15/07/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Mock Test – 2 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

MOCK TEST FOR NEET

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. If the percentage error in measurement of radius of 4. Assuming ideal condition, the tension in the string
a sphere falling in a viscous liquid is 2% (and no connecting pulley with ceiling is
error in measurement of other quantity), then the
percentage error in measurement of terminal speed
of sphere is
(1) 2% (2) 4%
(3) 6% (4) 0.5%
2. A particle is moving in straight line with velocity F = 2Mg
(v) = (t – 2) m/s. What is the average speed of the M
particle between t = 0 to t = 4 second?
8
(1) Zero (2) 1 m/s (1) Mg (2) 4Mg
3
(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s (3) 3Mg (4) Mg
3. A particle is projected with 30 m/s from horizontal 5. A mass is attached at one end of a massless rod
ground by making an angle 60° with vertical. The and rotated in a vertical circle as shown in figure.
time after which its initial velocity is perpendicular to Choose the correct statement
instantaneous velocity is
C
(1) 6 second

(2) 2 3 second D B
(3) 3 second l
(4) Never possible
A
(1)
Mock Test-2 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
(1) Minimum speed at lowest point so that circle is 11. If temperature of a body falls from 100°C to 90°C in
completed is 5gl 5 minute, then the time in which it falls from 90°C
to 80°C is (Temperature of surrounding is 70°C and
(2) At highest point speed is gl in critical
Newton’s law of cooling is valid)
situation
(1) 8.3 minute (2) 5 minute
(3) At B and D, centripetal force is due to tension
only (3) 10 minute (4) 11.4 minute
(4) All of these 12. 1 mole of He gas is mixed with 2 mole of N2 gas.
6. All surfaces are smooth as shown. What is the Cp
horizontal acceleration of 2 kg mass when a The value of for the mixture is
horizontal force of 24 N is applied on lower block? Cv

2 kg
67 19
10 kg F (1) (2)
45 13
(1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2 horizontally
(3) 2.4 m/s2 horizontally (4) 2 m/s2 downward 17 21
(3) (4)
7. When mass 2m is released from rest, then its 11 11
instantaneous acceleration at that instant as shown is 13. The angle between electric fields created by a short
m dipole at axial and equatorial position is
(1) Zero (2) 90°
l l
(3) tan1( 2) (4) 180°

m l 2m 14. A capacitor is charged to a potential V and then

after removal of the charging cell, a dielectric is
3 Gm 2 3 Gm inserted between its plates. Which of the following
(1) 2
(2)
l l2 quantities remains unchanged?
2 3 2 Gm (1) Potential (2) Energy
(3) Zero (4)
l2
(3) Charge (4) Capacitance
8. A body is in pure rolling motion on a horizontal
surface. For which body the rotational kinetic energy 15. In a long solenoid, number of turns per unit length is
is not less than translational kinetic energy? doubled and current through it is halved, then
magnetic field along axis of solenoid
(1) Disc (2) Solid sphere
(3) Hollow sphere (4) Hollow cylinder (1) Becomes double (2) Becomes four times
9. In damped harmonic oscillation, the amplitude of (3) Is unchanged (4) Is halved
oscillation becomes one third after 2 second. If A0 is 16. Due to a small magnetic dipole of magnetic moment
initial amplitude of oscillation, then amplitude after
M, the magnetic field at a point (which is at a distance
1 second from start will be
r from centre) is perpendicular to the dipole moment.
A0 A0 The magnetic potential at the same point is
(1) (2)
3 1.5
0 M
A0 A0 (1) Zero (2)
(3) (4) 4 3 r2
9 2
10. A transverse wave pulse is generated at lower end of
0 3 M cos   0 2M
a vertical rope. The acceleration with which wave (3) (4)
pulse travels on rope is 4 r 2 4 r 2
(1) g downward 17. A coil is taken out completely from a magnetic field
(2) Zero in two different process A and B. Process A is slow
and B is fast. Which of the following remains same
g
(3) upward in A as well as B?
2
(1) Induced emf (2) Induced current
3g
(4) downward
4 (3) Induced charge (4) All of these
(2)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
18. In LCR series resonance circuit, if resistance is
doubled, then resonance frequency and peak current
respectively
(1) Remain constant
Mock Test-2 (Code A)
24. A body connected at the end of a spring executes
SHM with a time period t1, while the corresponding
period for another spring is t 2. If the period of
oscillation with the two spring in series is T, then

(2) Increases, remains constant (1) T = t1 + t2 (2) T 2  t12  t 22

(3) Remains unchanged, decreases 1 1 1
1 1 1
(3)   (4)  
(4) Decrease T t1 t 2 T 2
t12
t 22
19. Height of image formed by a concave mirror of focal 25. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to
length 20 cm is twice the height of object. If the
image is inverted, then distance of object from mirror 8 5
of its original volume. If   , then rise in
is 27 3
(1) 30 cm (2) 10 cm temperature is
(3) 20 cm (4) 18 cm (1) 450 K (2) 375 K
20. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface is (3) 675 K (4) 405 K
double that of incident light. If intensity of incident
photons is doubled then photocurrent will 26. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such
that the work function changes from 1 to 2 where
(1) Become double (2 > 1). If the current before and after change are
(2) Remain unchanged, not equal to zero I 1 and I 2 respectively and all other conditions
remaining unchanged, then (assuming h > 2)
(3) Become zero
(1) I1 = I2 (2) I1 < I2
(4) Become more than double
(3) I1 > I2 (4) I1 < I2 < 2I1
21. The minimum angular momentum of electron in Bohr
model of hydrogen atom is 27. If the shortest wavelength of Lyman series of H atom
is X, then the wavelength of first member of Balmer
h 3h
(1) (2) series of H atom will be
2 2
9X
2h 4h (1) (2) 36 X
(3) (4) 5 5
2 
5X 5X
22. A radioactive substance (A) disintegrates into another (3) (4)
radioactive substance (B), which further disintegrates 9 36
into substance (C) which is stable. Which of the 28. A rod of mass m and length  hinged in a vertical
following graphs shows the variation of number of wall and kept horizontal by massless vertical thread
active nuclei of B (NB) with time t? as shown. Tension in thread is
NB NB

