Communication Engg

1) Overhead bits are
a. Framing and synchronizing bits

b. Data due to noise
c. Encoded bits
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Framing and synchronizing bits
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
2) ISI may be removed by using
a. Differential coding
b. Manchester coding
c. Polar NRZ
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Differential coding
Explanation:
3) Timing jitter is
a. Change in amplitude
b. Change in frequency
c. Deviation in location of the pulses
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Deviation in location of the pulses
Explanation:
4) Probability density function defines
a. Amplitudes of random noise

b. Density of signal
c. Probability of error
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Amplitudes of random noise
Explanation:
5) Impulse noise is caused due to
a. Switching transients
b. Lightening strikes
c. Power line load switching
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: All of the above
Explanation:
6) In coherent detection of signals,
a. Local carrier is generated

b. Carrier of frequency and phase as same as transmitted carrier is generated
c. The carrier is in synchronization with modulated carrier
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
Explanation:
7) Synchronization of signals is done using
a. Pilot clock
b. Extracting timing information from the received signal
c. Transmitter and receiver connected to master timing source
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
Explanation:
8) In DPSK technique, the technique used to encode bits is
a. AMI
b. Differential code
c. Uni polar RZ format
d. Manchester format
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Differential code
Explanation:
9) The technique that may be used to reduce the side band power is
a. MSK
b. BPSK
c. Gaussian minimum shift keying
d. BFSK
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Gaussian minimum shift keying
Explanation:
10) In MSK, the difference between the higher and lower frequency is
a. Same as the bit rate

b. Half of the bit rate
c. Twice of the bit rate
d. Four time the bit rate
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Half of the bit rate
Explanation:
11) Minimum shift keying is similar to
a. Continuous phase frequency shift keying

b. Binary phase shift keying
c. Binary frequency shift keying
d. QPSK
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Continuous phase frequency shift keying
Explanation:
12) QPSK system uses a phase shift of
a. Π
b. Π/2
c. Π/4
d. 2Π
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Π/2
Explanation:
13) The data rate of QPSK is ___________ of BPSK.
a. Thrice
b. Four times
c. Twice
d. Same
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Twice
Explanation:
14) QPSK is a modulation scheme where each symbol consists of
a. 4 bits
b. 2 bits
c. 1 bits
d. M number of bits, depending upon the requirement
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 2 bits
Explanation:
15) The maximum bandwidth is occupied by
a. ASK
b. BPSK
c. FSK
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: FSK
Explanation:
16) The spectrum of BFSK may be viewed as the sum of
a. Two ASK spectra

b. Two PSK spectra
c. Two FSK spectra
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Two ASK spectra
Explanation:
17) The frequency shifts in the BFSK usually lies in the range
a. 50 to 1000 Hz
b. 100 to 2000 Hz
c. 200 to 500 Hz
d. 500 to 10 Hz
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 50 to 1000 Hz
Explanation:
18) In Binary FSK, mark and space respectively represent
a. 1 and 0
b. 0 and 1
c. 11 and 00
d. 00 and 11
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 1 and 0
Explanation:
19) The bandwidth of BFSK is ______________ than BPSK.
a. Lower
b. Same
c. Higher
d. Not predictable
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Higher
Explanation:
20) The binary waveform used to generate BPSK signal is encoded in
a. Bipolar NRZ format

b. Manchester coding
c. Differential coding
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Bipolar NRZ format
Explanation:
21) The BPSK signal has +V volts and -V volts respectively to represent
a. 1 and 0 logic levels

b. 11 and 00 logic levels
c. 10 and 01 logic levels
d. 00 and 11 logic levels
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 1 and 0 logic levels
Explanation:
22) BPSK system modulates at the rate of
a. 1 bit/ symbol
b. 2 bit/ symbol
c. 4 bit/ symbol
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 1 bit/ symbol
Explanation:
23) In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the binary symbols 1 and 0 are
represented by carrier with phase shift of
a. Π/2
b. Π
c. 2Π
d. 0
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Π
Explanation:
24) The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than that of BPSK.
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Same
d. Not predictable
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Higher
Explanation:
25) Coherent detection of binary ASK signal requires
a. Phase synchronization
b. Timing synchronization
c. Amplitude synchronization
d. Both a and b
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Both a and b
Explanation:
26) ASK modulated signal has the bandwidth
a. Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal

b. Half the bandwidth of baseband signal
c. Double the bandwidth of baseband signal
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal
Explanation:
27) In On-Off keying, the carrier signal is transmitted with signal value '1' and '0'
indicates
a. No carrier
b. Half the carrier amplitude
c. Amplitude of modulating signal
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: No carrier
Explanation:
28) Orthonormal set is a set of all vectors that are
a. Mutually orthonormal and are of unit length

b. Mutually orthonormal and of null length
c. Both a & b
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Mutually orthonormal and are of unit length
Explanation:
29) For two vectors to be orthonormal, the vectors are also said to be orthogonal.
The reverse of the same
a. Is true
b. Is not true
c. Is not predictable
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Is not true
Explanation:
30) The preferred orthogonalization process for its numerical stability is
a. Gram- Schmidt process

b. House holder transformation
c. Optimization
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: House holder transformation
Explanation:
Q1. Modulation is done in …………..

