Patient Care - Radiology Exam Review [ARRT] - [Appelton & Lange Review]

A nosocomial infection is a(n) Medical History

(A) infection acquired at a large gathering. Informed Consent
(B) upper respiratory infection. The pulse can be detected only by the use of a
(C) infection acquired in a hospital. stethoscope in which of the following locations?
(D) type of rhinitis. (A) Wrist
- Answer: Infection acquired in a hospital. (B) Apex of the heart
(C) Groin
Which of the following patient rights is violated by (D) Neck
discussing privileged patient information with an - Answer: Apex of the heart
individual who is not involved with the patient's care?
1. The right to considerate and respectful care An esophagogram might be requested for patients with
2. The right to privacy which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms?
3. The right to continuity of care 1. Varices
(A) 1 only 2. Achalasia
(B) 2 only 3. Dysphasia
(C) 1 and 3 only (A) 1 only
(D) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only
- Answer: The Right To Privacy (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
The most effective method of sterilization is - Answer: Varices
(A) dry heat.
(B) moist heat. Achalasia
(C) pasteurization.
(D) freezing. When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is
- Answer: Moist heat. considered the normal creatinine range?
(A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
A radiographer who discloses confidential information (B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of (C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
(A) invasion of privacy. (D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL
(B) slander. - Answer: 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
(C) libel.
(D) defamation. The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed
- Answer: Invasion of privacy. (A) surgical asepsis.
(B) medical asepsis.
Hypochlorite bleach (Clorox) and Lysol are examples of (C) sterilization.
(A) antiseptics. (D) disinfection.
(B) bacteriostatics. - Answer: Sterilization.
(C) antifungal agents.
(D) disinfectants. Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock?
- Answer: Disinfectants. 1. Pallor and weakness
2. Increased pulse rate
Which of the following must be included in the patient's 3. Fever
medical record or chart? (A) 1 only
1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders (B) 1 and 2 only
2. Medical history (C) 1 and 3 only
3. Informed consent (D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only - Answer: Pallor and Weakness
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only Increased Pulse Rate
(D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Orders
Which of the following may be used to effectively - Answer: Ventricular Septal Defect.
reduce the viscosity of contrast media?
(A) Warming When disposing of contaminated needles, they are
(B) Refrigeration placed in a special container using what procedure?
(C) Storage at normal room temperature (A) Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose
(D) Storage in a cool, dry place of the needle.
- Answer: Warming (B) Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and
dispose of the needle.
The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in (C) Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.
the peripheral vessels is classified as (D) Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire
(A) neurogenic. syringe.
(B) cardiogenic. - Answer: Do not recap the needle and dispose of the
(C) hypovolemic. entire syringe.
(D) septic.
- Answer: Neurogenic. The condition of slow heart rate, below 60 beats per
minute (bpm), is termed
The usual patient preparation for an upper GI exam is (A) hyperthermia.
(A) NPO 8 h before the exam. (B) hypotension.
(B) light breakfast only on the morning of the exam. (C) hypoxia.
(C) clear fluids only on the morning of the exam. (D) bradycardia.
(D) 2 oz castor oil and enemas until clear. - Answer: Bradycardia.
- Answer: NPO 8 h before the exam.
An informed consent is required before performing
The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy which of the following exams?
adult patient is (A) Upper GI
(A) 5 to 7 breaths/min. (B) Lower GI
(B) 8 to 12 breaths/min. (C) Sialogram
(C) 12 to 20 breaths/min. (D) Renal arteriogram
(D) 20 to 30 breaths/min - Answer: Renal Arteriogram
- Answer: 12 to 20 breaths/min.
Increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and
A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important
mmHg is usually considered considerations when working with which group of
(A) hypertensive. patients?
(B) hypotensive. (A) Infants
(C) average / normal. (B) Children
(D) baseline. (C) Adolescents
- Answer: Hypotensive. (D) Geriatric patients
- Answer: Geriatric Patients
Local anesthetics are likely to be used in all of the
following radiographic examinations except Which of the following statements are true regarding
(A) lower-extremity arteriography. the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy?
(B) arthrography. 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a
(C) myelography. tracheostomy for any reason.
(D) postoperative or T-tube cholangiography. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should
- Answer: Postoperative or T-tube Cholangiography. be well aerated.
3. Never suction for longer than 15 s, permitting the
The condition that allows blood to shunt between the patient to rest in between.
right and left ventricles is called (A) 1 and 2 only
(A) patent ductus arteriosus. (B) 1 and 3 only
(B) coarctation of the aorta. (C) 2 and 3 only
(C) atrial septal defect. (D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) ventricular septal defect.
- Answer: Employ sterile technique if you must touch a
tracheostomy for any reason.
Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should
be well aerated.
Performing an examination on a patient who has
refused the examination.
Discussing a patient's condition with a third party.

