to cause rain. This
(a) 17 mm (b) 31 mm however may cause damage to storm.
(c) 41 mm (d) 57 mm 3. Water that percolates through the soil,
Ans. (c) flow as base flow and joins dry weather
flow in streams ultimately.
Sol. For standard SCS–CN method
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104. An 8-hour storm with incremental rainfall 6.5 – 0.5 × 6 = 3.5 cm
during each successive hour is tabulated Correction to be applied
herewith. What will be the correction to total = 3.5 – 2.9 = 0.6 cm
runoff when, whereas the actual  index was
105. The probability of a 10-year flood to occur at
0.5 cm/hour, a wrong magnitude of 0.6 cm/ least once in the next 4 years is
hour was adopted in computing the total
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(a) 45% (b) 35%
runoff?
(c) 30% (d) 20%
Time from Incremental rainf all in Ans. (b)
TE
start (hour) each hour (cm) Sol. The probability of 10-yhear flood to occur at
1 0.4 least once in next 4 years
2 0.8 1 
4

3 1.2 = 1  1  
 10 
4 0.9 = 1 – (0.9)4
AS
5 1.8 = 34.66% = 35%
6 1.0 106. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
7 0.3
(a) Meander length to width of the meander
8 0.8
(b) Meander length to width of the river
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(a) + 1.0 cm (b) + 0.9 cm (c) Curved length along the river to the direct
(c) + 0.8 cm (d) + 0.6 cm axial length of the river
Ans. (d) (d) Direct axial length of the river to the curved
length along the river
Sol.
S
Ans. (c)
1.8 Sol. Tortuosity of a meandring river is the ratio of
1.2
curved length along the river to the direct
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index= 0.6 cm/hr axial length of the river.

0.10
0.9 of ground water aquifers:
index= 0.5 cm/hr
1. Specific storage is specific capacity per
0.8
unit depth of the aquifer.
0.4 2. Specific capacity is storage coefficient per
0.3
unit aquifer depth.
3. Specific capacity is a constant for a given
d well.
Runoff when  index  0.6 cm/hr 4. For one-dimensional flow in a confined
Runoff = 6.5 – 3.6 = 2.9 cm aquifer between two water bodies, the
piezometric head line in the aquifer is a
Runoff when index  0.5 cm/hr is
straight line.
, 8010009955
Which of the above statements are correct? 4. With continuous increase in quantity of
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only water applied, the yield of most crops
increases up to a certain limit and then is
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only expected to be constant.
Ans. (b) Which of the above statements are correct?
Sol. For one dimensional flow in confined aquifer (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
x (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
h = h0  (h1  h0 )
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L
Ans. (a)
In case of confined flow between two reservoir
hydraulic grade line varies linearly from h0 to Sol. 1. The capillary water is held in the soil
TE
h1. against the force of gravity.
Storage coefficient per unit depth of confined The plant roots gradually absorb the
aquifer is called specific storage. capillary water which thus constitutes the
Specific capacity is the discharge from well principal source of water for plant growth.
per unit drawdown.
2. Consumptive irrigation requirement is
AS
108. An extended layer of soil with homogeneous defined as the amount of irrigation water
rounded grains has 10% of the material finer that is required to meet the
than 0.07 mm. The constant to be adopted to evapotranspiration needs of crop during
det ermine its perm eabi lity has been its full growth.
recommended as 750. W hat is its
permeability? 3. Below the permanent wilting point, the soil
M
contains only hygroscopic water.

(a) 2.583 m/day (b) 2.857 m/day
(c) 3.244 m/day (d) 3.675 m/day 4. The crop yield is expressed as quintal/ha
or tonnes/ha which increases with water,
Ans. (d)
reaches a certain maximum value and then
2
Sol. K = CD10 falls down.
S
= 750 × 0.07 × 0.07 110. Consider the following statements regarding

= 3.675 m/day design of channel by Lacey and Kennedy:
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109. Consider the f ollowing statements in 1. The theoretical concept of silt

connection with soil-water-crop relationship: transportation is the same in both the
theories.
1. Water utilization by plants is mainly from
capillary water. 2. Lacey improved upon Kennedy’s formula.
2. The amount of irrigation water required to 3. There are no defects in either the theories
of Lacey or of Kennedy.
meet the evapotranspiration needs of the
crop during its full growth duration is its Which of the above statements are correct?
consumptive irrigation requirement. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
3. The depth of water required to bring the (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
soil-moisture level of a given soil up to its
Ans. (a)
field capacity is called hygroscopic water.
, 8010009955
Sol. 1 Lacey and Keneddy both approved that, Ans. (a)
with the flowing streams silt also gets Sol. Tehri dam is a rock and earthfill embakment
transported from one place to other dam.
place.
I eff = (g   )   ve when acting upward
2. Lacey on extensive investigation on
  ve when acting downward
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stable channels in allumins came out
with the statement that even a channel Uplift pressure reduces below the water level.
showing no silting no scouring may 112. Objectives for river training are
actually may not be in regine.
TE
1. High flood discharge may pass safely
He differentiated between 3 regime through the reach.
conditions
2. Sediment load (including bed and
(i) True regime suspended load) may be transported
(ii) Initial regime efficiently.
AS
(iii) Final regime 3. By making the river course unstable
whereby to increase bank erosion.
While Keneddy had said that a channel
showing rather silting nor scouring will Select the correct answer using the codes
be in state of regime. given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Even after improvement of Lacey on
Kennedy t heory t here are v ari ous (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
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drawbacks of Lacey’s theory are present. Ans. (b)

e.g. Lacey did not precisely define the Sol. 1. High water training is done in order to
characteristic of regime channel. provide sufficient cross-section for safe
passage of high flood.
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of dams: 2. Mean water training is done for efficient

disposal of suspended load and bed
1. In a gravity dam, a grout curtain is provided
load.
near the toe to reduce the exit gradient.
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3. River training aims at protecting the

2. A drainage gallery with its drainage pipe banks f rom erosi on and i m prov e
system provided in a gravity dam reduces al i gnm ent by stabi l i zi ng t he ri v er
the uplift pressure at all levels below the channel.
upstream water level.
3. An earthquake acceleration of 0.1g acting coagulant aids:
vertically downward causes a decrease of 1. They are employed when temperature is
10% in the unit weight of concrete and of low as they then accelerate the process of
water in a gravity dam. coagulation.
4. The Tehri dam is a gravity dam.
2. They are employed when flocs are small
Which of the above statements are correct? and water is coloured.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only 3. With their use, water purification capacity
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only of the plant is increased.
, 8010009955
4. Most widely used materials are oxidants, 3. The beam carries a concentrated load of
absorbents, weighing agents, activated 10 kN at the end B.
carbon and polyelectrolytes.
4. The beam is an overhanging beam having
Which of the above statements are correct? supports at C and D only.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only 5. The beam carries a uniformly distributed
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only load of 70 kN over the left hand portion
AC only.
R
Ans. (a)
Sol. Coagulation by metallic salts is adversely Which of the above statements are correct?
affected by low temperature. The effect is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
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more pronounced in using Alum, hence the
recommendation is to switch to iron salts at (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 4 and 5 only
low temperature. Alternatively we can add Ans. (b)
coagulation aid like bentonite.
Sol.
The increase in the rate of coagulation at
higher temperature can be due to
AS
(i) Increase in the velocity of molecules and
hence in kinetic energy.
C
(ii) Increase in the rate of chemical reaction. A B
C D
(iii) Decrease in the time of floc formation.
M
(iv) Decrease in viscosity of water.

3.5 m 2.5 m 2m
(v) Alteration in the structure of the flocs
resulting in larger agglomeration. dV
w
114. Consider the following statements with regards dx
to the shear force diagram for the beam ABCD:
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At A: w  50 kN ( )
( 20)  (50)
B/W A and C; w
3.5
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50 kN = 20 kN/m
uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m
10 kN 20  20
A E C D B between C and D; w 0
20 kN 2.5
between D at D; w = – (–20) +(10) = +30 kN
3.5 m 2.5m 2m
1. The beam ABCD is an overhanging beam 10  10

between C and B; 0
having supports at A and D only. 2
2. The beam carries a point load of 20 kN at At B; w   10 kN
C.
, 8010009955
10 kN 116. How much bleaching powder (having 20%
20 kN/m available chlorine) is needed to disinfect
A D
B 10,000 litres of water whose chlorine demand
E C
is 1.0 mg/l? It should be ensured that, after
50 kN
about 1 hour contact time, 0.2 mg/l chlorine is
30 kN
available.
R
 MA  10  (2  3.5  2.5) (a) 30 g (b) 40 g
3.5 (c) 48 g (d) 68 g
 30  6  20  3.5 
2
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Ans. (d)
= 22.5  0 Sol. Chlorine demand = Applied chlorine – Chlorine
Hence there is a couple of 22.5 kN-m residue
somewhere in the beam. Applied Cl 2 = 1.2 mg/l
115. A good disinfectant for 10000 litre Cl 2 added = 12 g
AS
1. Should be persistent enough to prevent Let us assume amount of bleaching powder =
regrowth of organisms in the distribution x gm
system.
20
2. Must be toxic to micro-organisms at x  12
100
concentrations well above the toxic
M
thresholds of humans and higher animals. 1200

x =
3. Should have a fast rate of kill of micro- 20
organisms. x = 60 gm
Select the correct answer using the codes No option is matching.
given below:
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117. The approximate value of BHP of a pump to

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only supply 1 m3/s water to a town at RL 400 m
from a source, whose water level is at RL
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320 m, would be
Ans. (c)
(a) 940 (b) 1000
Sol. 1. A good disinfectant should be persistent
enough in distribution system in order (c) 1070 (d) 1120
to ensure prevention of regrowth of Ans. (c)
microorganisms.
Sol. P   w QH
2. A good disinfectant must be toxic at
concentrations well below the toxic = 9810 × 1 × (400 – 320)
t hreshol ds of hum ans an d hi gher
= 9810 × 80
animals so that users could be safe well
safe. = 784800 watt
3. A good disinfectant should have a fast 1 HP = 746 watt
rate of kill of micro-organisms so that
784800
water could be safety used as soon as 784800 watt =
746
possible.
, 8010009955
= 1052 BHP conventional — or tapered — aeration
= 1052 BHP plant.
4. Returned sludge is aerated for 30 min to
 1070 BHP 90 min in sludge aeration tank.
(Assuming 100%  ) Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
removal of impurities from water:
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Ans. (d)
1. Settleable solids are removed by filtration.
2. Volatile solids are removed through pyrolysis:
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sedimentation. 1. It is an irreversible chemical change
3. Dissolved solids are removed through brought about by the action of heat in
reverse osmosis. oxygen-free atmosphere.
2. Range of temperature is 500°C to 1000°C.
4. Colloidal solids are remov ed by
coagulation. 3. Internal heating causes organic matter to
decompose physically and chemically
AS
Which of the above statements are correct? rather than burn.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only 4. It is a highly exothermic process.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (b) (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Sol. 1. Settleable solids are generally removed (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
M
by sedimentation and grit chamber. Ans. (d)

2. The residues or waste obtained by
Sol. Pyrolysis is chemical change brought about
sedimentation are directly disposed off
by the action of heat i n oxygen f ree
which can not be done in case of volatile
atm osphere which i s irrev ersible and
solids because of volatile solids are
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endothermic occuring in the temperature range

di sposed of f openl y t he n i t m ay
of 500°C to 1000°C.
decompose and cause pollution.
3. Reverse osmosis removes many types Since it occurs in absence of oxygen, an
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of dissolved and suspended solids. internal heating makes organic matter to

decompose rather than get burnt.
4. Coagul ant ai ds are added whi ch
destabilize the colloidal solids and 121. Consider the following statements:
ultimately makes them settle. 1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
119. Consider the following statements regarding 2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
contact stabilization process:
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
1. Primary settling tank is not required in
some cases. 4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
2. BOD removal occurs in two stages. Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Aeration v olume requirements are (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
approximately 50% of those of a
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
, 8010009955
Ans. (a) 3. Water absorption of bricks should not
Sol. Burnt clay paving bricks — 153583 exceed 10%
Burnt clay soiling bricks — 155779 4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks.
Burnt clay hollow bricks — 153952
Burnt clay peforated bricks — 152222
R
122. Consider the following statements: Ans. (c)
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates Sol. 1. Fire clays are capable of resisting very
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strong aggregates. high temperature upto 1700°C without
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates limiting or softening and resist spelling.
high crushing strength of aggregates. 2. Silica content in slice bricks are upto 95%.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values 3. The water absorption of fireclay bricks
greater than 15% are generally considered varies from 4-10%.
AS
suitable for pavement construction. 4. Chroma bricks are known as neutral bricks.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not 124. Consider the following statements about lime:
be less than 25% f or use in road
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick
construction.
lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk
M
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only is hydraulic lime.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only 3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick
Ans. (a) lime with water.
Sol. 1. A high aggregate impact value indicates Which of the above statements are correct?
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weak aggregate. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
high crushing strength of aggregates.
Ans. (d)
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3. Elongation index value greater than 15%

are generally considered suitable for Sol. 1. Calcination of limestones
pavement construction. Elongation index heat
CaCO3   CaO  CO 2
should not be graded than 45%. quick lime
4. The flakiness index value of aggregate 2. Calcium react in the lime kiln with the clay
should be below 35% that recommended minerals to produce silicates that enables
for road construction. some of lime to set through hydration. Any
123. Consider the following statements regarding unreacted calcium is slaked to Ca(OH)2
refractory bricks in furnaces: which sets through carbonation.
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more
3. CaO  H2O  Ca  OH 2
than 1700°C. quick lime
2. Silica content in the soil should be less Slaked lime or hydrated lime
than 40%.
, 8010009955
125. Consider the following statements: 126. Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete
has the following advantages:
1. If more water is added to concrete for
increasing its workability, it results into 1. It improves workability with lesser amount
concrete of low strength. of water.
2. No slump is an indication of a good 2. It increases the heat of hydration and so
workable concrete. lets the concrete set quickly.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will 3. It increases the resistance of concrete to
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be its workability. attack by salts and sulphates.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water 4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
content as well as water-cement ratio.
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Which of the above statements are correct? given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
AS
Sol. (1) Fludity of concrete increases with water Sol. 1. Pozzolana due to its ball bearing action
content because addition of water enhance increases the workability without increasing
interparticle lubrication so it increases the the amount of water but the amount of
workability and lowers the strength of pozzolana should be in appropriate amount
concrete by increasing water content w/c otherwise it will make paste sticky.
ratio increases.
M
2. Pozzolana reacts slowly so initially heat of

hydration is low and concrete setting
28 day concrete strength
becomes slow.
0.9
3. Pozzolana + Ca(OH) 2  C-S-H (low
density) . On the later stage more C-S-H
S
0.8 gel and fill the void so make the concrete

durable and increases the resistance
0.7
against sulphate attack.
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0.6 4. Pozzolana reacts with excess Ca(OH)2. So

Ca(OH)2 amount reduces.
0.5
127. Consider the following particulars in respect
0.35 0.4 0.45 0.50 0.55 of a concrete mix design:
As w/c ratio increases strength decreases.
(2) Slump test is an indication of worability. Weight Specific Gravity
(3) Higher the slump of concrete higher will

