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UNIT I
1. ................ is the management of all activities directly related to the production of goods and
services
a) Production management b) Finance control
c) Employee development d)all of these
6. _______subsystem that includes all functions required to design, produce, distribute, and
service a manufactured product.
a. Production b. operation c. service d. Manufacturing
10. The 'indirect' objectives of operations management are different from the 'direct' objectives
for which of the following reasons?
a. Indirect objectives concern the longer term issues of the organisation, such as long-term
survival, market growth and return on investment.
b. Indirect objectives concern satisfying the operations functions and th customers within the
organisation, such as marketing and new product/service development.
c. Indirect objectives are concerned with the social, environmental, ethical, informational and
technological issues that concern the organisation.
d. Indirect objectives concern making sure that the operations function works well with all the
other parts of the organisation.
11. Which of the following is NOT true of the changing business environment in which
operations management work?
a.Demand for better quality b.More frequent product introduction
c. Less ethical sensitivity d.More legal regulation
12. The variation in product or service design to suit the specific needs of individual customers
or customer groups is referred to as:
a. Operationalization b.Customization c.Modularity d.Product flexibility
13. What name is given to an approach to formulating operations strategy, most often used in
manufacturing operations?
a.Taguchi Methodology b.Deming Methodology
c.Juran Methodology d.Hill Methodology
14. Technology that assists in the management of process, rather than adds directly to the
creation of products or services, is called:
a.Indirect process technology b.Supporting process technology
c.Functional process technology d.Directive process technology
16. Which one is not generally considered to be an advantage of using models for decision
making?
A) Providing a systematic approach to problem solving.
B) Emphasizing quantitative information.
C) Providing an exact representation of reality.
D) Enabling managers to answer "what if" questions
18. Labor intensive refers to a process or industry that requires a large amount of _________
a) Labour b) Asset c) capital d) investment
19. ________costs most often relate to the equipment necessary to meet production needs
a) Fixed b) Capital c) Labour d) distribution
20. ______ is a result of arranging inputs, their conversion process and output based on some
logic and functions.
a. production system b. operation system c. batch system d. output system
UNIT II
22. The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product
(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
23-Product cost can be reduced by considering the following aspect(s) at the design stage
(A) Minimum number of operations
(B) Unnecessary tight tolerance should not be provided
(C) Design should consist of standard parts
(D) All of the above
27. The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product
(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
33. When demand is above design capacity for an extended period of time:
A. Cost per unit eventually returns to normal.
B. Cost per unit is actually reduced.
C. Capacity may also be short during the recovery period that follows.
D. It can be expected to respond immediately as soon as demand drops.
35. Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
(A) Cycles (B) Televisions (C) Sewing machines (D) Steel mills
37. For good natural ventilation, the ____ type of building preferred
(A) Flat roof (B) Saw tooth (C) Highbay (D) Monitor
38. Buildings for foundries and steel mills are often of the
(A) Flat roof (B) Saw tooth (C) Highbay (D) Bow string
40. Discovers the destination for the product or service that is produced.
(A) Financing (B) Marketing (C) Analyzing (D) Scheduling
UNIT III
41. Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
a) Cycles b) Televisions c) Sewing machines d) Steel mills
42. If all the processing equipment and machines are arranged according to the sequence of operations
of a product the layout is known as
a) Product layout b) Process layout
c) Fixed position layout d) Combination layout
45. The following type of layout is preferred to manufacture a standard product in large quantity
a) Product layout b) Process layout
c) Fixed position layout d) Combination layout
48. A ____ layout is an arrangement based on the sequence of operations that are performed during the
manufacturing of a good or the delivery of a service.
a) Group b) Process
c) Product d) Fixed position
50. What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?
a) Continuous flow b) Project c) Job shop d) Flow shop
51. A process layout would be most appropriate in which of the following cases
a) Constructing a Boeing 777 air craft b) A fast food restaurant
c) An automobile factory d) A garment factory
57. with the increase in preventive maintenance cost, breakdown maintenance cost
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remain same d) Any of the above
59. Total Productive maintenance (TPM) approach has the potential of providing almost a
seamless integration between
a) Production and Quality b) Quality and Maintenance
c) Production and Maintenance d) All of the above
UNIT IV
61. In production management MRP stands for:
a) Management Reaction Planning b) Manufacturing Resource Planning
c) Materials Requirements Planning d) Master Resources Production
62. This is a finite capacity plan because it operates within certain constraints.
a) Resource requirements plans (RRPs) b) Capacity requirements plans (CRPs)
c) Rough-cut capacity plans (RCCPs) d) Materials Requirements Planning
66. The list of quantities of components, ingredients, and materials required to produce a product is the
a) Purchase order. b) Master schedule c) Engineering change notice d) Bill-of-materials.
67. The difference between a gross material requirements plan (gross MRP) and a net material
requirements plan (net MRP) is
a) The gross MRP doesn't take taxes into account, whereas the net MRP includes the tax
considerations.
b) The net MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the gross MRP does not.
c) The gross MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the net MRP does not.
d) The gross MRP may not be computerized, but the net MRP must be computerized
68. Breaking up the order and running part of it ahead of schedule is known as
a) Overlapping. b) Operations Splitting c) Lot Splitting d) Pegging
69. A report that shows the resource requirements in a work center for all currently assigned work as
well as all planned and expected orders is a
a) MRP II Report b) Load Report c) Back Flush Report d) Closed-Loop Report
79. The system is designed to react and adapt to changes within the production process is
a) Material Management system b) Flexible Manufacturing system
c) Product manufacturing system d) Quality manufacturing system
80. ----------- is a participatory management technique that enlists the help of employees in solving
problems related to their own jobs
a) Quality Circle b) Leadership c) Employee union d) Executive committee
UNIT V
81. _______________ Management is a department in an organization responsible for
purchasing activities
a) Purchasing b) Organising c) Operational d) Production
84. ___________ is the function of buying goods and services from external sources to an
organization
a) Operational b) Purchasing c) Production d) Organising
85._____________ Management refers to the process of ordering, storing and using an inventory
a) Operational b) Stores c) Production d) Inventory
86. ____________ Management ensuring that all activities in store- keeping are carried out
economically
a)Stores b) Operational c) Inventory d) Production
90. Cost of procurement and inbound logistics costs form a part of ___________
a) Fixed b) Ordering c) Holding d) Variable
93. _____________ equation is used to determines the ideal order quantity of a company
a) ABC b) JIT c) VED d) EOQ
100. _______________ management includes planning and control of flow of material and the
associated flow of information.
