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LEA

1. Uniformed PNP members shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and
values and maintain the principle of_______.
a. Equality of the service c. Policelifestyle
b. Public accountability d. Socialawareness
1. It greatly enhance personnel professionalism process with regards to procurement,
training, promotion, assignment, placement, awards and retirement.
a. Basic Management c.Management leadership
b. Career Pattern d.Career management
1. Member of the PNP shall serve with utmost responsibility, integrity, morality, loyalty, and
efficiency with due respect to human rights and dignity as hallmark of a __________.
a. Peace loving society c.Liberated society
b. Democratic society d. Friendly society
1. In case of conflict in the practice of customs and traditions on one hand and in the
performance of duties on the other, one that shall prevail is ________.
a. Customs c.Traditions
b. Performance of Duties d. Writtenorders
1. All PNP members in the performance of their duties shall abide by this _________.
a. Code of Conduct c.Ethical Doctrine
b. Behavioral Conduct d.Gentlemanliness
1. The test of the police efficiency is the absence of _______.
a. Police visibility c.Personal moral
b. Crime and disorder d. Adherence to the law
1. The use if which diminishes proportionality in achieving law enforcement objectives.
a. Dialogue c.Debate
b. Agreement d.Physical Compulsion
1. Application of which in the police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and
maintain respect of the profession.
a. Applied principles c. Fundamental principles
b. Basic Principles d. Approved principles
1. Any other day suitable for the occasion, where PNP members gather together at their
PNP club for a light hearted jesting or airing minor gripes.
a. Happy Hours c.Lunch of time hours
b. Off hours b.After wok hours
1. It is taboo in the uniform service.
a. Flat stomach c.Bulging stomach
b. Thin Stomach d.Regular stomach
1. Usual greeting rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and recognizing person
entitled to _______.
a. Salute c.Verbal Greeting
b. Shaking Hands d.Bowling of heads
1. Established usage of social practices carried on by tradition that have obtained the force
of the law.
a. Authority c.Behavior
b. Customs d.Traits
1. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages headed down from generation to
generation.
a. Habits c.Tradition
b. Manners d.Character
1. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect.
a. Politeness c.Loyalty
b. Honesty d.Courtesy
1. A set of norms and Standards and practice by members during social and other
functions.
a. Social Decorum c.Character traits
b. Personality development d. Human Behavior
1. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. Love of women c.Love of God
b. Selfless love of people d. Love of power
1. Which of the following is prohibited from engaging in strikes, rallies, demonstrations and
other similar concerted activities?
a. Member of the first family
b. Family member of the officers of the PNP
c. Thirddegree of consanguinity relatives of the officers of the PNP
d. Membersand officers of the PNP
1. The new PNP ethical doctrine is substantially based on ________.
a. PNP code of ethics
b. PNP Fundamental Doctrine and Code of ProfessionalConduct and Ethical Standards
c. PNP code of conduct
d. R.A. 6713
1. Which of the following is the main purpose of the PNP ethical Doctrine?
a. Provide moral and ethical guidance to all PNPmembers
b. Established uniform behavior among PNPpersonal
c. Prescribe conduct that PNP organic andnon-organic member be observed
d. Provide proper and standard behavior for PNPmembers and sanction on case of violation.
1. The PNP ethical doctrine applies to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel of the
PNP.
a. True c.Either true or false
b. False d.Partially false
1. Which of the following occasions should the PP recited.
a. Flag Raising and Flag Retreat ceremonies,jointly with the Panunumpa sa Watawat.
b. PNP training/course opening and closingceremonies.
c. Seminar on moral values ceremonies and otherceremonies.
d. All of the above.
1. Rigid application of fundamental principles in police work is necessary to avoid human
rights violation and maintain respect of the profession.
a. True c. Partially true
b. False d. partially false
1. Which of the following is not false as far as fundamental principles of police work are
concern?
a. Fulfillment of police functions is notdepended upon community approval because the latter
is just a passivebeneficiary of police service.
b. Cooperation and assistance of communitydiminishes proportionately the need of the use of
physical force and compulsionin achieving law enforcement.
c. Police officers are members of a regimentedorganization who are paid to render public
services due upon every citizen.
d. The test of police efficiency is the visibleevidence of law enforcement action in dealing crime
and disorder.
1. The PNP ethical doctrine recognized that “The people are the peace maker, the police
are the peace keeper, and the local government is the peace observer.” If he goes beyond
and above of his role, he must observe the three (3) C’s in internal and external relations,
except one. Which one?
a. Consult c. Contribute
b. Coordinate d. Cooperate
1. The oath of commitment to the ethical doctrine by all members of the PNP upon
________.
a. Entry into the PNP c. Assumption ofoffice/position
b. Promotion to the net higher rank d. All of the above
1. How does the PNP members, uniformed or non-uniformed adhere to PNP ethical
doctrine?
a. By Police Officers Pledge c. By Pledge of Covenant
b. By Police officers Creed d. all of theabove
1. Recognized as ever “Magnificent Principle” of police service.
a. Love of God c.Respect the people
b. Honor the Government d. All of the Above
1. Assume that you are a criminologist member of the PNP. How can you sick and
preserve public favor?
a. By soliciting public opinion
b. By effective public relation program
c. By constant demonstration of impartiality byreading offering of individual service and
congeniality.
d. All of the above
1. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge f allegiance to the flag and a vow to
defend the constitution.
a. Patriotism c. loyalty
b. Nationalism d. Valor
1. Jhon Dean Ramos, a newly appointed police Inspector constantly speak and act with
professionalism, gaining him the admiration of his subordinates, he likewise follow geed
deeds and work ethics of his superior Sr/Insp. Eugene Velarde. Both officers stand on what
basic issues?
a. PNP image c. Setting example
b. Delicadeza d. Police lifestyle
1. Known as an Act Creating the Board Examiners for Criminologists.
1. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6506
2. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 4864
2. What law that regulated the Criminology profession in the Philippines?
1. R.A. 4864 c. R.A. 8551
2. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 6506
3. What is the term of office of the Members of the Board of Criminology?
1. 3 years c, 6 years
2. 4 years d. 2 years
4. In order to pass the Licensure Examinations for Criminologists one must--
1. Obtain a general weighted average of 75%
2. Obtain a general weighted average of 80%
3. Obtain a general weighted average of 70%
4. Obtain a general average of 75% with no rating below 50% in any subject
5. A Criminologist is any person who?
1. Is a graduate of the degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination for
Criminologist
2. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the Board Examination for
Criminologists and is registered by the Board
3. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the board and finished his
Master of Science in Criminology
4. All of the above
6. Which of the following is not a practice of Criminology?
1. As a teacher/professor of Criminology
2. As a technician in the Crime Laboratory
3. As a law enforcement officer
4. As a business adviser
7. When does R.A. 6506 was approved?
1. July 1, 1972 c. October 12, 1987
2. October 15, 1998 d. None of the above
8. How can a Criminologist improve his effectiveness in the exercise of his profession?
1. By faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
2. By diligent study and disseminating knowledge that will accrue to the benefit of
the public
3. By accepting as sacred obligation to support the Constitution
4. None of the above
9. Known as Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologists
1. Code of Ethics for Registered Criminologist
2. Ethics for Criminology Professional
3. Law Enforcement Ethics
4. P.N.P. Code of Ethics
10. What is the primary responsibility of Registered Criminologist?
1. Bear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to his
profession
2. Support the Constitution of the Philippines
3. Defend the principles of liberty
4. All of the above
11. Professional capacities in which Criminologist are governed by the Canon of Ethics
1. Private and Public Conduct
2. Conduct toward the Profession
3. Conduct towards fellow criminologist
4. All of the above
12. SPOI Jalandoni is known to have two families- one is in the Regional Police Office
where he is assigned as a CIDG operative and the other is in Manila where is maintaining a
permanent abode. Which of the following statement applies to him in regard to COPCES for
police officer?
1. SPO1 Jalandoni is immoral
2. SPO1 Jalandoni does not practice the value of respect to woman and sanctity of
marriage
3. SPO1 Jalandoni violated the police ethics
4. SPO1 Jalandoni does not follow the police professional conduct
13. PSI Mercado’s word is his bond, he stand by it and committed himself to uphold it. What
police tradition does inspector Mercado upholds?
1. Delicadeza c. Word of Honor
2. Camaraderie d. Honor Code
14. January is declared to be Police Community Relations Month under Proclamation
Number-
1. 783 c. 738
2. 387 d. 873
15. A police officer who sacrificed his life and limb for the sake of his countrymen whom he
pledged to serve lives the tradition of________ among Filipino Law enforcers.
1. Physical courage c. Valor
2. Bravery d. Courage
16. Manifested by the PNP members’ deep commitment and concern to one another.
This police tradition binds spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the organization
which is extended to the people the police serves.
1. Loyalty c. Esprit de corps
2. Camaraderie d. Tradition
17. One of which is not a police social decorum. Which one?
1. Proper attire and table manners c. Marching
2. Social graces and appearance d. Manner of Walking
18. PSSupt Pinaglabanan is due to relinquish his position as Provincial Director of Laguna in
favor of PSupt Castor. What police customs on ceremony shall be observed?
1. Honor ceremony c. Transfer of position ceremony
2. Turn-over ceremony d. Farewell to the troops ceremony
19. What rank in the PNP is entitled to have an honor ceremony during arrival or departure
from visits from any police office?
1. P/SSupt c. Brigadier General
2. P/CSupt d. NCR Director
20. PCSupt Pedro Ruiz is an incumbent Regional Director of Region IV-A covering
CALABARZON. His Police Regional Office is visited by another Regional Director and the
members of his group. What customs on courtesy should Ruiz be observed?
1. Courtesy calls c. RHIP
2. Courtesy of the post d. entrance call
21. SPOIII Debayan refrains himself from patronizing houses of ill-refute and faithful to his
legal spouse. Debayan satisfies the ethical standard of-
1. Integrity c. Humility
2. Loyalty d. Morality
22. POIII Lihis visibly tucked his PNP issued and personal firearms in his waist and act like a
cowboy in the 19th Century Texas. By his words, he assumes that he is a master of the
people; performs his duties with arrogance, feeling that he invincible and always desires
applause and publicity of his accomplishments. Lihis does not practice-
1. Perseverance c. Integrity
2. Humility d. Humbleness
23. A moral courage to sacrifice self-interest.
1. Esprit de corps c. Valor
2. Camaraderie d. Delicadeza
24. Improving police community relations is a matter of concern to-
1. PCO c. All members of the police force
2. PNCO d. community leaders
25. Requirements for a good community relations, except-
1. Full knowledge of the job
2. Sound police ethics
3. Kindness, generosity and willingness to follow the will and whims of the people
4. Deep conviction in the nobility of work.

1. He exercise the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to the security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Undersecretary for Peace and Order
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
Ans. A

2. In Counter intelligence, surveillance is categorized according to intensity and sensitivity.


When there is intermittent observation, varying in occasion, then this surveillance is called:
A. loose B. open
C. discreet D. close
Ans.

3. The amount and nature of demands of the police service are not the same on all three (3)
shift. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the police
service is of greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. clientele B. time
C. purpose D. process

Ans. B

4. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime
prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police visibility program

Ans. D

5. Planning is a formal process of choosing the following, EXCEPT


A. purpose for which the organization performs
B. an organizational mission and overall objectives for both the short and long run
C. strategies to achieve the objectives
D. divisional, departmental and individual objective based on organizational objective
Ans. A

6. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Police Officer III
C. Inspector
D. Senior Inspector

Ans. C

7. In busy and thickly populated Commercial Street like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very
necessary. Since three are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend?

A. Horse patrol B. Foot patrol


C. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol

Ans. B

8. It is the product resulting from the collection evaluation analysis integration and interpretation
of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police planning.

A. Investigation B. Information
C. Data D. Intelligence

Ans. D

9. These are work programs of line division which related to the nature and extend of the
workload and the availability of resource.
A. administrative plan B. strategic plan
B. operational plan D. tactical plan

Ans. B

10. It is the premier institution for the police, fire, and jail personnel.

A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)


B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)

Ans. D

11. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consists of ____________________.