Cement 400 kg / m3 3.2
be its workability Fine aggregates  2.5
(4) Workability of concrete is affected by water Coarse aggregates 1040 kg / m3 2.6
content as well as water cement ratio Water 200 kg / m3 1.0
Hence option (c) 1 and 4 only
, 8010009955
W hat shall be the weight of the Fine (a) 20 N/mm² (Tensile)
aggregates? (b) 30 N/mm² (Compressive)
(a) 520 kg/m³ (b) 570 kg/m³ (c) 80 N/mm² (Tensile)
(c) 690 kg/m³ (d) 1000 kg/m° (d) 50 N/mm² (Compressive)
Ans. (c)
R
Ans. (c)
Sol. Let us assume the weight of fine aggregate Sol.
by absolute volume principle A B x C D
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60 kN 20 kN 30 kN
Mc Mfa Mca 110 kN
   V  1
fc fa fca x
x C D
400 x 1040 200 60 kN 60 kN 80 kN 110 kN 110 kN 110 kN
   1 20 kN 30 kN
3200 2500 2000 1000 x
x
x 29
AS
 1 80 kN 80 kN
(Tensile force)
2500 40
x
x = 687.5 kg/m 3 P
 =
Weight of fine aggreate 690 kg/m 3 A
128. Consider the following statements regarding 80kN
Cyclopean Concrete: = (uniform cross section)
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1000mm2
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
80  103 N
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm. =
1000mm2
3. High slump.
= 80 N/mm 2(tensile)
4. High temperature rise due to heat of
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hydration. 130. The total elongation of the structural element

(fixed at one end, free at the other end, and
of varying cross-section) as shown in the
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(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only figure, when subjected to load 2P at the free
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only end is
l l l
Ans. (b)
Sol. In cyclopean concrete size of aggregate is
more than 14 cm and slump is very low A 3A A/2 2P
because cyclopean concrete is stiff in nature.
129. What is the stress at the section x – x for the
bar ABCD with uniform cross-section 1000 Pl Pl
mm2? (a) 6.66 (b) 5.55
AE AE
Pl Pl
60 kN 20 kN 30 kN 110 kN (c) 4.44 (d) 3.33
AE AE
, 8010009955
Ans. (a) (V = Volume of spring)
Sol. 2
max
l l l Since Vmax =  2E dV
1
Vmax = mV02
A 3A A/2 2P 2
R
mV02E
 max =
V
2P 2P 2P 2P 2P
3A
TE
A
2P
2
l
l l 10  103  40 m  9 N
Kg     200  10
1 2 3 9.81  60 s  m2
=
3 9 3
(625)  (10  10 )  10 m
Total  1  2  3
AS
2Pl 2Pl 2Pl = 120.4 N/mm 2
= AE  3AE  AE 132. A simply supported beam of span l and
2 flexural regidity EI carries a unit load at its
2Pl 2Pl 4Pl mid-span. The strain energy at this condtions
=  
AE 3AE AE in the beam due to bending is
M
6PL 2Pl
 l3 l3
= (a) (b)
AE 3 AE 48El 96El
Pl l3 l3
= 6.66 (c) (d)
AE 192El 16El
S
131. A chain, working a crane, has sectional area Ans. (b)

of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. 1 kN
When the load is being lowered at a uniform
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rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed

suddenly at which time the length of the chain Sol. I
unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the
stress induced in the chain due to this sudden l
jamming is 1
Strain energy = P 
(a) 100.6 N/mm2 (b) 120.4 N/mm2 2
(c) 140.2 N/mm2 (d) 160.0 N/mm2 1 1 l 3
=  1
Ans. (b) 2 48EI
2
l3
maxV =
Sol. Vmax = 96EI
2E
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133. In mild steel specimens subjected to tenile y = 40 MPa
test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised
and the elastic limit in compression is lowered,
This is called
x = 80 MPa x = 80 MPa
(a) Annealing effect
R
(b) Bauschinger effect
(c) Strain rate effect
y = 40 MPa
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(d) Fatigue effect
(a) 60 MPa (b) 40 MPa
Ans. (b) (c) 20 MPa (d) 10 MPa
Sol. Bauchinger effect : Ans. (a)
It refers to property of materials where the 2
y= 40 N/mm
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materials stress/strain characteristics change
as a result of t he mi croscopic stress
distribution of the material. 2 2
Sol. 80 N/mm x= 80 N/mm
Hence an increase in tensile yield strength
occurs at the expense of compressive yield
strength.
M
2
134. A solid uniform metal bar of diameter D mm 40 N/mm
and length l mm hangs vertically from itss Draw 1st coordinate = (80, 0)
upper end. The density of the material is 2nd coordinate = (–40, 0)
N / mm3 and its modulus of elasticity is E N/ (–) because force is compressive
S
mm2. The toal extension of the rod due to its 

own weight would be
l2
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l
(a) (b)
2E 2E 80 N/mm2
2
40 N/mm 
l l2
(c) (d)
4E 4E
Ans. (a)
wl  l  A  l l 2
Sol.    
2AE 2 AE 2E
80  40
135. The state of stress at a certain point in a Radius of Mohr circle = = 60MPa
2
stressed body is as shown in the figure.
Normal stress in x-direction is 80 MPa (Tensile) 136. For the state of stress shown in the figure,
and in y-direction is 40 MPa (compressive). the maximum and minimum principal stresses
The radius of the Mohr’s circle for this state of (taking tensile stress as +, and compressive
stress will be stress as –) will be
, 8010009955
30 MPa 25 MPa Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
90 MPa 90 MPa
25 MPa 30 MPa Ans. (c,d)

(a) 95 MPa and (–35) MPa
T  G
(b) 60 MPa and 30 MPa Sol.  
R
J r l
(c) 95 MPa and (–30) MPa
The shear stress distribution across the
(d) 60 MPa and 35 MPa section of a circular shaft subjected to
Ans. (a)
Sol.
30 MPa 25 MPa TE twisting varies lineary.
 max
AS
90 MPa 90 MPa
Shear stress at centre = 0

25 MPa 30 MPa
Shear stress at top fibre = max .
2
1  2    2  2
max/min =   1   138. A uniform T-shaped arm of weight W, pinned
2  2  about a horizontal point C, is support by a
M
vertical spring of stiffness K. The extension of

2 the spring is
90  30  90  30  2
=     25
2  2 
L
S
K
= 30  60  25
2 2 2
A B
C
= 95, –35 N/mm 2
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L L L
137. Consider the following statements : 2
1. The shear stress distribution across the
section of a circular shaft subjected to
3W 4W
twisting varies parabolically. (a) (b)
4K 3K
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular 4K
3K
shaft under twisting moment is zero (c) (d)
4W 3W
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of Ans. (b)
a circular shaft under twisting moment is
maximum.
, 8010009955
Sol. beam material is 100 N/mm 2. The safe
concentrated load at the free end would be
(a) 100 N (b) 200 N
1/2 (c) 300 N (d) 400 N
C
A B Ans. (d)
R
t
Sol.
L L
2/2 w2 P kN
TE
w1
100 mm
t
W1 + W2 = W ...(i) 2m
f safe = 100 N/mm 2
Weight is directly proportional to Area since
AS
I = 4 × 105 mm 4
material is same.
M at fixed end = P × 2 = 2P kNm
...(ii)
A1 = Lt A2 = 2Lt f M
Atotal = 3Lt 
y I
A total
A1 =
M
3 100 2P  106
 100 
2 4  105
A total
A2 = 2
3
Hence by (i) and (ii) .. 2  4  105
 P
2  106
S
w 2
w1 = w2  w
3 3  4 kN = P
Taking Moments about C i.e. hinge;
 400 N = P
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w 2
 2L  w  L = 4x × L 140. A stepped steel shaft is subjected to a
3 3
clockwise torque of 10 Nm at its free end.
4 Shear modulus of steel is 80 GPa. The strain
w = Kx
3 energy stored in the shaft is
4w A
x = 50 mm  B C
3K
T = 10 Nm
139. The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The

cross-section of the beam is a hollow squre 100 mm
100 mm
with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 ×
(a) 1.73 Nmm (b) 2.52 Nmm
105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the
(c) 3.46 Nmm (d) 4.12 Nmm
, 8010009955
Ans. (a) Sol.
A w
50 mm  B C l/2
T = 10 Nm A B
Sol. l C
100 mm
100 mm
G = 80 GPa = 80 × 103 N/mm 2  l/2
R

T2L
Strain energy stored =
2GIP
T 2L T 2L
= 2GI  2GI
P1
T 2L  1
P2
1
= 2G  I  I 
TE   due to   BC (Considering B fixed)
=
 wl 
2
  
l
  l w  
 2
3
AS
3EI 2 3EI
 P1 P2 
wl 3 w l3 w l3
=  =
12 EI 24 EI 8 EI
(10  103 )2  1000  32 32 
=   
2  80  10 3
   25 4
  50 4  142. The principal stresses at a point a stressed
material are
M
100  106  1000 1  200 N / mm2 , 2  150 N / mm2 , and

= [2.77  105 ]
2  80  103
3  200 N / mm2 . E = 210 kN/mm2 and
= 1.73 Nm
  3.0 . The volumetric strain will be
141. An overhanging beam of uniform EI is loaded
S
as shown below. The deflection at the free (a) 8.954 × 10–4 (b) 8.954 × 10–2
end is (c) 6.54 × 10–3 (d) 6.54 × 10–4
W
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A B C Ans. (No answer is matching)

l
l
2 Sol.
2 3
(a)
Wl
(b)
Wl   1  2  3  1  2 
=
81EI 8 EI V E
Wl 3
2W l 3  200  150  200   1  2  3 
(c) (d) =
27 EI 27 EI 210  10 3
Ans. (b) V
= 1.047  103
V
, 8010009955
143. A mild steel bar, circular in cross-section, Ans. (b)
tapers from 40 mm diameter to 20 mm Sol.
diameter over tis length of 800 mm. It is
subjected to an axial pull of 20 kN. E = 2 × 2
105 N/mm2. The increase in the length of the
rod will be
R
1.4 1.4
1 2
(a) mm (b) mm
10 5
4 1
TE
2
(c) mm (d) mm
5 5 According to maximum strain theory
Ans. (b)
1 (2  3 ) fy
Sol.  
  fos
800 mm (Considering tension)
AS
1.46  2   fy
  (fos  1)
 
40 mm 20 mm
1.4  2  3 200
 
 
2 200
M
E = 2 × 105 N/mm 2 

 
4PL
l 
D1D2 E    100 N / mm2
4  20  103  800 2 145. Consider the following statements in respect

mm
S
= 5 = 5 of arched construction made of voussoirs:

  20  40  2  10
144. The state of stress at a point in an elastic 1. The superimposed load is transferred to
material, with yield stress of 200 MPa in simple the sidewalls only by the strength of
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tension and Poisson’s ratio 0.3, is as shown cohesion of the mortar between the
in the figure voussoirs
2
2. The arch may fail under crushing when
the compressive stress or thrust in it
exceeds the safe crushing strength of the
1.4 1.4 voussoir material
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to
compression only
2
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of
The permissible value of  by maximum strain any voussoir past the adjacent one due to
theory is transverse shear can be avoided by
(a) 75 MPa (b) 100 MPa reducing the height of the voussoirs
(c) 150 MPa (d) 200 MPa
, 8010009955
s
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only 147. The ratio   of, (s) stuffiness of a beam (of
t
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only constant EI) at the near end when the far end
Ans. (d) in hinged, to (t) the stiffness of the same beam
at the near end when the far end is fixed, is
146. A homogenous prismatic simply supported
beam is subjected to a point load F. The load 1 3
(a) (b)
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can be placed anywhere along the span of 2 4
the beam. The very maximum flexural stress 1 4
developed in the beam is (c) (d)
1 3
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B
Ans. (b)
D M

Sol.
L
L
3FL 3FL
AS
ML
(a) 2 (b)  
2BD 4BD2 3EI
2FL 4FL M 3EI
(c) 2 (d) 2   S
3BD 3BD  L
Ans. (a)
M
M
Sol. 
B L
D
ML
 
S
L 4EI
Max. bending moment occurs at mid span of
beam. M 4EI
  t
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FL  L
Hence Mmax =
4
S 3
f Mmax  
 t 4
y I
f FL/4 148. W hich of the following are examples of
 
(D / 2) BD3 indeterminate structures?
12 1. Fixed beam
3FL 2. Continuous beam
 f =
2BD2 3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
, 8010009955
Select the correct answer using the codes Hinjed
given below: C
B
Ans. (a) Sol.
K11
R
Sol. (i)
(ii)
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A Fixed
4EI
(iii) KBA =
l
3EI
(iv) KBC =
AS
l
Except
K11 = KBA  KBC
(i) Ds = 3
4EI 3EI 7EI
(ii) Ds = 3 K11 =  =
L L L
(iii) Ds = 1 150. A single-bay portal frame of height h fixed at
M
(iv) Ds = 0 the base is subj ected to a horizontal

Hence ov erhanging beam would be displacement  at the top. With constant EI,
determinate structure. the base moment developed is proportional
to
149. The rotational stiffness coefficient indicate as
1 1
S
K11 for the frame with details as shown is

(a) (b)
h h2
A Hinged
1 1
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(c) 3 (d)
EI, L h h4
Ans. (b)
C K11
h, EI
EI, L
h, EI h, EI
Fixed Sol.
B
9EI 8EI
(a) (b) For horizontal member length is not given.
L L
Let us assume it to be h. Hence support
7EI 6EI
(c) (d) 2EI
L L moment will be
h2
Ans. (c)
1
 M
h2
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Explanation of Civil Engg. Prelims Paper-II (ESE - 2018)
SET - B
1. In a 90° triangular notch, the error in the Ans. (c)
estimated discharge for a given head due to Sol. Visual examination should establish the
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an error of 1% in cutting the vertex angle is colour, grain size, grain shapes of the coarse
(a) Zero (b) 1% grained part of soil.
Dilatancy test is one of the test used in field
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
(c) % (d) % to identify fine grained soil. In this test, a
2
wet pat of soi l is taken and shaken
vigorously in the palm. Silt exhibits quick
Ans. (c)
response and water appears on surface,
8  where as clay shows no or slow response.
Sol. Q = Cd 2g tan H5/2
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15 2
3. An open channel is of isosceles triangle shape,
8  d 5/2 with side slopes 1 vertical and n horizontal.
dQ = Cd 2g sec 2 H
15 2 2 The ratio of the critical depth to specific energy
at critical depth will be
dQ sec 2   2 d  
= . . 2 3
Q tan   2  2 (a) (b)
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3 4
dQ 2  1  4 5
= 1%     % (c) (d)
Q 1 2 2 2 5 6
2. Consider the following statements : Ans. (c)
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1. All soils can be identified in the field by

visual examination Sol.
2. Fine-grained soils can be identified in the

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field by visual examination and touch

3. Fine grained soils can be identified in the
field by dilatancy test
4. By visual examination, only coarse-grained
soils can be identified
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only A
EC = y C 
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only 2T
n
1 rQ rnQ
n–1
Area (A) =  2nyC  y C = ny2C 2 2