1. Transmitter
2. Radio receiver
3. Between transmitter and radio receiver
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. In a transmitter ……………. oscillator is used
1. Hartley
2. RC phase-shift
3. Wien-bridge
4. Crystal
Answer : 4
Q3. In India, ……………. modulation is used for radio transmission
1. Frequency
2. Amplitude
3. Phase
Answer : 2
Q4. In an AM wave useful power is carrier by ………….
1. Carrier
2. Sidebands
3. Both sidebands and carrier
Answer : 2
Q5. In amplitude modulation, bandwidth is ……………. the audio
signal frequency
1. Thrice
2. Four times
3. Twice
Answer : 3
Q6. In amplitude modulation, the ………… of carrier is varied
according to the strength of the signal.
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
Answer : 1
Q7. Overmodulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is
…………. carrier amplitude
1. Equal to
2. Greater than
3. Less than
Answer : 2
Q8. In an AM wave, the majority of the power is in …………….
1. Lower sideband
2. Upper sideband
3. Carrier
Answer : 3
Q9. At 100% modulation, the power in each sideband is
………………… of that of carrier
1. 50%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 25%
Answer : 4
Q10. Overmodulation results in …………..
1. Weakening of the signal
2. Excessive carrier power
3. Distortion
Answer : 3
Q11. If modulation is 100% then signal amplitude is …………..
carrier amplitude
1. Equal to
2. Greater than
3. Less than
Answer : 1
Q12. As the modulation level is increased, the carrier power
…………..
1. Is increased
2. Remains the same
3. Is decreased
Answer : 2
Q13. Demodulation is done in …………
1. Receiving antenna
2. Transmitter
3. Radio receiver
4. Transmitting antenna
Answer : 3
Q14. A high Q tuned circuit will permit an amplifier to have high
……………
1. Fidelity
2. Frequency range
3. Sensitivity
4. Selectivity
Answer : 4
Q15. In radio transmission, the medium of transmission is
……………..
1. Space
2. An antenna
3. Cable
Answer : 1
Q16. If level of modulation is increased ……………. power is
increased
1. Carrier
2. Sideband
3. Carrier as well as sideband
Answer : 2
Q17. In TV transmission, picture signal is ……………… modulated
1. Frequency
2. Phase
3. Amplitude
Answer : 3
Q18. In a radio receiver, noise is generally developed at ………….
1. IF stage
2. Receiving antenna
3. Audio stage
4. RF stage
Answer : 4
Q19. Man made noise are …………. variations.
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. Both phase and frequency
Answer : 1
Q20. The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio receiver is of
the order of …………….
1. mV
2. µV
3. V
Answer : 2
Q21. Superhertodyne principle refers to
1. Using a large number of amplifier stages
2. Using a push-pull circuit
3. Obtaining lower fixed intermediate frequency
Answer : 3
Q22. If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally
well, it is said to have high …………
1. Sensitivity
2. Selectivity
3. Distortion
4. Fidelity
Answer : 4
Q23. Most of the amplification in a superhetrodyne receiver occurs at
………. stage
1. IF
2. RF amplifier
3. Audio amplifier
4. Detector
Answer : 1
Q24. The letters AVC stand for …………..
1. Audio voltage control
2. Abrupt voltage control
3. Automatic volume control
4. Automatic voltage control
Answer : 3
Q25. The superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity at ……….
stage
1. RF
2. IF
3. audio
4. Before RF
Answer : 2
Q26. In superhetrodyne receiver, the input at mixer stage is ……….
1. IF and RF
2. RF and AF
3. IF and AF
4. RF and local oscillator signal
Answer : 4
Q27. The major advantage of FM over AM is …………..
1. Reception is less noisy
2. Higher carrier frequency
3. Smaller bandwidth
4. Small frequency deviation
Answer : 1
Q28. When the modulating signal controls the frequency of the
carrier, we get……….
1. Phase modulation
2. Amplitude modulation
3. Frequency modulation
4. May be any one of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. Modulation refers to a low-frequency signal controlling the
…………
1. Amplitude of the carrier
2. Frequency of the carrier
3. Phase of the carrier
4. May be any of the above
Answer : 4
Q30. The IF is 455 kHz. If the radio receiver is tuned to 855 kHz, the
local oscillator frequency is ………….
1. 455 kHz
2. 1310 kHz
3. 1500 kHz
4. 1520 kHz
Answer : 2
Q31. If Amin = 40 and Amax = 60, what is the percentage of modulation?
1. 20 %
2. 40 %
3. 50 %
4. 10 %
Answer : 1
Q32. The function of ferrite antenna is to …………….
1. Reduce stray capacitance
2. Stabilise d.c. bias
3. Increase the Q of tuned circuit
4. Reduce noise
Answer : 3
Q33. In a radio receiver, we generally use ………….. oscillator as a
local oscillator
1. Crystal
2. Wien-bridge
3. Phase-shift
4. Hartley
Answer : 4
Q34. A 100 V carrier is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by the
signal. What is the modulation factor?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 5
Answer : 2
Q35. A 50 kW carrier is to be amplitude modulated to a level of 85%.
What is the carrier power after modulation?
1. 50 kW
2. 5 kW
3. 8 kW
4. 25 kW
Answer : 1
Q36. In the above question, what is the power in sidebands?
1. 8 kW
2. 6 kW
3. 06 kW
4. 9 kW
Answer : 3
Q37. In a superhetrodyne receiver, the difference frequency is chosen
as the IF rather than the sum frequency because …………….
1. The difference frequency is closer to oscillator frequency
2. Lower frequencies are easier to amplify
3. Only the difference frequency can be modulated
Answer : 2
Q38. The diode detector in an AM radio receiver is usually found
………….
1. Before the first RF stage
2. After the first RF stage
3. After several stages of amplification
Answer : 3
Q39. In a TRF radio receiver, the RF and detection stages are tuned to
…………
1. Radio frequency
2. IF
3. Audio frequency
Answer : 1
Q40. In TV transmission, sound signal is ………………… modulated
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Phase
Answer : 2
1. Average energy per bit is given by
a) average energy symbol/log2 M
b) average energy symbol * log2 M
c) log2 M/ Average energy symbol
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Average energy per bit is given by average energy symbol divided by log2 M.
2. Which FSK has no phase discontinuity?
a) Continuous FSK
b) Discrete FSK
c) Uniform FSK
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Continuous frequency shift keying has no phase discontinuity between
symbols.
3. FSK reception is
a) Phase Coherent
b) Phase non coherent
c) Phase Coherent & non coherent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reception of FSK can be either phase coherent or phase non coherent.
4. FSK reception uses
a) Correlation receiver
b) PLL
c) Correlation receiver & PLL
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency shift keying uses correlation receiver and phase locked loop.
5. In non coherent reception _____ is measured.
a) Phase
b) Energy
c) Power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In non coherent reception of FSK, energy in each frequency is measured.
6. Every frequency has ____ orthogonal functions.
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Every frequency has two orthogonal functions – sine and cosine.
7. If we correlate the received signal with any one of the two orthogonal function, the
obtained inner product will be
a) In phase
b) Quadrature
c) Zero
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If we correlate the received signal with only one of the orthogonal function for
example sine, the inner product obtained will be zero.
8. If we correlate the received signal with both orthogonal function the inner product will be
a) In phase
b) Quadrature
c) In phase and quadrature
d) Unity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If we correlate the received signal with both the orthogonal function, the two
inner products obtained will be in phase and quadrature.
9. Simulation is used to determine
a) Bit error rate
b) Symbol error rate
c) Bit error
d) Symbol error
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A simulation of digital communication system is used to estimate bit error rate.
10. Matched filter is a _____ technique.
a) Modulation
b) Demodulation
c) Modulation & Demodulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Matched filter is a demodulation technique with LTI.
11. Which is called as on-off keying?
a) Amplitude shift keying
b) Uni-polar PAM
c) Amplitude shift keying & Uni-polar PAM
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Amplitude shift keying and uni-polar PAM both schemes are called as on off
keying.
12. QAM uses ______ as the dimensions.
a) In phase
b) Quadrature
c) In phase & Quadrature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: QAM uses in phase and quadrature which is cosine and sine respectively as
the dimensions.
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13. Which has same probability of error?

a) BPSK and QPSK
b) BPSK and ASK
c) BPSK and PAM
d) BPSK and QAM
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: BPSK is similar to bipolar PAM and both have same probability of error.
14. Which system uses QAM?
a) Digital microwave relay
b) Dial up modem
c) Digital microwave relay & Dial up modem
View Answer
Answer: c
MCQ: Synchronous Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) is not efficient

because of
A. higher data rate

B. infinite frames
C. empty slots (ANS)
D. Both A and C
Answer
MCQ: Multiplexing technique that is used when data rate of an input line
is a multiple of others is called
A. multilevel multiplexing (ANS)

B. multiple-slot allocation
C. pulse stuffing
D. Asynchronous TDM
Answer
MCQ: Multiplexing technique, in which each input connection has an

allotment in output even if it is not sending data is
A. Asynchronous TDM
B. Synchronous TDM (ANS)
C. FDM
D. WDM
Answer
MCQ: How many types of multiplexing techniques are
A. one
B. two
C. three (ANS)
D. four
MCQ: In multiplexing, channels are separated by unused strips of

