CDI QUESTION AND ANSWER

1. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases

oxygen readily?
A. organic peroxide C. corrosive liquid
B. blasting agent D. combustible fiber
2. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as
from the base to the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe
B. sprinkler system D. flash point
3. What is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in
an electrical system?
A. magnet C. brace
B. jumper D. wire
4. Conduction is heat transfer through:
A. solid materials C. electromagnetic waves
B. smoke D. air motion
5. The most common motive for arson is
A. jealousy C. profit
B. spite D. revenge
6. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non- volatile from the
less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to
produce a nearly purified substance?
A. combustion C. evaporation
B. distillation D. condensation
7. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air?
A. evaporating point C. boiling point
B. ignition point D. flash point
8. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A. inflammable substance found in the premises
B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C. building insurance
D. any of these
9. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic
waves. This heat transfer is:
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection
10. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant materials attached
to and extending below the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of
the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed
upwards to a roof vent?
A. fire door C. fire trap
B. electric arc D. curtain board
11. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key C. key board
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 B. fire hose D. jumper
12. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?
A. 20 C. 30
B. 10 D. 15
13. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected
horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle
14. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in climbing the
ladder called?
A. hangar C. beams
B. rungs D. braces
15. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is
equal to the atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density C. fire point
B. boiling point D. vapor pressure
16. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?
A. distillation C. allotment
B. abatement D. combustion
17. The ratio of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal
volume of water.
A. vapor density C. specific gravity
B. molecular weight D. vapor pressure
18. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called
_______________.
A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation
19. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of
the following facilities should you check?
A. Gift-wrapped packages C. Telephones
B. Electric switch system D. All of these
20. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?
A. Ignition point C. Temperature
B. Flash point D. Boiling point
21. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should
start ____________.
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. Close to the floor beams
D. None of these
22. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate
or support combustion?
A. Smoke C. carbon
B. oxidizing material D. ember
23. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ________.

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 A. Infection C. shock
B. burns D. asphyxiation
24. In a combustion process, which event comes first?
A. fire point C. none of these
B. ignition temperature D. flash point
25. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
26. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point of origin or at least
to the area involved?
A. extinguishments C. suppression
B. confinement D. control
27. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep
over the entire surface?
A. oxidation C. flash over
B. back draft D. combustion
28. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or
consumes electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical
system.
A. self- closing door C. jumper
B. overloading D. oxidizing material
29. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of
not less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if
construction on either side collapses under fire condition:
A. firewood C. post wall
B. fire wall D. fire trap
30. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable
extinguishing method is:
A. smothering C. fuel removal
B. cooling D. dilution
31. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
B. thick reddish smoke D. unexplained explosion
32. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire
hose is connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
33. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for
controlling fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near
the ceiling?
A. fire hydrant C. standpipe
B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher
34. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline,
alcohol, etc.
A. Class D C. Class A

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 B. Class C D. Class B
35. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence is found?
A. lack of witnesses C. no evidence
B. electrical wiring D. no determination
36. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on
the hose. What is the most likely reason for taking this position?
A. The stream is projected farther
B. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes
37. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the intentional burning
of a car by another constitute arson?
A. no C. it depends
B. yes D. sometimes
38. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:
A. murder with arson C. murder
B. arson with murder D. arson
39. Is the existence of two fires involving the same building with insurance and
with the same owner constitute arson?
A. yes C. no
B. sometimes D. it depends
40. What is the most effective cooling agent for firefighting operation?
A. CO2 C. dry powder
B. H20 D. NaCl
41. What is the most important element of fire?
A. heat C. oxygen
B. fuel D. none of these
42. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does it constitute prima facie of
arson?
A. no C. it depends
B. maybe D. sometimes
43. What is a portable metal device used to put out fires of limited size?
A. fire hose C. fire extinguisher
B. fire hydrant D. fire truck
44. Unrelated fire in different places of the same structure is an indication of:
A. accidental fire C. arson
B. consummated fire D. explosion
45. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise
building?
A. attic C. extension
B. aerial D. hook
46. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a syndicate, how many person
must be involved?
A. 1 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4

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47. Carbon dioxide is hazardous because it:
A. is poisonous C. does not support life
B. explodes when ignited by spark D. supports combustion
48. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which
automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. fire exit C. fire trap
B. damper D. fire alarm
49. Heat transfer thru the medium of space or atmosphere is known as:
A. Conduction C. Reaction
B. Convection D. Radiation
50. A chemical process by which a solid fuel is transformed into its gaseous state
is known as:
A. Vaporization C. Pyrolysis
B. Condensation D. Melting

51. A chemical process by which a liquid is transformed into its gaseous state is
known as:
A. Vaporization C. Pyrolysis
B. Condensation D. Melting
52. The gaseous state of any matter or substance which is transformed into
_______ when heated is known as:
A. Smoke C. Soot
B. Vapor D. Charcoal
53. A by-product of fire in the form of fine particles of unburned carbon or soot is
known as:
A. Smoke C. Soot
B. Vapor D. Charcoal
54. A chemical reaction that occurs when any matter or substance combines with
oxygen and undergoes a physical change is known as:
A. Dehydration C. Fission
B. Oxidation D. Fusion
55. The three sides of the fire triangle are:
A. Fuel, heat and a reactor C. Heat, oxygen and reactor
B. Fuel, heat and oxygen D. A reactor, oxygen and fuel
56. A fourth component to the fire triangle is needed for the fire to sustain itself
and continue and is graphically represented as a:
A. Triangle of fire C. Tetrahedron of fire
B. Quadrangle of fire D. Pentagon of fire
57. Aside from the three elements of fire, the fourth components necessary for the
fire to continue burning is known as:
A. Fuel C. Air
B. Heat D. Uninhibited chain reaction
58. For a fire to start a source of ignition initially acts with a fuel in the form of heat
energy derived from other forms of energy the most common of which is:
A. Chemical energy C. Electrical energy

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 B. Mechanical energy D. Any of the above
59. The minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated to start self
sustained combustion without a separate ignition source is known as
A. Flash point C. Ignition temperature
B. Fire point D. Boiling point
60. Heat energy can be derived from electrical energy by any of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Arcing C. Friction
B. Short circuit D. Overloading
61. Decomposition of a compound substance which release heat is an example of
heat energy derived from:
A. Electrical energy C. Mechanical energy
B. Chemical energy D. Solar energy
62. Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the splitting of atoms is known as:
A. Fusion C. Radiation
B. Fission D. Ignition
63. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as steel beams, metal
conduits and ducts.
A. conduction C. radiation
B. combustion D. convection
64. Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the combining of atoms is known
as:
A. Fusion C. Radiation
B. Fission D. Ignition
65. Heat created by friction thru the movement of two surfaces against its other is
an example of heat energy derived from.
A. Chemical energy C. Mechanical energy
B. Electrical energy D. Solar energy
66. Under normal condition the composition of oxygen in air is about:
A. 15% C. 21%
B. 19% D. 32%
67. When fire occurs in a confirmed area the oxygen then oxygen content of air in
the area.
A. Remain constant C. Decreases
B. Increases D. Multiplies
68. A burning magnesium is classified as:
A. Class A fire C. Class C fire
B. Class B fire D. Class D fire
69. If a burning transformer is electrically de energized the fire may either be:
A. Class A or B fire C. Class C or A fire
B. Class B or C fire D. Class D or C fire
70. Compounds which readily yield oxygen are called:
A. Fuel C. A source of ignition
B. Oxidizer D. Pyrophoric substances
71. Fires involving gasoline are:

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 A. Class A fires C. Class C fires
B. Class B fires D. Class D fires
72. Heat energy transmitted from the sun in the form of electromagnetic radiation is
known as:
A. Electrical Heat Energy C. Mechanical Heat Energy
B. Solar Heat Energy D. Chemical Heat Energy
73. When a fire occur in a confined room or building there is:
A. A limited amount of oxygen
B. An unlimited amount of oxygen
C. Enough room for gases to dissipate
D. Enough ventilation for heat to be reduced
74. The earliest phase of a fire beginning with the actual ignition is tree:
A. Safety-state or free burning C. Roll over phase
B. Incipient phase D. Flash over phase
75. The phase of the fire which occurs when flames have affected and covered the
entire surface of a room or area due to the buildup of heat from the fire itself is the:
A. Hot-smoldering phase C. Flash over phase
B. Free-burning phase D. Roll-over phase
76. The phase of fire which occurs when the area involved is sufficiently confined and
burning is reduced to glowing embers, flames may have ceased to exist and intense
heat liberated is the:
A. Roll-over phase C. Hot—smoldering phase
B. Flash-over phase D. Back draft

77. Aside from heat, another product of combustion is:

A. Light C. Gases
B. Smoke D. Any of the above
78. Aside from burns, heat as product of combustion may endanger life by:
A. Dehydration C. Respiratory injury
B. Exhaustion D. Any of the above
79. Aside from reducing the temperature fire in the flaming mode of combination may
be extinguished by:
A. Inhibition of chain reaction C. Any of the above
B. Exclusion of oxygen D. Removal of fuel
80. The term ___________ is the manner in which fuel ignites, flame develops and fire
spreads.
A. fire technology C. fire behavior
B. fire starter D. fire triangle
B. fire investigation D. fire detection
81. This is the Fire Code of the Philippines of 1977:
A. PD 1184 C. PD 1812
B. PD 1561 D. PD 1185
82. It is the graphical representation of the three elements of fire:
A. fire tetrahedron C. fire triangle