(1) (2) O
2
t t
NB NB
mg
(1) mg (2)
2
(3) (4) 3mg
(3) (4) 2mg
2
t t
29. A copper wire of cross-section A is under tension T.
23. A body projected vertically with a speed of 25 m/s. Find the fractional decrease in the cross-sectional
Then find the distance travelled by the body in area (Young’s modulus is Y and Poisson’s ratio is
3rd second of its motion. (g = 10 m/s2) )
(1) 5 m
2T AY
(2) 4 m (1) (2)
AY 2T
(3) 2.5 m 3 AY T
(3) (4)
(4) Zero 2T AY
(3)
Mock Test-2 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
30. A stretched wire is fixed at both end. Standing waves 35. For a process of monoatomic gas pressure (P) and
produced in it in two different experiments are volume (V) related as PV–3 = constant. What will be
the molar heat capacity of gas ?
y1 = 6sin2x sin20t
y2 = 2sin4x sin40t 5R 3
(1) (2) R
Then ratio of their energy will be 3 5

(1) 9 (2) 4
7 R
(3) R (4)
9 4 4
(3) 36 (4)
4 36. A current I = 20 sin 50 t is flowing in a circuit having
31. Three capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are resistance R = 10 . The rms value of voltage drop
connected to a cell of 6 V as shown in the figure. accross R is
The potential at point A will be
(1) 200 V (2) 100 2 V
2 F 2 F
100
(3) V (4) 200 2 V
A 2
37. The radioactive decay constant for two isotopes of
radium are  1 and 2 . If both are placed in a
2 F 6V container together, the equivalent decay constant of
system is
(1) 2 V (2) –2 V
(3) 3 V (4) –3 V 1 2
(1) (2) 1 + 2
32. The magnetic field due to current carrying circular 1   2
coil on its axis varies with distance as
212 1   2
B B (3)    (4)
1 2 2
(1) (2) 38. The position (x) of a body is changing with time (t) as
r r x = t2 – 4t – 2. Find the distance covered by body in
4 s (where x is in metres and t is in seconds)
(1) 8 m (2) 4 m
B B
(3) 2 m (4) Zero
(3) (4)
39. Rain droplets are falling in vertically downward
r r direction with velocity 5 m/s. A cyclist is moving in
northward direction with velocity 10 m/s. The rain
33. In electromagnetic wave, what is wrong
  droplets will appear to the cyclist to be coming from
about E and B ?
(1) tan–1(2) above south horizon
 
(1) E and B are mutually perpendicular
⎛ 1⎞
  (2) tan 1⎜ ⎟ above north horizon
(2) E and B are oscillate in same phase ⎝2⎠
 
(3) E and B are oscillate in opposite phase (3) Vertically downward
(4) Direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave (4) tan–1(2) above north horizon
 
is the direction of (E  B )
40. When an elevator is moving upward, the apparent
 weight of a body inside elevator
34. A force F (N)  2iˆ  3 jˆ  kˆ acting on block of mass
(1) Will increase
3 kg and displace it from iˆ  jˆ to iˆ  jˆ  kˆ . The
(2) Will decrease
work done is
(1) –7 J (2) +7 J (3) Remains the same

(3) 6 J (4) 9 J (4) May be any of these

(4)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-2 (Code A)
41. A sheet is with two holes as shown in the figure. On × × ×
heating separation between two holes will
× P × v ×
B
× × ×
A (1) Zero (2) vB

v B
(1) Increase (3) (4)
B v
(2) Decrease
44. A plano-convex lens has spherical surface of radius
(3) Remain the same R. If refractive index of glass is 1.5, the focal length
(4) May increase or decrease depends on nature of of the lens is
material R
(1) (2) R
42. A proton and deutron enter in a region of uniform 2
magnetic field with equal momenta in the direction R
perpendicular to the field. The ratio of radii of circular (3) 2R (4)
4
path is
45. Avalanche breakdown of p-n junction diode is due to
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(1) Reverse biasing
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(2) Very high electric field
43. A conductor is moving with velocity v in a region of
(3) Collision of electron
uniform magnetic field B. The electric field at P
inside conductor is (4) All of these

CHEMISTRY
46. The ion which is not tetrahedral in shape? 50. A mixture contain equal mol of O2 + O3. How many
(1) BF4– times will be the rate of diffusion of the mixture to
that of CO, if mixture and CO both were allowed to
(2) NH4+ diffused under similar conditions of temperature and
(3) NiCl42– pressure?
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (1) 0.83 (2) 0.73
47. For decolourization of one mol of KMnO4 , the (3) 0.88 (4) 0.79
required litre of 30 volume H2O2 in acidified medium 51. 0.01 M solution of KCl and BaCl2 are prepared in
(1) 0.94 (2) 9.4 water the freezing point of KCl solution is found to
be –2°C. What is the freezing point of BaCl2 solution,
(3) 0.094 (4) 3.01
to be assumed completely ionised?
48. The pH of a mixture which is prepared by mixing
(1) –3 °C (2) +3 °C
1 mL N/10 NaOH, and 1 ml N/20 NaOH in one litre
water (3) –3 K (4) +3 K
(1) 10.17 (2) 5.3 52. The heat of combustion of C2H6, CH4, carbon and
hydrogen are found to be –P, –Q, –R and –S. What
(3) 3.3 (4) 4.7
would be heat of formation of C2H6?
49. The incorrect comparison of dipole moment (1) P – (2R + 3S) (2) P + (2R – 3S)

(1) CH3 Cl > Cl (3) Q – (2R + 3S) (4) Q + (2R – 3S)

x
Cl Cl 53. If in case of physical adsorption log is plotted
— m
—

> against log P the slope of curve will be equal to

(2)
—

— Cl 1
Cl Cl (1) log K (2) log
n
(3) BF3 = CCl4 1
(3) (4) K
(4) CH3Cl > CH3F n
(5)
Mock Test-2 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
54. Yield of NH3 in Haber process can be increased by 64. Which of the following will not show geometrical
(1) Pressure raising (2) Temperature raising isomerism?
(1) CH3 — CH = NOH (2) HO — N = N —OH
(3) Placing Molybdenum (4) All of these
55. Find correct statement
(3) (CH3)2C = NOH (4)
(1) KMnO4 is coloured due to d-d transition
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6] is low spin complex
Conc. HNO3 Sn/HCl
(3) Zn and Cd are transition metal 65. X Y , the product Y is
Conc. H2SO4
(4) All lanthanoids are radioactive
56. Among the following the thermally unstable —N2 — NHOH
(1) (2)
carbonate
(1) K2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
— NH2 — N2H2
(3) Rb2CO3 (4) Li2CO3 (3) (4)
57. The compound which is insoluble in acetic acid
66. Which of the polymer does not contain nitrogen?
(1) CaO (2) CaCO3
(1) RNA (2) Peptone
(3) CaC2O4 (4) Ca(OH)2
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Amylopectin
58. The isoelectronic pairs are
(1) Cl2O, ICl2– (2) ICl2–, Cl2O OH Conc. H2SO4
67. A
170°C
(3) IF2+, I3– (4) ClO2–, ClF2+
59. The compound which is ionic in crystalline state but Cl