A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor

Ans. C

12. Police Officer must develop the _________________ of recording the facts as they are
learned and as the evidence is obtained:
A. obligation B. habit
B. perspective D. Duty

Ans. B

13. An industrial complex must established its first line of physical defense. It must have;
A. the building itself
B. communication barrier
C. perimeter barriers
D. window barriers

Ans. C
14. All the following are members of the Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected
members of the community.
B. Any Barangay Captain of the City/Municipality concerned chosen by the Association of
Barangay Captains.
C. Any members of the Sanguniang Panlungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)

Ans. D

15. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for particular operational
purposes.
A. Inspection B. Survey
C. Surveillance D. Casing

Ans. D

16. In the Civil Service System, merit and fitness are the primary consideration in the ________.
A. two-party system
B. promotional system
C. evaluation system
D. tools system

Ans. B

17. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a security agency is :
A. 40 yrs old B. 25 yrs old
C. 30 yrs old D. 35 yrs old
Ans. B

18. Which of these statements is CORRECT?


A. Conduction is heat transfer through combustion
B. Conduction is heat transfer through solid materials
C Conduction is heat transfer through air motion
D. Conduction is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves

Ans. B

19. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss which of the following:
A. his education profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religion, affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence function

Ans. D

20. Private security Agencies has to be registered with the ______________.


A. Security and Exchange Commission
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. NAPOLCOM
D. National Bureau of Investigation

Ans. A

21. It is natural and man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting,
determining or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. fence B. barrier
C. wall D. hazard

Ans. B.

22. A single uninterrupted line of authority-often represented by boxes lines of organizational


chart should run in order by rank from top command to the level of the organization.
A. organizational control
B. scalar chain
C. administrative control
D. span of control

Ans. B

23. It provides means and ways by which all persons and employees are trained to make them
security conscious and disciplined.
A. security check
B. security investigation
C. security education
D. security promotion

Ans. C

24. What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained of the person against
whom the information or document may be used, or the information is clandestinely acquired?
A. Covert B. Active
C. Overt D. Underground

Ans. A
25. The provincial governors shall choose the provincial Director from a list of ______ eligible
recommended by the PNP Director, preferable from the same province, city, or municipality.
A. six (6) B. five (5)
C. Three (3) D. four (4)

Ans. B

26. Which of the following is the most important characteristics of a good operational plan?
A. only one officer is reasonable for his execution
B. need for on-the-operation modification and amplification is minimized
C. present objectives and allocation of resources but not the methodology
D. all the details of the plans are properly identified and evaluated and such details are known
by the implementers.

Ans. D

27. Your fire station received a call that the Department Store “A” is burning. Considering the
huge facility and merchandise of said department store, there is a need to?

A. Study the problem in advance and formulate method of attack


B. Wait for further information about progress of incident
C. Proceed to the area and start putting off the fire
D. Organize the committee to direct fire fighting

Ans. C

28. Republic Act No. 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the
PNP shall be approximately in accordance with a police to population ratio of;

A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants


B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1500) inhabitants
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1000) inhabitants

Ans. C

29. In disaster control operation, there is a need to establish a ______________ where


telephone or other means of communication shall ensure public lines of communication.

A. Command post B. Field room


C. Operation center D. Safe house

Ans. A

30. Registration of security agency must be done at the ________________?


A. Security and Exchange Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of National Defense
D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group

Ans. A

31. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ______________ since they can be operated
very quietly and without attracting attention.

A. Reduced speed and greater area of coverage


B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter time travel
D. Mobility and stealth

Ans. D
32. The budget is ___________ in terms of expenditure requirements.

A. Tactical plan B. Work plan


C. Financial plan D. Control plan

Ans. C

33. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject while the investigator conducting the
surveillance is:

A. Rabbit B. Decoy
C. Surveillant C. Target

Ans. C

34. It is the police function which serves as the Backbone of the police service. In all types of
police situations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.

A. vice control
B. Traffic enforcement
C. criminal investigation
D. patrol

Ans. D

35. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing
such organizations. They must identify the organizations ________________.
A. Strategy B. Vision
C. Objective D. Mission
Ans. D

36. Which of the following strategies is FALSE?

A. patrol officers are assigned to the New Cops on the Block


B. foot patrol places the patrol officers to greater danger than mobile patrol
C. helicopter patrol is of no use in search and rescue operation
D. the PNP does employ foot patrol

Ans. C

37. It is the weakest link in the security chain.


A. Managers B. Personnel
C. Barriers D. Inspections

Ans. B

38. It is the protection of high ranking officials from harm, kidnapping, and similar acts.
A. Asset protection B. Physical security
C. Document security D. VIP security

Ans. D

39. Designed to outline a series of related operations to accomplice a common objective


normally within a given period of time.
A. Contingency plan B. Supporting plan
C. Strategic plan D. Campaign plan

Ans. C
40. Which of the following best reflects the first step, logically and to some extent
chronologically, in planning the budget for an operating unit of the police agency?

A. forecast of workload
B. find out how much money was given last
C. establish a priority for each task or activity

Ans. C

41. Which of the statement is TRUE?

A. In a small police station, the need for a full time Records officer is justifiable.
B. As police stations increases its size, routine Desk officer is not able to hand them all.
C. Police records are not that important in police administration.
D. In large Departments, the Desk officer devote full time exclusively to record task.

Ans. D

42. A police station should have _______________ plan which includes every step that has
been outlined and officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by the
members of the police organization.

A. tactical plan B. management plan


C. procedural plan D. operational plan

Ans. C

43. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective
patrol strategy?

A. training of station commander


B. adequacy of resources of police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel

Ans. B

44. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?

A. District Director B. Chief of Police


C. Provincial Director D. Chief, PNP

Ans. D

45. Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is called?

A. Administration B. Supervision
C. Management D. Organization

Ans. B

46. You are the Patrol Supervisor for morning shift, you don’t have enough men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?

A. Assign roving patrol with no foot patrol


B. Assign mobile patrol only in strategic place
C. Maintain your patrolmen in the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
D. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to
cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol.

Ans. D
47. _________________ plan relates to the problem of equipping, staffing and preparing the
police station to do job rather than the actual operation of the organization.

A. Tactical plan B. Management plan


C. Procedural plan D. Operational plan

Ans. B

48. It is the importance of the firm or installation in relation to national security.

A. Relative necessity
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Relative security
D. Relative critically

Ans. D

49. In undertaking a long range program directly toward simplification of the police records, the
first step should be a study of:

A. mechanic in which the current systems operate


B. utilization of existing record system
C. administrative structure of the organization
D. record system of similar organization

Ans. A

50. These procedure relates to the assignment and method of performance of police task away
from headquarters.

A. Field procedures
B. Staff procedure
C. Headquarters procedure
D. System procedure

Ans. A

51. The father of military espionage was;

A. Akbar
B. Genghis Khan
C. Alexander the great
D. Fredrick the great

Ans. D

52. Intelligence is under what type of police function?

A. Primary
B. Auxiliary
C. Administrative
D. Secondary
Ans. A

53. If a high winds has an extinguishing effect on the fire, the most probable extinguishing
method is?

A. Smothering B. fuel removal


C. Cooling D. Allusion

Ans. A
54. Listed below are all types of patrol, EXCEPT

A. Horse patrol B. T.V patrol


C. Foot patrol D. Motorcycle patrol

Ans. B

55. Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the patrol officer must immediately report to the
________.

A. Desk officer
B. Commander
C. Unit supervisor
D. Supervisor

Ans. C

56. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to the
police?
A. wants to be known to the police
B. monetary reward
C. as good citizen
D. revenge

Ans. B

57. In surveillance, the following are done to hide the appearance of the surveillance vehicle
EXCEPT.

A. changing license plate of surveillance vehicle


B. putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
C. change of setting arrangement within the surveillance vehicle
D. keep the cars behind the subjects car

Ans. B

58. It is the entrustment of a particular workload to some other person within the organization.

A. Budgeting
B. Delegation
C. Inspection
D. Evaluation

Ans. B

59. Police personnel may be effectively distributed according to any of the following
classification, EXCEPT
A. by time B. by function
C. by area D. by gender

Ans. D

60. Fredrick the Great is known as the;

A. Father of Military Espionage


B. Intelligence Father
C. Great Intelligence Father
D. Father of Criminology
Ans. A

61. Protective lightning, perimeter barriers and _______________ systems are known in
industrial security as physical security.

A. Relieving B. Reporting
C. Accounting D. Guarding

Ans. D

62. What administrative support unit conducts investigation and evaluation of physical
evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.

A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronics Service
D. Finance Center

Ans. B

63. Those who are charge with actual fulfillments of agency’s mission are__________
personnel.

A. Staff B. Management
C. Supervision D. Line

Ans. D

64. Which of the following is contained in the heading of an intelligence report?


A. reporting unit
B. conclusion
C. signature of the Director
D. assessment of the operation

Ans. A

65. Licenses of private security guards are processed and issued by the;

A. Philippine National Police


B. National Police Commission
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Security and Exchange Commission

Ans. A

66. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigator is conducting
surveillance on him, the latter is,
A. cut out B. burnt out
C. sold out D. get out

Ans. B

67. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to -

A. prevent water runner


B. to ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. close the coupling
D. reduce vibration of the hydrant
Ans. D

68. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police
through;

A. foot patrol B. highway patrol


C. mobile Patrol D. helicopter patrol

Ans. A

69. Some of the instruction in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT

A. stop quickly, look behind


B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflections
D. retraces steps

Ans. D

70. On many occasions, the bulk of the most information comes from?

A. business world
B. an underworld
C. news clippings
D. communications media

Ans. D

71. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses, and graduates of forensic
science enter the police service as officers through;
A. regular promotion B. lateral entry
C. commissionship D. attrition

Ans. B

72. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in-progress call has been received
through telephone or by direct alarm signal is to?

A. assign an investigator to investigate the witness


B. clear the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. send augmentation force

Ans. B

73. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:

A. increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as the
individual subordinate increases
B. decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
C. decrease as the duties of subordinates increase in difficulty and complexity
D. increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first-line supervisory level and
management level.

Ans. D

74. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He wants his
subordinates be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which of
the following projects?

A. COPS on the Block


B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Oplan Pagbabago

Ans. A

75. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called;

A. annual plan B. long-term plan


C. strategic plan D. Midterm plan

Ans. C

76. What should be undertaken by a security officer before he can prepare a comprehensive
security program for his industrial plan?

A. security conference
B. security survey
C. security check
D. security education

Ans. B

77. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-
visibility patrol techniques.

A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high visibility

Ans. A
78. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians
and attain an orderly traffic.

A. Civil relation unit


B. Traffic operation center
C. Traffic management command
D. Aviation security command

Ans. C

79. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses.

A. Observation B. Research
C. Casing D. Interrogation

Ans. A

80. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the firefighter should avoid ____________________.


A. cutting a very large hole
B. cutting several small holes
C. cutting roof boards near the beams
D. making openings near the fire

Ans. D

81. Plans can be change to meet future requirements which were not considered during the
planning stages. This indicates ________________ in planning.

A. Responsiveness B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility D. Effectiveness
Ans. C

82. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT

A. never meet subject face to face


B. avoid eye contact
C. recognized fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject

Ans. C

83. Pedro is a thief who is eyeing at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few
meters from Maria. The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the policed
officer but the ________________ for successful theft is.

A. Ambition B. Intention
C. Feeling D. Opportunity

Ans. D

84. In intelligence evaluation, the evaluation rating of A-4 means;

A. completely reliable source - Doubtfully true information


B. Usually reliable source – Probably true information
C. fairly reliable source - Probably true information
D. Usually reliable source – Probably true information

Ans. A
85. In case of special anti-crime squad, it should be used during normal times to intensify patrol
in crime prone areas and it be restricted to ____________ and be given missions to accomplish.

A. an area corresponding to two (2) beats


B. any area in the barangay
C. specific areas
D. general patrol area

Ans. C

86. It includes every procedure that has been outlined and officially adopted as the standard
method of action to be followed by members of the police organizations.

A. tactical plan B. management plan


C. procedural plan D. operational plan

Ans. C

87. A peace and Order Council is organized in every city/municipality by virtue of;

A. Executive Order 386


B. Executive Order 1012
C. Executive Order 309
D. Presidential Degree 118

Ans. C

88. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to
the rank of?

A. Senior Superintendent
B. Senior Police Officer 1
C. Inspector
D. Superintendent

Ans. C

89. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the;

A. PNP Directorate for Plans


B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership

Ans. B

90. A plan for coping up an attack against building equipped with alarm system is an example
of?

A. extra-departmental plan
B. procedural plan
C. management plan
D. tactical plan

Ans. A

91. The random and unpredictable character of patrol, cultivation of feeling of police
omnipresence, high hazard areas, adequacy of the number of man to meet the need, likelihood
of criminal apprehension, and safety of control officers determine:

A. patrol coverage and deployment


B. degree of police-community relations
C. type of weapon to be used
D. deployment of intelligence agent

Ans. B

92. Before the objective of a plan can be formulated, the following must be recognized:

A. what resources are necessary to carry out the plan


B. who will implement the plan
C. when will be it implemented
D. the need to plan

Ans. D

93. One way of extending the power of observation is to get information from persons within the
vicinity. In police work, this is called:

A. Data gathering
B. Interrogation
C. Field inquiry
D. Interview

Ans. A

94. The presence of a uniformed patrol officer and observant of the persons and things around,
deters the desire and destroys the _________________ for one to commit crime.