bandwidth guard bands - to prevent
A. Synchronization
B. Overlapping (ANS)
C. random motion of electrons
A.D. Both B and C
B.E. 1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called
_________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing
d) Duplexing
View Answer
C.F. Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one can send multiples signals
through a shared medium at the same time. This helps in using less resources and
thus saving the cost of sending messages.
D.G. 2. Multiplexing is used in _______
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Data switching
d) Packet & Circuit switching
View Answer
E.H. Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by which one can obtain a
physical path between end points. Circuit switching method is also called a
connection oriented network.
F.I. 3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM
View Answer
G.J. Answer: b
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time DIvision Multiplexing is a method used for
digital signals. Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for Frequency DIvision
Multiplexing and Wavelength Division Multiplexing are used for analog signals.
H.K. 4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate than TDM link has _______
slots.
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
View Answer
I.L. Answer: a
Explanation: When it comes to TDM, each and every slots are dedicated to the
source.
J.M. 5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the
transmission rate of circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
View Answer
K.N. Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number os bits in a slot.
L.O. 6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called __________
a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
View Answer
M.P. Answer: c
Explanation: There are instances when connection between two endpoints have
been established, but no communication or transfer of messages occur. This period
of time is called silent period.
N.Q. 7. Multiplexing can provide _________
a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
View Answer
O.R. Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our messages over a shared channel.
This brings up the issue of privacy and efficiency. Fortunately, Multiplexing has high
efficiency and high privacy when implemented.
P.S. advertisement
Q.T. 8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______
the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
View Answer
R.U. Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by the path that is multiplexed
will always be greater than the sum of transmission rates of the single sources.
S.V. 9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
View Answer
T.W. Answer: b
U.X. 1. WDM stands for?
a) Wave division multiplexing
b) Wavelength division multiplexing
c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
d) Wave dependent multiplexing
View Answer
V.Y. Answer: b
Explanation: It stands for Wavelength division multiplexing. It has same general
architecture as FDM. FDM is frequency division multiplexing.
W.Z. 2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
X.AA. Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM technique is based on sampling and
they occupy adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
Y.BB. 3. In this type of multiplexing time slots are preassigned to sources and fixed.
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Z.CC. Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is time division multiplexing. Data rate of medium exceeds data
rate of digital signal to be transmitted.
AA.DD. 4. Controlling the frequency is referred as _________
a) frequency modulation
b) hertz modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
BB.EE. Answer: a
Explanation: It is referred to as frequency modulation. When there is a change in
frequency, it is referred to as frequency modulation.
CC.FF. 5. A technique that can be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data
sources.
a) framing
b) data link control
c) full link control
d) pulse stuffing
View Answer
DD.GG. Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse stuffing is a technique that can be a solution to the problem of
synchronizing data sources. In pulse stuffing, the outgoing data rate is higher than
sum of incoming rates.
EE.HH. 6. For voice, each channel contains a ___ word of digitized data.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 4
View Answer
FF.II. Answer: b
Explanation: In digital carrier systems, for voice each channel contains one word of
digitized data. The data rate is 1.544 Mbps. Five out of six frames have 8 bit PCM
samples.
GG.JJ. 7. Many time slots are wasted in __________
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
HH.KK. Answer: b
Explanation: In Synchronous TDM, many time slots are wasted. Other techniques
can help overcome this problem.
II.LL. 8. A technique that allocates time slots dynamically.
a) TDM
b) WDM
c) Dynamic TDM
d) Statistical TDM
View Answer
JJ.MM. Answer: d
Explanation: Statistical TDM assigns time slots dynamically. They are allocated
based on demand. Multiplexer scans input lines and collects data until the frame is
full.
KK.NN. 9. A system in which two channels are dedicated to transfer data.
a) TV
b) Cable
c) Modem
d) Cable modem
View Answer
LL.OO. Answer: d
Explanation: A cable modem has two dedicated channels from cable TV provider
dedicated to data transfer. One in each direction.
MM.PP. 10. In this technique, there is a link between subscriber and network and a
local loop.
a) SSDL
b) DSDL
c) ASDL
d) TSDL
View Answer
NN.QQ. Answer: c
Explanation: In ASDL, there is a link between the subscriber and the network. It uses
currently installed twisted pair cable.
OO.RR. 1. Multiplexing increases the number of communication channels for
transmission.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
PP.SS. Answer: a
Explanation: Multiplexing is the process of simultaneously transmitting two or more
individual signals over a single communication channel, cable or wireless. In effect, it
increases the number of communication channels so that more information can be
transmitted.
QQ.TT. 2. In which of the following systems multiplexing is not necessary?
a) Telemetry
b) TV broadcasting
c) Satellites
d) Continuous wave transmission
View Answer
RR.UU. Answer: d
Explanation: Continuous wave transmission such as morse code, multiplexing is not
necessary since only two voltage levels are present and each bit is sent one by one.
Also, only one information signal is transmitted whereas in telemetry, TV and
satellite communications numerous information is transmitted hence multiplexing is
required.
SS.VV. 3. Time division multiplexing: Digital signal:: Frequency division multiplexing:?
a) Pulse code modulated signal
b) Continuous wave signals
c) Analog signal
d) Pulse position modulated signal
View Answer
TT.WW. Answer: c
Explanation: The two most common types of multiplexing are frequency-division
multiplexing (FDM) and time-division multiplexing (TDM). Two variations of these
basic methods are frequency-division multiple access (FDMA) and time-division
multiple access (TDMA). In general, FDM systems are used for analog information
and TDM systems are used for digital information.
UU.XX. 4. What type of multiplexing is widely used in cellphones?
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Spatial multiplexing
View Answer
VV.YY. Answer: c
Explanation: Another form of multiple accesses is known as code-division multiple
access (CDMA). It is widely used in cell phone systems to allow many cell phone
subscribers to use a common bandwidth at the same time. This system uses special
codes assigned to each user that can be identified. CDMA uses a technique called
spread spectrum to make this type of multiplexing possible.
WW.ZZ. 5. The transmission of multiple signals in a common frequency without
interference is called _______
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Frequency division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Spatial multiplexing
View Answer
XX.AAA. Answer: d
Explanation: Spatial multiplexing is the term used to describe the transmission of
multiple wireless signals on a common frequency in such a way that they do not
interfere with one another. One way of doing this is to use low-power transmissions
so that the signals do not interfere with one another. When very low power is used,
the signals do not travel very far. The transmission distance is a function of the
power level, frequency, and antenna height.
YY.BBB. 6. For frequency division multiplexing who defines the channel bandwidth?
a) FCC
b) ARNIC
c) FAA
d) CCA
View Answer
ZZ.CCC. Answer: a
Explanation: The bandwidths of radio channels vary, and are usually determined by
FCC regulations and the type of radio service involved. Regardless of the type of
channel, a wide bandwidth can be shared for the purpose of transmitting many
signals at the same time.
AAA.DDD. 7. What is the individual carrier frequency of each signal called?
a) Subcarrier
b) Frequency carrier
c) Modulated carrier
d) Coded carrier
View Answer
BBB.EEE. Answer: a
Explanation: Each signal to be transmitted feeds a modulator circuit. The carrier for
each modulator (fc) is on a different frequency. The carrier frequencies are usually
equally spaced from one another over a specific frequency range. These carriers are
referred to as subcarriers.
CCC.FFF. 8. Which circuit does the actual multiplexing process in frequency division
multiplexing?
a) Linear mixer
b) Oscillator
c) RF amplifier
d) Duplexer
View Answer
DDD.GGG. Answer: a
Explanation: The modulator outputs containing the sideband information are added
algebraically in a linear mixer; no modulation or generation of sidebands takes place.
The resulting output signal is a composite of all the modulated subcarriers. This
signal can be used to modulate a radio transmitter or can itself be transmitted over
the single communication channel. Alternatively, the composite signal can become
one input to another multiplexed system.
EEE.HHH. 9. Which of the following device is used to demultiplex the received
signal?
a) Allpass filters
b) Bandpass filters
c) Bandstop filters
d) Differential filters
View Answer
FFF.III. Answer: b
Explanation: A receiver picks up the signal and demodulates it, recovering the
composite signal. This is sent to a group of bandpass filters, each centered on one
of the carrier frequencies. Each filter passes only its channel and rejects all others. A
channel demodulator then recovers each original input signal.
GGG.JJJ. 10. The system which uses FM for the subcarriers is called _____
a) FM II system
b) FM/FM system
c) FM/AM system
d) 2 stage FM system
View Answer
HHH.KKK. Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the individual signals which require multiplexing are
frequency modulated. These signals are then added up by the mixer and the
resulting output signal is again frequency modulated before transmission.
III.LLL. advertisement
JJJ.MMM. 11. A cable TV service uses a single coaxial cable with a bandwidth of 860
MHz to transmit multiple TV signals to subscribers. Each TV signal is 6 MHz wide.
How many channels can be carried?
a) 143
b) 123
c) 100
d) 150
View Answer
KKK.NNN. Answer: a
Explanation: Total channels = 860/6 = 143.33 or 143.
MCQ: Applications of Frequency-Division Multiplexing (FDM) are
A. television broadcasting.
B. AM and FM radio stations
C. cellular telephones
D. All of above (ANS)
Answer
MCQ: Frequency difference between Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

(WDM) and Frequency-Division Multiplexing (FDM) is
A. very high (ANS)

B. very low
C. zero
D. infinity
Answer
MCQ: FDM is an analog multiplexing technique that combines
A. digital signals
B. analog signals (ANS)
C. both a and b
D. None
MCQ: In statistical Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM), a block of data is

usually many bytes while address is just
A. greater bytes than the block of data

B. few bytes (ANS)
C. zero byte
D. infinite bytes
Answer
MCQ: In statistical Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM), only when an

input line has a slot's worth of data to send is given a slot in the
A. input frames
B. output frames (ANS)
C. processing frames
D. statistical frames
Answer
MCQ: Digital signal service is created by TDM through a hierarchy of

digital signals and is implemented by:
A. Radio stations
B. Telephone Companies (ANS)
C. Television Broadcasting companies
D. Internet
Answer
MCQ: TDM is used to combine
A. Analog signals (ANS)