—
molecular in vapour state is + alc. KOH  B

(1) PCl5 (2) CCl4 Products A and B are

(3) PCl3 (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) ,
60. The percentage of p character in the orbitals forming
P - P bonds in P4 (2) ,
(1) 25 (2) 33
(3) ,
(3) 50 (4) 75
61. Which of the following is most stable alkene? (4) ,
(1) CH2 = CH2
68. In which of the given diagram, Aufbau rule and
(2) CH3 – CH = CH2 Hund’s rule both are violated?
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(1) (2)
(4) (CH3)2C = CH(CH3) ns np ns np
62. –:CH — C — CH and
2 3 CH2 = C — CH3 are
(3) (4)
: —
—

: —

:O :O:– ns np ns np

(1) Resonating structure 69. Formal charge and oxidation state of central oxygen
atom in O3 are respectively
(2) Tautomer
(3) Geometrical isomers (1) 0, 0 (2) +1, 0

(4) Optical isomers (3) +1, – 1 (4) –1, 0

1 2 + 4 5 HBr
63. CH3 — CH — CH — CH — CH3 in this carbocation 70. CH3 – CH – C C–H Major .
1 eq.
3 product
—

Cl
OH CH3
hydride/methyl transfer would be most preferable Number of isomeric products of above reaction
(1) C2 (2) C4 (1) One (2) Three
(3) C1 (4) C5 (3) Two (4) Four
(6)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-2 (Code A)
71. Lucas reagent is added to a compound of molecular CCl3
formula C4H10O and immediate turbidity is observed.
Hence, the compound is (3) (4) Mixture of (1) & (2)
(1) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2CH3 NO2
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3 76. Buna-S is
(1) Copolymer (2) Homopolymer
(3) CH3 – CH – CH2OH
(3) Natural polymer (4) Thermosetting plastic
CH3
77. Paracetamol is
CH3 (1) Analgesic (2) Antacid
(4) CH3 – C – OH (3) Antibiotic (4) Antidepressant
CH3 78. Most acidic halide is
72. An organic compound is heated with aqueous KOH. (1) BBr3 (2) BF3
Pale yellow ppt is obtained when AgNO3 is added to (3) BCl3 (4) BI3
resulting solution. The given organic compound is
79. VCl4 is coloured due to
I
Br (1) p-p transition
(1) (2) (2) d-d transition
(3) Charge transfer spectra
I (4) d-f transition
(3) C2H5Br (4) 80. Number of P – O – P bond in P4O10
(1) 2 (2) 6
73. Most basic compound is
(3) 4 (4) 5
NH2
(1) R – C (2) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 81. Oxidation state, covalency and total number of lone
NH pairs on sulphur in S8 molecule respectively
O (1) 0, 0, 8 (2) 0, 2, 16
(3) (4) (3) 0, 16, 16 (4) 2, 8, 16
N N 82. If heat of neutralisation of strong acid and strong
CH3 base is –57.3 kJ, the amount of heat released when
H
10 L of 0.2 M H2SO4 is completely neutralised by
 strong base will be
74. + HIexcess Major product.
(1) 57.3 kJ (2) 114.6 kJ
O
(3) 11.46 kJ (4) 229.2 kJ
Major product of the reaction is
83. In the following reactions, equilibrium constants are
given
(1) (2)
O HO I 

N2  3H2 
 2NH3 ; K1


N2  O2 
 2NO; K2
(3) (4)
HO OH I I 1
H2  

O2 
 H2 O; K3
2
CH3
Cl /h conc.HNO The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by
75. 
2( excess )
(X) 
conc.H SO
3
(Y) . oxygen to give NO
2 4

5
2NH3  

 2NO  3H2O is
O2 
The product (Y) in the above reaction 2
CH2Cl CCl3 K 2K 32 K 22K 3
(1) (2)
K1 K1
(1) (2)
K1K 2 K 2K 33
(3) K (4)
NO2 NO2 3 K1

(7)
Mock Test-2 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
84. HCl gas is passed through a solution of an impure 88. An aqueous solution is 1.0 m in NaI. Which change
sample of NaCl that precipitates NaCl due to will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to
increase?
(1) Ksp of NaCl is crossed by its ionic product
(1) Addition of NaCl
(2) Ionic product of NaCl is crossed by its Ksp
(2) Addition of Na2SO4
(3) Acidification precipitates NaCl
(3) Addition of 0.1 mol NaI
(4) NaCl molecules become heavy
(4) Addition of 1 L H2O
85. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 required to oxidise
89. 75% completion of a first order reaction takes
one mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium
2.38 hours. How much time will it take for 99.9%
(1) 2.5 mol (2) 0.2 mol completion?
(3) 0.6 mol (4) 0.5 mol (1) 1.39 h
86. According to the structure, the Cl atoms of bleaching (2) 7.14 h
powder have oxidation numbers (3) 11.9 h
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, –1 (4) 15.85 h
(3) +1, –1 (4) 0, +1 90. For a reaction A + B  Products, the order w.r.t. A
87. Pure germanium, if doped with arsenic, will produce is 1 and w.r.t. B is 2. What would be the rate if
concentration of both are doubled?
(1) n-type semiconductor
(1) 4 times
(2) p-type semiconductor
(2) 6 times
(3) A superconductor (3) 8 times
(4) Non-conductor (4) 2 times