a) Operation b) Production c) Inventory d) Material
ANSWER KEY
1. A. Production management
2. D. Intangibility
3. D. Employee punishment
4. A. Productivity
5. C. to manufacturing and service sectors
6. D. Manufacturing
7. B. Intermittent and non-intermittent process
8. A. Continuous flow
9. C. disaggregation
10. D. Indirect objectives concern making sure that the operations function works well with
all the other parts of the organisation
11. C. Less ethical sensitivity
12. B. Customization
13. D. Hill Methodology
14. A. Indirect process technology
15. B. Understanding the operation's strategic objectives, developing an operations strategy,
designing products, services and processes, planning and controlling the operation, and
improving the performance of the operation
16. C. Providing an exact representation of reality
17. D. Integrate this activity into all supply chain planning
18. A. Labour
19. B. Capital
20. A. production system
21. D. Product development and design
22. D. All of the above
23. D. All of the above
24. C. To monopolize the market
25. C. The capacity the business was designed to be able to produce over a long period of
time
26. C. Capacity
27. D. All of the above
28. B. Consumer, Capital and Defense
29. B. The business can produce the desired amount in the time available
30. C. The capacity the business was designed to be able to produce over a long period of
time
31. C. The production rate of the constraint
32. C. A way to maximize revenues in capital intensive services
33. C. Capacity may also be short during the recovery period that follows
34. B. Increasing sales value
35. D. Steel mills
36. A. Cotton
37. D. Monitor
38. C. Highbay
39. A. High heating and ventilation cost
40. B. Marketing
81. A. Purchasing
82. D. Purchasing
83. D. All the Above
84. B. Purchasing
85. D. Inventory
86. A. Stores
87. B. Inventory
88. D. All the Above
89. A. Inventory
90. B. Ordering
91. C. Carrying
92. D. Economic Order Quantity
93. D. EOQ
94. B. ABC
95. C. EOQ
96. B. Activity Based Costing
97. D. EOQ
98. A. Vital, Essential, Desirable
99. D. JIT
100. D. Material
Subject Code: 17MBA2C10
Jamal Mohamed College (Autonomous)
Tiruchirappalli.
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
UNIT - I
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of decision facing the financing
manager in a company?
a) Dividend decision b) Investment decision
c) Economic decision d) Financing decision
10. In his traditional role the finance manager is responsible for ___________.
a) proper utilisation of funds b) arrangement of financial resources
c) acquiring capital assets of the organization d)Efficient management of capital
17. The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the decisions.
a) Financing and Investment b) Investment, Financing, and Asset Management
c) Financing and Dividend d) Capital Budgeting and Cash Management
20. Value which converts series of equal payments in to value received at end time of investment is
classified as
a) present value of annuity b) future value of annuity
c) decreased value of annuity d) increased value of annuity
UNIT II
21. Under traditional approach Cost of Equity is…
a. More than cost of debt
b. Equal to overall cost
c. Less than cost of debt
d. Less than overall cost
25.A single, overall cost of capital is often used to evaluate projects because:
a. It avoids the problem of computing the required rate of return for each investment
proposal.
b. It is the only way to measure a firm’s required return.
c. It acknowledges that most new investment projects have about the same degree of risk.
d. It acknowledges that most new investment projects offer about the same expected return.
29. In calculating the costs of the individual components of a firm's financing, the corporate tax
rate is important to
a. Common stock.
b. Debt.
c. Preferred stock.
d. None of the above.
31. In the context of operating leverage break-even analysis, if selling price per unit rises and all
other variables remain constant, the operating break-even point in units will:
a. Fall.
b. Rise.
c. Stay the same.
d. Still be indeterminate until interest and preferred dividends paid are known.
33. In weighted average cost of capital, a company can affect its capital cost through
a) policy of capital structure
b) policy of dividends
c) policy of investment
d) all of above
36. For which of the following costs is it generally necessary to apply a tax adjustment to a yield
measure?
a) Cost of debt.
b) Cost of preferred stock.
c) Cost of common equity.
d) Cost of retained earnings
38. The further a firm operates above its operating break-even point, the closer its degree of
operating leverage (DOL) measure approaches
a) Minus One.
b) Zero.
c) One.
d) Infinity.
42. Which of the following assumption made by MM in case of capital structure theory
a. No corporate tax
b. Perfect market condition
c. Investors act rationally
d. All of the above
43. Which of the following factor determine the capital structure --------
a. Size of the company
b. Nature of the business
c. Inflationary condition
d. All the above
44. The common stock of a company must provide a higher expected return than the debt of the
same company because
a. There is less demand for stock than for bonds.
b. There is greater demand for stock than for bonds.
c. There is more systematic risk involved for the common stock.
d. There is a market premium required for bonds.
45. A critical assumption of the net operating income (NOI) approach to valuation is:
a. That debt and equity levels remain unchanged.
b. That dividends increase at a constant rate.
c. That to remains constant regardless of changes in leverage.
d. That interest expense and taxes are included in the calculation.
50. A firm's degree of total leverage (DTL) is equal to its degree of operating leverage its degree
of financial leverage (DFL).
a. Plus
b. Minus
c. Divided by
d. Multiplied by
51. A risk associated with project and way considered by well diversified stockholder is
classified as
a) expected risk
b) beta risk
c) industry risk
d) returning risk
52.A critical assumption of the net operating income (NI) approach to valuation is:
a) That debt and equity levels remain unchanged.
b) There is no Corporate Tax.
c) That ko remains constant regardless of changes in leverage.
d) None of these.
54. Which of the following factors is likely to encourage a corporation to increase the
proportion of debt in its capital structure?
a. An increase in the corporate tax rate.
b. An increase in the personal tax rate.
c. An increase in the company's degree of operating leverage.
d. The company's assets become less liquid
55. Total risk equals
a) Unique plus diversifiable risk.
b) Market plus non-diversifiable risk.
c) Systematic plus unsystematic risk.
d) Systematic plus non-diversifiable risk.