A. Opportunity
B. Need
C. Intention
D. Ambition
Ans. A

95. Dogs have an acute sense of ____________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost
persons or illegal drugs.

A. Smell B. Eating
C. Hearing D. Drinking

Ans. A

96. Which of these statements is TRUE?

A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion


B. Radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
C. Radiation is heat transfer through air motion
D. Radiation is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves

Ans. D

97. Which cause the greatest number of fires?

A. spontaneous ignition
B. electrical wiring
C. leaking gas pipes
D. smoking and matches

Ans. B

98. Intelligence on ______________ makes heavy usage of geographic information because


law enforcement officials must know exact location to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Narcotics Trafficking
C. Human Cargo Trafficking
D. Economic Resources

Ans. C

99. Which of the following is the most ideally suited in evacuation and search-and-rescue
duties?

A. Motorcycle B. Patrol car


C. Helicopter D. Bicycle

Ans. C

100. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails the person or vehicle.

A. Investigation
B. Casing
C. Undercover Operation
D. surveillance

Ans. D

101. It is the LOWEST medal given to a PNP officer.

A. Medalya ng mabuting asal


B. Medalya ng papuri
C. Medalya ng karunungan
D. Medalya ng kasanayan

Ans.

102. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and the community
interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?

A. Preventive Patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol

Ans. C

103. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal attack or for
creating a clamor for police service is considered as:

A. Patrol hazards B. Patrol effort


C. Police discretion D. None of these

Ans. A

104. Disguise or secret observation of places, persons or vehicles for purpose of obtaining
information.

A. Evaluation B. Surveillance
C. Elicitation D. Infiltration

Ans. B
105. It requires the use of flashing light and siren and may violate traffic laws.

A. Roll call
B. Exit call
C. Emergency call
D. None of the above

Ans. C

106. It is the combination of analyzed data to form a logical picture.

A. Integration B. Infiltration
C. Elicitation D. Deception

Ans. A

107. The information is obtained through direct communication in which the other party is
unaware of the specific purpose of the conversation.

A. Integration B. Infiltration
C. Elicitation D. Deception

Ans. C

108. It is conducted when the subject is moving from one place to another.

A. Casing B. Lost
C. Made D. Shadowing

Ans. D
109. It is the total number of police officers assigned in patrol duties.

A. Mandatory strength
B. Effective strength
C. Physical strength
D. None of the foregoing
Ans. A

110. It is natural and man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting,
determining or delaying illegal access to an installation.

A. fence B. barrier
C. wall D. hazard

Ans. B

111. It provides means and ways by which all persons and employees are trained to make them
security conscious and disciplined.

A. security check
B. security investigation
C. security education
D. security promotion

Ans. C

112. In disaster control operation, there is a need to establish a ______________ where


telephone or other means of communication shall ensure public lines of communication.

A. Command post B. Field room


C. Operation center D. Safe house

Ans. A

113. MOSSAD is for Israel, CIA is for what?

Philippines
Great Britain
Russia
USA

Ans. D

114. Protective lightning, perimeter barriers and _______________ systems are known in
industrial security as physical security.

A. Relieving B. Reporting
C. Accounting D. Guarding

Ans. D

115. What should be undertaken by a security officer before he can prepare a comprehensive
security program for his industrial plan?

A. security conference
B. security survey
C. security check
D. security education

Ans. B
116. Plans can be change to meet future requirements which were not considered during the
planning stages. This indicates ________________ in planning.

A. Responsiveness B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility D. Effectiveness

Ans. C

117. PO IV Ram Edgar is assigned to collect available information concerning the activities of
Blue Sagittarius Group. He is in what unit of the police?

A. Criminal investigation
B. Patrol
C. Intelligence
D. Women’s Desk

Ans. C

118. If the information or documents are produced openly without regard as to whether the
subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose/s for which it is being
gathered.

A. Overt operation B. Covert operation


C. Evaluation D. Interpretation

Ans. A

119. It is the type of intelligence activity which deals with defending of the organization against
its criminal activities.

A. Counter intelligence
B. Military intelligence
C. Military information
D. Strategic intelligence

Ans. A

120. In intelligence, what is meant by C.B.I?

A. Complete Background Investigation


B. Complete Background Investigator
C. Complete Back draft Investigation
D. Competent Background Investigator

Ans. A

121. A uniformed PNP personnel who is permanently disabled in his performance of his duties
can receive ______ of basic salary retirement.

A. 70% B. 80%
C. 90% D. 60%

Ans. B

122. The retirement AGE of the PNP members.


Compulsary retirement
Mandatory retirement
Before reaching the age of 56
At the age of 56
ANS. D

123. An imam when appointed to the PNP will start with rank of.
A. PO1
B. CHIEF INSPECTOR
C. INSPECTOR
D. SR. INSPECTOR
ANS. B

124. It is known as the espionage law in the Philippines.


A. CA NO. I
B. ACT NO. 3815
C. CA NO. 616
D. RA NO. 4200
ANS. C

125. What is the law created for the arrest and prosecution of Military and Police personnel
involved in criminal activities.
A. RA 6975
B. RA 9708
C. RA 8551
D. EO. NO. 280
ANS. D

126. It is the public’s initial contact to the police.


A. police investigator
B. police patrol
C. police patrol officer
D. police officer
ans. C.

127. it is known as the first line of defense in the world of law enforcement.
A. investigation division
B. patrol division
C. police community relation division
D. intelligence division
ans. B.

128. It is the process of outlining the similarities and differences of one police system to another
country.
A. comparison police system
B. international policing
C. comparative police system
D. safari method
ans. C.

130. This work includes the classification and storing of records.


A. management of records
B. document security
C. records filling
D. records management
ans. D.

1. What do you call the branch of Criminology deals with the management and administration
of inmates?
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
2. Which of the following person convicted by final judgment?
a. Prisoner b. Detainee c. Both A and B d. Neither A
nor B
3. The suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law is known as
_______;
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
4. What branch of administration of criminal justice charged with the responsibility for the
custody, supervision and rehabilitation of convicted offenders?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
5. Which of the following is not a prison facility?
a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Manila City Jail
6. Which of the following is not a type of jail?
a. Lock-up b. Ordinary Jail c. New Bilibid Prison d.
Work House
7. What do you call to a disposition under which a defendant after sentenced and conviction is
released subject to the conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of probation officer?
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Parole d. Amnesty
8. Which of the following refers to the programs, services and institutions responsible for those
individuals who are accused and or convicted of criminal offenses?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d.
Courts
9. Refers to the suffering that is inflicted by the State for the violation of the law:
a. Punishment b. Sanction c Consequence d.
Penalty
10.The basic law of the Philippine Prison System is found in the_____;
a. Revised Administrative Code c. Revised Penal Code
b. Revised Rules of Court d. Local Government Code
11.A theory justifying penalty which states that the criminal is punished to served as an example
to discourage others from committing crimes:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d.
exemplarity
12.A theory justifying penalty which states that criminals are punished to prevent or suppress the
danger to the State and to the public arising from the criminal acts of the offender:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d.
exemplarity
13.A juridical condition of penalty that states that the penalty must be imposed only to the person
who actually committed the crime:
a. commensurate b. definite c. personal d. equal
14.A juridical condition of penalty that states that penalty must be imposed by virtue of a judgment
by competent authority and as prescribed by law:
a. judicial and legal b. definite c.
equal d. personal
15.The national prisons are administered by the national government under what particular office?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology c. Department of Interior and Local
Government
b. Bureau of Corrections d. Office of the Governor
16.What penal institution established pursuant to Act No. 3579?
a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d.New Bilibid Prison
17.What law classifies prisoners?
a. Republic Act 29 b. Batas Pambansa 29 c. Presidential Decree 29 d.
Executive Order 29
18.Refers to the combination of public and private services with legal authority to provide for the
care, custody and control of those convicted of a criminal offense;
a. Conviction b. Corrections c. Courts d.
Penalty
19.What do you call the postponement of the execution of a death sentence?
a. Amnesty b. Probation c. Commutation of
Sentence d. Reprieve
20. What do you call a method by which a prisoner who has served a portion of his sentence is
conditionally released but remains in legal custody, the condition being that in case of
misbehavior, he shall be imprisoned?
a. Amnesty b. Parole c. Probation d. Pardon
21.What do you call the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence of an inmate because of
good behavior?
a. Commutation of sentence b. Judicial Reprieve c. Imposition of
Penalty d. Good Conduct time allowance
22.Who is the father of modern probation ?
a. John Howard b. John Augustus c.
William Penn d. Sir Walter Crofton
23.Probation is derived from the Latin word “probare” which means ______?
a. to prove b. to permit c. to release d. to serve
24.What is Presidential Decree 968?
a. Probation and Parole Law of 1967 c. Adult and Juvenile Probation Act of 1976
b. Probation Law of 1976 d. Pardon and Parole Law of 1967
25.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense
usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political
character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion is known as?
a. Reprieve b. Parole c. Executive Clemency d.
Amnesty
26.Which of the following refers to an executive clemency changing a heavier sentence to a less
serious one, or a longer prison term to a shorter one?
a. Reprieve b. Commutation of Sentence c. Deduction of Sentence d. Good
Conduct time allowance
27. The following are the effects of pardon, EXCEPT one;
a. It removes penalties and disabilities and restores full civil and political rights.
b. It does not discharge the civil liability of the convict to the individual he has wronged.
c. It does not restore offices, property or rights vested in others in consequence of the
conviction.
d. It extinguishes the civil and criminal liability of the convicted offender.
28.Refers to the confinement and treatment of adult offenders and juvenile delinquents;
a. Penalty b. Conviction c. Corrections d. Prison
29.What purpose of correction in which the State wants to protect the society by reducing crime
and isolating and segregating criminals through imprisonment?
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Isolation d.
Rehabilitation
30.What purpose/ objective of correction that involves the use of punitive and disciplinary
measures such as solitary confinement, to modify or reform criminal behavior whose conduct and
deportment is not totally responding to rehabilitation programs?
a. Retribution b. Isolation c. Rehabilitation d.
Reformation
31.Which of the following theoretical foundations in dealing with criminals believed in the concept
or principle of “Let the punishment fits the crime.”
a. Classical School b. Neo Classical School c. Positivist School d. Demonological
School
32.When an individuals commits a crime they let the person drink a pungent poison to drive away
the evil spirit inside his body which leads him in the commission of crime. What do you call of this
early form of correction?
a. Trephination Method b. GrotesqueMask c. Pungent Poison d.
Banishment
33.The cutting of some parts of the offenders’ body is known as ______?
a. Flogging b. Mutilation c. Exile d. Branding
34.What is the manifestation of punishment during the dominance of Roman Empire?
a. Flogging b. Transfortation c. Banishment d. Slavery
35.In 1166 A.D. Assize of Clarendon (Constitution of Clarendon) constructed the first facility
designed solely for public incarceration. This facility was known as ________?
a. Prison b. Goal c. Workhouses d.
Detention Cell
36.What is the name of the famous gaol in Europe?
a. Assize of Clarendon b. New Gate c.
Workhouses d. Gaol
37. Who is the former prisoner and was released through parole became the first English prison
reformer as he was then appointed sheriff of Bedford Shire a local gaol in England?
a. John Howard b. Alexander Maonochie c.. Sir Walter Crofton d.
Rutherford Hayes
38.Refers to a concept that rejects hard labor as a form of punishment is known as _________?
a. Prison b. Detention c. Penitentiary d. Hospice
39.Who is the governor of the state of Pennsylvania initiated reforms in their prison system?
a. John Howard b. Walter Crofton c. Rutherford Hayes d. William
Penn
40.The fifth pillar of criminal justice system is _______?
a. Police b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Community
41.This is known as the basic unit of soiety;
a. Family b. School c. Church d. Media
42.He is an Englishman was then in-charge of the Birth of the British Penal Colony in Norfolk
Island and gained the title of “Father of Parole.”
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Rutherford Hayes c. John Howard d. William
Penn
43.Prisoners were encouraged for good behavior for them to gain incentives that would lead to
their early release. This concept was called the __________ which became the forerunner of
Parole.
a. Pennsylvania System b. Mark System c. Reformatory
System d. Ticket Leave System
44.The first prison to abandon the Pennsylvania system and introduced the congregate prison in
silent system is known as _____?
a. Pennsylvania System b. Reformatory System c. Ticket Leave
System d. Auburn System
45.Who established the Irish concept of ticket-of- leave system?
a. Sir Walter Crofton b. Alexander Maconochie c. John Howard d. William
Penn
46.The following are the early forms of punishment, EXCEPT one;
a. Branding b. Mutilation c. Public
Humiliation d. Trephination Method
47.Refers to conditional release that could be revoked any time before the original sentence
expired;
a. Ticket of leave b. Mark system c. Workhouses d. Parole
48.The first President of the National Prison Association that encourage the separation of
offenders by age and practice of indeterminate sentence, academic and vocational training for
inmates;
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Rutherford Hayes c. John Howard d. William
Penn
49.It is the machinery of the state uses in the prevention of crime.
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Procedure c. Criminal Procedure d.
Criminal Justice System
50.They serve as lawyer of the government in all criminal cases.
a. Prosecutor b. Defense Lawyer c. Judges d.
Litigants
51.They initiate the process to make the criminal justice system works.
a. Defense Lawyer b. Courts c. Police d. Judges
52.An inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest made especially
those arrests made without warrant.
a. Preliminary Investigation b. Court Trial c. Preliminary Hearing d. Inquest Procedure
53.The knowledge of facts, actual or apparent, strong enough to justify a reasonable man in the
belief that the lawful grounds for arresting the accused;
a. Proof b. Evidence c. Probable Cause d. Subpoena
54.An act or omission punishable by law;
a. Crime b. Arrest c. Culpa d. Deceit
55.It is a principle that a person should not be deprived of life, liberty or property without
reasonable and lawful procedures;
a. Equal protection b. Right against self-incrimination c. Bill of Rights d.
Due Process
56.Consists of district and circuit court in Muslims areas for the administration of the provisions of
Muslims Personal Law;
a. Sandiganbayan b. Shari’a court c. Supreme Court d. Court
of Appeals
57.The law that created the Katarungang Pambarangay;
a. Republic Act No. 7160 b. Republic Act No. 7106 c. Republic Act No. 6170 d.
Republic Act No. 1760
58.The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. Detection b. Apprehension c. Adjudication d. Arrest
59.They are considered as the prime mover of the system.
a. Law Enforcement b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Correction
60.When was the first Philippine probation law enacted?
a. August 5, 1953 b. August 5, 1935 c. August 7, 1953 d. August 7, 1935
61. It is the first probation law of the Philippines;
a. Act No 4221 b. Act No 4122 c. Act No 1242 d. Act
No 2241
62.Who is the father of Philippine probation?
a. Teodoro Natividad b. Teodolo Natividad c. Teofilo Natividad d. Theodore
Natividad
63.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense
usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political
character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion;
a. Amnesty b. Repreive c. Probation d. Parole
64.Refers to the extinction of the criminal liability of an individual, within certain limits or conditions,
from the punishment which the law inflicts for the offense he has committed;
a. Parole b. Amnesty c. Absolute Pardon d. Conditional
Pardon
65.The pardoning power is exercised by the _______?
a. President b. Commissioner c. Secretary of DOJ d. Speaker of the
House
66.A collective term for absolute pardon, conditional pardon and commutation of sentence ;
a. Probation b. Amnesty c. Executive Clemency d.
Pardon
67.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to six months;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City
Prisoner
68.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of six months and one day to three years;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City
Prisoner
69.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to three years;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City
Prisoner