2 AB 4Q = 4×3 = 36 |4×2×Q| = 24
Top width (T) = 2nyC BC 3Q2 = –3×42 = –48 |3×2×Q| = 24
CD 2Q2 = 2×1 2 = 2 |2×2×Q| = 4
nyC2 DA
2 2
5Q = –5×7 = –245 |5×2×Q| = 70
 EC = yC  2  2ny
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C rQ2= –255 122
5
 EC = yC
4 –  rQn –  –255 
  2.09
TE
Q = n–1 122
yC 4  rnQ
 E 5
C Q AB = 3+2.09 = 5.09 = 5.1
4. Q CD = 1+2.09 = 3.09 = 3.1
A 3 B 5. A 2 m wide rectangular channel carries a
discharge of 10 m3/s. What would be the depth
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2
10 7 4Q 4 7
+ of fow if the Froude number of the flow is 2.0?
5Q2 3Q2
(a) 1.72 m (b) 1.36
2Q
2 (c) 0.86 m (d) 0.68 m
D C
8 Ans. (c)
1 5
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Sol. We know,
A pipe network is shown with all needful input
data to compute the first iteration improved
q2
magnitudes of the initially assumed flows in Fr2 =
the branches. What will be the such improved gy3
flow magnitudes in branches AB and CD?
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Q = 10 m 3/sec, B = 2 m
Consider to first decimal accuracy
(a) A to B : 5.1; C to D : 3.1 Q 10
 q =  = 5 m 2/s-m
B 2
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(b) A to B : 5.7; C to D : 2.8

F r = 2.0, g = 9.81 m/sec 2
(c) A to B : 4.9; C to D : 3.4
(d) A to B : 5.5; C to D : 3.8 52
 22 =
9.81 y3
Ans. (a)
3 1/3
A B  25 
Sol. y =   = 0.86 m
10 4Q
2
 4  9.81 
7 4
6. M 3 prof ile is indicated by which of the
5Q2 3Q 2
following conditions?
(a) y0 > yc > y (b) y > y0 > yc
D C
1 (c) yc > y0 > y (d) y > yc > y0
2
2Q 5
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
Sol. y2 1  1  8Fr12
Sol. y1
=
2
y1  depth of supercritical flow
NDL y2  depth of subcritical flow
y0 F r1  Froude’s no. for supercritical flow
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M3
CDL
yC 1  1  8Fr12
14 =
2
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F r1 = 10.25
 y < y C < yo
9. In a hydraulic jump, the depths on the two
7. Floating logs of wood tend to move to the
sides are 0.4 m and 1.4 m. The head loss in
mid-river reach on the water surface. This is
due to the jump is nearly
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(a) Least obstruction from the banks (a) 0.45 (b) 0.65 m
(b) 2-cell transverse circulation in the flow (c) 0.80 m (d) 0.90 m
(c) Faster velocity along the mid-river reach Ans. (a)
(d) Near-symmetry of the isovels across the (y 2  y1 )3 (1.4  0.4)3

section is conductive to principle of least Sol. hL = = = 0.45m
4y 2 y1 4  1.4  0.4
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work
10. A 20 cm centrifugal pump runs at 1400 rpm
Ans. (b) delivering 0.09 m3/sec against a head of 45 m
Sol. with an efficiency of 87%. What is its non-
dimensional specific speed using rps as the
relevant data component?
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Secondary
currents (a) 0.482 (b) 0.474
Isovels (c) 0.466 (d) 0.458
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Ans. (d)
Due to 2- cell transverse circulation in the
flow, the logs of wood tend to move to the Sol. N = 1400 rpm
mid-river reach on the water surface. This D = 20 m
is mainly due to effect of secondary currents. Q = 0.09 m 3/s
8. The sequent depth ratio in a rectangular H = 45 m
channel is 14. The froude number of the
supercritcal flow will be   0.87
(a) 6.62 (b) 7.55 N Q
(c) 8.45 (d) 10.25 For pump, Ns  3/4
(gH)
1400  2 30  h1
N in rps =  146.61 rps Q  2
60 80
146.61 0.09 (30  h1 )
Ns  3/4
 0.457 Q2  4 
(9.81 45) 80
h1 = 30 – 20Q2
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11. Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected
in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a 12. Consider the f ollowing data relating to
system. The discharge performance curve of performance of a centrifugal pump : speed =
each of the pumps is represented by H = 30
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1200 rpm, flow rate = 30 l/s, head = 20 m,
– 80Q2. The discharge-head equation of the and power = 5 kW. If the speed of the pump
parallel duplex pump set is is increased to 1500 rpm, assuming the
(a) H = 30 – 80Q2 (b) H = 15 – 20Q2 efficiency is unaltered, the new flow rate and
head, respectively, will be
(c) H = 30 – 20Q2 (d) H = 15 – 80Q2
(a) 46.9 l/s and 25.0 m
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Ans. (c) (b) 37.5 l/s and 25.0 m
Sol. (c) 46.9 l/s and 31.3
Delivery (d) 37.5 l/s and 31.3 m
pipe
Ans. (d)
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P P Sol. N = 1200 rpm

Q = 30 l/s
2
H = 20 m
H = 30 – 80Q
P = 5 kw
When two pumps are arranged in parallel, their
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resulting performance curve is obtained by If N 2 = 1500 rpm

adding the pump flow rates at the same head N1 N2
=
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(h1) H1 H2
2
So, h1  30  80Q1 (For pump 1) 1200 1500
 = H2
2
(For pump 2) 20
h1  30  80Q 2
2
For pump 1  1500 
 H2 =    20
 1200 
30  h1 = 31.25  31.3 m
Q1 
80
Q1 Q2
For pump 2 =
H1 H2
30  h1 30 Q2
Q2 
80 =
20 31.25
So, Q = Q 1 + Q 2 (at same head h1 for
Q2  37.5 l/sec
combined system)
13. The work done by a kN of water jet moving  V2 V 2  
with a velocity of 60 m/sec. when it impinges   2  3   hL 
 2g 2g  
on a series of vanes moving in the same %    2   100
direction with a velocity of 9 m/sec is  V2 
(a) 60.2 kN m (b) 55.6 kN m  2g 
(c) 46.8 kN m (d) 45.0 kN m 3.5  0.3  0.5
  100 = 77.14%
3.5
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Ans. (c)
15. Which of the following situations can be
1kN 1000 attributed to sustained excessive groundwater
Sol. Mass of water = 
g 9.81 pumping in a basin?
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1. Drying up of small lakes and streams over
Mass of water (m) = 101.94 kg
a period in spite of normal rainfall.
Velocity of jet (V) = 60 m/sec
2. Deterioration of groundwater quality in
Velocity of vane (u) = 9 m/sec certain aquifers
Work done by jet = mv r . u [Vr = V – u] 3. Land subsidence in the basin
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= m(V – u) u 4. Increase in seismic activity
5. Increased cost of groundwater extraction
= 101.94 × (60 – 9) × 9
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
= 46789 N
Work done by jet = 46.8 kN
Ans. (b)
14. The velocity heads of water at the inlet and
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Sol. Negative effects of groundwater depletion

outlet sections of a draft tube are 3.5 and 0.3
are:
m, respectively. The frictional and other losses
in the draft tube can be taken as 0.5 m. What 1. Dryingup of wells
is the efficiency of the draft tube? 2. Reduction of water in streams and lakes
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(a) 84.4% (b) 80.0% 3. Deterioration of water quality

(c) 77.1% (d) 74.4% 4. Increased pumping costs
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Ans. (c) 5. Land subsidence

Sol. 16. Horton’s infiltration equation was fitted to data
from an infiltration test. It was found that the
V22
 3.5m initial infiltration capacity was 20 mm/h, final
2g
infiltration capacity was 5 mm/h and the
hL = 0.5m exponential decay constant was 0.5 h–1. If the
infiltration was at capacity rates, the total depth
for a uniform storm of 10 h duration would be
V32
 0.3m (a) 80 mm (b) 50 mm
2g
(c) 30 mm (d) 20 mm
Ans. (a) reduced load needle in the nozzle start
Sol. f 0 = Initial infiltration capacity = 20 mm/h moving forwards along with reduction in the
area of openings and when loads increases,
f c = Final infiltration capacity = 5 mm/h needle in the nozzle is pulled back to cause
kh = Horton decay coefficient = 0.5h –1 increase in the area of opening.
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Horton equation In francis turbine, governing is done through
the regulation of guide vane by closing and
f = fc  (f0  fc ) ek ht opening the wicket gate, the area of flow is
decreased or increased correspondingly.
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 f = 5  15 e 0.5t In Kaplan turbine we have double control
Total infiltration depth guide vane which controls flow and inlet
angle and individual blades can also be
 e0.5t  rotated about their respective axis.
F =  fdt  5t  15  0.5 
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18. VW
10 h
=  5t  30e0.5t 0
d2
F = [5 × 10 – 30e–5 + 30] v1 d1 v2
F = 80 mm
17. Consider the following statements regarding Consider the occurance of a surge at the water
surface of a wide rectangular channel flow, as
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turbines :
in the figure, where th eone-dimensionally
1. The main function of a governor is to
considered velocities are v1 and v 2 and the
maintain a constant speed even as the
depths are d1 and d2, with the surge height h,
load on the turbine fluctuates
whereby d2 – d1 = h, moving at a speed of Vw
2. In the case of pelton turbines, the governor over depth d1. Joint application of continuity
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closes or oepns the wicket gates and momentum principles will indicate the
3. In the case of Francis turbines, the surge front speed Vw, to be
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governor opens or closes the needle valve 1

 3 h 2
4. In the case of a Kaplan turbine, the (a) Vw  gd1  1 
 2 d1 
gov ernor swings the runner blades
appropriately in a ddition to further closing 1
 2
or further opening of the wicket gates 3 h 1  h  2
(b) Vw  gd1 1     
Which of the above statements are correct?  2 d1 2  d1  
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only 1
 h 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only (c) Vw  gd1 1  
 2
Ans. (d) 1
Sol. In pelton turbine governing action is through   h 2  2

(d) Vw  gd1 1    
regulation of needle valve. In case of   d1  
Ans. (b) 1. Uniform areal distribution within a storm
Sol. As celerity is given by 2. Intensity does not vary within a storm
1 y2 3. Catchment does not have large storage

C = g (y1  y2 )
2 y1 4. In case of large storms when centre of
where y2 = d1 + h and y1 = d1 storm is varying we can not use unit
hydrograph theory
1  d1  h 
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g  (2d1  h)
20. Rainfall of magnitude 4.3 cm, followed by 3.7
 Celerity = 2  d1  cm, occurred on two consecutive 4 h durations
on a catchment area of 25 km 2, and there
1  h  h resulted a DRH (after isolation of base flow in
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= g  1   2   d1
2  d1  d1  the flood flow hydrograph) with the following
ordinates starting from the beginning of the
2
1  h 2h  h   rainfall. (Adopt trapezoidal formula)
C = g 2     d1
2  d1 d1  d1   Time
  0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
(hours)
AS
Assuming V w as celerity DRH
(ordinate 0 9 16 20 20 17.8 13.4 9.4 6.2 3.7 1.8 0
 2 
3  h  1 h  3
m / sec)
Vw = g 1        d1
 2  d1  2  d1  
  What is the  index value?
19. Which of the following will pose difficulties in
(a) 0.149 cm/h (b) 0.155 cm/h
adopting u.h.g. principles and processes in
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evaluating flood hydrographs of basins? (c) 0.161 cm/h (d) 0.167 cm/h
1. Non-uniform areal distribution within a Ans. (b)
storm
Sol. Runoff calculation:
2. Intensity variation within a storm.
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Total direct runoff = Area of DRH

3. The centre of the storm varying from storm
to storm in case of large catchments 1
= (0  9  9  16  16  20  20  17.8  17.8
2
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4. Dividing into a number of sub-basins and

 13.4  13.4  9.4  9.4  6.2  6.2  3.7
routing the individual DRHs through their
respectiv e channels to obtain the  3.7  1.8  1.8  0)  4  3600
composite DRH at the basin outlet. = 117.3 × 4 × 3600 = 1689120 m 3
5. Large storages within the catchment 1689120
Runoff depth = cm  6.76 cm
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 25  10 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 4.3  3.7  6.76
-index =  0.155 cm/h
8
Ans. (d)
21. Groundwater flows through an aquifer with a
Sol. For adoption of unit hydrograph principle: cross-sectional area of 1.0 × 104 m2 and a
length of 1500 m. Hydraulic heads are 300 m the  index is
and 250 m at the groundwater entry and exit
points in the aquifer, respectively. Groundwater (a) 1.5 cm/h (b) 1.8 cm/h
discharges into a stream at the rate of 750 (c) 2.1 cm/h (d) 2.4 cm/h
m3/day. Then the hydraulic conductivity of the
Ans. (b)
aquifer is
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(a) 1.50 m/day (b) 2.25 m/day Sol. Assume -index great er than 1 cm/ hr
(c) 3.50 m/day (d) 4.25 m/day because no option is less than 1 cm/hr.
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Iteration 1:
Ans. (b)
Sol. Aquifer cross-section = 10 4 m 2 1 1
Total precipitation =  (1.6)   3.6
2 2
Length of aquifer = 1500 m
Head drop between entry and exit points = 1 1 1
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50 m   5.0   2.8   2.2
2 2 2
Groundwater discharge = 750 m 3/day
= 7.6 cm
By Darcy law
[ 1cm/hr will not be considered as value is
Q = kiA less than -index assumed]
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50 Runoff = 3.2 cm
 750 = k   10 4
1500
7.6  3.2
-index =  1.76 cm/h  1.6 cm/h
750  1500 2.5
 k =  2.25 m/day
50  104 It implies 1.6 cm/h rainfall ineffective. So,
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22. A hydraulic turbine develops 5000 kW under exclude 1 cm/h and 1.6 cm/h both.
a head of 30 m when running at 100 rpm. Iteration 2:
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This turbine belongs to the category of Similarly, total precipitation = 1.8 + 2.5 +
(a) Pelton wheel (b) Francis Turbine 1.4 + 1.1 = 6.8 cm
(c) Kaplan Turbine (d) Propeller Turbine Runoff = 3.2 cm
Ans. (b) 6.8  3.2

-index =  1.8 cm/h
2
N P 100 5000
Sol. Ns  5/ 4
 5/ 4
 100.71 so, -index = 1.8 cm/h
H 30
For francis turbine, Ns = 60 to 300. 24. For stability analysis of slopes of purely
cohesive soils, the critical centre is taken to
23. The rate of rainfall for the successive 30 min lie at the intersection of
periods of a 3-hour storm are : 1.6, 3.6, 5.0,
2.8, 2.2 and 1.0 cm/hour. The corresponding (a) The perpendicular bisector of the slope
surface runoff is estimated to be 3.2 cm. Then, and the locus of the centre
(b) The perpendicular drawn at the one-third Sol.
slope from the toe and the locus of the Water logging can be controlled by provision
centre of efficient drainage to drain away the storm
(c) The perpendicular drawn at the two-third water and excess irrigation water. by use of
slope from the toe and the locus of the sub-surface drainage, water logging can be
centre controlled by checking and removing per-
(d) Directional angles colating water.
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26. Annual rainfall values at station A in mm for
Ans. (d) the years 2001 to 2010 are given in the table
Sol. Fellenius proposed on empirical procedure below. If simple central 3-year moving mean
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to find the centre of the most critical circle of this rainfall record is calculated, the
in a purely cohesive soil. The centre ‘O’ for maximum and minimum values in the moving
the toe failure case can be located at the mean list would be
intersection of the two lines drawn from the
ends A & B of the slope at angles '  ' and '  ' Year 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Annual
AS
(directional angles.) Rainfall
P at 586 621 618 639 689 610 591 604 621 650
O station
A (mm)
 B
(a) 689 mm and 602 mm