B. digital signals
C. both a and b
D. None
Answer
MCQ: Time-Division multiplexing (TDM) is a digital technique of
A. Encoding
B. Decoding
C. Multiplexing (ANS )
D. Demultiplexing
A.E. 1. Frequency division multiplexing:Frequency slots::time division
multiplexing:?
a) Time slots
b) Coded information
c) Pulsed information
d) Band slots
View Answer
B.F. Answer: a
Explanation: In FDM, multiple signals are transmitted over a single channel, each
signal being allocated a portion of the spectrum within that bandwidth. In time-
division multiplexing (TDM), each signal occupies the entire bandwidth of the
channel. However, each signal is transmitted for only a brief time. In other words,
multiple signals take turns transmitting over the single channel.
C.G. 2. Serial transmission is not possible without time division multiplexing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
D.H. Answer: a
Explanation: In serial transmission, the data is sent via a single cable. When a clock
pulse is applied to the shift register it transmits the information bit by bit in allocated
time slots.
E.I. 3. What device is used to demodulate a time division multiplexed analog wave?
a) High pass filter
b) Low pass filter
c) Band stop filter
d) Attenuator
View Answer
F.J. Answer: b
Explanation: the analog signal is converted to a series of constant-width pulses
whose amplitude follows the shape of the analog signal. The original analog signal is
recovered by passing it through a low-pass filter. In TDM using PAM, a circuit called
a multiplexer (MUX or MPX) samples multiple analog signal sources; the resulting
pulses are interleaved and then transmitted over a single channel.
G.K. 4. Which of the following device was used in early TDM/PAM telemetry
systems?
a) Commuter
b) Linear switch
c) Logic gates
d) DSP
View Answer
H.L. Answer: a
Explanation: Multiplexers in early TDM/PAM telemetry systems used a form of rotary
switch known as a commutator. Multiple switch segments were attached to the
various incoming signals while a high-speed brush rotated by a dc motor rapidly
sampled the signals as it passed over the contacts.
I.M. 5. What is the time allocated for each channel if the number of samples per
frame is 4 and the frame rate is 100frames/sec?
a) 1.2ms
b) 3ms
c) 2.5ms
d) 0.54ms
View Answer
J.N. Answer: c
Explanation: Time period for one frame = 1/100 = 0.01s = 10ms. During that 10-ms
frame period, each of the four channels is sampled once. Each channel is thus
allotted 10/4 = 2.5 ms.
K.O. 6. What is the purpose of one shot multivibrator?
a) Trigger all AND gates at clock frequency
b) Trigger all OR gates at clock frequency
c) Trigger all AND gates at signal frequency
d) Trigger all OR gates at signal frequency
View Answer
L.P. Answer: a
Explanation: The one-shot multivibrator is used to trigger all the decoder AND gates
at the clock frequency. It produces an output pulse whose duration has been set to
the desired sampling interval.
M.Q. 7. The circuit used to regenerate clock pulses from the transmitted PAM
signals is called ____
a) Clock demodulator circuits
b) Timer circuits
c) Clock receiving circuits
d) Clock recovery circuits
View Answer
N.R. Answer: d
Explanation: Instead of using a free-running clock oscillator set to the identical
frequency of the transmitter system clock, the clock for the demultiplexer is derived
from the received PAM signal itself. A circuit called the clock recovery circuits are
typical of those used to generate the demultiplexer clock pulses.
O.S. 8. What are used to reduce or stop synchronization problems while receiving?
a) Clock recovery circuits
b) Demodulators
c) Synchronizer
d) Band pass filter
View Answer
P.T. Answer: a
Explanation: Clock recovery circuits are used to remedy the synchronization problem
encountered in demultiplexing. The clock pulse is derived from the transmitted signal
so that synchronization errors are reduced.
Q.U. 9. In a four channel system, all four signals transmitted contain information.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
R.V. Answer: b
Explanation: After clock pulses of the proper frequency have been obtained, it is
necessary to synchronize the multiplexed channels. This is usually done with a
special synchronizing (sync) pulse applied to one of the input channels at the
transmitter. In the four-channel system discussed previously, only three actual
signals are transmitted. The fourth channel is used to transmit a special pulse whose
characteristics are unique in some way so that it can be easily recognized.
S.W. 10. Which of the following is not an advantage of time division multiplexing?
a) Signal interference is less
b) More flexible
c) Full channel can be used for every signal
d) Fast data transfer
View Answer
T.X. Answer: d
U.Y. 1. The real part of an antenna’s input impedance is due to ________
a) SWR
b) radiated signal
c) reflected signal
d) refracted signal
View Answer
V.Z. Answer: b
Explanation: In antenna impedance, impedance related the voltage and current at
the input of the antenna. The real part of antenna impedance represents power that
is either radiated away or absorbed within the antenna and the imaginary part of
antenna impedance represents power that is stored in the near field of antenna.
W.AA. 2. If power transmitted is 90kW, what is the field at a distance of 45km?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.036
d) 0.01
View Answer
X.BB. Answer: c
Explanation: Electric Field is a region surrounding a charged particle within which a
force is exerted on other charged particles or objects.
Therefore,
Y.CC. 3. What is the other name for half-wave dipole antenna?

a) Helical antenna
b) Isotropic antenna
c) Hertz antenna
d) Maxwell antenna
View Answer
Z.DD. Answer: c
Explanation: The Hertz antenna is also known as half wave dipole antenna. It
consists of two straight collinear conductors of equal length separated by a small
feeding gap.
AA.EE. 4. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half
wave dipole antenna is strongest ________
a) in one direction
b) in two directions
c) depends on the number of elements
d) depends on the shape of antenna
View Answer
BB.FF. Answer: b
Explanation: As the name suggests, half wave dipole is half wavelength long. This
antenna has the shortest resonant length that can be used for a resonant dipole. The
field strength of a horizontally polarized half wave dipole antenna is strongest in two
directions.
CC.GG. 5. A device uses a 8 bit word then the maximum number of words it can
transmit is ________
a) 64
b) 256
c) 1024
d) 512
View Answer
DD.HH. Answer: b
Explanation: Number of words it can transmit is 28 = 256.
EE.II. 6. When an antenna radiates more energy in one direction than in other
directions, it is called ________
a) selectivity
b) directivity
c) active antenna
d) resonance
View Answer
FF.JJ. Answer: b
Explanation: When an antenna radiates more energy in one direction than in other
directions is called directivity. An antenna that radiates equally in all directions has
effectively zero directionality, and the directivity of this type of antenna should be 1
(or 0dB).
GG.KK. 7. What is the full form of ERP?
a) Effective Radiated Power
b) Effective Reflected Power
c) Equivalent Radiated Power
d) Equivalent Reflected Power
View Answer
HH.LL. Answer: a
Explanation: ERP stands for Effective Radiated Power. Effective Radiated Power
(ERP) is always given with respect to a certain direction.
II.MM. 8. “Ground Effect” in antenna caused by ________
a) faulty connection of the feed cable ground
b) fading
c) buildings and other structures on ground
d) radio signals reflecting off the ground
View Answer
JJ.NN. Answer: d
Explanation: Radio signals that are reflecting back from the ground is responsible for
ground effects in antenna.
KK.OO. 9. The polarization of plane waves received from satellite is changed by
________
a) Faraday rotation
b) Gamma rays
c) Helical rotation
d) Distance travelled
View Answer
LL.PP. Answer: a
Explanation: Generally for satellite communication circular polarization is required.
The polarization received by waves from satellite is changed by Faraday rotation.
MM.QQ. 10. What is the input impedance to a lossless antenna, at resonance?
a) infinite
b) 0
c) resistive
d) capacitive
View Answer
NN.RR. Answer: c
OO.SS. 1. Time division multiplexing includes ___________________
a) Wired link
b) Radio link
c) Radio or wire link
View Answer
PP.TT. Answer: c
Explanation: Time division multiplexing includes both radio or wired link according to
application.
QQ.UU. 2. Which of the following data is correct for TDM?
a) Analog data is transmitted
b) Digital data is transmitted
c) Both analog and digital data transmitted
View Answer
RR.VV. Answer: a
Explanation: Using TDM analog data is transmitted.
SS.WW. 3. PAM stands for _______________
a) Pulse Amplitude Modulation
b) Power Amplitude Modulation
c) Pulse Additive Modulation
d) Pulse Amplitude Masking
View Answer
TT.XX. Answer: a
Explanation: Term PAM stands for process Pulse Amplitude Modulation.
UU.YY. 4. Commutators are mechanical switches in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
VV.ZZ. Answer: a
Explanation: Commutators perform an operation of on and off and they function as
mechanical switches.
WW.AAA. 5. Which of the following represents a number of samples per second?
a) Product of frame rate and number of samples per frame
b) Frame rate
c) Ratio of samples per frame and frame rate
View Answer
XX.BBB. Answer: a
Explanation: Number of samples taken per second will be equal to the product of
frame rate and number of samples per frame.
YY.CCC. 6. What will be the general number of samples per frame?
a) 18
b) 30
c) 18 or 30
View Answer
ZZ.DDD. Answer: c
Explanation: Generally a number of samples per frame will be 18 or 30.
AAA.EEE. 7. Maximum rate of commutation will be _________________
a) 800 sample per second
b) 900 sample per second
c) 1200 sample per second
d) 1000 sample per minute
View Answer
BBB.FFF. Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum rate of commutation in TDM will be 900 samples/sec.
CCC.GGG. 8. Amplitude of each pulse of PAM train conveys the amplitude of
particular channel sampled.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
DDD.HHH. Answer: a
Explanation: Amplitude data of particular sampled channel can be obtained from the
amplitude of PAM train.
EEE.III. 9. PTM stand for _________________
a) Pulse train modulation
b) Pulse time modulation
c) Power train modulation
View Answer
FFF.JJJ. Answer: b
Explanation: PTM is the short form of pulse train modulation.
GGG.KKK. 10. Which of the following can be generated from the PDM signal?
a) PPM
b) PTM
c) PAM
d) PFM
View Answer
HHH.LLL. Answer: a
III.MMM. 1) What is the wavelength of Super high frequency