70.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of three years and one day to death;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City
Prisoner
71.Those held for security reasons; held for investigation; those awaiting final judgment; those
awaiting trial are referred as _____?
a. Insular Prisoner b. Detention Prisoners c. Municipal Prisoner d. City
Prisoner
72.Those convicted by final judgment referred as ______?
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d.
Sentenced Prisoner
73.Security facility for the temporary detention of persons held for investigation or waiting
preliminary hearing; usually the period of detention does not exceed forty eight (48) hours is called
_____?
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
74.Refers to an institutions for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to imprisonment of
three (3) years or less and offenders awaiting and/or undergoing trial;
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
75.Refers to farms or camps;
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
76. City and municipal jails are administered and supervised by the ________?
a. BJMP b. BUCOR c.
NBI d. PNP
77.Provincial jails are administered and supervised by their respective ______?
a. local government b. city government c. provincial government d. National
Government
78.Jails derived from the two Spanish words “_______”, “_______.”
a. jaulo and caula b. deceit and dolo c. fault and culpa d. poena and gaol
79. The prison that established on 16 January 1973;
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
80.The following are sub-colony of Sablayan Colony and Penal Farm, Except one;
a. Central b. Pasugul c. Yapang d. Panabo
81.How many hectares does the Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm measures?
a. 16,000 hectares b. 124 hectares c. 18 hectares d. 1,500 hectares
82.What prison established in 1870 by Capt. Ramon Blanco, of the Spanish Royal Army, and
was named after Capt. Blanco’s father’s patron saint?
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
83.It operates Tanglaw settlement for released prisoners as homesteaders;
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. Davao Penal Colony c. National Bilibid Prison d.
Leyte Regional Prison
84.What prison established on 16 November 1904 pursuant to Reorganization Act 1407?
a. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
85.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials were provide by private business its
manufacturing process was supervised inside the prison?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price
system d. Contract system
86.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials and the products and produced by the
prisons and brought by the private business?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price
system d. Contract system
87.Refers to treatment program in which the offender and the therapist develop a face-to-face
relationship;
a. Individual Treatment b. Group Therapy c. Behavior therapy d.
Group Guided Interactions
88.Responsible for evaluating the evidence the law enforcement has gathered and deciding
whether it is sufficient to warrant the filing of charges against the alleged violator;
a. Judge b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecutor d. Courts
89.They are responsible in reforming the convicted person;
a. Correction b. Law Enforcement c.
Prosecution d. Courts
90. In most cases, the only paperwork necessary to initiate prosecution of an accused is. . .
a. Complaint or Information b. Affidavit c. Commitment Order d. Release
Order
91.The criminal justice process begins with the _________.
a. Commission of a crime b. Apprehension of criminal c.. detection of crime d.
adjudication of the case
92.Comprises all means used to enforce the standards of conduct, which are deemed necessary
to protect individuals;
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Procedure c. Criminal Procedure d.
Criminal Justice System
93.A court that covers two or more municipalities;
a. Regional Trial Court b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court c. Supreme Court d.
Court of Appeals
94. He is the warden of Sing Sing prison in New York who visited and studied the Prison System
in England and was impress the Irish system.
a. Alexander Maconochie b. William Pen c. Gaylord B. Hubbell d. Ippo
Maqonoche
95. This type of treatment program was used on highly aggressive inmates to control their
destructive behavior;
a. individual treatment b.group therapy c. chemotherapy d. behavior
therapy
96. What type of treatment program that is sought to calm disruptive offender to associate pain
and displeasure with a certain stimuli;
a. neurosurgery b. serisory deprivation c. GGI d. Individual treatment
97. The main purpose of this program is to increase the client knowledge on career choices or
job qualification and training needed for successful employment
a. Vocational Counseling b. Behavioral Modification c. crisis intervention d.
social group work
98. A prison located at Muntinlupa, Metro Manila;
a. Ihawig Penal Colony b. National Bilibid Prison c. San Ramon Penal Farm d. Davao
Penal Colony
99. In the preceding number it has a measurement of 55 hectares ( choices refer to # 98) B
100. Where does the Philippine Prison System patterned?
a. English Prison System b. Irish Prison System c. US Federal Prison System d.
Alcatraz Prison Sytem

1. This Philippine-based terrorist group is listed by the United States of America as one of the
major terrorist organizations in the World today. This renegade faction of a bigger organization
working to have an independent state in the Southern Philippines is involved in atrocities like
kidnapping for ransom, ambuscades, raids and the like. It is referred to as the ____.
a. Moro Islamic Liberation Front c.
New People’s Army
b. Abu Sayyaf Group d.
Jemmayah Islamiya
2. Its primary concern is to support the different police agencies in the world particularly the
member-countries in term of intelligence-sharing, investigative assistance and other police
matters. This organization known as INTERPOL which is principally aimed to fight transnational
crime and terrorism is based in ____.
a.Lyons, France c. New
York City
b. Lyons, Australia d.
Scotland Yard
3. INTERPOL stands for:
a. International Police
b. International Criminal Police Organization
c. International Police Organization
d. International Criminal Police Organization League
4. This component of the Netherlands Armed Forces is given police duties and considered a law
enforcement agency.
a. The Netherlands Police Agency (KLPD) c. The Regional
Police Forces
b. The Royal Marechausee (KMar) d. The Local
Police Forces
5. The rank qualification for a PNP Police Commissioned Officer to be admitted to the UN
Peacekeeping Force should be ____.
a. At least an inspector c. At least a
Senior Inspector
b. At least a Chief Inspector d. At least a
Superintendent
6. PNP Applicant for the UN Peacekeeping Force must have attained at least how many years
of active police service as of the first day of UNSAT examination?
a. Two (2) c. Four
(4)
b. Three (3) d. Five
(5)
7. This term best captures the profound transformation of the world economy since the beginning
of the 1980s. It refers primarily to the progressive elimination of barriers to trade and investment
and unprecedented international mobility of capital.
a. Liberalization c.
Globalization
b. Economic cooperation d.
Capitalization
8. This police force in Spain is headed by an officer with the rank of Chief Superintendent. It
is a civilian agency operating purely in urban areas.
a. Policia Nacional c.
Guardia civil
b. Mossos d'Esquadra d. Policía
Foral
9. The Ministry of Public Security is the principal police authority of this country.
a. China c. Italy
b. United Kingdom d.Israel
10. It is a crime which is now pervasive around the world and said to be the modern equivalent of
“slavery”?
a. Human trafficking c.
Exploitation
b. Human smuggling d. Money-
laundering
11. The police force of this Southeast Asian country is headed by a Director General holding the
rank of Police General. Its rank structure is patterned to the military model and its headquarters
is based in the city of Bangkok.
a. Royal Thai Police c. Royal
Malaysian Police
b. Royal Brunei Police Force d.South
Korea

12. A civilian law enforcement agency formed in 1954 and is known as Keisatsu-chō.
a. Japan National Police Agency c.
Indonesian National Police
b. Cambodian National Police d.
The Netherlands National Police
13. The Palermo Convention adopted in December 2000 by the Heads of States in Italy is
aimed to fight or address the problem of ____.
a. Transnational organized crimes c. Terrorism
b. Environmental crimes d.
Economic crimes
14. The selection of PNP personnel for Secondment to international organizations, deployment
to UN Peacekeeping missions and for other purposes is primarily based on ____.
a. Experience c. Merit
and Fitness
b. Training acquired d. Political
connection
15. The famous patrol system of Japan is known as ____.
a. Crime Stopper c. Koban
b. Neighborhood Police Center d. Police
Community Precinct
16. Except for one, the competencies needed by a PNP applicant to qualify for UN peacekeeping
mission are the following:
a. English communication skill c. Vehicle
driving skill
b. Martial arts skill d.
Firearms proficiency
17. The only Filipino who became a president of the INTERPOL.
a. Teodulo Natividad c. Alfredo Lim
b. Jose Lukban d. Jolly Bugarin
18. The civilian national police of Italy with patrol, investigative and law enforcement duties. It
patrols the express highway network and oversees the secuirity of railways, bridges and
waterways.
a. Polizia di Stato c. Arma dei
Carabinieri
b. Guardia Costiera d. Polizia Penitenziaria
19. ASEANAPOL was established in 1981 as an association of Chiefs of Police of how many
countries-members?
a. Eight c.
Twelve
b. Ten d.
Fifteen
20. As a policy of the Philippine government, the deployment/detail to the UN and other
International Peacekeeping Missions /Organizations of PNP personnel as well as the members
of the Armed Forces of the Philippines is ____.
a. A matter of right c. A priority
b. A matter of discretion d. Only a privilege
21. The movement of an employee from one department or agency to another which is temporary
in nature and which may or may not require issuance of an appointment but may either involve
reduction or increase in compensation is referred to as ____.
a. Detail c.
Transfer
b. Reassignment d.
Secondment
22. PNP personnel with UNSAS eligibility and has no previous UN Mission deployment is the
____ priority in the selection process.
a. Last c. Third
b. Second d. First
23. The INTERPOL is focused in investigating what classification of crime?
a. Public crime c. Cross-
border crime
b. Private
crime d. Sensational crime
24. Under the Federal Republic of Germany, the ____ is being implemented by the local
agencies.
a. Neighborhood Crime c.
Compstat
b. Neighborhood Watch Program d. Crime
Stoppers
25. The age qualification of PNP applicant for UN Peacekeeping mission is ____.
a. Not less than 21 years old and not more than 30 years old
b. Not less than 25 years old and not more than 35 years old
c. Not less than 25 years old and not more than 53 years old
d. Not less than 21 years old and not more than 35 years old