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 B. fire pyramid D. fire chart
83. It is an element of fire which is a colorless, odorless gas and one of the
compositions of air which is approximately 21% by volume:
A. radiation C. oxygen
B. heat D. fuel
84. It is a type of energy which is generated when atoms either split apart or combine:
A. chemical C. mechanical
B. nuclear D. electrical
85. It is a type of energy that is created by friction and compression:
A. chemical C. mechanical
B. nuclear D. electrical
86. It is the movement of two surfaces against each other:
A. heat of friction C. heat of compression
B. heat of oxidation D. heat of combustion
87. Extinguishing a fire by excluding or depriving it of oxygen is known as:
A. Smothering C. Starring
B. Quenching D. Inhibiting
88. Heat is generated when a gas is compressed in a container or cylinder:
A. heat of friction C. heat of compression
B. heat of oxidation D. heat of combustion
89. It is a product of combustion that remain when other products of combustion cool
to normal temperature:
A. poisonous gases C. flame
B. fire gases D. heat

90. It is the luminous body of a burning gas which gets hotter and less luminous when
mixed with more oxygen:
A. smoke C. oxygen
B. gas D. flame
91. It is the color of a luminous flame:
A. reddish-orange C. purplish blue
B. blue D. yellow
92. It refers to the chemical process whereby fire consumes the most solid part of the
fuel:
A. combustion C. backdraft
B. pyrolysis D. propagation
93. It is a form of energy measured in degree of temperature:
A. light C. potential
B. heat D. kinetic
94. It is the visible product of incomplete combustion, usually a mixture of oxygen,
nitrogen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, finely divided particles of soot and
carbon and miscellaneous assortment of product released from the burning material:
A. vapor C. smoke
B. steam D. gas

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 95. It is a physical property of fire which refers to the ratio of the weight of a solid or
substance to the weight of an equal volume of water:
A. vapor pressure C. ignition temperature
B. vapor density D. specific gravity
96. It is the force exerted by the molecules on the surface of the liquid at equilibrium:
A. temperature C. vapor density
B. air pressure D. vapor pressure
97. The constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure:
A. ignition point C. boiling point
B. flash point D. fire point
98. It is a chemical property of fire which refers to the changes whereby energy is
absorbed or is added before the reaction takes place:
A. exothermic reaction C. ectothermic reaction
B. endothermic reaction D. mesothermic reaction
99. It is a chemical property of fire which refers to reactions or changes that release or
give off energy thus they produce substances with less energy than the reactants:
A. exothermic reaction C. ectothermic reaction
B. endothermic reaction D. mesothermic reaction
100. It is a chemical change in which a combustible material and an oxidizing agent
react:
A. combustion C. oxidation
B. radiation D. reaction
Fundamentals of criminal investigation

1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and
simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing
criminal offender to justice.
A. Investigation C. Investigative process
B. Criminal investigation D. Criminal inquest
2. Elements of investigative process are_____________________
1. Recognition 4. Preservation
2. Collection 5. Evaluation
3. Dissemination
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Form of relevant and material information that the investigator maybe obtained from
regular, cultivated or grapevine sources are_______________________________.
1. Sensory 3. Concrete
2. Written 4. Physical forms
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things can be used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the
objectives of criminal investigation.

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 A. Information C. Instrumentation
B. Criminalistics D. Interview/Interrogation
5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the investigator should apprised the person
of his right under Republic Act 7438?
A. During the identification of criminal offender
B. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
C. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
D. During police line-up
6. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed?
Where it was committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed? This are
called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
A. Cardinal Points C. Golden Rule
B. Three I’s D Bridges burn
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be
done in any or a combination of the following, except.
A. By confession or admission by the criminal
B. By corpus delicti
C. By circumstantial evidence
D. By eyewitness
8. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession
which are usually a/ and_____________.
A. Judicial C. Prosecutorial
B. Extra judicial D. Admission
9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited
and interrogated for the crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession
acknowledging his guilt to the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to his
case?
A. It can be used as evidence against him
B. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
C. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
D. His case will prosper
10. _________________ may be in sensory, written or physical forms which can be
obtained from regular, cultivated or grapevine sources.
A. Information C. Data
B. Evidence D. Proof
11. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a
party who does or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if
comment is not true.
A. Admission by Silence C. Admission
B. Res inter alios acta D. Negative pregnant
12. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing
events of the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the
judge that the accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological influence.
A. Mental reconstruction C. Reconstruction
B. Crime reenactment D. Physical reconstruction
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13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a
person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or
commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied, it should be direct and positive
acknowledgment of guilt. Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused
regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to
prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by
means of confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delicti must be established separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an
unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he
is willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to
establish the identity of the suspect?
A. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
B. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite
Artist]
C. Police Line-up
D. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
16. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was
allegedly witnessed by a certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the
perpetrator. What are the factors that you should not consider to determine the accuracy of
his identification of the suspect?
A. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
B. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was
committed
C. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
D. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
17. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce
the conviction of the accused if_____________
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction
beyond reasonable doubt
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. Only 3

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18. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case
perpetrated by an unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the
following may give you a hint to identify the suspect, except one.
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and
possession of fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use by
the suspect
19. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce
the conviction of the accused if:
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3. The circumstances presented should be supported by testimonial evidence
4. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction
beyond reasonable doubt
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
20. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information
of continuing interest, and who willingly provides information to the police either in
response to a specific request or his own initiative.
A. Incidental informant C. Automatic informant
B. Casual informant D. Recruited informant
21. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to
acquire information.
A. Surveillance C. Mobile
B. Stationary surveillance D. Technical
22. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that
subject followed the same general route each day.
A. ABC Method C. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
B. Leap Frog Method D. Fixed surveillance
23. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals
his true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific
mission.
A. Undercover assignment C. Work assignment and social assignment
B. Dwelling assignment D. Personal contact assignment
24. You are one of the police operatives tasked to trace a fugitive. Which of the following
information for his capture will you consider?
1. His full name, known aliases, description and distinctive marks, modus operandi, motive
and associates
2. His habits, hangouts, criminal record, residence, employment, relatives and close friends
3. His physical condition, LTO records check, SSS number, selective service history and
handwriting specimen
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
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 B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
25. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the
components of the crime scene situation which you would analyzed?
1. Suspect’s arrival at the scene
2. Place of entry
3. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
4. Place of exit
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
26. SPO2 Florenz Santos is examining a crime scene, which a dead victim sustained a gunshot
wound in the head with a handgun near his hand. He was informed that the victim had a painful
terminal illness. SPO2 Santos concluded that the wound is self inflicted. This is an example which
the investigator use what kind of reasoning?
A. Deductive C. Reasonable
B. Logical D. Inductive
27. _______________ is the covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical
means to acquire information.
A. Surveillance C. Stationary surveillance
B. Mobile D. Technical
28. Rough tailing or shadowing is the one that___________________________________.
A. General impression about the target is needed C. So much precaution is
needed
B. The target is aware that he is being tailed D. None of them
29. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime
may begins with deductive logic and later on inductive logic; Statement no. 2. A rational theory of
crime is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very high order of probability.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
30. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is
reconstructed from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.
Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions are made about
the consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is made without
supporting evidence.
A. Statement no. 1 is correct
B. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
31. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimal requirements to be observed
by the investigator to insure admissibility of photographs in court.. Which of the following is not one
of them?
A. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevant
B. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathy
C. The photograph should be free from distortion
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 D. The photograph should be clearly developed
32. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its removal
from the crime scene?
A. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
B. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
C. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
D. None of them
33. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime
A. Over-All and environment’s photograph
B. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
C. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
D. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
34. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered to be the simplest and the most
effective way of showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in
their location at the scene.
A. Crime scene sketch C. Finished sketch
B. Rough sketch D. Direction sketch
35. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the following types of search
could be used depending upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought
and speed desired, except:
A. Strip and double strip or grid search C. Rectangular and circular search
B. Zone search D. Spiral and wheel search
36. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
B Evidence must be properly documented
C. Maintain its chain of custody
D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
37. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be properly documented
B. Maintain its chain of custody
C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
D. Photographed and packaged the evidence
38. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and
accountability of all evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of
every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and
transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is referred
to us.
A. Corpus delicti C. Blotter
B. Necropsy report D. Chain of custody
39. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained

14
40. Which of the following is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in
interrogation?
A. Chronological C. Going backward
B. General to specific D. Going upward
41. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is:
A. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
B. Question and answer because it provides details of acts
C. Combination of the two
D. Your convenient type
42. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions pertinent to the murder
case investigated. After the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was held for
further questioning and considered him a suspect already. Persons who can visit him are
as follows, except:
A. Lovers, friends and countrymen
B. Immediate member of his family
C. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
D. Personnel of the C.H.R.
43. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, except:
A. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
B. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
C. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
D. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
44. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
A. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured
and photographed
B. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
C. A and B are true
D. None of them
45. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
46. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?
A. By photographs C. By sketches
B. By notes D. Surveying
47. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.
A. Rogues gallery C. manhunt
B. Tracing D. order of battle
48. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of:
1. Improper packaging
2. Corruption of investigator
3. Non-maintenance of chain of custody
4. Inadequate sampling
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
15
 B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
49. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a
short period of visual observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2-Description of
police characters which a witness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose of
references is Rogue’s Gallery
A. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect
B. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect
C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
50. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be made
immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian; Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling
of physical evidence should be made at the crime scene upon collection.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
C. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
51. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime
commence, hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda
doctrine which cannot be waived?
A. At the time of custodial investigation C. During the announcement that he is
under arrest
B. During the actual questioning D. At the moment that he is invited for
questioning
52. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful interrogation?
A. Privacy
B. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
C. Legality
D. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
53. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchers gather at the center and
proceed outward along radius or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers
follow each other along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside and spiraling in
toward the center.
A. Statement No. 1 is correct
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
C. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
54. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means_____________________________.
A. Extent the estimate of the scene
B. Search physical evidence at the scene
C. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the crowd to listen to their
conversation
D. None of the above

SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION

16
55. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:
A. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and
physical forms
B. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the regular, cultivated
and grapevine sources
C. Persons and things
D. A and B only
56. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
A. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
B. Duel, abortion and infanticide
C. Homicide and murder
D. Parricide
57. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime
committed by Vincent?
A. Parricide C. Homicide
B. Murder D. None of them
58. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide
investigator cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges
which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?
A. When the dead person has been moved
B. When the dead body has been embalmed
C. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly
accounted
D. When the body is burned or cremated
59. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is:
A. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
B. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
C. Process of determining how the victim was killed
D. Process of determining when the victim was killed
60. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be performed?
A. Death has been caused by violence
B. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
C. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
D. In all cases involving death
61. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
A. Verification of death
B. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
C. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
D. Secure the scene
62. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?
1. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
2. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
3. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
A. 1 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
17
63. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime just recently occurred. How would you
determine signs of death?
A. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movement
B. By hearing heart sounds
C. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
D. Any of them
64. Physical evidence is any article found at the crime scene, small or large which, in one way or
another connected with the crime investigated. Its uses are, except one.:
A. Determine the cause of crime C. Identify the participants
B. Reconstruct the crime D. Confirm or discredit an alibi
65. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors may be considered.
These are:
1. The article must be properly identified
2. Continuity or chain of custody
3. Legality of the procurement
4. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and relevant
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
66 Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin
brought about by the friction against a hard rough surface is___________________.
A. Contusion C. Patterned wound
B. Abrasions D. Hematoma
67. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain
dying declaration from him. Which of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying
declaration?
A. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
B. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his
statements
C. Attempt to save the life of the victim
D. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.
68. Statement no. 1-Admissibility of dying declaration is not dependent on their being made in any
particular form. Statement no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form required and need not be
under oath.
A. Statement no. 1 is true C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
B. Statement no. 2 is false D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
69. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the
following had already been performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position of
the body was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide
investigator was established.
A. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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 70. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by sexual assault. Which of the following
is not a rape by sexual assault?
A. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth
B. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice
C. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
D. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another
person.
71. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death
is___________________.
A. livor mortis C. algor mortis
B. rigor mortis D. all of the above
72. A person who is hit by a hard object will sustain a/an___________.
A. lacerated wound C. hematoma
B. incised wound D. abrasions
73. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 8505
B. RA 7877 D. RA 6235
74. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of
a person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
B. respiratory D. digestive
75. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth:
A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
76. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
77. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
78. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
79. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as
basis of the investigator in determining:
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent
80. What is the first act that a police officer must do upon his arrival at the scene of the
crime?
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
81. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb.
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder
82. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the victim:
19
 A. Homicide C. Infanticide
B. Parricide D. Murder
83. Investigative technique whereby the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an
assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission is known as:
A. Undercover assignment C. Dwelling assignment
B. Work assignment and social assignment D. Personal contact assignment
84. What type of undercover work is suitable if the purpose is to observe the activities of
the target at his place of work which suspected to be used as front for drug trafficking?
A Dwelling assignment C. Social assignment
B. Work assignment D. Personal contact
85. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer who leads the execution of a valid
search warrant. Who must be present when a valid search warrant is conducted on a
domicile?
A. The house owner
B. Any member of the house owner’s family
C. Two witnesses residing in the same community
D. Any of them
86. Which of the following is not one of the acts of committing violation of domicile?
A. Searching domicile without witness
B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse in the service of search warrant
C. Search of the domicile without warrant
D. Entering a dwelling against the will of the owner, searching documents, papers
and effects without the previous consent of the owner or refusing to leave having
surreptitiously entered a dwelling when required by the owner

87. Senior Police Officer III Judean and Police Officer II Castro arrested and detained
Pedro Yengco without warrant for the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest
prosecutor, the latter issued release order for further investigation. What crime if any do the
dou commits?
A. Arbitrary detention
B. Delaying release
C. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial authorities
D. Illegal detention
88. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or
any of his ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
A. Homicide C. Parricide
B. Murder D. Any of the choices
89. A and B are husband and wife. While working as security guard of Landbank, A felt
sick one night and decided to go home around midnight and saw B having sexual
intercourse with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and hacked the latter to death. As
Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any would you charged against A?
A. Homicide C. Parricide
B. Murder D. None because A is exempted from criminal liability
90. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have tthe intent to kill the victim.
If there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for-
20
 A. Physical injury C. Serious physical injury
B. Homicide D. Consummated physical injury
91. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the commission of a crime is not
considered as a separate crime but shall be appreciated as a-
A. Mere alternative circumstance C. Qualifying circumstance
B. Mere aggravating circumstance D. Generic aggravating circumstance
92. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and there, through threat and intimidation
succeeds in inserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any does X commit?
A. Sexual assault C. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Rape D. None
93. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
A. PD 1612 C. BP 22
B. RA 3019 D. PD 532
94. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an
evidential cigarette butt?
1. Making sketch 2. Photographing 3. Recording
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3
95. What is the first action of a Police Officer upon arrival at a homicide scene?
A. Bring the dying victim in the hospital C. Witness interviewing
B. Crime scene search D. Identification of witness
96. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what
to be bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may
die were both cut their identities need to be established through the bloodstains. How will
the police collect the stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
97. Majority of the mistakes committed relative to evidence, take place:
1. during periods of transportation
2. in the collection of samples
3. a contaminated sampling
4. the wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4
B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3
98. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was
noted, the collection process begins and will usually starts
with________________________.
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver
99. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?
A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
100. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
21
 A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging
101. Physical evidence may be found from___________________.
1. The Crime Scene 2. The Suspect 3. The Victim
A. 1 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
102. You were a police officer who responded in a shooting incident. Upon arrival at the
scene, the suspect flee while shooting at you. What actions would you take?
A. Attend to the injured victim C. Shoot back at the suspect
B. Save life D. Call a back up
103. You are the first responder in the crime scene. How will you protect an outdoor crime
scene?
A. Establish a command center C. Lock the door of the crime
scene
B. Barricade and guard the crime scene D. Wait for the arrival of the SOCO
104. Criminal investigation include___________________.
1. Photographing, measuring, sketching and searching crime scene
2. Identification, collection and examination of evidence
3. Questioning victims, if alive, witnesses and suspects and recording statements
A. 1 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
105. Method of search where the operatives follow each other in the path of a circle that
commence from the outside, approaching towards the center.
A. Spiral C. Strip
B. Wheel D. Grid
106. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime, except:
A. Over-all and environment’s photograph
B. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
C. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
D. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
107. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is
for_________________.
A. scale and proportion C. accuracy and clarity
B. future use D. courtroom presentation
108. Physical Evidence is important in criminal investigation to__________________.
1. Reconstruct the crime
2. Identify the participants
3. Confirm or discredit an alibi
A. 1 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
109. Which of the following is not one of the factors for the introduction of physical
evidence in trial?
A. Proper identification
B. Continuity of chain of custody
C. Legality of collection and preservation

22
 D. Proof of competency and relevancy
110. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful
interrogation?
A. Privacy
B. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
C. Legality
D. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
111. Which of the following is the correct chronology of interviewing a witness or a
suspect?
1. Opening Statement 4. Rapport
2. Identity 5. Narration
3. Inquiry 6. Conclusion
A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6 and 4 C. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 and 6
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 D. 2, 4, 1, 4, 3 and 6
112. Mere invitation of a suspect is already considered____________pursuant to Republic
Act 7438.
A. Beginning of arrest C. Beginning of detention
B. Beginning of custody D. Beginning of informing him his right
113. What are the matters that the suspect must be understood before subjecting to
interrogation?
1. He has the absolute right to remain silent and anything he does may be used
against him in court.
2. He has the right to have a competent and independent counsel of his own choice,
present during questioning
3. He has the right against self-incrimination
4. If he cannot afford an attorney one will appointed for him free of charge.
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1 , 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4
114. Situation/s that the Miranda Rule does not apply is/are:
1. Interview of suspect who are not under custody, and in custody, but are not
considered a suspect and not questioned
2. Questioning initiated by the police after a person has been taken into custody
3. Volunteered statements of a person in custody and general on-the-scene
questioning
4. Statements made by the suspect to a private party
A. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4

114. Which of the following are not a crimes involving destruction of life?
A. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
B. Duel, abortion and infanticide
C. Homicide and murder
D. Parricide
115. Which of the following are/is correct in so far as the crime of parricide is concerned?

23
 1. Proof of legitimacy is not required if the deceased is either the father, mother or
the child of the offender
2. The spouse must be legitimate
3. There is no crime of parricide thru reckless imprudence
4. The relationship, except the spouse, must be in direct line and by blood
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. Only 3
116. Criminal Investigator is a person who is in charged with the duty of carrying the
objectives of the investigation such as to identify the guilty party, to locate the guilty party
and to provide evidence his guilt. Thus, he performed the following role, except:
1. Determine that the crime has been committed
2. Identify the victim and the offender
3. Locate and apprehend the suspect and present evidence of his guilt
4. Ensure that the criminal offender are punished
A.1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
117. When there is a slightest reason to suspect that a dead body has been
poisoned_________________.
A. It should be subjected to autopsy
B. The organs should be removed before embalming
C. Secure authorization from the dead body’s family for appropriate disposition
D. A and C
118. Assume that you are a Criminologist-Police Investigator. You suspected that a case
of a dead body which was indorse to you for investigation is homicidal. What should be
your first action to establish the cause of death?
A. Interview the victim’s relatives
B. Thoroughly examine the dead body
C. Conduct post mortem examination of the dead body
D. Call a medico legal officer
119. When does autopsy should always be performed?
A. When death is uncertain
B. When death is suspicious
C. When death is apparently caused by violence
D. When homicide is certain
120. You are a Criminologist- Police Officer who come upon a body and not sure that death
has taken place. Your first action should be:
A. To call a priest to save the soul of the victim
B. Pray for the soul of the victim
C. Summon medical assistance
D. Determine whether the person is still alive
121. What is the easiest way to tell whether a person is still breathing, so that you can
reliably and accurately determines his death?
A. By observing his chest closely for a few seconds
B. By placing the tips of the fingers on the under surface of the radius
C. By touching the eyeball with the finger