56. The discount rate used to determine the present value of a stream of expected future cash
flows is referred to as the __________.
a) Net Operating Income
b) Capitalization Rate
c) Capital Structure
d) Yield on the Company's Market Value of Common Equity
57.The traditional approach towards the valuation of a company assumes that __________.
a) The cost of capital is independent of the capital structure of the firm
b) The firm maintains constant risk regardless of the type of financing employed
c) There exists no optimal capital structure
d) That management can increase the total value of the firm through the judicious use of
financial leverage
58. Which of the following statements regarding the net operating income approach is incorrect?
a) The overall capitalization rate, kO, is constant.
b) The cost of debt funds, ki, is constant.
c) The required return on equity, ke, is constant.
d) The total value of the firm is unaffected by changes in financial leverage
59. Which of the following is not something that you would consider when evaluating the
optimal capital structure?
a) Agency Costs.
b) EBIT-EPS Analysis.
c) Taxes.
d) All of the above are considered when determining the optimal capital structure.
65. The ________ expenditure decision is the process of making decisions regarding investments
in fixed assets
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
67.______________ measures the time in which the initial cash flow is returned by the project.
71.__________ is the discount rate at which net present value of the project become zero
a) ARR b) NPV c) AIRR d) IRR
72.NPV stands for ____________
a)National Par Value b) Net Present Value
c)National Present Value d) Net Par Value
73.__________ techniques is calculated by dividing the present value of future cash flows of a
project by the initial investment
a) ARR b) NPV c) Profitability Index d) IRR
74. Present Value of Net Future cash flows – Initial Investment required is the formula for
____________ techniques
77. __________ is the amount of profit, or return, an individual can expect based on an
investment
78. ∑ {After-Tax Cash Flow / (1+r)^t} – Initial Investment is the formula for ____________
80. An annual operating expenses by $60,000. The new machine would cost $360,000. The old
machine can be sold to a small factory for $10,000.__________ is the accounting rate of return
82. ________________ involves the relationship between a firm’s short-term assets and
liabilities.
a) Cost b) Production c) Working Capital d) Capital
b)
83. ________________ Management involves managing inventories, account receivable,
account payable and cash.
a) Cost b) Working Capital c) Production d) Capital
88. ________________ is the time duration involved in the acquisition of resources and
collection of sales.
a) Working Capital b) Operating Cycle c) Cost d) Production
89. Estimated production x Selling Price X Collection Period / 365 days is the formula for
_____________
a) Working Capital b) Operating Cycle
c) Accounts Receivable d) Accounts Payable
90.Operating Cycle = Raw Material Holding Period + Work In Progress Period + Finished
Goods Holding Period + _____________
a) Working Capital b) Payable Collection Period
c) Receivable Collection Period d) Collection Period
91. _____________ is the assumption of MM approach
a) Taxes do not exist b) Investors behave rationally
c) Risk and Uncertainty d) All the Above
92. _____________ approach is the dividend policy method which says the relationship between
firm’s internal return of return and cost of capital.
a) Modigliani & Miller b) Walter c) Gordon d) All the Above
94. If r=0.15 ; ke = 0.10 E= 10, Retention = 60 % and Payout = 40 %. _____________ will be the
market price as per Gordon Model.
a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600
95. Investors do not pay any importance to the dividend history of a company is under
_____________ theory.
a) Modigliani & Miller b) Walter c) Gordon d) All the Above
96. If Po= 150 ; k = 10% ; D = 10 _____________ is the market price under MM model
a) 150 b) 155 c) 160 d) 165
98. If D = 5; E = 15; k = 12.5% ; r= 10% _____________ is the market price under Walter model
a) 103 b) 104 c) 105 d) 106
99. According to Walter model, if internal rate of return > cost of capital is the characters of
_____________ firm.
a) Growth b) Normal c) Decline d) No Change
100. _____________ ratio is known as the ratio of total amount of dividends paid out to
shareholders relative to the net income of the company.
a) Profit b) Cash c) Dividend d) Debtors
ANSWER KEY
1. A. Wealth Maximization
2. D. Procurement & effective use of funds
3. D. All of the above
4. B. maximization of owner’s wealth
5. D. The market price per share of the firm's common
stock
6. B. Maximize the value of the firm's common stock
7. C. Economic decision
8. B. Financing decisions
9. D. Finance function of the firm
10. D. Efficient management of capital
11. C. shareholders
12. C. employment of funds on assets to earn returns
13. B. capital budgeting decision
14. C. maximize market value of the firm
15. C. working capital decision
16. C. Obtaining required funds and effectively utilizing
17. B. Investment, Financing, and Asset Management
18. B. finance, investment and dividend decisions
19. B. simple interest
20. B. future value of annuity
61. C. Capital
62. D. All the Above
63. D. All the Above
64. B. Pay Back Period
65. A. Capital
66. D. 6
67. A. Pay Back Period
68. D. Accounting Rate of Return
69. B. NPV
70. A. Internal Rate of Return
71. D. IRR
72. B. Net Present Value
73. C. Profitability Index
74. A. NPV
75. A. Inflow
76. A. NPV
77. B. ARR
78. D. IRR
79. A. ARR
80. C. 17.14%
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
UNIT – I
2. “Many people want BMW, only few are able to buy” this is an example of …
a. Need b. Demand
c. Want d. Status
3. …………. is the act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in
return.
a. Marketing Myopia b. Exchange
c. Selling d. Delivery
5. ………… model is highly firm centric, where the firm believes that the competitive edge
lies in its ability to innovate.
a. Conventional b. Competitive
c. Contemporary d. None of the above
6. “Marketing is the activity, set of ……………… & processes for creating, communicating,
delivering & …………… offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners &
society.”
a. Institutions, satisfying b. Institutions, exchanging
c. Organizations, exchanging d. Organizations, understanding
7. …………. Involves purchase from various sources & assembled at one place – involves
creation & maintenance of the stock of goods purchased & …………..Involves transfer of
ownership of the goods
a. Selling & Buying b. Buying & Assembling
c. Assembling & Selling d. Assembling & Buying
8. ………..are the form of human needs take as shaped by culture & individual personality.
a. Wants b. Needs
c. Demands d. Social Needs
9. ………….. is want for specific product backed by on ability to pay
a. Demand b. Want
c. Need d. Customer
11. Marketing must develop strategies for a range of services and products ________ the
organization.
a. Within b. Both a & b
c. Outside d. None of the above
13. The value creation and delivery sequence process place emphasis on:
a. Choosing the value b. Providing the value
c. Communicating the value d. All of the above
16. Mohan Sawhney has proposed the concept of ________ to describe a cluster of
complementary products and services that are closely related in the minds of consumers
but are spread across a diverse set of industries.