26. Law enforcement in this part of Europe is provided by eight separate police forces, six of
which are national groups. What is this country?
a. Spain
c. Germany
b. Italy d.
The Netherlands
27. The Hellenic Police which was the result of the fusion of Gendarmerie and the city police
forces, is the national police force of what country?
a. Greece c. East
Germany
b. The Netherlands d.West
Germany
28. A PNP applicant for UN Peacekeeping Force should have a ____ appointment for his/her
current rank.
a. Temporary c.
Provisional
b. Permanent d. Semi-
permanent
29. ASEANAPOL is an association of what?
a. Heads of State c. Chiefs
of Police
b. Chiefs of ASEAN Law Enforcement Agency d. Police
Attaches’
30. At least what PNP non-commissioned officer’s rank qualifies an applicant to become a UN
peacekeeper?
a. Police Officer 1 c. Police
Officer 3
b. Police Officer 2 d. Senior
Police Officer 1
31. In breaking equal rating for UN Peacekeeping missions, the priority criterion to be considered
is the ____ of the applicant.
a. Rank c.
Length of service
b. Educational attainment d. Eligibility
32. The eligibility needed for admission in the UN peacekeeping deployment is ____.
a. UNSAS eligibility c. UNSAT
eligibility
b. NAPOLCOM eligibility d.
CSC eligibility
33. Among the following, which is not an objective of the ASEANAPOL?
a. To patronize the products of ASEAN member-countries
b. To Enhance police professionalism
c. To forge stronger regional cooperation in police work
d. To promote lasting friendship amongst the police officers of ASEAN countries
34. The Japanese Police follow what rank model?
a. Military c.
European
b. British d. Dutch
35. The recommendation of ____ is a requirement for admission of the applicant to the UN
Peacekeeping mission.
a. Mayor c. Chief,
PNP
b.
Congressman d. Unit commander
36. Immediately preceding the UNSAT examination, the applicant must have Performance
Evaluation Rating of at least ____ for two (2) consecutive rating periods.
a. Outstanding c.
Satisfactory
b. Very satisfactory d. Average
37. Except for one, the PNP applicant for UN Peacekeeping mission must be able to pass the
following:
a. Physical fitness test c. Neuro-
psychiatric examination
b. Medical and dental examination d. Background
investigation
38. It is the blurring of geo-political boundaries between nations so that the world has flattened
facilitating greater mobility of people and other resources from one geographical location to
another making the world as one village.
a. World modernization c.
Global adventurism
b. Economic prosperity d.
Globalization
39. It is a government agency tasked to establish a shared central data base among law
enforcement units in the Philippines for all information affecting peace and order to address the
global threat to national and international security.
a. Armed Forces of the Philippines c. National
Bureau of Investigation
b. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime d. Philippine
National Police
40. Its motive is chiefly ideological and/or a desire for political change.
a. Organized crime c.
Criminal syndicate
b. Terrorism d.
MAFIA
41. To be accused of money laundering, the amount involved or transacted must be in excess of:
a. 1 Million c. 2
Million
b. 4 Million d. 5
Million
42. In Arabic, It is known as “The Base”. It is the terrorist group responsible for theSeptember
11, 2001 attacks of the Pentagon in Washington DC and the World Trade Centerin New York.
a. El Tigre c.
Hezbollah
b. Al Qaeda d. Al
Capone
43. The prime-mover of Globalization.
a. United
States c. Canada
b. China d. Engl
and
44. It is known as the Philippine Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
a. Republic Act 9165 c.
Republic Act 9160
b. Republic Act 9208 d.
Republic Act 6423
45. The Philippine government agency mandated to formulate policies, strategies and programs
on drug prevention and control.
a. National Police Commission c.
Dangerous Drugs Board
b. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime d. Philippine
Drug Enforcement Agency
46. The deliberate killing of top-ranking government officials and/or prominent personalities is
known as ____.
a. Hostage-taking c.
Assassination
b. Kidnapping d.
Hijacking
47. In the world of organized crime, ____ is the ultimate motive.
a.
Fame c. Profit
b. Change of government d. Vanity
48. Which among the following terms is not associated with “Terrorism”?
a. Violence c. Fear
b. Coercion d.
Protection racket
49. The United Nations Convention defined it as a structured group of three or more persons
existing for a period of time and acting in concert with the aim of committing one or more serious
crimes or offenses in order to obtain, directly, or indirectly, a financial or other material benefit.
a. Organized crime group c. Terrorist
group
b. Bank robbery group d.
Fundamentalist group
50. “Right-wing” as a political party refers to the ____.
a. Military c.
Communists
b. Ruling government d. Religious
groups
51. It is the leading anti-drugs agency in the Philippines which is under the Office of the
President.
a. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime c. Philippine
Drug Enforcement Agency
b. Dangerous Drug Board d.
Philippine National Police
52. The PDEA is headed by a ____.
a. Chief of Staff c.
Director General
b. Commissioner d.
Chairman
53. Which among the following is a transnational organized crime group?
a. Pentagon group c.
Kuratong-Baleleng group
b. Lexus carnapping group d.Triads
54. Which is not a characteristic of globalization?
a. Free or open market c. Internet
revolution
b. Restricted policies on import and export d. Villagization
55. When a communist-leaning group overthrows a ruling government, it is considered as ____.
a. Right-wing terrorism c.
Nationalist-separatist terrorism
b. Left-wing terrorism d. Religious
fundamentalist terrorism
56. One of its characteristics is the indiscriminate use of violence against non-combatants for
the purpose of gaining publicity for a group, cause or individual.
a. Warfare c.
Terrorism
b. Gangsterism d.
Revolution

57. The basic age qualification to become a PDEA drug enforcement officer is ____.
a. 21 to 30 years old c. 21 to 35
years old
b. 18 to 25 years old d. 25 to
35 years old
58. Dumping and illicit trade in hazardous waste is classified as ____.
a. Cybercrime c. Environmental
crime
b. Economic crime d. None of
them
59. Underground criminal societies based in Hongkong which are often involved in money-
laundering and drug trafficking.
a. Yakuza c.
Triads
b. Heijin OCG d. Red
Wa OCG
60. It is the Philippine law that defines and penalizes human trafficking.
a. RA 9208 c. RA
8043
b. RA 6955 d. RA
9194
61. The primary objective of Globalization as conceptualized by Advocates is ____.
a. To combat transnational crime and terrorism
b. To integrate economies of different countries leading to a world
economy
c. To adopt to American culture
d. To focus on industrialization rather than agriculture
62. An extremist Islamic group that is believed to be linked to Al Qaeda and responsible for the
bombing of a nightclub in Bali in 2002 that killed 192 people. It is a terrorist group that is reportedly
training the MILF elements in Mindanao.
a. Abu Sayyaf group c. Jemaah
Islamiyah
b. Al Qaeda d.
Gama’a Islamiyya (Islamic Gro
63. As far as combating crimes that cross national borders is concerned, what government
agency in the Philippines takes the lead?
a. Philippine National Police c. National
Bureau of Investigation
b. INTERPOL d.
Philippine Center for Transnational Crime
64. The law that established the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency.
a. Republic Act 6423 c.
Republic Act 9165
b. Republic Act 6975 d.
Republic Act 9160
65. What country in South East Asia where the police force is under the military establishment?
a. Myanmar c. Camb
odia
b. Laos d. Bru
nei
66. The general policing in the Australian Capital Territory are the primary responsibility of the
____.
a. State Police c. Local
Police
b. Special
Police d. Federal Police
67. The Chief of Staff of the Singapore Police Force holds the rank of Senior Assistant
Commissioner. What is its equivalent rank in the Philippine National Police?
a. Chief Superintendent c.
Director
b. Deputy Director General d. Senior
Superintendent
68. The ____ is India's premier investigative agency and the counterpart of the US Federal
Bureau of Investigation.
a. India’s Federal Bureau of Investigation c. National
Bureau of investigation
b. Central Bureau of Investigation d. National
Investigation Agency
69. Aside from keeping law and order, the police force of this country takes charge of prisons and
fire services.
a. Korea c. Japa
n
b. Brunei d. Vietn
am
70. “Private” is the lowest rank of this Asian country.
a. Myanmar c. Singa
pore
b. Brunei d. Japa
n
71. The Singapore Police Force is headed by ____.
a. Commissioner of Police c. Superintendent of
Police
b. Director of Police d. Inspector General of
Police
72. What country in South East Asia undertakes the police-community outreach program known
as “Rakan Cop”?
a. Brunei c. Mala
ysia
b. Indonesia d. Myan
mar
73. The first line of police response in the Philippine National Capital Regional Police Office is the
____.
a. Police Community Precinct c. Police
District
b. SWAT d.
Police Station
74. Which among the following describes the Singapore Police Force?
a. Centralized Single Police Force c.
Fragmented Police System
b. Decentralized Single Police Force d. Localized
Police Force
75. The lowest commissioned officer in the PNP is ____.
a. Police Officer 1 c. Senior
Police Officer 4
b.Inspector d.
Superintendent
76. Generally, policing in the United States of America is largely a responsibility of the ____.
a. Federal police c. State
police
b. Local police d.
Private police
77. The Hellenic Police force is headed by ____.
a. Chief of Police c. Commissioner of
Police
b. Director General d. Brigadier General
78. It is a government agency tasked to establish a shared central data base among law
enforcement units in the Philippines for all information affecting peace and order to address the
global threat to national and international security.
a. Armed Forces of the Philippines c. National
Bureau of Investigation
b. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime d. Philippine
National Police
79. The Singapore Police Force is divided into two major functions: the staff and line units. If the
staff function is the equivalent of administration in the PNP, what is the equivalent of the line
units?
a. Investigation c.
Operation
b. Logistics d.
Auxiliary
80. A sub-organization or unit of the National Police Agency of Japan which providespersonal
security for the Emperor, Crown Prince and other members of the Imperial Family as well as the
physical security of imperial properties including the Imperial Palaces, Villas, and Repository.
a. Imperial guard c. Imperial
army
b. Prefectural police d. Security
bureau
81. What is the primary subdivision of the Philippine National Police?
a. Municipal Police Stations c. City Police
Stations
b. Police Provincial Offices d. Police
Regional Offices
82. The first and the largest police force in Australia. Its personnel are the highest paid police
force in the country.
a. Queensland Police c. Victoria
Police
b. New South
Wales Police d.Tasmania Police
83. The American Police System is:
a. Single Centralized c.
Fragmented
b. Single Decentralized d. Unified
84. “Prefecture” in Japan is the equivalent of ____ in the Philippines.
a. Region c. Town
b. Province d. City
85. Inspector General is the highest rank in the Royal Brunei Police Force. What agency in
the Philippines is headed by the Inspector General?
a. Philippine National Police c. Internal
Affairs Service
b. National Police Commission d. People’s
Law Enforcement Board
86. The crime reduction program runs in each state of Australia which involved the citizens to
collect information about crime and passes it on to the police is referred to as ____.
a. Crime Stoppers c.
CompStat System
b. Koban d.
Crime Watch
87. Which among the following countries with federal structure is given general policing functions?
a. America c. Austr
alia
b. India d. West
Germany

88. The ranks of superintendent and inspector are patterned from the ____.
a. American model c.
Australian model
b. French model d. British
model
89.In West Germany, the responsibility of general policing is on the hand of the ____.
a. Federal Police c. State
Police
b. Bundespolizei d.
Gestapo
90. This world organization was founded in 1945 and was formerly known as the League of
Nations. Its primary task is to stop wars between countries, and to provide a platform for
dialogue.
a. United Nations c. United
States of America
b. Vatican State
d. World Federation of Nations
91. ____ is the US federal agency which is the counterpart of the Philippine’ Presidential Security
Group, in-charge of protecting the US President and his family (including past presidents). It
works under the structure of the Department of the Treasury and is also in-charge of the detection
and prevention of counterfeiting.
a. FBI c.
Secret Service
b. US Marshals d.
Imperial Guard
92. The community policing program in Singapore which is the counterpart of Japan’s residential
boxes is known as ____.
a. Koban c. Police
Community Precinct
b. Police
Detachment d.Neighborhood Police Center
93. The Volkspolizei is the centralized paramilitary police force of what part of Germany?
a. East Germany c. West
Germany
b. North Germany d.South
Germany
94. The Myanmar Police known as the People’s Police Force is headed by a Director General
with the rank of Brigadier General. In the Philippines, the PNP is headed by the Chief, PNP with
the rank of what?
a. Chief Superintendent c.
Director
b. Director General d.
Brigadier General
95. The residential police boxes in Japan’s police system are known as ____.
a. Chuzaisho c. Cops on the Block
b. Neighborhood watch d. Rakan Cop
96. This government agency is tasked to administer and control the Philippine National Police.
a. DILG c.
NAPOLCOM
b. AFP d.
Office of the President
97. The use of violence for political ends, and includes any use of violence for the purpose of
putting the public, or any section of the public, in fear is one among the definitions of ____.
a. Terrorism c.
Organized crime
b. Revolution d. Coup
d’tat
98. Which among the following Federal Police Agencies do general policing in its jurisdiction?
a. US Federal Police c.
Australian Federal Police
b. Indian Federal Police d. German
Federal Police
99. It is a multi-layered dynamic approach to crime reduction, quality of life improvement, and
personnel and resource management conceptualized by the New York Police Department.
a. Crime Watch c. Neighborhood
Watch
b. CompStat System d. Crime
Stopper
100. The United Nations Organization (UNO) has how many member-countries?
a. 192 c. 188
b. 292 d. 288