Never suction for longer than 15 s, permitting the When caring for a patient with an IV, the radiographer
patient to rest in between. should keep the medication
(A) 18 to 20 in above the level of the vein.
Where is the "sterile corridor" located? (B) 18 to 20 in below the level of the vein.
(A) Just outside the surgical suite (C) 28 to 30 in above the level of the vein.
(B) Immediately inside each operating room door (D) 28 to 30 in below the level of the vein.
(C) Between the draped patient and the instrument - Answer: 18 to 20 in above the level of the vein.
table
(D) At the foot end of the draped patient Protective or "reverse" isolation is required in which of
- Answer: Between the draped patient and the the following conditions?
instrument table 1. Tuberculosis
2. Burns
What is the most widely used method of vascular 3. Leukemia
catheterization? (A) 1 only
(A) Doppler (B) 1 and 2 only
(B) Moniz (C) 2 and 3 only
(C) Grandy (D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) Seldinger - Answer: Burns
- Answer: Seldinger Leukemia

If an emergency trauma patient experiences A drug's chemical name is called its

hemorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should (A) generic name.
1. apply pressure to the bleeding site. (B) trade name.
2. call the emergency department for assistance. (C) brand name.
3. apply a pressure bandage and complete the (D) proprietary name.
examination. - Answer: Generic name.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only A diabetic patient who is prepared for a fasting
(C) 2 and 3 only radiographic exam is susceptible to a hypoglycemic
(D) 1, 2, and 3 reaction. This is characterized by
- Answer: Apply pressure to the bleeding site. 1. shaking and nervousness.
2. cold, clammy skin.
Call the emergency department for assistance. 3. cyanosis
(A) 1 only
A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in (B) 2 only
which of the following situations? (C) 1 and 2 only
1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from (D) 1, 2, and 3
unnecessary radiation - Answer: Shaking and Nervousness
2. Performing an examination on a patient who has
refused the examination Cold Clammy Skin
3. Discussing a patient's condition with a third party
(A) 1 only Because of medicolegal considerations, radiographic
(B) 1 and 2 only images are required to include all the following
(C) 2 and 3 only information, except
(D) 1, 2, and 3 (A) the patient's name and/or identification number.
- Answer: Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age (B) the patient's birth date.
from unnecessary radiation. (C) a right or left side marker.
(D) the date of the examination. (B) place the drainage bag at the same level as the
- Answer: The patient's birth date. bladder.
(C) place the drainage bag below the level of the
All of the following rules regarding proper handwashing bladder.
technique are correct except (D) clamp the Foley catheter.
(A) Keep hands and forearms lower than elbows. - Answer: Place the drainage bag below the level of the
(B) Use paper towels to turn water on. bladder.
(C) Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible.
(D) Carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers. The act of inspiration will cause elevation of the
- Answer: Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible. 1. sternum.
2. ribs.
Medication can be administered by which of the 3. diaphragm.
following routes? (A) 1 only
1. Orally (B) 1 and 2 only
2. Intravenously (C) 2 and 3 only
3. Intramuscularly (D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only - Answer: Sternum
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only Ribs
(D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Orally Ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is
usually preliminary to which of the following
Intravenously examinations?
1. Oral cholecystogram
Intramusculary 2. Double-contrast GI
3. Intravenous urogram
Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in (A) 1 only
the (B) 2 only
1. gums. (C) 1 and 2 only
2. nailbeds. (D) 2 and 3 only
3. thorax. - Answer: Double-Contrast GI
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only Which of the following legal phrases defines a
(C) 3 only circumstance in which both the health-care provider's
(D) 1, 2, and 3 and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious
- Answer: Gums outcome?
(A) Intentional misconduct
Nailbeds (B) Contributory negligence
(C) Gross negligence
In classifying intravenous contrast agents, the total (D) None of the above
number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of - Answer: Contributory negligence
water defines
(A) osmolality. When radiographing young children, it is helpful to
(B) toxicity. 1. let them bring a toy.
(C) viscosity. 2. tell them it will not hurt.
(D) miscibility. 3. be cheerful and unhurried.
- Answer: Osmolality. (A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
When a patient arrives in the radiology department with (C) 2 and 3 only
a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to (D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) place the drainage bag above the level of the - Answer: Let them bring a toy.
bladder.
Be cheerful and unhurried.
Chemical substances that inhibit the growth of Chest drainage systems should always be kept
pathogenic microorganisms without necessarily killing (A) above the patient's chest.
them are called (B) at the level of the patient's chest.
1. antiseptics. (C) below the level of the patient's chest.
2. germicides. (D) none of the above; the position of the chest
3. disinfectants. drainage system is not important.
(A) 1 only - Answer: Below the level of the patient's chest.
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only In which of the following situations should a
(D) 1, 2, and 3 radiographer wear protective eye gear (goggles)?
- Answer: Antiseptics 1. When performing an upper gastrointestinal
(1 only) radiography examination
2. When assisting the radiologist during an angiogram
Blood pressure is measured in units of 3. When assisting the radiologist in a biopsy / aspiration
(A) mmHg. procedure
(B) beats per minute. (A) 1 and 2 only
(C) ºF. (B) 1 and 3 only
(D) L/min. (C) 2 and 3 only
- Answer: mmHg. (D) 1, 2, and 3
Blood Pressure for Normal Adults - Answer: When assisting the radiologist during an
( 110-140 mm Hg/60-90 mm Hg) angiogram.

