Physical Science Update

St. Louis Review Center, stop.
Which of the following statements is true

about the motion of the truck?
Inc.
6th Flr. G. Tolentino Cor. España, Doña Amparo a. the velocity and acceleration have
Bldg. Sampaloc Manila opposite directions
Tel. no. (02) 735-1294 or (02) 736-7410 b. the velocity and acceleration have the
same directions
c. the velocity and acceleration of the truck
TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICAL SCIENCES are both constant
Sept. 2009 d. none of the above
9. The acceleration of a stone thrown upward is
a. the same as that of a stone thrown
TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICS downward
b. greater than that of a stone thrown
MECHANICS downward
c. smaller than that of a stone thrown
1. Which of the following quantities is a downward
scalar quantity? d. zero until it reaches the highest point in its
a. momentum c. force motion
b. work d. acceleration 10. For an object that is dropped from rest,
2. An airplane travels east for 2 hours at a a. the speed is proportional to the time of fall
rate of 500km/h. Which of the following b. the acceleration is proportional to the time
quantities is a vector? of fall
a. the time of travel c. the distance traveled is proportional to the
b. the displacement time of fall
c. the distance traveled d. all of the above
d. the speed of the plane 11. If a freely falling object were somehow
3. Which of the following is the best equipped with a speedometer, its speed
definition of velocity? reading wound increase each second by
a. It is a description of the motion of a body. a. about 5 m/s
b. It is a measure of how fast a body is b. about 10 m/s
moving. c. about 15/s
c. It is the speed of a body and its direction d. a variable amount
of motion. 12. An object at rest maintains its state of rest
d. It is equal to the distance traveled divided unless acted upon by a net force because of
by the time of travel. its
4. The speedometer of a car gives you a reading a. mass c. inertia
of the car’s b. momentum d. energy
a. instantaneous speed 13. An object in uniform motion maintains its
b. instantaneous velocity state of motion unless acted upon by a net
c. average speed force because of its
d. average velocity
a. mass c. inertia
5. Acceleration is defined as the change in
b. momentum d. energy
a. velocity divided by the time interval
14. A sheet of paper can be withdrawn from under
b. distance divided by the time interval
a container of milk without toppling it if the
c. time it takes to move from one place to
paper is pulled quickly. The reason this can be
another place
done is that
d. time it takes to move from one speed to
a. the milk carton has inertia
another speed
6. Which of the following situations describes a b. the milk carton has very little weight
body that is accelerating? c. gravity pulls very hard on the milk carton
a. a truck that is at rest d. there are action and reaction forces
b. a car rounding a curve at constant speed 15. If the force of gravity suddenly stopped acting
c. a bicycle moving at constant speed along a on the planets, they would
straight highway a. spiral slowly toward the sun
d. none of the above b. spiral slowly away from the sun
7. Which of the following statements is always c. fly straight away from the sum
true? d. move in a straight line tangent to their
a. when the acceleration is constant, the orbit
velocity is zero 16. According to Newton’s second law of motion
b. when the acceleration is zero, the velocity a. force on an object is equal to its
is also zero acceleration divided by its mass
c. when the velocity is constant, the b. force on an object is equal to the product
acceleration is zero of its mass and acceleration
d. when the instantaneous velocity is zero, c. mass of an object is equal to the product
the acceleration is also zero of the force on it and its acceleration
8. A truck is moving along a straight highway. As d. acceleration of an object is equal to the
it approaches an intersection, the driver steps product of the force on its and its mass
on the brakes, bringing the car to a complete 17. The acceleration produced by a net force on
an object is
a. directly proportional to the mass
St. Louis review Center, Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 or 222-8732 1
b. inversely proportional to the net force 28. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the
c. in the same direction as the net force apple when it is at rest on top of your head is
d. all of the above a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N
18. The weight of an object of an object 29. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the
a. refers to its inertia apple when it is in free fall is
b. is the quantity of matter it contains a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N
c. is the force with which it is attracted to the 30. An unfortunate bug splatters against the
earth windshield of a moving car. Compared to the
d. is basically the same quantity as its mass force on the bug, the force on the car is
but expressed in different units a. greater b. smaller c. the same
19. The force that accelerates a rocket into outer 31. An unfortunate bug splatters against the
space is exerted on the rocket by the exhaust windshield of a moving car. Compared to the
gases. Which Newton’s law of motion is acceleration of the bug, the acceleration of the
illustrated in this situation? car is
a. First law of motion a. greater b. smaller c. the same
b. Second law of motion 32. Two figure skaters who push off each other
c. Third law of motion will move at the same speed if
d. cannot be determined a. they push with the same force
20. An object weighs 30 N on earth. A second b. the ice does not cause any friction
object weighs 30 N on the moon. Which object c. there is no air resistance
has the greater mass? d. they have the same mass
a. the one on earth 33. When two equal forces act on the same object
b. the one on the moon in opposite directions, the net force is
c. they have the same mass a. smaller than either force
21. As an airplane climbs, b. equal to each of the forces
a. its mass increases c. zero
b. its mass decreases d. greater than either force
c. its weight increases 34. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same
d. its weight decrease size are dropped at the same time. Which ball
22. Suppose a cart is being moved by a force. If has the greater force acting on it?
suddenly a load is dumped into the cart so a. the tennis ball
that the cart’s mass doubles, what happens to b. the steel ball
the cart’s acceleration? c. the same force is acting on them
a. it doubles c. it halves 35. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same
b. it triples d. it stays the same size are dropped at the same time. Which ball
23. A player hits a ball with a bat. The action has the greater acceleration? (assuming that
force is the impact of the bat against the ball. the air resistance is negligible)
What is the reaction to this force? a. the tennis ball
a. the weight of the ball b. the steel ball
b. the air resistance on the ball c. they have the same acceleration
c. the force of the ball against the bat 36. A ball rolling across the floor slows to a stop
because
d. the grip of the player’s hand against the
bat a. the forces are balanced
b. the net force equals zero
24. When a football is kicked, the action – and –
reaction forces do not cancel each other c. there is a net external force acting on it
d. the force that started it moving wears out
because
a. they are not truly equal and opposite 37. The momentum of an object is defined as the
object’s
b. they are not acting at the same time
c. they are acting on two different bodies a. mass times its velocity
b. mass times its acceleration
d. all of them
25. A car accelerates along a road. Viewed from c. force times its acceleration
d. force times the time interval
outside the car, what is the force that
accelerates it? 38. The momentum change of an object is equal
to the
a. the engines pulling it forward
b. air rushing in behind the car as it moves a. force acting on it
c. the wheels pulling forward on the wheels b. impulse acting on it
d. the reaction force to the wheels pushing c. velocity change of the object
the road backward d. force acting on its times its velocity
26. A car travels in a circle with constant speed. 39. Momentum of a system is conserved only
The net force on the car is when
a. directed toward the center of the curve a. the system is not moving
b. zero because the car is not accelerating b. there are no forces acting on the system
c. directed forward, in the direction of travel c. there is no net external force acting on the
d. none of them system
27. Suppose the force of friction on a sliding d. there are no internal forces acting on the
object is 10 N. The force needed to maintain system
constant velocity is
a. less than 10 N c. 10 N 40. When the velocity of a moving object is
doubled
b. more than 10 N d. 0 N
a. its momentum is doubled
b. its acceleration is doubled
c. its kinetic energy is doubled THERMODYNAMICS
d. its potential energy is doubled
41. A rifle recoils from firing a bullet. The speed of 51. Temperature is a measure of
the rifle’s recoil is small because the a. the total energy in something
a. momentum is conserved b. the total kinetic energy in something
b. rifle is more massive than the bullet c. the average energy in a substance
c. force against the rifle is relatively small d. the average molecular kinetic energy in a
d. impulse on the rifle is less than the substance
impulse on the bullet 52. Internal energy is the
42. In physics, work is done a. total amount of energy contained in an
a. in pushing against the wall object
b. in preparing school lessons b. average amount of energy contained in an
c. in supporting an object on your shoulder object
d. in lifting an object from the floor to the c. amount of kinetic energy of all the
table molecules in the object
43. An object at rest may have d. none of the above
a. velocity c. kinetic energy 53. Heat is the
b. momentum d. potential energy a. amount of energy all the molecules have
44. An object in motion need not have b. total amount of energy contained in the
object
a. velocity c. kinetic energy
c. energy transferred between objects
b. momentum d. potential energy because of temperature difference
45. What never changes when two or more d. all of the above
objects collide in the absence of a net external 54. In thermodynamics, which states that the two
force is systems which are in thermal equilibrium with
a. the momentum of each one a third system are in thermal equilibrium with
b. the kinetic energy of each one each other?
c. the total momentum of all objects a. zeroth law c. second law
d. the total kinetic energy of all objects b. first law d. third law
46. The amount of potential energy possessed by 55. The natural direction of heat flow is from a
an elevated object is equal to high – temperature reservoir to a low –
a. the distance it is lifted temperature reservoir. This fact is
b. the force needed to lift it incorporated in the
c. the power used to lift it a. first law of thermodynamics
d. the work done in lifting it b. second law of thermodynamics
47. A freight train rolls along a track with
c. law of conservation of energy
considerable momentum. If it were to roll at
d. zeroth law of thermodynamics
the same speed but had twice as much mass,
56. It refers to the temperature at which the
its momentum would be
molecules have the lowest possible kinetic
a. zero c. quadrupled energy
b. doubled d. unchanged
a. absolute zero c. boiling point
48. A job is done slowly and an identical job is
b. melting point d. freezing point
done quickly. Both jobs require the same
57. Two metal strips of equal lengths were tied
amount of work but different amounts of
together. When heated, the strips bend.