(SHF) especially used in Radar & satellite communication?
NNN. a. 1 m – 10 m
b. 1 cm – 10 cm
c. 10 cm – 1 m
d. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
OOO. ANSWER: 1 cm – 10 cm
PPP. 2) Which among the following is an application of high
frequency?
QQQ. a. SONAR
b. Subsurface communication
c. Radio navigation
d. Facsimile
RRR. ANSWER: Facsimile
SSS. 3) Wavefront is basically a locus of points acquiring
similar _______
TTT. a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Wave equation
UUU. ANSWER: Phase
VVV. 4) In which kind of waveform is the phase velocity
defined?
WWW. a. Sinusoidal
b. Rectangular
c. Square
d. Triangular
XXX. ANSWER: Sinusoidal
YYY. 5) Which among the following is/are not present in free
space?
ZZZ. a. Solid bodies
b. Ionized particles
c. Interference of normal radiation & radio wave propagation
d. All of the above
AAAA. ANSWER: All of the above
BBBB. 6) Power density is basically termed as ________ power
per unit area
CCCC. a. Reflected
b. Refracted
c. Radiated
d. Diffracted
DDDD. ANSWER: Radiated
EEEE. 7) If the path difference of two waves with single source
traveling by different paths to arrive at the same point, is λ/2,
what would be the phase difference between them?
FFFF. a. β x (λ/2)
b. β / (λ/2)
c. β + (λ/2)
d. β – (λ/2)
GGGG. ANSWER: β x (λ/2)
HHHH. 8) Which ionization layer exists during day time & usually
vanishes at night due to highest recombination rate?
IIII. a. D-region
b. Normal E-region
c. Sporadic E-region
d. Appleton region
JJJJ. ANSWER: D-region
KKKK. 9) What is the possible range of height for the occurrence
of sporadic E-region with respect to normal E-region?
LLLL. a. 20 km – 50 km
b. 45 km – 85 km
c. 90 km – 130 km
d. 140 km – 200 km
MMMM. ANSWER: 90 km – 130 km
NNNN. 10) F2 layer of appleton region acts as a significant
reflecting medium for _____ frequency radio waves
OOOO. a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. All of the above
PPPP. ANSWER: High
QQQQ. 11) The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for
deriving the time varying electromagnetic field?
RRRR. a. Electric field intensity
b. Magnetic field intensity
c. Current density
d. Power density
SSSS. ANSWER: Current density
TTTT. 12) According to Webster’s dictionary, what is an
antenna?
UUUU. a. Impedance matching device
b. Sensor of electromagnetic waves
c. Transducer between guided wave & free space wave
d. Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves
VVVV. ANSWER: Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio
waves
WWWW. 13) Under which conditions of charge does the
radiation occur through wire antenna?
XXXX. a. For a charge with no motion
b. For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight & infinite
wire
c. For a charge oscillating in time motion
d. All of the above
YYYY. ANSWER: For a charge oscillating in time motion
ZZZZ. 14) In a non-isotropic directional antenna, which radiating
lobe axis makes an angle of 180° w.r.t. major beam of an
antenna?
AAAAA. a. Minor lobe
b. Side lobe
c. Back lobe
BBBBB. ANSWER: Back lobe
CCCCC. 15) At which angles does the front to back ratio
specify an antenna gain?
DDDDD. a. 0° & 180°
b. 90° & 180°
c. 180° & 270°
d. 180° & 360°
EEEEE. ANSWER: 0° & 180°
FFFFF. 16) Which among the following defines the angular
distance between two points on each side of major lobe especially
when the radiation drops to zero?
GGGGG. a. Half power beam width (HPBW)
b. First null beam width (FNBW)
c. Side lobe level (SLL)
d. Front to back ratio (FBR)
HHHHH. ANSWER: First null beam width (FNBW)
IIIII. 17) If an observation point is closely located to the source,
then the field is termed as ________
JJJJJ. a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field
KKKKK. ANSWER: Induced
LLLLL. 18) Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining
the radiation pattern of the dipole/wire antennas?
MMMMM. a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Frequency
d. Phase
NNNNN. ANSWER: Current
OOOOO. 19) How are the infinitesimal dipoles represented in
terms of antenna length and signal wavelength?
PPPPP. a. l ≤ (λ /50)
b. (λ/50 ) < l ≤ (λ /10)
c. l = λ/2
QQQQQ. ANSWER: l ≤ (λ /50)
RRRRR. 20) In flared transmission line, the radiation
phenomenon increases due to ________ in flaring
SSSSS. a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
TTTTT. ANSWER: Increase
UUUUU. 21) Which pattern is generated due to plotting of
square of amplitude of an electric field?
VVVVV. a. Field Pattern
b. Voltage Pattern
c. Power Pattern
d. All of the above
WWWWW. ANSWER: Power Pattern
XXXXX. 22) In an electrically small loops, the overall length
of the loop is ______ one-tenth of a wavelength.
YYYYY. a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ZZZZZ. ANSWER: Less than
AAAAAA. 23) On which factor/s do/does the radiation field of a
small loop depend?
BBBBBB. a. Shape
b. Area
c. Both a and b
CCCCCC. ANSWER: Area
DDDDDD. 24) From the radiation point of view, small loops are
_________radiators
EEEEEE. a. Poor
b. Good
c. Better
d. Excellent
FFFFFF. ANSWER: Poor
GGGGGG. 25) According to the directivity of a small loop,
which value of ‘θ’ contributes to achieve the maximum value of
radiation intensity (Umax)?
HHHHHH. a. 0°
b. 90°
c. 180°
d. 270°
IIIIII. ANSWER: 90°
JJJJJJ. 26) In which kind of array configuration, the element
locations must deviate or adjust to some nonplaner surface like
an aircraft or missile?
KKKKKK. a. Linear
b. Planer
c. Conformal
d. All of the above
LLLLLL. ANSWER: Conformal
MMMMMM. 27) What is the nature of radiation pattern of an
isotropic antenna?
NNNNNN. a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
OOOOOO. ANSWER: Spherical
PPPPPP. 28) In broadside array, all the elements in the array
should have similar _______excitation along with similar
amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
QQQQQQ. a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
RRRRRR. ANSWER: Phase
SSSSSS. 29) Which among the following is regarded as a
condition of an ordinary endfire array?
TTTTTT. a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
UUUUUU. ANSWER: α = ±βd
VVVVVV. 30) Which mode of propagation is adopted in HF
antennas?
WWWWWW. a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
XXXXXX. ANSWER: Ionospheric
YYYYYY. 31) For which band/s is the space wave propagation
suitable over 30 MHz?
ZZZZZZ. a. VHF
b. SHF
c. UHF
d. All of the above
AAAAAAA. ANSWER: All of the above
BBBBBBB. 32) If the tower antenna is not grounded, which
method of excitation is/are applicable for it?
CCCCCCC. a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
DDDDDDD. ANSWER: Series
EEEEEEE. 33) In ungrounded antennas, if an excitation is
applied directly across the base insulator, then on which factor/s
would the voltage across the insulator depend?
FFFFFFF. a. Power delivered to antenna
b. Power factor of impedance
c. Both a and b
GGGGGGG. ANSWER: Both a and b
HHHHHHH. 34) Which among the following exhibits
perpendicular nature in TEM wave?
IIIIIII. a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Direction of propagation
d. All of the above
JJJJJJJ. ANSWER: All of the above
KKKKKKK. 35) Which equations are regarded as wave equations
in frequency domain for lossless media?
LLLLLLL. a. Maxwell’s
b. Lorentz
c. Helmholtz
d. Poisson’s
MMMMMMM. ANSWER: Helmholtz
NNNNNNN. 36) If the magnetic field component of a plane wave