(b) 649 mm and 602 mm
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A (c) 689 mm and 586 mm

25. Consider the following statements regarding (d) 649 mm and 586 mm
water logging :
Ans. (b)
1. Water logging is the rise of groundwater
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table leading to possible increase in salinity

Sol. Annual rainfall 3-year moving
resulting in a reduction in the yield of crops Year
at A (mm) mean
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2. Water logging cannot be eliminated in 2001 586

certain areas but can be controlled only if 2002 621 608
the quantity of water percolating into that 2003 618 626
soil is checked and reduced. 2004 639 649
Which of the above statement is/are correct? 2005 689 646
2006 610 630
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2007 591 602
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neithr 1 nor 2 2008 604 605
2009 621 625
Ans. (c) 2010 650
Max. 3 year moving mean = 649 mm 29. Zero hardness of water is achieved by
Minimum 3 year moving mean = 602 mm (a) Lime-soda process
27. Khosla’s formulae for assessing pressure (b) Ion exchange treatment
distribution under weir floors are based on (c) Excess lime treatment
(a) Potential flow in permeable layers just
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(d) Excess alum dosage
beneath the floors
(b) Boundary layer flow with pressure drop Ans. (b)
longitudinally Sol.
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(c) Conformal transformation of potential flow  In ion exchange method we use zeolites
into the w plane which are hydrated silicates of sodium and
(d) Simplification of 3-D flow aluminium. Which reacts as following:
Ans. (a) HCO3 HCO3

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
Sol. Ca  2  2 Ca 
Naz   SO 4  Na  SO 4  Z
Mg     Mg
Khosla’s theory of independent variables is  Cl  Cl 
based an assumption that the potential flow
theory can be applied to sub-soil flow.  Ion exchange method produces water with
28. In a siphon aqueduct, the worst condition of zero hardness.
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uplift on the floor occurs when 30. Five-days BOD of a 10% diluted sample
(a) The canal is full and the drainage is empty, having DO = 6.7 mg/l, DS = 2 mg/l and
with water table at drainage bed level consumption of oxygen in blank = 0.5 mg/l,
(b) The canal is empty and the drainage is will be
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full, with water table at drainage bed level (a) 22 mg/l (b) 42 mg/l
(c) Both the canal and the drainage are full (c) 62 mg/l (d) 82 mg/l
(d) The canal is empty and the drainage is
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Ans. (b)
full, with water table below the floor.
Sol.
Ans. (a) D0 = Initial D.O. of mix = 6.7 mg/l
Sol. Ds = Final D.O of mix = 2 mg/L
In case of Siphon aqueduct drain flows Consumption of oxygen inblank sample
below the canal under syphonic action. = 0.5 mg/L
T he m ax i mum upl i f t under t he worst Dilution ratio (P) = 0.1
condition would occur when there is no water As the mixture uses seeded water
flowing in the drain and the water table has (D0  Ds )  (Dob  DSb )  (1  P)
risen upto drainage bed. The maximum net BOD5 =
P
uplift in such a case would be equal to the
(6.7  2)  0.5  0.9
difference in level between drainage bed and =
bottom of floor. 0.1
= 42.5 mg/l Ans. (a)
So, nearest option will be (b) Sol.
31. Which one of the following statements related  Capacity of a serv ice reserv oir in any
to testing of water for municipal use is correctly community should cater to sum total balancing
applicable? storage breakdown stroage and fire reserve.
(a) Pseudo-hardness is due to presence of  The storage capacity of balancing reservoirs is
fluoride in water worked out with the help of hydrograph of inflow
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(b) W hen alkalinity  total hardness, and outflow by mass curve method.
Carbonate hardness in mg/l = Total 33. Consider the following statements regarding
hardness in mg/l
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groundwater pollutants:
(c) Bicarbonate alkalinity = total alkalinity – 1. Most of the groundwaters are generally
(carbonate alkalinity – hydroxide alkalinity) non-alkaline
(d) Hydroxide alkalinity = Carbonate alkalinity 2. A moderate amount of fluoride, about 0.6
+ Bicarbonate alkalinity mg/l to 1.5 mg/l, in drinking water, would
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help in good development of teeth
Ans. (b)
3. Natural waters do not have dissolved
Sol.  If non-carbonate hardness is absent in
water mineral matter in them
 Total hardness = minimum
(carbonate hardness, alkalinity) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
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(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Thus, Alkanlinity > Total hardness
then total hardness = carbonate hardness. Ans. (b)
Sol.
 Pseduo hardness is due to pressure of
1. Most of the ground waters are alkaline in
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Na+ (sodium) ion in water.

nature.
 Bicarbonate alkalinity = Total alikalnity –
[carbond alkalnity + hydroxide alkalnity] 2. natural waters contain dissolved minor
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matter in them.
32. The capacity of a service reservoir in a campus
should cater to 3. A moderate amount of fluoride helps in
good development of teeth.
(a) Sum total of balancing storage, breakdown
storage and fire reserve Thus, only statement (2) is correct.
(b) Sum total of balancing storage and fire 34. Consider the following statements regarding
reserve anchorage of pipelines conveying water:
(c) Sum total of breakdown storage and fire 1. At bends, pipes tend to pull apart
reserve 2. At bends, forces exerted on the joints due
(d) Balancing storage only to longitudinal shearing stresses are
enormous and the joints may get loosened
3. To avoid problems by hydrodynamic 1. The pond has a symbiotic process of waste
effects, pipes are anchored using concrete stabilization through algae on one hand
blocks which absorb side thrusts at bends and bacteria on the other
4. Pipes are also anchored on steep slopes 2. The oxygen in the pond is provided by
Which of the above statements are correct? algae through photosynthesis
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The detention period is of the order of two
to three days
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. The bacteria which develop in the pond
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Ans. (d) are aerobic bacteria
Sol. Pipelines on pipe bend and those designed Which of the above statements are correct?
an steep slope (> 20%) require concrete
anchor blocks. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
35. Consider the following statements with (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
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reference to bioenergy as a renewable energy Ans. (a)
source:
Sol.
1. Plants ensure continuous supply of gas
due to their continuous growth  Stabilization pond has symboisis between
algae and bacteria.
2. Cost of obtaining energy from biogas is
less than that from fossil fuels In which algae produces oxgyen by
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3. Digestion of sludge may produce H2S and photosynthesis and aerobic bacteria
consumes that
NOX which are injurious to human health
4. ‘Floating dome’ installation is the preferred  Stabilization pond used for domestic
option as it supplies gas at constant sewage are mostly facultative in nature
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pressure irrespective of quantity of gas  Stabilization pond has detention period

produced around 15 –30 days
Which of the above statements are correct? 37. The purpose of re-carbonation after water
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only softening by the lime-soda process is the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Removal of excess soda from the water
(b) Removal of non-carbonate hardness in the
Ans. (d) water
Sol. (c) Recovery of lime from the water
Cost of obtaining energy from fossil fuel is (d) Conversion of precipitates to soluble forms
less as compared to that from biogas: in the water
Thus, statement (2) is incorrect.
Ans. (d)
waste stabilization ponds: Sol.  Complete removal of hardness cannot be
accomplished by chemical precipitation. These
remains will precipitate slowly and hence will Total weight = (10+ 35 + 20 + 35)
get accumulated inside the pipe and clog the = 100 units
pipe with time. Hence it is necessary to make
it soluble. Dry weight = (63 + 30 + 10 + 20)
= 63 units
And this is done by adding ‘CO2’ in water.
Thus, moisture = (100 – 63) = 37 units.
38. Environmental flow of a river refers to the
quantity, quality and timing of the flow 37
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% moisuture content =  100%
(a) Required in the river to sustain the river 100
ecosystem
= 37%
(b) Required to maintain healthy ecological
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conditions in the command area of a river
development project 1. When a soil sample is dried beyond its
shrinkage limt, the volume of the soil slowly
(c) Generated by the ecosystem of the
decreases.
catchment of the river
2. Plastic limit is always lower than the liquid
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(d) As the minimum requirement to support
limit for any type of soil
the cultural practices of the community
living on the banks of the river 3. At the liquid limit, the soil behaves like a
liquid and possesses no shear strength at
Ans. (a) all
Sol. 4. When subjected to drying, the volume of
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Environmental flows describe the quantity, the soil remains unchanged once the water
timing and quality of water flows required to content of the soil goes below its shrinkage
sustain freshwater and river ecosystem. limit.
39. The moisture content of a certain Municipal Which of the above statements are correct?
Solid Waste with the following composition will (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
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be
Wet, Dry,
Ans. (d)
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% weight % weight
Food waste 10 03 Sol. Shear strength of soils at liquid limit is
Paper 35 30 approximately 2.7 kN/m 2
Yard waste 20 10
The volume of soil do not change, when
Others 35 20
subjected to drying at water content below
(a) 100% (b) 63% shrinkage limit.
(c) 37% (d) 13% Plastic limit is always lower than the liquid
limits for any type of soil.
Ans. (c)
Sol.
of the troposphere:
1. The gaseous content constantly churns by 43. What will be the unit weight of a fully saturated
turbulence and mixing. soil sample having water content of 38% and
2. Its behaviour makes the weather grain specific gravity of 2.65?
3. The ultimate energy source for producing (a) 19.88 kN/m3 (b) 17.88 kN/m3
any weather change is the sun (c) 16.52 kN/m3 (d) 14.65 kN/m3
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4. The height of the troposhere is nearly 11 Ans. (b)
km at the equatorial belt and is 5 km at
the poles. Sol. w = 0.38
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Which of these are true of the troposphere? Gs = 2.65
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only S = 1
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only es = wG s

1.e = 0.38 × 2.65  e = 1.007
Ans. (a)
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Sol. (Gs  Se) w  (2.65  1 1.007 
 sat =    9.81
The height of troposphere ranges from 9 1 e  1  1.007 
km at the poles to 17 km at the equator. = 17.88 kN/m 3
Thus, statement (4) is incorrect. 44. How many cubic metres of soil having void
42. A sand sample has a porosity of 30% and ratio of 0.7 can be made from 30m 3 of soil
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specific gravity of solids as 2.6. What is its with void ratio of 1.2?
degree of saturation at moisture content of (a) 36.6m3 (b) 30.0m3
4.94%?
(c) 25.9m3 (d) 23.2m3
(a) 40% (b) 3.5%
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(c) 30% (d) 25% Ans. (d)

Sol.
Ans. (c)
V1 = (1 + e1) Vs
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Sol. n = 0.3
V2 = (1 + e2) Vs
G s = 2.6
V2 1  e 2
w = 4.94% 
V1 1  e1
n 0.3 3
e =   1.7
1  n 1  0.3 7 V2   30
2.2
So, es = wG s
3
V2  23.18  23.2 m
3 4.94
s =  2.6
7 100 45. A dry sand specimen is put through a tri-
 S = 0.299 axial test. The cell pressure is 50 kPa and
the deviator stress at failure is 100 kPa. The
S  30% angle of internal friction f or the sand
specimen is
(a) 15º (b) 30º Ans. (b)
(c) 45º (d) 55º Sol. Soil grains and water are incompressible and
soil is fully saturated are assumption which
Ans. (b) makes sure that initial compression is not
Sol. 3 = 50 kPa taken in account.
d = 1  3  100 kPa Time lag in consolidation is entirely due to

low permeability of soil which is reason that
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 1 = 100 + 50 = 150 kPa secondary consolidation can be neglected.
2  Compression in vertical direction only do not
3 = 1 tan  45   [C  0]
 2 have any relation with primary and seconary
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compression
2 
 50 = 150 tan  45   47. Consider the following statements:
 2
  1 1. Secondary consolidation results due to
 tan  45   = prolonged dissipation of excess hydrostatic
 2 3
pressure.
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
45  = 30° 2. Primary consolidation happens under
2
expulsion of both air and water from voids
 in early stages.
= 15°
2 3. Initial consolidation in the case of fully
  = 30° saturated soils is mainly due to
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46. T he t heor y of consol i dat i on predi cts compression of solid particlels

settlement due to primary consolidation; it 4. Primary consolidation happens more
cannot include settlement due to initial quickly in coarse-grained soils than in fine-
com pressi on nor due t o secondary grained soils
consolidation. This happens because of the Which of the above statements are correct?
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following assumptions made in developing

the theory: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Soil grains and water are incompressible. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
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2. Soil is fully saturated Ans. (c)

3. Compression takes place in the vertical Sol.  Initial consolidation for fully saturated soil
direction only is due to compression of soil solids.
4. Time lag in consolidation is entirely due to  Primary consolidation occurs due to
low permeability of soil expulsion of excess pore water. Since
Which of the above statements are correct? permeability of coarse grained is greater.
Hence it happens more quickly in coarse
grained.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Secondary consolidation occurs due to Ans. (b)
gradual, readjustment of clay particles
Sol.  d = 18 kN/m 3
into a more stable configuration.
48. Consider the following statements with regard w = 0.16
to Soil testing: G s = 2.65
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1. The origin and pole are at the same point
Gs  w
in a Mohr’s circle d =
1 e
2. The shear stress is maximum on the failure
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plane 2.65  9.81
3. Mohr’s circle drawn with data from an  18 =
1 e
unconfined compression test passes
through the origin  e = 0.444
4. Maximum shear stress occurs on a plane e × s = wG s

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inclined at 45º to the principal plane  0.444 × s = 0.16 × 2.65
Which of the abvoe statements are correct?  s = 0.9547
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only s = 95.5%
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only 50. Consider the following assumptions regarding
Coulomb’s Wedge Theory:
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Ans. (c)
Sol. 1. There is equilibrium of every element within
the soil mass of the material
1 2. There is equilibrium of the whole of the
Mohr circle for unconfined material
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Cu Compression test
(Passing through origin) 3. Backfill is wet, cohesive and ideally elastic
O 1 = qu. 4. The wall surface is rough
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Plane of failure Which of the above assumptions are correct?