a. energy c. both energy and power Which statement below best explains this?
b. power d. none of them a. one metal is more elastic than the other
49. Which of the following statements is true b. one metal conducts heat better than the
about an object thrown upward under the other
influence of the earth’s gravity alone? c. the heat is not evenly distributed on the
a. kinetic energy increases – potential energy strips
increases d. one metal expands more than the other
b. kinetic energy decreases – potential for the same increase in temperature
energy increases 58. The warmth that you feel when you place your
c. kinetic energy increases – potential energy finger at the side of the flame of a burning
decreases candle is primarily caused by
d. kinetic energy decreases – potential a. conduction of heat
energy decreases b. convection of heat c. radiation of heat
50. Which of the following statements is true 59. Heat travels from the sun to the earth by
regarding simple machines being used with means of
the presence of friction? a. radiation
a. work input is always greater than work b. convection c. conduction
output
b. work input is always smaller than work 60. When heat is added to boiling water, its
output temperature
c. work input is always equal to the work a. increases
output b. decreases c. remains the same
d. cannot be determined
61. As the atmospheric pressure increases, the a. the melting of a solid
boiling temperature of a liquid b. the vaporization of a liquid
a. increases c. the condensation of a gas into a liquid
b. decreases c. remains the same d. the vaporization of a solid without first
62. Which method of heat transfer is most closely becoming a liquid
associated with the formation of a cool breeze 73. Heat transfer by convection occurs
that blows from the sea to the land during a. only in gases
daytime? b. only in liquids
a. conduction c. only in gases and liquids
b. convection c. radiation d. in solids, liquids, and gases
63. During daytime, which heats up faster: the 74. The materials with the highest heat
land or the sea? conductivities are the
a. the land a. solids c. gases
b. the sea b. liquids d. metals
c. they heat up at the same time 75. When work is done by a system, what
64. During nighttime, which cools down faster: happens to its temperature assuming that no
the land or the sea? heat is added to it?
a. the land a. increases
b. the sea b. decreases c. remains the same
c. they heat up at the same time 76. When the temperature of a metal is increased,
65. It refers to the amount of heat needed to what happens to its density?
raise the temperature of a unit mass of a a. increases
substance by a unit change in temperature. b. decreases c. remains the same
a. specific heat 77. Which cools faster, a pot of boiling water or a
b. latent heat of fusion same – size pot of lukewarm water both left
c. latent heat of vaporization at room temperature?
66. What gas law states that at constant a. the boiling water
temperature, volume is inversely proportional b. the lukewarm water
to absolute pressure? c. neither, they cool at the same time
a. Boyle’s law 78. Two pots are filled with boiling water. The
b. Charle’s law c. Gay – Lussac’s law pots are exactly the same size, but one pot is
67. When a vapor condenses into a liquid white and the other is black. Which pot cools
a. it absorbs heat faster?
b. it releases heat a. the white pot
c. its temperature rises b. the black pot
d. its temperature drops c. neither, they cool at the same time
68. A metal lid cannot be unscrewed from its glass 79. If a red star and a blue star radiate energy at
jar. Which is the best way to unscrew it from the same rate, which of the two is bigger?
the jar? a. the red star
a. invert the jar with the lid in a very hot b. the blue star
water for a few seconds c. neither, they are of the same size
b. invert the jar with the lid in a very cold 80. A piece of iron and a cup of water both have
water for a few seconds the same temperature. If they are heated so
c. invert the jar with the lid in hot and then that they absorb the same amount of heat,
in cold water for a few seconds a. both will have the same temperature
d. invert the jar with the lid in cold and then b. the iron will have the higher temperature
in hot water for a few seconds c. the water will have the higher temperature
69. An adiabatic process in a system is one in d. not enough information is given to answer
which the question
a. no heat enters or leaves the system 81. Why does a piece of metal feel colder than a
b. the pressure of the system remains piece of wood at the same temperature?
constant a. metal is colder than wood
c. the system does no work nor work is done b. metals allows heat to flow through it easily
on it c. metals have higher specific heat than
d. the temperature of the system remains wood
constant d. none of the above
70. It is the amount of heat needed to raise the 82. Systems that are left alone tend to move
temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 C0. toward a state of
a. 1 calorie c. 1 joule a. less entropy c. constant entropy
b. 1 Btu d. all of them b. more entropy d. no entropy
71. One gram of steam at 1000C causes a more 83. Which of the following engines is normally the
serious burn than 1 gram of water at 100 0 C least efficient?
because the steam a. gasoline engine
b. diesel engine c. carnot engine
a. is less dense than water 84. Which of the following engines is normally the
b. strikes the skin with a greater force most efficient?
c. has a higher specific heat a. gasoline engine
d. contains more internal energy b. diesel engine c. carnot engine
72. Sublimation refers to
85. If you want to cook boiled eggs while in the d. the particles of the gas collide more often
mountains you should with the walls of the container
a. use a hotter flame 94. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of
b. boil the eggs for a shorter time the following is not likely to happen?
c. boil the eggs for a longer time a. the volume of the gas will increase
d. not boil the eggs, because the water b. the pressure of the gas will increase
temperature won’t get hot enough to cook c. the average speed of the molecules will
them increase
86. A heat engine operates by taking in heat at a d. the gas molecules will hit the walls of the
particular temperature and container more often
a. converting it all to work 95. What would be the effect on the pressure of
b. converting some of it into work and the gas if its volume is halved and its
exhausting the rest at a lower temperature temperature is doubled?
c. converting some of it into work and a. halved c. increased three times
exhausting the rest at the same b. doubled d. increased four times
temperature 96. What accounts for the cooling effect inside a
d. converting some of it into work and refrigerator?
exhausting the rest at a higher a. the refrigerator is properly insulated
temperature b. the vaporization of the refrigeration liquid
87. The work output of every heat engine is c. compression of the refrigeration gas into
a. depends only on its intake temperature liquid
b. depends only on its exhaust temperature d. the motor converts electrical energy into
c. equals the difference between its heat thermal energy
intake and heat exhaust 97. Most cars have four – stroke internal
d. equal that of a carnot engine with the combustion engines. Which of the following
same intake and exhaust temperatures gives the correct sequence of the four
88. The fuel in a diesel engine is ignited by strokes?
a. a spark plug a. compression – exhaust – power – intake
b. being compressed until it is hot enough b. intake – compression – power – exhaust
c. the hot compressed air into which it is c. intake – power – compression – exhaust
injected d. power – compression – intake – exhaust
d. exhaust gases remaining from the 98. Which of the following phrases correctly
previous cycle describes water at 40C?
89. A refrigerator exhausts a. greatest volume; greatest density
a. less heat than it absorbs from its contents b. smallest volume; smallest density
b. more heat than it absorbs from its c. smallest volume; greatest density
contents d. greatest volume; smallest density
c. the same amount of heat that it absorbs 99. Melting snow
from its contents a. warms the surrounding air
d. any of the above, depending on the b. cools the surrounding air
circumstances c. neither warms nor cools the surrounding
90. The working substance or refrigerant used in air
most refrigerators is a 100. Evaporation cools a liquid because
a. gas that is easy to liquefy a. the slowest molecules tend to escape
b. gas that is hard to liquefy b. the fastest molecules tend to escape
c. liquid that is hard to solidify c. the pressure of the gas increases
d. liquid that is easy to solidify d. the pressure of the gas decreases
91. A pressure cooker cooks food more rapidly
than an ordinary pot with a loose lid because ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM
a. the pressure forces heat into the food 101. If a material becomes positively charged
b. the higher pressure lowers the boiling after being rubbed, what does it indicate?
point of water a. it gains protons c. it loses protons
c. the higher pressure raises the boiling point b. it gains electrons d. it loses electrons
of water 102. If you comb your hair and the comb
d. the higher pressure increases the specific becomes negatively charged, your hair
heat of water becomes
92. If a poor absorber of radiation were a good a. positively charged
emitter, its temperature would be b. negatively charged c. neutral
a. lower than that of the surroundings 103. Electric charges A and B are attracted to
b. higher than that of the surroundings each other. Electric charges B and C repel
c. the same as that of the surroundings each other. If A and C are held close together,
d. not be affected they will
93. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of a. attract
the following explains why the pressure of the b. repel c. not affect each other
gas increases? 104. The difference between electrical forces and
a. the volume of the gas decreases gravitational forces is that electrical forces
b. the volume of the gas increases include
c. the number of particles of the gas increase a. attractive interactions
in number b. repulsive interactions
c. the inverse square law d. all of them 117. A system of two charges has a positive
104. Which of the following devices conducts potential energy. This signifies that
electricity in one direction only? a. both charges are positive
a. diode c. capacitor b. both charges are negative
b. resistor d. transistor c. both charges are positive or both are
105. Which of the following is the SI unit of negative
charge? d. one charge is positive and the other is
a. ampere c. farad negative
b. tesla d. coulomb 118. A spherical Gaussian surface encloses an
106. Compared to the resistance of two He atom. What is the net electric fluzx
resistors connected in series, the same two through such a surface?