a. metamarket b. horizontal integration
c. vertical integration d. betamarket
19. Out Of 4ps in marketing mix three are product, promotion, and price, which is the 4th P.
a. Purpose b. Promotion
c. Place d. Plan
20. Who suggested product, pricing, place, promotion all these in a company represents
“Market Mix”?
a. Philip Kotler b. Neilsen
c. Stephen Morse d. Neil Borden
UNIT II
24. Highly involved consumer buying behavior and customers perceive fewer differences among
brands is called
A. complex buying behavior
B. variety seeking buying behavior
C. dissonance reducing buying behavior
D. habitual buying behavior
26. Less involved consumer buying behavior in which customers perceive few differences
between brands is called
A. complex buoying behavior
B. variety seeking buying behavior
C. dissonance reducing buying behavior
D. habitual buying behavior
27. Segmentation on basis of values and attitudes and behavioral patterns is an example of
A. geographic location
B. cultural factors
C. economic factors
D. political and legal factors
35. Situation in which company targets whole market with one similar offer is called as
A. mass marketing
B. segmented marketing
C. niche marketing
D. micromarketing
38. Which of the following 'market definitions' could be used by Mercedes Benz in describing its
market?
39. Which one of the following is not a geodemographic basis for market segmentation?
A. Personality
B. Marital status
C. Occupation
D. Postcode
UNIT III
41. Products that are bought without detailed comparisons are best classified as
A. sought products B. unsought products
C. less convenient products D. convenient products
43. Products that customers buy after careful comparison on price and quality are called
A. specialty products B. less specialty products
C. shopping products D. unsought products
48. Product mix pricing technique through which companies develop product lines for
pricing instead of single products is classified as
A. by-product pricing B. optional-feature pricing
C. product line pricing D. Two-part pricing
49. In product hierarchy, product classes that help in satisfying core needs are considered as
A. product line B. product class C. need family D. product family
50. According to product hierarchy, group of products that perform similar functions
including recognized product class is classified as
A. product line B. product class C. need family D. product family
53. Way consumers feel or perceive towards an actual product or potential market offering is
called
A. sales concept B. product idea
C. product image D. customer management
54. Stage of product life cycle in which product has achieved acceptance from its potential
buyers is called
A. maturity stage B. productive stage
C. improved market stage D. profit achieved stage
56. Company who follows balanced approach to both competitors and customers while
designing its strategies is classified as
A. market centered company B. competitor centered company
C. customer centered company D. profit centered company
57. Process of assessing objectives, strengths, weaknesses, strategies and reaction patterns of
competitors is classified as
A. branding analysis B. premium analysis
C. competitor analysis D. corporate analysis
58. Pricing strategy used to set prices of products that are must be used with main product is
called
A. optional product pricing B. product line pricing
C. competitive pricing D. captive product pricing
59. New product pricing strategy through which companies set lower prices to gain large
market share is classified as
A. optional product pricing B. skimming pricing
C. penetration pricing D. captive product pricing
60. Kind of reduction made to those buyers who buy large volumes of products is classified
as
A. cash discount B. seasonal discount
C. functional discount D. quantity discount
UNIT IV
61. Which tool of the promotional mix is defined as any paid form of non personal presentation
and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor?
A. Advertising B. Public relations
C. Direct marketing D. Sales promotion
63.Which tool of the promotional mix consists of short-term incentives to encourage the
purchase or sale of a product or service?
A. Advertising B. Public relations
C. Direct marketing D. Sales promotion
67. The final stage in the personal sales process is the stage
A. Follow-up B. Assumptive close
C. Trial Close D. Presentation
71. Marketing channel that involves no intermediaries to made their products available to final
buyers is classified as
A. direct channel B. indirect channel
C. flexible channel D. static channel
72. Process of managing upstream and downstream of final goods, flow of raw materials and
information about resellers and final consumers is classified as
A. marketing logistics network B. supply chain management
C. delivery network D. physical distribution network
73. In marketing channels, conflict occurs in marketing channels working at same level is
classified as
A. steep conflict B. slope conflict
C. vertical conflict D. horizontal conflict
74. Network of delivering products to customer which is composed of distributors, suppliers and
manufacturing company is classified as
A. supply chain management B. marketing channels
C. delivery channels D. value delivery network
75. In marketing intermediaries, way of distribution in which few dealers distribute company's
product in selective territories is classified as
A. selective distribution B. intensive distribution
C. inclusive distribution D. exclusive distribution
76. A providing preferred services by marketing channels to their customer in a collective way is
classified as
A. functional integration B. product integration
C. channel integration D. location integration
77. System in which company creates partnerships with different channels to deliver their market
offering is classified as
A. functional network B. predatory network
C. hybrid network D. value network
78. Strategy of marketing channel system in which company's sales force carry, promote and sell
products to end users is classified as
A. shallow strategy B. push strategy
C. pull strategy D. bundle strategy
79. Which type of marketing structure implies that divisions become primarily esponsible for the
development and implementation of the overall international strategy?
A. The functional structure B. The matrix structure
C. The geographical structure D. The international division structure
80. The simplest approach to global marketing organization is represented by:
A. the geographical structure B. the matrix structure
C. the functional structure D. the product structure
UNIT V
81. Sustainable marketing principle which states that company must considers society's long
term interest, consumer wants and company requirements is called
A. sense of broad marketing B. sense of mission marketing
C. sense of vision marketing D. societal marketing
82. Social marketing has gone through several changes including developing into CRM or ___.
A. Cause Related Marketing B. Cause Relationship Marketing
C. Customer Related Marketing D. Customer Relationship Marketing
84. Way of personal communication between friends, family, neighbors and target buyers about
particular market offering is called
A. print and broadcast media B. Word-Of-Mouth Influence
C. buzz marketing D. display and online media
86. What methods of social network marketing should a company always use?
A. Blogging only B. Twitter, Blogs, Facebook
C. YouTube D. Depends on the company, their product, their audience
87. Which social network is considered the most popular for business to business marketing?
A. Facebook B. Orkut C. Ryze D. LinkedIn
89. A social marketing consultant’s function of managing a social marketing program can
include
A. Plan marketing initiative B. Review relevant data about the problem or issue
C. Segment audiences D. All the above
90. Green marketing is a part of
A. Social marketing B. Service marketing
C. Relationship marketing D. Rural marketing
92. Targeting overseas markets through the online channel is an example of:
A. market development. B. diversification.
C. market penetration. D. product development.
93. Using a digital channel to offer new product variants or extended products is an example of:
A. diversification. B. product development.
C. market penetration. D. market development.
95. The consumer ………….and consumption patterns also differ across rural and urban areas, in
many products rural consumption now accounts for a large share then urban.