In what order should the following exams be When assisting the radiologist in a biopsy/aspiration
performed? procedure.
1. Upper GI
2. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does
3. Barium enema 95 represent?
(A) 3, 1, 2 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
(B) 1, 3, 2 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue
(C) 2, 1, 3 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure
(D) 2, 3, 1 (A) 1 only
- Answer: Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
Barium Enema (D) 2 and 3 only
- Answer: The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle
Upper GI tissue.
(2, 3, 1)
A higher-than-average diastolic pressure.
A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over
a period of time is termed Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during
(A) an intravenous push. which the infection is most communicable?
(B) an infusion. (A) Latent period
(C) a bolus. (B) Incubation period
(D) parenteral. (C) Disease phase
- Answer: An Infusion (D) Convalescent phase
- Answer: Disease Phase
Nitroglycerin is used
(A) to relieve pain from angina pectoris. Examples of nasogastric tubes include:
(B) to prevent a heart attack. 1. Swan-Ganz.
(C) as a vasoconstrictor. 2. Salem-sump.
(D) to increase blood pressure. 3. Levin.
- Answer: To relieve pain from angina pectoris. (A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only 2. nailbeds.
(C) 2 and 3 only 3. thorax.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 (A) 1 only
- Answer: Salem-Sump (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
Levin (D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Gums
All of the following statements regarding oxygen
delivery are true, except
Nailbeds
(A) Oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed
by a physician. Which of the following sites are commonly used for an
(B) Rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part intravenous injection?
of a physician order for oxygen. 1. Antecubital vein
(C) Oxygen may be ordered continuously or as needed 2. Basilic vein
by the patient. 3. Popliteal vein
(D) None of the above; they are all true. (A) 1 and 2
- Answer: None of the above; they are all true. (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
Factors that are important to evaluate when selecting (D) 1, 2, and 3
contrast media include - Answer: Antecubital Vein
1. miscibility.
2. potential toxicity. Basilica Vein
3. viscosity.
(A) 1 and 2 only Symptoms of shock include
(B) 2 and 3 only 1. rise in blood pressure.
(C) 1 and 3 only 2. increase in pulse rate.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 3. restlessness and apprehension.
- Answer: Miscibility (A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Potential Toxicity (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Vicosity - Answer: Increase in Pulse Rate