24
 D. None of them
122. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cessation of the vital functions of the
body
A. death C. coma
B. state of suspended animation D. rigor mortis
123. Decomposed cadaver can be identified through____________.
1. Study of bones 2. Study of dentures 3. Study of skull
A. 1 C. 2
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
124. Sex of fire victims can be determined____________________.
1. Through bones and long bones
2. Through skulls
3. Through Pelves
A. 1 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
125. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his fundamental duty?
A. preserve human life C. summon emergency personnel
B. cordon the area D. apprehend the criminal
126. Which of the following evidence obtained from the Crime Scene which maybe
subjected to scientific analysis?
1. Weapons, marks of tools used to gain access to locked premises or containers
2. Blood stains, impression, dust, and dirt traces
3. Questioned documents and miscellaneous trace
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. None of them
127. Determination of what actually occurred and the circumstances of the crime through
the appearance of the place and objects at the crime scene which is done after the
completion of the search is called:
A. Reconstruction of crime C. Crime profiling
B. Crime analysis D. Physical reconstruction
128. Sketch effectively exhibits the actual measurements and of identify significant items
of evidence in their location at the scene. Hence it___________________.
A. supplements photographic evidence
B. is a strong documentary evidence
C. should be diligently prepared
D. is indispensable skill that an investigator possess
129. SPO2 Cruz has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his office.
At this point it is most important that:
A. the proper scale be used
B. a high grade of paper and ink be used
C. no changes be made on the sketch
D. this sketch be refined and improved
130. Physical evidence must be protected from accidental, intentional and even from
natural alterations to:
A. Maintain its legal integrity
25
 B. Maintain its physical integrity
C. Present it in court in the same substantial condition as it is at the time the
offense was committed
D. Avoid casting doubts as to its authenticity
131. Introduction of physical evidence in trial requires that, except one.
1. The evidence must be properly identified
2. The chain of custody must be established
3. The admissibility must be proved
4. It must be relevant and competent
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
132. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of discovery until
presentation in court must take certain safeguards. This total processed is
called________________.
A. integrity of evidence C. physical disposition
B. standards of comparison D. chain of custody
133. Majority of mistakes committed relative to evidence take place:
1. During periods of transportation
2. In the collection of samples
3. A contaminated sampling
4. The wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 2 and 3
134. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of death.
What is that condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain group of muscles.
A. heat stiffening C. livor mortis
B. cold stiffening D. cadaveric spasm
135. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the
dependent portion of the body.
A. Rigor mortis C. algor mortis
B. livor mortis D. none of the above
136. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, cadaveric spasm will
suggest:
A. duration of death C. cause of death
B. age of the victim D. none of the above
137. A wound resulting form instinctive reaction of self protection is what special type of
wound?
A. defense C. self inflicted wound
B. offensive D. patterned
138. What type of an instrument will cause an incised wound?
A. blunt C. sharp edge
B. sharp edge and sharp pointed D. sharp pointed instrument
139. Points to be considered in reporting of wound is/are______.
1. character and number of wound 3. measurement of wound
2. location of wound 4. distance of the wound

26
 A. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
140. One important characteristic of the gunshot wound of exit is_____.
A. that the edge is everted
B. that the edge is inverted
C. that the size is smaller than the missile.
D. that the shape is round or oval
141. You are a Criminologist-Police Investigator who investigates a fatal shooting. It
appears that the victim bear a lone fatal shot at the back hitting his lungs which cause his
death. What would be your conclusion?
A. It is a suicide C. It is murder
B. It is accidental D. It is euthanasia
142. ______________ is produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature
which is tightened by a force other than the weight of the body.
A. Strangulation by ligature C. Hanging
B. Throttling D. Gagging
143. You are assigned to investigate a homicide case where the victim is found hanging in
his room bearing an inverted v-shape ligature mark in his neck. Which of the following facts
which make you believe that death is homicide?
1. Blood stains and other injuries to the body of the victim
2. History of desperation in life
3. Testimony of the witness
4. Defense wound
A. 1 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
144. You are in charge with crime scene processing involving a dead body. Which of the
following tasks you need performed before removing the dead body from the crime
scene?
1. Crime scene have been sketched
2. Photographs have been taken
3. Initial reports have been prepared
4. Notes were properly taken
5. Evidence were identified, collected and preserved.
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
145. While on the state of dying Oca told you, a police officer, that he and his friend
Domeng whose dead body is lying nearby was shot by Jethro. Oca died later on. Which of
the following statements is correct?
A. All the statements of Oca are to be considered as dying declarations.
B. Only that part as to who shot Domeng is a dying declaration.
C. Only that part as to who shot Oca is a dying declaration
D. All the statements are not admissible because they are hearsay if repeated in
court by the officer.
146. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting

27
 B. Smelling D. Seeing
147. Through study of bones, skull and dentures_____________________ can be
identified.
A. Decomposed cadaver C. Dead body
B. Charred dead body D. Burned cadaver
148. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.
A. RA 9775 C. RA 9194
B. RA 8484 D. RA 9995
149. Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian Law, Genocide, and
other Crimes against Humanity.
A. RA 9208 C. RA 9262
B. RA 9851 D. RA 8049
150. Called “ Exclusionary Rules” whereby evidence obtained in violation of thereof is
inadmissible.
1. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
2. Right to privacy of communication and correspondence
3. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incrimination
4. Right to counsel
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
151. Known as “ Rape Victim Assistance and protection Act of 1998” is_____________.
A. RA 9745 C. RA 6539
B. RA 8505 D. RA 8353
152. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353 can be committed either among the
choices except one.
A. Promise to marry
B. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
C. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex with the latter with the
promise of release from custody
D. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
153. You are a Criminologist-Police Officer who arrested a suspected criminal who
happened to be a lawyer. Which of the following rights that you should not allow him to
waive?
A. Right to be informed of the provisions of RA 7438 C. Right to counsel
B. Right to remain silent D. Miranda rights
154. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just been unearthed or
discovered and the suspect and witness are still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
A. Hot case C. In flagrate delicto case
B. Cold case D. Hot pursuit case
155. The essence of this crime is the taking and transporting of a person against his will
from one place to another.
A. Kidnapping C. Abduction
B. Illegal detention D. Coercion

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

28
156. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic congestions or where “build up”
usually occurs is called_______________.
A. Gridlock C. Traffic jam
B. Congestion D. Bottleneck
157. Republic Act 8750 is_________________________.
A. Clean Air Act C. Seatbelt Law
B. Philippine Land Transportation Code D. Anti-Carnapping Law
158. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report to the nearest police
station:
A. Within 48 hours C. After 3 hours
B. Within 72 hours D. At once
159. Detection, apprehension and penalization of traffic violators.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Economy
B. Traffic Enforcement D. Traffic Ecology
160. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the
DPWH, City Engineer’s Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Traffic Education D. Traffic Economy
161. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
1. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
2. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
3. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. Only 1
162. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by,
except:
A. Poor legislative activities
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
D. Presence of traffic officers
163. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is
open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.
A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
B. Road way D. Subway
164. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is under the___________, and part of
traffic_____________:
A. DILG-engineering C. DPWH-engineering
B. DOTC-enforcement D. DEPED-traffic education
165. Known as Clean Air Act is_________________.
A. RA 8749 C. RA 8750
B. LOI No. 22 D. PPD 1181
166. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety because a person can
avoid accident:
A. By hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain day

29
 B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
167. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because:
A. It is designed to make road users behave more safely
B. It informs the public of any updates in traffic
C. It focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
D. It can prevent accident

168. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?

A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driving license
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and regulations
169. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic to:
A. Instill safety consciousness among the children
B. Cope up with the demands of time
C. Lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. Learn easier than adults
170. Land Transportation Code of the Philippines is________________.
A. RA 4136 C. RA 6975
B. PD 4136 D. RA 9708
171. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of the road, he
committed________________.
A. Illegal unloading C. Illegal loading
B. Traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
172. An accident which is accompanied by an unidentified road user who flees immediately
thereafter.
A. Hit and Run cases C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. Non motor vehicle none traffic
accident
173. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is referred to
as_________________.
A. final position C. hazards
B. disengagement D. stopping
174. Seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding of an unusual or unexpected condition
indicative of a sign that the accident might takes place.
A. perception of hazards C. starts of evasive action
B. initial contact D. maximum engagement
175. An enforcement action which the violator is commanded to appear in court without
detaining him.
A. traffic arrest C. traffic citation
B. traffic warning D. dogwatch
176. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the
wheels locked, and not free to rotate.