1. Ethical Standard: Constantly endeavour to raise quality __________ of private security services
; a.Authority b.Services c.Function d.Standard
2. Endeavour to fulfill their ____________ duties in accordance with the highest moral principles ;
a.Private b.Public c.Professional d.Standard
3. Contribute to the ______________ welfare by securing and preserving industrial facilities of the
country ; a.Private b.Public c.Nationald.Filipino
4. Constantly work with and assist the law enforcement agencies in the ___________ of peace
and order in the country; a.Reservation b.Communication c.Preservation d.Cooperation
5. With faith and diligence , perform their __________ obligations for the protection of life, limb
and property; a.Civil b.Private c.Publicd.Contractual
6. Code of Conduct: They shall all times adhere to professional ________ and refrain from
practices that negate the best interest; a.Authority b.Services c.Ethics d.Standard
7. They shall not indulge in _____________ competition by undercutting the existing contract
rates.; a.Asset b.Financial c.Cut throat d.Private
8. They shall not _________ means or misrepresentations in all their business transactions;
a.Quarrel b.Deceitful c.Clandestine d.Practical
9. They shall ___________ an adequate library of books, magazines and other publications on
security subject. ; a.Control b.Serve c.Structured.Establish
10. They shall at all times exercise ___________ and be prepared to prevent the use of their guards
or the agency; a.Diligence b.Vigilancec.Respect d.Integrity
11. They shall always be truthful and ____________ in reports; a.Standardb.Accurate c.Narrative
d.Direct
12. To _____ all calls from post more distant from the security house where I am stationed; a.Quit
b.Report c.Repeat d.sound
13. To _____ all violations of order I am instructed to enforce; a.Quitb.Report c.Repeat d.sound
14. To _____ my post only when properly relieved; a.Quit b.Report c.Repeat d.sound
15. To _____ or call the alarm in case of fire or disorder; a.Quit b.Report c.Repeat d.Sound
16. To _____ to no one except in the line of duty; a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
17. To _____ , obey and pass on to the relieving guard all order form company officers; a.Walk
b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
18. To _____ in an alert manner during my tour of duty and observing everything that takes place
within sight or hearing; a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
19. To _____ all company officials superiors in the agency, ranking public officials, and commission
officer of the AFP; a.Walk b.Talk c.Received.Salute
20. To _____ charge of the post and all companies properties in view and protect the same with
utmost diligence; a.Walk b.Take c.Receive d.Salute
21. A special key capable of opening a series of locks; a.Master key b.Sub master key c.Original key
d.Grand master key
22. A key to a single lock within a master keyed system; a.Master key b.Sub master key c.Change
key d.Grand master key
23. It is the devices holding a door closed by magnetism; a.Code lock b.Combination Lock c.Lever
lock d.Electromagnetic lock.
24. This not the purpose of security survey; a.determine existing state of security b.locate
criminals c.Produce recommendations establishing a total security program d.determine the
conclusion and probabilities
25. Planning the security survey except for one; a.Obtain organizational support b.Verify the need
c.Develop alternatives d.Implement the managers policy
26. All of this is types of security inspection except for one; a.Formal b.Structured c. Continuous d.
Valuable
27. Results of a long and firmly entrenched inspection program understood by all and accepted;
a.Formal b.Structured c. Continuous d. Informal
28. One security inspections that moves systemically.; a.Formalb.Structured c. Continuous d.
Informal
29. It is the work of a manager performs to assess and regulate work in progress and to assess the
results; a.Planning b.Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
30. It is the work of a manager performs to effect active participation from his subordinates ;
a.Planning b.Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
31. A system use in big installation whereby keys can open groups of locks; a.Key master b.Master
Keying System c.Master Lock d.Key System
32. Example of terrorism; a.Riot b.Unfair competition c.Tornadod.Assassination
33. Physical Environment Probability Factors; a.Age Groups b.Compositionc.Planning d.Social
History
34. Specifications regarding the use of Chain Link fences; a.Be constructed of 6 foot b. Be
constructed of 7 foot c. Be constructed of 8 foot d. Be constructed of 9 foot
35. Types of perimeter barrier which is not belong; a.Wire Fences b.Vaultc.Bodies of water d.Buliding
walls
36. Inter relationship of Security personnel to PNP; a.Security personnel always subordinate to the
members of PNP b.All evidence gathered in the said investigation should be turnover to the PNP
unit concernedc.All violations in the said company enforcing by the security personnel should be
reported to the PNP d.Harmonious relationship for curtailing law less elements.
37. Storms is a sample of _______ hazards; a.Natural b.Man made c.Mechanical d.Physical
38. This probabilty ratings has Insufficient data are available for an evaluation ; a.Virtually Certain
b.Highly Probable c.Moderately Probable d.Probability Unknown
39. Grounds for cancellation of Security Agency License; which one is not belong; a.When the
agency submits a falsified license to prospective client for bidding b.When the agency practice
“KABIT SYSTEM” c.When the agency fail to employ a minimum of 200 gainfully employed security
guards d.When the agency coordinate with the law enforcement agency.
40. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission; a.Private Benjamin
b.Intelligence officer c.Private Detective d.Private Intel
41. Stated in the Security Guard Creed which is not belong; a.Maka Dios b.Maka Bayan
c.Makata d.Makatao
42. Hardware is what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
43. Geese are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
44. Roadblocks are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
45. Electronic device are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energyb.Structural c.Human d.Animal
46. Canyons are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Natural b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
47. Walls are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Natural b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
48. Barbed Tape is composed of 3 things except for one ; a.Barbed tape b.Barbed Dispenser
c.Barbed Concertina d.Barbed wire
49. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission; a.Intelligence Officer
b.Detective Officer c.Secret Agent d.Private Detective
50. A key that will open all the lock within a particular area or grouping in a given facility; a.Master
key b.Sub master key c.Original key d.Grand master key
51. It is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment
security policies and procedures; a.Security Survey b.Security Inspection c. Security education d.
Security Protection
52. It is given to employees of an installation by lecture and other means pertaining to measures and
safeguards to be taken to protect ; a.Security information b.Security awareness c. Security
education d. Security Preparation
53. Security Guards Creed – As a security guard my __________ duty; a.Basic
b.Honorable c.Fundamental d. Sacred Protection
54. Security guard duty is to serve the interest and mission of his ________; a.Manager
b.Client c.Consultant d.Agency Protection
55. Shall carry with him at all times during his tour of duty his license ID ; a.Ethical Standard b.Code
of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
56. Security Consultant qualifications; choose which one is not belong;a.Filipino and Alien
Citizen b.Physically Fit c.Holder of a Master’s Degree, MNSA or Industrial Security Management
d.At least 10 years experience in the field of security.
57. Shall not read newspaper, magazines, books while actually performing his duties; a.Ethical
Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
58. Shall not compromise with criminals and other lawless elements to the prejudice of the
customers; a.Ethical Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
59. Security force maintained and operates by any private company utilizing any of its employees to
watch, secure or guard; a.Security guard b.Company guard force c.Government guard unit
d.Private guard
60. Shall talk to no one except in the line of duty; a.Ethical Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General
order d.Operators Creed
61. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards cash and
assets which in storage, in transit and during transaction.; a.Bank Security b.Hotel Security
c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
62. It is resulting from the protection of processes, formulas, patents and industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage ; a.Document Security b.Operational
Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
63. It is resulting from the protection of application of various measures which prevent or delay the
enemy or unauthorized person in gaining information; a.Document Security b.Operational
Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
64. It is resulting from the protection classified papers and vital records from loss, access to
unauthorized persons, damage , theft and etc, ;a.Document Security b.Operational Security
c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
65. The providing of sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness to insure visibility and
to act as a deterrent to the intruders; a.Security Alarm system b.Security Lighting c.Security
Surveillance d.Security Flash light
66. It is resulting from the protection top ranking officials of the government or visiting persons of
illustrious standing; a.Document Security b.Operational Security c.Corporate Security d.VIP
Security
67. It is the sum total of all physical safeguards employed or installed to secure the
assets; a.Physical Security b.Document Security c.Personnel Security d.Internal Security
68. What line of defense is grills? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of defense
d.Barrier Line
69. What line of defense is cabinets? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of
defense d.Barrier Line
70. What line of defense is guard? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of defense
d.Barrier Line
71. What line of defense is doors? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of defense
d.Barrier Line
72. What line of defense is gate? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of defense
d.Barrier Line
73. What line of defense is vaults? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of
defense d.Barrier Line
74. Any structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access;
a.Physcial Barrier b.Perimeter barrier c.Barrierd.Protective Barrier
75. Any medium or structure which define the physical limits of an installation or area to restrict or
impede access thereto; a.Physcial Barrier b.Perimeter barrier c.Barrier d.Protective Barrier
76. Private Security Agency Law; a.R.A.5487 b.R.A.5847 c.R.A.6975 d.R.A.8551
77. Sometimes called private security guard or watchman shall include any person who offers or
renders personal service to watch; a.Security Officer b.Security Guard c.Detachment commander
d.Security manager
78. A corporate and executive responsibility. It involves knowing the objectives of the security and
the means and methods to reach these objectives; a.Security Management b.Security
Planning c.Security Survey d.Security Audit
79. The process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough inspection of all
operation system and procedures of a facility; a.Security Survey b.Security Audit c.Security
Inspection d.Security Surveillance
80. The Three Aspects of Security except in one; a.Personnel
b.Documentc.Physiological d.Information
81. The sum total of protection scheme encompassing the entire security spectrum, designed to
eliminate, reduce or control threats, hazards, risk or dangers to company assets; a.Holistic
protection b.AssetProtection c.Life protection d.Security Protection
82. SG duties during strikes and lockouts; a.Carry only heavy firearmsb.Indirect confrontation
c.Avoid direct contact d.Stay in their perimeters
83. This probabilty ratings has the likelihood of occurrence; a.Virtually Certain b.Highly
Probable c.Moderately Probable d.Improbable
84. In Natural Authority “The highest is the law of self ___________”; a.Protection b.Defense
c.Preservation d.Control
85. Security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than military or police for
the purpose of securing the office of such government entity; a.Presidential Security Guard
b.Private Guardc.Government guard unit d.Security guard
86. A written order /schedule issued by a superior officer usually the private security agency
assigning the performance of private security agency; a.Court Order b.Duty detail order c.Mission
order d.Post order
87. Any act or condition which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, loss or
destruction of property or disruption of the objectives; a.Security Risk b.Security
Hazard c.Security Threat d.Security Vulnerability
88. Added protection of important vital papers, plans, data, special correspondence, cash and other
essentials documents; a.Security barrier b.Security Vault c.Security Box d.Security cabinet
89. Example of Conflict of interest; a.Sabotage b.Insurecction c.Bribery d.Flood
90. License certificate document issued by the chief, PNP or his duly authorized representative to
operate Security Agency; a.Driver’s License b.PNP License c.License to Operate d.Operation
License
91. This probabilty ratings has more likely to occur that not to occur ; a.Virtually Certain b.Highly
Probable c.Moderately Probabled.Improbable
92. __________ is protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by various
method and advise; a.Guard b.Securityc.Authority d.Asset protection
93. Shall include not only natural but also juridical persons ; a.Employer b.Military c.Person d.Police
94. Shall cover those in the legitimate business of providing private security and detective services ;
a.Agency b.Public Enforcers c.Private Security Industry d.VIP Body guard
95. Sometimes called watchman; a.Witness b.Security Guard c.Supervisor d.Manager
96. Shall be natural persons which private security guards, private detectives, security consultants,
security officers and others that may be classified; a.Security Personnel b.Watch Man c.Juridical
persons d. Asset Protector
97. _____________ is charged with directing the work and observing the behavioural performance
of the guard under his unit; a.Owner b.Operation Manager c.Security manager d.Security
supervisor
98. Social Environment Probability Factors; a.Climate b.Income levels c.Composition d.Latitude
99. A security guard always protect the interest of _________; a.Agency b.Country c.Law d.Client
100. The Security Guard uniform symbolism of ___________ and confidence; a.Public Office
b.Respect c.Public Trust d.Standard