resistors connected in parallel will have a. positive c. zero
a. more resistance b. negative d. cannot be determined
b. less resistance 119. The junction rule is the direct consequence
c. the same resistance of
107. What law states that the force of a. Newton’s second law
electrostatic interaction between two point b. conservation of momentum
charges is directly proportional to the product c. conservation of charge
of their charges and is inversely proportional d. conservation of energy
to the square of their separation distance? 120. Which of the following changes to an ideal
a. Ohm’s Law c. Faraday’s Law plate capacitor connected to an ideal battery
b. Coulomb’s Law d. Ampere’s Law result in an increase in the charge of the
108. When one light bulb in a parallel circuit capacitor?
containing several light bulbs burns out a. inserting a dielectric material in between
a. the other bulbs burn brighter the plates
b. the other light bulb burn dimmer b. decreasing the area of the plates
c. none of the other light bulbs will light up c. increasing the separation distance
d. nothing changes in the rest of the circuit between the plates
109. The electron volt is a unit of d. none of the above
a. charge c. voltage 121. An electron and a proton are accelerated
b. energy d. potential through the same potential difference. Which
110. Which of the following quantities is a of the following statements is true?
a. the electron has a greater KE
vector quantity?
b. the proton has the greater KE
a. electric field c. inductance
c. the electron has the greater speed
b. capacitance d. current
d. the proton has the greater speed
111. A rod with unknown charge attracts a
122. A current is flowing to the east along a
plastic ball. Which of the following statements
power line. If we neglect the earth’s magnetic
may describe them?
field, the direction of the magnetic field below
a. the rod is positive and the ball is negative
it is
b. the rod is negative and the ball is positive
c. the rod is charged and the ball is neutral
a. north c. south
b. east d. west
d. all of the above
112. Which type of force is responsible in 123. An electron enters a magnetic field
binding atoms together to form molecules? perpendicularly to B. The electron’s
a. electrical force c. nuclear force a. motion is unaffected
b. magnetic force d. gravitational force b. direction is changed
c. speed is changed
113. Which of the following devices does not
use an electromagnet? d. energy is changed
124. Two parallel wires carry currents in the
a. electric bell c. household light bulb
same direction. What will happen to the
b. telephone d. none of them wires?
114. What shape of a permanent magnet a. the wires attract each other
corresponds to the magnetic field formed by a b. the wires repel each other
solenoid? c. torques act on the wires that tend to turn
a. disk magnet c. horseshoe magnet them so that they are perpendicular
b. bar magnet d. none of them d. neither forces nor torques act on the wires
115. The charge of body A is half as much as 125. A wire loop is moved parallel to the
body B. Compared to the force on body B, the magnetic field. The induced emf in the loop
force on body A is a. is zero
a. half as much c. four times as much b. depends on the area of the loop
b. twice as much d. the same c. depends on the shape of the loop
116. In an electric field region, an electron d. depends on the magnitude of the field
moves to the right. Which of the following 126. What happens to a charge projected along
statements best describes the electric field? the direction of the magnetic field?
a. the electric field is uniform a. it will travel in a linear path
b. the electric field is non – uniform b. it will travel in a circular path
c. the electric field is directed to the left c. it will come to rest
d. the electric field is directed to the right d. it will move in a helix
127. A 60 – W and a 100 – W light bulbs are 137. A 4.0 Ω resistor is connected to a battery
each connected to a 220 V outlet. Which bulb of emf 20 V and internal resistance of 1.0 Ω.
has more current through it? The potential difference across the resistor is
a. the 60 – W bulb a. 4 V b. 16 V c. 19 V d. 20 V
b. the 100 – W bulb 138. Two identical sized conducting spheres A,
c. the same amount of current flows in both with charge + 3.2 x 10 – 19 C, and B, with
128. An electric heater is rated at 300 W for charge – 6.4 x 10 – 19 C, are allowed to
use in a 220 V circuit. The safety fuse in the touch. During the touching, sphere A
circuit can handle 15 A of current. What is the a. gains three protons
maximum number of heaters that can be b. gains three electrons
safely operated in the circuit? c. loses three protons
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 d. loses three electrons
129. A heater uses 20 A when connected to a 139. When a 100 – W, 240 – V light bulb is
110 V line. If the electric power costs 10 cents operated at 200 V, the current that flows in it
per kilowatt – hour, the cost of running the is
heater for 10 hours is a. 0.35 A b. 0.42 A c. 0.50 A d. 0.58 A
a. $0.22 b. $0.55 c. $2.20 d. $5.50 140. An electroscope is a device that can be
130. As more lamps are put into a parallel used to detect electric charges. Consider an
circuit, the overall current in the circuit electroscope that is initially uncharged.
a. increases Suppose that it is then charged by conduction
b. decreases c. remains the same using a charged glass rod. When a charged
131. Two lamps, one with a thick filament and object is brought close to the metal knob, the
one with a thin filament, are connected in leaves of the electroscope diverged more.
series. The voltage is greater in the lamp with What is the charge of the object?
the a. positive
a. thick filament b. negative
b. thin filament c. stays the same c. neutral
132. The same potential difference is applied to d. not enough information is given
a 30 W and a 60 W light bulbs. Which of the 141. A 12 V potential difference is applied
following statements is true? across a parallel combination of four 6 Ω
a. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current resistors. The total current in the circuit is
ands has the higher resistance a. 0.5 A b. 2 A c. 8 A d. 18 A
b. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current, 142. What new concept does Maxwell’s general
but the 60 W bulb has the higher form of Ampere’s Law include?
resistance a. a magnetic field could be attributed to a
c. the 30 W bulb has the higher resistance, changing electric field
but the 60 W bulb carries the greater
b. an electric field can be attributed to a
current
changing magnetic field
d. the 60 W bulb carries the greater current
c. a magnetic field can be attributed to the
and has the higher resistance
motion of charges
133. If the length of a wire is doubled and its
d. an electric field can be attributed to a
cross – sectional area is also doubled, what
charge distribution
effect will this give to the resistance of the
143. In a drawing of magnetic field lines, the
wire?
stronger the field is,
a. doubled
b. halved c. remains the same a. the closer together the file lines are
134. Two particles held near each other are b. the farther apart the field lines are
released. As they move, the acceleration of c. the more nearly parallel the field lines are
each decreases. Therefore, the particles d. the more divergent the field lines are
a. have opposite charges 144. Electric power is defined as
b. are electrical neutral a. current time voltage
c. have the same charge b. current divided by voltage
d. not enough information is given c. voltage divided by current
135. The potential energy of a certain system of d. resistance times voltage
two charges increases as the charges are 145. The magnetic field lines around a long,
moved farther apart. What does this tell us straight current – carrying conductor are in
about the signs of the charges? the form of
a. straight lines parallel to the current
a. both charges are positive
b. straight lines that radiate perpendicularly
b. both charges are negative
from the current – carrying wire, like the
c. one is positive and the other is negative
spokes of a wheel
d. not enough information is given
c. concentric circles centered on the current
136. A conductor is charged by induction with
– carrying wire
grounding using a charged plastic rod. Which
d. concentric helixes whose axis is the
of the following statements is true about the
current – carrying wire
conductor after the charging process?
146. All magnetic field originate in
a. the conductor will be polarized
a. iron atoms
b. the conductor remains uncharged b. permanent magnets
c. the conductor becomes positively charged
c. magnetic domain
d. the conductor becomes negatively charged
d. moving electric charges the faster – moving air molecules in the warm
147. A permanent magnet does not exert a air bump into each other more often and
force on therefore
a. an unmagnetized iron bar a. can transmit wave in less time
b. a magnetized iron bar b. increases the temperature of the
c. a stationary electric charge molecules
d. a moving electric charge c. create regions of compression and
148. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of rarefaction
conservation of d. passes the energy of the sound in a longer
a. charge c. momentum period
b. energy d. none of them 158. What states that light always takes a
149. The magnetic flux through a wire loop path that requires the least time as it moves
changes by ΔφB in a time Δt. The change in from one point to another?
the flux is proportional to a. Snell’s law c. Huygen’s principle
a. the current in the wire b. Fermat’s principle d. none of them
b. the resistance of the wire 159. When sunlight falls on bubbles, the band
c. the net change that flows across any cross of colors seen is due to
section of the wire a. dispersion c. interference
d. the potential difference between any two b. reflection d. scattering
fixed points in the wire 160. The sun appears to be more reddish at
sunset than at noon. Which of the following
WAVES AND OPTICS light phenomena is responsible for this?
a. dispersion c. interference
150. Which property of light produces bright
b. reflection d. scattering
and dark bands on a screen after light from a
161. Diffraction of light means
source passes through two very narrow slits
a. light is a transverse wave
that are near each other?
b. light is reflected from a film
a. dispersion c. refraction
c. light bends as it passes through a small
b. interference d. polarization opening
151. Refraction explains d. light bends as it enters a different medium
a. how periscope works 162. Interference of waves occurs when
b. how images are formed by mirrors a. two or more waves combine
c. why a pool appears shallower than it b. they bend around corners or opening
actually is c. they slow down as they pass another
d. why some images formed by a mirror are medium
virtual d. all of the above
152. A person standing waist deep in a 164. An echo is produced by
swimming pool appears to have short legs a. reflection of sound
because o b. superposition of beats
a. reflection c. diffraction c. refraction of sound
b. refraction d. interference d. diffraction of sound
153. After a rainstorm, a rainbow may appear 165. A piece of charcoal appears black when
in they sky. Which of the following statements viewed in sunlight because
explains this observation? a. it absorbs all the light that fall on it
a. raindrops act as prism separating sunlight b. it disperses all the light that falls on it
into different colors c. it reflects all the light that falls on it
b. the white clouds are actually prisms d. it transmits all the light that fall on it
composed of different colors 166. Radio waves, infrared waves, ultraviolet
c. the colors of the rainbow come from the waves and gamma rays are arranged in the
raindrops in the atmosphere order of increasing frequency in the
d. when sunlight is reflected by the ground electromagnetic spectrum. How will the
towards the clouds, it separates into waves be listed in the order of increasing
different colors wavelength?