While in your care for a radiologic procedure, a patient Restlessness and Apprehension
asks to see his chart. Which of the following is the
appropriate response? According to the Centers for Disease Control and
(A) Inform the patient that the chart is for health-care Prevention (CDC), which of the following body fluids
providers to view, not the patient. should be treated as if they contained pathogenic
(B) Inform the patient that you do not know where the microorganisms?
chart is. 1. Any fluid containing blood
(C) Inform the patient that he has the right to see his 2. Cerebrospinal fluid
chart, but that he should request to view it with his 3. Synovial fluid
physician, so that it is properly interpreted. (A) 1 only
(D) Give the patient the chart and leave him alone for a (B) 1 and 2 only
few minutes to review it. (C) 2 and 3 only
- Answer: Inform the patient that he has the right to see (D) 1, 2, and 3
his chart, but that he should request to view it with his - Answer: Any fluids containing blood
physician, so that it is properly interpreted.
Cerebrospinal fluid
Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in
the Synovial fluid
1. gums.
You have encountered a person who is apparently 2) Take a mild laxative
unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no (1 and 2 only)
rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath
sounds. You should Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular
(A) begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine,
full breaths. contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best
(B) proceed with the Heimlich maneuver. describes
(C) begin external chest compressions at a rate of 80 to (A) asthma.
100 per minute. (B) anaphylaxis.
(D) begin external chest compressions at a rate of at (C) myocardial infarction.
least 100 per minute. (D) rhinitis.
- Answer: Begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, - Answer: Anaphylaxis.
giving two full breaths.
When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both
While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you subjective and objective data should be obtained. An
note that the requisition is for a chest film to check example of subjective data is
placement of a Swan-Ganz catheter. A Swan-Ganz (A) The patient appears to have a productive cough.
catheter is a(n) (B) The patient has a blood pressure of 130/95.
(A) pacemaker. (C) The patient states that he experiences extreme pain
(B) chest tube. in the upright position.
(C) intravenous catheter. (D) The patient has a palpable mass in the right upper
(D) urinary catheter. quadrant of the left breast.
- Answer: Intravenous Catheter. - Answer: The patient states that he experiences
extreme pain in the upright position.
The radiographer must perform which of the following
procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room Which of the following conditions describes a patient
with a mobile x-ray unit? who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent
1. Put on gown and gloves only. position?
2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap. (A) Dyspnea
3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit. (B) Apnea
(A) 1 only (C) Orthopnea
(B) 2 only (D) Oligopnea
(C) 1 and 3 only - Answer: Orthopnea
(D) 2 and 3 only
- Answer: Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap. The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary
arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart
The medical term for nosebleed is is called
(A) vertigo. (A) tachycardia.
(B) epistaxis. (B) bradycardia.
(C) urticaria. (C) angina pectoris.
(D) aura. (D) syncope.
- Answer: Epistaxis. - Answer: Angina Pectoris.

What instructions might a patient receive upon The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their
completing a barium enema (BE) examination? elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the
1. Drink plenty of fluids. patient to consciously exhale, is
2. Take a mild laxative. (A) bronchial asthma.
3. Withhold fluids for 6 h. (B) bronchitis.
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) emphysema.
(B) 2 and 3 only (D) tuberculosis.
(C) 2 only - Answer: Emphysema.
(D) 3 only
- Answer: 1) Drink plenty of fluids
An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient The patient is placed in the lithotomy position for which
having of the following procedures?
(A) herniated disc. (A) Myelography
(B) aneurysm clips. (B) Venography
(C) dental fillings. (C) T-tube cholangiography
(D) subdural bleeding. (D) Hysterosalpingography
- Answer: Aneurysm Clips. - Answer: Hysterosalpingography
(even slight shift can cause damage)
Lithotomy Position
If extravasation occurs during an intravenous injection - Answer: Requires that the patient lie on the back with
of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of buttocks at the edge of the table. The hips are flexed,
the following? the knees are flexed and resting on leg supports, and
1. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein the feet rest in stirrups.
immediately.
2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops. The diameter of a needle is termed its
3. Apply warm, moist heat. (A) bevel.
(A) 1 only (B) gauge.
(B) 1 and 2 only (C) hub.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) length.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 - Answer: Gauge.
- Answer: Apply pressure to the vein until the bleeding
stops. Which of the following blood pressure measurements
indicates shock?
Apply warm, moist heat. (A) Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg
(B) Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
The medical abbreviation meaning "every hour" is (C) Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
(A) tid. (D) Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg
(B) qid. - Answer: Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg
(C) qh. (below 90 mmHg is considered low blood pressure)
(D) pc.
- Answer: qh. Which of the following radiographic procedures requires
an intrathecal injection?
Which ethical principle is related to the theory that (A) Intravenous pyelogram
patients have the right to decide what will or will not be (B) Myelogram
done to them? (C) Lymphangiogram
(A) Autonomy (D) Computed tomography (CT)
(B) Beneficence - Answer: Myelogram
(C) Fidelity (radiographic examination of the spinal canal)
(D) Veracity
- Answer: Autonomy The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual
cardiac rhythm is a
Instruments required to assess vital signs include (A) defibrillator.
1. a thermometer. (B) cardiac monitor.
2. a tongue blade. (C) crash cart.
3. a watch with a second hand. (D) resuscitation bag.
(A) 1 only - Answer: Defibrillator.
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to
(D) 1, 2, and 3 contrast media include
- Answer: a Thermometer 1. sneezing.
a Watch with a second hand 2. dyspnea.
3. asthma attack.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only 1. tuberculosis.
(C) 2 and 3 only 2. mumps.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 3. rubella.
- Answer: Sneezing (A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
Dyspnea (C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Asthma Attack - Answer: Tuberculosis.

