1 - Air Law Questions - Final

1.
Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication
failure?
a) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA.
b) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions.
c) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
d) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
2. When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination
alternate fuel to be carried shall be:
a) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal
cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise
consumption above the destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes
3. The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:
a) The mass of the aircraft including full fuel, oil, engine coolant, hydraulic fluid and any fixed
ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
b) The mass of the aircraft excluding all fuel, oil engine coolant, and hydraulic fluid but including
any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
c) The mass of the aircraft, including any engine coolant, unusable fuel, total oil, total
hydraulic fluid, any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
4. Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other
than an ATS incident shall include (amongst others) the following particulars:
1. Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft
2. The date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated time or local time
3. Location of the accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical point
and if known, with reference to latitude and longitude
4. Number of flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured and other
persons killed or seriously injured
5. Nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
5. The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:
a) 18
b) 21
c) 17
6. Details of Prohibited Areas published in the:
a) AIC
b) Notams
c) On enroute chart
d) AIP
7. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL
290 is:
a. 2000 feet (600 m).

b. 500 feet (150 m).
c. 2500 feet (750 m).
d. 1000 feet (300 m).
8. When acting as PIC under the supervision of an appropriately rated flight instructor during flight
training on an approved integrated course of CPL or CPL/IR training and for a successful CPL or
IR initial flight test, a person may log the time as:
a) Pilot in command time and SPIC noted under the remarks column
b) Dual flight time
c) Co-pilot flight time
9. Minimum final reserve fuel for a turbo-propeller aircraft on a commercial flight is:
a) Fuel for 30 minutes holding

b) Fuel to fly for 45 minutes.
c) Fuel for 30 minutes flying at holding speed 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
10. At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the
height of the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:
a) 1 500 ft.
b) 1 000 ft.
c) 2 000 ft.
d) Nil
11. When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:
a) Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be
produced for inspection or investigation any licence, certificate, manual, logbook or
other document relating to the aircraft or crew
b) Arrest the pilot, owner, operator if there is sufficient evidence that the aircraft crashed due to
improper operation of such aircraft
c) Withdraw the pilot’s licence immediately
12. The holder of a crew member licence who has given birth may act as a flight crew member:
a) Only after 12 weeks of giving birth

b) After 2 weeks of giving birth
c) After 6 weeks of giving birth
13. A flight plan to be filed for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:
a) 30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

b) 30 minutes before departure for an international flight.
c) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
d) 24 hours before departure
14. “Instrument flight time” means:
a) The time during which an aircraft is operated in accordance with an IFR flight plan.
b) The time during which an aircraft is operated solely by reference to instruments and
without any external reference points.
c) Only the time during which the aircraft is carrying out an actual instrument approach
procedure.
d) Nil
15. An aerodrome and its environs shall not be overflown at a height of:
a) Less than 1 500 ft.

b) Less than 2 000 ft.
c) Less than 1 000 ft.
d) Nil
16. An instrument rating is valid for:
a) 12 months
b) 6 months for the initial and 12 months thereafter
c) 10 years
17. The holder of a pilot licence issued in terms of Part 61 may not exercise the privileges of that
licence –
1. Unless that person holds an appropriate valid medical certificate issued in terms of part 67
and complies with all medical endorsements on that medical
2. While he/she is aware of having a medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to
meet the medical standards for his/her medical certificate, until he/she has been assessed
and declared medically fit again by an aviation medical examiner designated in terms of Part
67
3. When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of
any psychoactive substance
4. When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of
alcohol
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
18. Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:
a) Not determine standards for examinations or tests and for the training of aviation medical
examiners
b) Exercise control over medical drugs prescribed to aviation personnel
c) Exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical
examiners performing such examinations
19. If a flight plan has not been activated, it will automatically be cancelled after:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 1 hour.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 24 hours.
20. A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed :
a) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

b) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the
underlying ground;
c) during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
procedure;
d) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
21. No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an
aerodrome traffic zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than:
a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft

b) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
c) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft
22. An applicant for a commercial pilot’s license shall inter alia:
a) Be not less than 18 years of age and have completed not less than 200 hours of flight
time including 20 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC.
b) Be not less than 17 years of age and have completed a course of approved training of 150
hours.
c) Be not less than 18 years of age and have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time of
which 120 hours shall be as PIC
d) Nil
23. You decide to practice instrument approaches in VMC by night, you may:
a) Do so at your discretion without any aid provided you are outside of controlled airspace
b) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds an
instrument rating
c) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds at least a
VFR PPL and night rating
24. A flight plan TAS is recorded as 150 kts in controlled airspace. Due to winds to improve the range,
you reduce power, and the TAS is now 138 kts.
a) You must inform ATSU, because your ETA has changed.

b) You must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed.
c) You must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed by more than 5%.
d) No need to inform ATSU – just update you ETA, when convenient.
25. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be
conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:
a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure

b) If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the
aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point or entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace
c) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure
26. “Date of application” is the date:
a) Written on the application form.

b) On which the flight test and the written tests were successfully completed.
c) On which the CAA receives the application in an acceptable form
d) Nil
27. According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome,
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts or a combination thereof, must be at or above the
applicable planning minima for a period of:
a) 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
b) 20 minutes flying time in the case of single-engine aircraft
c) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
d) 2 hours prior to the ETA at the destination
28. Licences issued under Part 61 are:

1. NPL
2. SPL
3. PPL
4. CPL
5. ATPL
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements are:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 3, 4, 5
29. An applicant for a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating must have at least:
a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

b) 300 hours experience in aeroplanes
c) 100 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes
30. On any flight within the RSA, the certificate of release to service must be carried on board:
a) Only for domestic flights.

b) Only for international flights.
c) On all flights
31. In the event that you have had a minor surgical operation or invasive procedure, you must
a) Immediately surrender your medical certificate

b) Not worry as it does not affect your medical certificate validity
c) Notify the designated body or institution
32. May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?
a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot
remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times
b) No, it is not allowed
c) Yes, provided another person sits at his/her station during the time the person is away.
33. The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which
he/she holds the appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew member’s logbook or
license:
1. Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2. In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in any
aeroplane
3. Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-pilot
operation
4. Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by
certification to be operated with a minimum of 2 pilots
5. Act as safety pilot
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
34. The ICAO is a body which:
a) Decides about all international aviation law.

b) Offers guidelines to local aviation authorities.
c) Is to do with Air Traffic Control.
d) Controls all aviation authorities.
35. An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-
engine aircraft, a minimum:
a) 6 Hours dual flight training.

b) 7 Hours dual flight training.
c) 6 Hours dual and 5 hours instrument flight training.
36. Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected
in accordance with semi-circular rules depends on:
a) The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

b) The Magnetic track only.
c) The compass heading and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.
d) Only on whether he is flying in IMC or VMC.
37. “Terrain awareness and warning systems” are required for:
a) All aircraft operating commercially in accordance with IFR

b) All turbine engine aircraft operating according to IFR
c) Turbine engine aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg
or authorised to carry more than 9 passengers operating according to IFR
38. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision,
each aircraft shall:
a) Follow the ICAO deviation procedure as listed in ICAO Doc 4444

b) Alter heading to the right
c) Alter heading to the left
39. Whilst taxiing at an uncontrolled airfield, the pilot observes an aircraft converging from the right.
The pilot should:
a) Continue to taxi.
b) Slow down or stop and allow the other aircraft right of way.
c) Continue to taxi if on an IFR flight plan.
d) Nil
40. “Crew member” means:
a) A person assigned by an operator to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight
that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion
of the flight and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties
related to a specialised use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted the
associated risks thereof
b) A person assigned by the SACAA to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight that
are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight
and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties related to a specialised
use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted the associated risks thereof
c) A person assigned by an owner to supervise refuelling operations
41. A parachute flare showing a red light means:
a) Grave and eminent danger threatens.

b) Do not land for the time being.
c) Do not take-off.
42. As far as the planning minima for IFR flights is concerned, in which of the following cases shall the
cloud ceiling be taken into account?
a) When the only approaches are VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or circling approaches
b) In all cases
c) When an IFR flight is planned to an aerodrome en route where an approach can be made to
encounter VMC and then continued in VMC to the destination
d) When the only approaches available are non-precision or circling approaches
43. The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so
declaring an area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1. The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2. The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.
a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
44. After you have been involved in an accident, may all your statements to the investigator, cockpit
voice recordings or any other document be made available to anyone for purposes other than
accident or incident investigations?
a) Anytime at the discretion of the investigator in charge

b) Never
c) Only when a court of law has ordered so
45. Except in emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:
a) Such aircraft is equipped with landing lights in terms of the provision of A. In which case such
landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and landing at night.
b) The PIC of such aircraft is familiar with the aerodrome and according to his judgement
sufficient means are available to assist in take-off or landing in the absence of runway lights.
c) The aerodrome of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and that the PIC has
ensured that night flying facilities are available for take-off or landing.
46. When an instrument approach to, or instrument departure from an aerodrome is necessary, the
PIC of an aircraft shall use the instrument approach and departure procedure as published:
a) By the director in the AIC, AIP, AIP Supplement or NOTAM or otherwise approved by
the Director
b) In any edited document such as Jeppesen or Aerad manuals without additional requirements
c) On any IPAD applications readily available from the I-store
47. The communication failure procedure require that flights where VMC cannot be maintained and in
controlled airspace:
a) Shall proceed according to the current flight plan.

b) If cleared to a flight level below that in the flight plan, if terrain permits maintain this
level for 7 minutes, then climb to flight plan level.
c) If cleared to a flight level below that in the flight plan, if terrain permits maintain this level for 3
minutes then climb to flight plan level
d) Nil
48. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to
"resume own navigation". This phrase means that:
a) You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

b) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
c) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
d) You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.
49. The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes
or light sport aeroplanes, he/she:
a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

requirements of Part 62
b) Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and
undergoing differences or familiarisation training.
c) Must obtain a NPL and all the relevant ratings.
50. VFR flight is not permitted:

1. At supersonic speeds
2. In Class A airspace
a) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
51. According to SA-CATS 91.07.5, for a precision approach category I runway to be classified as
having full facilities, the minimum length of HI/MI approach lighting required is:
a) 720 m
b) 1200m
c) 900m
d) 420m
52. No aircraft shall be operated at night without:
a) An rotating beacon, navigation lights or position lights.

b) Rotating beacon, navigation lights and two landing lights or a single light having two
separately energised filaments.
c) Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is 5 700 kgs or less.
53. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
a) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
b) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
c) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
d) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
54. When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:
a) Withdraw the pilot’s license immediately

b) Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be
produced for inspection or investigation any license, certificate, manual, logbook or
other documents relating to the aircraft or crew
c) Arrest the pilot, owner or operator if there is sufficient evidence that the aircraft crashed due
to the improper operation of such aircraft
55. For the issue of a CPL, the applicant must have completed, inter alia:
a) 30 hours of cross country time as PIC.

b) 20 hours of cross country time as PIC.
c) 25 hours of cross country time as PIC.
56. No owner or operator shall permit the taxing of and no person shall taxi an aircraft on the
movement areas of an aerodrome unless the person at the controls of the aircraft:
1. Is the holder of a valid pilot license
2. Has received instruction in the taxiing of an aircraft from, and has been declared competent
to taxi an aircraft by holder of a flight instructor’s rating or in the case of a foreign aircraft, a
person authorised by an appropriate authority
3. If a person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio apparatus
4. Is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air traffic service
signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required, and is able to perform to
the standards required for safe movements at such aerodrome. Provided the aircraft does
not enter the manoeuvring area in a case where radio communication is mandatory.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
57. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.

b) Not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
c) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
d) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
58. The air traffic control unit has reported ’radar contact’, what does that mean to the pilot?
a) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
b) The aircraft is subject to positive control
c) Position reports may be omitted
d) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
59. Part 61 applies to:
a) The issuing of pilot licenses and ratings for South African national pilots, the privileges and
limitations of such licences and ratings
b) The issuing, revalidation and re-issuing of South African pilot licences and ratings
c) Flight simulator training devices that may be used by a person to gain aeronautical
experience
60. Final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines when operating under Part 91 only is:
a) 45 minutes if operating VFR or IFR

b) 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation if operating IFR.
c) 30 minutes if operating VFR.
d) 45 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet above aerodrome elevation
61. Where a " Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be
achieved by one of the following procedures:
a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.

b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
62. The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:
a) May not be used under any circumstances

b) May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is
approved for the purpose by the Director.
c) Is permitted at any stage provided the correct software has been downloaded.
63. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:
a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

b) 700 hours during the preceding 6 months
c) 8 hours within a 24 hour period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and
duty period schedule
64. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
a) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.
b) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
contact has been lost.
c) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are
advised that contact has been lost.
d) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will
be provided until radar identification is terminated.
65. 'Flight' means the time period between the :
a) moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes the next
landing,
b) moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the end of the flight,
c) moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.
66. No pilot who is part of a multi-pilot crew of an aircraft flying under IFR shall have:
a) Flown more than 10 hours during the preceding 7 days.

b) Flown more than 38 hours during the preceding 14 days.
c) Flown more than 120 hours during the preceding 30 days.
67. No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the
performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft: This does not apply to:
a) A cellular telephone without flight mode

b) An electric shaver
c) A notebook which may be used at any time
68. An applicant for CPL must have completed not less than:
a) 5 Hours of instruction on an aeroplane with adjustable propeller

b) 10 Hours of instrument time.
c) 15 Hours of cross-country flight time.
69. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
a) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
c) NOTAM.
d) AIRAC.
70. When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left:
a) When a pilot deems it necessary in the interest of safety;

b) When a right-hand circuit is in force;
c) When a left-hand circuit is in force.
71. While on a flight which is being operated for reward, a pilot deviates from the CAR. The PIC is
required as soon as practical to:
a) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurred, of such deviation without delay.
b) Notify the SACAA of such deviation without delay.
c) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation
occurred, of such deviation within 24 hours.
72. “Reduced Vertical Separation Minima” means:
a) The reduced separation above flight level 280 of aircraft to a 2000 feet in the opposite
direction and 4000 feet in the same direction
b) The reduced separation above flight level 100 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite
c) The reduced separation above flight level 290 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite
73. An infant is defined as being
a) 3 years or younger
b) Not yet reached his/her second birthday
c) 1 year or younger
74. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures.
a) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

b) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c) Precision approach runways in general.
d) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
75. “Flight crew member” means:
a) A licensed crewmember charged with essential duties on an aircraft.