BOTANY
91. In slime molds (3) Mesocarp is fibrous
(1) Spores possess true walls (4) Develops from monocarpellary superior ovary
(2) Spores are dispersed by water current 96. Select the incorrect statement
(3) Plasmodium is formed during adverse condition (1) Xylem parenchyma cells store food in the form
(4) Plasmodium differentiates into fruiting bodies of starch or fats
during favourable condition
(2) Sclereids are absent in leaves of tea
92. Gemmae are
(3) Tracheids are elongated tube like cells
(1) Non-green, multicellular structure
(4) The vessels are devoid of cytoplasm
(2) Developed in small receptacles
97. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Non-green, asexual bud
(1) Is extensive and continuous with the inner
(4) Diploid vegetative structure
membrane of nucleus
93. United corolla is characteristic of the flower of
(2) Is major site for lipid synthesis
(1) Sweetpea (2) Tomato
(3) Is attached with 40 S ribosomes
(3) Trifolium (4) Mustard
(4) Is attached with 60 S ribosomes
94. Select the correct match
Plants Stamens Placentation 98. Match the following

(1) Pea Diadelphous Basal Column I Column II

(2) China rose Monadelphous Parietal a. Bouquet stage (i) Prophase of mitosis
(3) Tomato Epipetalous Axile b. Spireme stage (ii) Prophase I of meiosis
(4) Sunflower Syngenesious Parietal c. Quiescent stage (iii) Metaphase of mitosis
95. Select the odd one w.r.t. fruit of mango d. Congression stage (iv) G0stage
(1) Develops from monocarpellary inferior ovary (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Pericarp is differentiated into three layers (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(8)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-2 (Code A)
99. Consider the following 105. Read the following four statements a, b, c, & d w.r.t.
maize and select the right option with correct
a. For a solution at atmospheric pressure w = s
statements
b. w (water potential) of a cell is affected by a. Colourless flower with versatile anther.
solute potential only
b. Flowers have number of ovules in each ovary.
c. p (pressure potential) is usually positive in
xylem during day c. Pollen grains are light and non-sticky.
d. Flowers have nectar gland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a & c (2) a & d
(1) b & c (2) a only
(3) b & c (4) b & d
(3) b only (4) a, b & c
106. Select the incorrect match
100. Select the odd one w.r.t. function of magnesium
(1) Unitegmic ovule – Santalum
(1) Activates the enzymes i.e., hexokinase
(2) Orthotropous ovule – Polygonum
(2) Maintains the ribosome structure
(3) Hemianatropous ovule – Ranunculus
(3) Promotes flowering
(4) Amphitropous ovule – Alisma
(4) Helps in synthesis of DNA
107. Patau’s syndrome is due to
101. Consider the following statements w.r.t. C3 cycle and
select the correct option (1) Linkage

a. First stable product is 3-C compound. (2) Crossing over

b. Three molecules of ATP are required to fix one (3) Sex linked inheritance
molecule of CO2 (4) Non-disjunction of chromosome
c. Reduction is the most crucial step. 108. (N) × (N+1) gametic combination will cause which of
(1) Only c is correct (2) b & c are correct the following types of mutation?

(3) a & b are correct (4) a, b & c are correct (1) Monosomy (2) Trisomy

102. Read the following statements w.r.t. fermentation by (3) Tetrasomy (4) Double trisomy
yeasts and select the correct option 109. In human, DNA packaging proteins are rich in
a. Complete oxidation of glucose (1) Tryptophan and arginine
b. The reducing agent is NADH + H+ (2) Lysine and arginine
c. The process is inhibited after formation of 13 (3) Lysine and glutamine
percent alcohol
(4) Tyrosine and tryptophan
(1) Only c is incorrect
110. During lac operon, lac promoter provides binding site for
(2) a & b are incorrect
(1) RNA polymerase (2) Repressor protein
(3) b & c are correct
(3) Lactose (4) -galactosidase
(4) Only b is correct
111. Select the correct match
103. ABA plays an important role in
Crop Variety Resistance to
(1) Seed dormancy disease
(2) Seed maturation (1) Cow pea Pusa swarnim White rust
(3) Seed development (2) Chilli Pusa sadabahar Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) More than one is correct (3) Brassica Phusa shubra Black rot
104. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly (4) Wheat Atlas - 66 Hill bunt
matched? 112. Select the incorrect match
(1) Chlamydomonas – Zoospores (1) Cyclosporin-A – Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Oxalis – Bulbils (2) Statins – Monascus purpureus
(3) Kalanchoe – Sucker (3) Citric acid – Aspergillus niger
(4) Water hyacinth – Offset (4) Clot buster – Staphylococcus