154. The image in a plane mirror is a. radio, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma
a. erect but reversed b. gamma, ultraviolet, infrared, radio
b. erect but not reversed c. radio, gamma, ultraviolet, infrared
c. inverted but reversed d. infrared, radio, gamma, ultraviolet
d. inverted but not reversed 167. When rays parallel to the principal axis of
155. A ray of light is reflected from a mirror. The a concave mirror are reflected, they pass
angle of incidence is 200. The angle between through
the incident ray and the reflected ray is a. any point on the axis
a. 100. b. 200. c. 300. d. 400. b. the center of curvature
156. As the angle of incidence increases, the c. the principal focus
index of refraction of the substance d. the point halfway between the focus and
a. increases the mirror
b. decreases c. remains the same 168. A young lady is 160 cm tall. She wishes
157. Sound travels faster through warm air to buy a mirror large enough so that she can
than cold air. This is to be expected because look at herself from the head to toes at the
same time. What is the shortest mirror that a. real c. smaller than the object
she can use? b. inverted d. larger than the object
a. 40 cm b. 80 cm c. 120 cm d. 160 cm 181. To use a convex lens as a simple
169. Why some sound is louder than others? magnifier, the object must be placed
a. greater amplitude a. between F and the lens
b. longer wavelength b. at F
c. higher frequency c. between F and 2F
d. lower pitch d. beyond 2F
170. Which of the following phenomena best 182. Which of the following best describes the
supports the hypothesis that light is a form of order of decreasing speed of sound in the
transverse wave motion? given media?
a. dispersion c. polarization 1. wood 3. copper
b. reflection d. refraction 2. sea water 4. glass 5. air
171. The visible light portion of the a. 12345 c. 54321
electromagnetic spectrum falls between b. 34125 d. 41325
a. radio waves and microwave 183. The speed within which sound travels
b. x – rays and gamma rays depends on
c. radio waves and infrared rays d a. volume of the medium
d. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays b. weight of the medium
172. What kind of mirror is used in automobile c. mass of the medium
and trucks to give the driver a wider area and d. elasticity and density of the medium
smaller image of the traffic behind him? 184. As light wave passes from a medium
a. convex mirror c. plane mirror whose index of refraction is 1.5 into a
b. concave mirror d. any of these medium whose index of refraction is 1.2, its
173. The term refraction refers to a. frequency increases
a. bending of light rays when they strike a b. frequency decreases
mirror c. wavelength increases
b. facts that white light is made up of d. wavelength decreases
different colors 185. Which of the following is/ are true?
c. bouncing back of waves when it I. A convex lens will always form a real
encounters an obstacle image.
d. fact the light travels in a straight line in a II. A diverging lens can never form a real
uniform medium image.
174. We can raise the pitch of a guitar by III. The focal length of a diverging lens is
using positive.
a. long and fine string a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III
b. long and thick string 186. A concave mirror served as a casing of
c. short and fine string the bulb of a car’s headlight. Where should
d. short and thick string the bulb be located to produce a parallel
175. When you are looking on a fish under beam of reflected light
water, in what direction should you aim your a. at the principal focus of the mirror
spear to hit it? b. at the center of curvature of the mirror
a. above the fish c. between the principal focus and the
b. below the fish mirror
c. directly to the fish d. beyond the center of curvature of the
d. either below or above the fish mirror
176. When will a concave mirror produce an 187. What happens when white light strikes a
image larger than the object? black object?
a. d0 > 2f c. d0 = 2f a. Blue light is reflected.
b. d0 < 2f d. for all values of d0 b. Red light is reflected.
177. Which of the following best describes a c. No light is reflected.
real image? d. All of the light is reflected.
a. Real images are erect. 188. A person is nearsighted if he or she
b. Real images are inverted. _______.
c. Real images cannot appear on a screen a. can see far away things very well.
d. Real images are formed by apparent rays b. has eyeballs that are a little too short.
of light.
178. When will a concave mirror produce an c. has eyeballs that are a little too long.
erect image? d. sees nearby objects as blurry.
a. d0 > f b. d0 < f c. d0 = f d. f < d0 < 2f 189. Farsightedness can usually be corrected
179. A nearsighted person needs a concave using _______.
lens. This lens makes the image fall a. convex mirrors. c. convex lenses.
a. beyond the retina of the eye b. concave mirrors. d. concave lenses.
b. before the retina of the eye 190. An object is 0.080 m tall is placed 0.20 m
c. on the retina of the eye in front of a convex lens. If the distance of
d. on the eyeball the image to the lens is 0.40 m, how tall is
180. The image formed by a diverging lens is the image?
always a. 0.010 m c. 0.08 m
b. 0.040 m d. 0.16 m c. greater than 35.0 degrees
191. Materials are classified according to d. total internal \reflection will not occur
transmission of light. A material that reflects
and absorbs any light that strikes it is
_______. TEST ITEMS IN EARTH SCIENCE
a. concave c. translucent
b. opaque d. transparent 1. In majority of stars, the most common
element is
192. If you look at the pool of still water your
face is clearly seen. Which of the following a. oxygen c. hydrogen
b. helium d. argon
best explains this?
a. scattering of white in different directions 2. The color of the hottest star is
a. orange c. yellow
b. regular reflection of light by the surface
of still water b. red d. blue
3. Black holes are difficult to locate because they
c. irregular reflection of light by the surface
of still water a. move very quickly
b. do not give off light
d. light is reflected from the surface of still
water in different directions c. have very low gravity
d. are far away from any stars
193. What occurs when parallel rays of light
hit a rough or bumpy surface? 4. Which idea is not part of Kepler’s Law of
Planetary Motion?
a. Diffuse reflection
b. Diffraction a. The planets move in elliptical orbits
b. The planets rotate on their axes at various
c. Regular reflection
d. Refraction rates
c. The squares of the periods of revolution of
194. When the surface of a mirror curves
inward, like the inside of a bowl, it is called a a planet are proportional to the cubes of
their average distances from the sun.
a. concave mirror. c. diffuse mirror.
b. convex mirror. d. plane mirror. d. None of the above
5. What do you call the point in the orbit of a
195. Negative magnification indicates an
image which is planet where it is farthest from the sun?
a. apogee c. aphelion
a. inverted c. erect
b. perigee d. perihelion
b. upright d. none of them
6. What is the hottest planet in the solar
196. A boy walks towards a large plane mirror
system?
at a speed of 50 cm/s. At what rate does he
a. Mercury c. Earth
approach his image?
b. Venus d. Mars
a. 25 cm/s c. 75 cm/s 7. What is the consequence of the inclination of
b. 50 cm/s d. 100 cm/s the earth’s axis of rotation?
197. An unpolarized beam of transverse a. weather c. global warming
waves is one whose vibrations b. seasons d. day and night
a. occur in all directions 8. In which layer of the atmosphere is the
b. are confined to a single plane ultraviolet radiation trapped?
c. occur in all directions perpendicular to a. troposphere c. stratosphere
their direction of motion b. mesosphere d. thermosphere
d. none of them. 9. At a point just north the Arctic Circle there are
198. Consider the four pairs of sunglasses below. 24 hours of darkness at the time when the
Which pair of glasses is capable of sun is directly overhead at the
eliminating the glare resulting from sunlight a. South Pole c. Tropic Of Capricorn
reflecting off the calm waters of a lake? b. Equator d. Tropic of Cancer
10. What is the biggest natural satellite in the
Solar System?
a. Ganymede c. Europa
b. Callisto d. Io
11. In the water cycle, which process is
a b c d responsible for getting water into the
. . . . atmosphere?
198. A ray of light is incident on a plane a. condensation c. sublimation
surface separating two transparent b. precipitation d. evaporation
substances of refractive indices 1.70 and
1.50. The angle of incidence is 30 degrees 12. What happens when air is heated?
and the ray originates in the medium of a. It expands and rises.
higher index of refraction. The angle of b. It expands and sinks.
refraction is c. It contracts and rises.
a. 34.5 degrees c. 79.0 degrees d. It contracts and sinks.
b. 26.2 degrees d. 45.0 degrees 13. What do you call the phenomenon wherein
199. From the previous number, total internal there is a marked increase in the earth’s
reflection will occur when the angle of surface temperature associated with the
incidence is radiation being trapped by its atmosphere?
a. less than 61.90 degrees a. Global warming c. El Niño
b. greater than 61.90 degrees b. Greenhouse Effect d. La Niña
14. The type of galaxy to which our own galaxy 29. What do you call the stony conical projections
belongs is called a(n) that hang from the roof of a cave?
a. spiral galaxy c. irregular galaxy a. stalactite c. column
b. elliptical galaxy d. barred galaxy b. stalagmite d. none of the above
15. On which planet can the greatest volcano in 30. Two air masses have the same humidity.
the Solar System be found? Which of the following can also be said about
a. Saturn c. Mars them?
b. Jupiter d. Uranus a. they have the same temperature
16. Which of the following statements is true b. they have the same amount of water
about a land breeze? vapor
a. It occurs during daytime. c. both have rain clouds
b. It occurs because a land heats up faster. d. none of them
c. It is a movement of air from the land to 31. In which rock layer are remains of aquatic
the sea. organisms commonly found?
d. None of the above. a. igneous c. sedimentary
17. What do you call the process by which rock b. metamorphic d. any of them
breaks into pieces? 32. Which may be omitted from a list of processes
a. erosion c. lithification that directly bring about changes in rocks?
b. weathering d. deposition a. erosion
18. In the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day b. weathering
occurs on the c. compacting of rock fragments
a. winter solstice d. subjecting rock to pressure, heat, and
b. summer solstice chemical action
c. vernal equinox 33. Why does air temperature usually decrease
d. autumnal equinox towards the poles?