30
 A. skid marks C. scuff marks
B. key event D. debris
177. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but preoccupied at a moment.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning
178. Considered as emergency vehicle are/is:
1. Police car on call 3. Ambulance on call
2. Fire truck on call 4. Physician’s car
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. Only 4
179. Motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore is called________________.
A. government C. diplomatic
B. foreign D. gate away
180. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving
181. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” C. none of these
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”
182. Movement of persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an animal or an animal-
drawn vehicle on by combustion system from one place to another.
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction
183. Systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision.
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
184. What are the devices mounted on a portable support where a message to the road
users is conveyed by means of words or symbols
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement marking
185. It warn road users of the danger that lies ahead of the road and its nature.
A. informative signs C. warning signs
B. regulatory signs D. all of these
186. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the
following.
A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
B. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
187. When you combine verbal warning and citations in the traffic enforcement you are
performing or issuing:
A. Traffic rules implementation C. Citation warnings
B. Traffic consultation D. Written warnings

31
188. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to
drive. What is the evidence that you will ask him to show to prove that he is allowed by
the Land Transportation Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license
189. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles
190. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
1. Spare tire 3. Unusual odor
2. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle 4. Driver’s license
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4
191. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise
avoid hazard.
A. Start of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position
192. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide
pedestrians with safety zone when crossing:
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines
193. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of
words or symbols, officially erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or
guiding traffic.
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs
194. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on a highway:
A.Motor vehicle non-traffic accident B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident C. Motor vehicle accident
195. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating a slipping is called:
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
196. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the death of a puppy.
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident
197. Frontal collision of the vehicles is known as________________.
A. Full impact collision C. Frontal collision
B. Head on collision D. Collision
198. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
1. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
2. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
3. Lack of discipline among drivers and other road users
4. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
5. Corruption of traffic enforcers
A. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3

32
 B. 2, 3 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5
199. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized
by_______________.
1. Poor legislative activities
2. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
3. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
4. Presence of traffic officers
A. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
200. Detection, apprehension and penalization of traffic violators are known
as_______________.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Traffic Economy D. Traffic Ecology
201. One of the objectives of traffic engineering is to achieve efficient, free, and rapid flow
of traffic, which means:
A. Motorists and other road users can avoid accidents
B. Motorists and other road users will enjoy their ride
C. Motorists and other road users can reach their destination on time
D. None of them
202. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because:
A. It is designed to make road users behave more safely
B. It informs the public of any updates in traffic
C. It focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
D. It can prevent accident
203. Land Transportation Office is part of what pillar of traffic management?
A. Engineering C. Education
B. Enforcement D. Ecology
204. A professional driver is one who operates a motor
vehicle__________________________.
A. For private or public use
B. Who is skilled and has broad experience in handling any type of motor vehicle
C. For hire or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle, whether for private use for
hire to the public
D. Which is strictly for hire
205. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle or
pedestrian.
A. Immunity C. Right of way
B. Leniency D. Giving way
206. When two vehicles approach an intersection at approximately the same time, which
shall give the right of way?
A. The vehicle coming from the right C. The vehicle coming from the center
B. The vehicle coming from the left D. The one which arrives there first
207. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist
should:
A. Stop and proceed with caution

33
 B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C. Reduce speed
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction
208. Traffic officers who are tasked to direct traffic should do it:
A. In the right side of the intersection so that he will not be sideswiped
B. In the left side of the intersection for clearer view of the traffic volume
C. Either on the left or right side of the intersection so that he can adjust to the
situation
D . In the center of the intersection
209. To ensure a deterrent effect of traffic patrolling, which of the following should not be
done?
1. Make sure that you are seen by other motorists
2. Be in full view while patrolling/inspecting moving vehicles
3. Spend more time where motorists or drivers fail to be aware of their common bad
driving habits
4. Delay enforcement actions against habitual violators
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4
210. Law concerning authority of the MMDA to manage traffic in metropolitan Manila area:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 7924
B. RA 6539 D. RA 8551
211. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if any
of the circumstances below are present, except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an
accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
212. The expiry period of student driver’s permit is not beyond______________.
A. 12 months C. 6 months
B. 18 months D. 3 years
213. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant is______________.
A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21
214. What is the minimum age for non-professional driver’s license applicant?
A. 16 C. 18
B. 17 D. 21
215. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is between 16-18 years old, the most
important document he should submit is________________.
A . Birth certificate C. Voter’s I.D.
B. Passport D. Parent’s consent
216. What the chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top?
A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, green
B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red

34
217. While approaching an intersection , the green traffic light is on, however, a police
officer suddenly proceed to the center and signals a motorist to stop. What should the
motorist do?
A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal is made
218. When approaching in an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist
should_________________.
A. Stop and proceed with caution
B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C. Reduce speed
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction

Organized crime investigation

219. Overtly violent organized crime group whose members are known to be los hampones
(the hoodlums) and controller of coca cultivation in Bolivia and Peru; production-drug labs
in Colombia, Nicaragua, and Panama; smuggling operations- Bahamas, Turks, and Caicos,
and later in Mexico.
A. Colombian Drug Cartels C. The Cali Cartel
B. Medellin Cartel D. Northern Valle Del Cauca
220. Known as the Guzmán-Loera Organization called La Alianza de Sangre ("Blood
Alliance"), which considered by the United States intelligence community as the "the most
powerful drug trafficking organization in the world“.
A. The Gulf Cartel C. Tijuana Cartel
B. The Juarez Cartel D. Sinaloa Cartel
221. The Uninitiated member of the Hung Secret Society is called__________________.
A. Dragon Head C. Red Pole
B. Mountain Lord D. Blue Lanterns
222. The Yakuza is organized into families which adopts a relationship known
as_______________.
A. Oyabun-Kobun C. Yubitsume
B. Kabuki-mono D. Bakuto
223. Which of the following is not one of the motorcycle gangs which are active in selling
drugs [they control 75% North American methamphetamine market], prostitution, extortion,
theft, arson, robbery, bombings, and contract murders?
A. Hells Angels C. Tongs
B. Outlaws D. Pagans and Bandidos
224. A member of a Cosa Nostra who operates at least one specific criminal enterprise and
constantly search for a new sources of revenue for the crime family is called
1. Wise guys 3. Button men
2. Made guys 4. Saviour
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

35
225. In Joseph Albini’s Patron-Client Model. Organized crime group is consists of
syndicates in a loose system of power relationship. At the center of each organized crime
unit or crime family is/are:
A. Capo, Sottocapo and Consigliere C. Mafioso
B. Caporegime D. Soldati
226. Considered to be the most powerful Mafia family in the US which was established in
1930
A. Gambino, founded Carlo Gambino and Paul Castellano and engaged in drug
trafficking, gambling and car theft
B. Colombo, founded by Joseph Profaci an engaged in narcotics, gambling, Loan-
sharking, cigarette smuggling, pornography, counterfeiting, hijacking bankruptcy fraud, etc
C. Lucchese, founded Tom Gagliano engaged in narcotics trafficking, gambling, loan
sharking, waste management, construction, and garment industry; and Bonnano,
foundedby Joe Bonnano engaged in narcotics trafficking, home video pornography, pizza
parlors and espresso cafés.
D. Genovese, founded by Charles “Lucky” Luciano engaged in narcotics trafficking,
loan sharking, extortion rackets, pornography, labor-union, racketeering, restaurants,
seafood distribution, and vending machines.
227. These are the conditions exist which lend cohesiveness to modern-day drug trafficking
organizations, except:
A. Vertical integration and alternative sources of supply
B. Exploiting social and political conditions
C. Insulation of leaders
D. Corrupt government official and society indifference
228. An offense whose inception, prevention and/or direct or indirect effects involved more
than one country.
A. Drug trafficking and human smuggling C. Transnational crimes
B. Terrorism, piracy and cyber crimes D. Global crimes
229. Unlawful activities of the members of a highly organized, disciplined association
engaged in supplying illegal goods and services.
A. Enterprise Crime C. White collar crime
B. Organized Crime D. Economic crime
230. Organized crime is an enterprise of group of persons engaged in a continuing illegal
activity which has as its primary purpose is:
A. the generation of profits irrespective of national boundaries
B. the control of certain illegal activities in a specific territory
C. the creation of fear among its enemies
D. the domination of a certain community
231. Where does the concept of organized crime emerged?
A. In China, when the Triad was established
B. In Japan, when Yakuza was founded
C. In Sicily Italy, when the Mafia was first to emerged
D. In the US, when Al Capone ran Chicago with blood and guns

36
232. Founders of organized crime in the US like Alphonse Capone, Charles “Lucky”
Luciano, Meyer Lansky and Benjamin “Bugsy” Siegel, are notably, members of a small
street gang in New York called:
A. Five Points Gang C. Outlaws
B. Tongs D. Hells Angels
233. Structural group of three or more persons existing for the period of time and acting in
concert, with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses established in
accordance with this conviction in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or other
material benefit.
A. Crime syndicate C. Criminal gang
B. Organized criminal group D. Fraternity
234. Which of the following is not one of the attributes of organized criminal group?
A. Non-Ideological, hierarchical and exclusive Membership
B. Dominating, witty, influential and generous contributor to the church, politicians
etc.
C. Self-perpetuating, violent, involvement in bribery and constitutes a unique
subculture
D. Monopolistic, governed by rules and regulations and has specialization/ division
of labor.
235. Member of the organized criminal group difficult assignments involving the use of
violence in a rational manner.
A. Money mover C. Enforcer
B. Fixer D. Intelligence analyst
236. Commission of transnational crimes are motivated by the following, except one:
A. political influence C. hate and revenge
B. economic gain D. social control in a global scope.
237. The Mafia is believed to be originated from:
A. Morte Alla Francia, Italia Anela
B. the practice of the criminals to seal a black handprint at the scene of the crime
C. Italian’s beauty, perfection, grace, and excellence
D. the Sicilian struggle in the 13th Century against French Rule
238. The Mafioso connotes:
1. Pride, self confidence, and vainglorious behavior
2. Brave and self reliant
3. Man of honor or man of respect
4. Man of action, and one not to be taken lightly
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2 and 4
239. Which of the following is not one of the categories of organized crime behaviour?
A. Violence and strong commitment and determination to get what they what
B. Provision of illicit goods and services
C. Conspiracy and penetration of legitimate business
D. Extortion and corruption
240. Membership in organized crime group requires:
A Loyalty C. Lifetime commitment