in a lossless dielectric is H = 50 sin (2π x 106 t – 6x) azmA/m ,
what will be the wave velocity?
OOOOOOO. a. 1.047 x 106 m/s
b. 1.257 x 106 m/s
c. 2.50 x 106 m/s
d. 3 x 106 m/s
PPPPPPP. ANSWER: 1.047 x 106 m/s
QQQQQQQ. 37) In an electrical circuit,which nature of
impedance causes the current & voltages in phase?
RRRRRRR. a. Reactive
b. Resistive
c. Capacitive
d. Inductive
SSSSSSS. ANSWER: Resistive
TTTTTTT. 38) Which type of ground wave travels over the
earth surface by acquiring direct path through air from
transmitting to receiving antennas?
UUUUUUU. a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
VVVVVVV. ANSWER: Space wave
WWWWWWW. 39) After which phenomenon/phenomena do
the waves arrive at the receiving antenna in ionospheric
propagation?
XXXXXXX. a. Reflection or Scattering
b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above
YYYYYYY. ANSWER: Reflection or Scattering
ZZZZZZZ. 40) By which name/s is an ionospheric propagation,
also known as?
AAAAAAAA. a. Sea wave propagation
b. Ground wave propagation
c. Sky wave propagation
d. All of the above
BBBBBBBB. ANSWER: Sky wave propagation
CCCCCCCC. 41) According to Snell’s law in optics, if a ray travels
from dense media to rarer media, what would be its direction
w.r.t the normal?
DDDDDDDD. a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
EEEEEEEE. ANSWER: Away
FFFFFFFF. 42) Which mechanism/s is/are likely to occur in mid-
frequency operation corresponding to ionospheric region?
GGGGGGGG. a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
c. Partial reflection & refraction
HHHHHHHH. ANSWER: Partial reflection & refraction
IIIIIIII. 43) Which among the following plays a primary role in
generation of conduction current in an ionosphere due to
presence of electric field?
JJJJJJJJ. a. Ions
b. Motion of electrons
c. Neutral molecules
KKKKKKKK. ANSWER: Motion of electrons
LLLLLLLL. 44) Which type of wire antennas are also known as
dipoles?
MMMMMMMM. a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
NNNNNNNN. ANSWER: Linear
OOOOOOOO. 45) Which antennas are renowned as patch
antennas especially adopted for space craft applications?
PPPPPPPP. a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
QQQQQQQQ. ANSWER: Microstrip
RRRRRRRR. 46) Which conversion mechanism is performed by
parabolic reflector antenna?
SSSSSSSS. a. Plane to spherical wave
b. Spherical to plane wave
c. Both a and b
TTTTTTTT. ANSWER: Spherical to plane wave
UUUUUUUU. 47) Which antenna radiating region/s has/have
independent nature of angular field distribution over the
distance from the antenna?
VVVVVVVV. a. Reactive near-field region
b. Fresnel region
c. Fraunhofer region
d. All of the above
WWWWWWWW. ANSWER: Fraunhofer region
XXXXXXXX. 48) Sterdian is a measurement unit of
__________
YYYYYYYY. a. Point angle
b. Linear angle
c. Plane angle
d. Solid angle
ZZZZZZZZ. ANSWER: Solid angle
AAAAAAAAA. 49) According to the geometry, how many
sterdians are present in a full sphere?
BBBBBBBBB. a. π/2
b. π
c. 2π
d. 4π
CCCCCCCCC. ANSWER: 4π
DDDDDDDDD. 50) The vector magnetic potential shows the
inverse relationship with its ____
EEEEEEEEE. a. Source
b. Distance of point from the source (R)
c. Both a and b
FFFFFFFFF. ANSWER: Distance of point from the source (R)
GGGGGGGGG. 51) In retarded potentials, what factor of time
delay is generally introduced in A & V equations?
HHHHHHHHH. a. R + c
b. R – c
c. R/c
d. R x c
IIIIIIIII. ANSWER: R/c
JJJJJJJJJ. 52) In the solutions of inhomogeneous vector
potential wave equation, which component exists if the source is
at origin and the points are removed from the source (Jz = 0)?
KKKKKKKKK. a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Both a and b
LLLLLLLLL. ANSWER: Outward
MMMMMMMMM. 53) If a half-wave dipole operates at 300
MHz with λ = 0.5m & D0 = 1.643, what will be its effective area?
NNNNNNNNN. a. 0.032 m2
b. 0.047 m2
c. 0.65 m2
d. 0.99 m2
OOOOOOOOO. ANSWER: 0.032 m2
PPPPPPPPP. 54) Dipole antenna is symmetrical in nature where
the two ends are at equal potentials with respect to _____point
QQQQQQQQQ. a. Initial
b. Eventual
c. Mid
RRRRRRRRR. ANSWER: Mid
SSSSSSSSS. 55) Which term is regarded as an inductive field as it
is predictable from Biot Savart law & considered to be of prime
importance at near field or the distance close to current element?
TTTTTTTTT. a. 1/ r
b. 1/ r2
c. 1/ r3
d. 1/ r4
UUUUUUUUU. ANSWER: 1/ r2
VVVVVVVVV. 56) What is the nature of current distribution
over the small dipoles?
WWWWWWWWW. a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
XXXXXXXXX. ANSWER: Triangular
YYYYYYYYY. 57) For receiving a particular frequency signal,
which tuning component must be used by the loop to form a
resonant circuit for tuning to that frequency?
ZZZZZZZZZ. a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
AAAAAAAAAA. ANSWER: Capacitor
BBBBBBBBBB. 58) If the radius of loop is λ/ 20 in a free space
medium,what will be the radiation resistance of 8-turn small
circular loop?
CCCCCCCCCC. a. 0.7883 Ω
b. 50.45 Ω
c. 123.17 Ω
d. 190.01 Ω
DDDDDDDDDD. ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
EEEEEEEEEE. 59) What is the far-field position of an electric
short dipole?
FFFFFFFFFF. a. Along x-axis
b. Along y-axis
c. Along z-axis
d. Along xy plane
GGGGGGGGGG. ANSWER: Along z-axis
HHHHHHHHHH. 60) What would happen if the rms value of
induced emf in loop acquires an angle θ = 90°?
IIIIIIIIII. a. Wave is incident in direction of plane of the loop with
induced maximum voltage
b. Wave is incident normal to plane of the loop with no induced
voltage
c. Wave is incident in opposite direction of plane of the loop with
minimum voltage
JJJJJJJJJJ. ANSWER: Wave is incident normal to plane of the
loop with no induced voltage
KKKKKKKKKK. 61) If a linear uniform array consists of 9
isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what would be the
directivity of a broadside array in dB?
LLLLLLLLLL. a. 6.53 dB
b. 7.99 dB
c. 8.55 dB
d. 9.02 dB
MMMMMMMMMM. ANSWER: 6.53 dB
NNNNNNNNNN. 62) If the elements of a binomial array are
separated by λ/4, how many shape patterns are generated with
no minor lobes?
OOOOOOOOOO. a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
PPPPPPPPPP. ANSWER: 8
QQQQQQQQQQ. 63) What kind of beamwidth is/are produced
by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe level (SLL)?
RRRRRRRRRR. a. Widest
b. Narrowest
c. Both a and b
SSSSSSSSSS. ANSWER: Narrowest
TTTTTTTTTT. 64) If the length of elements of an array is
greater than λ/2, which will be the operating region of an array?
UUUUUUUUUU. a. Transmission line region
b. Active region
c. Reflective region
d. All of the above
VVVVVVVVVV. ANSWER: Reflective region
WWWWWWWWWW. 65) Which angle of rhombic antenna
represents one half of included angle of two legs of one wire?
XXXXXXXXXX. a. Apex angle
b. Tilt angle
c. Both a and b
YYYYYYYYYY. ANSWER: Tilt angle
ZZZZZZZZZZ. 66) Which among the following is not a
disadvantage of rhombic antenna?
AAAAAAAAAAA. a. Requirement of large space
b. Reduced transmission efficiency
c. Maximum radiated power along main axis
d. Wastage of power in terminating resistor
BBBBBBBBBBB. ANSWER: Maximum radiated power along
main axis
CCCCCCCCCCC. 67) Why are beverage antennas not used as
transmitting antenna?
DDDDDDDDDDD. a. Low radiation resistance
b. Low radiation efficiency
c. Both a and b
EEEEEEEEEEE. ANSWER: Both a and b
FFFFFFFFFFF. 68) Which kind of polarization is provided by