f max > f (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

[Mohr circle for a Ans. (d)
typical soil at failure]
Sol.  Friction is assumed betwen soil and wall
49. A soil yielded a maximum dry unit weight of
18 kN/m3 at a moisture content of 16% during  Backfill is dry, cohesionless, isotropic
a Standard Proctor Test. What is the degree  Equilibrium of soil wedge is considered.
of saturation of the soil if its specific gravity is
51. In a clayey soil having 50 kN/m 2 as unit
2.65?
cohesion and 18 kN/m3 as unit weight, an
(a) 98.42% (b) 95.50% excavation is made with a vertical face. Taking
(c) 84.32% (d) 75.71% Taylor’s stability number as 0.261, what is the
maximum depth of excavation so that the couple, but it is the lever arm that changes
vertical face remains stable? with the loading conditions and the stress
(a) 5.30m (b) 7.06m in steel remains practically constant.
(c) 10.6m (d) 12.4m Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ans. (c)
Sol. Sn = Stability number
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H = Maximum depth of stable excavation Ans. (c)
Sol. A change in the external moments in the
C
Sn = F H elastic range of a pre-stressed concrete
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c beam results in a shift of the pressure line
50 rather than in an increase in the resultant
 0.261 = (Take F c = 1) force in the beam.
18  H
50 In R.C.C. design principle of lever arm
 H =  10.64 m practically remains constant.
18  0.261
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52. What is the Boussinesq’s vertical stress at a This is in contrast to a reinforced concrete
point 6m directly below a concentrated load beam section where an increase in the
of 2000 kN applied at the ground surface? external moment results in a corresponding
increase i n the t ensil e f orce and t he
(a) 53.1 kN/m2 (b) 26.5 kN/m2
compressive force but the lever arm of
(c) 11.8 kN/m2 (d) 8.8 kN/m2 internal couple remains constant.
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Ans. (b) C
5
3Q  1  2
(d – x/3)
2
 2 
Sol. z = 2z
1   r   T
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  z  
54. Consider the following statements with regard
5/2 to Global Positioning Systems (GPS):
3  2000  1 
=    26.53 kN / m2
2    62  1 
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1. The position of an object can be exactly

53. Consider the following statements: determined by a single satellite
1. In a reinforced concrete member subjected 2. The position of the observer (moving
to flexure, the externally applied moments person or vehicel) on ground is determined
is resisted by an internal couple formed by an oribiting satellite
by steel and concrete and their magnitudes 3. Atomic clocks are fixed in satellites to
vary with the applied moment, while the calculate the positioning of the satellite to
lever arm of the internal couple remains aid in determining travel times.
constant
4. Absolute positioning, where accuracy of 1
2. In a prestressed concrete member, the cm to 5cm is needed, depends upon the
external moment is resisted by an internal health of the satellite.
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (a)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Sol. Correct option is (a)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only here,
Ans. (d) Vmax = 4.35 R  67
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Sol. Mi ni m um 4 sat el l i t e are re qui red t o = (4.35 300  67) km/hr
determine exact position of an object.
= 66.39 km/hr
55. A temporary bench mark has been established
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Thus,
at the soffit of a chejja on a window opening,
and its known elevation is 102.405 m abvoe Length of transition curve
mean sea level. The backsight used to = 0.073 × e × Vmax
establish the height of the instrument is by an
= (0.073 × 15 × 66.39)m
inverted staff reading of 1.80m. A foresight
reading with the same staff, held normally, is = 72.6 m  72.3 m
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1.215m on a recently constructed plinth. The 57. Consider the following statements regarding
elevation of the plinth is remote sensing survey:
(a) 95.42 m O.D (b) 99.39 m O.D 1. Information transfer is accomplished by
(c) 102.42 m O.D (d) 105.99 m O.D use of electromagnetic radiation
2. Remote sensing from space is done by
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Ans. (b)
satellites
Sol. R.L. of T.B.M = 102.405 m (elevation of soffit
3. Remote sensing has no application in
of chejja).
earthquake prediction
B.S. = –1.8m (inverted) Which of the above statements are correct?
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F.S. = 1.215 m (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

H.I. = R.L. of T.B.M. + B.S. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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H.I. = 102.405 – 1.8 = 100.605 m Ans. (d)

R.L. of plinth = 100.605 – 1.215 = 99.39 m Sol. Remote sensing from space is done by
56. A transition curve is to be provided for a space shuttle i.e. space craft or satellites.
circular railway curve of 300m radius, the Remote sensing is detecting and measuring
gauge being 1.5m with the maxi mum elect rom agnet ic energy emanati ng or
superelevation restricted to 15 cm. What is reflected from distant objects made up of
the length of the transition curve for balancing various materials, so that we can identify
the centrifugal force? and categorize these objects.
(a) 72.3m (b) 78.1m Rem ot e se nsi ng i s used i n di sast er
(c) 84.2m (d) 88.3m management services such as flood and
drought warning and monitoring, damage
assesment in case of natural calamities like
volcanic erruptions, earthquake, tsunami etc. Ans. (c)
But it has no application in earthquake Sol.
prediction.
Does not depend on vertical subgrade strain
58. The rate of equilibrium superelevation on a
road is 60. Which one of the following types of steel is
used in the manufacturing of metro and mono
1. Directly proporitonal to the square of rails?
vehicel velocity
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(a) Mild steel (b) Cast steel
2. Inversely proportional to the radius of the
horizontal curve (c) Manganese steel (d) Bessemer steel
3. Directly proportional to the square of the Ans. (c)
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radius of the horizontal curve Sol. Correct option is (c)
Which of the above statements are correct? Maganese steel is used in the manufacturing
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of metro and mono rails.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 61. Consider the following statements for selecting
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Ans. (a) building stones:
Sol. 1. Seasoning of stones is essential and is

Correct option is (a) done by soaking in water
Rate of equilibrium superelevation. 2. Specific gravity of stone is to be more than

2.7
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v2 3. Porosity of stone affects its durability

e 
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4. Climatic conditions decide the type of stone
to be used in construction
Thus, statement (3) is incorrect.
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59. As per IRC 37: 2012, the fatigue life of a Which of the above statements are correct?
flexible pavement consisting of granular base (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
and sub-base depends upon
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
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1. Resilient Modulus of bituminous layers (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

2. Horizontal tensile strain at the the bottom (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
of bituminous layer
Ans. (d)
3. Mix design of birumen
Sol. For good building material specific gravity
4. Vertical subgrade strain of stone should be more than 2.7.
Which of the above statments are correct? Stones with high porosity are less durable.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Sui tabi l i t y of st ones depen ds on i ts
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only characteristics also on local environmental
and climatic conditions.
62. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Hydrophobic cement grains possesses low (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
wetting ability
Ans. (c)
2. Rapid-hardening cement is useful in Sol. Bleeding can be reduced by the use of
concreting under static, or running water
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uniformly graded aggregates, pozzolana-by
3. Quick-setting cement helps concrete to breaking the continuous water channel, or
attain high strength in the initial period by using-entraining agents, finer cement,
alkali cement and rich mix.
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4. White cement is just a variety of ordinary
64. The yield of concrete per bag of cement for a
cement free of colouring oxides.
concrete mix proportional of 1 : 1.5 : 3 (with
Which of the above statements are correct? adopting 2
as the coefficient) is
3
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 0.090 m3 (b) 0.128 m3
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(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) 0.135 m3 (d) 0.146 m3
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
Sol.  Hydrophobi c ce m ent contai ns
Sol. Volume of one bag of cement = 0.035m 3
admixtures which decreases the wetting
ability of cement grains. Cement: sand : Aggregate :: 1 : 1.5 : 3 (by
volume)
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 Rapid hardening cement is similar to

OPC, except it has more C3S (upto 50%)  Volume of dry mix = 0.035 + 1.5 × 0.035
and less C 2 S and it is ground more + 3 × 0.035 = 0.1925 m 3
finely. It helps in attainment of early  For wet mix yield of concrete
strength and used where early removal
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of formwork is required. 2
=  0.1925  0.128 m3
 Quick setting cement has low gypsum 3
content which gives the quick setting
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property but it doesnot affect the strength 65. Consider the following statements:
gain. 1. Workability of concrete increases with the
 White cement are free from iron oxides. increase in the proportion of water content
63. Consider the following statements: 2. Concrete having small-sized aggregates

is more workable than that containing
1, Rich mixes are less prone to bleeding than large-sized aggregate
lean ones
3. For the same quantity of water, rounded
2. Bleeding can be reduced by increasing the aggregates produce a more workable
fineness of cement concrete mix as compared to angular and
flaky aggregates
4. A concrete mix with no slump shown in  From bending formula
the slump cone test indicates its very poor
workability M f E
= 
I y R
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only f E E
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only =  f = y
y R R
R
Ans. (c)
2  106 20
Sol.  Workability of concrete is the ease with f =   103 kg / cm2
10 2
which a concrete can be transported,
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placed and 100% compacted without
excessive bleeding or segregation. f  2  10 3 kg/cm2
 Concrete having large sized aggregate 67. The stress-strain curve for an ideally plastic
has high workability due to less surface material is
area of large aggregates which requires
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less paste.
 Slump value of zero is an indication of (a) Stress
extremely low workability of mixture.
66. A steel wire of 20 mm diameter is bent into a Strain
circular shape of 10 m radius. If E, the modulus
of elasticity, is 2 × 10 6 kg/cm 2, then the
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(b) Stress
maximum tensile stress induced in the wire
is, nearly
Strain
(a) 2 × 103 kg/cm2 (b) 4 × 103 kg/cm2
(c) 2 × 104 kg/cm2 (d) 4 × 104 kg/cm2
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(c) Stress
Ans. (a)
Sol. Dia of steel wire = 20 mm
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Strain
Radius of circular shape = 10 m
Modulus of elasticity, E = 2 × 10 6 kg/cm 2
(d) Stress
y = 10mm
Strain
20 mm
R= Ans. (c)
10m
Sol. Stress-strain curve for perfectly plastic
material
Steel wire
 From property of circle
Stress l l
(2R – d) × d =     
 2 2
 for small '  ' arch length and chord length
Strain
are same
R
Curve will not have any elastic component.
So most appropriate answer is ‘c’. l2 l2
d or R 
Note : shear stress-strain rate curve for ideal 8R 8d
TE
Bingham Plastic. From bending formula
 E  E
Ideal Bingham plastic =  =
Shear y R t/2 l2
stress 8d
AS
 y 4dt
Shear strain rate   2
E R l
68. A long rod of uniform rectangular section
with thickness t, originally straight, is bent 69. If strains on a piece of metal are  x = –120
into t he f orm of a circular arch wit h µm/m,  y = – 30 µm/m, and  = 120 µm/m,
displacement d at the mid-point of span l. what is the maximum principal strain?
M
The displacement d may be regarded as (a) 0 (b) 50 µm/m

small as compared to the length l. The
longitudinal surface strain is (c) 75 µm/m (d) 150 µm/m
2td 4td Ans. (d)

(a) 2 (b) 2
S
l l Sol. Given :
8td 16td  x = –120 µm/m
(c) 2 (d) 2
l l  y = –30 µm/m
IE
Ans. (b)  = 120 µm/m

2 2
Sol.  x  y   x   y    xy 
l t  max =
2
±  2    2 
   
d
2 2
120  30  120  30   120 
= ±  2   2 
R R 2    

= 75  452  602
max  150 m/m or min  0
Max imum magni tude of strain will be

considered.
70. The state of stress at a point is given by : Ans. (d)
 x  80 MPa,  y  100 MPa and  xy = 60 Sol. 1 = 1.5 (T) , E = 210 MPa
MPa. If the yield strength for the material is 2 =  (T)
150 MPa, as determined in a uniaxial test,
then the maximum shear stress is, nearly 3 = 0.5 (c)
(a) 150.8 MPa (b) 127.4 MPa µ = 0.3
From maximum principal strain theory
R
(c) 119.3 MPa (d) 104.0 MPa
1 µ2 3 fy
Ans. (*)   
E E E E
Sol. Given,
TE
1.5 0.3    0.5  fy
 x = 80 MPa   0.3    
E E  E  E
 y = 100 NPa
 f y = 210 MPa
xy = 60 MPa   155.5 MPa
AS
f y = 150 MPa 72. 250 N
2 0.5 m
x  y  x   y  2
1/2 =      xy
2  2  A C B
2
80  100  80  100  2 1.2m 1.2m
1 =     60 = 150.83MPa
M
2  2 
A horizontal bar of 40 mm diameter solid
2 section is 2.40 m long and is rigidly held at
80  100  80  100  2
2 =     60 = 29.17MPa both ends so that no angular rotation occurs
2  2 
axially or circumferentially at the ends (as
 1  2 1 2  shown in figure). The maximum tensile stress
S
max = max  , , 
 2 2 2  in the bar is nearly
max = 75.41MPa (a) 12.2 N/mm2 (b) 13.7 N/mm2
IE
71. Principal stress at a point in an elastic material (c) 15.2 N/mm2 (d) 16.7 N/mm2
are 1.5  (tensile),  (tensile) and 0.5 
(compressive). The elastic limit in tension is Ans. (d)
210 MPa and µ = 0.3. The value of  at Sol.
failure when computed by maximum principal 250
strain theory is, nearly 125/4 125/4
125
(a) 140.5 MPa (b) 145.5 MPa 2.4m
250  2.4 250  2.4
(c) 150.5 MPa (d) 155.5 MPa 8 8
250 125 62.5 250 125 62.5 Length, l = L l = L
R1 =   R2 =  
2 2.4 2.4 2 2.4 2.4 Torque = T Torque = T
250
T  C
43.75 Nm   
106.25 Nm J r L
125
TL 1
R
R1 = 46.875N 137.5 Nm R2 = 203.125N  =  
CJ J
12.5Nm 4
d
 J =
TE
43.75 Nm 32
106.25 Nm
1 d24 A 1
  
2 d14 B 16
 Maximum bending stress occur at the point
of maximum bending moment B
 16
AS
A
32M
max (at mid span) =
d3 74. The required diameter for a solid shaft to
transmit 400 kW at 150 rpm, with the working
32  137.5  1000
= shear stress not to exceed 80 MN/m2, is nearly
  403
(a) 125 mm (b) 121 mm
= 21.88 MPa
M
(c) 117 mm (d) 113 mm

32M
max (at end B) =
d3 Ans. (c)
32  106.25  1000 Sol. Power = 400 kW
=  16.9 MPa
d2
S
N = 150 rpm
73. A slid shaft A of diameter D and length L is Shear stress = 80 MPa
subjected to a torque T; another shaft B of the
2NT
IE
same material and of the same length, but P=

half the diameter, is also subjected to the same 60
torque T. The ratio between the angles of twist 3
400  10  60
of shaft B to that of shaft A is T=
2  150
(a) 32 (b) 16
T = 25464.79 N.m
(c) 8 (d) 4
T 
Ans. (b) 
J r
Sol. Shaft A Shaft B
3
25464.79  10 80
D 
Diameter, d1 = D d =  4 d
2 d
32 2
 25464.79  16  103 
d3 =   76. 350 N 350 N
   80 
+ve 100 N 100 N
+ve
d  117.4 mm C
O A B –ve D E O
75. An RCC column of 4 m length is rigidly 50 N 50 N
connected to the slab and to the foundation.
R
Its cross-section is (400 × 400) mm 2. The 350 N 350 N
column will behave is a/an
(a) Long column The shear f orce diagram of a single
TE
(b) Short column overhanging beam is shown in figure. One
simple support is at end A. The ‘total’
(c) Intermediate column
downward load acting on the beam is
(d) Linkage
(a) 800 N (b) 600 N
Ans. (b) (c) 400 N (d) 200 N
AS
Sol. As the connection is rigid, both rotation and
Ans. (a)
translation is not allowed at both the ends
and have l eff = 0.65l. Sol.
Slenderness Ratio : 350 N
350
100 N 100 N
leff 0.65  4000
M
= = 6.5 C
b 400 A B D E
50 N
 leff 
 Short column  3  b  12 
  350 N 350 N
S
400 N 300 N
100 N
IE
350 N 450 N
l = 4m
Total downword SF. = 400 + 300 100
= 800 N
77. The deformation of a vertically held bar of
length L and cross-section A is due to its self-
Note : Slenderness Ratio < 3  Pedestal
weight only. If Young’s modulus is E and the
3  Slenderness Ratio  12  Short unit weight of the bar is , the elongation dL
column is
2 79. Two persons weighing W each are sitting on
L3 EL
(a) (b)
2E 2 L
a plank of length L floating on water, at
4
L2 L2
(c) (d) from either end. Neglecting the weight of the
2E 2AE
plank, the bending moment at the middle point
R
Ans. (c) of the plank is
Sol. WL WL
(a) (b)
16 64
TE
y
WL
Idy L (c) (d) Zero
(L-y) 8
Ans. (d)
A = cross – sectional area
AS
W W
s = unit wt of bar L/2
L/4 L/4
E = Young’s modulus of elasticity. Sol.
PL L
Total elongation, dL =
AE Reaction will be in the form of udl acting
upward.
M
L
A(L  y)dy
 dL =  AE i.e.,
0
Integrating we get, W W
L/2
L/4 L/4
L2
S
dL 
2E
78. For material, the modulus of rigidity is 100 2W/L
L
IE
GPa and the modulus of elasticity is 250 GPa.