b) A crewmember listed as such on the General Declaration.
c) Any crewmember appointed as such by the operator.
76. No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there
are spare fuse available for use in flight equal to at least:
a) 10% or 3, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for
complete circuit protection
b) 10% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for
complete circuit protection
c) 5% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete
circuit protection
77. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have completed not less than:
a) 100 hours of flight time as PIC cross country and 40 hours of instrument time,
b) 50 hours of flight time as PIC cross country and 40 hours of instrument time,
c) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument time.
78. An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed
by ATC:
a) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the left of the railway line
b) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
c) Remain above a minimum height of 1500 ft AGL
79. You are on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions when you experience a communications failure.
However, an ATC clearance was received restricting you to a level below the flight level specified
in the current flight plan. Your actions should be:
a) Maintain the last assigned flight level for 7 minutes and then climb at a normal rate of
climb to the flight plan level.
b) Climb immediately to the flight plan level.
c) If terrain permits, descend until VMC.
80. “Flight time – aeroplane” means:
a) The total time the aircraft is airborne on a flight

b) The total time from the moment the pilot first starts the engine until the time that the engine is
shutdown, whether the flight has taken place or not
c) The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking-off
until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight
81. “Category I (Cat I) operation” means:
a) A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 500 ft
(152 m) and with either a visibility of not less than 800 m or a RVR of not less than 550 m
b) A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200 ft (60
m) and with either a visibility of not less than 550 m or a RVR of not less than 800 m
c) A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than
200 ft (60 m) and with either a visibility of not less than 800 m or a RVR of not less than
550 m
82. Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA CATS 92, dangerous goods may be transported:
1. In the passenger cabin, occupied by passengers
2. On the flight deck
3. In the cargo compartment
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
83. For twin-engine aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:
a) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only
one engine operative.
b) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
c) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
d) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
84. A series of green flashes of light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing means
a) Cleared for take-off.

b) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
c) Cleared to taxi.
d) Stop
85. The required distance from clouds within a control zone under normal VFR conditions is:
a) 500 meters horizontally and 300 feet vertically

b) 600 meters horizontally and 500 feet vertically
c) 1500 meters horizontally and 1000 feet horizontally
86. As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,

b) 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c) 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
87. ATIS information can be received from:
a) The ILS transmission.

b) At all times from any VOR transmission.
c) From VOR or VHF RT frequencies as published.
88. An applicant for an instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class rating shall inter
alia:
a) Have completed not less than 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours
may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
b) Have completed not less than 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours
c) Have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20
hours may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
89. According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with
passengers on board at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:
a) May do so only with prior permission from the passengers and PIC
b) Have ensured that the pilots have undergone detailed training regarding night flight
operations in single engine aeroplanes
c) Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications
90. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that:
a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board.
b) The aircraft's stairs must be completely extended.
c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
d) All the flight crew must be on board.
91. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by
a) the operator
b) the manufacturer
c) the aircraft manufacturer's list
d) the aircraft state of registry
92. Night duty means a period of not less than 4 hours between
a) 20h00 to 06h00
b) 24h00 to 06h00
c) 02h00 to 06h00
93. No pilot shall fly more than:
a) 6 hours in one day.

b) 100 hours in 30 days.
c) 1 000 hours in 12 months
d) 300 hrs in 3 months
94. An applicant for the initial issue of a Commercial pilot’s licence must pass the practical flight test:
a) Within 36 months from the date of being notified of having passed the examination.
b) Within 24 months of the date of the examination.
c) Within 12 months of the date of the examination.
d) Nil
95. The holder of a pilot’s licence should inform the authority of any illness which they are suffering
which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a
period of a certain number of days or m0re. The number of days is:
a) 60
b) 30
c) 21
d) 90
96. Which class of medical certificate is required for a CPL?
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
97. A private operator shall not operate a twin-engine aircraft, under Part 93, over a route which
contains a point further from an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be
flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 60 minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise
speed unless:
a) The extended range twin-engine operations are conducted in accordance with the
procedures approved for the operator in the operations manual.
b) The pilot has selected two destination alternate aerodromes and the weather is such that for
one hour before and one hour after the ETA the weather conditions are VMC
c) The pilot(s) is(are) type rated and RVSM approved.
98. Lifesaving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water if the distance and time from
the shore is:
a) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four engines
b) 50 miles or 30 minutes, whichever is the lesser,
c) 300 miles or 100 minutes, whichever is the lesser if the aircraft has 2 turbine engines.
99. Part 121 Air Transport Operations applies to:
a) Any South African operator engaged in a commercial air transport operation using an
aircraft registered in the Republic of South Africa operating in an all-cargo
configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass of greater than 8618 kg
b) Any South African operator engaged in a commercial air transport operation using an aircraft
registered in the Republic of South Africa having a certificated take-off mass above 5700 kg
c) Any local and foreign operator engaged in a commercial air transport operation using an
aircraft operating in an all-cargo configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass
of greater than 8618 kg
100. Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing
operations, but not supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway
ends, according to SA CATS 135 is:
a) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400 ft plus a
visibility increment of 1500 m
b) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 200 ft plus a visibility
increment of 800 m
c) In the case of a non-precision approach, the non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to the
MDH and 1000 m added to the RVR/visibility and the ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft
101. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen
throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than
a) 13 000 ft
b) 12 000 ft
c) 11 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft
102. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a
co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than:
a) 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot
licence.
b) 40% of the co-pilot flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
c) 100% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot
licence.
d) 60% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot
licence.
103. Smoking is permitted:
a) Never in aircraft.
b) Within 25 metres of an aircraft.
c) On private flights if the aircraft manual permits smoking on board the aircraft.
104. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with
oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the
pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 12 000 ft.
b) 11 000 ft.
c) 10 000 ft.
d) 13 000 ft.
105. Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require
for operations at night without a SIC?
a) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall be as
PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
b) At least 350 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 100 hours shall be
as PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
c) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall
be as PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
d) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 20 hours shall be as
PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
106. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
a) the manufacturer.
b) the operator.
c) the aircraft manufacturer’s list.
d) the aircraft state of registry.
107. A person who gives false information pertaining to the investigation of any aviation accident or
incident is:
a) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures
brought against them
b) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
c) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
108. Airspace in which aircraft only receive Flight Information services is classified as:
a) Class A
b) Class F
c) Class G
109. A person who exercises a privilege granted by, or uses, any license, rating, certificate, permit,
approval, authorisation, exemption or other document issued under the regulations, of which
he/she or is not the holder, is:
a) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft

b) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures
brought against them
c) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
110. No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical substances for the
purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight except:
a) In a emergency.
b) By special permission granted by the Director of Civil Aviation (DCA).
c) Both a and b are correct.
111. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any
pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:
a) 29 000 ft
b) 13 000 ft
c) 25 000 ft
d) 10 000 ft
112. The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:
a) 3000 m
b) 800 m
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m
113. Instrument rating requirements: the minimum total hour requirement to apply for an Instrument
rating is :
a) 100 hours
b) 150 hours, including 50 hours of cross country time
c) 200 hours, of which 20 hours can be in a FSTD approved for the purpose
d) There is no minimum hour requirement.
114. SA CAR Part 139 refers to:
a) Aerodromes and Heliports

b) Airspaces and Air Traffic Services
c) Air ambulance services
d) Air Transportation: Small aeroplanes
115. The weather conditions at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome are required to:
a) To be at or above the applicable landing minima

b) Comply with the criteria for en route aerodromes
c) Comply with the enhanced minima requirements for destination alternate aerodromes
d) Be equal to or better than applicable minima for take-off
116. When is a take-off alternate aerodrome required?
a) When flying any multi-engine aircraft which is not able to comply with the take-off
performance conditions specified in SA CATS 91
b) When weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the applicable
minima for landing
c) When departing from an aerodrome with SID performance requirements which cannot be
complied with
d) Requirements are specified in SA CATS Parts 121, 127 and 135 and are operator defined
117. Part 121of the CAR is for -
a) Air Transport: large aeroplanes that carry more than 19 passengers

b) Air Transport: Carriage on aeroplanes of more than 20 passengers or cargo
c) Air transport operations: Small aeroplanes
d) Air Transport: Large aeroplanes.
118. Definition of “Transition altitude”:
a) The Transition Altitude specified at major airports, and is where the pilot is expected to set
the QNH in the subscale of the altimeter
b) The Transition altitude is always at 18000 feet and at this point in the climb the pilot will set
1013 in the subscale
c) The Transition altitude is designated at major airports and is given to the pilot on the ATIS;
this is where he or she is expected to contact ATC after departure
d) The Transition Altitude is designated at major airports and is where the pilot will set
1013 on the climb out to a flight level.
119. The term decision height (DH) is used for:
a) a precision approach.
b) a conventional approach.
c) an indirect approach.
d) a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuver.
120. “Extended range operations” means
a) Flights conducted over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time
at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in
still air, from one adequate aerodrome
b) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 90 mins flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate
aerodrome
c) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 2 hrs flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate
aerodrome
121. The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below 10 000
feet is:
a) 200 knots
b) 250 knots,
c) 300 knots.
122. The approval of the Director of Civil Aviation is required to conduct CAT II operations. Where in
South African aviation legislation is this provided for in respect of General aviation operators.
a) Part 127
b) Part 135
c) Part 121
d) Part 91
123. CAT II approaches for General Aviation are found in
a) Part 135 and 121

b) Part 91 – Operation of aircraft
c) Part 127- Commercial operation for General Aviation
d) Technical Standards: part 91
124. During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to:
a) The system minima or MDH, whichever is lower

b) MDH minus circling minima, if included
c) The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
d) The higher of the DH or the State minima
125. “Glider” means:
a) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight depends on the use
of an engine
b) Lighter-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight does not depend on
an engine
c) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the
dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight
does not depend on an engine
126. When can members of the public have access to accident investigations information?
a) Never
b) If the investigator in-charge decides to tell them
c) Only with a court order
d) On completion of the final report
127. Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria.
One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
128. Part 121 Air Transport Operations applies to:
a) Any local and foreign operator engaged in commercial air transport operation using an
aircraft having a maximum certificated passenger seating capacity of 20 or more as
authorized on the initial type certificate issued to such aircraft
b) Any South African operator engaged in commercial air transport operation using an aircraft
registered in the Republic of South Africa having a certificated take-off mass above 5700 kg
c) Any South African operator engaged in commercial air transport operation using an
aircraft registered in the Republic of South Africa having a maximum certificated
passenger seating capacity of 20 or more as authorized on the initial type certificate
issued to such aircraft
a) Aerodromes and heliports

b) Air ambulance operations
c) Foreign Air Operations
130. “Minimum descent altitude” means
a) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be

made without the required visual reference
b) A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made
unless the aircraft is a multi-engine type
c) A specified altitude in a precision approach below which descent may not be made without
the required visual reference
131. Definition of “flight time”:
a) The time from when the aircraft begins its take-off to when it finishes the landing
b) The time from when the Aircraft is airborne to when the undercarriage touches the ground
c) The time when it moves under its own power from the apron to when it parks after the
end of the flight
d) The time the chocks are removed, or the engine starts, to when the engine is cut at the end
of the flight.
132. The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing
shall:
a) Fly overhead the aerodrome at least at circuit altitude to establish the runway in use
b) Fly overhead at least at 2000 ft to establish the runway in use
c) Join the circuit and land on the most convenient runway relative to the aircraft’s position.
133. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:
a) 600 hrs during the preceding 6 months

b) 10 hrs within a 24 hr period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time
and duty period scheme
c) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days
134. “Instrument time” means
a) The time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated flight in an approved
FSTD
b) The entire flight time during which the aircraft is piloted under IFR whether in VMC or IMC
c) Instrument flight time or instrument ground time, as defined
135. Above FL200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud for VFR flight must be:
a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.

b) 5 km visibility, 2 000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.
136. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control
zone when ceiling is less than:
a) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

b) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
c) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
d) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
137. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a) 250 KT IAS
b) 250 KT TAS
c) Not applicable
d) 240 KT IAS
138. In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:
a) Obtain the appropriate Air Service License from the Department of Transport
b) Automatically be granted RVSM, FDP and LVP approvals
c) Establish and implement a fatigue management program
139. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following
minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
a) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
b) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
c) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
d) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
140. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a) The airport is unsafe, do not land

b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
141. May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?
a) Yes, provided the pilot gives permission

b) Never
c) Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed
in document SA CATS 92
142. According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass
of the aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:
a) In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
b) In the case of a small propeller driven aircraft, within 60% of the LDA
c) In the case of any turbojet or turbofan-powered aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
143. In case of communication failure:
a) Squawk A7700 on the transponder

b) Squawk the appropriate code on the transponder, and remain VMC if possible; land at
the destination and contact ATSU immediately on landing
c) Contact a responsible on the ground, and get her/him to contact ATSU as soon as possible
d) Use your mobile phone to contact a responsible person who can then relay messages to the
pilot as to what action to take.
144. In order to conduct single-engine IMC or night flight operation under Part 135:
a) Only the pilot must be rated and the aircraft must meet the required equipment and
operational requirements
b) This operation must specifically be listed as an approval on an operator’s Ops Spec
prior to conducting such a flight
c) The operator must have a valid AOC but such operation does not have to be specifically
listed in its Ops Spec
145. A flight plan not activated within one hour of ETD:
a) Is regarded as cancelled.
b) Is still available if activated within 24 hours of ETD.
c) Is still available if activated within 3 hours of ETD.
d) Is regarded as cancelled if not activated within 30 mins of ETD
146. A person who operates or attempts to operate any aircraft in respect of which no valid certificate of
registration or valid certificate of airworthiness have been issued is:
a) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fined but may have other punitive measures
brought against him
b) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
c) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft
147. To acquire a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating the candidate must have (inter-alia) at least the
following experience:
a) 70 hours PIC on aeroplanes

b) 100 hours PIC on aeroplanes
c) 300 hours total time
d) 6 hours of training.
148. You are the PIC of an aircraft that is being radar vectored for an ILS approach. Met conditions are
IMC. Shortly after descending below minimum sector altitude, you lose communication with ATC.
Select the option below that most correctly describes your next action(s).
a) Immediately climb the aircraft to the minimum sector altitude

b) Squawk 7600, start blind radio telephony broadcast as soon as possible and execute a
spiralling climb to initial approach altitude
c) Fly to an area of known VMC immediately, if unable, maintain the last assigned altitude for 3
minutes provided terrain permits. After 3 minutes, climb at the normal rate of climb to the
flight level last assigned
d) Maintain last assigned flight altitude and heading, squawk 7600 and start blind radio
telephony broadcast as soon as possible
a) Airspace
b) Air ambulance operations
c) Aerodromes and heliports
150. To act as PIC of an aircraft engaged in Part 135 operations, you:
a) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings and must meet the
experience limitations detailed in SA CATS 135
b) May do so once you automatically meet the minimum regulatory experience requirements
even if the published company requirements are higher
c) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings without any experience
limitations
151. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled
airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
a) 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
c) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
d) 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
152. When below 1500 ft above the surface an aircraft’s vertical position is expressed in terms of:
a) Altitudes only
b) Altitudes and heights
c) Altitudes, heights and flight levels
d) Heights only
153. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication
failure. You will:
a) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;

b) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
154. According to RSA AIP en route section, aircraft are subject to speed restrictions within 50 DME
from JSV/PEV/CTV/BLV/ELV. These restrictions apply:
a) To outbound aircraft
b) To inbound aircraft
c) Only when instructed by ATC
d) To both inbound and outbound aircraft
155. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a) glider flying is performed outside the landing area;

b) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
156. The one-engine cruising speed for a multi-engine aircraft which is used to calculate the flight time
for purposes of a take-off alternate aerodrome is based on:
a) The average route mass, e.g: the average of the actual take-off mass and the estimated
landing mass
b) The maximum certificated take-off mass
c) The actual take-off mass
d) The mass at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation using the all-engine operative fuel burn rate
for calculation
157. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:
a) follow ATC instructions.