1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know yourself, you need not
fear the result of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong
C
2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and
potential situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
B. Information
C. Intelligence
D. Investigation
C
3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major
police problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation
C
4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing terror or corruption in
the city/community or section of, either a monopoly, of virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a
field that provides a continuing financial profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia
B

5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes from the hobo to the moneyed
gangsters or racketeers.
A. Criminal World
B. Mafia
C. Organized Crime
D. Criminal Syndicate
B
6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome competitors.
A. Mafia
B. Criminal World
C. Criminal Syndicate
D. Organized Crime
B
7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential information that filter
into the possession of the police, and the techniques employed in developing these lines of
information.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intellignce
C. Undercover Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence
C
8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable tools of management; it
is derived from organized information available in the police records division which concerned
with the nature, size and distribution of the police problems of crime, vice and traffic?
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
C
9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate practical value.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
A
10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the defending of the organization against its criminal
enemies.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. None of these
A

11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or possible enemy or theatre
of operations, including weather and terrain, together with the conclusions drawn there from.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Covert Operation
A
12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for more effective police
planning.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Overt Operation
A
13. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of
the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being
regarded.
A. Overt Operation
B. Evaluation
C. Covert Operation
D. Interpretation
A
14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation, which includes
determining the pertinence of information, the reliability of the source and agency through which
the information was derived and its accuracy.
A. Interpretation
B. Tasks
C. Evaluation
D. Operations
C
15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use of personnel, resources and equipment
employed and/or utilized in planning the collection of information, processing of information and
disseminations of intelligence.
A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
B. Assets and Liability Intelligence
C. Economic Intelligence
D. Income and expenditure Intelligence
A

16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from
moral delinquencies.
A. Integrity
B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Moral
A
17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual, his ethical judgment in human relations and
his respect to superiors.
A. Character
B. Reputation
C. Moral
D. Integrity
C
18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 yr
B. 3 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 4 yrs
A
19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible decryption of encrypted data on radio
communication.
A. Transmission
B. Cryptographic security
C. Operation security
D. Computer security
B
20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry into a communication area.
A. control of operations area
B. control of communications area
C. area access control
D. perimeter control
C
21. An encrypted message complete with heading of a message written in an intelligence text or
language which conveys hidden meaning.
A. Cryptogram
B. Cryptography
C. Codes
D. Ciphers
A
22. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Classify
B. Reclassify
C. Upgrading
D. Declassify
D

23. Security of the command is the responsibility of:


A. Headquarters commandant
B. Members of the Base Platoon
C. Regional Director
D. Everybody
D
24. The authority and responsibility for the classification of classified matter rest exclusively with the:
A. head of office
B. receiving unit
C. Regional Director
D. originating unit
A
25. Information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave
damage to the nation, politically, economically or militarily.
A. Restricted
B. Confidential
C. Top Secret
D. Secret
C
26. Among the following, who has authority to classify Top Secret matters?
A. Chief of Police
B. Regional Director
C. Sec of DND
D. Provincial Director
C
27. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of the individual
being investigated.
A. CBI
B. PBI
C. LAC
D. NAC
C
28. Applied methods of security for the purpose of super-imposing camouflage radio transmission on
communication network.
A. transmission security
B. physical security
C. cryptographic security
D. operation security
A
29. Final measures undertaken prior to the entry into an operating room.
A. Control of operations area
B. Area access control
C. perimeter control
D. control of communications area
A

30. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are represented.


A. Ciphers
B. Cryptogram
C. Codes
D. Cryptography
D
31. This motivation regarding agent control applies to those whose main desire is for power.
A. ideological belief
B. material gain
C. revenge
D. personal prestige
D
32. Consist of LAC supplemented by investigation of the records and files of national agencies.
A. LAC
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. NAC
D
33. The following are operational security methods except for:
A. cut-out device
B. communication
C. cover
D. proper operational planning
D
34. Maximum security measures undertaken to preserve secrecy of classified operations.
A. transmission security
B. computer security
C. cryptographic security
D. operations security
A
35. Control measures undertaken to prevent entry of unauthorized persons inside the premises of
communication facility.
A. perimeter control
B. control of operations area
C. control of communications area
D. area access control
C
36. Among the following, who is not authorized to classify Top Secret matter?
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief, PNP
C. Chief of Staff, AFP
D. Chief of Police Station
D

37. Top Secret matter shall not be transmitted through:


A. direct contact to officers concerned
B. thru DFA Diplomatic Pouch
C. official courier
D. mail
D
38. The barrier established to protect the surrounding of an installation.
A. Animal
B. Human
C. Energy
D. Structural
D
39. In the security industry and in large areas, the standard height of a fence is
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 8 meters
B
40. The barrier that requires the employment of the guard and guard system is ___ barrier.
A. Energy
B. Animal
C. Structural
D. Human
D
41. Which of the following composed the PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A. member of the INP
B. members of the PC
C. jail guards
D. all of them
D
42. The largest organic unit with in large department is a __.
A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Unit
A
43. What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
A. Deputy Dir General
B. Police Director
C. Police Chief Superintendent
D. Police Senior Superintendent
B
44. Which is known as the Police Act of 1966 and created the office of the NAPOLCOM?
A. R.A. 6975
B. R.A. 8551
C. P.D. 765
D. R.A. 4864
D

45. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the basic qualification for
promotion?
A. Special
B. Meritorious
C. Regular
D. Ordinary
C
46. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police
Inspector is the __.
A. Officers Basic Course
B. Officer’s Advance Course
C. Officers Candidate Course
D. Senior Leadership Course
D
47. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty is called
A. on duty
B. special duty
C. leave of absence
D. off duty
D
48. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines
C
49. How many deputies do the PNP has?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B
50. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as designated desk or office or spot
is called
A. Post
B. Route
C. Beat
D. Sector
A
51. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and administered by this
institution.
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College
D

52. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specific post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct
C
53. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units
is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership
B
54. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera
C. Gen. Rafael Crame
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
A
55. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing System.
A. William Norman
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. King Henry III
D. John Westminster
B
56. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the Philippines were known as
A. Kamikaze
B. Kempetai
C. Konichiwa
D. Okinana
E. Hara Kiri
B
57. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before he can apply for
optional retirement?
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years
B
58. Decision of the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is dismissal, demotion and
forced resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM C
59. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that receives most of the call of the
public which are directly related to police function are made on the;
A. Afternoon shift
B. midnight shift
C. day shift
D. A and C only
A
60. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime, types of crime an d places of
crimes in each beat is very important in the implementation of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement
C. traffic enforcement
D. emergency call for service
B
61. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards in each respective beat is
called
A. patrol and observation
B. called for service
C. attending to complaints
D. none of the above
A
62. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all criminological philosophies
is
A. prevention of crime
B. elimination of crime
C. control of crime
D. suppression of crime
A
63. Patrol hazard would include the following except
A. Stress
B. Open manhole
C. suspicious persons
D. ordinances
D
64. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that utilized dog patrol was the so
called _.
A. Medjays
B. Vigiles
C. Ancient police
D. Jacobians
A
65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow Street Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
D. none of the above
B

66. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community service role or social
services is referred to as
A. crime prevention
B. prevention of crime
C. order maintenance
D. crime investigation
C
67. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to commit crime is known as
A. order maintenance
B. law enforcement
C. prevention of crime
D. arrest of criminals
C
68. In the history of patrol US, the first daytime and paid police service was organized in
A. New York
B. Boston
C. San Francisco
D. Philadelphia
D
69. The government agency that issue license for private and government security guard is __
A. the PNP SAGSD
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. the Local Police Office
A
70. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective?
A. background investigation
B. locating missing persons
C. controlling traffic flow
D. surveillance work
C
71. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize representative recognizing a
person to be qualified to perform his duties as security guard or detective?
A. Certificate of incorporation
B. License to Operate
C. Warrant
D. None of these
D
72. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense?
A. first line
B. second line
C. third line
D. None of these
A

73. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter fences is commonly called __
A. Hangover
B. guard control
C. tower guard
D. none of these
D
74. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police candidate’s family who
might negatively influence performance of official duties can be best verified by conducting:
A. Performance Evaluation
B. Character Investigation
C. Written Examination
D. Oral Interview
B
75. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure, careful investigation on
matters upon which such alteration should be conducted for purpose of
A. Promotion
B. Appointment
C. Disqualification
D. Dismissal from Service
C
76. The aspect of police selection can not be accurately assessed by other steps in the selection
process can be measured through the conduct of:
A. Polygraph Examination
B. Neigborhood Check
C. Oral Interview
D. Psychological Screening
C
77. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official police function by authorizing a
person to discharge the same pending the selection of another appointee, is the main reason of:
A. Dismissal
B. Permanent Appointee
C. Temporary Appointment
D. Suspension
C
78. Verification of academic accomplishment, standardized exam and affiliation with organization of
police applicants are information required in the:
A. Written Examination Procedure
B. Character investigation procedures
C. Appointment Procedures
D. Eligibility Requirements
D

79. The following are information desired in verifying educational history of a police applicant, except:
A. Courses Taken
B. Demonstrated Leadership
C. Debt, loans and savings
D. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.
A
80. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job performance predictability is
through a process known as:
A. Test Validation
B. Job Performance
C. Job Analysis
D. Retesting
C
81. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals who are to be employed as
police officers and this can only be determined by administering rigid
A. Oral examination
B. Character Investigation
C. Vicinity Check
D. Medical Examination
D
82. Physical Test is designed to furnish data, which will indicate the extent to which an applicant
maybe able to perform required responsibilities. Applicants maybe required climbing over a
fence of 5 feet and 6 inches high without the aid of another person. This physical test is called:
A. Body Drag
B. Obstacle Clearance
C. Foot Pursuit
D. Body Pull Ups
A
83. Planning is a management function concerned with the following, except:
A. visualizing future situations
B. making estimates concerning them
C. making money
D. identifying issues
C
84. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate the importance of planning because
A. of their pattern of career development
B. people do not admire them
C. influential politicians involved in planning
D. of positive view about planning
C

85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and


A. Business administration
B. good police decision-making
C. prediction
D. performance
B
86. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is
A. Visioning
B. All of these
C. thinking what is right and doing what is best
D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it B
87. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win
A
88. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the control of only one
superior?
A. Principle of Chain of Command
B. Principle of unity of command
C. Span of Control Principle
D. Principle of Objectivity
B
89. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position is called
A. Command and Control
B. Authority
C. Order
D. All of these
B
90. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP
A. Sandigang-Milenyo
B. Sandugo
C. Banat
D. Pagpapala
D
91. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of special activity and
addresses immediate need which are specific.
A. Operational Plan
B. Strategic Plan
C. Synoptic Plan
D. Guideline
A

92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within in the unit, the commander
shall develop unit plans relating to, except
A. Policies or procedure
B. Tactics and operations
C. Extra-office activities
D. Interpersonal problems
D
93. SOP in police parlance means
A. Standard Operation Procedure
B. Special Operating Procedure
C. Standard Operating procedure
D. Special Operation procedure
C
94. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be outlined as a
guide to officers and men in the field.
A. SOPs
B. HQ Procedures
C. Field Procedures
D. None of these
C
95. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation
A. Patrol
B. Investigation
C. Intelligence
D. Traffic Operations
C
96. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to
A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
D. None of the above
A
97. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat
A
98. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding citizens and would be
criminals alike that the police are always available to respond to any situation at a moment’s
notice and he will just around the corner at all times. What does this situation indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Discretion
C. Police Control
D. Police Interaction
A

99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal attack or for creating a
clamor for police service is considered as
A. Patrol Hazards
B. Patrol Effort
C. Police discretion
D. None of these
A
100.What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community interests into
a working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team policing
D. Directed Patrol
C

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE


CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination
First Day - 12:30 p.m. – 3:30 p.m.
=================================================================

REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the same on all three (3)
shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the police
service is of greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. Clientele
B. Purpose
C. Time
D. Process
C
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime prone
areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
C
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
B
4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very
necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
C