The value of the Poisson’s ratio is WL/16 WL/16
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25  BMD

(c) 0.30 (d) 0.35
Mass, bending moment at middle point of
Ans. (b) plank = zero.
Sol. E = 2G(1  ) , E = 250 GPa, G = 100 GPa 80. In the case of a rectangular beam subjected
to a transverse shearing force, the ratio of
E 250 maximum shear stress to average shear stress
 1 1
2G 2  100 is
  0.25 (a) 0.75 (b) 1.00
(c) 1.25 (d) 1.50
Ans. (d)
 MB  0   R A  16  80  12  0
Sol. Average shear stress for a beam of cross
 RA = 12 × 5 = 60 kN; RB = 20 kN
V
section area (b × d) =
bd  Moment of forces on right of hinge about
Shear stress distribution for rectangular the hinge will be zero so,
V  d2 2
20 × 8 = H × 4  H = 40 kN
cross-section =  y 
R
2I  4  82. Each span of a two-span continuous beam of
Maximum will be at y = 0 (at N.A.) uniform flexural rigidity is 6 m. All three
2 supports are simple supports. It carries a
V d 3 V 
max     
TE
2bd
3 4 2  bd  uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over the
left span only. The moment at the middle
12
support is
max 3
So,    1.5 (a) 90 kNm Sagging (b) 45 kNm Hogging
avg. 2
(c) 90 kNm Hogging (d) 45 kNm Sagging
AS
81. 4m 80 kN Ans. (b)
Sol.
4m 20 kN/m
H A B A B C
H
M
8m 8m 6m 6m
By moment distribution method
The horizontal thrust of the three-hinged arch
loaded as shown in the figure is Distribution factor at B and C will be 0.5
(a) 20 kN (b) 30 kN 20  62
S
FEM at A =   60 kN-m

(c) 40 kN (d) 50 kN 12
FEMB = 60 kN-m
Ans. (c)
IE
Joint A B C
Sol.
Member AB BA BC CB
4m 80 kN
DF 0.5 0.5
4m FEM –60 60
H A B
H
+60
30
8m 8m
RA RB –45 –45
Moment about B will be zero Final
moment 0 45 –45 0
45 kN.m 45 kN.m Ans. (b)
Sol. For truss local stiffness matrix is
 AE AE 
 L 
L 
83.  
=  AE AE 
R

 L L 
AE 200  200  103

w/m k11 = 
TE
L 2
= 2 × 107 N/m
B
A
L 85.
P Q
A fixed beam is loaded as in figure. The fixed
end moment at support A
AS
2 2 L
wL wL
(a) (b)
30 20
S
wL
2
wL
2 R
(c) (d) L F
10 8
M
Ans. (b) For the truss shown in the figure, the force in
the member PQ is
Sol. Fixed end moment for beam loaded with
uniformly varying load. F
(a) F (b)
2
S
(c) 2F (d) 2F
w/m Ans. (a)
IE
2 2 Sol.
wl wl
20 L 30 P Q
A B
Joint equilibrium at R
FQR
84. For a plane truss member, the length is 2 m,
L
E = 200 GPa and area of cross-section is FRS R
200 mm2. The stiffness matrix coefficient K11 S
with reference to its local axis is R
F
L F
(a) 200 N/m (b) 2 × 107 N/m
(c) 4 × 107 N/m (d) 400 N/m So, FQR = F and FRS = 0
Joint equilibrium of Q
FPQ (a) 1350 kN (b) 5000 kN
45°
(c) 10000 kN (d) 25000 kN
Ans. (a)
FQS
FQR Sol. Seismic base shear V B = AhW
Ah = Horizontal earthquake force
  Fx  0  FPQ  FQS sin 45  0
W = Seismic weight
R
 FPQ = –FQSsin45° …(i)
ZISa 0.36  1.5  2.5
Ah = 2Rg   0.135
  Fy  0  FQR  FQS cos 45  0 25
TE
z = 0.36 for zone V
 FQS =  2 F …(ii)
I = 1.5 for important building
by eq. (i)
Sa
 2.5 (given)
g
AS
FPQ  F
R = 5 (for building designed with ductile
Alternative solution: consideration)
P FPQ FPQ Thus,
Q Q
Base shear = 0.135 × 10000 kN = 1350 kN
M
L L 87. An RCC slab (M 25 grade) of dimensions

S S 5 m × 5 m × 0.15 m, is supported on four
R R square columns (M 25 grade) of side 400 mm,
L
the clear height of each column being
F F
3 m . Assuming rigi d connecti ons, the
S
Method of section fundamental time period of vibration of the

slab along the horizontal direction is nearly
 Ms  0 (a) 4.12 s (b) 2.80 s
IE
(c) 0.50 s (d) 0.07 s

 HP × L = F × P
Ans. (d)
 So, FPQ  HP  F Sol.

5m
86. An i m port ant bui l di ng i s l ocat ed i n 5m 0.15m
earthquake zone V in India. The seismic
0.4×0.4m
weight of the building is 10000 kN and it is
designed by ductility considerations. The 3m
spectral acceleration factor for this structure
is 2.5. The base shear for this structure is
12EI
Stiffness of each column =
L3 H H
12  5000 25  400  400 3

= 3
 23703 N / mm
12  3000 1. Horizontal component of cable tension at
R
where E  5000 fck N / mm 2 each section is the same and it is equal to the
horizontal reaction at support.
bd3 2. The uniformly distributed dead load of the
I
TE
12 roadway and t he sti f f eni ng girders i s
Stiffness of four column = 4K transmitted to the cables through hanger
= 4 × 23703 = 94812 × 103 N/m cables and is taken up entirely by the tension
in the cables. The stiffnening girders do not
Using lumped mass technique, mass of the suffer any S.F or B.M under dead load as
single degree of freedom system the girders are supported by closely spaced
AS
= Mass of slab + mass of 50% column height hanger cables throughtout. Any live load on
= [5 × 5 × 0.15 + 4 × 1.5 × 0.4 × 0.4] × 25 the bridge will be transmitted to the girders
as point loads. The stiffening girders transmit
= 117.75 kN the live load to the cable as uniformly
distributed load. While doing so the stiffening
weight 117.75 3
Mass =   10  12003.05 kg girders will be subjected to S.F. and B.M
M
g 9.81
throughout their length.
Fundamental natural time period x B
A Y yc
m 12003.05
Tn  2  2  0.0706 sec W C
k 94812  103
S
Road D F way
z E
L/2 L/2
suspension cables :
IE
Three hinged stiffening girder

1. The horizontal component of the cable
tension in a suspension bridge is constant 89.
at every point along the length of the cable.
2
2. Stiffening girders in a suspension bridge (EI)Beam = 5000 kNm
A B
carry only the live load
2m Ks=1000 N/m
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
m 50 kg
The fundamental time period of vibration of
Ans. (c) the system shown in the figure, by neglecting
Sol. Correct option is (c) the self weight of the beam, is nearly
(a) 0.2 sec (b) 0.8 sec Ans. (d)
(c) 1.4 sec (d) 2.8 sec Sol. 1. In case of welded tension members,
entire cross-sectional area of connected
Ans. (c) l eg i s condiered in eff ecti v e area
cal cul at i on, whereas f o r bol t ed
Sol. connection, deduction for holes is made
(EI)beam = 5000 kNm2 for connected leg.
R
2. As per IS 800 : 2007, two angles placed
back-to-back and tack welded area
ks = 1000 N/s
assumed to behave as tee section.
TE
3. As per I S 800 : 2007, check f or
m 50 kg
slenderness ratio of tension members
may be necessary to provide adequate
k1k s rigidity to prevent accidental eccentricity
keq = k  k of load or excessive vibration.
1 s
AS
Thus, statement 1, 2 and 3 all are
3EI 3  5000  103 correct.
k1 = 3
 3
 1875000 N/m
l 2 91. A sample of dry soil is coated with a thin layer
1875000  1000 of paraffin and has a mass of 460 g. It
keq =  999.47 N/m displaced 300 cc of water when immersed in
1875000  1000
it. The paraffin is peeled off and its mass was
M
m 50 found to be 9 g. If the specific gravity of soil

Time period = 2  2  1.4 sec sol ids and paraff i n are 2.65 and 0.9
k 999.47
respectively, the voids ratio of soil is nearly
90. Consider the f ollowing statements with (a) 0.92 (b) 0.71
reference to the design of welded tension
S
(c) 0.59 (d) 0.48

members:
1. The entire cross-sectional area of the Ans. (b)
IE
connected leg is assumed to contribute to Sol. Mass of soil + paraffin = 460 g

the effective area in the case of angles.
Mass of paraffin = 9g
2. Two angles, back-to-back and tack-welded
Mass of soil = 451 g
as per the codal requirements, may be
assumed to behave as a tee-section. Volume of soil + volume of paraffin = 300cc
3. A check on slenderness ratio may be 9g
necessary in some cases. Volume of soil   300
0.9  1
Which of the above statements are correct? Volume of soil = 290 cc
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 451
dry density of soil (  d ) =  1.555 g / cc
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 290
G s Vw 94. The normal flows on two approach roads at
d = an intersection are respectively 500 pcu/h and
1 e
300 pcu/h. The corresponding saturation flow
2.65  1
1.555 = is 1600 pcu/h on each road. The total lost
1 e time per single cycle is 16 s. The optimum
e = 0.704 cycle time by Webster’s method is
R
92. Marshalling yard in railway system provides (a) 72.5 s (b) 58.0 s
facilities for
(c) 48.0 s (d) 19.3 s
(a) Maintenance of rolling stock
TE
Ans. (b)
(b) Safe mov ements of passengers and
coaches Sol.
(c) Receiving, breaking up, re-forming and By Webster’s method optimum cycle time,
dispatching onwards – of trains 1.5 L  5
AS
(d) Receiving, loading, unloading and delivery C = 1 q
of goods and vehicles, and scheduling their
s
further functioning where,
L = Total lost time = 16 sec
Ans. (c)
S = Saturation flow = 1600 pcu/n.
Sol. Correct option is (c)
M
Marshalling yard is a yard with facilities for q 500 300 1

receiving, classfying and despatching rolling s = 
1600 1600 2

stock to their destinations.
93. ‘Composite Sleeper Index’ is relevant in (1.5  16)  5
 C = sec
determining: 1  0.5
S
1. Required and adoptable sleeper density = 58 sec

2. Durability of sleeper units 95. In the offshore region at a particular harbour
IE
facility, an oscillatory wave train approaches

3. Mechanical strength of the stock of wooden
with wavelength of 80 m where the mean sea
sleepers
depth is 30 m. What would be the velocity of
the individual waves?
(a) 17.15 m/s (b) 16.05 m/s
(c) 15.15 m/s (d) 14.05 m/s
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
Sol. L = 80 m (wavelength)
Sol.
h = 30 m (mean see depth)
‘Composte sleeper index’ is employed to
determine mechanical strength of wooden gL 2h
V tanh
sleepers. 2 L
230

2 30 two statements carefully and select the answers to
9.81 80 e 80 e 80
these items using the codes given below:
 230 230
 10.98 m / s
2  Codes:
e 80 e 80
 The same ans do not match with any
option.
correct explanation of Statement (I)
We will find wave velocity by equation.
R
V  gh individually true but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
This expression is generally used in shallow
water wav es where h <<< L (generally (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
TE
false
h  0.05 L )
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is
true
V  9.81 30  17.15 m / s
97. Statement (I) : Glass, used as sheets in
96. For proper planning of harbours oscillatory buildings, is a crystalline solid and is
AS
waves in the relevant off-shore region must transparent.
be taken into account. If the sea depth is 30
Statement (II) : Glass is obtained by the fusion
m and an oscillatory waves train is observed
of silicates of sodium and calcium, both of
to have wavelength of 50 m, what would be
which are crystalline in structure.
the velocity of the individual waves?
(a) 9.43 m/s (b) 9.21 m/s Ans. (d)
M
(c) 9.08 m/s (d) 8.83 m/s Sol. Correct option is (d)
I– Glass is a non-crystalline amorphous solid
Ans. (d)
II– Glass is manufactured by using some of the
Sol. L = 50 m (wavelength)
cystalline solids like silicates of sodium,
S
h = 30 m (mean sea depth) calcium etc.

gL 2h Thus, statement I is incorrect.
V tanh
2 L 98. Statement (I) : Lime-surkhi mortar is used in
IE
construction of Anicuts (dams) since the 19th

ex  e x
tanh x  x x century.
e e
2 30
Statement (II) : Portland cement is a recent
2 30
50 material compared to surkhi-mortar which is
9.81 50 e 50 e
V  best suited for hydraulic structures.
2 2 30 2 30

e 50 e 50
Ans. (b)
= 8.83 m/s
Sol. Statement I and II both are correct
Directions: Each of the next Twenty Four (24) items Cement m ortar has bet t er qual i t y as
consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement compare to lime-surkhi mortar.
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
99. Statement (I) : Rapid method of concrete mix- Ans. (b)
design will take 3 days for trials. Sol. Statement (I) and (II) both are correct.
Statement (II) : This rapid method depends 102. Statement (I) : In a RC beam, bond stress
on curing the concrete in warm water at or developed is due to pure adhesion, and
above 55°C. frictional and mechanical resistance.
R
Ans. (a) Statement (II) : Inadequacy of bond strength
can be compensated by providing end
Sol.
anchorage in the reinforcing bars.
TE
Rapid method of concrete mix-design takes
Ans. (b)
only 3 days for trials.
Sol. Statement I is correct as the bond stress
The procedure is based on the use of
developed is due to pure adhesion (due to
accelerated curing (using warm water).
gum li ke propert y in the products of
100. Statement (I) : R.M.C. is preferably used in hydration), frictional resistance (due to the
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construction of large projects. surface roughness of the reinforcement and
Statement (II) : R.M.C. is adoptable to achieve the grip exerted by the concrete shrinkage)
any desired strength of concrete, with and mechanical resistance (due to the
simultaneous quality control. deformed bars).
Statement II is correct, as the inadequacy
Ans. (a)
of bond strength can be compensated by
M
Sol. Ready mix concrete (RMC) is preferably providing development length/end anchorage
used in large project as it possess the in the reinforcing bars. However, statement
following major properties: II is not the reason of statement I.
(i) Better quality concrete is produced.
103. Statement (I) : A Dummy is an activity in the
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(ii) Elimination of storage space for basic network.