b) request ATC for other instructions.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder.
158. Supplemental oxygen is used to:
a) provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

b) protect a crew who fights a fire
c) provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
d) assist a passenger with breathing disorders
159. LVP’s are intended to:
a) Prevent runway incursions and taxi-related proximity incidents during periods of extremely
low visibility/RVR
b) Fully protect ILS localiser and glide path signals
c) Ensure only certified personnel operate large vehicles on aerodromes
d) Ensure continuous lighting at aerodromes which are operational at night time.
160. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual
approach"?
a) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach

procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
b) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
c) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome
of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach
161. If an aircraft which is under radar control experiences radio failure, the pilot can expect the
following:
a) He will have to vacate the airspace and conduct a visual approach at a suitable aerodrome
b) The controller will apply procedural aircraft separation until the emergency is resolved
c) The radar controller will instruct the pilot to carry out specific turns to determine
whether he can hear the instructions
d) The radar controller will instruct all other aircraft to vacate the airspace
162. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of
green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) must stop.
b) may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
c) "must return to its point of departure.
d) "is cleared for take-off.
163. When LVPs are in force, the ATC must pass the following additional information to the pilot of
every arriving aircraft:
a) A verbal communication that emergency lighting is operational

b) The depth of deposits on the runway and the current braking coefficient
c) The expected duration of the situation
d) The current RVR readings for the landing runway
164. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time
over and ensuing significant point.
b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point.
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over.
d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
165. The SA radio communication failure procedure for IFR in IMC, as contained in CAR 2011:
a) Correspond to ICAO procedures

b) Have absolutely no relation to ICAO procedures
c) Differ from ICAO procedures in terms of the time spent maintaining the last assigned
speed and level before climbing to the level in the current flight plan
d) Differ from ICAO procedures in several respects
166. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible,
within:
a) 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later

b) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure
c) 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT
d) 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
167. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which
seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are
related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused
by necessary repair.
d) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the
next 48 hours.
168. Which of the following ATC centres in SA does not have radar facilities?
a) FAEL
b) FALE
c) FACT
d) FAGG
169. In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair

b) Squawk 7600
c) Continue the flight in VMC
d) Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
170. An operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless:
a) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90
days
b) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
c) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of
aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding
60 days
d) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or
an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
171. SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:
a) Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that don’t
b) Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
c) Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
d) Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in
the provision of ATC and flights in airspace where it is not
172. If the marshaller: “arms repeatedly crossed above his head” this means:
a) Brakes
b) Chocks
c) Cut engines
d) Stop
173. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can
be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted.
The Mel is drawn up by:
a) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
b) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List
(MMEL)
c) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
d) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
174. Select the option from the list that correctly completes the sentence. In flight when an aircraft is …..
the transition altitude, its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude:
a) At or below
b) Below
c) Above
d) At
175. To conduct a visual approach the pilot must be able to maintain visual reference to the terrain.
Where must the reported ceiling be?
a) For a visual approach, the weather must meet CAVOK criteria

b) At or above the initial approach altitude for the approach
c) Above the intermediate approach altitude
d) Above the level at which the pilot requests the visual approach
176. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the
tower. The aircraft:
a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
b) is cleared to land.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
d) must give way to another aircraft.
177. According to RSA AIP en route section, aircraft are subject to speed restrictions within 15 DME
from JSV/PEV/CTV/BLV/ELV. These restrictions apply:
a) Only when instructed by ATC

b) To inbound aircraft
c) To both inbound and outbound aircraft
d) To outbound aircraft
178. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be
entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
a) estimated ground speed (G/S).

b) indicated air speed (IAS).
c) true air speed (TAS).
d) true air speed at 65% power.
179. A VMC approach is always conducted under:
a) VFR
b) IFR
c) Special VFR
d) Radar control
180. Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is:
a) for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.
b) for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.
c) different for a same airplane type, according to airports.
d) different according to airports and airplane types.
181. The transition level:
a) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

b) is calculated and decided by the commander
c) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
d) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established
182. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption

b) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
183. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the
aircraft shall be expressed in:
a) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude

b) flight level on or below the transition level
c) flight level on or below the transition altitude
d) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
184. While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a) must stop.
b) must return to its point of departure.
c) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
d) must vacate the landing area in use.
185. Noise abatement procedures apply to:
a) Aircraft on a SID
b) Departing aircraft
c) All aircraft
d) All aeroplanes
186. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
a) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.

b) Flight Information Service only.
c) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
187. What information should ATC convey to pilots during LVP?
a) How long it will take before it clears up

b) Detailed description of what is expected of the pilot – taxi speeds, holding points etc
c) Runway RVR values
d) Additional delays that may be caused
188. While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high
increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude
parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase, you
must:
a) maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the
speed evolution.
b) reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.
c) take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.
d) reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.
189. The commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for:
a) 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.

b) 45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions.
c) 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions.
d) 30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.
190. Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
a) These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only.

b) These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
c) These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
d) There are no noise abatement procedures for landing.
191. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into
account :
1. equipment available for navigation
2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,4,5
c) 2,4,5
d) 2,3,5
192. If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
a) select two destination alternates.

b) take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
c) take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
d) (not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast.
193. Noise abatement procedures apply to:
a) Aircraft on SID
b) All aircraft departing and arriving, according to specified procedures
c) Aircraft with turbo-engines only
d) All departing aircraft
194. LVPs are put in place at FACT and FAOR airports so that:
a) Only CAT I and II approach procedures are permitted and the integrity of the ground
equipment is ensured
b) LSA is protected from interference and no vehicles of any sort are allowed to enter this area
whilst aircraft are on the approach (within 10 nm) or departing
c) CAT II and III approaches can be carried out safely
d) Instrument approach procedures are carried out safely by protecting the LSA at the
airport ensuring that the integrity of the localiser and glide slope transmitters are
maintained
195. A commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the
fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
a) fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.

b) 15 minutes of remaining fuel.
c) final reserve fuel remaining.
d) fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome.
196. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an
aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions
required for aerodrome use.
b) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use.
c) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted
time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
197. Who is responsible for setting up a body for aviation regulation and safety?
a) The CAA
b) The president
c) The minister of transport
198. A Private pilot may…..
a) Fly as a safety pilot on condition that he is the holder of a night rating

b) Fly at night without a night rating
c) May carry passengers and cargo for remuneration
199. How many hours must a newly qualified Commercial pilot have before being able to carry
passengers in a single crew multi engine type VFR more than 50 nm from the aerodrome of
departure
a) 100 hours and a suitable type rating

b) 200 hours and a suitable type rating
c) 300 hours and a suitable type rating
d) 500 hours and a suitable type rating
200. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to
standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
a) Transition level.
b) The level specified by ATC.
c) Transition altitude.
d) Transition layer.
201. Definition of “Integrated Aeronautical Package” means a package which consists of –

1. an AIP including an amendment service;
2. supplements to the AIP;
3. NOTAM;
4. AIC; and
5. checklists and summaries;
6. Flight plan
a) 1, 2, 3 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
202. A second sensitive altimeter must be installed on board aeroplanes operated under Part 135 for:
a) All IFR flights

b) All VFR flight
c) All flights above 10 000 ft
d) All flight
203. Except as otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a surveillance radar approach
(SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of
a) 2 nm
b) 5 nm
c) 10 nm
d) 25 nm
204. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight
to be recorded –
a) 7 days in the case of flights not for hire and reward (Part 91 operations), flight training,
and domestic commercial air transport operations;
b) 4 days in the case of international commercial air transport operations;
c) 8 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept.
205. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed….
a) 10 nm from the threshold on final approach

b) 8 nm from the threshold on final approach
c) 6 nm from the threshold on final approach
d) 4 nm from the threshold on final approach
206. An applicant for an Instrument Rating shall…..
a) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least
20 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
b) Have completed not less than 20 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least
10 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
c) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at
least 10 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument
rating is sought.
207. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when nav aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a TAS of 40 knots or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
a) 3 mins
b) 2 mins
c) 7 mins
d) 5 mins
208. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements aircraft under radar
control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than
a) 5.5 nm
b) 2.5 nm
c) 3.5 nm
d) 4.5 nm
209. Definition of “Certificate of Airworthiness”
a) means a certificate issued in terms of Part 108 to a person approved to accept, store, handle
and tender goods for the carriage by air;
b) means formal evaluation and confirmation by or on behalf of the appropriate authority that a
person possesses the necessary competencies to perform assigned functions to an
acceptable level as defined by the appropriate authority;
c) means the certificate of airworthiness referred to in Article 31 of the Convention,
issued in terms of Subpart 8 of Part 21 of the Regulations, and includes an authority to
fly issued in terms of Subpart 2 of Part 24;
210. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR Mode C derived
level info indicated that it is within….
a) ± 200 ft of the assigned level

b) ± 500 ft of the assigned level
c) ± 300 ft of the assigned level
211. If the medical examination for the CPL is suspended by a DAME, the pilot may appeal this
suspension within:
a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 90 days
212. Definition of “Non Precision Approach”
a) means an instrument approach and landing operation that utilises lateral guidance but
does not utilise vertical guidance;
b) means an instrument approach for landing in which precision azimuth guidance and
precision glide path guidance are provided in accordance with the minima prescribed for the
category of operation
c) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with
specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the
beginning of a defined arrival route, to a point from which a landing can be completed and
thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle
criteria apply.
213. An applicant for a type rating in respect of a multi-pilot aeroplane must have –
a) at least 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes;

b) at least 100 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes
c) at least 150 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes
214. Checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of
a) Not more than 1 month

b) Not more than 2 months
c) Not more than 3 months
215. The ATIS broadcast message should whenever practicable not exceed
a) 30 sec
b) 60 sec
c) 90 sec
d) 120 sec
216. A signalman uses the following signal: Arms down with palms towards the ground, then moved up
and down several times: this means:
a) Brakes on
b) Start taxi
c) Slow down
d) Stop
217. The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below
a) 3 nm
b) 5 nm
c) 10 nm
218. An applicant for an ATPL shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
a) 100 hours must be cross-country flight time,

b) 100 hours must be instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be acquired in a
FSTD approved for the purpose; and
c) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or co-pilot
219. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
a) 1000 ft
b) 2000 ft
c) 3000 ft
d) 4000 ft
220. The following minima radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localiser
with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence
a) 1 nm
b) 2 nm
c) 3 nm
d) 4 nm
221. Definition of an “aeroplane”
a) means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of
flight;
b) means an aircraft as defined in the Act, including its engines, propellers, rotor, components,
parts, equipment, instruments, accessories and materials;
c) means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has, with the engine or engines
not operating, the performance characteristics of a glider;
d) means an aeroplane of which the minimum flying speed and the maximum take-off mass
have been restricted for classification purposes. The values of these
e) restrictions are defined in Document SA-CATS 24;
222. Definition of Take-off and Initial climb phase
a) means that part of the flight of an aeroplane from the start of take-off to the end of the climb
in the other cases;
b) means that part of the flight of a helicopter from the start of take-off to 300 m (1 000 ft)
above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or to the
end of the climb in the other cases;
c) means that part of the flight of an aeroplane from the start of take-off to 300 m (1 000 ft)
above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or to the end of
the climb in the other cases;
223. At airfields where there is no published Transition Altitude for arrival or departing IMC flights, the
Transition Altitude shall be:
a) The lowest safe cruising altitude

b) The highest safe altitude
c) 5 000 ft AGL
d) 3 000 ft AGL
224. An applicant for an ATPL shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
a) 50 hours of instrument time, not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time
b) 75 hours of instrument time, not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time
c) 100 hours of instrument time, not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time
d) 75 hours of instrument time, not more than 40 hours may be instrument ground time
225. Which section of the SA CARs would you refer to for information on “ Accidents & Incidents”?
a) Part 91
b) Part 12
c) Part 21
d) Part 61
226. “Aerial work” means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services as
determined by the Director such as –
1. agricultural spraying, cloud spraying, aerial harvesting
2. aerial patrol, observation and survey;
3. aerial advertisement, including banner towing and other towing of objects;
4. search and rescue; parachuting;
5. aerial recording by photographic or electronic means;
6. fire spotting, control and fighting;
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
227. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight
to be recorded –
a) 24 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept;
b) 36 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept
c) 48 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations
away from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept.
228. Definition of taxi
a) means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
b) means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own
power, excluding take-off and landing;
c) means the movement of any vehicle on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
excluding take-off and landing;
229. Normally all turns which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
a) 15° turns
b) 50° turns
c) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC
d) 30° turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC
230. How many hours must a Commercial Pilot have before being able to carry passengers in a single
crew multi engine aircraft under IFR
a) 200 hour total time, 100 hours PIC and 40 multi-engine hours
b) 300 hour total time, 200 hours PIC and 20 multi-engine hours
c) 400 hour total time, 200 hours PIC and 40 multi-engine hours
d) 500 hour total time, 300 hours PIC and 30 multi-engine hours
231. According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome,
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts or a combination of thereof must be at or above the
applicable planning minima for a period of:
a) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETD of the aircraft at the aerodrome
b) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
c) 2 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
d) 1 hour before to 2 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
232. Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a
certain distance from the end of the runway
a) Identification has to be achieved within 5 nm

b) Identification has to be achieved within 3 nm
c) Identification has to be achieved within 2 nm
d) Identification has to be achieved within 1 nm
233. Type rating shall be established
a) For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

b) For all types and classes of aircraft
c) For all aircraft
234. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft
a) Can do whatever he wants

b) He may request and if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
c) May disregard the clearance
235. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover,
when the clouds are….
a) Below 1500 m (5000 ft) or below the lowest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greatest
b) Below 1500 ft or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greatest
c) Below 3000 ft or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greatest
d) Below 1500 m (5000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greatest
236. Except when a clearance is obtained from ATC unit a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control
zone when the ceiling is less than:
a) 2000 ft or visibility is less than 5 km

b) 1500 ft or visibility is less than 8 km
c) 1500 ft or visibility is less than 5 km
d) 2000 ft or visibility is less than 8 km
237. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is
a) To provide radar separation

b) To provide secondary separation
c) To provide secondary surveillance separation
d) To provide air traffic control
238. An applicant for a licence, rating, revalidation, class or type rating or any familiarisation or
differences training must have the applicable endorsements in his or her pilot logbook as described
in Document SA-CATS 61. (2) The endorsement must include, but is not limited to, the following
details –
1. Date of the skills test;
2. Aircraft registration and type;
3. Name of student
4. Name and licence number of examiner;
5. Name of the ATO.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
239. The skills test for CPL (Aeroplane) may be conducted by:
a) Grade III instructor

b) Grade I or II Instructor
c) DFE I or II
d) All of the above
240. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment the pilot….
a) Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC

b) May operate this mode at his discretion
c) Only operate this mode when instructed to do so by ATC
d) Only when flying in controlled airspace
241. A so called visual approach can be performed
a) During IFR flights, if there is permanent sight of the movement area and the
underlying ground
b) Only during VFR flights
c) Only if the PIC is rated to perform a Cat II approach
d) Only in IMC
242. The holder of a CPL, having completed a MCC course, when acting as co-pilot performing under
the supervision of the PIC, the functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited …
a) In full with no flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
b) a maximum of 500 hours with such flight time towards the PIC flight time experience
required for the ATPL in the same aircraft category, provided that the supervision is in
accordance with a programme approved by the Director and such PIC time under
supervision has been countersigned by the PIC.
c) with not more than 50 % of the PIC flight time towards the total time required for a higher
grade pilot licence
243. Where SSR is not available, radar identification may be achieved by the following procedure
a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 360 degrees or more
b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45 degrees or more
c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 180 degrees or more
d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30 degrees or more
244. Maintenance of competency for a CPL (Aeroplane) - in the case of a holder of a CPL where the
maintenance of competency has lapsed by not more than 36 months, the licence holder shall be
required to:
a) comply with the initial issue requirements of Subpart 61.05.

