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1) Which of the following is the best modern definition of


evolution?

A) descent with modification

B) change in the number of genes in a population over time A) descent with modification
C) survival of the fittest

D) inheritance of acquired characters

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2) Which variable is likely to undergo the largest change in value
resulting from a mutation that introduces a new allele into a
population at a locus for which all individuals formerly had been
fully homozygous?

A) average heterozygosity
A) average heterozygosity
B) nucleotide variability

C) geographic variability

D) average number of loci

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3) Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne back 3
Major during prolonged drought is true?

A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted.

B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced
of its beak as the drought persisted. by the depth and strength of its beak as the
C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with drought persisted.
deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation.

D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the


drought persisted.

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4) Which statement about variation is true?

A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.

B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.


D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide
variability.
C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.

D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.

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5) Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least5
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likely) with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the
corresponding polypeptide.

1. insertion mutation deep within an intron

2. substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon

3. substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon


B) 4, 3, 2, 1
4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 4, 3, 2, 1
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6) Genetic variation _____.

A) is created by the direct action of natural selection

B) arises in response to changes in the environment


C) must be present in a population before
C) must be present in a population before natural selection can act natural selection can act upon the population
upon the population

D) tends to be reduced by when diploid organisms produce


gametes

HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), frontan
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enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an
RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme
that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller,
functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for
antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, D) using moderate doses of NA and two
whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. different PIs at the same time for several
7) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to months
avoid the evolution of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions
or side effects)?

A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week

HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), frontan
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enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an
RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme
that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller,
functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for
antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT,
whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR.
D) One of the RNA molecules has experienced
gene duplication as the result of translocation.
8) Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one
RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one
end of the other RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of
these is true?

A) There are now fewer genes within the viral particle.

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9) Refer to the accompanying figure.


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Which one of the following is NOT a
plausible hypothesis to explain the
differences in caterpillar appearance
observed in this population?
C) Differences in air pressure, due to
A) The longer day lengths of summer
trigger the development of twig-like
differences in elevation, trigger the
caterpillars. development of different types of caterpillars.
B) The cooler temperatures of spring
trigger the development of flowerlike
caterpillars.

10) Refer to the accompanyingfront figure.


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In every case, caterpillars that feed on
oak flowers look like oak flowers. In
every case, caterpillars that were raised
on oak leaves looked like twigs. These
results support which of the following
hypotheses?
C) Differences in diet trigger the development
of different types of caterpillars.
A) The longer day lengths of summer
trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.

B) Differences in air pressure, due to


elevation, trigger the development of
11) Refer to the accompanyingfront
figure.
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Recall that eggs from the same female
were exposed to each of the eight
treatments used. This aspect of the
experimental design tested which of the
following hypotheses? D) The differences are genetic. A female will
A) The longer day lengths of summer
either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all
trigger the development of twig-like twig-like caterpillars.
caterpillars.

B) Differences in air pressure, due to


elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
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12) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that
causes death during the teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have
the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and
recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model?

A) f(A1) = 0.9997, f(A2) = 0.0003


C) f(A1) = 0.9700, f(A2) = 0.0300
B) f(A1) = 0.9800, f(A2) = 0.0200

C) f(A1) = 0.9700, f(A2) = 0.0300

D) f(A1) = 0.9604, f(A2) = 0.0392

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13) Suppose 64% of a remote mountain village can taste front 13 back 13
phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and must, therefore, have at least one
copy of the dominant PTC taster allele. If this population conforms
to Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene, what percentage of
the population must be heterozygous for this trait?

A) 16% D) 48%
B) 32%

C) 40%

D) 48%
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14) For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab,
which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet?

A) no selection

B) no genetic drift D) no mutation


C) no gene flow

D) no mutation

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15) For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab,


which Hardy-Weinberg condition is easiest to meet?

A) no selection

B) no genetic drift C) no gene flow


C) no gene flow

D) no mutation

16) Refer to the figure above.front


Is this
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population in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium?

A) Yes.

B) No; there are more heterozygotes C) No; there are more homozygotes than
than expected. expected.
C) No; there are more homozygotes
than expected.

D) More information is needed to


answer this question.

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17) If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are
heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the species should
be _____.

A) 23%

B) 46%
C) 54%
C) 54%

D) 92%

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18) The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a


population, the lower are that population's _____.

A) nucleotide variability
D) nucleotide variability and average
B) chromosome number heterozygosity
C) average heterozygosity

D) nucleotide variability and average heterozygosity

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19) Whenever diploid populations are in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium at a particular locus, _____.