materials at site. Statement (II) : A Dummy is a representation
(iii) It can achieve any desired strength of in the network requiring neither time nor re-
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concrete. sources.
Thus helps in easy completion of large Ans. (d)

projects.
Sol. Dummy is not an activity in the network dia-
101. Statement (I) : In a bolted joint, all similarly gram, it is only used to show inter-relationship
placed bolts share the load equally. which neither consumes resources nor time.
104. Statement (I) : In areas where extreme cold

conditions are a regular feature, and more so
particularly in winter, it is necessary to use
lighter oil for automobiles than in summer.
Statement (II) : 'Lighter' in Statement (I) re-
Statement (II) : Bolts are placed in holes fers to the oil density, which may be adjusted
having slightly larger diameters. by admixtures.
Ans. (c) Statement (II) : During Anaerobic sludge di-
gestion, CH4 is produced; also rodents and
Sol. Oil is thin when heated and thickens as it is
other pests are attracted when digester sludge
cooled even to the point that at very cold is dried.
temperature, oil would thicken such that, it
no longer lubricate the engine. Therefore Ans. (b)
lighter viscosity motor oils is essential when
Sol. During anaerobic sludge degistain CH 4 is
season changes from summer to winter to
produced and rodents and pests are
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prevent catastrophic engine failure.
attracted when degistor sludge is dried.
105. Statement (I) : Bernoulli's equation is appli-
108. Statement (I) : A nomogram is a ready
cable to any point in the flow field provided the
reckoner to compute any two hydraulic param-
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flow is steady and irrotational.
eters like discharge, pipe diameter, pipe slope
Statement (II) : The integration of Euler's equa- and flow velocity in the pipe if the other two
tion of motion to derive Bernoulli's equation are known.
involves the assumptions that velocity poten-
Statement (II) : Hydraulic parameters can be
tial exists and that the flow conditions do not
determined by using Mannings or Chezy's for-
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change with time at any point.
mulae; and a Nomogram is an organized com-
Ans. (a) pilation of a number of such, varied computa-
tions.
Sol. The integration of Euler’s equation of
Ans. (a)
motion to deri v e Bernoulli’s equation
inv olves the assumptions that v elocity Sol. Nomogram is a diagram representing the
potential exists. relation between three or more variables
M
quantities by means of a number of scale,

If velocity potential exist, flow is irrotational.
so that value of variable can be found by
106. Statement (I) : A sloping glacis is always pre- simple geometric construction.
ferred over a horizontal bed for locating a hy- Chezy’s equation
draulic jump.
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  2
Statement (II) : The hydraulic jump is the best Q = C×A R  S  where A  D 
 4 
dissipator of energy of the flowing water.
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1
Ans. (d) Manning’s equation Q = A  R2/3 S1/2
n
Sol. Sloping glacis is not preferred because
length of hydraulic jump increases and 109. Statement (I) : The field capacity of Municipal
energy loss decreases on this. solid waste is the total moisture that can be
retained in a waste sample against gravity.
Hydraulic jump is the best dissipator of
energy so statement (II) is only correct. Statement (II) : The field capacity of Municipal
solid waste is of critical importance in deter-
107. Statement (I) : Anaerobic sludge digester, by mining the volume of leachate in landfills.
itself, is considered to be the better method
than other methods of sludge treatment. Ans. (b)
Sol. Sol.  G reen house ef f ect i ncrease t he
temperature of earth and due to which
I. Field capacity of municipal solid waste is
the polar ice caps will melt and it will
the moisture retained against the force of
increase the ocean level.
gravity.
 Inundation of coastal land decreases
II. Field capacity (i.e., mositure retained) is
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land mass, consequently increases
of prime importance while finding out population density and creates food
volume of leachate. shortages.
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110. Statement (I) : Proximate analysis of MSW is 112. Statement (I) : The fundamental principle of
carried out to determine moisture content, vola- surveying is 'to work from the whole to the part'.
tile matter, and fixed carbon.
Statement (II) : Working from the whole to the
Statement (II) : Ultimate analysis of MSW is part ensures prevention of accumulation of
carried out to determine the full range of chemi- possible errors in survey work over large ar-
cal composition and the energy value.
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eas.
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
Sol. Correct option is (b)
Sol. Fundamental principal of surveying is from
I. Proximate analysis of ‘municipal solid waste’ working from whole to part which ensures
is carried out to determine. localisation of error.
M
(i) Moisture
Whereas working from part to whole maximises
(ii) Volatile matter error.
(iii) Ash 113. Statement (I) : Compass survey is still used
(iv) Fixed carbon by Geologists to locate the magnetic ores.
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II. Ultimate analysis of solid waste is used to char-

Statement (II) : Local attraction causes errors
acterize the chemical composition of organic
in compass survey due to terrestrial features
matter. They are also used to define the proper
either natural or man made.
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mix of solid waste materials to achieve suit-

able C/N ratios for bio-conversion processes. Ans. (b)
111. Statement (I) : The impact of Green House Sol. Compass survey is used by geologist to locate
Gas emission on the environment may com- the magnetic ores because north or south end
prise accelerated increase in global warming of the needle is drawn downards, according to
as well as a significant rise in mean sea levels. the polarity of the ore.
Statement (II) : Green House Gas emission is Local attraction causes error in magnetic bear-
responsible for decreased land masses, in- ing due to terrestrial features either natural or
creased population densities and food short- man-made which create errors in compass
ages. survey.
Ans. (b) 114. Statement (I) : PCA is a preferred raw mate-

rial for construction of Bituminous pavements
in areas of heavy rainfall.
Statement (II) : In PCA, no stripping is needed Ans. (a)
as there is improved binding: and thereby sta-
Sol.
bility is also improved.
 The composition of most cermets: 80% cermaic
Ans. (a) (clay) and 20% metals (Al, Ni, Fe etc). These
cermets are mainly used as high refractories
Sol. ‘Plastic coated aggregates’ and also they
where high temp as well as shock resistant.
protect bitumen from aggregate moisture are Thus cermets are used in rockets and jet
water resistant thus gives proper bond engine port.
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strength and durability in areas of heavy
rainfall. 117. Statement (I) : Aluminium alloy with less than
6% copper is used in making automobile pis-
115. Statement (I) : Bituminous roads disintegrate
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tons.
even with light traffic, but such failures are not
exclusively attributable to wrong surface treat- Statement (II) : Duraluminium containing 4%
ment. copper has a high tensile strength and is well
usable wherever alkaline environment is not
Statement (II) : Improper preparation of the present.
subgrade and the foundation is often respon-
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sible for this disintegration. Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) Sol.

 Y-alloy consist of Al (92%) and Cu around 4–
Sol. 5% is generally used is piston of IC engine
 Composition of duralium is as follows
 Some defects which is not rectified immediately,
M
result in the disintegration of the pavement into Cu Mn He Mg Al

small, loose fragment. 3.5  4.5% 0.4  0.7%  0.7% 0.4  0.7 Re st
Examples of such defects are
118. Statement (I) : There is no practical method of
(1) Stripping
concrete mix design based on the specific sur-
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(2) Loss of aggregates face of aggregates.

(3) Ravelling Statement (II) : Surface area of aggregates
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(4) Edge breaking plays a vital role in achieving the right mix de-
sired for a desired strength.
 Improper prepartion of subgrade is not a cuase
of disintegration. Ans. (b)
Sol. Desired strength of concrete depends on
116. Statement (I) : Cermet, as a refractory mate- workability which is in-turn depended on
rial (Clay 80% + Aluminium 20%), is used in
surface area of aggregates.
the construction of rockets and jets.
119. Statement (I) : Air seasoning of structural
Statement (II) : Cermet containing metals, timber renders it more durable, tough and
which are stable at temperatures as high as elastic.
600ºC, resists sudden shocks.
Statement (II) : Air seasoning of timber is the
most economical and eco-friendly method of 200  leff 2 2 1

treatment when time is not a constraining Pcr2 =  leff1  4
criterion.
Pcr2 = 800 kN
Ans. (b)
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Sol.  Seasoning is the process of reducing the of column splicing :
m oi st ure cont ent of t i m b er whi ch
increases the durability, toughness and 1. Splices should be provided close to the
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elasticity of timber. point of inflection in a member
Air seasoning is very economical, but it 2. Splices should be located near to the point

requires large time for seasoning. of lateral restraint in a member
Bot h sta t em ents are cor rect but 3. Machined columns for perfect bearing

statement (II) does not explain the would need splices to be designed for axial
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statement (I). force only
120. Statement (I) : Lining of nuclear plants with Which of the above statements are correct?
specially heavy concrete is needed f or (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
shielding and protecting against several (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
dangerous conditions.
Ans. (a)
M
Statement (II) : Limonite is one special type

of aggregate possessing a high density. Sol. In case of column splicing:
Ans. (b) 1. Splicing should be provided close to

poi nt of i nf l ect i on and poi nt of
Sol. Limonite is one special type of aggregate contraflexure.
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having density 2.7 – 4.3 g/cc.

2. Splices should be located near to point
121. A steel column is pinned at both ends and has of lateral restraint.
a buckling load of 200 kN. If the column is
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3. Machined columns need splices to be

restrained against lateral movement at its mid-
designed for axial force and bending
height, its buckling load will be
moment.
(a) 100 kN (b) 200 kN
Hence, statement (1) and (2) are correct.
(c) 400 kN (d) 800 kN
123. Buckling of the compression flange of a girder,
Ans. (d) without transverse stiffeners, can be avoided
if (with standard notations)
Sol.
d d
 2EI (a)  3452f (b)  270 2f
Pcr1 = tw tw
leff12
d d
 2EI (c) t  270 w (d) t  250 w
Pcr2 =
leff 22 w w
Ans. (a) LP
Sol. To avoid buckling of compression flange, IS-

800: 2007 specifies following web thickness
requirements L
(I) when transv erse stiff eners are not My Np My

d 2
provided t  345  f . Length of plastic hinge,
w
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(II) W hen only transverse stiffeners are 1
LP = L 1 
provided S.F.
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d 2 where, S.F. = Shape factor = Moment ratio
(i) t  345  f for c  1.5 d
w = 1.5 (given)
Thus,
d
(ii) t  345 f for c  1.5 d
w 1
1  (0.577) L  0.58 L
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LP =
1.5
where,
d = depth of the web 125. A single angle of thickness 10 mm is
connected to a gusset by 6 numbers of 18
t w = thickness of the web
mm diameter bolts, with pitch of 50 mm and
with edge distance of 30 mm. The net area in
250
M
block shear along the line of the transmitted

f = fyf force is
f yf = yield stress of the compression flange (a) 1810 mm2 (b) 1840 mm2
c = clean distance between transverse (c) 1920 mm2 (d) 1940 mm2
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stiffener.
Ans. (a)
124. A simply supported steel beam of rectangular
Sol. * Assuming diameter of bolt hole = 18 mm
section and of span L is subjected to a
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uniformly distributed load. The length of the t = 10 mm

plastic hinge by considering moment ratio of
30 50 50 50 50 50
1.5 will be nearly
(a) 0.27 L (b) 0.39 L
(c) 0.45 L (d) 0.58 L Dia of bolt hole = 18 mm
Ans. (d) Net area in block shear along the line of

Sol. For simply supported beam subjected to force [(30 + 5 × 50) – 5.5 × 18] × 10
uniformly distributed load. = 1810 mm 2
126. Consider the following statements for the Long term modular ratio (including effect of
design of a laced column : 280
creep) = 3
1. In a bolted construction, the minimum width cbc
of the lacing bar shall be three times the cbc for M 25 = 8.5
nominal diameter of the end bolt.
280
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2. The thickness of the flat of a single lacing Long term modular ratio =
3  8.5
system shall be not less than one-fortieth
of its effective length. = 10.98  11
1
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3. The angle of inclination of the lacing bar 128. The ultimate load carrying capacity of a short
should be less than 40° with the axis of circular column of 300 mm diameter with 1%
the built-up column helical reinforcement of Fe 415 grade steel
and concrete of M 20 grade, is nearly
4. The lacing shall be designed f or a
transverse shear of 2.5% of the axial load (a) 451 kN (b) 500 kN
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on the column (c) 756 kN (d) 794 kN
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (d)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Sol. Ultimate load carrying capacity of circular
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 column with helical reinforcement = P u-helical
Pu-helical = 1.05(0.4 f ckAc + 0.67f yAsc )
Ans. (b)
M
f ck = 20 N/mm 2
Sol. Angle of lacing with built-up column, should
be 40°<  < 70°. 
AC = 0.99   3002 mm2
4
127. The permissible bending compressive strength
f y = 415 N/mm 2
for M 25 grade of concrete is 8.5 N/mm 2. Its
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short-term and long-term modular ratios are, 

ASC = 0.01  3002 mm2
nearly 4
Pu-helical =
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(a) 8 and 11 (b) 8 and 8  

 
1.05  0.4  20   3002  0.99  0.67  415  0.01  3002 
(c) 11 and 11 (d) 11 and 6  4 4 
Ans. (a) = 794192.46 N
Sol. Short term modular ratio  794 kN
ES 129. In a cantilever retaining wall, the main steel
= reinforcement is provided
EC
(a) On the backfill side, in the vertical direction
2  105 MPa
= (b) On both, inner and outer, faces
5000 fck MPa
(c) In horizontal as well as in vertical directions
2  105 (d) To counteract shear stresses
= 8
5000 25
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
Sol. Sol.
Main bar
(Vertical R/F on back
fill side due to tensile
stress)
Rise = 2.5 m
M 
R
Due to lateral pressure of backfills, the wall 20 m
is designed as a cantilev er and main
reinforcement is provided on the rear side spacing = 8 m
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or backfill side in the vertical direction.
 2.5 
130. Design strength for M25 concrete in direct tan  =  10 
compression, bending compression and
flexural tension are, respectively
   14
(a) 10 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 3.5 MPa
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(b) 25 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 3 MPa For  = 14°, (> 10°)
(c) 10 MPa, 12.5 MPa and 3.5 MPa Live load on roof tress
(d) 25 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 2.57 MPa [0.75 – (14 – 10) × 0.02] kN/m2
Ans. (a) = 0.67 kN/m2
M
Sol. Direct compression = 0.4 fck = 0.4×25 = 10 Hence,