b) rewrite the Air Law examination; undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved
ATO to reach the standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and
meet the recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass an initial licence skills test in the
same category of aircraft.
c) passing a revalidation check or an initial licence skills test in the same category of aircraft
d) undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the
standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and meet the
recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass a revalidation check in the same
category of aircraft;
245. With reference to “Approach Ban” – The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if –
a) at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or,
where there is no FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in
the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 feet above the aerodrome;
b) the aircraft is on a flight where a landing is not intended
c) the RVR is varying between distances less than the minimum RVR.
246. Who may have access to the scene of an accident:

1. An investigator
2. A member of the media
3. An advisor
4. A member of the public
5. A member of the rescue team
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
247. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS)
a) It may not supply any information to the users

b) It can supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply
ATC services
c) It may give clearances to the users if so requested
d) It may give clearances to the users when ATC not in operation
248. Part 135 cargo operations applies to:
a) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or
less
b) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 kg or
more
c) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of
8618 kg or less
d) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or
more
249. In the case of an unsuccessful skills test or revalidation check, the pilot must undergo remedial
training with a flight instructor, other than the person who conducted such skills test or revalidation
check, before submitting him or herself for a recheck: Provided that no recheck may be conducted
within ……. of an unsuccessful skills test.
a) 4 hours
b) 30 hours
c) 72 hours
d) 7 days
250. The aerodrome operating minima for a specific type of approach and landing procedure shall be
applicable if –
a) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach, are inoperative;
b) the required aircraft performance criteria are not complied with; and
c) the ground equipment shown on the respective instrument approach and landing
chart required for the intended procedure, is operative;
d) the flight crew is not qualified to conduct the type of approach.
251. A precautionary kit shall be carried on board an aircraft for which the maximum certificated
passenger seating is:
a) 10 or more
b) 15 or more
c) 20 or more
d) 30 or more
252. “Instrument ground time” means:
a) time during which a pilot is practicing instrument flight in a FSTD

b) time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated instrument flight in a
FSTD approved by the Director;
c) means time during which the aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without
external reference points, whether under actual or simulated flight conditions;
253. Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
a) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years may not act as pilot of an
aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations, except as a member of
a multi-pilot crew and provided that such holder is the only member of the multi-pilot crew
who has attained the age of 60 years
b) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as PIC of an
aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations.
c) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as pilot of
an aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations, except as a
member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that such holder is the only member of the
multi-pilot crew who has attained the age of 60 years
254. In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:
a) Shall only employ pilots with an ATPL

b) Shall be certified to operate under Part 121 and 135
c) Shall establish and implement fatigue management program
255. “Pilot-in-command under supervision (PICUS)” means:
a) a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC

b) Flying as PIC of an aircraft
c) a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of the
PIC in accordance with a method of supervision acceptable to the Authority;
d) a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of the PIC
256. Alert phase is defined as follows:
a) A situation where an emergency exists

b) A situation where an aircraft has been involved in an incident
c) A situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of the aircraft and its
occupants
d) Another name for a hazard
257. The ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of – all flights to be conducted in controlled or advisory
airspace: Provided that this requirement shall not apply in respect of –
a) an international flight;
b) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and
search and rescue services; and
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with
ATSUs in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose
of identification.
d) a local flight;
258. Which additional documents are to be carried on board an aircraft engaged in International flights?
1. the general declaration

2. if passengers are carried, the passenger manifest
3. if cargo is carried, a manifest and detailed declaration of the cargo
4. if a flight in RVSM airspace is contemplated – a) a valid RVSM licence endorsement issued
by the Director; and b) if applicable, a valid RVSM operational approval for the particular
RVSM airspace;
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3
259. ’Missed approach point’’ means;
a) The point on an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed

missed approach procedure shall be initiated.
b) A defined point on a final approach of a non-precision approach procedure, from which a
normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided
the visual references are present.
c) The point in an instrument approach procedure after which the prescribed missed approach
procedure shall be initiated.
260. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation may be reduced
a) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own separation
b) Only for IFR flights
c) When instructed to do so by ATC
d) When within the TMA
261. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed
a) Aircraft identification, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over
b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, next position and time over
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time
over
d) Aircraft identification, position, time, next position and time over
262. The ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of –
a) a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles

b) an international flight;
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and
search and rescue services; and
d) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with
ATSUs in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose
of identification.
263. When an aircraft is being intercepted:
a) the PIC must immediately try to establish radio contact with the intercepting aircraft
on 121.5 Mhz
b) The PIC must immediately communicate using visual signals
c) The PIC may disregard the intercepting aircraft if he has filed a flight plan
d) The PIC should immediately warn the passengers
264. Notification of accidents or incidents outside of the republic:

1. The appropriate authority
2. The Director
3. ATSU
4. SAP
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3
265. Does the release of service pertain to:

a) Annual scheduled maintenance only
b) Specific line maintenance
c) Both
266. Except for other equipment prescribed for IFR flights it is necessary that …..
a) The flight crew wear watches showing hours, minutes and seconds
b) The flight crew have stop watches
c) The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes and
seconds
d) The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes
267. A marshaller signal: “Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward.
The hand is moved side wards with the arm remaining bent” – indicates:
a) Stop
b) Brakes
c) Cut engine
d) Chocks
268. In the event of communication failure the squawk code to be selected on the transponder is:
a) 7600
b) 7500
c) Maintain assigned squawk code and ident
d) 7700
269. How long should you keep the release of service for your aircraft?
a) 2 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 9 months
270. One of the functions endorsed by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service
is:
a) To conduct a precision radar approach (PAR)

b) To provide taxi clearance
c) To provide Air Traffic Flow Management
d) To provide departure and arrival procedures
271. The approach control service is an ATC service
a) In uncontrolled airspace
b) To flights during the en route phase
c) For Air Traffic flow Management
d) Provided for arriving and departing controlled flights
272. One of the functions ensured by the radar control unit for the provision of approach control service
is
a) To provide Air Traffic Flow Management

b) To conduct surveillance radar approaches
c) To conduct Non-precision approaches
d) To conduct circling approaches
273. If a skills test or revalidation check is conducted within 90 days prior to the expiry date of
competency then the new expiry date:
a) Will be calculated from the date on which the paperwork is handed in at CAA
b) Be calculated from the date of expiry of the existing licence
c) Will be calculated from the end of the month in which the paperwork is handed in at CAA
d) Will be calculated from the date on which the skills test took place
274. Notification of accidents or incidents in order of priority:
a) The Director, an ATSU, nearest police station

b) Nearest Police station, the Director, an ATSU
c) An ATSU, nearest police station, the Director
a) Aerodromes and Heliports

b) General Aviation
c) Foreign Operators
d) Classification of Airspace
276. The revalidation check for a licence other than a PPL must be done by a
a) Grade II flight instructor.

b) DFE.
c) Grade I flight instructor.
277. The weather condition at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome required to
a) Be at or above the applicable landing minima.

b) Comply with the criteria for en-route aerodrome.
c) Comply with the enhanced minima requirement for destination alternate aerodrome.
d) Be equal to or better than applicable minima for take- off.
278. When is a take-off alternate aerodrome required?
a) When flying any multi-engine aircraft which is not able to comply with the take-off
performance conditions specified in SA-CATS 91,
b) When weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the applicable
minima for landing.
c) When departing from an aerodrome with SID performance requirement which cannot be
comply complied with.
d) Requirements are specified in SA-CARS part 121, 127, 135 and 138 and are operator
defined.
279. During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to
a) The system minima or MDH, whichever is lower.

b) MDH minus circling minima, if included.
c) The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
d) The higher of the DH or the state minima.
280. The lowest RVR minima to be used for a category I precision approach is;
a) 1200 m
b) 800 m
c) 550 m
d) 200 ft
281. If an aircraft which is under radar control experience radio failure, the pilot can expect the following:
a) He will have to vacate the airspace and conduct a visual approach at a suitable aerodrome
b) The controller will apply procedural aircraft separation until emergency is resolved
c) The radar controller will instruct the pilot to carry out specific turns to determine
whether he can hear the instructions
d) The radar controller will instruct all other aircraft to vacate the airspace
282. Medical for CPL
a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3
d) Class 4
283. The minimum vertical separation between the transition altitude and the transition level will be
a) 500 ft
b) 1000 ft
c) 1500 ft
d) 2000 ft
284. Within how many days following any skills test shall the forms be submitted
a) 14 days
b) 15 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days
285. A natural or artificial entity holding a valid licence and operating certificate or equivalent thereof
authorising such persons to conduct scheduled or non-scheduled commercial air services is
a) An operator
b) Civil Aviation Authority
c) Manufacturer
d) Department of Transport
286. What is the “manoeuvering area”
a) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and aprons but excluding
taxiways
b) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including taxiways and aprons but excluding
runways
c) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and taxiways but
excluding aprons
d) part of aerodrome including runways, taxiways and aprons
e)
287. What are the lowest minima to be used by an operator for a circling approach. “Category B”
a) Visibility 1500 m, MDH 400 ft

b) Visibility 1600 m, MDH 500 ft
c) Visibility 2400 m, MDH 700 f
d) Visibility 3600 m, MDH 800 ft
288. A “Flight Simulation Training Device” (FSTD) is:

1. full flight simulator realistically simulated
2. flight procedure trainer – simulates flight characteristics of a particular class .
3. basic instrument flight trainer simulates an aircraft in flight in instrument flight
conditions.
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) None of the above
289. Dangerous goods may be stowed
a) Only in the flight deck

b) In the passenger cabin only
c) Only in the cargo compartment
290. An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied
to:
a) All instruments
b) All equipment
c) Required flight instruments
291. The PIC of an aircraft may pick up an object:
a) With approval from the Director

b) Only when he/she has obtained prior written approval from the Director
c) At the discretion of the PIC
d) With permission from the Operator
292. The minimum height an aircraft may fly over an airfield:
a) 500 ft
b) 1000 ft
c) 1500 ft
d) 2000ft
293. When an aircraft is flying at less than 1500ft AGL:

a) Must comply with semi-circular rule
b) May fly in any direction
c) Must fly at odd altitudes
d) May not fly at less than 1500 ft AGL
294. When planning a non-precision approach at the destination alternate aerodrome:
a) Add 200 ft to the MDH and 800 m to the RVR

b) Add 200 ft to the MDH and 1000 m to the RVR
c) Add 400 ft to the MDH and 1500 m to the RVR
d) Add 400 ft to the MDH and 2000 m to the RVR
295. No person shall fly an aircraft within a prohibited airspace:
a) Below the height specified above the surface

b) Above the height specified above the surface
c) Below 1500 ft AGL
296. An example of a class rating is:
a) Aeroplane
b) Helicopter
c) Single engine piston aeroplane – land
d) Multi engine turboprop aeroplane
297. When may you convert visibility to RVR?
a) Only with permission from ATC

b) For calculating take-off minima
c) Never
d) At night with no lighting
298. Define a “current flight plan”:
a) Means the navigation flight plan

b) Means the air traffic service flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by
subsequent clearances;
c) Includes the pax manifest, cargo manifest & general declaration
d) Is the plan included in the Aeronautical package
299. When is an aircraft required to be equipped with Terrain Awareness and Warning Systems
(TAWS)?
a) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorised to carry

more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
b) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700
kg or authorised to carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
c) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry
more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
d) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or
authorised to carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
300. At which of the following SA aerodromes are noise abatement procedures not in force?
a) Lanseria
b) Wonderboom
c) Mathaba
d) Bloemfontein
301. The operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each IFR
flight unless:
1. Isolated aerodrome
2. 2 separate runways
3. Duration of the flight from departure taking into account all the operational information
for a period of at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA and can be made in
VMC
4. Sufficient fuel to hold for at least 2 hours
5. Weather for 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA is above the applicable minima
a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 4 & 5
c) 1, 3 & 5
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
302. An “Aircraft Flight Manual”:
a) means a manual acceptable to the State of Operator, containing normal, abnormal and
emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraft
systems and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft as prescribed in Parts
121, 127 and 135 and may incorporate the AFM, referred to in regulation 91.03.2;
b) means a manual which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions,
with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or
more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type
c) means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing
limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions
and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the
aircraft;
303. Route MORA values are computed on the basis of:
a) an area extending 5 NM to either side of route centreline and including a 5 NM radius beyond
the radio fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route segment;
b) an area extending 10 km to either side of route centreline and including a 10 km radius
beyond the radio fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route segment;
c) an area extending 5 km to either side of route centreline and including a 5 km radius beyond
the radio fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route segment;
d) an area extending 10 NM to either side of route centreline and including a 10 NM
radius beyond the radio fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route
segment;
304. Flying from A to B at FL 90 in IMC. En route you fly overhead an aerodrome with a QNH of 1001:
a) Change your altimeter to QNH

b) It is of no concern to you as you are flying overhead
c) Advise ATC that you are flying on QNE
d) Be vigilant, your actual altitude is lower than the indicated FL
305. Which of the aerodromes in SA do not have radar facilities?
a) Kruger Mpumalanga
b) Cape Town International Airport (FACT)
c) East London Airport (FAEL)
d) Port Elizabeth Airport (FAPE)
306. A “Danger Area” means:
a) An area of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of

aircraft may exist at specified times.
b) any area on an aerodrome or heliport defined as such by the aerodrome or heliport
licence holder; or
c) an airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which an air traffic advisory
service is available
d) means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft
307. May a passenger sit in the co-pilot seat in an aircraft operated under Part 135?
a) Never
b) Only in an aircraft operated under Part 91
c) Not in an aircraft operated under Part 135
d) An operator of aeroplanes certificated or authorised for flight with one pilot may use
the second seat on the flight deck as a passenger seat
308. RVR may be calculated as follows:
a) RVR =visibility x factor

b) RVR = visibility / factor
c) RVR = visibility – factor
d) RVR = visibility + factor
309. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control
tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
a. not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

b. not land because the airport is not available for landing.
c. give way to another aircraft.
d. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
310. Psychoactive substances:
a. Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis, cocaine, tobacco and caffeine
b. Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
tobacco and caffeine
c. Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
d. Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
311. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following
minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
a. 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
b. 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
c. 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
d. 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
312. The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated
medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided
that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
a. A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
b. Two consecutive periods each of six month, in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
engaged in non-commercial operations.
c. A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non-commercial operations.
d. Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
313. Training in a FSTD:
a) May not be logged

b) May be logged
c) May be logged provided it is certified by the instructor
d) Does not count towards your total time
314. Which ATC has secondary radar:
a) Cape Town International Airport (FACT)