5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available
information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or
potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
D
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload
and the availability of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
B
7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
D
8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of ___________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
C
9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
B
10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members
of the community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
D

11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational
purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
D
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the ______________.
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
C
13. Registration of a security agency must be done at the _______________________.
A. Securities and Exchange Commission
B. National Police Commission
C. Department of National Defense
D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group
A
14. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be operated very
quietly and without attracting attention.
A. reduced speed and greater area covered.
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response
D. Mobility and stealth
D
15. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure requirements.
A. tactical plan
B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan
B
16. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the
surveillance is:
A. rabbit
B. surveillant
C. traffic enforcement
D. patrol
B

17. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police
stations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance.
A. vice control
B. criminal investigation
C. traffic management
D. patrol
D
18. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A. managers
B. Barriers
C. Personnel
D. inspections
C
19. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor I formulating an effective patrol
strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of the police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel
B
20. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director
B. Provincial Director
C. Chief of Police
D. Chief, PNP
D
21. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover
beats which are not covered by foot patrol
D
22. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great
D
23. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the policeman
B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen
D. revenge B
24. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
D
25. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences
related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
B
26. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line
C
27. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is conducting surveillance
on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out
C
28. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
A
29. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
B
30. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
B

31. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and graduates of forensic sciences
can enter the police service as officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
B
32. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He wants his subordinates
to be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which of the following
projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
A
33. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security
program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
C
34. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility
patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol
A
35. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and
attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command
C
36. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
A

37. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT


A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
C
38. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters
from Maria. The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but
the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
D
39. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the
rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
C
40. 48.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship
B
41. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the
vicinity. In the police work, this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
A
42. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons
or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking
A

43. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic information because law
enforcement officials must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
C
44. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
B
45. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
D
46. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than members of
the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
E. All of these
C
47. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral
delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
E. all of these
A
48. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning
right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you completed the cycle
by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
E. criss-cross
A

49. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals
by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
C
50. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or wooded
areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
B
51. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short
B
52. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
C
53. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
B
54. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
A
55. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent
E. all of the above

C
56. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
E. all of these
C
57. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension
BONUS
58. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
B
59. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of surprise is lost which is
one of the ______________ of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. importance
E. errors
C
68. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or stores, and the
control of unruly crowds and riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog
D
69. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
D

70. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?


A. general
B. investigator
C. patrol officer
D. traffic officer
E. The Chief of Police
E
71. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren
B
72. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover
C
73. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward
and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
A
74. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
E. 35 years
D
75. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically
deputized as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
C
76. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National
Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
C
77. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of
the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
E. Ombudsman
B
78. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his
subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
E. responsible parenthood
C
79. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of
peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)
D
80. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group
objective. Also, no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
E. span of control
D
81. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent (%)
of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of his
original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
E. 20 percent
C

82. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of his
duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
E. on the way
D
83. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in
consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
E. incarceration
C
84. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the
purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
E
85. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the Philippine National
Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
A
86. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing
education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
D
87. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
C

88. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.


A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
C
89. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
D
90. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
C
91. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
A
92. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment is __.
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
D
93. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division
C
94. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and
control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
C

95. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, reassignment of
PNP members outside of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
D
96. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. Judge
B. Chief of police
C. Mayor
D. Governor
C
97. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation
A
98. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation
B
99. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombudsman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
D
100.The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to
the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
B

1. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other persons immediately before or at the
same time as him or herself is called

A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack

2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and principles in the detection and
investigation of crimes is called

A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation

3. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and filed in court is called

A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner

4. A person who is convicted by final judgment is called

A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner

5. A circumstance, event or occurrence as it actually exists or existed refers to

A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact

6. The means by which facts are proved is called

A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance

7. The geographical area where the crime was committed refers to


A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene

8. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or evidence is referring to

A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting

9. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully understand
their broad significance refers to

A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation

10. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by criminal investigator from various
sources is called

A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence

11. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the information officially needed by
investigators is called

A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information

12. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected of having committed an offense or
a person who is reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of information in his possessions,
which is pertinent to the investigation of a criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry

13. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial investigation is known as

A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA 7834

14. The application of instrument and method of physical science in the detection and investigation
of crime is called

A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information

15. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense is called

A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody

16. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a peace officer
to arrest the person described therein and brings it before the court refers to

A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order

17. The warrant of arrest is to be served within a statutory period of

A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days

18. The warrant of arrest validity continues unless:

A. Recalled by the issuing court


B. The respondent has been arrested
C. Respondent voluntary submitted himself
D. All of these

19. An object is located by making a measurement at right angles from each of two walls. Works well
for indoor measurements. This method of obtaining measurement refers to

A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line

20. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly shaped outdoor areas. This method
is called

A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction

21. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you desire to
locate. This is refers to

A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line

22. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene to those who are not present is
called

A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch

23. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence within this
outline refers to

A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch

24. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable to the
conclusion for which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is called

A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony

25. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the truth of his guilt as
to the offense charged, while admission refers to statements of fact not directly constituting an
acknowledgment of guilt is called

A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony

26. Latin for the “body of the crime” is also called as

A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti

27. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed is called

A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
28. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold aims – to identify the guilty party; to
locate the guilty party; and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is called

A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation

29. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation
duties and responsibilities refers to

A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator

30. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment is called

A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law

31. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a person has been arrested or deprived
of his freedom of action. It includes invitation to a person who is being investigated in connection
with an offense. This is called

A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest

32. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facts concerning the matter
or matters involved is called

A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
33. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital information/facts/circumstances in
order to establish the truth is called

A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation

34. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police interrogation
is called

A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine

35. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons including the victim himself and other
sources refers to

A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data

36. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the physical
sciences in detecting crime is called

A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation

37. The skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects is called

A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
38. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what crime?

A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide

39. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou Wang. Peter Bright shot Lou Wang
with a revolver resulted to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what crime?

A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide

40. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or negligence of another shall guilty of
what crime?

A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide

41. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy is liable for what crime?

A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide

42. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has been committed and that some other
person is responsible is called?

A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti

43. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
44. The following are categories of modes of death except:

A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death

45. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and recognizing and preserving physical
evidence is refers

A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist

46. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with the intent to gain, by means of
violence against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is called

A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary

47. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person or force upon things
48. This characterized as having a long-term commitment to crime as a source of livelihood,
planning and organizing crimes before committing them and pursuing money to support a
particular lifestyle is called

A. Opportunist Robber
B. Drug Addict Robber
C. Professional Robber
D. Alcoholic Robber

49. These types of robbers view themselves as lifetime robbers and commits infrequent robbery
offenses, often recklessly. They are called
A. Amateur Intermittent Offender
B. Specific-Objective Offender
C. Professional Robber
D. Opportunist Robber

50. This involves the use of weapons such as firearm, a knife or other dangerous weapons.

A. Strong-Arm Robbery
B. Armed Robbery
C. Professional Robbery
D. Amateur Robbery

51. The following are types of robbery except:

A. Armed Robbery
B. Street Robbery
C. Residential Robbery
D. Commercial Robery

52. Mando Rugas entered the house of Manny Bog by climbing into the window of the house of the
latter and take personal properties. Mando Rugas is liable for what crime?

A. Tress Passing
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny

53. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was parked at the parking area and took the
car stereo. Ben Tong is liable for what crime?

A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny

54. The Anti-Rape Law of 1997 is also known as

A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535

55. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the use of physical violence is
sometimes refers to

A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape

56. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt by
exercising power and control over women.

A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist

57. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or property to further political or social
objectives is called

A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
D. Socialist terrorists

58. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other property by fire or
explosion is called

A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property

59. The Fire Code of the Philippines is also known as:

A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495

60. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political end is called

A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
D. Socialist terrorists

61. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem examination, dissection and examination of a
dead body to determine the cause of death refers to

A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy

62. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation except:

A. Identify the perpetrator


B. Convict the perpetrator
C. Locate the perpetrator
D. Provide evidence

63. Modus Operandi means?

A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these

64. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law is called

A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor

65. A person arrested for a crime is called


A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner

II. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE


If both statements are TRUE shade A
If the first statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE shade B
If the first statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE shade C
If both statements are FALSE shade D

66. B The photographer upon arrival at the crime scene will photograph the entire area. The Team
Leader prepares photograph log and photographic sketch.
67. A The police officer of the station who first received the report of the incident shall record the
time of report/complaint was made. Interview the person who first notifies the police.
68. C Collect evidence immediately after location. Consider anything and everything at the scene
as evidence.
69. A The Medico legal officer is indispensable in the composition of SOCO Team in incident
involving deaths.
70. D Upon location of evidence it must be photographed immediately with markings. Chalk line is
placed around the body of the victim immediately upon arrival at the crime scene.
71. D Crime Investigation is the investigation of cases that are unique and often require special
training. Homicide, rape, robbery etc are one of these.
72. A Crime reconstruction simply means re-enacting how the crime was committed. Modus
Operandi is the Modes of Operation.
73. D The 5Ws and 1H is the Golden Rule in criminal investigation. “Do not touch, move, or alter
any evidence at the crime scene unless it was properly recorded and photographed is the
Cardinal Rule in Criminal Investigation.
74. A The success of an investigation is sole upon the effort of the criminal investigation. One of
good qualities of an investigator is the knowledge of law.
75. A The investigator must be familiar with the elements of crimes. He must at least
knowledgeable on crimes defines in the revised penal code.
76. B Discover all facts and collect physical evidence is one responsibility of a criminal investigator.
The recovery of stolen property has no significance on the parallel identification of the
perpetrator.
77. B One of the roles of an investigator is to identify the perpetrator. After identification the
investigator shall prosecute the perpetrator of the crime.
78. A The crime scene is the area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. The processing
of the area at the scene includes all direct traces of the crime. And this is determined by the
type of crime committed and the place where the act occurred.
79. D Interrogation is the skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects who is willing to provide
information. Interview is the skillful question of witness and suspect who are reluctant to provide
information.
80. D Criminal Investigation is an art because it involves systematic method of inquiry. It is a
science because it does not follow rigid rules.
81. A Criminal investigation is a process because involves systematic process of identifying,
locating and providing evidence of the perpetrator’s guilt. It is a systematic plan facilitates a
logical flow of investigation.
82. A At the crime scene, the First Responder shall check the condition of the victim. While the
other members of the first responders shall simultaneously secure the area by putting a police
line or any material (like rope, straw and etc).

83. A Criminal Investigation objective is to determine the truth and what transpired in a particular
incident. Criminal Investigation is an art and science.

84. C Felony is generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law. Crime is
punishable by public law.
85. A The success of the investigation depends largely on the actions taken by the first responder.
He should follow correct procedures not to make errors.
86. B If the victim is still alive the investigator should exert effort to gather information from the
victim himself regarding the circumstances of the crime. Post-mortem statement is also called
dying declaration.
87. B Only a medico-legal examiner shall remove the dead body unless an unusual circumstance
justifies its immediate removal. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination without dissection on the
body of the victim.
88. A The investigator should record the time when he was initially notified prior to his arrival at the
crime scene. Each crime is different, according to the physical nature of the scene and the
crime or offense involved.
89. B The investigator places his initials, the date and time of discovery on each item for proper
identification. Sketches are substitute for notes or photos.

III. Matching Type


Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) consists of a combination of letters and numbers. Match the
meaning of each number and letters combination of VIN in Column A with Column B by shading
the corresponding letter in your answer sheet.

Number 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
VIN 1 J 3 J 4 5 A 0 C R 335521

Letter and Number The meaning of letter or number combination of the V.I.N.
combination of V.I.N.
(1J3J45A0CR335521)
90. 1 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Nation of Origin
91. J A. Name of Manufacturer
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Specific Name of the Vehicle
D. Nation of Origin
92. 3 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Name of Manufacturer
C. Type of Restraint System
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
93. J A. Engine Description
B. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Car Line Series and Body Type
D. Type of Restraint System
94. 4 A. Check Digit
B. Car Line Series and Body Type
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Engine Description
95. 5 A. Engine Description
B. Model Year
C. Sequential Production Number
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
96. A A. Car Line Description
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Check Digit
D. Model Year
97. 0 A. Assembly Plant Location
B. Check Digit
C. Model Year
D. Sequential Production Number
98. C A. Check Digit
B. Model Year
C. Engine Description
D. Assembly Plant Location
99. R A. Check Digit
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Engine Description
D. Model Year
100. 335521 A. Sequential Production Numbers
B. Number Series
C. Production Number Series
D. Check Digits
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