A) the allele's frequency should not change from one generation to


the next
A) the allele's frequency should not change
B) natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally from one generation to the next
to change an allele's frequency

C) two alleles are present in equal proportions

D) individuals within the population are evolving

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20) In the formula for determining a population's genotype


frequencies, the "2" in the term 2pq is necessary because _____.

A) the population is diploid

B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways
C) the population is doubling in number

D) heterozygotes have two alleles

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21) In the formula for determining a population’s genotype


frequencies, the "pq" in the term 2pq is necessary because _____.

A) the population is diploid

B) heterozygotes can come about in two ways D) heterozygotes have two alleles
C) the population is doubling in number

D) heterozygotes have two alleles

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22) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that
are in equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the
frequency of individuals that are homozygous for this allele?

A) 0.09

B) 0.49
A) 0.09
C) 0.9

D) 9.0

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23) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that
are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the
frequency of individuals that are heterozygous for this allele?

A) 0.020

B) 0.04
D) 0.32
C) 0.16

D) 0.32

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24) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that
are in equilibrium, the frequency of allele a is 0.1. What is the
frequency of individuals with AA genotype?

A) 0.20

B) 0.32
D) 0.81
C) 0.42

D) 0.81

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25) You sample a population of butterflies and find that 56% are
heterozygous at a particular locus. What should be the frequency of
the recessive allele in this population?

A) 0.08 D) Allele frequency cannot be determined from


B) 0.09 this information.
C) 0.70

D) Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.

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26) In peas, a gene controls flower color such that R = purple and r
= white. In an isolated pea patch, there are 36 purple-flowering
plants and 64 white-flowering plants. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium, what is the value of q for this population?

A) 0.36
D) 0.80
B) 0.64

C) 0.75

D) 0.80

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed


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randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 25% of
the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the
beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the
dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the
homozygous dominants.
A) The two phenotypes are about equally
27) What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from the adaptive under laboratory conditions.
fact that the frequency of the recessive trait (aa) has not changed over
time?

A) The two phenotypes are about equally adaptive under laboratory


conditions.

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed


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randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 25% of
the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the
beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the
dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the
homozygous dominants.

28) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool? B) 0.50
A) 0.25

B) 0.50

C) 0.75

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A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed


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randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 25% of
the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the
beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the
dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the
homozygous dominants.

29) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for C) 0.50
this trait?

A) 0.05

B) 0.25

C) 0 50
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30) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that _____.

A) does little to change allele frequencies

B) is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes A) does little to change allele frequencies
C) happens in all populations

D) has no effect on genetic variation

31) The figure above showsfront


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distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors
in several Arizona populations found
either on light-colored granite substrate
or on dark volcanic rock (dark
substrate). The Melanocortin-1 receptor
(Mc1r) alleles, D and d, differ by four
D) Xmas-high dd frequency; Mid-high DD
amino acids. Mice with DD and Dd frequency, O'Neill-high Dd frequency
genotypes have dark coats, whereas
mice with the dd genotype are light
colored. What sort of genotype
frequencies might you expect to find in
the Xmas, Mid, and O'Neill
l ti above.
32) Refer to the figure ? In their
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investigation of natural selection on
Mc1r alleles (the gene that determines
coat color) in Arizona pocket mice,
Hoekstra et al. determined the
frequency of the D and d alleles in each D) Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a
population. They also determined the control and gives information on any general background genetic
frequency of alleles for two neutral difference among these populations.
mitochondrial DNA genes (genes that
do not affect and are not linked to coat
color). Why did the researchers include
the mitochondrial DNA genes as part of
their experimental design?

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33) Soon after the island of Hawaii


frontrose
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above the sea surface (somewhat less
than one million years ago), the
evolution of life on this new island
should have been most strongly
influenced by _____.

A) a genetic bottleneck
D) the founder effect
B) sexual selection

C) habitat differentiation

D) the founder effect


In 1983 a population of dark-eyed junco birds became establishedfront on the
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campus of the University of California, San Diego (UCSD), which is
located many miles from the junco's normal habitat in the mixed-
coniferous temperate forests in the mountains. Juncos have white outer tail
feathers that the males display during aggressive interactions and during
courtship displays. Males with more white in their tail are more likely to
win aggressive interactions, and females prefer to mate with males with
more white in their tails. Females have less white in their tails than do
D) a founder effect
males, and display it less often. (Pamela J. Yeh. 2004. Rapid evolution of a
sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel
habitat. Evolution 58[1]:166-74.)

34) Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds. The UCSD campus
male junco population tails were on average 36% white whereas the tails
In 1983 a population of dark-eyed junco birds became establishedfront on the
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campus of the University of California, San Diego (UCSD), which is
located many miles from the junco's normal habitat in the mixed-
coniferous temperate forests in the mountains. Juncos have white outer tail
feathers that the males display during aggressive interactions and during
courtship displays. Males with more white in their tail are more likely to
win aggressive interactions, and females prefer to mate with males with
more white in their tails. Females have less white in their tails than do
A) natural selection
males, and display it less often. (Pamela J. Yeh. 2004. Rapid evolution of a
sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel
habitat. Evolution 58[1]:166-74.)

35) Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds. The UCSD campus
male junco population tails are about 36% white whereas the tails of
36) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to 36
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Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s. They do not marry with members outside
their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically
unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other
populations including those in their original homeland. Which of the
following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?

A) population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium


D) founder effect and genetic drift
B) heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection

C) mutation and natural selection

D) founder effect and genetic drift

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37) An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population,front killing


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98% of the squirrels. The surviving population happens to have
broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness
of stripes is genetically determined, what effect has the ground-
squirrel population experienced during the earthquake?

A) directional selection D) a genetic bottleneck


B) disruptive selection

C) a founder event

D) a genetic bottleneck
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38) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of
increased gene flow between two populations?

A) lower average fitness in both populations


D) decreased genetic difference between the
B) higher average fitness in both populations two populations
C) increased genetic difference between the two populations

D) decreased genetic difference between the two populations

39) In 1986, a nuclear power accident in Chernobyl, USSR (now Ukraine),


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led to high radiation levels for miles surrounding the plant. The high levels
of radiation caused elevated mutation rates in the surviving organisms, and
evolutionary biologists have been studying rodent populations in the
Chernobyl area ever since. Based on your understanding of evolutionary
mechanisms, which of the following most likely occurred in the rodent
populations following the accident? B) Mutation led to increased genetic variation.
A) Mutations caused major changes in rodent physiology over time.

B) Mutation led to increased genetic variation.

C) Mutation caused genetic drift and decreased fitness.

D) Mutation caused the fixation of new alleles


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40) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily
increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by
increasing _____.

A) nonrandom mating

B) geographic isolation
D) gene flow
C) genetic drift

D) gene flow

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41) You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory
by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After
several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased
greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to
decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to _____.

A) cross your flies with flies from another lab A) cross your flies with flies from another lab
B) reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation

C) transfer only the largest flies

D) change the temperature at which you rear the flies

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42) The inability of organisms to evolve anything that could be an
advantage reflects _____.

A) the limits of historical constraints

B) the inability to compromise A) the limits of historical constraints


C) the consequences of random mutations

D) the consequences of inbreeding

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43) Which of the following is a fitness trade-off (compromise)?

A) In some hornbill species, the male helps seal the female in a tree with
her nest until the young are ready to fledge.

B) Hummingbirds are the best pollinators of certain flowers, but bees are D) Turtle shells provide protection but are
the best pollinators for orchids. heavy and burdensome when moving.
C) The strong, thick beak of a woodpecker helps it find insects in trees.

D) Turtle shells provide protection but are heavy and burdensome when
moving.

On the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in44


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various, now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently,
some predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast
bursts; other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim
continuously for a long time. When placed together in the same body of
water, the two kinds of female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding
preferences.
C) less-intense directional selection; more-
intense directional selection
44) If one builds a canal linking a predator-rich pond to a predator-poor
pond, then what type(s) of selection should subsequently be most expected
among the mosquitofish in the original predator-rich pond, and what
type(s) should be most expected among the mosquitofish in the formerly
predator-poor pond?

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45) Examine the figure above. What
type of selection for body size appears
to be occurring in these marine iguanas?

A) directional selection

B) stabilizing selection B) stabilizing selection


C) disruptive selection

D) You cannot determine the type of


selection from the above information.

46) Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanasfrontare 46 back 46


Galápagos hawks. Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk
predation, although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. If
predators (for example, cats) that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas
are introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to _____ in the
absence of other factors; the iguanas would then be under _____ selection.

A) increase; directional
C) decrease; directional
B) increase; disruptive

C) decrease; directional

D) decrease; disruptive
47) Three-spined stickleback fish (Gasterosteus aculeatus) show front 47 back 47
substantial heritable variation in gill-raker length related to differences in
their diets. Longer gill rakers appear to function better for capturing open-
water prey, while shorter gill rakers function better for capturing shallow-
water prey. Which of the following types of selection is most likely to be
found in a large lake (open water in the middle and shallow water around
the sides) with a high density of these fish? C) disruptive selection
A) directional selection

B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) sexual selection
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48) A biologist doing a long-term study on a wild spider population
observes increased variation in silk thickness. Which of the
following could the spider population be experiencing?