19. What planet is known for its top – like a. there is plenty of ice near the poles
motion? b. air generally moves towards the equator
a. Jupiter c. Uranus c. cold air near the poles prevents heating of
b. Saturn d. Neptune the land
20. Where is air pressure greatest? d. areas near the poles receive less solar
a. troposphere c. mesosphere energy per unit area
b. stratosphere d. thermosphere 34. Good weather usually prevails in a high-
21. What happens to a given mass of fluid when pressure area. This is because the descending
heat flows into it? air (which characterizes high – pressure area)
a. It becomes denser. a. Cools and reduces its capacity to hold
b. It becomes less dense. water vapor.
c. It becomes colder. b. Warms and reduces its capacity to hold
d. It becomes heavier. water vapor.
22. A lunar eclipse can happen only when the c. Cools and increases its capacity to hold
moon’s phase is water vapor.
a. new c. gibbous d. Warms and increases its capacity to hold
b. full d. crescent water vapor.
23. The name for a chunk of rock, as it travels 35. Nights are cooler when the sky is clear than
from space to the earth’s surface when it is overcast. Why is this so?
a. meteoroid, meteor, meteorite a. the sun is hidden from us at night
b. meteor, meteoroid, meteorite b. cooler air can hold less water vapor
c. meteoroid, meteorite, meteor c. rain falls when water vapor condenses
d. meteor, meteorite, meteoroid above freezing point
24. What type of rock is formed due to extreme d. heat from the lower atmosphere easily
temperature and pressure? escapes when there is no cloud cover
a. Sedimentary c. igneous 36. Which of the following conditions regarding
b. metamorphic d. all of them the positions of the earth, moon and the sun
25. Where can the asteroid belt be found? could possibly result to a solar eclipse?
a. between Earth and Mars a. the sun is between the earth and the
b. between Mars and Jupiter moon
c. between Jupiter and Saturn b. the moon is between the sun and the
d. between Venus and Earth earth
26. Viewed from earth, what is the brightest star c. the earth is between the sun and the
in the evening sky? moon
a. Sirius c. Proxima Centauri d. the earth, moon, and sun are at right
b. Betelgeuse d. Rigel angles to each other
27. What do you call the slow movement of the 37. Mars is a planet named after the Roman god
earth’s axis with a period of 26,000 years? of war Ares. What are the two natural
a. rotation c. precession satellites of Mars?
b. revolution d. none of the above a. Phobos and Deimos
28. What do you call the underground where an b. Ganymede and Callisto
earthquake starts? c. Titan and Triton
a. epicenter c. fault d. Europa and Io
b. focus d. fissure
38. The planet named after the Roman goddess of d. mountainside highway construction causes
beauty. It is also known as the morning and a landslide
the evening star although it is not a star. 50. Which would most likely occur during the
a. Mercury c. Mars formation of igneous rock?
b. Venus d. Jupiter a. solidification of molten materials
39. In summer, we see the sun rise early and set b. recrystallization of unmelted material
late, why? c. compression and cementation of
a. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun sediments
b. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun d. evaporation and precipitation of dissolved
c. the tilt is changing in amount sediments
d. the axis is not tilted 51. Why do mountain climbers use oxygen
40. It is the deepest of the world’s oceans with a equipment at the top of high mountains?
depth of about 14, 000 km. a. there is a hole in the ozone layer
a. Atlantic Ocean c. Indian Ocean b. there is less oxygen in the air at great
b. Pacific Ocean d. Arctic Ocean heights
41. The vibration of the earths surface due to the c. there is little nitrogen in the air at great
release of stored energy when the deformed heights
rock ruptures or returns to its original size and d. there is no air at the top of very high
shape. mountains
a. earthquake c. faulting 52. Why do people feel warmer just before it
b. tsunami d. tidal wave rains?
42. Of the following changes that happen on the a. heat released by the condensation of
earth’s surface, which is not natural? water vapor
a. Weathering c. deposition b. the clouds prevent heat from escaping
b. erosion d. quarrying from earth
43. A moon that rotates in an opposite direction c. the increased relative humidity makes
from its planets rotation them feel warmer
a. Ganymede c. Triton d. the warming is due to the heat absorbed
b. Titan d. Europa by the evaporation of water
44. The water sphere of the earth is known as 53. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer
a. Lithosphere c. atmosphere temperature near the earth’s surface?
b. hydrosphere d. biosphere a. clouds trap infrared radiation
45. How are latitude and longitude lines drawn? b. soil absorbs incoming radiation
a. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude c. ozone traps ultraviolet radiation
lines meet at the poles. d. carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation
b. Latitude lines are parallel and longitude 54. Which of the following factors contribute to
lines meet at the equator. “greenhouse effect”
c. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude a. destruction of the forests
lines meet at the poles. b. use of carbon dioxide by land plants
d. Longitude lines are parallel and latitude c. depletion of minerals in the soil by
lines meet at the equator. overfarming
46. In which group are the parts listed from the d. use of solar glass panels to capture radiant
oldest to the youngest? energy
a. solar system, Milky Way galaxy, universe 55. Which of the following gases has the greatest
b. Milky Way galaxy, solar system, universe percentage in the earth’s atmosphere?
c. universe, solar system, Milky Way galaxy a. oxygen c. nitrogen
d. universe, Milky Way galaxy, solar system b. argon d. carbon dioxide
47. Which three planets are known as terrestrial 56. A certain rock sample is found to have visible
planets because of their high density and layering. This rock is most probably
rocky composition? a. metamorphic c. extrusive igneous
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars b. sedimentary d. intrusive igneous
b. Venus, Neptune, and Pluto 57. Which of the following is not a mineral?
c. Jupiter, Saturn Uranus a. pyrite c. quartz
d. Uranus, Neptune, Pluto b. pearl d. halite
48. What is the most practical way to control 58. Rocks undergo mechanical weathering. Which
pollution? of the following shows this?
a. decreasing the population a. acid dissolves rock
b. more government control of industry b. formation of caverns
c. careful planning of environmental usage c. water between particles in rock freezes
d. slowing the rate of technological growth d. iron in rocks combine with oxygen
49. Humans can cause rapid changes in the 59. What is the correct sequence of the processes
environment, sometimes producing involved in the formation of sedimentary
catastrophic events. Which statement below is rocks?
the best example of this concept? a. weathering, transportation, cementation,
a. lightning causes forest fire erosion
b. shifting crustal plates cause an earthquake b. erosion, transportation, cementation,
c. changing seasonal winds cause flooding in weathering
an area
c. weathering, erosion, transportation, 69. The tectonic plates are believed to be moving
cementation over partially melted rocks. In what part of
d. erosion, weathering, transportation, the earth are the partially melted rocks found?
cementation a. hydrosphere c. lithosphere
60. You found an unknown mineral and to be able b. atmosphere d. asthenosphere
to identify it, one of the tests your teacher did 70. Which term best describes what clouds are
was to determine its weight, then, compare made of?
the weight of an equal volume of water. What a. smoke c. water droplets
property of the mineral was your teacher b. water vapor d. condensation nuclei
trying to determine? 71. Seawater is composed mostly of which of the
a. hardness c. specific gravity following minerals?
b. luster d. streak a. sodium chloride
61. Arranged from the top to the bottom, which is b. magnesium chloride
the correct arrangement of the layers of the c. calcium sulfate
earth? d. magnesium sulfate
a. outer core, mantle, crust, inner core 72. A fishpond which is composed of biotic and
b. outer core, mantle, inner core, crust abiotic factors is an example of an ecosystem.
c. crust, mantle, outer core, inner core How do biotic factors differ from abiotic
d. crust, mantle, inner core, outer core factors?
62. Which of the following statements in a. biotic factors are the vegetation while all
seismology is correct? the organisms are considered the abiotic
a. the focus and the epicenter of an factors
earthquake are the same b. biotic factors are non – living factors while
b. both describe the exact location of the abiotic factors are the living factors of the
source of an earthquake ecosystem
c. the focus describes the direction of c. biotic factors are the living components of
earthquake wave movement while the ecosystem while abiotic factors are the
epicenter tells where the earthquake non – living components
originated d. biotic factors are the community of
d. the focus is different from the epicenter organism while the abiotic factors are the
because the epicenter is the point on the plants and vegetation within the
surface of the earth directly above the ecosystem
focus 73. Climate is determined by which of the
63. Broken pieces of rocks are removed from the following factors?
parent rock by running water. This process is a. temperature and pressure
called b. precipitation and pressure
a. erosion c. lithification c. temperature and cloud cover
b. weathering d. crystallization d. temperature and precipitation
64. Geologists reconstruct many details of the 74. The number of standard time zones in the
earth’s history from rocks. What particular world is
rock type is used by geologists? a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 6
a. igneous c. metamorphic 75. How long does it take the moon to go through
b. sedimentary d. any of these all of its phases?
65. Rhyolite is a fine grained igneous rock. This a. 24 hours c. 29 ½ days
rock is formed by which of the following b. 27 1/3 days d. 1 year
processes? 76. Which of the following describes the umbra?
a. lithification a. darker than the penumbra
b. cementation b. lighter than the penumbra
c. slow cooling of magma c. the same as the penumbra
d. rapid crystallization of magma d. nine of them
66. A mineralogist rubbed the mineral against a 77. If a solar eclipse occurred 2 weeks ago, what
piece of porcelain and examined the color of would be the phase of the moon today?
the powder left on the porcelain. What a. first quarter c. last quarter
property of the mineral was being tested? b. full d. new
a. hardness c. cleavage
b. streak d. luster 78. When does a lunar eclipse occur?