b) East London Airport (FAEL)
c) Port Elizabeth Airport (FAPE)
d) Bloemfontein Airport (FABL)
315. The South African radio communication failure procedures for IFR in IMC:
a) Are the same as those used by ICAO

b) Differ from the ICAO procedure in terms of the time spent maintaining the last
assigned flight level
c) Differ from the ICAO procedure in terms of flight levels
d) Is only applicable to foreign registered aircraft operating within South African airspace
316. The noise abatement procedure at 1 500 FT AGL to 3000 FT AGL is:
a) Reduce thrust to climb power. Climb at V2 + 10 to 20 knots

b) Reduce Thrust (if not already reduced) to not less than climb power / thrust
c) Accelerate smoothly to en-route climb speed with flap retraction on schedule.
d) Fly a maximum speed of 250 KIAS
317. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are
prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
a. VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or
equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
b. ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH
required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
c. VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
d. ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH
required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with
one engine out
318. In the event of an engine failure, which transponder code would you squawk?
a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 2000
319. What is the minimum vertical separation between transition altitude and transition level?
a) 500 ft
b) 1000ft
c) 1500 ft
d) 2000 ft
320. South African altimeter setting procedures have to be complied with:
a) By only IFR aircraft

b) By only VFR traffic
c) By all aircraft operating in level flight at or above 1500 ft above ground or water
d) By all aircraft operating in level flight at or below 1500 ft above ground or water
321. If no one-engine operative speed is given for a twin aircraft, use:
a) Minimum control speed

b) Minimum control speed plus 20 kts
c) Speeds for holding
d) Speeds for missed approach
322. All aircraft are required to carry a first aid kit which must be:
a. Must be readily accessible to crew only

b. Must be stowed on the flight deck
c. Must be readily accessible to crew and pax
d. May only be opened by a medical doctor or nurse
323. No person shall fly an aircraft within an aerodrome traffic area at an indicated airspeed of more
than:
a. 160 kts in the case of reciprocating-engine aircraft or 200 kts in the case of turbine
powered aircraft
b. 160 kts in the case of reciprocating-engine aircraft or 180 kts in the case of turbine powered
aircraft
c. 140 kts in the case of reciprocating-engine aircraft or 250 kts in the case of turbine powered
aircraft
324. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a
clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
a. The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
b. The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
c. Continued approach will be according to VFR
d. The approach must be passing the FAF
325. Pilots may fly RNAV routes provided they have:
a) done initial GNSS training and the 12 month revalidation is valid.

b) done GNSS training and the 6 month revalidation is valid.
c) done initial GNSS training and revalidation every 3 months.
326. When flying below transition altitude, the aircraft is flown according to:
a) Flight levels
b) Altitude
c) Both
327. Except with the written permission of the CCA no aircraft shall circle over or within 1 km of or make
repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons below a height of:
a. 3 000 ft above the surface

b. 2 000 ft above sea level
c. 1 000 ft above the surface
328. Except by individual permission from the CAA aircraft shall not be flown aerobatic ally inter alia:
a. in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 4 nm of an aerodrome

b. within 5 nm from an aerodrome unless at a height of not less than 4 000 ft agl
c. in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 8 nm from an aerodrome
329. Flying above FL200 on a magnetic track of 240 requires:
a. FL290 and flight visibility 5 km and horizontally 2 km from cloud

b. FL280 and flight visibility 8 km and horizontally 1,5 km from cloud
c. FL280 and flight visibility 8 nm and horizontally 1,5 nm from cloud
330. An aircraft intercepting in front and to the left rocking its wings means:
a. follow me away from a prohibited area

b. follow me to a landing area
c. extend your landing gear
331. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
a. The width of the aircraft wing.

b. The length of the aircraft fuselage.
c. The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
d. Only the aircraft wing span.
332. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
a. only in NOTAM
b. only in AIP
c. NOTAM, AIP and MAL
d. in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
333. The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or
graphical information are published as follows:
a. NOTAM
b. Trigger NOTAM
c. AIP Supplements
d. AIP Amendments
334. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed
in case:
a. it is a deviation from the track.

b. the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
c. of an emergency.
d. the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
335. The pilot in command of an aircraft:

1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a. 2-3-5
b. 3-5
c. 3-4-5
d. 1–4
336. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
a. the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance
with the requirements of the licensing authority
b. 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c. to a maximum of 500 hours with such flight time towards total time required for higher
grade of pilot licence
d. in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher
grade of pilot licence
337. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

b. Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c. Come back and land.
d. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
338. An aircraft with a mass in excess of 5 700 kg operated in commercial air transportation shall:
a. except in emergency, not land at an unlicensed aerodrome
b. land at a unlicensed aerodrome
c. land at a unlicensed aerodrome provided the pilot has satisfied himself that there is no
danger involved
339. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
a. Read back only the code to be set.

b. Read back the mode and code to be set.
c. Use only the word ROGER.
d. Use only the word WILCO
340. An extended flight over water, aircraft not equipped with life rafts is limited to:
a. gliding distance from the shore except during take-off and landing
b. to route where no portion of the flight is further than 50 nm from the shore
c. to route where no portion of flight is further than 90 minutes from the shore, calculated at the
cruising speed of the aircraft
341. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
a. to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than

commercial air transportation
b. to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
c. to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in
commercial air transportation
d. none of the answers are correct
342. For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
a. 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
b. 5 hours of night flight time including 10 take offs and 10 landings as pilot in command
c. 5 hours of night flight time including 10 take offs and 10 landings either as pilot in command
or as co-pilot
d. 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
343. A vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall, as far as practicable, keep to the:
a. right
b. left
c. centre
344. An unmanned aerodrome with runway directions 18/36 is approached from the West. The wind is
160/20. The correct procedure is to:
a. make a direct approach to runway 18

b. fly overhead the aerodrome, join left hand downwind and land on runway 36
c. fly overhead the aerodrome, join left hand downwind and land on runway 18
345. The total hours required by an applicant for a commercial pilot’s license shall include:
a. 100 hours as PIC, 20 hours of cross country flight time, 10 hours of night flying as PIC
and 20 hours of instrument flight instruction
b. 75 hours as PIC, 75 hours of cross country flight time, 20 hours of night flying as PIC and 20
hours of instrument flight instruction
c. 100 hours as PIC, 20 hours of cross country flight time, 20 hours of night flying as PIC and
40 hours of instrument flight instruction
346. The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a
co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
a. 100 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade
of pilot licence
b. 30 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a
pilot licence
c. 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
d. 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a
pilot licence
347. "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is
applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the
appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights
are considered essential traffic one to each other.
a. Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.

b. All IFR flights.
c. Only controlled IFR flights.
d. All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
348. Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with
no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course.
Which has the right of way?
a. Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right

b. Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching
c. Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
d. Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
349. If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall
suspend that license:
a. for a maximum of 14 days

b. for a period not exceeding 6 months
c. until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical
requirements
350. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance.
What action must be taken?
a. Squawk 7700
b. The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as
circumstances permit
c. Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
d. Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
351. How many hours must a commercial pilot have before being able to carry passengers in a single
crew multi engine aircraft under IFR?
a. 400 hours Total Time 200 hours PIC and 100 hours multi hours
b. 400 hours Total Time 200 PIC and 40 hours multi hours
c. 400 hours Total Time 100 PIC and 40 hours multi hours
352. All aircraft must carry a supplemental oxygen supply if operated above:
a. at altitudes of 12 000 ft for 1 hour

b. an altitude above 10 000 ft for 2 hours
c. an altitude above F120
353. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a. outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
b. while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
c. outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
d. on the ground when the engines are running
354. In any one month a pilot not regularly assigned as a flight crew member may fly:
a. 100 hours
b. 150 hours
c. 120 hours
355. The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering
which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a
period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 21
356. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
consecutive weeks and:
a. On at least 20 days consecutively

b. On at least 20 occasions
c. On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
d. On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
357. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than:
a. 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command

b. 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
c. 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training
as a pilot of aeroplanes
d. 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
358. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and
for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this
shall include the preparation and origination of:
a. Only NOTAM's and Circulars.

b. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
c. Only AIP and NOTAM's.
d. AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
359. In a case of special VFR flight within a control zone an aircraft, in respect of a cross country flight,
may leave when the ground visibility is equal to or greater than:
a. 5 km and ceiling 1 500 ft

b. 3 km and ceiling 600 ft
c. 1.5 km and clear of cloud
360. How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being able to carry
passengers in a single crew multi engine type VFR more than 50 nautical miles from the
aerodrome of departure?
a. 300 hours and a suitable type rating

b. 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating
c. 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating
361. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
a. Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.

b. Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
c. Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
d. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
362. The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of
the AIP
a. AD
b. MAP
c. ENR
d. GEN
363. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of
the authorization:
a. Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
b. Is only considered for PPL.
c. Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
d. Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
364. When does the Commissioner not require 2 crew in a small commercial Air transport turbo prop or
turbo jet under IFR or by night
a. A/C certified for 1 crew and operator has a recurrent training programme for the pilot
b. A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with altitude and heading hold
c. A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with auto pilot with altitude and heading hold
and boom mike
365. How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being able to carry
passengers more than 50 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure under VFR?
a. 200 hours and a suitable type rating

b. 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating
c. 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating
366. After a flight a passenger list:
a. must be retained for 90 days

b. must be retained for 3 months
c. can be destroyed once the flight has been completed
367. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a. Providing advisory service

b. Achieving separation between controlled flights
c. Achieving separation between IFR flights
d. Providing flight Information Service
368. No pilot who is a member of a multi crew aircraft undertaking an IFR flight shall exceed:
a. 10 hours in any one week

b. 37 hours in any 14 days
c. 120 hours in any one month
369. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the
tower. The aircraft:
a. must give way to another aircraft.

b. must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
c. is cleared to land.
d. must land immediately and clear the landing area.
370. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
a. Not more than 28 days

b. Not more than 2 months
c. Not more than one month
d. Not more than three months
371. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
a. Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.

b. Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
c. Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
d. Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
372. Circling to land MDA refers to:
a. aerodrome elevation
b. runway elevation
c. both a and b
373. When carrying out a non-precision approach the MDA refers to:
a. the aerodrome elevation

b. the runway elevation
c. the runway threshold elevation
374. An aircraft specified to have a Flight Data Recorder may commence a flight with the FDR
inoperative, from an aerodrome where the FDR can be repaired;
a. but must be fixed within 48 hours

b. can depart if no on the MEL
c. cannot depart until FDR is replaced or repaired
375. Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
a. 24 months until age of 50, 12 months above the age of 50

b. 24 months until age of 40, 12 months above the age of 40
c. 24 months until age of 30, 24 months thereafter
d. 24 months until age of 60, 12 months thereafter
376. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
a. as flight level.
b. according pilot's choice.
c. as altitude.
d. as height.
377. Licence holders shall not consume alcohol:
a. Less than 8 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the
concentration of alcohol in the blood is more than 0.08 gram per millilitres.
b. Less than 10 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the
concentration of alcohol in the blood is more than 0.02 gram per millilitres.
c. Less than 12 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while the
concentration of alcohol in the blood is more than 0.08 gram per millilitres
d. Less than 8 hours prior to reporting time for operational duty, commence duty while
the concentration of alcohol in the blood is more than 0.02 gram per millilitres
378. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:
a. request ATC for other instructions.

b. select code A7500 on your transponder.
c. follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d. follow ATC instructions.
379. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a. The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

b. Give way to other aircraft in emergency
c. Continue circling and wait for further instructions
d. The airport is unsafe, do not land
380. Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet?
a. the operator
b. the pilot in command
c. the loadmaster
381. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a. 25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 15 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD
b. 25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD.
c. 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 5 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD .
d. 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired
in a FSTD.
382. Air Traffic Control operates in:
a. control zones, aerodrome traffic zones and in upper airways

b. aerodrome traffic zones, aerodrome traffic areas and terminal control areas
c. aerodrome traffic areas, terminal control areas and upper airways
383. At an airfield with an AFIS, the AFIS:
a. issues clearances and controls the aircraft in the ATA

b. issues clearances and controls the aircraft in the ATZ
c. gives information to expedite traffic, but leaves the decisions to the pilot in command
384. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........
hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not
less than ........ km (- NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes
shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
a. 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

b. 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
c. 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
d. 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
385. Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
a. Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
b. OCA or OCH
c. DME-frequencies
d. Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
386. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a. 100 hours as pilot in command

b. 100 hours as pilot in command or as co-pilot
c. 70 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
d. 70 hours as pilot in command
387. The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
a. White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.

b. White colour identification given by Morse Code.
c. Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
d. Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
388. Alerting service shall be provided:
a. In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS.
b. For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful
interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or
otherwise known to the ATS.
c. For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
d. To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.
389. The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of
another controlled flight when:
a. Requested by the pilot and during the day light.

b. Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown.
c. This procedure is not allowed.
d. Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
390. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to
illness, the authority must be informed:
a. if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
b. After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
c. as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
d. after one calendar month of consecutive illness
391. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to
the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?
a. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

b. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
c. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of
the intercepted aircraft.
d. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
392. An applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall
have completed at least 50 hours:
a. Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at

least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
b. 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of
which at least 10 hours shall be in category of aircraft for which rating is sought.
c. Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall
be in aeroplanes.
d. Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
393. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
a. CAN NOT COMPLY

b. UNABLE TO COMPLY
c. NOT POSSIBLE
d. CAN NOT
394. The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve is:
a. 1 500 ft
b. 2 000 ft
c. 500 m
d. 1500 m
395. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that reports are made to the responsible ATSU
as soon as possible of the time and level of passing each compulsory reporting point, when:
a. Flying in controlled airspace only

b. Flying in controlled or uncontrolled airspace
c. Flying in controlled or uncontrolled airspace or on a flight for which alerting action is
being provided
d. Flying in controlled airspace or on a flight for which alerting action is being provided
396. The applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ......
hours of cross-country flight time, including one flight of not less than …… NM.
a. 15 hours and 100 NM

b. 25 hours and 200 NM
c. 20 hours and 300 NM
d. 10 hours and 50 NM
397. No person shall operate an aircraft over water equivalent to ….. minutes at normal cruising speed
or ….. NM, whichever is the lessor unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts and survival
equipment:
a. 30 mins and 50 nm.

b. 50 mins and 30 nm.
c. 50 mins and 50 nm.
d. 30 mins and 30 nm.
398. From 1 500 feet above the surface to FL100 flight visibility and distance from cloud must be:
a. one nautical mile and clear of cloud

b. 5 km visibility, 2 000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically
c. 5 km visibility, 1 nm horizontally and 1 000 ft vertically
d. 8 km visibility, 2 000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically
399. In order to fly according to visual flight rules, below 1000 feet outside controlled airspace, the flight
visibility must be at least:
a. 5 km
b. 3 km
c. 1.5 km
400. Acrobatic flight, including spins, may not take place, except with the permission of the CAA:
a. below 4 000 ft
b. below 2 000 ft
c. below 3 000 ft
d. below 1500 ft
401. No person shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an aircraft, except;
a. In an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or its occupants

b. For the purpose of saving human lives,
c. When involved in civil defence or law enforcement operations.
d. All of the above
402. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of
green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a. must return to its point of departure.