A) directional selection
C) disruptive selection
B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) genetic drift

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49) In some jacana species, males take care of the eggs and young, and
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females compete among themselves for territories that contain one to
several males. Female jacanas are significantly larger than males. Which
of these statements would you predict to be true of this bird species?

1. Male jacana fitness is primarily limited by ability to take care of eggs


and raise young.

2. Female jacana fitness is limited by the number of males in her territory


C) 1, 2, and 4
with which a female mates.

3. Variation in reproductive success should be greater in male jacanas than


in females.

4 Variation in reproductive success should be greater in female jacanas


50) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from
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successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by
the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these
restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation
selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new
strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn
selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose
restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. The outcome of the
A) frequency-dependent selection
conflict between bacteria and bacteriophage at any point in time results
from _____.

A) frequency-dependent selection

B) evolutionary imbalance
51) The restriction enzymes of bacteria protect the bacteria from
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successful attack by bacteriophages, whose genomes can be degraded by
the restriction enzymes. The bacterial genomes are not vulnerable to these
restriction enzymes because bacterial DNA is methylated. This situation
selects for bacteriophages whose genomes are also methylated. As new
strains of resistant bacteriophages become more prevalent, this in turn D) Methylated and nonmethylated strains
selects for bacteria whose genomes are not methylated and whose should be maintained among both bacteria and
restriction enzymes instead degrade methylated DNA. Over the course of
evolutionary time, what should occur? bacteriophages, with ratios that vary over time.
A) Methylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of bacterial
species.

B) Nonmethylated DNA should become fixed in the gene pools of


52) Arrange the following in order from most general to front
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specific.

1 natural selection

2. microevolution

3. intrasexual selection C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
4. evolution

5. sexual selection

A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

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53) Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adultfront female
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humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing
growth of the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a
trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx
size in adult males, then _____.

A) sexual dimorphism was evolving over time in these species A) sexual dimorphism was evolving over time
B) intrasexual selection seems to have occurred in both species
in these species
C) stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx
size

D) selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype
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54) Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch.
Starlings producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness.
Which of the following terms best describes this situation?

A) directional selection
B) stabilizing selection
B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) sexual selection

55) When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that
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have two sexes (that is, other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of
the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and
resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex.
This is most clearly an example of _____.

A) sexual selection D) frequency-dependent selection


B) balancing selection

C) stabilizing selection

D) frequency-dependent selection
56) A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are56
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more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse
mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The actual forelimbs of these
mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged because _____.

A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design D) natural selection is generally limited to
in each case, but will do so given enough time
modifying structures that were present in
B) in many cases, phenotype is determined by genotype and the previous generations and in previous species
environment

C) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal
arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that
natural selection ultimately produces the best design

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57) Anopheles mosquitoes, which carry
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the malaria parasite, cannot live above
elevations of 5900 feet. In addition,
oxygen availability decreases with
higher altitude. Consider a hypothetical
human population that is adapted to life
on the slopes of Mt. Kilimanjaro in
Tanzania, a country in equatorial
Africa. Mt. Kilimanjaro's base is about
2600 feet above sea level and its peak is
19,341 feet above sea level. If the
incidence of the sickle-cell allele in the
population is plotted against altitude
(f t b l l) hi h f th
58) If there is no gene flow, the front 58
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shifts to the left or to the right, and the
population size consequently increases
over successive generations, which of
the following is most likely occurring?

A) immigration or emigration B) directional selection


B) directional selection

C) disruptive selection

D) genetic drift

In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite isfront


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common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the β hemoglobin alleles
in the human gene pool.

59) In the United States, the parasite that causes malaria is not present, but
African-Americans whose ancestors were from equatorial Africa are
present. What should be happening to the sickle-cell allele in the United
States, and what should be happening to it in equatorial Africa?
D) directional selection; stabilizing selection
A) stabilizing selection; disruptive selection

B) disruptive selection; stabilizing selection

C) directional selection; disruptive selection


60) Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu60
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virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time.
When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu
virus to be combined. If the human flu virus contributes a gene for Tamiflu
resistance (Tamiflu is an antiviral drug) to the new virus, and if the new
virus is introduced to an environment lacking Tamiflu, then what is most C) If the Tamiflu-resistance gene involves a
likely to occur? cost, it will experience directional selection
A) The new virus will maintain its Tamiflu-resistance gene, in case of leading to reduction in its frequency.
future exposure to Tamiflu.

B) The Tamiflu-resistance gene will undergo mutations that convert it into


a gene that has a useful function in this environment.

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