(9)
Mock Test-2 (Code A)
113. Which taxonomic category will have similar taxon in
the classification of mango and wheat?
(1) Class (2) Division
(3) Order (4) Family
114. Prokaryotic organisms capable of nitrogen fixation in
specialised cells called heterocyst
(1) Have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
(2) Are generally not surrounded by gelatinous
sheath in colonial forms
(3) Lack photolysis of water and PSI
(4) May have chemosynthetic nutrition also
115. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. viruses.
(1) No virus contain both RNA and DNA
(2) Genetic material in viruses are infectious
(3) The term virus was given by Ivanowsky
(4) They are inert crystalline structures outside the
living cells or hosts
116. Identify the given diagram and choose incorrect
statement
(1) Heterosporous form
(2) Female gametophytes are retained on the parent
sporophytes till fertilisation
(3) Leaves may be heterophyllous
(4) Gametophytes require cool, damp, shady places
to grow
117. In monocotyledonous seeds the outer covering of
endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinaceous
layer called
(1) Scutellum (2) Coleorhiza
(3) Aleurone layer (4) Coleoptile
118. Internal organisation of a dicotyledonous stem differs
from that of monocotyledonous stem in
(1) Absence of phloem parenchyma
(2) Absence of parenchymatous pith
(3) Presence of differentiated ground tissue
(4) Presence of water containing cavities
(10)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
119. Fluid nature of plasma membrane helps in all,
except
(1) Formation of intercellular junction
(2) Cell growth and cell division
(3) Lateral movement of proteins within the overall
lipid bilayer
(4) Active transport through ion channels
120. Mitotic prophase is characterised by
(1) Presence of only one chromatid in each
chromosome
(2) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
(3) Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochore of
chromosome
(4) Poleward movement of chromosomes
121. Choose odd one out w.r.t. facilitated diffusion.
(1) Highly selective
(2) Uphill and needs ATP
(3) Transport achieves saturation
(4) Affected by protein inhibitors
122. Chlorosis in plants is generally due to deficiency of
(1) N, P, Mo (2) B, Mg, K
(3) Mg, Fe, Zn (4) N, K, Cu
123. Which of these ensures that the rubisco functions
as a carboxylase minimising the oxygenase activity
at the site of O2 fixation in C4 plants?
(1) Agranal chloroplast in bundle sheath cells
(2) Special type of leaf anatomy
(3) Breaking down of C4 acid in bundle sheath cells
(4) Much greater affinity of rubisco for CO2 than for
O2 in bundle sheath cells
124. Cytochrome c in mitochondrial ETS is a ________
protein attached to the ________ surface of the inner
membrane.
(1) Small, outer
(2) Large, outer
(3) Small, inner
(4) Large, inner
125. Plant hormone that can be used to improve the
shape of apples and to increase length of grape
stalks is
(1) Cytokinins
(2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Ethylene
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
126. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. zygote formed as a
product of syngamy
(1) Vital link that ensures continuity of species
between individuals of two successive
generations
(2) Its development depends upon the environment
to which it is exposed
(3) Every organism reproducing sexually or
asexually begins life as a single celled structure
called zygote
(4) Zygote may undergo a period of rest before its
development
127. Anther wall layers responsible for protection and help
in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen
is/are
(1) Endothecium only
(2) Epidermis only
(3) Middle layers only
(4) Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers
128. In heterozygotes, only one allele expresses called
dominant and the other does not known as
recessive. The recessive trait or allele is due to
(1) Formation of non-functional enzyme
(2) Formation of less efficient enzyme by the
recessive gene
(3) Synthesis of no enzyme at all for a particular
metabolism
(4) All of these
129. Choose correct option w.r.t. adapter molecule.
(1) It has first loop for enzyme binding from 3end
(2) There are no tRNAs for stop codons
(3) Previously called as sRNA soluble in the cell
(4) The primary structure of tRNA looks like a
clover-leaf
130. Promoter in a transcription unit is located at
(1) 3 end upstream of coding strand
(2) 5 end downstream of a non-template strand
(3) 5 end upstream of coding strand
(4) 5 end downstream non-coding strand
(11)
Mock Test-2 (Code A)
131. Single cell protein can be useful in all, except
(1) Reducing environmental pollution
(2) Decreasing pressure on agriculture
(3) Preventing shift from meat to grain as diet by
human beings
(4) Being acceptable as food in future
132. Initially BOD of primary effluent in aeration tank
increases in STPs because
(1) Vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes occur
(2) BOD is direct measure of organic matter present
in the water
(3) Primary effluent contains flocs of dense bacterial
population only
(4) Secondary treatment of STP is physical and
biological
133. When a population grows in a habitat with limited
resources, the population growth after phase of
acceleration and deceleration finally achieves
asymptote
(1) If the population density reaches the carrying
capacity
(2) If the competition between interacting individuals
decreases
(3) The population growth is called logistic and
dN
represented mathematically as  rN
dt
(4) The environmental resistance becomes suddenly
effective and does not allow it to grow beyond
carrying capacity
134. Which of these decreases in climax stage than the
seral stages during ecological succession?
(1) Nutrient immobilisation
(2) Net community productivity
(3) Structural complexity
(4) Decomposition of detritus
135. Particulate matters in air can be removed most
efficiently by the use of
(1) Catalytic converters in exhaust of automobiles
(2) Scrubbers
(3) Electrostatic precipitators
(4) Euro-III emission norms
Mock Test-2 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

ZOOLOGY
136. Which one of the following classes is incorrectly 141. Which structure thickened in certain regions of the
matched with its two general characters? alimentary canal in order to act as a sphincter?
(1) Amphibia – Urinary bladder present, (1) Circular layer of muscularis mucosa
fertilization external (2) Longitudinal layer of muscularis mucosa
(2) Chondrichthyes – Air bladder, operculum (3) Circular layer of muscularis externa
present
(4) Longitudinal layer of muscularis externa
(3) Cyclostomata – Closed circulation, 6-15
pairs of gill slits 142. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. large
intestine?
(4) Reptiles – Cornified skin, direct
development (1) Absorption of water
137. The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is (2) Absorption of some vitamins
presence of water vascular system. It helps in all the (3) Absorption of some drugs
following functions except
(4) All of these
(1) Locomotion
143. Find the incorrect statement
(2) Transport of food
(1) Atrial diastole coincides with ventricular systole
(3) Respiration
(2) Lubb and dub sounds are associated with the
(4) Excretion and reproduction closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
138. If all stages of Plasmodium are digested in the respectively
stomach of mosquito after a blood meal, it means (3) Action potential of SA node increases the flow
that the concerned mosquito is of blood into ventricles by about 30%
(1) A male (4) During cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out
(2) Of different species 70 ml of blood
(3) Very hungry 144. Drinking of which would lead to the highest rate of
ADH secretion?
(4) Patient had used mosquito repellent
(1) Distilled water (2) Sea water
139. Following is the labelled diagrammatic representation
of head region of cockroach. Mark the exact labelled (3) Isotonic water (4) Alcohol
parts as A, B, C and D. 145. A sudden withdrawl of a body part which comes in
contact with objects that are extremely hot are
Ocellus Compound
eye under control of
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Cerebellum
C
(4) Medulla oblongata
B
146. Somatic neural system relays impulse from
A
(1) CNS to the involuntary organs
D (2) CNS to smooth muscles of the body
A B C D (3) Involuntary organs to CNS
(1) Labrum Mandible Maxillae Labium (4) CNS to skeletal muscles
(2) Labium Maxillae Mandible Labrum 147. Mark a suitable category for the enzyme that
(3) Mandible Labrum Labium Maxillae catalyses following reaction.
(4) Maxillae Labium Labrum Mandible Sucrase
Sucrose   glucose + fructose
140. Fibres and cells are compactly packed in the dense
connective tissues. Orientation of which component Fats 
Steapsin fatty acid + glycerol
is responsible for considering them dense regular in
(1) Hydrolase
tendons?
(2) Lyase
(1) Yellow fibres (2) Collagen fibres
(3) Oxidoreductase
(3) Fibroblast (4) Chondroblast
(4) Transferase
(12)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-2 (Code A)
148. Sulpha drugs are effective antibiotic which inhibit the 155. A person suffering from cancer is treated with
formation of folic acid by acting as a radiotherapy. Which is correct for this technique of
(1) Non-competitive inhibitor treatment?