You and a fellow radiographer have received an Mumps.

unconscious patient from a motor vehicle accident. As
you perform the examination, it is important that you Rubella
1. refer to the patient by name.
2. make only those statements that you would make The chemical agent alcohol can be used effectively as
with a conscious patient. a(n)
3. reassure the patient about what you are doing. (A) antiseptic.
(A) 1 only (B) germicide.
(B) 1 and 2 only (C) disinfectant.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) antibiotic.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 - Answer: Antiseptic.
- Answer: Refer to the patient by name.
Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are
Make only those statements that you would make with administered
a conscious patient. (A) rectally.
(B) orally.
Reassure the patient about what you are doing. (C) intrathecally.
(D) through a nasogastric tube.
What is the most common means of spreading - Answer: Intrathecally.
infection?
(A) Improperly disposed of contaminated waste When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
(B) Instruments that are improperly sterilized on an infant, it is required that the number of
(C) Soiled linen compressions per minute, compared to that for an
(D) Human hands adult,
- Answer: Human Hands (A) remain the same.
(B) double.
You receive an ambulatory patient for a GI series. As the (C) decrease.
patient is seated on the x-ray table, he feels faint. You (D) increase.
should - Answer: Increase.
1. Lay the patient down on the x-ray table.
2. Elevate the patient's legs or place the table slightly Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone
Trendelenburg. calcification include
3. Leave quickly and call for help. 1. rickets.
(A) 1 only 2. osteomalacia.
(B) 1 and 2 only 3. osteoarthritis.
(C) 1 and 3 only (A) 1 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
- Answer: Lay the patient down on X-ray table. (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Elevate the patient's legs or place the table slightly - Answer: Rickets
Trendleburg.
Osteomalacia
Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air
include
Which statement(s) would be true regarding Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that
tracheostomy patients? include
1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking. 1. dysphagia.
2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy 2. itching of palms and soles.
tubing to be rotated out of view. 3. constriction of the throat.
3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction. (A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 1 and 3 only - Answer: Dysphagia.
(D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Tracheostomy patients have difficulty Itching of palms and soles.
speaking.
Constriction of the throat.
Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction.
In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the
Which of the following drugs is considered a following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is
bronchodilator? considered normal?
(A) Epinephrine (A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
(B) Lidocaine (B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
(C) Nitroglycerin (C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
(D) Verapamil (D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL
- Answer: Epinephrine - Answer: 8 to 25 mg/100 mL

A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is A patient who is diaphoretic has
termed (A) pale, cool, clammy skin.
(A) an ampule. (B) hot, dry skin.
(B) a vial. (C) dilated pupils.
(C) a bolus. (D) warm, moist skin.
(D) a carafe. - Answer: Pale, Cool, Clammy Skin.
- Answer: An Ampule
Forms of intentional misconduct include
Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic 1. slander.
bacteria are called 2. invasion of privacy.
1. antiseptics. 3. negligence.
2. germicides. (A) 1 only
3. disinfectants. (B) 2 only
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only - Answer: Slander.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 Invasion of Privacy
- Answer: Germicides
Which of the following diastolic pressure readings might
Disinfectants indicate hypertension?
(A) 50 mmHg
The least toxic contrast medium listed below is (B) 70 mmHg
(A) barium sulfate. (C) 90 mmHg
(B) metrizamide. (D) 110 mmHg
(C) ethiodized oil. - Answer: 110 mmHg
(D) meglumine diatrizoate.
- Answer: Barium Sulfate. A vasodilator would most likely be used for
(A) angina.
(B) cardiac arrest.
(C) bradycardia. Contraindications
(D) antihistamine.
- Answer: Angina. The Usual Dose