MPa.
Maximum live load reaction
(In case of cloumn, in axial compression the
value of direct compression strength of 0.67  Floor area
=
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concrete is assumed as 0.4 fck). 2

Bending compression strength = 0.446 fck
= 11.15 MPa. 0.67  20  8
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= kN  53.6 kN
2
Flexure tension strength = 0.7 fck = 3.5
MPa. But since this is not given in option,
131. Double pitched roof trusses of span 20m and  Let us take maximum live load = 0.75 kN/m 2
rise 2.5m are placed at 8m spacing. The
Thus,
maximum live load reaction at the supports is
nearly Maximum live load reaction at support
(a) 36 kN (b) 40 kN
0.75  20  8
(c) 46 kN (d) 60 kN = kN = 60 kN
2
132. Ground motion during earthquak e is random 134. A steel building has plan dimensions of 50m ×
in nature. For the purpose of analysis, it can 50m and it is 120 m tall. It is provided with
be conv erted into diff erent harmonic brick infill panels. The approximate fundamental
excitations through time period of the building is
(a) Fourier series (a) 1.53 sec (b) 2.72 sec
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(b) Newton’s second law (c) 3.08 sec (d) 4.15 sec
(c) Duhamel’s integral Ans. (a)
(d) Time series analysis
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Sol. The approximate fundamental natural period
Ans. (a) of building with brick in fill pannel is
133. An RCC structure with fundamental time period
0.09 h 0.09  120
of 1.2 sec vibrates at a forcing frequency of Ta =   1.53 sec
d 50
10 rad/sec. T he maximum dynamic
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displacement is X% of static displacement. The 135. A masonry structure has a prism strength of
value of X is 10 N/mm2 with  = 0.25. The modulus of
(a) 10.1 (b) 28.9 elasticity and the shear modulus of the
masonry arer respectively.
(c) 37.7 (d) 50.2
(a) 5500 MPa and 2200 MPa
Ans. (c)
(b) 2000 MPa and 200 MPa
M
Sol. T n = 1.25
(c) 5500 MPa and 1000 MPa
 = 10 rad/sec
(d) 2000 MPa and 1000 MPa
Dynamic displacement u0 1
 Rd   Ans. (a)
Static displacement (ust )0 1  2
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Sol. Elastic modulus of brick modulus = 550 f m

where,
Where f m = presim strength
Rd = Magnification factor/amplification factor
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Emasonry = 550×10 = 5500 N/mm2.


 = Frequency ratio = E
n
Shear modulus =
2 1  
2 2
Tn =   n 
n 1.2
5500
=  2200N / mm2
10  1.2 2 1  0.25 

  =  1.91
2
136. The surface tension in a soap bubble of 20
1 mm diameter, when the inside pressure is 2.0
 v 0 = Rd (ust )0  2
(ust )0
N/m2 above atmospheric pressure, is
1  1.91
= 0.377(ust )0  37.7%(ust )0 (a) 0.025 N/m (b) 0.0125 N/m

(c) 5 × 10–3 N/m (d) 4.25 × 10–3 N/m
Ans. (c)
Sol.
8  
Sol. P = D
h
8
2N/m 2 =
0.02
  = 5 × 10–3 N/m 1
Dm 
0.003
cm
R
Size of interstices =
8 8
Size of interstices is assumed as radius of
labour welfare:
interstices.
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1. Work prompted by mere sympathy and
 2
kindness may degenerate and may injure  cos   D = D  h  w
4
the worker’s sense of self-respect.
4 cos 
2. Rapid industrialization on a large scale D w = h (  0)
poses problems in respect of labour and
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4 4  0.075
its welfare 
h =   D 1 g / cc  0.003  2
3. Construction labour is still largely 8
unorganized, and hence lacks in welfare = 400 cm
measures = 4 m
M
Which of the above statements are correct? 139. A jet of water has a diameter of 0.3 cm. The
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only absolute surface tension of water is 0.072 N/
m and atmospheric pressure is 101.2 kN/m 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
The absolute pressure within the jet of water
Ans. (c) will be
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Sol. Al l stat e m ents are correct and sel f (a) 101.104 kN/m2 (b) 101.152 kN/m2
explainatory. (c) 101.248 kN/m2 (d) 101.296 kN/m2
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138. A soil sample has an average grain diameter Ans. (c)

as 0.03 mm. The size of interstices is one Sol. dj = 0.3cm
eight of the mean grain diameter. Considering
 of water as 0.075 g/cm, the water will rise  water = 0.072 N/m
in the clay to a height of
Patm = 101.2N/m 2
(a) 2.4 m (b) 3.0 m
2
(c) 3.6 m (d) 4.0 m P = D  for jet 
Ans. (d) 2  0.072N / m

Pjet–Patm =  48N / m2  0.048KN / m2
0.3  10–2
Pjet = 101.2 + 0.048 = 101.248 KN/m 2.
140. A glass tube of 2.5 mm internal diameter is 2g = 4.43
immersed in oil of mass density 940 kg/m 3 to
a depth of 9 mm. If a pressure of 148 N/m 2 is Yweir crest = H = 0.25 m
needed to from a bubble which is just released.
2
What is the surface tension of the oil? Q = Cd 2g LH3/2  takeCd  CC  0.61
3
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(a) 0.041 N/m (b) 0.043 N/m
2
(c) 0.046 N/m (d) 0.050 N/m =  0.61 4.43  2  0.253/ 2
3
Ans. (a) = 0.45 m3/s
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di=2.5 mm
Sol. Discharge through open channel = Discharge
through weir = 0.45 m3/s.
3
oil = 940 kg/m 142. A steady, two dimensional, incompressible
9mm
flow field is represented by u = x + 3y + 3
and v = 2x - y - 8 In this flow field, the
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stagnation point is
4 (a) (3, 2) (b) (–3, 2)
(Pi –P0) =
D (c) (–3, –2) (d) (3, –2)
Now P0 = 940 × 9.81 × 9 × 10–3 = 82.99N/ Ans. (d)
m2
Sol. u = x + 3y + 3
M
4
 148 – 82.99 = v = 2x – y – 8
2.5  10–3
for stagnation point, u = 0 & v = 0
65.01 2.5  10 –3
 =  0.041N / m  x+3y+3= 0 ... (i)
4
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141. In a rectangular open channel, 2.0 m wide, 3(2x–y–8)= 0

water flows at a depth of 0.8 m. It discharges  6x–3y–24 = 0
over an aerated sharp crested weir over the
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x+3y+3 = 0
full width, with depth over weir crest being
0.25 m/ Cc = 0.61. Adjusting for velocity head 7x = 21
of approach, what would be the discharge x =3
through the channel? 2g = 4.43 unitss Put x = 3 in ...(i)
(a) 0.439 m3/sec (b) 0.445 m3/sec 3+3y+3 = 0
(c) 0.453 m3/sec (d) 0.461 m3/sec  y  – 2 so,x  3,y  –2

Ans. (c)
143. If the energy present in a jet of water of 20
Sol. B = 2m (L) cm diameter and having a velocity of 25 m/s
Yoc = 0.8m could be extracted by a device with 90%
CC = 0.61 efficiency, the power extracted would be nearly.
Applying bernoulli’s equation
1 sec 2
(taking = 0.051 ) between (1) & (2)
2g m
(a) 180 kW (b) 225 kW P1 V12 P2 Vs2
  Z1 =   Z2  hL
(c) 260 kW (d) 300 kW  2g  2g
Ans. (b)  P1 V12 
R
Sol. D = 20 cm    Z1  0 
  2g 
V = 25 m/s
P2
TE
  90%
   0.5  2.5  5  0
1 2 1 2
P mv    (  Q)  v   Pressure head = –8m
2 2
P2 = –8×10 = –80 kPa.
1  2 3
  1000   0.2  25  0.9 145. The stream function of a doublet with
2 4
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horizontal axis and of strength  is
= 220.89 kW
144. In a siphon, the summit is 5m above the water  
level in the tank from which the flow is being (a) r (b) cos 
2 2r
discharged. If the head loss from the inlet to
the summit is 2.5m and the velocityhead at   sin 
(c) r sin  (d)
M
the summit is 0.5 m, (taking  = 10 2 2 r

appropriate units) the pressure head at the
summit is Ans. (d)
(a) –80 kPa
–  sin   cos 
Sol. For doublet   & 
S
(b) –3 m of water (abs) 2 r 2 r

(c) 5 m of water (abs) 146. A vertical cylindrical tank, 2m diameter has at
(d) 18 m of water (abs) the bottom, a 5 cm diameter, sharp-edged
IE
Ans. (a) orifice, for which Cd = 0.6. Water enters the

Sol. tank at a constant rate of 9l/sec. At what depth
hL = 2.5 m above the orifice will the level in the tank
vs2
= 0.5m become steady?
2g
2
(a) 2.95 m (b) 2.75 m
5m
(c) 2.60 m (d) 2.50 m
Datum 1
Ans. (a)
h = 25m
d=2m
Vw = 20m/s
Sol.
a = 1.22 Kg/m3;
 = 1.8×10–5 Ns/m 2
Q=9l/s
VD 1.22  20  0.2
R
Re =   2.71 105
 1.8  10 –5
di = 5 ×10–2 m
Re CD
TE
1.2×105 0.89
5
4.5×10 0.26
dV   
Q in – Q out =  Qout  Cd   di2  2gH 
dt  4  CD for Re  2.7105 =
(V = volume of water in tank)
0.89 – 0.26
 9×10–3m 3/s –  0.89 – ×(2.71–1.2)×105
 4.5 – 1.2   105
AS

d d2  h = 0.601
  2
–2   4
 5  10 2  9.81  h  0.6  
4 dt 1
FD = CD  AV 2
(for h to be constant) 2
dh AD = D × h (projected area)
Therefore, = 0
M
dt 1
FD =  0.6  1.22  0.2  25  202 = 733.22N.
  2 2
So, 9×10–3 =  5  10 –2  2  9.81  0.6 h
4 148. A smooth flat plate with a sharp leading edge
 h = 1.725 is placed along a free steam of water flowing
at 2.5 m/sec. At what distance from the leading
S
h = 2.975 m  2.95m edge will the boundary layer transition from

147. A transmitter antenna is of a vertical pipe, 20 laminar to turbulent flow? Take density of water
cm diameter and 25 m height, on top of a tall as 1000 kg/m3 and its viscosity as 1 centiposie.
IE
structure. It is subjected to wind speed of 20 Also, what will be the boundary layer thickness
m/sec. Density of air is 1.22 kg/m3; its viscosity at that distance?
is 1.8 × 10–5 Ns/m2. Drag coefficient of a (tall) (a) 12.8 cm and 0.113 cm
circular cylinder is tabulated as
(b) 14.2 cm and 0.113 cm
Re 102 103 1.3  103 10 4 1.5  10 4 1.06  105 1.2  105 4.5  105
CD 1.6 1.05 0.95 1.0 1.08 1.0 0.89 0.26 (c) 12.8 cm and 0.125 cm
(d) 14.2 cm and 0.125 cm
What is the drag experienced?
Ans. (a)
(a) 737 N (b) 700 N
(c) 670 N (d) 63 N
Ans. (a) Sol.

R e = 5×105
Sol. D = 20m
x
Vo = 2.5m/s Sol.
 = 1000 Kg/m3; D=0.8m
 = 1×10–2 poise  1×10–2×0.1N.S/m 2

= 1×10–3N.S/m 2 2R2
h (R  0.4m)
V0 x 2g
0.6m
At transition  5  105
 2Ri 2
h (Ri  0.15m)
R
1000  2.5  x 2g
=  5  105
10 –3 NS / m2
x = 0.2m  20cm Di=0.3 m
TE
 5 D = 0.8 m

x Rex 2 N
 =
 5 60
 0.2     0.141cm 2R2 2R2i
5  105   0.6
2g 2g
AS
However, sometime transition occurs at
dif f erent Re bet ween 2× 10 5 – 3× 10 6 , 2  0.42 2  0.152
=   0.6
depending on the roughness of plate and 2  9.81 2  9.81
turbulence in approaching stream.   = 9.253 rad/s
Taking Re = 3.2×105 2N
  9.253
V0 x 60
 3.2  105
M
 N = 88.4
5 –3
3.2  10  10
x =  0.128m  12.8cm. 150. If 1 and 2 are the laminar boundary layer
103  2.5
thickness at a point M distant x from the
 5 leading edge when the reynolds number of
S

x Re x the flow are 100 and 484, respectively, then
1
5  12.8 the ratio  will be
   0.113cm.
IE
2
3.2  105
(a) 2.2 (b) 4.84
149. What is the rotational speed in rpm of a 0.8
(c) 23.43 (d) 45.45
m diameter cylindrical container, held with axis
Ans. (a)
vertical, if the fluid contained in it rises to 0.6
m height at the sides and leaves a circular 5 5x
1
Sol. = 1 
space 0. 3 m diameter on the bot tom
x Re x1 so 100
uncovered?
(a) 90.2 rpm (b) 88.4 rpm 5x
Similarly  2 =
484
(c) 86.0 rpm (d) 83.7 rpm
1 484 22
  2.2
Ans. (b) 2 = 100 10

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Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)

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Sol. IS 1141  Seasoning of timber

Which of the following is an ODD one as

bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should be not

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2. Brickwork is preferred for monument Ans. (b)

10. Consider the following statements regarding

2. 10% lime nodules

stored under damp conditions.

Ans. (b) Which of the above statements are correct?

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12. Which of the following ingredients refer to

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 3. disruption of concrete

1. Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

3. Strength of brick in masonry is improved

Ans. (c) Sol. As per Table 9, IS 456:2000, for M20 it is

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(d) a saturated surface-dry aggregate and an Ans. (a)

Ans. (c) Shear modulus = G

1. Stress-strain behaviour of concrete is a 22. A metal bar of 10 mm diameter when

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only Ans. (a)

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 200  103 N / mm2 350x 350  2  x  1.2  400

24. A member ABCD is subjected to a force

To what length should the bar be bored

(a) 0.46 m (b) 0.55 m The resistive force in the part BC is

Ans. (d) (c) 85 (compressive) (d) 320 (compressive)

Sol Ans. (d)

 Thus BC has 320 (Compressive) force.

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Given, x = 60, y =  &  = 0.3

What is the maximum shearing strain?

shear stress intensity is  max  x  y   xy 

max = 500 × 10–6

Sol. Given, 1 = 160, 2 = – 80 30. Consider a circular member of diameter D

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mm2 (tensile) 1  2 < y

Sol x = 90 N/mm2 section, b = 100 mm, d = 200 mm, throughout

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supports an external load. This statement (a) 68 kW (b) 70 kW

connected Ans. (c)

Which of the above statements are correct?    753

Ans. (b) = 73.8 kW

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39. A hollow shaft of 16 mm outside diameter

(c) 79.75 and 59.54

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43. For portal frame shown in the figure, collapse l/2

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1.2 kN the degree of kinematic indeterminacy,

4.4 kNm neglecting axial deformation, is

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4EI / l 4 Ans. (b)

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Thus there is sagging moment at right end

(c) redundant trusses plastic moment capacity of the section is 120

54. For a fixed beam with a concentrated load W

at of span from one end, the ultimate Sol.

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