Frontier Medical & dental College

THIRD PROFESSIONAL BDS (2013)

ORAL PATHOLOGY TEST (MCQs)

MAX.MARKS: 30

Max Time: 30 min marks obtained:__________

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NOTE: Select the best possible answer. Each MCQ carry 1 mark.

1. The chemical disintegration of enamel is referred to as:

A. Erosion
B. Hypoplasia
C. Pitting
D. Attrition
2. Dry socket is a form of:
A. osteomylitis
B. periostitis
C. osteoma
D. granuloma

3. Death due to Ludwig`s angina, is primarily because of:

A. Severe bacteremia
B. Septicemia
C. Edema of the glottis causing suffocation
D. All of the above

4. Sequestrum is a:
A. Vital bone
B. Newly formed bone
C. Necrotized bone
D. Reactive bone formation

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5. Irradiation to head & neck region do not cause:
A. Xerostomia
B. Osteoradionecrosis
C. Radiation caries
D. Ramsay hunt syndrome
E. Interference with tooth development

6. Initial microscopic change of enamel affected with dental

caries is:
A. Loss of enamel rod
B. Discontinuity in enamel rod at surface
C. Loss of Interprismatic substance
D. Non of above

7. A biopsy would be of value in diagnosis of oral lesions of:

A. Amyloidosis
B. Carcinoma in situ
C. Tuberculosis
D. Lichen planus
E. All of above

8. The blood of a patient with an acute infectious process would

be expected to demonstrate:
A. Lymphocytosis
B. Leukocytosis
C. Leucopenia
D. Erythrocytosis

9. Four days after a difficult, traumatic extraction of mandibular 3 rd

molar patient reports back in OPD with severe pain. On intraoral
examination foul odor, necrotic bare bone without clot is seen at
extraction site, most likely diagnosis is
A. Pulpitis
B. Osteomylitis
C. Alveolar osteitis
D. Dentoalveolar abscess
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10. A focal gross thickening of periosteum with peripheral bone
formation is:
A. Chronic osteomylitis
B. Condensing osteitis
C. Garre’s osteomylitis
D. Periosteitis

11. Commonly used chemical to arrest the dental caries is:

A. Stannous fluoride 22 to 25%
B. Stannous fluoride 10%
C. Tetracycline topical solution
D. Chlorhexidine topical application

12. Histopathological feature of early dentinal changes in dental

caries is:
A. Sclerotic dentine formation
B. Transparent dentine formation
C. Dead tracts
D. Fatty degeneration of Tome’s fibers

13. Best view of x-ray advised for diagnosing proximal caries is:
A. Occlusal view
B. Bite wing x-rays
C. Intraoral periapical view
D. OPG x-rays

14. Exophthalmous, paralysis of the extraocular muscles,

impairment of vision is a clinical feature of:
A. Maxillary sinusitis
B. Ludwig’s angina
C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
D. Meningeal infection

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15. True generalized microdontia commonly occurs in:
A. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
B. Pituitary dwarfism
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Down’s syndrome

16. Intensity of pain increased when patient lies down, is

characteristic feature of:
A. Acute reversible pulpitis
B. Acute pulpitis
C. Chronic pulpitis
D. Chronic hyperplstic pulpitis

17. “Ghost teeth” characteristic roentgenographic feature of:

A. Dentine dysplasia
B. Regional odontodysplsia
C. Dentinogenesis imperfect
D. Osteogenesis imperfect

18. True anodontia is frequently associated with:

A. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
B. Chondroectodermal dysplasia
C. Hereditary amelogenesis imperfecta
D. Osteogenesis imperfect

19. Affected/carious tooth responds most to the cold stimulus in:

A. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Reversible pulpitis
C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
D. Pulp necrosis

20. In taurodontism affected teeth exhibit:

A. Elongated large pulp chambers, short roots
B. Elongated small pulp chambers, short roots
C. Elongated large pulp chambers, large roots
D. Elongated small pulp chambers, long roots

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21. All of the following statements regarding Amelogenesis
Imperfecta are true except:
A. An inherited condition which is transmitted as a dominant
trait
B. Only effect permanent teeth
C. Causes the enamel of teeth to be soft and thin
D. Teeth appear yellow, because the dentine is visible through
the thin enamel.
E. Teeth are easily damaged and susceptible to decay

22. All of the following are characteristics of Gardner`s syndrome

except:
A. Is inherited in a dominant manner
B. Thousands of polyps develop in colon, as well as in
stomach & duodenum
C. Associated with bony tumors in jaw & skull
D. Polyps usually appear around 15 years of age
E. Rarely undergo malignant transformation

23. “Tooth feels slightly elongated in its socket” is associated

With:
A. Periapical cyst
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Pulpitis
D. Osteomylitis

24. Which one of the following is not a histological feature of

dentine caries:
A. Liquefaction foci
B. Miller`s foci
C. Cholesterol clefts
D. Transverse clefts

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25. Spread of infection in cellulitis is affected by attachment of:
A. Orbicular oris
B. Buccinators
C. Masseter
D. Medial pterygoid

26. Chief etiological organisms of pits & fissure caries is:

A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Actinomyces
D. Streptococcus salivarius

27. Dilaceration is:

A. Joining two teeth by dentin
B. Abnormal bend in root of a tooth
C. Joining two teeth by cementum
D. Abnormal cusp on a tooth

28. The most cariogenic sugar is:

A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Sucrose
D. galactose

29. Pellicle is:

A. Adsorbed layer of extracellular bacterial glucans
B. Adsorbed layer of salivary glycoproteins
C. Adsorbed layer of desquamated epithelial cells
D. Adsorbed layer of streptococci & filaments

30. Cellulitis is usually associated with Streptococcus,

because:
A. It is a common organism causing dental caries
B. It releases hyaluronidase, which cleaves intercellular Substance
C. Streptococcus never causes cellulitis
D. Both A & B are correct