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be
(A) in cardiac arrest. used for an anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest?
(B) choking. (A) Nitroglycerin
(C) having a seizure. (B) Epinephrine
(D) suffering from hiccups. (C) Hydrocortisone
- Answer: Choking. (D) Digitoxin
- Answer: Epinephrine
When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a
suspected perforated ulcer, the type of contrast medium What type of precautions prevents the spread of
that should be used is infectious agents in aerosol form?
(A) thin barium sulfate suspension. (A) Strict isolation
(B) thick barium sulfate suspension. (B) Protective isolation
(C) water-soluble iodinated media. (C) Airborne precautions
(D) oil-based iodinated media. (D) Contact precautions
- Answer: Water-Soluble Iodinated Media. - Answer: Airborne Precautions

Lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or
The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other surfaces include
associated symptoms. This is an example of 1. Clean from the most contaminated to the least
transmission of an infection by contaminated area
(A) droplet contact. 2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center
(B) a vehicle. and working outward
(C) the airborne route. 3. Clean from the top down
(D) a vector. (A) 1 only
- Answer: a Vector. (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
For which of the following radiographic examinations is (D) 1, 2, and 3
a consent form usually required? - Answer: Clean from the most contaminated to the
1. Angiogram least contaminated.
2. GI series
3. Skeletal survey Clean from the top to bottom.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only Involuntary patient motion can be caused by
(C) 1 and 3 only 1. post-traumatic shock.
(D) 1, 2, and 3 2. medication.
- Answer: Angiogram 3. the temperature of the room.
(A) 1 only
All drug packages must provide certain information (B) 1 and 2 only
required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. (C) 1 and 3 only
Some of the information that must be provided includes (D) 1, 2, and 3 by
1. the generic name. - Answer: Post-Tramatic Shock
2. contraindications.
3. the usual dose. Medication
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only The Temperature of The Room
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be
- Answer: The Generic Name placed in which of the following positions?
(A) Dorsal recumbent with head elevated
(B) Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated - Answer: Is the threat of touching or laying hands on
(C) Lateral recumbent someone.
(D) Seated with feet supported
- Answer: Dorsal Recumbent with Feet Elevated False imprisonment
- Answer: May be considered if a patient is ignored after
Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include stating that she no longer wishes to continue with the
1. increased urination. procedure, or if restraining devices are improperly used
2. sweet-smelling breath. or used without a physician's order.
3. extreme thirst.
(A) 1 and 2 only Defamation
(B) 1 and 3 only - Answer: Can be upheld when patient confidentiality is
(C) 2 and 3 only not respected, and as a result the patient suffers
(D) 1, 2, and 3 embarrassment or mockery.
- Answer: Increased Urination.
You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the
Sweet-Smelling Breath. area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however,
the requisition asks for a left ankle exam. What should
Extreme Thirst. you do?
(A) Perform a left foot exam.
An intravenous urogram requires the patient to remain (B) Perform a left ankle exam.
in one position for an extended period of time. What (C) Perform both a left foot and a left ankle exam.
can be done to make the patient as comfortable as (D) Check with the referring physician.
possible? - Answer: Check with the referring physician.
1. Place a pillow under the patient's head.
2. Place a support cushion under the patient's knees to Radiographs are the property of the
relieve back strain. (A) radiologist.
3. Place a radiopaque pad on the entire table prior to (B) patient.
the start of the examination. (C) health-care institution.
(A) 1 only (D) referring physician.
(B) 1 and 2 only - Answer: Health-Care Institution.
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 The medical abbreviation meaning "three times a day" is
- Answer: Place a Pillow Under the Patient's Head. (A) tid.
(B) qid.
Place a Support Cushion Under Patient's Knees To (C) qh.
Relieve Back Strain. (D) pc.
- Answer: tid.
If the radiographer performed a lumbar spine
examination on a patient who was supposed to have an An inanimate object that has been in contact with an
elbow exam, which of the following charges may be infectious microorganism is termed a
brought against the radiographer? (A) vector.
(A) Assault (B) fomite.
(B) Battery (C) host.
(C) False imprisonment (D) reservoir.
(D) Defamation - Answer: Fomite.
- Answer: Battery
Which of the following medical equipment is used to
Battery determine blood pressure?
- Answer: Refers to the unlawful laying of hands on a 1. Pulse oximeter
patient. 2. Stethoscope
3. Sphygmomanometer
Assault (A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only - Answer: Emphysema.
(D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Stethoscope All of the following statements are true regarding the
administration of a barium enema to a patient with a
Sphygmomanometer colostomy, except
(A) The dressing should be removed and disposed of.
Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium (B) The drainage pouch should be retained unless a
that is administered intravenously include all of the fresh one can be provided.
following except (C) The colostomy tip or catheter should be selected by
(A) a warm feeling. the radiologist.
(B) altered taste. (D) The patient should not be permitted to insert the
(C) nausea. colostomy tip.
(D) hypotension. - Answer: The patient should not be permitted to insert
- Answer: Hypotension. the colostomy tip.