67. The rate of cooling of magma greatly a. when the moon moves into its own umbra
influences the size of mineral crystals in rocks. b. when the moon moves into the sun’s
If a rock sample was observed to have big umbra
crystals, this rock is probably c. when the moon moves into the earth’s
a. metamorphic c. extrusive igneous rock umbra
b. sedimentary d. intrusive igneous rock d. none of the above
68. Which of the following theories states that in 79. The time it takes the moon to rotate along its
the past, the earth consisted of one land mass axis once is
that broke apart into smaller landmasses? a. 24 hours c. 29 ½ days
a. Continental drift c. Plate tectonics b. 27 1/3 days d. 1 year
b. Seafloor spreading d. Big bang theory 80. If Venus is the twin sister of the Earth, which
planet is considered the twin of Neptune?
a. Jupiter c. Saturn
b. Pluto d. Uranus d. cool air is more dense and settle to lower
81. The time it takes for the precession of the elevation
earth’s axis to complete one turn is 94. Ozone is able to protect the earth from
a. 1 year c. 1000 years harmful amounts of radiation by
b. 100 years d. 26000 years a. reflecting it back to space
82. What is Saturn’s largest satellite called? b. refracting it to a lower altitude
a. Titan b. Rhea c. Triton d. Callisto c. absorbing it and decomposing, then
83. Which of the following statements is true? reforming
a. water gives Neptune its blue cloud color d. all of the above
b. helium gives Neptune its blue cloud color 95. The earth’s atmosphere is composed mainly of
c. methane gives Neptune its blue cloud color a. nitrogen, oxygen, and argon
d. butane gives Neptune its blue cloud color b. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
84. In summer, we see the sunrise early and c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
sunset late. Why is this so? d. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
a. the tilt is changing in amount 96. The greenhouse effect results to warmer
b. the tilt of the axis is towards the sun temperatures near the surface because
c. the tilt of the axis is away from the sun a. clouds trap infrared radiation near the
d. the tilt is either away from nor toward the surface
sun b. some of the energy is re – radiated back
85. The thermonuclear fusion that takes place to the surface
within the interior of the earth involving the c. carbon dioxide molecules do not permit
nuclei of atoms fusing together is due to the radiation to leave
a. extremely high pressure d. carbon dioxide and water vapor both trap
b. pressure of radioactive materials infrared radiation
c. explosion occurring within the sun 97. According to the plate tectonics theory,
d. extremely high temperatures and seafloor spreading takes place at a
extremely high pressures a. subduction zone
86. On the moon, smooth lowland areas are called b. transform boundar
a. maria b. rilles c. highlands d. craters c. divergent boundar
87. A common feature of a giant planet is d. convergent boundary
a. no atmosphere c. a thick atmosphere 98. The presence of an oceanic trench, a chain of
b. one or no moon d. slow rotation volcanic mountains along a continental edge,
88. The source of energy that drives the and deep – seated earthquakes is a
hydrologic cycle is the characteristic of a /an
a. the sun a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
b. the ocean b. ocean – continent plate convergence
c. the earth’s interior c. continent – continent plate convergence
d. latent heat from evaporating water d. none of the above
89. The most abundant chemical compound at the 99. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes
surface of the earth is without seafloor spreading, oceanic trenches,
a. water or volcanoes is most characteristic of a
b. nitrogen gas a. subduction zone
c. silicon dioxide b. transform boundary between plates
d. minerals of iron, magnesium, and silicon c. divergent boundary between plates
90. Groundwater is d. convergent boundary between plate
a. water that soaks into the ground 100. Which of the following does not describe
b. any water beneath the surface of the earth a mineral?
c. water beneath the surface of the earth a. it is a substance
from a saturated zone b. it is naturally occurring
d. all of the above c. it is inorganic
91. What condition means a balance between the d. it can be a solid, liquid, or gas
number of water molecules moving to and 101. The earth’s atmosphere is mostly
from the liquid state? composed of
a. evaporation c. saturation a. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
b. condensation d. none of them b. nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon
92. Without adding or removing any water vapor, c. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
a sample of air experiencing an increase in d. oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor
temperature will have 102. Air moving down a slope is often warm
a. a lower relative humidity because
b. a higher relative humidity a. it has been closer to the sun
c. the same relative humidity b. this occurs only during summertime
d. a changed absolute humidity c. it is compressed as it moves lower
93. Air moving down a mountain slope is often elevations
warm because d. cool air is more dense and settles to lower
a. it has been closer to the sun elevation
b. this occurs only during summertime 103. What condition means a balance between
c. it is compressed as it moves to lower the number of water molecules moving to and
elevation from the liquid state?
a. evaporation c. saturation
b. condensation d. none of them c. divergent boundary
104. Without adding or removing any water d. transform boundary
vapor, a sample of air experiencing an 117. The presence of an oceanic trench, a
increase in temperature will have chain of volcanic mountains along a
a. a higher relative humidity continental edge, and deep – seated
b. a lower relative humidity earthquakes is characteristic of a (an)
c. the same relative humidity a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
d. a changed absolute humidity b. ocean – continent plate convergence
105. Cooling a sample of air results in c. continent – continent plate convergence
a. an increased capacity to hold water vapor d. none of the above are correct
b. a decreased capacity to hold water vapor 118. The presence of an oceanic trench with
c. unchanged capacity to hold water vapor shallow earthquakes and island arcs with deep
d. any of the above can be correct – seated earthquakes is characteristic of a
106. When water vapor in the atmosphere (an)
condenses to liquid water, a. ocean – ocean plate convergence
a. dew falls to the ground b. ocean – continent plate convergence
b. rain or snow falls to the ground c. continent – continent plate convergence
c. a cloud forms d. none of the above are correct
d. all of them are correct 119. The ongoing occurrence of earthquakes
107. The average temperature of a location is without seafloor spreading, oceanic trenches,
made more even by the influence of or volcanoes is most characteristic of a
a. elevation a. subduction zone
b. a large body of water b. divergent boundary between plates
c. dry air c. convergent boundary between plates
d. nearby mountains d. transform boundary between plates
108. The climate of a specific location is 120. What do you call the earth’s motion
determined by around the sun?
a. its latitude a. rotation c. precession
b. how much sunlight it receives b. revolution d. none of these
c. its latitude and nearby mountains and 121. When the moon is between the earth
bodies of water and the sun, what kind of eclipse occurs?
d. all of the above a. solar eclipse
109. Based on its abundance on the earth’s b. lunar eclipse c. none of them
crust, most rocks will contain a mineral 122. The measure of the star’s brightness is
composed of oxygen and the element called its
a. sulfur c. silicon a. intensity c. color index
b. carbon d. iron b. parallax d. magnitude
110. The most common rock in the earth’s 123. Which of the objects listed below is the
crust is largest in size?
a. igneous c. metamorphic a. stars c. planets
b. sedimentary d. none of them b. nebula d. galaxies
111. Which of the following formed from 124. Seasons occur on earth because its axis
previously existing rocks? is tilted. The inclination of the axis is
a. igneous rocks a. 30 b. 12.50 c. 23.50 d. 31.50
b. metamorphic rocks 125. What do you call the darker part of the
c. sedimentary rocks shadow?
d. all of them are correct a. umbra c. sunspot
112. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the b. penumbra d. blind spot
processes of compaction and 126. Compared to the earth’s gravity, the
a. cementation moon’s gravity is
b. pressurization a. ½ as much c. 1/3 as much
c. melting b. ¼ as much d. 1/6 as much
d. heating but not melting
113. Which type of rock probably existed first, 127. Which of the following instruments
starting the rock cycle? determines the atmospheric relative humidity?
a. igneous c. metamorphic a. barometer c. psychrometer
b. sedimentary d. none of them b. anemometer d. sphygmomanometer
114. The oldest rocks are found in (the) 128. Which of the following is a non –
a. oceanic crust renewable energy source?
b. continental crust a. wind energy c. fossil fuel
c. neither, since both are the same age b. solar energy d. geothermal energy
115. The least dense rocks are found in (the) 129. Which of the following is a consequence
a. oceanic crust of deforestation that leads to soil conversion
b. continental crust from loam to sandy?
c. neither, since both are the same density a. sedimentation c. liquefaction
116. According to the plate tectonics theory, b. compaction d. desertification
seafloor spreading takes place at a 130. Which of the following does NOT describe
a. subduction zone a mineral?
b. convergent boundary a. They are inorganic.
b. They are found in nature. 144. The phases of the moon depend on the
c. They can be solid, liquid, or gas. position of the
d. They are made up of an orderly a. moon only c. earth and moon only
arrangement of atoms with a definite b. earth only d. earth, moon, and sun
crystal structure. 145. The planets in the solar system
131. Which of the following statements is true a. can support human life
about earthquake prediction? b. have the same surface temperature
a. Earthquakes could be predicted 100%. c. revolve around the sun
b. We could now determine the probable d. are exactly the same size
sites where earthquake could occur. 146. When it is summer in the northern
c. Seismologists could predict the time and hemisphere, in the southern hemisphere it is
day when an earthquake would occur. a. autumn c. summer
d. There has been no attempt to predict an b. spring d. winter
earthquake. 147. During the summer, the days are
132. Which element is not recycled throughout a. shorter than the nights
an ecosystem by the processes of b. longer than the nights
photosynthesis and respiration? c. the same length as the night
a. carbon c. nitrogen d. none of them
b. oxygen d. hydrogen 148. Which results from the collision of two
133. The greatest source of indoor pollutant is continental plates?
a. CFC c. radon a. mountains c. earthquakes
b. smog d. helium b. folds d. all of them
134. Groundwater that is too close to hot 149. Scientists believe that on of the earth’s
rocks is warmed and flows to the surface as a layers is a liquid. Which is this?