b. is cleared for take-off.
c. may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
d. must stop.
403. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be
entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
a. true air speed (TAS).

b. estimated ground speed (G/S).
c. indicated air speed (IAS).
d. true air speed at 65% power.
404. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

b. Switching on and off three times the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
d. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
405. “Night” means the period of time from:
a. sunset to sunrise
b. the end of evening twilight to the beginning of morning twilight
c. 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise
406. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing of take-off, except:
a. in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft

b. with the permission of the Public Roads Department
c. where no licensed aerodrome is available
407. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

a. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of
unlawful interference
b. Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference, shall be informed about this;
c. Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS
unit
d. The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft
within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received;
408. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
a. a current class III medical assessment

b. a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence
c. a current class I medical assessment
d. a current class II medical assessment
409. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:
a. At the discretion of the air traffic controller

b. If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
c. Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
d. When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is
able to maintain own separation
410. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the
aircraft shall be expressed in:
a. flight level on or below the transition level

b. flight level on or below the transition altitude
c. altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
d. altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
411. Air Traffic Service unit means:
a. Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.

b. Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
c. Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.
d. Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
412. The pilot in command shall, prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather forecast for the
destination and alternate aerodromes for a duration of at least:
a. one hour before and one hour after the ETA at both aerodromes
b. the fuel endurance of the aircraft
c. the ETA plus 1.5 hours at both aerodromes
413. No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a Passenger by night unless he has
carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:
a. five take offs and landings within six months of the flight
b. three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight
c. three take offs and landings within six months of the flight
414. A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
a. There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

b. The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
d. The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
415. An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument
rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in
aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
a. 50 hours and 10 hours

b. 40 hours and 10 hours
c. 40 hours and 15 hours
d. 50 hours and 15 hours
416. Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an
aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated airspeed or more than:
a. 180 knots piston engine aircraft and 210 knots turbine powered aircraft
b. 160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft
c. 170 knots piston engine aircraft and 220 knots turbine powered aircraft
417. Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except by individual Permission from the
Commissioner, aircraft shall be flown over built areas at heights:
a. which will permit, in the event of the failure of a power unit, an emergency landing without
due hazard to persons or property on the surface
b. of not less than 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2 000 ft from the
aircraft
c. of not less than 1 500 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2 000 ft from the
aircraft
418. Except in an emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night Unless:
a. the aircraft is equipped with landing lights in accordance with Air Navigation Regulations in
which case such landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and
landing at night
b. the pilot in command is familiar with the aerodrome and that the aerodrome is manned
c. the place of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and the pilot in command
shall be responsible for ensuring that night flying facilities are available for the take-
off or landing
419. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or
cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

b. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
420. If radio contact cannot be made between an intercepting aircraft and an Intercepted aircraft, visual
signals shall be used. If the intercepting aircraft rocks its wings while in front of and to the left of
the intercepted aircraft, this means:
a. follow me away from a prohibited area

b. leave the prohibited area by reversing track
c. follow me to a landing terrain
421. You are requested to fly a foreign registered aeroplane for which you Have the appropriate type
rating on your South African licence.
a. you may fly the aeroplane in South African airspace subject to SA Air Navigation Regulations
b. you may fly the aeroplane with written permission of the owner
c. you may not fly the aeroplane if you do not hold a licence as prescribed under the
laws of the country in which the aeroplane is registered
422. From above FL100 up to and including FL200 flight visibility and distance from cloud must be:
a. 5 km visibility, horizontally 2 000 ft and 500 ft vertically

b. 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 ft vertically
c. 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.8 km and 1 500 ft vertically
423. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
a. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.

b. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
c. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
d. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
424. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
a. VIP (Head of state) aircraft

b. Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
c. Emergency aircraft
d. Military aircraft
425. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
a. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

b. NOTAM.
c. AIRAC.
d. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
426. While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a. must vacate the landing area in use.

b. must stop.
c. must return to its point of departure.
d. may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
427. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
a. Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.

b. Time separation and track separation.
c. Composite separation.
d. Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
428. The Alerting Service is provided by:
a. The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.

b. The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
c. Only by ATC units.
d. The Area Control Centres.
429. An unlicensed aerodrome is recognized by:
a. the letter “P” in a circle at the centre of the aerodrome

b. crosses at each end of runways
c. the absence of aerodrome markings
430. The holder of any licence, certificate or rating shall inform the Commissioner of any change of
permanent address within a period of:
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
431. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a. 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz

b. 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c. 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
d. 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
432. Lifesaving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water If the distance and time from
the shore is:
a. 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four engines
b. 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the lesser, if the aircraft has four engines
c. 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the lesser, if the aircraft has three or more engines
433. According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and
given in degrees magnetic:
a. When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.

b. In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
c. When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified
points transmits a PIREP
d. Before landing and take-off
434. Type ratings shall be established
a. only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
b. only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each
type of helicopter
c. all the answers are correct
d. for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
435. The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti-collision beacon and the red Navigation light of another
aircraft on a relative bearing of 030, the bearing remaining constant.
a. there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right

b. there is no danger of collision
c. there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left
436. A flight plan shall be filed at least:
a. 30 minutes before departure

b. 1 hour before departure
c. 1.5 hours before departure
d. 2 hours before departure
437. “Flight” means the time period between the:
a. right side of the runway or taxiway

b. either edge of the runway or taxiway
c. left side of the runway or taxiway
438. The pre-flight inspection of an aircraft is the responsibility of the:
a. Co-pilot
b. flight engineer
c. pilot-in-command
d. operator
439. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a. 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
ground time
b. 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
ground time.
c. 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be
instrument ground time
d. 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
440. From above FL200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud must be:
a. 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 ft vertically

b. 8 km visibility, horizontally 1 500 ft and 500 ft vertically
c. 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.8 km and 1 500 ft vertically
441. Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short
duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is
considered a long duration.
a. Three months or longer

b. Six months or longer
c. One year or longer
d. Two months or longer
442. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
a. 230 kt IAS.
b. 230 kt TAS.
c. 240 kt IAS.
d. 240 kt TAS.
443. On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
a. all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle
b. aircraft taking off or about to take off
c. other vehicles and pedestrians
d. other converging aircraft
444. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
a. the licence is delivered to the pilot

b. the medical assessment is issued
c. the licence is issued or validated
d. the licence is issued or renewed
445. Minimum height when circling over a crowd of people is:
a. 1 000 ft
b. 2 000 ft
c. 3 000 ft
d. not permitted
446. What type of fire extinguisher must be carried on board a SA registered aircraft?
a. dry power type

b. an approved type
c. an approved type using Halon 1211
447. Logging of flight time. Choose the correct statement:
a. 21 days in the case of Part 91 operations

b. 14 days in the case of Part 91 operations and international commercial air operations.
c. 48 hours in the case of Part 91 operations and domestic commercial operations.
d. 7 days in the case of Part 91 operations, flight training and domestic commercial air
operations
448. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

a. AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries
b. AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist
summaries
c. AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
d. AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
449. The pilot in command of an aircraft shall not permit objects to be picked up except:
a. if the aircraft is suitably equipped and such operation is authorised in the operating manual of
the aircraft
b. if such pick up can be made with no hazard to property or persons on the ground
c. with prior authority of the Commissioner for Civil Aviation
450. No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical Substances for the
purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight, except:
a. by special permission granted by the Commissioner for Civil Aviation

b. in an emergency
c. both a and b are correct
451. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
a. The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

b. He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
c. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
d. The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
with ATC.
452. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a. Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

b. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
c. An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
d. Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
453. Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria.
One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
a. Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
b. A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
c. A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
d. Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
454. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a. Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching
fist.
b. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c. Crossing arms extended above his head.
d. Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
455. When a pilot departs from the provisions of CAR’s in the interests of safety he shall:
a. report to the Commissioner of Civil Aviation within a period of seven days

b. as soon as practicable report the matter to the nearest police
c. as soon as practicable report such departure and the reasons therefore to the nearest
convenient air traffic services unit
456. A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:
a. occupy a control seat

b. be able to keep a look out in all directions
c. occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out
457. An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with flight levels according
to magnetic track when flown at a height (above the surface) of less than:
a. 3 000 ft
b. 2 000 ft
c. 1 000 ft
d. 1 500 ft
458. A second sensitive altimeter must be installed on board aeroplanes operated under Part 135:
a. for all flights

b. for all IFR flights
c. when carrying passengers
d. for all VFR flights
459. It is mandatory to notify air traffic services of revised estimated times when such times differ from
the original times by more than:
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 10 minutes
460. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a. 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction of which 5 may be in a FSTD

b. 15 hours of instrument flight time under instruction of which 10 may be in a FSTD.
c. 40 hours of instrument flight time under instruction of which 20 may be in a FSTD.
d. 20 hours of instrument flight time under instruction of which 10 may be in a FSTD.
461. ATIS broadcast
a. Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR

b. Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
c. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
d. Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the
voice channel of a VOR
462. Cloud ceiling as defined shall mean:
a. the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 10 000 ft, covering more
than half the sky
b. the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20 000 ft, covering less
than half the sky
c. the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20 000 ft, covering
more than half the sky
463. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
a. The aircraft owner

b. The airliner operator
c. The commander
d. The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
464. Circuit height at any airfield is:
a. 1 000 ft above airfield elevation

b. 1 000 ft for reciprocating aircraft, 1 500 ft for turbine powered aircraft
c. 1 000 ft above airfield elevation, unless the AIP specifies something different
465. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
responsibility of
a. the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)

b. both air traffic services and the meteorological office
c. the unit as prescribed the states
d. the air traffic services
466. A flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace or advisory airspace must be
submitted at least:
a. 60 minutes before departure

b. 30 minutes before departure
c. 45 minutes before departure
d. 1 hour before departure
467. During a Cat 1 ILS what is the minimum RVR a pilot of a Class D Aircraft may use and when may
this be decreased?
a. 800 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled auto pilot

b. 1 500 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled auto pilot
c. 550 meters if the pilot is recent in terms of Part 91.02.4 a or b
468. You receive an IFR en route clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
a. After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
b. If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
c. Do not take off before 0920
d. The take-off clearance is expected at 0920
469. The pilot in command may depart from the prescribed Rules and Regulations in the interest of
safety, when such a departure has been made the pilot must report it to the:
a. Director General: Department of Transport

b. nearest convenient Air Traffic Service Unit
c. nearest police station
d. Airport manager
470. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received
these ground signals, the pilot must:
a. make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
b. transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.
c. fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
d. switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation
lights twice.
471. Flying above FL200 on magnetic track of 240 degrees requires:
a. FL290 and flight visibility 5 km and horizontally 2 km from cloud

b. FL280 and flight visibility 8 km and horizontally 1.5 km from cloud
c. FL300 and flight visibility 5 km and horizontally 2 km from cloud
472. When an aircraft is intercepted the PIC shall forthwith establish radio contact, if so equipped, and if
radio contact has not already been established. Such contact shall be on:
a. 121.5 mhz
b. 120.5 mhz
c. 125.0 mhz
473. An applicant for a single pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating shall have at least:
a. 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 7 hours dual flight training

b. 5 hours theoretical knowledge and 6 hours dual flight training
c. 7 hours theoretical knowledge and 6 hours dual flight training
d. 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 5 hours dual flight training
474. An applicant for an instrument rating shall:
a. have completed not less than 150 hours of flight time as PIC
b. have completed not less than 100 hours of flight time as PIC
c. have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time as PIC
475. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
a. the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the
aircraft is still airworthy
b. the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a
nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
c. the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is
still airworthy
d. the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy
476. Flights over routes which may be at any point over water away from the shore and for which
insufficient lifesaving rafts and equipment as prescribed are carried on board may not exceed:
a. 90 minutes at cruising speed from the shore

b. a distance of 90 nm from the shore
c. a distance of 50 nm from the shore
d. 60 minutes at cruising speed from the shore
477. Flight time means the total time occupied by a flight:
a. from the moment the aircraft commences its take-off to the moment it has completed the
landing at the end of the flight
b. from the moment the aircraft moves under its own power to the moment it has completed the
subsequent landing
c. from the moment the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of
taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight
478. An aircraft with a mass in excess of 5 700 kg operated in commercial air transportation shall:
a. except in emergency, not land at an unlicensed aerodrome

b. land at an unlicensed aerodrome
c. land at an unlicensed aerodrome provided the pilot has satisfied himself that it is suitable for
the intended use
479. Runway lengths on aeronautical charts are indicated:
a. in hundreds of feet rounded off to the nearest hundred feet

b. in hundreds of meters rounded off to the nearest highest hundred meters
c. in hundreds of meters rounded off to the nearest lowest hundred metres
480. Safety belts must be worn after take-off up to a height of at least:
a. 1 000 ft agl
b. 500 ft agl
c. 2 000 ft agl
d. 1 500 ft agl
481. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
a. If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes

b. Only when leaving controlled airspace
c. If the commander so requests
d. If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
482. The loading limitations shall include:
a. all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
b. all limiting mass and centres of gravity
c. all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
d. all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
483. In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing
authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
a. A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
engaged in non-commercial operations.
b. Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations
c. A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
d. in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
484. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
a. at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

b. only at transition altitude.
c. only at transition level.
d. at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
485. Which statement is correct? During a " Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
a. the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

b. ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
c. ATC will apply separation with other traffic
d. ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
486. Except for other equipment prescribed for IFR flights it is necessary that:
a. only the pilot carries a time piece

b. the aircraft be equipped with a time piece showing hours, minutes and seconds, if
passengers are carried
c. the aircraft be equipped with a time piece showing hours, minutes and seconds
487. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the
survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "X". This indicates
a. Need mechanical assistance".

b. "Need medical assistance".
c. "Landing impossible".
d. "All occupants alive".
488. An aerodrome and its environs shall not be crossed at a height of:
a. less than 1 500 ft

b. less than 2 000 ft
c. less than 1 000 ft
489. The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes
during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire
flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
a. 15000 ft
b. 25000 ft
c. 12000 ft
d. 14000 ft
490. When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established,
aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:
a. 50 metres.
b. 30 metres.
c. 45 metres.
d. 60 metres.
491. The overall maximum number of flying hours permitted in the course of one year is:
a. 800
b. 1 000
c. 1 200
d. 700
492. A private pilot with an instrument rating shall be permitted inter alia to:
a. act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night and for remuneration
b. act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night and to carry passengers
therein, but not for remuneration
c. act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night for remuneration, provided he has the
appropriate type rating
493. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to
"resume own navigation". This phrase means that:
a. You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

b. You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
c. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
d. Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
494. Control zones are areas of controlled airspace which have, inter alia:
a. a specified upper limit

b. no specified upper limit
c. in certain conditions, have a specified upper limit which may be determined by the relevant
ATSU
495. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator
will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:
1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,
2 - one copy of the ops flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's material report,
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,
5 - notification for special loadings,
6 - details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.
a. 2,4
b. 2,3,4,5
c. 1,2,3,4,5,6
d. 1,3,5
496. The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an
instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling is:
a. an intermittent green beam

b. a continuous red beam
c. an intermittent red beam
d. a continuous green beam
497. The validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:
a. Of the last medical certificate

b. Of issue
c. Of the skill test
d. The application is received by the Authority.
498. No pilot who is a member of a multi crew aircraft undertaking an IFR flight shall exceed:
a. 10 hours in one week

b. 38 hours in any 14 days
c. 120 hours in any one month
499. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
a. uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

b. uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
c. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
d. uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
a. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
b. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
c. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
d. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only
501. An instrument rating comprises a rating, permitting the holder inter alia to:
a. act as safety pilot

b. act as pilot in command of a tug aircraft
c. act as safety pilot, provided he is the holder of the appropriate type of group type
rating
502. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:
a. Before penetrating the clouds.

b. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.
c. After take-off.
d. When advised by Tower.
503. At airfields where there is no published transition altitude, for arriving or departing IMC flights, the
transition altitude shall be:
a. 1 000 agl
b. 2 000 agl
c. 3 000 agl
d. the lowest safe cruising altitude
504. An instrument rating is valid for:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
505. All aircraft must carry a supplemental oxygen supply if operated above:
a. altitudes of 12 000 ft for 1 hour

b. altitude above 10 000 ft for 2 hours
c. an altitude above FL120
506. The semi-circular rule is based on:
a. magnetic track
b. magnetic heading
c. true track
d. true heading
507. You fly IFR from FACT to FAJS. Search and rescue action will be requested:
a. automatically
b. only if such action is specifically requested
c. automatically except if SAR/NIL was requested
508. VFR flight levels start:
a. FL35
b. FL15
c. Above the airfield transition level
509. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
a. on the initiative of the aircraft commander

b. at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
c. as instructed by an air traffic control unit
d. when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
510. On an aeronautical chart the runway length is indicated as 14. This means:
a. the runway length is 1 400 ft

b. the runway length is between 1 400 meters and 1 499 meters
c. the runway length may be less than 1 400 meters but the length is rounded off to the nearest
100 meters
511. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency
check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
a. 31th of December the same year

b. 15th of October the same year
c. 30th of October the same year
d. 30th of April the following year
512. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service:
a. need to file a flight plan

b. may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
c. Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS
d. Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be
513. The Captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He
a. can refuse to present them.

b. can only do so after having consulted the operator.
c. must do so, within a reasonable period of time.
d. can request a delay of 48 hours.
514. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when
undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
a. the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

b. the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
c. the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
d. the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
515. The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
a. the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
b. the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
c. the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
d. the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
516. The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
a. insurance certificate.
b. air carrier certificate.
c. registration certificate.
d. airworthiness certificate.
517. During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made
immediately. Following this incident the pilot:
a. must file a airworthiness report
b. is not obliged to report this incident
c. must file a Bird Strike report
d. must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
518. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter
shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating

b. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
c. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
d. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
519. While on a flight, an inadequate facility is observed. The PIC is required as soon as practical to:
a. advise the nearest convenient ATSU thereof

b. advise CAA
c. advise the ATSU responsible for the facility
520. The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is
flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and
RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway.
With the approach minimums for runway 06 below, is take-off possible?
DH = 300 feet,
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.
The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.
a. `Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 20 mins flying time.

b. `No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.
c. No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
d. Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure
521. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
a. the regulations .
b. the flight manual.
c. the minimum equipment list.
d. the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".
522. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator
must not be less than:
a. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days
b. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6
months
c. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6
months
d. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last
90 days
523. The mass when empty, and the CG data, must be computed every:
a. 12 months
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 6 months
524. The route of a twin engine aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or
a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a
way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:
a. 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

b. 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
c. 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
d. 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
525. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the:
a. flight route sheet.

b. operation flight plan.
c. ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.
d. flight plan processing.
526. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a. from take-off to landing.

b. while at their station.
c. only during take-off and landing.
d. only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
of safety.
527. The maximum speed a piston driven aircraft may fly in a control zone is:
a. 170 kts
b. 160 kts
c. 200 kts
d. 230 kts
528. VFR requirements on a control zone include a minimum visibility of:
a. 1 000 m
b. 5 000 m
c. 3 000 m
d. 2 000 m
529. An IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions
stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least:
a. 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

b. 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
c. 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
d. 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
530. VFR Operating minima, establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that:
a. for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5
km at least (clear of cloud)
b. special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
c. for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least
d. for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
531. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial
action by the operating crew?
a. transmit a MAYDAY message

b. place the seat belts sign to ON
c. to put on oxygen masks
d. disconnect the autopilot
532. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter
shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
a. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines

b. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
c. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
d. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
533. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that:
a. Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board.
b. The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
c. Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
d. All the flight crew be on board.
534. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped:
a. Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.

b. With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).
c. As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess
indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.
d. As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.
535. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to
continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
536. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that
any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
a. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

b. The company's cargo technicians.
c. The captain.
d. The operator.
537. The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under which the
aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and
done in a maintenance shop approved by the Director of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:
a. one year.
b. three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.
c. three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.
d. three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications
538. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes
during instrument flight, the:
a. state in which the aeroplane is operating

b. Commander
c. operator
d. state of the operator
539. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by
more than:
a. 400 NM
b. 50 NM
c. 100 NM
d. 200 NM
540. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:
a. 110°.
b. 140°.
c. 70°.
d. 220°.
541. The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:
a. flight record.
b. operation manual.
c. CARS.
d. flight manual.
a. protect a crew who fights a fire

b. provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
c. assist a passenger with breathing disorders
d. provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
543. The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the:
a. flight record.
b. operation manual.
c. CARS.
d. flight manual.
544. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen, masks are compulsory on board any
pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:
a. 25 000 ft
b. 13 000 ft
c. 29 000 ft
d. 10 000 ft
545. Smoking is permitted:
a. never in an aircraft
b. within 25 metres of an aircraft
c. in hangars where no fuel or highly flammable material is stored
546. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front
right, will first see the:
a. green flashing light

b. red steady light
c. green steady light
d. white steady light
547. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a. 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

b. 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
c. 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d. 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
548. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
a. 60% of the landing distance available.

b. 70% of the landing distance available.
c. 80% of the landing distance available.
d. 50% of the landing distance available.
549. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
a. Flashing red or preferably yellow.

b. Fixed red or preferably orange.
c. Fixed red or preferably blue.
d. Flashing blue.
a. protect a crew who fights a fire

b. provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
c. assist a passenger with breathing disorders
d. provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
551. On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel
and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
a. 45 minutes at cruising speed

b. 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c. 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d. 30 minutes at cruising speed
552. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen
throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a. 12 000 ft
b. 13 000 ft
c. 10 000 ft
d. 11 000 ft
left, will first see the:
a. green flashing light

b. green steady light
c. red steady light
d. white steady light
554. Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the
amendments to keep it up to date?
a. Aircraft producer.
b. Owner of the aircraft.
c. ATS authority of the state of registry.
d. Aircraft operator.
555. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
a. through a central control unit.

b. by agreement with the receiving unit.
c. automatically at the control zone boundary.
d. with the pilot's consent.
556. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
a. as flight level.
b. according pilot's choice.
c. as altitude.
d. as height.
557. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts
a. Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
b. OCH or OCA
c. DME-frequencies
d. Visibility minima
558. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
a. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region – Approach Control Office and Tower.
b. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre – Approach Control Office -
Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
c. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
d. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office
and Tower.
559. The minimum required recency experience for a PIC or SIC for an instrument approach under IMC
shall be:
a. 3 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments only

b. 2 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only.
c. 3 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only
d. 2 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments
only.
560. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common

language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to
request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
a. Descend for landing

b. Descend
c. Let down
d. You land
561. No person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in
excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness was issued after 1 January 2007, unless such aircraft is equipped with:
a. ACAS & TAWS.

b. TAWS.
c. ACAS.
d. RVSM.
562. An operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight
is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of
the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
a. 15 months
b. 24 months
c. 3 months
d. 12 months
563. The holder of a RVSM approval certificate endorsed for operations within RVSM airspace, shall:
a. report each height-keeping error in RVSM airspace.

b. report within 24 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in
an RVSM environment
c. report within 12 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in an
RVSM environment
d. Need not report height-keeping errors in RVSM airspace.
564. No person shall operate an aeroplane, unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flotation device or
life jacket containing a survivor locator light for each person on board:
a. when flying over land & beyond gliding distance from water
b. when flying over water & beyond gliding distance from land;
c. when flying beyond 50 nautical miles from land
d. when flying beyond 30 nautical miles from land;
565. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which
seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
a. This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused
by necessary repair.
b. This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the
next 48 hours.
c. This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
d. Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are
related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.
566. Which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision
approach:
1) the required RVR,
2) the ceiling
3) the minimum descent height (MDH)
4) the decision height (DH)
a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 1, 2, 3.
567. Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
a. no passenger is carried on the same flight

b. the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
c. national aviation administration permission has been granted
d. government permission has been granted
568. Under Part 91 flying IFR and as a member of a multi pilot crew not operating commercially, the
maximum hours that may be flown are:
a. 300 hours in 3 months

b. 120 hours in 1 month
c. 120 hours in the preceding 30 days
d. 300 in the preceding 2 months
569. Under Part 91, flying IFR as a solo crew for non-commercial gain, the maximum hours that may be
flown under IFR are:
a. 100 hours in the preceding 30 days
b. 120 hours in the preceding 30 days
c. 150 hours in the preceding 30 days
d. 400 hours in 3 months
570. The frequency designated for ELT communications is:
a. 121.5 KHz and 243 KHz

b. 121.5 MHz and 243 KHz
c. 121.5 KHz and 243 MHz
d. 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
571. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
a. 5000 meters
b. 1500 meters
c. 3000 meters
d. 2500 meters
572. The minimum visibility required by CAR to commence a special VFR flight is:
a. 1.5 km
b. 2.5 km
c. 5 km
d. 3 km
573. All aircraft shall carry for SAR purpose a:
a. First aid kit, 4 strips of white material, a means of lighting a fire for signalling, an axe.
b. First aid kit, 4 strips of white material and an axe.
c. One set ground/air signalling code and a means of displaying them.
d. Nil
574. Aerodrome Operating Minima: An operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision
approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR
NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
a. ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

b. VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
c. NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
d. VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
575. The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that when a flight is conducted above FL 410:
a. At least one pilot wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason.
b. At least one crew member wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for
any reason.
c. At least one passenger wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason
d. At least one pilot at a pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves
the flight deck for any reason.
576. On an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather
conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
a. the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period
before and after such a predicted time.
b. the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after
the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.
c. the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival.
d. the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome.
577. The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying VFR:
a. Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator.

b. Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical
speed indicator.
c. Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, direction
indicator.
d. Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, turn & bank
indicator
578. An applicant for an instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi engine class rating shall inter alia:
a. Have completed not less than 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours
b. Have completed not less than 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours
c. Have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20
hours may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
d. Nil
579. A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when flying over water at a
distance from the shore of more than:
a. 50 NM
b. gliding distance
c. 30 NM
d. 100 NM
580. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an
aerodrome of alternative destination, are:
a. At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions
required for aerodrome use.
b. At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use.
c. At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted
time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
d. At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
581. If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean:
a. Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature
b. Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
c. Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
d. Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR
582. The operator must ensure that all operations information is stored for a minimum period of:
a. 24 months
b. 3 months
c. 15 months
d. 12 months
583. For flight crew members: Over a 14 day period, the number of days off should not be less than:
a. 3 days
b. 2 days
c. 4 days
d. Nil
a. select two destination alternates.

b. take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
c. take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
d. not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast.
585. In an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must
be at least:
a. 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
b. 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
c. 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
d. 5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
586. When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on
board, the commander:
a. can request a delay of 48 hours.

b. shall comply within a reasonable period of time.
c. shall only comply if authorised by the operator.
d. can refuse to present them.
587. Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back?
1 - " descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet"
2 - " wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots"
3 - " turn right heading 210"
4 - " reduce speed to 160 knots"
5 - " squawk 1723"
6 - " braking action poor"
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. all
c. 1, 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
a. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only
b. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
c. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
d. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
589. For two-engine aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be
located (in still air conditions) within:
a. one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
b. one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.
c. two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.
d. two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
590. For three- and four-engine aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air
conditions) within:
a. 2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.

b. 1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.
c. 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.
d. 1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
591. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft that has the other on
its right shall give way, except that:
a. Airships shall give way to aircraft, which are seen to be towing.

b. Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
c. Gliders shall give way to balloons.
d. Nil
592. Time used for aviation is:
a. South African Standard Time.

b. Greenwich Mean Time.
c. Co-ordinated Universal Time.
d. Bravo Time
593. No aircraft shall be operated under IFR unless such aircraft is equipped with:
a. A timepiece, unless the pilot is wearing a watch.

b. A timepiece with sweep or second hands.
c. A timepiece showing the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
d. Nil
594. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
a. 60% of the landing distance available.
b. 70% of the landing distance available.
c. 80% of the landing distance available.
d. 50% of the landing distance available.
595. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has he other
on its right shall give way, except:
a. gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to gliders and balloons,
b. gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
c. None of the above
d. Nil
596. If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall
suspend that license:
a. For a maximum of 14 days.

b. For a period not exceeding 6 months
c. Until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical
requirements
d. Nil
597. A pilot may be scheduled to fly:
a. 10 hours or less during any 24 consecutive hours without a rest period during such 10
hours.
b. 8 hours or less during any 30 consecutive hours without a rest period during such 10 hours.
c. 8 hours or less during any 24 hours without a rest period during such 8 hours.
d. Nil
598. A met report must be obtained for all flights:
a. Of more than 20 nm.

b. Of more than 30- nm.
c. Irrespective of the distance.
d. Nil
599. ATIS information can be received from:
a. The ILS transmission.

b. At all times from any VOR transmission.
c. From VOR or VHF RT frequencies as published.
d. Nil
600. Night duty means a period of not less than 4 hours between
a. 20h00 to 06h00
b. 24h00 to 06h00
c. 02h00 to 06h00
d. Nil
601. The responsibility for the operation and safety of an aircraft on an IFR flight engaged in commercial
air transport operations rests with:
a. The owner or operator of an aircraft.

b. The operator and PIC (Pilot In Command) of the aircraft.
c. The PIC of the aircraft while he or she is in command
d. Nil
602. ATC clears an aircraft “cleared to flight level 80, report reaching”. The correct action when reaching
F80 is to:
a. Report position and time at F80.

b. Say nothing and await further instructions.
c. Report “maintaining flight level 80”.
d. Nil
603. Life-saving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water if the distance and time
from the shore is:
a. 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four engines
b. 50 miles or 30 minutes, which ever is the lesser,
c. 300 miles or 100 minutes, whichever is the lesser if the aircraft has 2 turbine engines.
d. Nil
604. Whilst flying at night, you observe the green side light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of
320 degrees at the same flight level and the bearing remains constant. You should:
a. Maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the other aircraft fails to
give way.
b. Alter heading to starboard.
c. Maintain speed and alter heading to port.
d. Nil
605. No pilot shall fly more than:
a. 6 hours in one day.

b. 100 hours in 30 days.
c. 1 000 hours in 12 months
d. 300 hrs in 3 months
606. An applicant for the initial issue of a Commercial pilots licence must pass the practical flight test:
a. Within 36 months from the date of being notified of having passed the examination.
b. Within 24 months of the date of the examination.
c. Within 12 months of the date of the examination.
d. Nil
607. The minimum cruise level for IFR flight is:
a. 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle.