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile
techniques?
(A) Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to
the waist, including the arms.
(B) Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level.
(C) Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face
to face.
(D) A sterile field should not be left unattended.
- Answer: Persons in sterile dress should pass each other
face to face.
(they should pass each other back to back, to avoid
contaminating each other.)
(Patients are often used to caring for their stoma, and
they may be more comfortable if they have control of
the situation.)
To reduce the back strain associated with transferring
patients from stretcher to x-ray table, the radiographer
should
(A) pull the patient.
(B) push the patient.
(C) hold the patient away from his or her body and lift.
(D) bend at the waist and pull.
- Answer: Pull The Patient.

A patient suffering from orthopnea would experience A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower
the least discomfort in which body position? than the feet is said to be in which of the following
(A) Fowler's positions?
(B) Trendelenburg (A) Trendelenburg
(C) Recumbent (B) Fowler's
(D) Erect (C) Sims
- Answer: Erect (D) Stenver's
- Answer: Trendelenburg
Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients
usually include The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the
1. loss of bone calcium. following?
2. loss of hearing. (A) Let the master answer.
3. loss of mental alertness. (B) The thing speaks for itself.
(A) 1 only (C) A thing or matter settled by justice.
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) A matter settled by precedent.
(C) 1 and 3 only - Answer: The Thing Speaks For Itself.
(D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Loss of Bone Calcium An ambulatory patient is one who
(A) is able to walk.
Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, (B) is unable to walk.
resulting in overdistention of the alveolar spaces, is (C) has difficulty breathing.
(A) emphysema. (D) arrives by ambulance.
(B) empyema. - Answer: Is Able To Walk.
(C) pneumothorax.
(D) pneumoconiosis.
Which of the following exams require(s) restriction of (A) 1 and 2 only
the patient's diet? (B) 1 and 3 only
1. GI series (C) 2 and 3 only
2. Abdominal survey (D) 1, 2, and 3
3. Pyelogram - Answer: Elevate the head slightly with a pillow.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only Place a support under the knees.
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only Log rolling is a method of moving patients with
- Answer: GI Series suspected
(A) head injury.
Pyelogram (B) spinal injury.
(C) bowel obstruction.
Which of the following conditions must be met in order (D) extremity fracture.
for patient consent to be valid? - Answer: Spinal Injury.
1. The patient must sign the consent form before
receiving sedation. Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe
2. The physician named on the consent form must (A) an inflammatory reaction.
perform the procedure. (B) bronchial asthma.
3. All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in (C) acute chest pain.
before the patient signs the form. (D) allergic shock.
- Answer: Allergic Shock.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only Which of the following body fluids is (are) potential
(C) 2 and 3 only carrier(s) of HIV?
(D) 1, 2, and 3 1. Semen
- Answer: The patient must sign the consent form before 2. Vaginal secretions
receiving sedidation. 3. Blood
(A) 1 only
The physician named must perform the procedure. (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in (D) 1, 2, and 3
before the patient signs the form. - Answer: Semen

According to the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Vaginal Secretions
Prevention), all of the following precaution guidelines Blood
are true, except
(A) Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to
mask. 1. move quickly.
(B) Masks are indicated when caring for patients on 2. address them by their full name.
MRSA precautions. 3. give straightforward instructions.
(C) Patients under MRSA precautions require a negative- (A) 1 only
pressure room. (B) 1 and 2 only
(D) Gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on (C) 2 and 3 only
droplet precautions. (D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Patients under MRSA precautions require a - Answer: Address them by their full name.
negative-pressure room.
Give straightforward instructions.
With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently
helpful to Which of the following should be used to disinfect the
1. elevate the head slightly with a pillow. area after a blood spill?
2. perform the exam in the Trendelenburg position. (A) Soap and water
3. place a support under the knees. (B) Betadine solution
(C) One part bleach to ten parts water (A) 1 only
(D) One part alcohol to ten parts water (B) 1 and 2 only
- Answer: One part bleach to ten parts water (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be - Answer: Lower Toxicity
(A) protected from injury.
(B) placed in a semiupright position to prevent Fewer Adverse Reactions
aspiration of vomitus.
(C) allowed to thrash freely. Following a barium enema (BE) examination, the patient
(D) given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements should be given which of the following instructions?
and reduce the possibility of injury. 1. Increase fluid and fiber intake for several days.
- Answer: Protected From Injury. 2. Changes in stool color will occur until all barium has
been evacuated.
Which of the following imaging procedures do not 3. Contact a physician if no bowel movement occurs in
require the use of ionizing radiation to produce an 24 h
image? (A) 1 only
1. Ultrasound (B) 2 only
2. Computed axial tomography (C) 1 and 3 only
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (D) 1, 2, and 3
(A) 1 and 2 only - Answer: Increase Fluid and Fiber Intake for Several
(B) 1 and 3 only Days.
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 Changes in stool color will occur until ALL barium has
- Answer: Ultrasound been evacuated.