(2) Competitive inhibitor (1) All tumour cells and surrounding normal cells get
killed
(3) Irreversible inhibitor
(2) It is meant to cure damaged DNA
(4) Uncompetitive inhibitor
(3) Radiations activate p53 gene of tumour cell
149. Darwin’s finches that formed separate species in the
Galapagos islands are the example of all except (4) Tumour cells are irradiated lethally

(1) Allopatric speciation 156. Which drug can be used under medical supervision
to treat attention deficit disorder and narcolepsy?
(2) Microevolution leading to macroevolution
(1) Opioids (2) Stimulants
(3) Adaptive radiations
(3) Hallucinogens (4) Tranquillisers
(4) Adaptive convergence
157. During gastrulation active rolling of endodermal and
150. Sickle cell anaemia is favoured by nature in malaria mesodermal cells from the surface to interior is
prone area. Which of the following will be category termed as
favoured and what type of selection it is?
(1) Involution (2) Ingression
(1) Normal individual, balancing selection
(3) Epiboly (4) Delamination
(2) Homozygous individual sickle cell anaemia,
disruptive selection 158. The scientific and common names of certain animals
are given below. Mark the correct option
(3) Heterozygous female, balancing selection
Scientific name Common name
(4) Homozygous male, normalising selection
A Antedon – Brittle star
151. Find the incorrect statement
B Loligo – Cuttle fish
(1) Buffalo milk is almost free from carotenoids due
to its conversion into vitamin A C Dentalium – Tusk shell

(2) Catla, Mrigal and Rohu are fishes commonly D Euspongia – Bath sponge
used in polyculture in India Option
(3) Sterile and immature cows can be induced to (1) A, B and C are wrong
lactate through stilbestrol tablets (2) A is wrong but B, C and D are correct
(4) Univoltine moths give only one crop of silk during (3) A and B are wrong but C and D are correct
the year usually found in Karnataka
(4) A and B are correct but C and D are wrong
152. Which of the following statements is/are right w.r.t.
sympatric speciation? 159. Read the following characters.
(1) It is the formation of species within a single (a) Mostly terrestrial
population without geographical isolation (b) Body is covered by dry and cornified skin;
(2) It is a subpopulation reproductively isolated in epidermal scales or scutes
the midst of its parent population (c) Heart is three chambered
(3) It is formation of new species by mutations and (d) Fertilisation is internal
producing its own gene pool
All the given characters are applicable for
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Exocoetus (2) Ichthyophis
153. Coacervates do not fulfil the requirement for probable
(3) Calotes (4) Columba
precursors of life. One of the most appropriate
reasons for this is 160. All cells in epithelium are held together with little
intercellular material. In nearly all animal tissues,
(1) They do not have lipid outer membrane
specialised junctions provide both structural and
(2) They do not have cell organelles functional link between individual cells. Which of the
(3) They were anaerobics following junctions facilitate the cells to communicate
with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
(4) They unable to exchange energy adjoining cell?
154. In which of the following diseases the toxoids are (1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions
used for vaccination?
(3) Desmosome (4) Gap junctions
(1) Diptheria (2) Tetanus
(3) Rabies (4) Both (1) & (2)
(13)
Mock Test-2 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
161. Read the following statements w.r.t. B-DNA Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the identification
(A) Backbone is formed by the sugar-phosphate- and labelled structures A, B, C and D.
sugar chain (1) A – Crop – Sac like structure
(B) The two strands of polynucleotides are used for storing of
antiparallel food
(C) At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36° (2) B – Proventriculus – It has an outer layer
of thick circular
(D) The rise per base pair would be 34 Å
muscles and thick
How many statements are correct? inner six highly
(1) One (2) Two chitinous teeth which
(3) Three (4) Four helps in grinding the
162. Given below is a primary structure of a portion of a food particles
hypothetical protein, N and C refer to the two termini (3) C – Gastric caecae – Present at the
of every protein. junction of foregut
and midgut which
N secretes digestive
C juice
(4) D – Malphigian tubules – Help in removal of
undigested food;
present at the
OH junction of foregut
and midgut

SH
165. Mark the odd one w.r.t. composition of succus
entericus
- -

CH3 CH2 CH2 H

-
-

- HN - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO -
(1) Dipeptidases (2) Lipases
A B C D
Choose the correct option w.r.t. identification of (3) Nucleosidases (4) Amylases
amino acid labelled as A, B, C and D. 166. Match the following
A B C D Column I Column II

(1) Serine Cysteine Tyrosine Alanine a Tidal volume (i) 1100–1200 ml

(2) Serine Cysteine Tyrosine Glycine b Inspiratory reserve (ii) 500 ml
(3) Alanine Cysteine Tyrosine Glycine volume

(4) Alanine Cysteine Tyrosine Serine c Expiratory reserve (iii) 2500 ml to 3000 ml
volume
163. Given below is a list of some polysaccharide
d Residual volume (iv) 1000 ml to 1100 ml
a. Cellulose b. Starch
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
c. Glycogen d. Paper
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
Which of the following can hold I2 molecules in the
helical portion and produce colour with I2 solution? 167. In which of the following chronic disorder alveolar
(1) a and b (2) b and c walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface
is decreased?
(3) c and d (4) a, b and c
(1) Bronchial asthma (2) Emphysema
164. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
alimentary canal of cocroach (3) Whooping cough (4) Bronchitis
168. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
ECG of a patient
R
T
A

C
Q S
Which of the following nodal tissue must be
damaged in patient’s heart?
D
(1) SA node (2) AV node
(3) Bundle of His (4) Purkinje fibre
(14)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-2 (Code A)
169. Which of the following correctly explains the 172. Which of the following statements are true w.r.t.
function of specific part of human nephron? association areas of brain?
(1) Afferent arteriole – Carries blood away (A) These areas are responsible for complex
from the glomerulus functions like intersensory associations, memory
towards renal vein and communication
(2) Distal convoluted tubule – Reabsorption of K+ (B) There are large regions present in cerebral cortex
ions only from the (C) It is consistuted of white matter
surrounding blood
vessels (D) These are related with motor signalling only
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule – Region of (1) A and B only
maximum reab- (2) C and D only
sorption actively as
(3) B and C only
well as passively
(4) A and D only
(4) Henle’s loop – Most of the re-
absorption of water 173. Given below is a list of hormonal disorders
and electrolyte (a) Acromegaly (b) Myxedema
takes place
(c) Addison’s disease (d) Diabetes mellitus
170. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of right
How many of them is/are the disorders due to
pectoral girdle and upper arm.
hypersecretion?
Scapula
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
174. Which of the following is diploid cell forms two equal
haploid cells?
(1) Primary spermatocyte
(2) Primary oocyte
Clavicle (3) Spermatogonium
(4) All of these
Humerus
175. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. duration of
embryonic development and major events.
Radius Duration Events
Ulna (1) 1st month – Embryo’s heart is formed
(2) 2nd month – Limbs and digits are
developed
Carpals
(3) 3rd month – Appearance of hair on
Metacarpals head
(4) 6th month – Eyelids separate and
Phalanges
eyelashes are formed
Choose the correct option which includes incorrectly 176. The assisted reproductive technology, in which
labelled bone? embryo is always formed by in-vivo fertilisation is?
(1) Radius and ulna (1) ZIFT
(2) Carpals and metacarpals (2) IVF-ET
(3) Scapula and clavicle (3) IUT
(4) Humerus and carpals (4) GIFT
171. All the following structures are found in an electrical 177. In which of the following diseases, Aedes mosquito
synapse, except. acts as vector/carrier?
(1) Gap junction (1) Malaria and Dengue
(2) Synaptic vesicles (2) Dengue and chikungunya
(3) Presynaptic membrane (3) Dengue and kala-azar
(4) Post-synaptic membrane (4) Diphtheria and Tetanus