helical antennas?
GGGGGGGGGGG. a. Plane
b. Elliptical
c. Circular
d. All of the above
HHHHHHHHHHH. ANSWER: Circular
IIIIIIIIIII. 69) According to depth of penetration, what is the
percentage proportion of attenuated wave w.r.t its original
value?
JJJJJJJJJJJ. a. 17%
b. 27%
c. 37%
d. 57%
KKKKKKKKKKK. ANSWER: 37%
LLLLLLLLLLL. 70) Linear polarization can be obtained only if
the wave consists of ________
MMMMMMMMMMM. a. Ex
b. Ey
c. Both Ex & Ey & in phase
d. Both Ex & Ey & out of phase
NNNNNNNNNNN. ANSWER: Both Ex & Ey & in phase
OOOOOOOOOOO. 71) When an electromagnetic wave travels
from transmitter to receiver, which factor/s affect/s the
propagation level?
PPPPPPPPPPP. a. Curvature of earth
b. Roughness of earth
c. Magnetic field of earth
d. All of the above
QQQQQQQQQQQ. ANSWER: All of the above
RRRRRRRRRRR. 72) For avoiding ground losses, better is the
surface conductivity, less is the __________
SSSSSSSSSSS. a. Attenuation
b. Phase velocity
c. Propagation constant
d. Tilt angle
TTTTTTTTTTT. ANSWER: Attenuation
UUUUUUUUUUU. 73) On which factors of earth does the
magnitude of tilt angle depend in surface wave?
VVVVVVVVVVV.
A. Permittivity
B. Conductivity
C. Resistivity
D. Reflectivity
WWWWWWWWWWW. a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & D
XXXXXXXXXXX. ANSWER: A & B
YYYYYYYYYYY. 74) What is the direction of varying
orientation of polarized surface wave at the earth surface in a
wave tilt mechanism?
ZZZZZZZZZZZ. a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Diagonal
d. Opposite
AAAAAAAAAAAA. ANSWER: Vertical
BBBBBBBBBBBB. 75) Which layer has the atmospheric
conditions exactly opposite to that of standard atmosphere?
CCCCCCCCCCCC. a. Depression layer
b. Regression layer
c. Inversion layer
d. Invasion layer
DDDDDDDDDDDD. ANSWER: Inversion layer
EEEEEEEEEEEE. 76) If the maximum electron density for F-layer
in ionosphere is 4 x 106 electrons/cm3, then what will be the
critical frequency of EM wave for F-layer?
FFFFFFFFFFFF. a. 4 MHz
b. 9 MHz
c. 18 MHz
d. 25 MHz
GGGGGGGGGGGG. ANSWER: 18 MHz
HHHHHHHHHHHH. 77) According to Secant law, which
frequency is greater than critical frequency by a factor of secθi?
IIIIIIIIIIII. a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. UHF
JJJJJJJJJJJJ. ANSWER: MUF
KKKKKKKKKKKK. 78) How is the effect of selective fading
reduced?
LLLLLLLLLLLL. A. By high carrier reception
B. By low carrier reception
C. By single side band system
D. By double side band system
MMMMMMMMMMMM. a. A & C
b. B & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
NNNNNNNNNNNN. ANSWER: A & C
OOOOOOOOOOOO. 79) In lens antenna, what kind of wave
energy is transformed into plane waves?
PPPPPPPPPPPP. a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Contingent
d. Congruent
QQQQQQQQQQQQ. ANSWER: Divergent
RRRRRRRRRRRR. 80) What is the functioning role of an
antenna in receiving mode?
SSSSSSSSSSSS. a. Radiator
b. Converter
c. Sensor
d. Inverter
TTTTTTTTTTTT. ANSWER: Sensor
UUUUUUUUUUUU. 81) In radio communication link, what is
the shape/nature of waves generated by transmitting antenna?
VVVVVVVVVVVV. a. Spherical
b. Plane
c. Triangular
d. Square
WWWWWWWWWWWW. ANSWER: Spherical
XXXXXXXXXXXX. 82) Which among the following elucidate
the generation of electromagnetic waves?
YYYYYYYYYYYY. A. Ampere’s law
B. Faraday’s law
C. Gauss’s law
D. Kirchoff’s law
ZZZZZZZZZZZZ. a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. B & D
AAAAAAAAAAAAA. ANSWER: A & B
BBBBBBBBBBBBB. 83) If an antenna draws 12 A current and
radiates 4 kW, then what will be its radiation resistance?
CCCCCCCCCCCCC. a. 22.22 ohm
b. 27.77 ohm
c. 33.33 ohm
d. 39.77 ohm
DDDDDDDDDDDDD. ANSWER: 27.77 ohm
EEEEEEEEEEEEE. 84) Under which conditions of two unit
vectors, the polarization loss factor (PLF) is equal to unity?
FFFFFFFFFFFFF. a. Perpendicular
b. Perfectly aligned
c. Angle inclination (Ψp)
d. All of the above
GGGGGGGGGGGGG. ANSWER: Perfectly aligned
HHHHHHHHHHHHH. 85) Which property/ies of antenna is/are
likely to be evidenced in accordance to Reciprocity theorem?
IIIIIIIIIIIII. a. Equality of impedances
b. Equality of directional patterns
c. Equality of effective lengths
d. All of the above
JJJJJJJJJJJJJ. ANSWER: All of the above
KKKKKKKKKKKKK. 86) Self impedance of an antenna is
basically __________
LLLLLLLLLLLLL. a. Its input impedance during the removal of
all other antennas
b. Its impedance by taking into consideration the consequences of
other antennas
c. Both a and b
MMMMMMMMMMMMM. ANSWER: Its input impedance
during the removal of all other antennas
NNNNNNNNNNNNN. 87) In solution evaluation process of
inhomogeneous vector potential wave equation, if points are
completely removed from the source, then by which factor does
the time varying field & static solution differ?
OOOOOOOOOOOOO. a. e-jkr
b. ejkr
c. e-jk/r
d. e(jk + r)
PPPPPPPPPPPPP. ANSWER: e-jkr
QQQQQQQQQQQQQ. 88) The concept of magnetic vector
potential finds its major application in deriving expression of
magnetic field intensity especially for ______
RRRRRRRRRRRRR. a. Real fields
b. Imaginary fields
c. Complex fields
SSSSSSSSSSSSS. ANSWER: Complex fields
TTTTTTTTTTTTT. 89) A dipole carries r.m.s. current of
about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω. What would be
the power radiated by an antenna?
UUUUUUUUUUUUU. a. 90 kW
b. 135 kW
c. 180 kW
d. 200 kW
VVVVVVVVVVVVV. ANSWER: 180 kW
WWWWWWWWWWWWW. 90) What is/are the major
applications of an infinitesimal dipole that contribute/s to its
analysis?
XXXXXXXXXXXXX. a. Field pattern estimation due to any length
of antenna
b. Improvement in radiation resistance by increasing dipole length
c. Both a and b
YYYYYYYYYYYYY. ANSWER: Both a and b
ZZZZZZZZZZZZZ. 91) What is /are the advantages of using
ferrite loops?
AAAAAAAAAAAAAA. A. Increase in Magnetic field intensity
B. Increase in radiation resistance
C. Decrease in Magnetic field intensity
D. Decrease in radiation resistance
BBBBBBBBBBBBBB. a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
CCCCCCCCCCCCCC. ANSWER: A & B
DDDDDDDDDDDDDD. 92) In an electrically large loop, an overall
length of the loop is equal to ______
EEEEEEEEEEEEEE. a. λ/2
b. λ
c. λ/10
d. λ/50
FFFFFFFFFFFFFF. ANSWER: λ
GGGGGGGGGGGGGG. 93) How do the elements of an active
region behave?
HHHHHHHHHHHHHH. a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Resistive
IIIIIIIIIIIIII. ANSWER: Resistive
JJJJJJJJJJJJJJ. 94) By how many times is an input impedance of a
folded dipole at resonance greater than that of an isolated dipole
with same length as one of its sides?
KKKKKKKKKKKKKK. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
LLLLLLLLLLLLLL. ANSWER: 4
MMMMMMMMMMMMMM. 95) Which mode of radiation occurs
in an helical antenna due to smaller dimensions of helix as
compared to a wavelength?
NNNNNNNNNNNNNN. a. Normal
b. Axial
c. Both a and b
OOOOOOOOOOOOOO. ANSWER: Normal
PPPPPPPPPPPPPP. 96) A rectangular horn antenna operating at
4GHz has the wavelength of 0.075m and gain of about 13dBi.
What will be its required capture area?
QQQQQQQQQQQQQQ. a. 0.0149 m2
b. 0.0475 m2
c. 0.5521 m2
d. 0.9732 m2
RRRRRRRRRRRRRR. ANSWER: 0.0149 m2
1) What is the phase variation range for reflection coefficient in the transmission
lines?
a. 0° to 90°
b. 90° to 150°
c. 0° to 180°
d. 90° to 360°
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 0° to 180°
Explanation:
2) Which lossless element is inserted between source and load in addition to an