37
 B. Obedience to the boss D. Specialized criminal skills
241. Criminality of an organized crime group is directed by:
A. The pursuit of profit along well-defined lines
B. Violence, when the interests of the organization are threatened
C. The boss
D. The pursuit of eliminating competitors
242. How does organized crime groups maintain their power and profit?
A. Through violence
B. Through corruption
C. Through the silence and attitude of non-cooperation of law abiding citizens
D. Through continuous association with criminal protectors
243. These are persons and organizations which grant power and the perception of
legitimacy to organized crime groups.
A. The Protectors composed of a network of corrupt officials who protect them from
the criminal justice system
B. The specialized supporter who provide them contract services such as pilots,
chemists, arsonists and hijackers.
C. Audience of consumers of illegal goods and services
D. Social supporters such as civic organizations, influential citizens etc.
244. Donald Cressey’s Cosa Nostra model or organized crime group is characterized by,
except one.
A. Italian-dominated crime families who control crime in distinct geographic areas
B. Extremely violent, dangerous and highly disciplined
C. Its primary unit is the family which embodies male members of Italian ancestry.
D. The family is protected by a code of conduct for members which prohibits them
from revealing
organizational secrets.
245. The boss of the Cosa Nostra is/are:
1. Is its supreme leader
2. Is the older members of the crime family
3. Oversees all organizational endeavors and has a final word on decisions involving
virtually all
aspects of crime family business
4. Respected by the members of the crime family
5. Overall leader
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 5
246. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as a buffer between the lowest-level
members and the upper-level members of the crime family.
A. The Consigliere C. The Capos
B. The Underboss D. Soldiers
247. Known as “Big Six” transnational organized crime group.
A. Sicilian and American Mafia Families; Russian Mafiya; Yakuza; Triads;
Colombian Cartels; and Mexican Federation.
B Nigeria; Panama; Jamaica; Puerto Rico, Dominican Republic, Colombia

38
 C. Red Army; Shining Path; Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia; People’s Irish
Republican Army; Al Qaeda; and ISIS
D. Gambino, Colombo, Profaci, Lucchese, Bonnano, Genovese Crime Families
248. Members of the Mafia are bound by an oath of five basic principles. Which of the
following is not one of them?
A. Omerta, or code of silence and total obedience to the “Don” or “Boss”
B. Assistance to any befriended Mafia faction, no question asked and to avenge
any attack on members of the family
C. Avoid any and all contact with law enforcement authorities
D. Avoid killing police officer
249. He is considered to be the one who first to master money laundering.
A. Al Capone In Chicago C. Meyer Lansky
B. Salvatore “Lucky” Luciano D. Bugsy Seigel
250. Which of the following is not one of the Italian criminal enterprise?
A. The Camorra C. La Cosa Nostra
B. ‘Ndrangheta D. Sacred Crown
251. The United Nations defines terrorism as:
A. The use or threatened use of force designed to bring about a political change
B. An illegitimate use of force to achieve a political objective by targeting innocent
people
C. Socially and politically unacceptable violence aimed at an innocent target to
achieve psychological effect .
D. Any act intended to cause death or serious bodily harm to civilians or non-
combatants with the purpose of intimidating a population of serious bodily harm and
compelling a government or an international organization to do or abstain doing any act
252. Terrorist Act is an any act that is unlawful, involves the use or threatened use of
violence or force against individuals or property which designed to coerce a government or
society and supports any of the following, except:
A. political objectives C. barbaric objectives
B. ideological objectives D. religious objectives
253. Which of the following is not one of the traditional terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing and hijacking C. Arson and Assault
B. Rape or any form of sexual assault D. Kidnapping and taking
hostages
254. The origin of terrorism can be traced from:
A. The French Revolution which describe the actions of the French government.
B. After World War II, when the world’s nationalist groups revolted from European
domination
C. Year 1960 to early 1980, when it was applied to violent left-wing groups, as well
as nationalist.
D. A large groups who are independent from a state, violent religious fanatics, and
violent groups who terrorize for a particular cause such as the environment
255. Use of lethal force by the state government against its own civilian population with the
purpose of repressing the people, making them apolitical or politically malleable, and/or

39
weakening the population’s willingness to support revolutionary or other anti-government
forces.
A. Apolitical terrorism C. State terrorism
B. Revolutionary terrorism D. State sponsored terrorism
256. In state sponsored terrorism, the state’s regime:
A. Instills fear against elements of its own population to create conditions sufficient
to remain in political control.
B. Uses its military instrument against the civilian population of an enemy nation for
the purpose of undermining the population’s will to support its own government, or
shattering the cohesion of the population making it unable to support its government.
C. Employs lethal force across international borders for the purpose of destroying or
weakening the political cohesion of a targeted political entity without using its own military
instrument to deliver the lethal force, but harness social elements within the targeted entity
to do so.
D. None of them
257. Which of the following may not be a target for terrorist attack?
A. Structures which have a symbolic or practical significance and propaganda value
B. Places where the terrorists have an easy access to the target area and security
C. Structures which are vulnerable for destruction and persons of importance to the
enemy
D. Places where weapons, transportation needs, and support network are available
258. Which of the following is considered terrorist’s safe haven?
A. An area of relative security exploited by terrorists to indoctrinate, recruit, train, and
regroup, as well as prepare and support their operations.
B. A place where terrorists hide and coddled by their symphatizers
C. Global media, and satellite communications that allow terrorists to fulfill many of
their functions
D. An area which is difficult to track and control.
259. The giving of alms for the poor and needy as prescribed by the Quran which is the
primary means within the Muslim world for terror organizations to “legitimately” receive
money is_________________.
A. Zakat C. Hawala
B. Islamic Banking D. Money Laundering
260. The leader of Al Qaeda is called_______________.
A The Base C. Jihad
B. The Emir D. Bearer of the Sword
261. In its self-proclaimed status as a caliphate, it claims religious authority over
all Muslims worldwide, and aims to bring most traditionally Muslim-inhabited regions of the
world under its political control.
A. Jimaah Islamiya C. Abu Sayyaf
B. Islamic State D. Al Qaeda
262. What is the law that defines and penalizes crime of terrorism in the Philippines
A. Act No. 3815 C. RA 10175
B. RA 9372 D. RA 9208
40
263. Core elements of the concept of trafficking, except one.
A. The action of trafficking which means the recruitment, transportation, transfer,
harboring or receipt of persons
B. The means of trafficking which includes threat of or the use of force, deception,
coercion, abuse of power or position of vulnerability
C. The motive which for profit or financial gain
D. The purpose which is always exploitation
264. Which of the following are the commonly identified forms of human trafficking?
1. Drug courier, forced membership in syndicate
2. Sexual exploitation and organ removal
3. Exploitation of children in begging, sex trade and warfare
4. Forced labor, domestic servitude and forced marriage
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4
265. Money laundering’s main objective is________________________.
A. to conceal the beneficial ownership or audit trail of illegally obtained money or
valuable so that it appears to have originated from a legitimate source.
B. to keep the money hidden from the authorities
C. to gain interest from the money
D. to buy expensive jewelry
266. Placement in money laundering process means:
A. Merging of money into legitimate economic and financial systems
B. Separating illicit proceeds from their source by creating complex layers of financial
transactions designed to disguise the source of money, subvert the audit trail and provide
anonymity
C. Disposal of cash proceeds derived from the unlawful activity
D. Investing dirty money to legitimate business
267. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to devise international standards and
policies to combat money laundering. Which of the following is not one of them?
A. France, Germany and Italy
B. Japan
C. United Kingdom of Great Britain, United States of America, and Canada
D. China, South Korea and Russia
268. In 2000 the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime
extended the legal definition of money laundering to include all serious crimes. This is
known as:
A. Palermo Convention C. Transnational Organized Crime Convention
B. United Nations Convention D. Organized Crime Convention
269. Republic Act No. 9160 as amended by RA 9194 , RA10167 and RA10365 defines
money laundering as a crime whereby the proceeds of an unlawful activity (predicate
crime) are transacted, thereby making them appear to have originated from legitimate
sources. It is committed by any person who:

41
 1. transacts or attempts to transact with any monetary instrument knowing that it
involves or relates to the proceed of an unlawful activity.
2. facilitates the commission of money-laundering as defined in no.1 by knowingly
performing or failing to perform an act.
3. fails to disclose and file a report with AMLC of any instrument or property as
required under the law
A. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
270. The Philippine Center on Transnational Crime which is created by virtue of Executive
Order No. 62, is under what office or agency?
A. Office of the President C. DOJ
B. DILG D. PNP
271. What is the primary mandate of the Philippine Center on Transnational Crime?
A. To formulate and implement a concerted program of action of all law enforcement,
intelligence and other government agencies for the prevention and control of transnational
crime.
B. To establish through the use of modern information and telecommunication a shared
central data base among government agencies for information on criminals,
methodologies, arrest and convictions on transnational crimes.
C. To establish a center for strategic research on the structure and dynamics of
transnational crimes in all its forms, and predict trends and analyze relationships of given
factors for the formulation of individual and collective strategies for the prevention and
detection of transnational and organized crime and for the apprehension of the criminals
involved.
D. None of them
272. Conceptualized in the 1920's and had its initial headquarters in Vienna. This
organization was established to promote international criminal police cooperation.
A. International Police
B. International Criminal Police Organization
C. International Association of the Chiefs of Police
D. Asian National Police
273. Three Core Services of the INTERPOL, except:
A. Unique global police communication system
B. Range of criminal data bases and analytical services
C. Proactive support for police operations throughout the world.
D. Arrest of international terrorist
274. INTERPOL'S rules in fighting Terrorism is/are:
1. Prevent acts of international terrorism
2. If terrorist acts are carried out, ensure that the perpetrators are brought to justice
which could be achieved by exchanging information with its member countries through its
source messaging system and by arranging meetings of expert to address the subject.
3. Arrest the terrorist
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
275. INTERPOL’s notice on planned terrorist attack to one of its member-countries.