b. 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle.
c. 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle 5 000 ft or below.
d. Nil
608. The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air Traffic Control, shall
be responsible for:
a. Making all turns to the right when other air traffic are observed doing so.
b. Making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force.
c. Making turns to the left or right, providing there is no risk of collision.
d. Nil
609. Above FL200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud for VFR flight must be:
a. 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.

b. 5 km visibility, 2 000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
c. 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.
d. Nil
610. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
a. 250 KT IAS
b. 250 KT TAS
c. Not applicable
d. 240 KT IAS
611. A flight plan not activated within one hour of ETD:
a. Is regarded as cancelled.
b. Is still available if activated within 24 hours of ETD.
c. Is still available if activated within 3 hours of ETD.
d. Is regarded as cancelled if not activated within 30 mins of ETD
612. The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below 10 000
feet is:
a. 200 knots
b. 250 knots,
c. 300 knots.
d. Nil
613. No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical substances for the
purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight except:
a. In a emergency.
b. By special permission granted by the Director of Civil Aviation (DCA).
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. Nil
614. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
a. Military aircraft
b. VIP (Head of state) aircraft
c. Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
d. Emergency aircraft
615. Special VFR can be given
a. By day only
b. When visibility is less than 1500m.
c. In a CTR or ATZ.
d. When the ceiling is less than 1200 feet.
616. Definition of flight time:
a. The time from when the aircraft begins its take-off to when it finishes the landing
b. The time from when the Aircraft is airborne to when the undercarriage touches the ground
c. The time when it moves under its own power from the apron to when it parks after the
end of the flight
d. The time the chocks are removed, or the engine starts, to when the engine is cut at the end
of the flight.
617. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen
throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is
between:
a. 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

b. 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
c. 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
d. 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
right, will first see the:
a. red steady light

b. green steady light
c. white steady light
d. green flashing light
619. A pilot may not act as pilot in command carrying passengers of an aircraft unless he has, in the
preceding:
a. 90 days carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and
category or an approved simulator,
b. six months carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and
category or an approved simulator,
c. six months carried out six take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category
or an approved simulator,
d. Nil
620. A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed :
a. during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

b. during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the
underlying ground;
c. during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
procedure;
d. as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
621. To acquire a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating the candidate must have (inter-alia) at least the
following experience:
a. 70 hours PIC on aeroplanes

b. 100 hours PIC on aeroplanes
c. 300 hours total time
d. 6 hours of training.
622. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled
airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
a. 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

b. 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
c. Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
d. 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
623. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to
ensure correct time to within plus or minus
a. 10 seconds of UTC at all times

b. 15 seconds of UTC at all times
c. 30 seconds of UTC at all times
d. 1 minute of UTC at all times
624. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
a. automatically at the control zone boundary.

b. with the pilot's consent.
c. through a central control unit.
d. by agreement with the receiving unit.
625. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL
290 is:
a. 1000 feet (300 m).

b. 500 feet (150 m).
c. 2000 feet (600 m).
d. 4000 feet (1200 m).
626. At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the
height of the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:
a. 1 500 ft.
b. 1 000 ft.
c. 2 000 ft.
d. Nil
627. Details of Prohibited Areas published in the:
a. AIP
b. AIC
c. Notams
d. On enroute chart
628. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL
290 is:
a. 2000 feet (600 m).

b. 500 feet (150 m).
c. 2500 feet (750 m).
d. 1000 feet (300 m).
629. If A files a flight plan and B does not:
a. A has priority.
b. No one has priority.
c. A may be given priority.
d. Priority given to commercial flight.
630. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
a. 1000 feet
b. 500 feet
c. 1500 feet
d. 2000 feet
631. The VOR change-over point is the:
a. Over the VOR station.

b. Midpoint between 2 VOR stations, unless otherwise specified.
c. Point on an ATS route where the ATSU specifies a change to the next VOR.
d. Point on the route where the pilot should start navigating on the VOR.
632. On a VFR flight from X to Z an airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both X and Z are situated
outside Controlled airspace.
a. A flight plan may not be filed.

b. A flight plan must be filed if search and rescue is required.
c. A flight plan must be filed with the nearest Air Traffic Service Unit, because you are entering
controlled airspace.
d. Only need to file a plan if it is an IFR flight.
633. No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight, except:
a. By prior written approval having been granted by the Director

b. By arrangement between the pilot-in-command of each aircraft
c. In uncontrolled airspace
d. Nil
634. For a private flight from Mthatha (controlled) to Escourt (controlled) a flight plan:
a. Must be filed.
b. Must be filed if for SAR.
c. Need only be filed if the flight is at night.
d. Need not be filed because it is VFR.
635. Except in emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:
a. Such aircraft is equipped with landing lights in terms of the provision of A. In which case such
landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and landing at night.
b. The PIC of such aircraft is familiar with the aerodrome and according to his judgement
sufficient means are available to assist in take-off or landing in the absence of runway lights.
c. The aerodrome of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and that the PIC has
ensured that night flying facilities are available for take-off or landing.
d. Nil
636. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
a. the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;
b. the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
c. the pilot is following the published approach procedure
d. all mentioned answers are correct
637. Date of application is the date:
a. Written on the application form.

b. On which the flight test and the written tests were successfully completed.
c. On which the CAA receives the application in an acceptable form
d. Nil
638. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report ’field in sight’, a
clearance for ’visual approach’ may be given under certain conditions
a. The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
b. Continued approach will be according to VFR
c. The approach must be passing the FAF
d. The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
639. A flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:
a. 30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

b. 30 minutes before departure for an international flight.
c. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
d. 24 hours before departure
640. A flight folio must be carried:
a. By all aircraft.
b. Only by aircraft operated in commercial air transport operations.
c. Only by aircraft on an international flight.
d. Nil
641. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:
a. Before penetrating the clouds.

b. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.
c. After take-off.
d. When advised by Tower.
642. If an aircraft is not capable of flight to an aerodrome if the critical power unit becomes inoperative,
the aircraft should carry sufficient life jackets for an overwater flight for every person on board and
is restricted to:
a. Flight within gliding distance from land.

b. Within 15 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed
c. Within 30 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed.
d. Nil
643. Select the category rating:
a. Turbine.
b. Tug pilot rating.
c. Helicopter.
d. Nil
644. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with nav aids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated
time at which the aircraft:
a. will land.
b. will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
c. will stop on the parking area.
d. will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
645. A parachute flare showing a red light means:
a. Grave and eminent danger threatens.

b. Do not land for the time being.
c. Do not take-off.
d. Nil
646. On any flight within the RSA, the certificate of release to service must be carried on board:
a. Only for domestic flights.

b. Only for international flights.
c. On all flights
d. Nil
647. An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-
engine aircraft, a minimum:
a. 6 Hours dual flight training.

b. 7 Hours dual flight training.
c. 6 Hours dual and 5 hours instrument flight training.
d. Nil
648. Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected
in accordance with semi-circular rules depends on:
a. The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

b. The Magnetic track only.
c. The compass heading and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.
d. Only on whether he is flying in IMC or VMC.
649. Whilst taxiing at an uncontrolled airfield, the pilot observes an aircraft converging from the right.
The pilot should:
a. Continue to taxi.
b. Slow down or stop and allow the other aircraft right of way.
c. Continue to taxi if on an IFR flight plan.
d. Nil
650. No aircraft shall be operated at night without:
a. An rotating beacon, navigation lights or position lights.

b. Rotating beacon, navigation lights and two landing lights or a single light having two
separately energised filaments.
c. Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is 5 700 kgs or less.
d. Nil
651. Flight crew member licenses should be carried in the aircraft:
a. Only if the flight is operated for commercial air transport.

b. For all flights.
c. Only if the aircraft is engaged in an international flight.
d. Nil
652. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a. Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.

b. not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
c. Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
d. Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
653. The minimum RVR or VIS, below which no approach to land shall be commenced or continued,
shall be determined by the:
a. Pilot in command,
b. DCA,
c. Operator of the aircraft.
d. The SCCM
654. An aircraft following a line feature at or below 1500 ft. AGL and within 1 nm. of that line feature
shall:
a. Fly to the right of the line feature

b. Fly to the left of the line feature
c. Fly directly along the line feature
d. Nil
655. A helicopter is to the right of the aeroplane. The aircraft that has the right of way is:
a. Helicopter, because helicopter has right of way over aeroplane

b. Aeroplane.
c. Helicopter, because helicopter is to the right of the aeroplane.
d. Nil
656. A list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft should be carried on board
for:
a. Cross country flight of more than 100 NM from the departure.

b. All flights.
c. Flights intended to enter military airspace
d. Nil
657. No pilot who is part of a multi-pilot crew of an aircraft flying under IFR shall have:
a. Flown more than 10 hours during the preceding 7 days.

b. Flown more than 38 hours during the preceding 14 days.
c. Flown more than 120 hours during the preceding 30 days.
d. Nil
658. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
a. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.
b. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
contact has been lost.
c. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are
advised that contact has been lost.
d. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will
be provided until radar identification is terminated.
a. Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
b. Notify the SACAA of such deviation without delay.
c. Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation
d. Nil
a. Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
b. Notify the SACAA of such deviation without delay.
c. Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation
d. Nil
661. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restoration is
impossible, then :
a. you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide
for continuation of the flight;
b. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
c. departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
d. you are not allowed to commence the flight
662. The vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall as far as practical keep to the:
a. right side of the runway or taxiway,

b. either edge of the runway or taxiway,
c. left side of the runway or taxiway.
d. Nil
e.
663. Except by permission from the Director aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically within:
a. five nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 4000 feet above
ground level,
b. six nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000 feet above ground
level,
c. eight nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000 feet above ground
level.
d. Nil
664. Under Part 91, but excluding operations under part 121 or 135, no person shall act as a flight deck
crew member of an aircraft if flight time exceeds the permissible aggregate of:
a. 120 hrs. during the preceding 30 days

b. 400 hrs. during the preceding 90 days
c. 400 hrs. during the preceding 30 days
d. Nil
665. “TODA” take-off distance available is:
a. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).
b. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
provided).
d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
666. 'Flight' means the time period between the :
a. moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes the next
landing,
b. moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the end of the flight,
c. moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.
d. Nil
667. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures.
a. Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

b. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c. Precision approach runways in general.
d. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
668. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
a. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time
over and ensuing significant point.
b. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point.
c. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over.
d. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
669. As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a. 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,

b. 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c. 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
d. Nil
670. An applicant for CPL must have completed not less than:
a. 10 Hours of instrument time.

b. 15 Hours of cross-country flight time.
c. 5 Hours of instruction on an aeroplane with adjustable propeller.
d. Nil
671. When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left:
a. When a pilot deems it necessary in the interest of safety;

b. When a right-hand circuit is in force;
c. When a left-hand circuit is in force.
d. Nil
672. A flight plan shall be submitted in respect of:
a. All flights for which search and rescue is required

b. An international flight.
c. All commercial flights – air transport and aerial work.
d. Both a and b are correct.
673. VFR Operating minima, establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that:
a. special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
b. for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least
c. for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
d. for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5
km at least (clear of cloud)
674. Under Part 91 under IFR as a solo crew. The maximum hours that may be flown are:
a. 100 hours in the preceding 30 days.

b. 120 hours in the preceding 30 days.
c. 300 hours in 3 months.
d. 8 hours in any 24 hours.
675. On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel
and lubricant sufficient for flying during:
a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c. 30 minutes at cruising speed
d. 45 minutes at cruising speed
676. An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR above the surface shall not be required to comply with
flight levels according to magnetic track when flown at a height of less than:
a. 3 000 ft.
b. 2 000 ft.
c. 1 500 ft.
d. Transition altitude.
677. Blind transmission shall be made:
a. On the designated frequency (frequency in use)

b. To all available aeronautical stations
c. On regional guard frequencies only
d. During IFR flights only
678. When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to
continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit (" cancel IFR" )
2 He must request and obtain clearance.
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.
The correct combination of statements is:
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
679. In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
a. Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight

b. Inform FIS for relay to AIS
c. "Insert under item 18 of the flight plan " transponder unserviceable" "
d. Inform ATC after departure
680. What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean:
a. The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
b. The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
c. The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a
landing will be initiated
d. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the
holding point to complete its approach for a landing
681. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by flow control centre:
a. depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic
flights).
b. is 5 minutes.
c. is 10 minutes.
d. is 15 minutes.
682. Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back to ATC?
a. QNH, weather information, runway-in-use

b. ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
c. QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
d. SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions
683. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual
approach"?
a. An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach

procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
b. An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
c. A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome
of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
d. An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach
684. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL
290 is:
a. 1000 feet (300 m).

b. 500 feet (150 m).
c. 2000 feet (600 m).
d. 4000 feet (1200 m).
685. The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least
the following elements/details:
a. Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight

b. Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
c. Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position,
level and heading
d. Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading
686. The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:

1 - the training
2 - the test results
3 - a log of flying hours
4 - a summary of the training by reference period
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 1-2-3
c. 2-3
d. 3-4
a. select two destination alternates.

b. take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
c. take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
d. (not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast

1 - Air Law Questions - Final

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1 - Air Law Questions - Final

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1.

3. The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:

5. The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:

6. Details of Prohibited Areas published in the:

a. 2000 feet (600 m).

a) Fuel for 30 minutes holding

a) Only after 12 weeks of giving birth

a) 30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

a) Less than 1 500 ft.

16. An instrument rating is valid for:

18. Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:

a) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft

22. An applicant for a commercial pilot’s license shall inter alia:

a) You must inform ATSU, because your ETA has changed.

a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure

a) Written on the application form.

28. Licences issued under Part 61 are:

a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

a) Only for domestic flights.

a) Immediately surrender your medical certificate

34. The ICAO is a body which:

a) Decides about all international aviation law.

a) 6 Hours dual flight training.

a) The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

37. “Terrain awareness and warning systems” are required for:

a) All aircraft operating commercially in accordance with IFR

a) Follow the ICAO deviation procedure as listed in ICAO Doc 4444

40. “Crew member” means:

41. A parachute flare showing a red light means:

a) Grave and eminent danger threatens.

a) Anytime at the discretion of the investigator in charge

a) Shall proceed according to the current flight plan.

a) You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

50. VFR flight is not permitted:

52. No aircraft shall be operated at night without:

a) An rotating beacon, navigation lights or position lights.

a) Withdraw the pilot’s license immediately

a) 30 hours of cross country time as PIC.

a) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.

59. Part 61 applies to:

a) 45 minutes if operating VFR or IFR

a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.

62. The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:

a) May not be used under any circumstances

a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

65. 'Flight' means the time period between the :

a) Flown more than 10 hours during the preceding 7 days.

a) A cellular telephone without flight mode

a) 5 Hours of instruction on an aeroplane with adjustable propeller

a) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

a) When a pilot deems it necessary in the interest of safety;

72. “Reduced Vertical Separation Minima” means:

73. An infant is defined as being

a) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

75. “Flight crew member” means:

a) A licensed crewmember charged with essential duties on an aircraft.

80. “Flight time – aeroplane” means:

a) The total time the aircraft is airborne on a flight

81. “Category I (Cat I) operation” means:

a) Cleared for take-off.

a) 500 meters horizontally and 300 feet vertically