ideal transformer in order to reduce the effect of reflection loss phenomenon by
image matching?
a. Amplitude shifter
b. Phase shifter
c. Frequency divider
d. Voltage divider
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Phase shifter

Explanation:
3) For a transmission line with propagation constant γ = 0.650 + j 2.55, what will be
the value of phase velocity for 1 kHz frequency?
a. 1.18 x 103 km/sec

b. 1.50 x 103 km/sec
c. 2.46 x 103 km/sec
d. 4.58 x 103 km/sec
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 2.46 x 103 km/sec

Explanation:
4) What would be the depth of penetration for copper at 2 MHz frequency with σ =
5.8 x 107?
a. 46.72 μm
b. 56.90 μm
c. 66.08 μm
d. 76.34 μm
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 46.72 μm
Explanation:
5) Which parameter is much larger than the resistance at radio frequencies in RF

circuits?
a. Inductive reactance
b. Capacitive susceptance
c. Shunt conductance
d. Series admittance
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Inductive reactance

Explanation:
6) Which primary constant of transmission line is exhibits its dependency of value

on the cross-sectional area of conductors?
a. Resistance (R)
b. Inductance (I)
c. Conductance (G)
d. Capacitance (C)
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Resistance (R)

Explanation:
7) If the rate of attenuation is high for good conductors at radio frequency, where
does an input wave get reduced to?
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. Minor proportion of its initial strength value
d. Major proportion of its final strength value
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Minor proportion of its initial strength value

Explanation:
8) By which phenomenon does the energy transmission take place between the
walls of the tube in waveguides?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Reflection
Explanation:
9) Which type of transmission line/s exhibit/s less capacitance in comparison to

underground cables?
a. Open-wire
b. Co-axial cables
c. Waveguides
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Open-wire
Explanation:
10) Which among the following is also regarded as Twin-lead transmission line?
a. Open-wire
b. Underground cable
c. Co-axial cable
d. Waveguide
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Open-wire
Explanation:
. Multimode step index fiber has
a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large numerical
aperture. These parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources such as
LED’s.
2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation
in range of
a) 1.2 to 90 dB km -1at wavelength 0.69μm
b) 3.2 to 30 dB km -1at wavelength 0.59μm
c) 2.6 to 50 dB km -1at wavelength 0.85μm
d) 1.6 to 60 dB km -1at wavelength 0.90μm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range of 2.6 to
50dBkm-1. The wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both within and
between the two overall preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.
3. A multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to 300μm. This
is to facilitate efficient coupling to inherent light sources.
4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of
a) 2 to 30 MHz km
b) 6 to 50 MHz km
c) 10 to 40 MHz km
d) 8 to 40 MHz km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of 6 to 50 MHz km. These fibers
with this bandwidth are best suited for short -haul, limited bandwidth and relatively low-cost
application.
5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode step index
fiber. To reduce fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.
6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are
a) Better than multimode step index fibers.
b) Same as multimode step index fibers.
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor. Performance
characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are better than those of multimode step
index fibers due to index graded and lower attenuation.
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index
fibers but have core diameters
a) Larger than multimode step index fibers.
b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers.
c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers.
d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have smaller core diameter than multimode
step index fibers. A small core diameter helps the fiber gain greater rigidity to resist
bending.
8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of
0.29 have core/cladding diameter of
a) 62.5 μm/125 μm
b) 100μm/140 μm
c) 85 μm/ 125 μm
d) 50 μm/ 125μm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having a core /
cladding diameter of 100μm/ 140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a
wavelength of 0.85 μm and have low cost. They are also used for short distance
application.
9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only. State whether the following
statement is true or false.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to high
bandwidth applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers.
Thus either incoherent or incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.
10. In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is
a) Step index
b) Graded index
c) Step and graded index
d) Coaxial cable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as compared to
step index. This is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-single mode
fibers.
11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining fibers which
make them expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which are complex
but accurate. So, single-mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber
communication.
12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at
least
a) Twice the core diameter
b) Thrice the core diameter
c) Five times the core diameter
d) Ten times the core diameter
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer

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1) Overhead bits are

a. Framing and synchronizing bits

2) ISI may be removed by using

4) Probability density function defines

a. Amplitudes of random noise

5) Impulse noise is caused due to

6) In coherent detection of signals,

a. Local carrier is generated

7) Synchronization of signals is done using

8) In DPSK technique, the technique used to encode bits is

a. Same as the bit rate

11) Minimum shift keying is similar to

a. Continuous phase frequency shift keying

12) QPSK system uses a phase shift of

13) The data rate of QPSK is ___________ of BPSK.

14) QPSK is a modulation scheme where each symbol consists of

15) The maximum bandwidth is occupied by

16) The spectrum of BFSK may be viewed as the sum of

a. Two ASK spectra

18) In Binary FSK, mark and space respectively represent

19) The bandwidth of BFSK is ______________ than BPSK.

20) The binary waveform used to generate BPSK signal is encoded in

a. Bipolar NRZ format

a. 1 and 0 logic levels

24) The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than that of BPSK.

25) Coherent detection of binary ASK signal requires

26) ASK modulated signal has the bandwidth

a. Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal

28) Orthonormal set is a set of all vectors that are

a. Mutually orthonormal and are of unit length

30) The preferred orthogonalization process for its numerical stability is

a. Gram- Schmidt process

Q1. Modulation is done in …………..

13. Which has same probability of error?

MCQ: Synchronous Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) is not efficient

A. higher data rate

A. multilevel multiplexing (ANS)

MCQ: Multiplexing technique, in which each input connection has an

MCQ: How many types of multiplexing techniques are

MCQ: In multiplexing, channels are separated by unused strips of

MCQ: Frequency difference between Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

A. very high (ANS)

MCQ: FDM is an analog multiplexing technique that combines

MCQ: In statistical Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM), a block of data is

A. greater bytes than the block of data

MCQ: In statistical Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM), only when an

MCQ: Digital signal service is created by TDM through a hierarchy of

MCQ: TDM is used to combine

A. Analog signals (ANS)

MCQ: Time-Division multiplexing (TDM) is a digital technique of

Y.CC. 3. What is the other name for half-wave dipole antenna?

III.MMM. 1) What is the wavelength of Super high frequency

2) Which lossless element is inserted between source and load in addition to an

ANSWER: Phase shifter

a. 1.18 x 103 km/sec

ANSWER: 2.46 x 103 km/sec

5) Which parameter is much larger than the resistance at radio frequencies in RF

ANSWER: Inductive reactance

6) Which primary constant of transmission line is exhibits its dependency of value

ANSWER: Resistance (R)

ANSWER: Minor proportion of its initial strength value

9) Which type of transmission line/s exhibit/s less capacitance in comparison to

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