42
 A. Blue Notice C. Yellow Notice
B. Green Notice D. Orange Notice
276. Red Notice is INTERPOL’s Notice System:
A. To seek information on the identity of persons or on their illegal activities related to
criminal matters
B. To provide warning and criminal intelligence about persons who have committed
criminal offenses and who are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries.
C. To locate missing persons
D. To seek the arrest and extradition of suspects
277. Black is INTERPOL’s notice to__________________________.
A. Determine the identity of deceased person
B. Provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment
methods used by criminals.
C. Individuals and entities that are subject to UN sanctions.
D. Any of the above
278. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police- Special Action Force
Commandos that led to the killing of the international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the
Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
A. Oplan Wolverine C. Oplan Neptune Spear
B. Oplan Terminator D. Oplan Exodus
279. Terrorist group lead by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic
state in the world.
A. Al Qaeda C. Islamic State
B. Abu Sayyaf D. Jemaah Islamiyah
280. The most intractable safe havens of terrorist groups worldwide.
A. Internet
B. Global media
C. Regions where ineffective governance allows their presence
D. Those created by electronic infrastructure
281. Core elements of trafficking, except-
A. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
B. Entry of the victims to the country of destination
C. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power or position of
vulnerability
D. Exploitation
282. Investigation, prosecution and trial of the crime of trafficking in person is done in-
A. Open and public C. Closed-door
B. Personal D. Official capacity
283. When does the government lost its power to prosecute persons engaged in
syndicated or large scale human trafficking?
A. 10 years C. 15 years
B. 20 years D. 40 years
284. In the investigation of cybercrime, “VES” approach is used. VES literally means,
except one.
A. Victim C. Evidence
43
 B. Violation D. Suspect
285. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin
Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo C. Operation Neptune Spear
B. Operation Jabbidah D. Operation Merdeka

DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

286. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous drug to the body by one
person to another is __________.
A. Drug use C. Taking
B. Administer D. Addict
287. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him elsewhere he ceased
from using it. Diego’s act is called:
A. Abstinence C. Self medication
B. Rehabilitation D. Dependence
288. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit,
manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the
manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
A. Drug trafficking C. Chemical diversion
B. Sale D. Chemical smuggling
289. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called:
A. drug den C. laboratory equipment
B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
290. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except:
A. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
D. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession
291. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. Marijuana
B. LSD D. Ecstacy
292. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical
form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C.
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
B. Papaver somniferum D. Cannabis sativa
293. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended offender within 24 hours if
the person arrested has:
1. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
2. Physical sign of drug abuse
3. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction
4. Symptoms of Drug abuse

44
 A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
294. Known as the “Father of Medicine” . He prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which
was cultivated by the Summerrians during 7000 BC.
A. Hippocrates C. Confucious
B. Morpreus D. Socrates
295. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in China by the British Indies
that lead to the Opium War of 1840.
A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen
B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong
296. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
297. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is
considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Coca Plant
B. Cannabis Sativa D. Ephedrine
298. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, except:
A. Indian hemp C. Coca bush
B. Opium poppy D. Ephedra
299. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which furnishes drugs to the
users?
A. Core organization C. Cartel
B. Secondary organization D. Local organization
300. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine
II. Shabu and Ecstacy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III D. V
301. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color
and other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates B. Narcotics
C. Heroine D. Hallucinogens
302. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
303. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous system, increasing alertness, decreasing
fatigue and delaying sleep.
A. Narcotic C. Shabu
B. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant

45
304. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking methamphetamine
hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon C. Smoking
B. Snorting D. Oral
305. Consider the following;
I. Drug addicts can be detected by means of observation of the person suspected to
be addicted of drugs.
II. Drug addicts can be detected through laboratory examination.
III. Drug addicts can be detected through psychological examinations such as
intelligence, personality, aptitude, interest and psychiatric examinations.
What is the correct answer?
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II only D. II and III
306. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which is through law
enforcement, prosecution and judicial actions.
A. Demand reduction C. Inter-agency coordination
B. Supply reduction D. International cooperation
307. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of
dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above
308. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished
with:
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
309. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of
substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants C. Energizers
B. Tranquilizers D. Inhalants
310. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
311. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden
Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. Thailand –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
312. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relives pain
and induces sleep.
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
46
313. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
B. Marijuana D. Ecstacy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
314. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its
control becomes difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly C. It is easy to cultivate
B. It is sellable in the market D. It is in demand
315. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and emotion:
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
316. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina
and/or energy.
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid
317. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General
C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
D. PNP Director and PDEA Director
318. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug even to the point of
interfering with the person’s ability to function normally.
A. Tolerance C. Habituation
B. Addiction D. Psychological Dependence
319. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification
320. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.
A. Ketamine C. Anesthesia
B. Codeine D. Sleeping pills
321. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other
narcotics substance.
A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy
322. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165,
EXCEPT.
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence.
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies.

47
 D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having
an imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) days.
323. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to
prevent its members from being hook to addiction?
A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family D. School
324. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of
the liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05 C. 1.5
B. 0.15 D. 0.50

325. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?

A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke
326. The source/s of most analgesic narcotic is/are:
1. Opium 4. Heroine
2. Morphine 5. Ephedrine
3. Cocaine 6. Cannabis
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 3,4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
327. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. poor environment C. domestic violence
B. experimental thrill D. peer pressure
328. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant
329. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
330. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community
because they:
A. Are violently insane C. Flagrantly immoral
B. Ruin their life/health D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.
331. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
332. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is
usually prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental depression.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
333. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering taste and said to be one of the
strongest derivatives of Opium poppy.
A. Morphine C. Codeine
48
 B. Heroin D. Cocaine
334. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the minds and body.
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction
B. Gambling D. Vice
335. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from_____________________.
A. The Golden Crescent C. Hongkong
B. The Golden Triangle D. Silver Triangle
336. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.
A. Japan C. Philippines
B. Hongkong D. Burma
337. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated from:
A. Japan C. Mexico
B. China D. India
338. Habituation is a condition resulting from the repeated administration or use of drug
which is characterize by_________________
1. A desire (but not compulsion) to continue taking drug.
2. Little or no tendency to increase the dosage.
3. Some degree of physiological dependence
4. Intensified physical dependence and withdrawal syndrome
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
339. A person addicted to drugs is characterized by one or more attribute/s, except.
A. Uncontrollable craving to take drugs
B. Physical and psychological dependence to drugs
C. Habituation and hallucination
D. Drug tolerance and withdrawal syndrome
340. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002 is/are
__________________
1. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
2. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
3. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
4. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2 and 4
341. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called_____________
A. drug den C. laboratory equipment
B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
342. Consider the following:
I. Addiction is an overpowering compulsion to continue taking drug
II. Addiction provide a tendency of drug tolerance
III. Addiction has a detrimental effect to the individual and society
Choose the correct answer
A. I and II are correct C. I and III are wrong
B. II and III are correct D. I, II and III are correct

49
343. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit,
manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, by the
manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
A. Drug trafficking C. Chemical diversion
B. Sale D. Chemical smuggling
344. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol is_________________.
A. Mescaline C. Marijuana
B. LSD D. Ecstacy
345. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs closely related in chemical
form to the amphetamine family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name
is________________________.
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C.
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
B. Papaver somniferum D. Cannabis sativa
346. To administer illegal drug means______________
A. To introduce any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with or without
his/her knowledge
B. To use drug through injection
C. To consume dangerous drug through inhalation
D. To introduce any illegal drug into the body through snorting
347. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended offender within 24 hours if
the person arrested has_______________
1. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
2. Used drugs before his arrest
3. Physical sign of drug abuse
4. Symptoms of Drug abuse
A. 1, 2and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
348. Only a physician can prescribe a medicinal drugs. The practice of taking drugs
without proper medicinal supervision is called non-medicinal use of drugs
or______________
A. Drug misuse C. Drug Misadministration
B. Drug Abuse D. Drug Addiction
349. What the safest most convenient and economical route of drug administration?
A. Topical C. Oral
B. Iontophoresis D. Inhalation
350. Known as the “Father of Medicine”, __________________ prescribed opium poppy
juice in surgery which was cultivated by the Summerrians during 7000 BC.
A. Hippocrates C. Confucious
B. Morpreus D. Socrates
351. What is the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

50
352. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is
considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.
a. Papaver Somniferum c. Coca Plant
b. Cannabis Sativa d. Ephedrine
353. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which furnishes drugs to the
users?
A. Core organization C. Cartel
B. Secondary organization D. Local organization
354. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine
II. Shabu and Ecstacy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I and III D. V
355. Known as the Guzmán-Loera Organization and the Pacific Cartel. This is a drug
trafficking, money laundering and organized crime syndicate based in the city of Culiacán
which been called the Federation and the Blood Alliance.
A. Sinaloa Cartel C. Cali Cartel
B . Mexican Cartel D. Columbian Cartel
356. A type of drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relieves pain
and induces sleepiness is known as_______________.
A. Hallucinogens B. Sedatives/Depressant
C. Stimulants D. Narcotics
357. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color
and other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates B. Narcotics
C. Heroine D. Hallucinogens
358. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
B. False perceptions of objects and experiences
C. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
359. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous system, increasing alertness, decreasing
fatigue and delaying sleep.
A. Narcotic C. Shabu
B. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant

360. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking methamphetamine
hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon C. Smoking
B. Snorting D. Oral
361. Mind altering drugs that gives the general effect of mood distortion.
A. Hallucinogens C. Hypnotic
B. Sedatives D. Narcotics

51
362. Max took a stimulant drug. What would be its effect to him?
A. Max will be relieved of his pain and feel stupor
B. Max will be relaxed or calmed
C. Max will be mentally alert and wakeful
D. Max will feel intoxicated
363. Heroin is five times more powerful among the derivative of what natural drug?
A. Marijuana C. Shabu
B. Coca Bush D. Opium
364. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus of which is through law
enforcement, prosecution and judicial actions.
A. Demand reduction C. Inter-agency coordination
B. Supply reduction D. International cooperation
365. Consistency with the chain of custody rule requires that the marking of seized illegal
drug items should be done by the seizing officers:
A. In the presence of the apprehended violator
B. Immediately upon arrival at the police office
C. Immediately upon confiscation
D. A and C
366. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of
dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above
367. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished
with:
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
368. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the Colombian and Peruvian drug
trafficking was controlled by:
A. The Mafia C. Medellin Cartel
B. La Cosa Nostra D. Chinese Mafia
369. Principal source of all forms of cocaine is in __________________
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South America D. South West Asia
370. The major transshipment point for international drug traffickers in Europe and known
to be the “Paradise of Drug Users” in this continent
A. Portugal C. Germany
B. Spain D. Turkey
371. Which of the following country in the Middle East is the biggest producer of cannabis
sativa?
A. Lebanon C. Kuwait
B. Iraq D. Afhganistan
372. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent of opium in the world?
A. 60% C. 80%