a. magma c. stream a. crust c. outer core
b. hot spring d. well b. mantle d. inner core
135. Which of the following creates deep 150. Which of the following is the most violent
water circulation? of all volcanic eruptions?
a. Wind c. volcanic activity a. Plinian eruption
b. earthquakes d. difference in density b. Vulcanian eruption
136. Which of the following contains the c. Strombolian eruption
greatest volume of water on earth? d. Hawaiian eruption
a. atmosphere c. groundwater
b. glaciers and ice sheets d. oceans TEST ITEMS IN CHEMISTRY
137. What happens to the salinity of ocean
water when the rate of evaporation increases? 1. Which of the following is not a physical
a. it increases c. it remains the same property?
b. it decreases d. it is reduced to zero a. the ductility of a metal
138. What is the warning sign of an b. the hardness of a metal
approaching tsunami? c. the freezing point of a liquid
a. high tide and low tide d. the corrosiveness of an acid
b. flashflood in nearby beaches 2. Which statement describes a chemical
c. coastal residents move to higher ground property?
d. rapid withdrawal of water from beaches a. Hemoglobin molecules have red color
139. Convection in the asthenosphere caused b. Water boils below 1000C on top of a
the breaking of the lithosphere into huge mountain
segments. What are these huge segments c. Fertilizers help increase the agricultural
called? production
a. faults c. continents d. When ice cubes are left on the table, it
b. boulders d. tectonic plate gradually melts.
3. Which is an example of a chemical change
140. How much stronger is an earthquake a. boiling of water
with a Richter magnitude of 6 compared with b. souring of milk
an earthquake with a Richter magnitude of 5? c. melting of butter
a. 10 times c. 100 times d. dissolving salt in water
b. 20 times d. 1000 times 4. Which is an example of a physical change?
141. What type of volcano is formed when a. rusting of iron
fluid magma erupts quietly and flows from a b. ripening of mango
vent to gradually build up a low, broad c. lighting a matchstick
mountain with gentle slopes? d. dissolving sugar in water
a. shield volcano c. cinder cone 5. How will you distinguish between an acid and
b. composite volcano d. stratovolcano a base?
142. Which of the following terms means a. test with litmus paper
Earth – centered? b. compare their density
a. heliocentric c. both of them c. compare their boiling point
b. geocentric d. none of them d. test for the solubility of water
143. Compared to the other stars, the sun is 6. Which of the following is an example of an
a. small c. medium – sized intensive property?
b. large d. incomparable a. density b. mass c. volume d. length
7. What do you call a mixture that scatters light c. electrons and neutrons
passing through it? d. protons only
a. Solution c. suspension 20. The common name of hydrochloric acid is
b. colloid d. all of them muriatic acid. What is the chemical name for
8. Ernest Rutherford is credited for the discovery baking soda?
of the atomic nucleus. What do you call the a. sodium bicarbonate
experiment he conducted that led to the b. sodium hydroxide
nuclear model of the atom? c. sodium carbonate
a. oil – drop experiment d. calcium carbonate
b. alpha – scattering experiment 21. Which of the following has the greatest
c. gold – foil experiment number of nitrogen atoms?
d. both b and c a. NH4NO3 c. (NH4)3PO4
9. Some cough syrup are shaken first before b. HNO3 d/ Ca(NO3)2
they are used. What characterizes these 22. Colloids maybe dispersed in a gas, liquid, or
products? solid. Which of the following colloidal systems
a. solution c. suspension show a liquid dispersed in a gas medium?
b. colloid d. mixture a. clouds c. paint
10. All of the following are characteristics of an b. smoke d. beaten egg white
ionic bond except 23. What is the correct chemical name of P4O10?
a. involves sharing of electrons a. diphosphorus pentoxide
b. stronger than a covalent bond b. tetraphosphorus decoxide
c. the components joined by the bonds are c. phosphorus oxide
ions d. phosphorus oxyacid
d. ions are held by electrostatic forces of 24. Which of the following acid groups is found in
attraction vinegar?
11. Which of the following is true of the element a. nitric acid c. sulfuric acid
35
17X . b. acetic acid d. ascorbic acid
a. element X has 17 neutrons 25. How do solutions differ from compounds?
b. element X has 18 protons a. solutions are heterogeneous mixtures;
c. element x has 17 electrons compounds are homogeneous.
d. element X has 17 neutrons and 18 protons b. solutions vary in composition; compounds
12. Louise wanted to know the nature of have definite composition
carbonated drink. She used a blue litmus c. solutions have definite composition;
paper. She observed that it turned red after compounds vary in composition
ten seconds. What type of compound is it? d. solutions are formed in chem. reactions;
a. acid c. salt compounds combine physically
b. base d. any of them 26. The electron configuration of an atom of
13. When a candle is lighted, it melts. The wax element X in the ground state is
then vaporizes. Finally, it burns. Which is the 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p1. Which of the
correct order of changes that took place? following elements represents this?
a. chemical, physical, physical a. 48Cd b. 35Br c. 31Ga d. 27Co
b. physical, chemical, chemical 27. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are alkali
c. physical, physical, chemical metals belonging to Group 1A. What is the
d. chemical, chemical, chemical valence electron of these elements?
14. A covalent bond is formed when a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
a. electrons are gained by an atom
b. electrons are given up by an atom 28. If two atoms that differ in electronegativity
c. electrons are shared between atoms combine by chemical reaction and sharing of
d. electrons are given up by one atom and electrons, the bond that joins them will be
taken in by another a. ionic bond c. nonpolar covalent
15. Which of the following bonds is polar b. polar covalent d. metallic bond
covalent? 29. What is the correct chemical name of
a. F – F b. Be – Cl c. Na – Cl d. C – O Ca(ClO3)2?
16. What is the molecular of methane (CH4)? a. Calcium chlorate c. Calcium (II) chlorate
a. trigonal planar c. square planar b. Calcium chloride d. Calcium chlorite
b. tetrahedral d. linear 30. Which of the following statements about the
17. All of the following elements will have the atoms of isotopes is true?
tendency to give up electrons to be stable a. they have different number of protons and
except neutrons
a. Aluminum c. Calcium b. they have the same number of protons
b. Chlorine d. Potassium and neutrons
18. A solid was heated, and decomposed into c. they have the same number of proton but
black solid and white smoke. What is the solid different number of neutron
that was heated? d. they have the same number of neutron
a. metal c. mixture but different number of proton
b. element d. compound 31. Who discovered in 1932 the electrically
19. The mass of an atom is attributed to neutral particle called neutron?
a. protons and neutrons a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan
b. protons and electrons b. James Chadwick d. Eugen Goldstein
32. Which of the following represents a mole? 46. During chemical changes or chemical
a. 3.01 x 1023 gold atoms reactions, which particles are gained, lost, or
b. 12.4 x 1023 H2O molecules shared?
c. 27 g aluminum metal a. protons inside the nucleus
d. 44.00 g of CO2 molecules b. neutrons inside the nucleus
33. What gas law states that the absolute c. electrons in the outermost energy level
pressure is inversely proportional to the d. electrons in the innermost energy level
volume of a gas? 47. Hydrogen peroxide has been used as a rocket
a. Boyle’s Law propellant. If the chemical formula of
b. Charle’s Law c. Gay – Lussac’s Law hydrogen peroxide is H2O2, what is its
34. Which of the following statements about empirical formula?
boiling is true? a. H2O b. HO c. H2O2 d. HO2
a. The normal boiling point of water is 1000C 48. Cooper is being used in jewelry making. How
b. Water boils when vapor pressure becomes many atoms are there in 2 moles of copper?
equal to atmospheric pressure a. 12.04 x 1022 c. 1.204 x 1024
23
c. The boiling temperature increases as the b. 1.204 x 10 d. 12.04 x 1024
atmospheric pressure increases. 49. The spoilage of meat is delayed when kept in
d. All of the above. the refrigerator because the cold temperature
35. What would be the chemical formula of the a. keeps the flies insects away
compound formed between Mg and S? b. slows down the action of bacteria
a. MgS b. MgS2 c. Mg2S d. MgS3 c. changes the color and odor of meat
36. The generalized electron configuration of this d. turns the water component to ice
group of elements is [Noble Gas] ns2np5. 50. Who discovered the magnitude of the charge
Identify its group and family. of the electron?
a. Group VII and Family A a. Joseph Thomson c. Robert Millikan
b. Group V and Family A b. James Chadwick d. Eugene Goldstein
c. Group II and Family B 51. Isomers are compounds with the same
d. Group I and Family B a. molecular formula with different structures
37. An atom of non – metallic chlorine has mass b. molecular formula with different atomic
number of 35 and 18 neutrons in the nucleus. masses
The anion derived from the atom has 18 c. atoms, but different molecular formulas
electrons. What is the symbol of the anion? d. structures, but different formulas
a. Cl1+ b. Cl1- c. Cl0 d. Cl2- 52. The hydrocarbons with a double covalent
38. Which of the following is an endothermic carbon – carbon bond are called
process? a. alkanes c. alkynes
a. condensing of steam b. alkenes d. none of them
b. subliming of mothballs 53. According to their definitions, which of the
c. freezing of water following would not occur as unsaturated
d. all of them hydrocarbon?