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) Contact a physician if no bowel movement occurs in 24

h.
A diuretic is used to
(A) induce vomiting. Which of the following statements are true regarding a
(B) stimulate defecation. two-member team performing mobile radiography on a
(C) promote elimination of urine. patient with MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphyloccus
(D) inhibit coughing. aureus) precautions?
- Answer: Promote Elimination of Urine. 1. One radiographer remains "clean" that is, he or she
has no physical contact with the patient.
In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast 2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also
barium enema (BE) essential for demonstration of the makes the exposure.
condition? 3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also
1. Polyps retrieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic
2. Colitis protective cover.
3. Diverticulosis
(A) 1 only (A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3 (D) 1, 2, and 3
- Answer: Polyps - Answer: One radiographer remains "clean" that is,
he/she has no physical contact with the patient.
Colitis
The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also
The advantages of using nonionic, water-soluble makes the exposure.
contrast media include
1. cost-containment benefits. All of the following statements regarding handwashing
2. low toxicity. and skin care are correct except
3. fewer adverse reactions.
(A) Hands should be washed after each patient 3. asthma.
examination. (A) 1 only
(B) Faucets should be opened and closed with paper (B) 1 and 2 only
towels. (C) 2 and 3 only
(C) Hands should be smooth and free from chapping. (D) 1, 2, and 3
(D) Any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to - Answer: Bronchitis
facilitate healing.
- Answer: Any cracks or abrasions should be left Pulmonary Emphysema
uncovered to facilitate healing.
Asthma
A patient is usually required to drink a barium sulfate
suspension in order to demonstrate which of the COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease)
following structure(s)? - Answer: It refers to a group of disorders, including
1. Pylorus bronchitis, emphysema, asthma, and bronchiectasis.
2. Sigmoid
3. Duodenum (COPD is irreversible and decreases the ability of the
(A) 1 and 2 only lungs to perform their ventilation functions. There is
(B) 1 and 3 only often less than half the normal expected maximal
(C) 2 and 3 only breathing capacity.)
(D) 3 only
- Answer: Pylorus The medical term for congenital clubfoot is
(A) coxa plana.
Duodenum (B) osteochondritis.
(C) talipes.
Which of the following parenteral routes is most often (D) muscular dystrophy.
used for administration of contrast agents in the - Answer: Talipes.
radiology department?
(A) Subcutaneous A patient developed hives several minutes after
(B) Intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast medium. What type of
(C) Intramuscular drug should be readily available?
(D) Intradermal (A) Analgesic
- Answer: Intravenous (B) Antihistamine
(C) Anti-inflammatory
When a patient with an arm injury needs help in (D) Antibiotic
undressing, the radiographer should - Answer: Antihistamine
(A) remove clothing from the injured arm first.
(B) remove clothing from the uninjured arm first. Pulmonary fibrosis can result from the inhalation of dust
(C) always remove clothing from the left arm first. particles; this is characteristic of
(D) always cut clothing away from the injured extremity. (A) cystic fibrosis.
- Answer: Remove clothing from the uninjured arm first. (B) chronic asthma.
(C) pneumoconiosis.
All of the following statements regarding osteoarthritis (D) pleural effusion.
are true except - Answer: Pneumoconiosis.
(A) Osteoarthritis is a progressive disorder.
(B) Osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder. Pneumoconiosis.
(C) Osteoarthritis involves deterioration of the articular - Answer: Is a condition of the respiratory tract caused
cartilage. by the occupational inhalation of dust particles and
(D) Osteoarthritis involves the formation of bony spurs. resulting in pulmonary fibrosis.
- Answer: Osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder.

Examples of COPD include

1. bronchitis.
2. pulmonary emphysema.