52
 B. 70% D. 90%

373. The Golden Crescent is located in the South West Asia composed of which
Countries?
A. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan
B. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
C. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
D. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey
374. Sources of Dangerous drugs particularly opium poppy is cultivated and harvested
mostly in the areas of which part of the globe?
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South West Asia D. Europe
375. How many grams of shabu does a person possess to render him ineligible to post
bail?
A. 100 grams C. less than 50 gram
B. Half of a kilogram D. 50 grams or more
376. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the commercial trade marijuana, it is:
A. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana
B. Dried flower of marijuana
C. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
D. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant
377. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is:
A. Buttons C. Brain eaters
B. Dope D. Herbals
378. Herion is Blanco; Codeine is School Boy; psilocybin is Magic Mushroom; Cocaine is:
A. Hearts C. Uppers
B. Crack D. Speed
379. Which of the following does not carry a capital punishment?
A. possession of 20 grams morphine C. possession of 15 grams of MDMA
B. possession of 100 grams of marijuana D. possession of 60 grams of
shabu
380. Which of the following is not false?
A. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition to dangerous drug
B. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between regulated and prohibited drug
C. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drug to prohibited drug
D. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drug as dangerous drug
381. Which of the following is not untrue?
A. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated
B. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action for violation of RA 9165 while
the PDEA takes care to criminal aspects
C. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations related to drugs which are usually
implemented by PDEA
D. The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory
provisions of RA 9165
382. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related cases?

53
 A. Public Attorney’s Office
B. Ombudsman
C. National Prosecution Service
D. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ
383. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug cases?
A. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
B. Special Court designated by the SC
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Special Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
384. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be destroyed_________ after the
promulgation of judgment.
A. 2 days C. 24 hours
B. 1 day D. 48 hours
385. Decision of the court whether the person is guilty or not guilty for drug trafficking
shall be rendred within the period of ___________ after the trial.
A. 15 days C. 10 days
B. 30 days D. 6 days
386. Preliminary investigation of drug case is being terminated within the period of how
many days from the date of filing?
A. 30 C. 10
B. 15 D. 4
387. How many hours that the information shall be filed in court after the termination of the
PI?
A. 24 C. 72
B. 48 D. 36
388. After the filing of the criminal case, the courts conducts ocular inspection of seized
drugs within how many hours?
A. 48 C. 72
B. 24` D. 36

389. RA 9165 was enacted on June 7, 2002 and took effect on July 4, 2002.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false
390. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress destructive fires, implements
the fire code and investigates all fires cases in the Philippines
A. BFP C. BJMP
B. PNP D. Bureau of Fire in the Phillippines

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON IVESTIGATION

391. Product of combustion which combustible materials and oxidizing agents react to
heat.
A. Fire C. Smoke

54
 B. Fire Gases D. Flame
392. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.
A. Fire Suppression C. Fire Inspection
B. Fire Control D. Fire prevention
393. Fires involving flammable liquids.
A. Class C C. Class D
B. Class B D. Class A
394. Fire caused by volcanic eruption or humidity is_______________
A. Providential C. Unnatural
B. Intentional D. Accidental
395. What is the fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity?
A. Incipient C. Smoldering
B. Free burning D. Initial
396. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat is known as_____________.
A. Thermal balance C. Burning
B. Oxidation D. Pyrolysis
397. Product of combustion composed of tiny solid particles is________________.
A. Fire gases C. Smoke
B. Flames D. Heat
398. What is that means employed to pacify the fire?
A. Fire prevention C. Fire control
B. Fire safety D. Fire suppression
399. Rate of temperature of fire of fire is called_____________.
A. Heat C. Magnitude
B. Intensity D. Ignition point
400. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation from destructive fires.
A. Fire control C. Fire prevention
A. Fire safety D. Fire inspection
401. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines” is____________.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 9514
B. RA 9263 D. PD 1613
th
402. What is nnown as the 4 element of fire?
A. Fuel C. Uninhibited chemical reaction
B. Heat D. Oxygen
403. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids is known as________________.
A. Convection C. Conduction
B. Radiation D. Electrolysis
404. The means employed to keep the fire to a minimum or manageable level.
A. Fire control C. Fire suppression
B. Fire prevention D. Fire inspection
405. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the size of flame and the area of
fuel that is burning.
A. Temperature C. Intensity
B. Heat D. Magnitude
406. An act of removing fire hazards from the building.

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 A. Lien C. Inspection
B. Abatement D. Renovation
407. Normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or
structure or natural condition created by fire.
A. Thermal balance C. Fire turbulence
B. Thermal imbalance D. Fire direction
408. Office of the BFP that facilitates the implementation of the Fire Code of the
Philippines.
A. Fire Investigation Section C. Fire Safety inspection Section
B. Fire Safety Enforcement Branch D. Personnel Section
409. The process of determining the cause of fire in a particular installation.
A. Fire safety C. Fire investigation
B. Fire inspection D. Fire control
410. The first to be observed in ascertaining the cause of fire.
A. The point of origin C. The room of origin
B. The burnt pattern of ceiling D. The color of smoke and flame
411. Place in the fire scene where the fire started.
A. Kitchen C. Electrical Wire
B. Point of origin D. None
412. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the spontaneous and intensive burning has
occurred.
A. Alligatoring C. Collapse
B. Discoloration D. Charring
413. Which of the following should be performed first in conducting fire investigation?
A. Secure the fire scene C. Pacify the fire
B. Photograph the facade D. Conduct search
414. Fire which there are human casualties.
A. Deadly fire C. Spot fire
B. Fatal fire D. Arson
415. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who among the following is the probable
perpetrator?
A. Jolted lover C. Terrorist
B. Rebel D. Pyromaniac
416. Which of the following will not cause the investigator to hypothesize that the series of
fires are not performed by a serial arsonist?
A. There is a significant difference in modus operandi in all series of fire
B. There is significant variations as to the time of the commission of arson
C. There is a significant similarity in manner of commission of offense
D. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire
417. If the investigator did not found any trace of incendiarism, which of the following will
be the assumption?
A. The fire was intentional C. The fire was providential
B. The fire was accidental D. The fire was not accidental
418. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to assume that the victim died of
direct contact with flame?

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 A. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract
B. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab
C. Intense charring of the whole body
D. None of the above
419. System of interconnected pipe that supplies water for fire suppression system in a
particular installation.
A. Wet pipe C. Stand pipe
B. Dry pipe D. Sprinkler
420. Product of fire that is detected by gas chromatogram and ion spectrometer.
A. Flames C. Soot
B. Heat D. Fire gases
421. To point out the difference between the incendiary cause of fire and natural cause the
fire investigator must photograph the natural fire pattern and:
A. Arson fire pattern C. Providential fire pattern
B. Accidental fire pattern D. Suspicious fire pattern
422. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ evidence rather than that
direct evidence.
A. Circumstantial C. Testimonial
B. Documentary D. Physical
423. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the
building and/or goals is more than ________ of the value of such building and/or goods at
the time of the fire.
A. 60% C. 80%
B. 50% D. 90%
424. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the dead body found in a burned
structure, this will be a strong circumstantial evidence that the person:
A. Was dead when the fire began
B. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
C. Was still alive before the fire
D. Died due to suffocation
425. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
A. Sulfides C. Sulfur
B. Nitrates D. Ammonia
426. When fire occurred, the first action upon discovery is_______________________.
A. Run for life C. Pack up personal belongings
B. Raise the alarm D. Call an ambulance
427. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the design and erection of a
complete building but also the various specialist engineers who may be concerned with the
structure, the electrical installation, the heating ventilation system and so on.
A. Building contractors C. Office of building permits
B. Designers D. Building planners

428. Which of the following is a primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire
protection?
A. To see to it that the building is insured

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 B. To safeguard life
C. To insure that the building is hazard-free
D. To generate income for the government
429. It helps the the arson investigator solve the fire mystery. The fact that fire feeds or
combustible while propagating itself. It will indicate generally the deepest from where the
fire originated.
A. Charring C. Burning
B. Allegatoring D. Trailer
430. Preparation to set a fire. It is design to feed the fire as rapidly as possible when
ignition device is lighted.
A. Plants C. Accelarants
B. Trailers D. Fuel
431. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of
it to produce:
A. Explosion C. Conflagration
B. Detonation D. Big fire
432. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
A. Flash over C. Ignition
B. Pyrolysis D. Combustion
433. As the product of combustion rises in a building or flows out of an opening an equal
volume of air replaces them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in such a
manner as to upset the thermal balance, a condition will appear known
as_______________________.
A. Explosion of steam C. Thermal imbalance
B. Thermostat D. Sudden burst of fire
434. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from
the base to the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe
B. sprinkler system D. flash point
435. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic
waves. This heat transfer is:
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection
436. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected
horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle
437. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
438. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise
building?
A. attic C. extension
B. aerial D. hook
439. It refers to the law on arson.

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 A. PD 1612 C. Revised Penal Code
B. PD 1613 D. RA 7659
440. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and Jean quarreled. Because of
anger, Jessie put the clothes of Jean in a luggage and burned them.
A. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable
B. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from criminal liability
C. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable
D. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from criminal liability under Article 332 of
the Revised Penal Code

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FINAL COACHI NG BY ON CDI

BY DEAN RODOLFO V CASTILLO
09156993554

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