A. Consumer B. Retail C. Demand D. Reseller
96. International marketing strategy according to which company uses separate marketing mix
for each international target market is classified as
A. straight product marketing B. product adaptation marketing
C. standardized global marketing D. adapted global marketing
97. Way of entering foreign markets by setting up foreign manufacturing facilities is classified as
A. direct investment B. indirect investment
C. union ownership D. export union
98. With the globalization of markets, the tastes and preferences of consumers world-wide are:
A. so different that they can be ignored by international organizations.
B. being encouraged by multinational organizations to become increasingly similar.
C. converging upon a global norm.
D. becoming similar to the tastes and preferences of American consumers.
1. A. N. H. Borden
2. B. Demand
3. B. Exchange
4. C. Customer Value Triad
5. A. Conventional
6. B. Institutions, exchanging
7. C. Assembling & Selling
8. D. Social Needs
9. A. Demand
10. D. The Supplier Concept
11. A. Within
12. C. Marketing comes at the beginning of planning
13. D. All of the above
14. A. STP- Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning
15. B. Value-defining process
16. A. metamarket
17. A. Communication medium
18. D. All of the above
19. C. Place
20. D. Neil Borden
21. D. both a and b
22. A. characteristics of buyers
23. D. All of above
24. C. dissonance reducing buying behavior
25. C. delighted
26. D. habitual buying behavior
27. B. cultural factors
28. B. income segmentation
29. D. political and legal factors
30. B. cultural factors
31. C. psychographic segmentation
32. B. targeting strategy
33. A. target segment
34. A. mass marketing
35. A. mass marketing
36. B. Define the market
37. B. Differentiated marketing
38. D. All of the above
39. A. Personality
40. A. Preference to behave in certain ways
41. D. convenient products
42. A. actual product
43. C. shopping products
44. C. specialty products
45. A. market offering
46. C. specialty products
47. A. actual product
48. C. product line pricing
49. D. product family
50. A. product line
51. D. both a and
52. A. test marketing
53. C. product image
54. A. maturity stage
55. D. all of above
56. A. market centered company
57. C. competitor analysis
58. D. captive product pricing
59. C. penetration pricing
60. D. quantity discount
61. A. Advertising
62. C. Publicity
63. A. Advertising
64. D. Informative advertising
65. D. Develop advertising strategy
66. A. Media Mix
67. A. Follow-up
68. A. Interest; Action
69. A. Consumer
70. A. Free
71. A. direct channel
72. B. supply chain management
73. D. horizontal conflict
74. D. value delivery network
75. D. exclusive distribution
76. C. channel integration
77. D. value network
78. B. push strategy
79. D. The international division structure
80. C. the functional structure
81. D. societal marketing
82. A. Cause Related Marketing
83. A. Consider consumers needs and long-term welfare
84. B. Word-Of-Mouth Influence
85. A. Head of Marketing
86. D. Depends on the company, their product, their audience
87. D. LinkedIn
88. B. people
89. D. All the above
90. A. Social marketing
91. A. Customer satisfaction
92. A. market development
93. B. product development
94. A. Management of demand
95. B. Retail
96. D. adapted global marketing
97. A. direct investment
98. C. converging upon a global norm
99. D. create and retain customers in global markets
100.A. is recognized as being ahead of the rest in terms of market share
Subject Code: 17MBA2C12
Jamal Mohamed College (Autonomous)
Tiruchirappalli.
10. A formal approach to human resource planning does not take place in many
organizations because:
(a) It is not considered necessary (b) It is already being done informally
(c) It takes too much time and effort (d) It is difficult to forecast future demands for people
13. Which of the following helps the managers with the information required to make good
human resources decisions?
A. Selection B. industrial relations C. recruitment D. performance appraisal
16. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.
A. Procurement B. Development C. Organizing D. Performance appraisal
20. Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors,
namely HR professionals?
A. Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers are
more involved in the implementation of those programmes
B. Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programmes whereas staff
advisors are more involved in implementing such programmes.
C. Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the
HR programmes while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning
HR.
D. Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the
HR programmes while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning
HR.
UNIT II
21. A human resource planning scenario is:
(a) a detailed picture of future people requirements
(b) a method of forecasting possible changes in the labour market
(c) a plan for satisfying the forecast demand for people
(d) an imagined sequence of future events affecting people requirements
26. Procedure of analyzing human capital availability and need of human resources for
organization is classified as
A. human resource planning B. recruitment planning
B. cost planning D. differentiation planning
27. Means by organization used to manage demand and supply of human capital are called
A. demand management strategy B. supply management strategy
C. human resource strategies D. all of above
28. Human resource strategy in which focus is mainly on cost control, efficiency and business
stability is classified as
A. organization centralization B. competency advantage
C. cost leadership D. differentiation
29. Human resource strategy in which focus is mainly on innovation, growth and
decentralized structuring of firm is classified as
A. cost leadership B. differentiation
C. organization centralization D. competency advantage
30. Step in recruitment process in which candidates are shortlisted fulfilling minimum
requirements of job is classified as
A. placement screening B. pre-employment screening
C. compensatory screening D. affirmative screening
32. Process of matching characteristic of jobs to skills, abilities and knowledge of individuals
is classified as
A. selection yield fit B. success-acceptance fit
C. person-organization fit D. person-job fit
33. A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n)
35. The primary responsibility for human resource planning lies with
A. HR Manager B. general manager C. trade union leader D. line manager
36. The plans that necessitate changes in the existing technology, the organizational structure,
and the employees’ authority and responsibility are called
A. short-term HR plan B. medium-term HR plan
C. long-term HR plan D. none of the above
37. Which of the following is not a forecasting technique to assess the human resource
requirements of an organization?