(15)
Mock Test-2 (Code A)
178. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. origin and
evolution of life
(1) The first cellular form of life were probably
chemoheterotrophic prokaryotes
(2) Charles Darwin concluded that existing living
forms share similarities to varying degrees not
only among themselves but also with life forms
that existed millions of years ago
(3) According to Darwin variations are small and
directionless
(4) Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de-Vries
believed mutation caused speciation
179. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
pest resistant plants RNA interference?
(1) A novel strategy was adopted to prevent pest
infestation which was based on the process of
RNA interference
  
(16)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
(2) RNAi involves silencing of a specific mRNA due
to a complementary ssRNA molecule that binds
to and prevents translation of mRNA
(3) Agrobacterium vectors have been used to
introduce nematode specific genes into the
tobacco plant
(4) The source of complementary RNA used in this
technique could be from an infection by viruses
having RNA genomes
180. In gel electrophoresis, DNA moves towards _______,
because DNA has ________ charge.
Choose the option which correctly fills the given
blanks.
(1) Anode, positive
(2) Cathode, positive
(3) Anode, negative
(4) Cathode, negative
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-2 (Code A)

15/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Mock Test – 2 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146. (4)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (1) 112. (4) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (1) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (4)
9. (1) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (1) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (4) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (2) 157. (1)
14. (3) 50. (1) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (2) 52. (1) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (4)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (1) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (1)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (1)
29. (1) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (1)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (3) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (3)
(17)
 15/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Mock Test – 2 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
Answers and Hints
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 9. Answer (1)
Terminal speed (v)  r2 Amplitude (A) = A0 e bt /2 m
v 2r 10. Answer (3)
   2  2  4%
v r
g
2. Answer (2) a upward
2
v
11. Answer (1)

t Rate of cooling (Temperature difference between

O 2 4 body and surrounding)
⎛ 90  100 ⎞ ⎛ 90  100 ⎞ 10
⎜ ⎟ K⎜  70 ⎟ ⇒  25 K
v=t–2 ⎝ 5 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ 5
1 1 ⎛ 80  90 ⎞ ⎛ 80  90 ⎞ 10
Distance =  2 2   2 2  4 m ⎜ ⎟  K⎜  70 ⎟ ⇒  15 K
2 2 ⎝ t ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ t
4
Average speed =  1 m/s 25
4 On solving, t  min
3
3. Answer (4)
12. Answer (2)
Angle made by projectile with horizontal is 30° which
CP 2
is less than 45°. Hence the two velocities are not    1 ,
perpendicular at any instant. CV f

4. Answer (2) 1 3  2  5 3  10 13 2 19
f       1 3 
3 3 3 13 13
T  2  2Mg  4Mg
13. Answer (4)
5. Answer (3)
Factual statement.
At B and D, centripetal force is due to tension only
14. Answer (3)
as string becomes horizontal.
15. Answer (3)
6. Answer (1)
16. Answer (2)
Upper block will fall downward with acceleration = g.
7. Answer (1) 1
  tan1 2 ⇒ cos  
3
F 1 3Gm(2m ) 3Gm
Acceleration = net    0 M cos 
Mass 2m l2 l2 V 
4 r 2
8. Answer (4)
17. Answer (3)
Except ring and hollow cylinder translational KE is
more than rotational KE. 18. Answer (3)

(1)
19. Answer (1) 31. Answer (1)
nV  nR n  nR 32. Answer (4)
 ,n  V 33. Answer (4)
n 1 2
20. Answer (3) 34. Answer (1)
35. Answer (3)
21. Answer (1)
36. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3)
37. Answer (2)
23. Answer (3) 38. Answer (1)
24. Answer (2) 39. Answer (2)
25. Answer (2) 40. Answer (4)
26. Answer (1) 41. Answer (1)
27. Answer (2) 42. Answer (1)
28. Answer (3) 43. Answer (2)
29. Answer (1) 44. Answer (3)
30. Answer (4) 45. Answer (4)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4) Only electronic distribution in these two species is
This is square planar in shape. different.

47. Answer (1) 63. Answer (1)

1 mol KMnO4 (H+) = 5 g eq 64. Answer (3)

65. Answer (3)
30
30 volume  normal. 66. Answer (4)
5.6
This is a poly saccharide.
48. Answer (1)
67. Answer (2)
49. Answer (2)
68. Answer (4)
Former will have zero dipole moment.
Fact.
50. Answer (1)
69. Answer (2)
First find the average molar mass of the mixture.
51. Answer (1) O 1
F.C.  6   6  2  1
O O 2
Freezing point depression  i.
70. Answer (4)
52. Answer (1)
H
53. Answer (3)
HBr
CH3 – C – C C–H
x 1
log. = log K + log P Freundlich equation. Cl
m n H
H
54. Answer (1)
CH3 – C*– C = C
55. Answer (2) Br
Cl H
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3) cis, trans, d and l
Oxalic acid stronger than ethanoic acid. 71. Answer (4)

58. Answer (4) Immediate cloudiness means compound is 3°

alcohol.
59. Answer (1)
72. Answer (3)
In solid state it has composition PCl4+ PCl6–
60. Answer (4) C2H5  Br 
H2O
 C2H5OH
61. Answer (4)
AgI 
KBr
 AgNO3
62. Answer (1)
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73. Answer (1) 83. Answer (4)
Presence of two such group make it more basic. Fact.
74. Answer (4)
84. Answer (1)
 HI Fact.
+ HI
(excess)
O HO I I I 85. Answer (4)