39. What happens to the volume of an ideal gas if a. alkanes c. alkynes
both the pressure and the volume are b. alkenes d. none of them
doubled? 54. What is the proof of a “wine cooler” that is 5
a. double c. halved % alcohol by volume?
b. quadruple d. remains the same a. 2.5 proof c. 10 proof
40. Which of the following chemical equations is b. 5 proof d. 50 proof
correctly balanced? 55. A solution that is able to resist changes in the
a. 2Zn + 6HCl  ZnCl2 + 3H2 pH when small amounts of an acid or base are
b. 2H2SO4 + 6NaOH  2Na2SO4 + 3H2O added is called a
c. 2Mg + 6H2SO4  2MgSO4 + 3H2 a. neutral solution c. buffer solution
d. 2Al + 6HNO3  2Al(NO3)3 + 3H2 b. saturated solution d. balanced solution
41. Plumbic oxide (PbO2) is a compound used in 56. A substance that ionizes completely into
the lead – acid batteries of automobiles. What hydronium ions is known as a
is the valence number of the lead in the a. strong acid c. strong base
formula? b. weak acid d. weak base
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 57. When a solution of an acid and a base are
42. What is the molar mass in g/mol of Ca(ClO3)2? mixed together,
a. 205 b. 206 c. 207 d. 208 a. a salt and water are formed
43. Carbon disulfide is a nonpolar molecule. Its b. they lose their acid and base properties
central atom is carbon. Using VSEPR, what is c. both are neutralized
its shape? d. all of the above are correct
a. linear c. tetrahedral 58. Salt solutions freeze at a lower temperature
b. trigonal planar d. bent than pure water because
44. Which of the following molecules has a a. more ionic bonds are present
tetrahedral shape? b. salt solutions have higher vapor pressure
a. XeF4 b. BF3 c. AsF5 d. CF4 c. ions get in the way of water molecules
45. Which of the following pairs of elements is trying to form ice
likely to form an ionic compound? d. salt naturally has a lower freezing point
a. I and Cl c. Cl and Cl than water
b. Al and N d. Mg and F
59. Adding sodium chloride to water raises the a. elements on the left end tend to form
boiling point of water because positive ions while those on the right tend
a. the energy of hydration is higher to form negative ions
b. sodium chloride has a higher boiling point b. elements on the left tend to form negative
c. sodium chloride ions occupy space at the ions while those on the right tend to form
water surface positive ions
d. sodium chloride ions have stronger ion – c. elements on opposite ends of the periodic
ion bonds than water table have similar arrangements of
60. Which of the following will conduct an electric electrons
current? d. False. Salts are generally made of
a. pure water elements found on the same side of the
b. a water solution of a covalent compound periodic table.
c. a water solution of an ionic compound 69. Osmosis is the process whereby
d. none of the above a. water flows across a semipermeable
61. According to the activity series for metals, membrane from regions of high to low
adding metallic iron to a solution of aluminum solute concentrations
chloride should result in b. water flows across a semipermeable
a. a solution of iron chloride and metallic membrane from regions of low to high
aluminum solute concentrations
b. a mixed solution of iron and aluminum c. solutes flow across a semipermeable
chloride membrane from regions of high to oow
c. the formation of iron hydroxide with solute concentrations
hydrogen given off d. solutes flow across a semipermeable
d. no metal replacement reaction membrane from regions of low to high
62. What do rusting and combustion have in solute concentrations
common? 70. Calculate the molarity of 4.008g sodium
a. neither involve the reduction of a hydroxide flakes dissolved in 1000 mL water.
substance a. 0.1 M b. 1.0 M c. 4.0 M d. 40 M
b. they are both examples of oxidation 71. Sterling silver contains 93.5% silver. If a
c. they are both impeded by the presence of necklace made of sterling silver weighs 15 g,
water what is the mass of the silver dissolved
d. they are the reverse processes and so contained in the necklace?
they share nothing in common a. 1.6 g b. 6.2 g c. 9.0 g d. 14.0 g
63. Energy is required to break apart a chemical 72. What is the percent by volume of 94 mL of
bond to overcome ethyl alcohol present in 375 mL of beer?
a. gravitational forces of attraction a. 9.4 b. 25 c. 37 d. 40
b. nuclear forces of attraction 73. A yellowish solution extracted from a leaf has
c. electrical forces of attraction a pH of 8. How would you describe the
d. It is not! Energy is released. solution extract?
64. Which type of molecular attraction is a. Acidic c. saturated
considered the strongest? b. basic d. supersaturated
a. Ion – dipole
b. dipole – dipole 74. How do viscosity and surface tension of liquids
c. dipole – induced dipole change as temperature increases?
65. Water is considered a polar compound a. Viscosity decreases with increasing
because temperature. Surface tension increases
a. each molecule consists of fewer than 10 with an increase in temperature.
atoms b. Viscosity increases with increasing
b. it has a strong attraction to magnets temperature. Surface tension decreases
c. one side is slightly negative while the with an increase in temperature.
other side is slightly positive c. Viscosity and surface tension increase with
d. it is found in its frozen state in both arctic increasing temperature.
and Antarctic regions of our planet d. Viscosity and surface tension decrease
66. What type of bonds generally involve with increasing temperature.
nonmetal atoms?
a. covalent bonds For numbers 75 – 77, consider the following
b. ionic bonds c. none of them reaction.
67. The atoms of elements toward the bottom of
any group in the periodic table tend to be The complete combustion of methane, CH4, can
a. smaller because in the increase of the be represented by the equation:
nuclear charge
b. smaller because of the decrease in the CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
probability cloud density
c. larger because of a greater number of 75. How many grams of CO2 are formed from the
occupied shells combustion of 120 g of methane?
d. larger because of the decrease in nuclear a. 43.6 g b. 54.5 c. 264 g d. 330 g
charge 76. How many liters of O2 are needed to produce
68. Salts are made of elements found on opposite 20 L of CO2 at STP?
ends of the periodic table because a. 10 L b. 20 L c. 22.4 L d. 40 L
77. How many grams of water are produced from For numbers 93 – 95, consider the following set
the combustion of 56 L CH4 at STP? of four quantum numbers:
a. 45 g b. 63 g c. 90 g d. 126 g
78. The products of the double replacement n = 4, l = 2, m = +1, s = – ½
reaction between barium nitrate and
hydrochloric acid are 93. The electron which has the given set of
a. BaCl and HNO3 c. BaCl2 and HNO3 quantum numbers occupies sublevel
b. BaCl2 and HNO2 d. BaCl and HNO2 a. s b. p c. d d. f
79. An element undergoes oxidation when it 94. The orbital configuration of the electron is
a. increases in oxidation number a. 4d4 b. 4p3 c. 4d9 d. 4p5
b. decreases in oxidation number 95. The set of four quantum numbers is the PIN of
c. gains electrons the
d. loses protons a. 33rd electron c. 42nd electron
th
80. The reaction of sulfur trioxide with water to b. 40 electron d. 47th electron
form sulfuric acid is an example of 96. What did the alpha – scattering experiment
a. combination reaction reveal?
b. decomposition reaction a. The atom is made up of a very small,
c. single replacement reaction massive, and positively charged nucleus.
d. double replacement reaction b. The atom consists of negative charges
embedded in a sphere of positive charges.
For numbers 81 and 82, consider the following: c. The electrons are negatively charged
particles.
A compound was analyzed to contain 43.6% P d. The protons are in the nucleus.
and 56.4% O. 97. Which of the following is an assumption of
Dalton’s atomic theory?
81. The empirical formula of the compound is a. Atoms of an element have different
a. PO3 b. P2O5 c. PO4 d. P3O7 masses.
82. If the molecular mass of the compound is 284 b. When atoms combine to form compounds,
g/mol, the molecular formula is they do so in ratios of small whole
a. P4O12 b. P44O56 c. P3O12 d. P4O10 numbers
83. Which of these elements has the smallest c. An atom consists of a very small,
atomic radius? positively charged nucleus
a. I b. Na c. Rb d. Cl d. An atom is a sphere of positively charged
84. Which of the following elements is the most material in which the detachable electrons
metallic? are embedded
a. O b. Ca c. Se d. Be 98. Which of these isotopes is used in detecting a
85. Which of the following elements has the malfunction of the thyroid gland?
highest ionization energy? a. Iodine – 131 c. Carbon – 14
a. Li b. Ne c. Kr d. K b. Cobalt – 60 d. Uranium – 235
86. The differentiating electron of chlorine is 99. Which of the following molecules in non polar?
added to a a. NH3 c. CCl4
a. 3p7 b. 7p3 c. 7p5 d. 3p5 b. H2O d. all of them are non polar
87. Which of the following elements belong to the 100. Which is true about ionic compounds?
d – block of the periodic table? a. soluble in water
a. Mg b. Sc c. Al d. Kr b. do not conduct electricity
88. Sublevels are filled up in increasing energies. c. formed by electron sharing
This statement explains the d. have low melting and boiling points
a. Hund’s rule
b. Aufbau principle
c. Pauli’s exclusion principle
d. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
89. The maximum number of electrons that the
third principal energy level can contain is
a. 8 b. 10 c. 18 d. 32 Happy are those who dream dreams and
90. The azimuthal quantum number of the are ready to pay the price to make them
differentiating electron of phosphorus 31P15 is
a. 0 b. – 1 c. +1 d. 2
come true.
91. No two electrons can have the same set of Leon J. Suenes
four quantum numbers. This statement is
known as
a. de Broglie’s principle
b. Pauli’s exclusion principle
c. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
d. Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
92. The maximum number of electrons in the f
sublevel is
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 14

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