De La Salle Health Sciences Institute

College of Medicine
Department of Psychiatry
EVALUATION EXAM 2 – YEAR LEVEL 3
SET A
DIRECTIONS: Each of the numbered incomplete statements or questions below is followed by
lettered completions or answers. Select the one lettered choice that is best in each case.

1. Cognitive therapy is founded on the assumption(s) that

A. patients’ appraisal of situations is evident in their cognitions.
B. patients’ cognitions reflect their configuration of themselves, their world, their past, &
their future.
C. alterations in cognitions affect the emotional states and behavioral patterns of patients.
D. all of the above.

2. Relationship between therapist and patient, which gives the therapist an opportunity to display
behavior different from the destructive or unproductive behavior of a patient’s parent
A. Supportive psychotherapy
B. Corrective emotional experience
C. Psychoanalytic setting
D. Fundamental rule

3. According to the cognitive theory of depression

A. unconscious motivations are the core of depression.
B. behavioral patterns lead to the emotional & physical symptoms of depression.
C. depression arises from negative thoughts about the self, the world, & the future.
D. apathy & low energy result from a patient’s expectation of success in all areas of life.

4. In the treatment of depression, cognitive therapy helps patients

A. identify and test negative cognitions.
B. develop alternative and more flexible schemas.
C. rehearse new cognitive responses.
D. all of the above.

5. The didactic aspects of cognitive therapy

A. require explaining to patients the cognitive triad, schemas, and faulty logic.
B. involve giving little explanations about the process of therapy.
C. involve eliciting and testing automatic thoughts.
D. require the testing of the accuracy of maladaptive assumptions.

6. Behavior therapy
A. involves the patient’s unconscious motivations & unfulfilled wishes.
B. involves changing a patient’s observable actions & responses.
C. applies the principles of psychodynamic psychiatry.
D. asserts that mental contents are publicly observable.

7. Systematic desensitization
A. requires the patient to approach his/her feared situation gradually
B. utilizes reciprocal inhibition as a strategy.
C. pairs the learned relaxation state with anxiety-provoking situations.
D. all of the above.

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8. Progressive relaxation
A. increases the heart rate and peripheral blood flow
B. involves relaxing major muscle groups in a fixed order
C. requires patients to imagine themselves in a place associated with pleasant relaxed
memories
D. activates the sympathetic system

9. Flooding
A. is also called explosion.
B. requires a hierarchy of anxiety-provoking situations.
C. requires patients to confront their feared situations without a gradual buildup
D. includes relaxation exercises.
E. allows patients to learn new behaviors by observation.

10. Aversion therapy

A. involves the presentation of a noxious stimulus immediately after a specific
behavioral response.
B. uses the principles of positive reinforcement.
C. uses the principles of eye movement desensitization & reprocessing.
D. identifies and alters cognitive distortions that maintain symptoms.
E. employs principles of hypnotic therapy.

11. Which of the following is an important patient requisite of suitability for psychoanalysis?
A. high anxiety
B. strong dependency issues
C. the ability to form a relationship
D. alexithymia

12. Supportive psychotherapy

A. places major etiological emphasis on intrapsychic events
B. is indicated primarily for patients whose potential for decompensation is low
C. involves genetic interpretations
D. involves the judicious suspension of therapeutic neutrality

13. The goals of social skills training include all of the following except:
A. decreasing social anxiety
B. generalization of the acquired skills to similar situations
C. acquisition of conversational skills
D. acquisition of insight into the social deficit

14. Systematic desensitization is applicable in the treatment of

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. schizophrenia
C. adhd
D. persistent depressive disorder

15. Which of the following disorders is not suitable for psychoanalysis?

A. Sexual Dysfunction
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Conversion Disorder
D. None of the above

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16. A psychiatric emergency involves a disturbance in any of the following EXCEPT:
A. Thoughts
B. Feelings
C. Memory
D. Behavior

17.
Mark arrives at the emergency room after overdosing on 30 capsules of multivitamins. After bein
g medically cleared for discharge, you decide to admit him to an inpatient ward. Which of the foll
owing justifies your decision?
A. Harm to others
B. Non-compliance to medication
C. Harm to self
D. No justifiable reason for admission

18. The following factors would lead to Mark being at a decreased risk for another attempt:
A. Previous attempt
B. Recently diagnosed Major Depressive Disorder
C. Admission that his attempt was meant to seek help
D. Presence of a gun at home

19. The following is not a reliable predictor for future violence:

A. Intoxication
B. History of previous suicide attempts
C. History of previous violence
D. History of abuse

20.
Jane is a Schizophrenic that has come for consult at the ER due to paranoia regarding “aliens.” S
he has a previous history of violence and begins to look agitated and restless. Which of the follow
ing is the first thing you should do to de-escalate the situation?
A. Restrain her
B. Prepare haloperidol and give it intramuscularly
C. Try to verbally calm her down by reassuring her
D. Admit her to the ward

21. What is the mechanism of action for neuroleptic induced Parkinsonism?

A. Blockade of H1 receptors in amygdala
B. Increased Dopamine in nigrostriatal neurons
C. Blockade of Dopamine in nigrostriatal neurons
D. Increased cholinergic activity in entirety of CNS

22.
Jane has been maintained on Haloperidol for almost 10 years. She is a diagnosed case of Schizop
hrenia with episodes of catatonia. Her family, fearing an exacerbation, rushes her to the ER. Upon
seeing her, she has waxy flexibility, agitation, and some rigidity. Which of the following would m
ake you think of the diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
A. Unstable Autonomic Symptoms
B. Akinesia
C. Selective Mutism
D. Agitation