75. Answer (3) +6 +2 +3 3+ +4 3+

K2Cr2O7 + Fe C2O4 Fe + 2CO2 + Cr
CH3 CCl3 CCl 3

n.f : 6 3
Cl /h conc.HNO

2
 
conc.H SO
3

2 4
NO2 6 mol FeC2O4 required 3 mol K2Cr2O7
76. Answer (1)
3
Fact.  1 mol FeC2O4 requires =  1  0.5
6
77. Answer (1)
Fact. 86. Answer (3)
78. Answer (4) Fact.
Fact.
87. Answer (1)
79. Answer (2)
Fact.
Fact.
80. Answer (2) 88. Answer (4)
O Addition of solute decreases vapour pressure while
P addition of H2O increases vapour pressure.
O O
O O 89. Answer (3)
O P P O
O O
P 2.38
t1 2   1.19
2
O
81. Answer (2) t99.9% = 1.19 × 10 = 11.9 hrs
Fact.
90. Answer (3)
82. Answer (4)
Number of moles of H2SO4 = M × V = 0.2 × 10 = 2 Rate = K[A] [B]2

Number of moles of H+ = 4 = number of moles of H2O = K[2A] [2B]2

 Heat evolved = 4 × –57.3 = –229.2 kJ = 8 times

BOTANY
91. Answer (1) 104. Answer (3)
92. Answer (2) 105. Answer (1)
93. Answer (2) 106. Answer (1)
94. Answer (3) 107. Answer (4)
95. Answer (1) 108. Answer (2)
96. Answer (2) 109. Answer (2)
97. Answer (4) 110. Answer (1)
98. Answer (1) 111. Answer (2)
99. Answer (2) 112. Answer (4)
100. Answer (3) 113. Answer (2)
101. Answer (3) 114. Answer (1)
102. Answer (3)
Photolysis of water is absent in heterocyst only, not
103. Answer (4) in heterocystous BGA.
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115. Answer (3) 126. Answer (3)
Term virus was given by Pasteur. Asexually reproducing organisms do not form zygote.

116. Answer (2) 127. Answer (4)

128. Answer (4)
Fertilisation in Selaginella does not occur when
female gametophyte is retained rather on free-living 129. Answer (2)
female gametophyte i.e., on soil. tRNA appears clover-leaf like in its secondary
117. Answer (3) structure.
130. Answer (3)
In monocot seeds, the proteinaceous layer is
endosperm (3n) and called aleurone layer. Promoter region in a transcription unit is located at
3 upstream of non-coding strand and 5 end
118. Answer (3) upstream of coding strand.
Water containing cavity is found in monocot stem. 131. Answer (3)
119. Answer (4) Shift from grain to meat as food by man cannot be
Facilitated diffusion is not dependent on fluidity of prevented.
membrane. 132. Answer (1)
120. Answer (2) For growth of fungi and bacteria, the O2 is essential
so BOD increases initially, later the BOD decreases.
121. Answer (2)
133. Answer (1)
Facilitated diffusion is downhill and does not need
In logistic growth environmental resistance is effective
ATP.
from the beginning and represented by
122. Answer (3) dN ⎛K N⎞
 rN ⎜ ⎟.
N, K, S, Mo, Mg, Fe, Mn, Zn produce chlorosis in dt ⎝ K ⎠
plants. 134. Answer (2)
123. Answer (3) Net community productivity decreases as respiratory
loss increases in climax community.
Breakdown of malic acid in bundle sheath increases
CO2 conc. 135. Answer (3)
Euro-III emission norms and catalytic converters can
124. Answer (1)
reduce gaseous air pollutant released from
125. Answer (3) automobiles exhaust.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) 144. Answer (2)
Chondrichthyes do not have air bladders and Sea water will concentrate plasma so ADH secretion
operculum. will increase that dilute the plasma.
145. Answer (2)
137. Answer (4)
146. Answer (4)
138. Answer (2)
Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from
139. Answer (1) the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth
140. Answer (2) muscles of the body.
147. Answer (1)
In tendons, collagen fibres are parallely arranged
with rows of fibroblasts. All digestive enzymes are hydrolytic.
148. Answer (2)
141. Answer (3)
149. Answer (4)
Circular layer of muscularis mucosa is only thin layer.
150. Answer (3)
142. Answer (4)
151. Answer (4)
143. Answer (2)
Univolutine moths are found in Kashmir whereas
Dub sound is associated with the closure of the multivolutine moths in Karnataka.
semilunar valves.
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152. Answer (4) 166. Answer (2)
153. Answer (1) 167. Answer (2)
In the absence of lipid, coacervates cannot 168. Answer (1)
reproduce. 169. Answer (3)
154. Answer (4) 170. Answer (3)
171. Answer (2)
For rabies, vaccine is killed vaccine.
172. Answer (1)
155. Answer (4) Association areas are responsible for complex
In tumour cell/hyperactive cells, DNA are highly function like intersensory associations, memory and
sensitive to radiotherapy. communication.
173. Answer (1)
156. Answer (2)
Acromegaly is due to hypersecretion of growth
157. Answer (1) hormone.
158. Answer (3) 174. Answer (1)
Loligo – Squid, Antedon – sealily Primary oocytes form two unequal haploid cell.
159. Answer (3) 175. Answer (3)
Calotes – Garden Lizard Major organs are formed during 3 rd month of
160. Answer (4) pregnancy.
Tight junctions prevent the leakage of substance. 176. Answer (4)
In GIFT, gamete transferred in the fallopian tube of
161. Answer (3)
female and fertilisation is in-vivo.
In B-DNA, the rise per pair would be 3.4 Å.
177. Answer (2)
162. Answer (3)
Aedes mosquito acts as vector for Dengue and
A – Alanine Chikungunya.
B – Cysteine 178. Answer (3)
C – Tyrosine According to Darwin, variation are small and
D – Glycine directional.
179. Answer (2)
163. Answer (2)
RNA interferencing involves silencing of a specific
Starch and glycogen produce colour with Iodine
mRNA due to a complementary ds RNA molecule
164. Answer (4) that binds to and prevents translation of mRNA.
D – Malphigian tubules help in excretion 180. Answer (3)
165. Answer (4) DNA has negative charge so moves towards anode.

  

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