A. trend analysis B. ratio analysis
C. managerial judgment D. replacement charts
39. The method that requires the line managers to justify the continuance of each job that
becomes vacant is called
A. simulation model B. zero-base forecasting
C. human resource allocation approach D. Delphi technique
40. The forecasting based on the subjective views of the managers on the HR requirements of
an organization is known as
UNIT III
41. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
a. Training b. Development c. Education d. All of the above
42. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?
a. Removing performance decencies
b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
d. None of the above
44. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training?
a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication
b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
d. None of the above
47. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training needs
assessment?
a. Consideration of current and projected changes b. Rating scales
c. Interviews d. Questionnaires
49-The following training aims to provide broad training to enable the trainee to take
up a wide variety of tasks within his field of specialisation
(A) Demonstration (B) On-the-job training
(C) Apprenticeship (D) All of the above
52 A homogenous group of ____ men from the plant constitutes an ideal conference
group
(A) 8-10 (B) 12-15 (C) 18-20 (D) 22-25
57.In career development, discussing your career with your manager is part of
a. individual role b. manager role c. employer role d. line manager
60. In career planning of employees, strong vocational interest inventory and Lindsey study
of values are tests used for
a. reality feedback b. self-assessment
c. spaced assessment d. massed assessment
UNIT IV
61.Basic compensations given to employees as salaries or wages are called
A. base pay B. wages C. variable pay D. salaries
62. Payments made to employees for amount of time in which employee has worked are
classified as
A. variable pay B. salaries C. base pay D. wages
63. Compensation given with base pay linked to individual team or organizational
performance is classified as
A. variable pay B. salaries C. base pay D. wages
64. Type of benefits which are given to those employees who got injured on job are classified
as
A. unemployment compensation B. severance pay
C. worker's compensation D. employment compensation
65. Benefit offered to employee voluntarily by employers who had lost their jobs is classified
as
A. lump sum pay B. severance pay
C. unemployment pay D. insurance option
70. Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types:
A. Extrinsic/intrinsic B. External/internal
C. Social/spiritual D. Effort/reward
74. Managers can attempt to reduce levels of frustration in organisation members by:
A. Participative management B. Effective recruitment
C. All of the above D. None of the above
75. Aldefer and McClelland are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.
A. Equity B. Content C. Expectancy D. Process
76-In this technique, personnel specialists and operating managers prepare lists of statements
of very effective and very ineffective behavior for an employee.
(A) Critical incident technique
(B) Forced choice
(C) Essay evaluation
(D) Management by Objective
UNIT V
81.Which of the following is not a characteristic of a virtual company?
a. Permanent teams b. geographical dispersion of employees
c. information technology–enabled organization d. customer-driven organization
82. A horizontal networking among partners of the organization who perform different but
related activities characterizes
a. alliance organization b. Displaced organization
c. invisible organization d. truly virtual organization
83. When employees perform work from their home and remain away from the office, it is
called the _______ model.
A. Telecommuting b. frontline c. cyber link d. None of the above
84. When the employees perform their work from the client’s workplace or site, it is called
a. telecommuting b. Frontline c. cyber link d. None of the above
90. Global assignments in which employees are sent for strategic jobs having intercultural
understanding are classified as
A. development assignments B. non development assignments
C. strategic assignments D. managerial assignments
91. If employee is citizen of India, working in U.S and employed by company whose
headquarters are in Japan then employee is classified as
A. third country nationals B. third world employees
C. expatriates D. host country nationals
93. Kind of organization which have integrated worldwide corporate units in different
countries is classified as
A. alliance enterprise B. global enterprise
C. interdependence enterprise D. multinational enterprise
94. Citizens of country other than host country or home country are
A. host country nationals B. expatriates
C. home country nationals D. third country nationals
95. Specific procedure according to which 'employees of company has legal rights to take
part in policy designing' is classified as
A. sub-determination B. sub-ordination C. co-ordination D. codetermination
96. The automation of attendance keeping, payroll preparation and applicant tracking are
some of the activities carried out at the _______ level.
a. management information system b. decision support system
c. electronic data processing d. None of the above
97. Which of the following is not an advantage of the Human Resource Information System?
a. a reduction in labour cost
b. the ability to manage voluminous data
c. better supervision and control over the human resources
d. none of the above
98. Which of the following is not normally an essential condition for an effective HRIS?
a. Ensuring clarity of HRIS goals
b. Strengthening the infrastructure and other supporting systems
c. changing the HR manager
d. Sustained enhancement of the HRIS capabilities
100. To Avail voluntary retirement scheme the employees has to complete minimum
……………………….. years service
a. 15 years b. 20 years c. 10 years d. 5 years
ANSWER KEY
2. In _________,entire organization is considered as system and the departments are its sub-system.
a.Business way b.general c.enterprise way d.planning
11. _______ is an organizational set up where by there is no connectivity and transparency among the
functional divisions.
a. System Island b. System Integrationc. System d. Information System
12. Which one of the following does not belong to ERP technologies?
a. Data warehousing b. data mining c. BPR d. MRP- II
UNIT II
21. It is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business process to achieve dramatic
improvement in cost quality speed and service it is called as _________________________
a. Enterprise resource planning. b .Business process reengineering
c. Business process management. d. Business training.
22. The first and foremost concept of business process reengineering is _______________
a. Radical redesign. b .Time management c. Fundamental rethinking d.quality analysis.
24. One of the more recent methodologies proposed for BPR is _____________
a. Innovation technique. b. product life cycle.
c. Process redesign. d .Process reengineering life cycle.
26. _______________ is a management approach that is primarily concerned with productivity that
lead to customer satisfaction.
a. Total quality management b. BPR.
c. Business process management. d. All of the above.
30. ERP provides an integrated and continuously updated view of core business processes using
common databases maintained by a
a. database management system b integrated application system
c. Integrated management system d. database application system
32. Which term refers to business process that are not executed by single function?
a. Silo effect b. Cross functional c. Functional structure d. enterprise systems
33. Which term refers to a system in which workers complete their tasks in separate departments without
regard to the consequences for the other components of the process?
a. silo effect b. cross functional c. Functional structure d. enterprise systems
36. Which term represents a set of tasks or activities that produce desired outcomes?
A. Business process B. Outcome C. Trigger D. Event
39. It is the process by which organizations use their skills and resources to create new technologies or
goods and services so that they can change and better respond to the needs of their customer.
a. BPR b. Innovation c. Restructuring d. Invention
40. It is the second form of change that strategic managers choose to implement strategy to improve the
firms performance.
a. Redesigning b. Restructuring c. Innovation d. Redefining
UNIT - III
41. _______________ are the primary user of ERP SYSTEM.
a. sales marketing ,customer service. b .Accounting, finance, logistics, and production.
c .customers ,resellers ,partners, supplies d. all of the above.