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23.
Roy, a patient with Bipolar Disorder, has been on lithium for many years. He is going to be transf
erred from another institution and has been reported to be in the latter stages of lithium toxicity.
Which of the following symptoms would appear during this stage?
A. Tremors
B. Vomiting
C. Seizures
D. Ataxia

24.
Roy has been started on Fluoxetine (Prozac). How long would he have been on it to most likely s
tart manifesting SSRI withdrawal symptoms?
A. 3 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 6 weeks

25.
Patients with Serotonin Syndrome usually manifest symptoms in a chronological pattern. Which
of the following is the usual pattern?
A. Diarrhea, restlesness, agitation and hyperreflexia, seizures, coma and death
B. Seizures, diarrhea, restlesness, coma and death
C. Restlesness, agitation and hyperreflexia, seizures, diarrhea, coma and death
D. Diarrhea, restlesness, seizures, agitation and hyperreflexia, coma and death

26. The following ismore likely to put a person at risk for medication-induced dystonia:
A. female
B. Late 30’s
C. On daily dosage of 40 mg of haloperidol
D. Smoker

27. Which of the following is the most common mechanism for medication-induced dystonia:
A. Hyperactivity in basal ganglia
B. Excessive activation of corpus callosum
C. Mesocortical activation
D. All of the above

28. The generally accepted serum level of Valproic Acid is:

A. 50-125 microgram/mL
B. 2.5-15 microgram/mL
C. 100-200 micrograms/mL
D. 60-120 micrograms/mL

29. Neuroleptic-induced Parkinsonism can occur within:

A. 5-30 days after initiation of treatment
B. 10-80 days after initiation of treatment
C. 5-90 days after initiation of treatment
D. 10-20 days after initiation of treatment

30. Tardive Dyskinesia usually occurs until after how many months of treatment?
A. 4
B. 5

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 C. 6
D. 7

31. The use of any drug, usually by self-administration, in a manner that deviates from approved
social or medical patterns is:
A. Abuse
B. Dependence
C. Withdrawal
D. Intoxication

32. The repeated use of a drug or chemical substance, with or without physical dependence:
A. Abuse
B. Dependence
C. Withdrawal
D. Intoxication

33. This is also called “abstinence syndrome” or “discontinuation syndrome”:

A. Abuse
B. Dependence
C. Withdrawal
D. Intoxication

34. A reversible syndrome caused by a specific substance that affects one or more of the
following mental functions: memory, orientation, mood, judgment and behavioral or social or
occupational functioning:
A. Abuse
B. Dependence
C. Withdrawal
D. Intoxication

35. Andy is a 30 year old male with a 15-year history of Methamphetamine use. He is admitted
at the Psychiatry Unit for a 14-day program, during which he is hooked to an IV and is given
activated charcoal. He is undergoing:
A. Detoxification
B. Intoxication
C. Rehabilitation
D. Relapse Prevention

36. After Andy is discharged from the hospital, he is transferred to another facility where he is to
stay for 6 months for a form of behavioral therapy. Andy will now be undergoing:
A. Detoxification
B. Intoxication
C. Rehabilitation
D. Relapse Prevention

37. Michael started to use drugs at age 17. He claims that he uses the money given by his
grandmother to buy drugs. His grandmother believes he is just experimenting and claims that she
is only giving him allowance for his daily needs. In Addiction, she is what we call a/ an:
A. Drug pusher
B. Co-addict
C. Enabler
D. User

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38. MC has been using Valium daily for the past two months, as a means of “relaxing her.”
However, her dose has steadily increased over time, and now needs two or three tablets more to
achieve the desired effect. She is likely experiencing:
A. Withdrawal
B. Dependence
C. Neuroadaptation
D. Tolerance

39. Methamphetamine belongs to this class of abused substances:

A. Stimulants
B. Sedative/ hypnotics
C. Hallucinogens
D. Opiates/ opioids

40. A 37 year old physician specializing in OB-Gynecology was admitted at the psychiatry unit
for detoxification from Morphine addiction, which belongs to this class of abused substances:
A. Stimulants
B. Sedative/ hypnotics
C. Hallucinogens
D. Opiates/ opioids

41. Benzodiazepines belong to this class of abused substances:

A. Opioids/ opiates
B. Sedative/ hypnotics
C. Club drugs
D. Stimulants

42. Vitamin K, V’s and E’s belong to this class of substances:

A. Opioids/ opiates
B. Sedative/ hypnotics
C. Club drugs
D. Stimulants

43. Marcus is a 25 year old male who has been using Methamphetamine and Alcohol daily for
the past 10 years. He is unable to stop taking these substances because cessation or reduction in
his use results in withdrawal symptoms. He has also started to peddle drugs, and has started to
steal cash and appliances in their home. He has had several problems with misbehavior in the
past and refuses to acknowledge accountability for his actions. Your diagnosis is:
A. Methamphetamine and Alcohol Dependence
B. Methamphetamine and Alcohol Abuse
C. Antisocial Personality Disorder
D. Both A and C

44. Behavior addictions include:

A. Gambling
B. Shopping addiction
C. Internet addiction
D. All of the above

45. This phase in GAMBLING involves becoming involved with loan sharks, writing bad checks
and embezzling:
A. Winning phase

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B. Progressive-loss phase
C. Desperate phase
D. Hopeless phase