43. ERP facilitates information flow between all business functions and manages connections to
outside
a. Stakeholders. b. Share holder c. Director d. Manager
44. Which one of the following is not a part of ERP implementation ?
a. Vendor representatives b. Customer c. Employee Team d. Consultants
47. Which one of the following is the success factor of ERP implementation?
a. Project Planning b. Architectural Design c. Phased Approach d. All of the above
53. The _________ should plan well and execute perfectly the implementation of ERP.
54. Which is one of the most critical steps in the ERP implementation?
a. Creation of Organizational Model b. Creation of Integrated Data Model
c. Creation of Business Model d. Creation of Data Model
60. ___________ are the people who will be doing functions which will be automated by ERP system.
a. ERP vendor b. ERP Consultant c. CRM Consultant d. End Users
Unit – IV
61. ________________ allow companies to enter requirements for various types of items.
a. Purchase order
b. Purchase requisitions
c. Invoice
d. General ledger
65. ____________is the most common operating system for running CRM software
a. UNIX
b. Windows NT
c. Windows Vista
d. Windows XP
71. The vendor should have a _______, who must constantly interact with the implementation team.
a. Liaison officer
b. Project Supervisor
c. Project Manager
d. Implementation co-ordinator
74. Internal supply chain of a manufacturing enterprise consists of all of the following except:
a. Procurement cycle
b. Marketing cycle
c. Sales and distribution cycle
d. Manufacturing cycle
75. Functions related to supply chain management in SAP ERP system are all of the following
except:
76. Most failed ERP software implementations have been blamed on...
a. People Issues
b. Technological software issues
c. Hardware issues
d. Both A and B
77. ________modules enable a company to learn more about customers and their needs
with each interaction.
a. ERP
b. EDI
c. CRM
d. EFT
78. ___________software modules allow a company's sales staff to work more efficiently as
individuals, as a team, and as part of the organization.
a. Sales force automation
b. Global integration
c. Market automation
d. Personalization
80. Which of the following has the least integration of information systems?
a. Manufacturing resource planning
b. Web-integrated enterprise resource planning
c. Materials requirements planning
d. Enterprise resource planning
Unit – V
83. ERP vendors usually design their systems around standard business processes, based upon
____________________
a. Business standards
b. Global standards
c. Best business practices.
d. Best profitable standards
84. The _______ module's internal functions do not directly interact with the data or processes of
other modules.
a. Finance
b. Quality Management
c. Sales and Distribution
d. Plant Maintenance
85. Which among the following systems can be assigned to a cost centre directly which illustrates
the interface to the cost accounting system?
a. FAPA
b. Purchasing
c. Sales and Distribution
d. CASO
86. Which system provides the foundation for creating concurrent business processes across the
supply chain and achieving Return on Assets (ROA) improvement?
a. Finance
b. Inventory
c. Manufacturing
d. Sales
87. The processes described in the quality manual can be implemented and automated in the EDP
system. Here what does EDP stand for?
a. Electronic Data Processing
b. Electronic Dictionary Project
c. Electrical Data Processing
d. Employee Development Plan
88. If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to
record student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an
a. CRM
b. intranet
c. ERP
d. extranet
90. Which of the following allows individual ERP systems to communicate with each
other?
a. Web-integrated ERP
b. EMRP
c. Global ERP
d. Web-integrated MRP
91. One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a large number of
different final products is to use
A. Planning bills
B. Modular bills
C. Phantom bills
D. Overdue bills
92. The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
a. lower than 90%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 99%
95. What are several different types of software, which sit in the middle of and provide connectivity
between two or more software applications?
a. Middleware
b. Enterprise application integration middleware
c. Automated business process
d. e-business infrastructure
98.The process of taking active role in working with suppliers to improve products and processes is
called ______________.
a. ERP
b. Marketing
c. Supply Chain Management
d. Sale
100. Which one of the following is not a business driver for an information system?
ANSWER KEYS:
Q.No Answer Description
1 B Common goal
2 C enterprise way
3 D Database
4 A centralized database
5 A Master Resources Production
6 D All of the above
7 D All of the above
8 B Enterprise Resource Planning
9 D Manufacturing Resource Planning
10 A Bill of Material
11 A System Island
12 D MRP- II
13 C ERP integrate and automate organizational process;
14 D All of the above
15 D Program Management
16 D All of the above
17 D All of the above
18 D All of the above
Forecasting, planning, purchasing, material
19 C management, warehousing, inventory, and
distribution
20 B Information
21 B Business process reengineering
22 C Fundamental rethinking
23 D Tangibility
24 C Process redesign.
25 D All of the above
26 A Total quality management
27 D Efficiency
28 A Three stages
29 D None of the above
30 A database management system
31 D All of the above
32 A Silo effect
33 A Silo effect
34 C Enterprise System
35 D All of the above
36 A Business process
37 B Innovation
38 B Blank sheet
39 B Innovation
40 B Restructuring
41 B Accounting, finance, logistics, and production
42 C Gap analysis
43 A Stakeholders
44 B Customer
45 A Analytical Hierarchy Process
46 A Automate
47 D All of the above
48 D All of the above
49 D All of the above
50 C Half Implementation
51 A Return on Investment
52 D all
53 C Vendors
54 B Creation of Integrated Data Model
55 B Package Evaluation
56 D Request For Proposal
57 D Project Sponsor
58 A Proof of Concept
59 A Electronic Data Interchange
60 D End Users
61 B Purchase requisitions
62 B ERP Inventory software module
63 C Complex
64 B ERP software solutions.
65 A UNIX
66 D Supply chain planning metrics.
67 B ERP metrics.
68 A Engineer-to-Order
69 A Employee master data
70 C Treasury module
71 A Liaison officer
72 A Both small and big organisations
73 D A and B
74 B Marketing cycle
75 D Supply chain cooperation
76 A People Issues
77 C CRM
78 A Sales force automation
Systems Applications and Products in Data
79 A
Processing
80 C Materials requirements planning
81 A Work orders
82 A On-Line Analytical Processing
83 C Best business practices.
84 B Quality Management
85 D CASO
86 C Manufacturing
87 A Electronic Data Processing
88 B intranet
Components, ingredients, and materials required to
89 C
produce an item
90 A Web-integrated ERP
91 B Modular bills
92 D 99%
93 C what product is to be made, and when
a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all
94 B
levels of a distribution network
95 A Middleware
Customers, resellers, partners, suppliers, and
96 C
distributors
97 B Enterprise application integration middleware
98 D Supply Chain Management
Extraction, Transformation and Load, Data
99 D
Analysis and Planning
100 C proliferation of networks and the Internet
Subject Code: 17MBA2C14
Jamal Mohamed College (Autonomous)
Tiruchirappalli.
Unit I
10. What is the name for a variable which wholly or partially accounts for the
relationship between two other variables?
a) Consistent variable.
b) Congruent variable.
c) Confounding variable.
d) Confounded variable.
16. The difference between the mean of a researcher's sample and the mean of the
population of the sample is known as the:
a) significance level.
b) confidence interval.
c) sampling error.
d) standard deviation.
20. _________ is a preferred sampling method for the population with finite size.
a) Area sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Purposive sampling
d) Systematic sampling
UNIT II
28. A methods of collecting primary data in which a number of individuals with a common
interest interact is called
a) Telephone Interview b) Clinical Interview
c) Focused Interview d)Group Interview
29. Questions which allow only a few alternative way of answering is called ………..
a) Open ended questions b) Unstructured questions
c) Structural questions d) Dichotomous questions
35. In which sample population is divided into different strata and sample is taken from
different strata?
a) Quota Sampling b) Snow ball sampling
c) Stratified sampling d)Purposive Sampling
36. Drawing a sample from each stratum in the proportion to latter’s share in the total
population is called
a) Stratified sampling b) Proportioned stratified sampling
c) Disproportionate sampling d) Quota sampling
UNIT III
41. Facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as bases for a study is called
a) Sample b)Method c) Data d) Theory
42. Summarizing raw data and displaying them on compact statistical tables for analysis is
a) Tabulation b) Coding c) Transcription d) Editing
43. Selecting sample units in just a “hit and miss” fashion is called
a) Convenience or Accidental sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Proportionate sampling
46. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
a) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
b) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
c) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
d) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
47. To study the relationship of family size to income a researcher classifies his population
into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab. Which technique
of sampling does he adopt?
A) Random sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Cluster sampling
48. The sampling errors arise due to drawing faulty inferences about the
__________________ based upon the results of the samples.
a) Sample b) Survey c) Population d) Census
51. When all the items in the population are included for the study it is called as
a) sample study b) systematic sample study
c) multiple study d) census study
52. Quota sampling is used intensively in which type of research?
a) Market research b) Experimental research
c) Action research d) Ethnographic research
57. When phenomena are rated or scored in the order of importance, the type of scale Used
is
a) ordinal scale b) nominal scale c) interval scale d) ratio scale
58. When phenomena are grouped into categories with uniform ranges, researcher would
adopt
a) Ordinal scale b) nominal scale c) interval scale d) ratio scale
UNIT IV
67. When phenomena are rated or scored in the order of importance, the type of Scale used
is a) ordinal scale b) nominal scale c) interval scale d) ratio scale
74. Which of the following could tell us the point about which items have a tendency to
Cluster?
a) Regression b) Correlation c) Variation d) Range
76. Which of the following graph or chart suitable for correlation analysis
a) Bar chart b) Frequency polygon c) Scatter graph d) Histogram
77. Which measure of central tendency might be biased by extreme values in a set of data
UNIT V
82. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
a) Results b) Abstract c) Method d) Footnotes
85. Which of the following is not usually found in a report of a quantitative study?
a) Measurement b)Results c)Confession d)Validation
86. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should
a. State the first and last name of the author
b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
90. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Results
d. Discussion
97. The Report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and
presentation of Result is called
a) Thesis b) Interim Report c) Summary Report d) Article
100. Which report helps decision makers select choose best course of action
a) Feasibility report
a) Short report
c) Essential report
d) Long report
ANSWER KEY
S.No. Options
1. B. Help the candidate become an eminent educationist
2. B. Diagnosis
3. C. Analytical research
4. D. Action Research
5. B. is derived from statistics
6. C. Populations
7. B. statement which serves as the basis for further investigation
8. D. all of the above.
9. D. Correlation
10. C. Confounding variable
11. B. Nominal
12. A. Ratio
13. C. Ordinal
14. A. responsible for the relationship between two other variables
15. B. the proportion of people who take part in a study
16. C. sampling error
17. D. Both (a) and (b)
18. D. All the above
19. A. the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true
20. D. Systematic sampling
21. C. Numerical Aptitude
22. D. Scientific method
23. C. Analytical research
24. A. Survey
25. D. Empirical Research
26. B. Research design
27. B. Respondent
28. D. Group Interview
29. C. Structural questions
30. B. Dichotomous questions
31. C. Statistic
32. B. Parameter
33. B. Uni-variate Analysis
34. D. Lottery method
35. C. Stratified sampling
36. B. Proportioned stratified sampling
37. A. Population or universe
38. A. Element
39. B. Secondary
40. A. Primary Source
41. C. Data
42. A. Tabulation
43. A. Convenience or Accidental sampling
44. C. Snow ball Sampling
45. A. Systematic sampling technique
46. D. It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association
between two variables.
47. B. Stratified random sampling
48. C. Population
49. A. Sampling
50. A. already available
51. D. census study
52. A. Market research
53. A. the respondent is given a limited choice of possible Answer
54. B. a questionnaire
55. A. a definite plan for obtaining a sample from a given population
56. C. nominal scale
57. A. ordinal scale
58. C. interval scale
59. B. Schedule
60. B. Tool
61. A. Spearman’s rank Correlation
62. C. multiple correlation and partial correlation
63. B. correlation between unrelated variation
64. C. discrete and continuous
65. B. dependent variable
66. D. nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio
67. A. ordinal scale
68. A. the t test is used and work out the test statistic
69. B. Discrete variables can only have whole number values
70. A. Continuous
71. A. Average relationship between two variables
72. A. Karl Pearson
73. C. can be either positive or negative
74. D. Range
75. B. Standard deviation
76. C. Scatter graph
77. C. Arithmetic mean
78. A. A Correlation
79. D. Correlation of Coefficient
80. D. multiple correlation
81. C. To analyse problems and predict practical alternatives
82. D. Footnotes
83. C. List of books
84. B. It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions
85. C. Confession
86. B. Use the author, date citation method
87. D. None of These
88. A. Research Process
89. C. Thesis
90. D. Discussion
91. D. Title Page
92. D. Foot-Notes
93. A. Doctor of Philosophy
94. C. Technical terms used in the report
95. B. Research Abstract
96. C. Research article
97. B. Interim Report
98. C. A research proposal
99. D. All of the above
100. A. Feasibility report