PhysicsMCQ XII PDF

THE STUDENT GUIDE TO PHYSICS: XII
VOLUME II: Entry Test Preparation Guide
S HORT REVIEW TO ALL CHAPTERS , SOLVED NUMERICALS AND MCQ

WITH EXPLANATION
BY
D R . R AM C HAND
P H D(P HYSICS )
Assistant Professor (Physics)
00923332513375, ram_r25@hotmail.com
http://www.facebook.com/ramcraguel
2018
RAM’S OUTLINE SERIES
c 2018
Copyright
C OMPOSED BY D R . R AM C HAND
This manuscript is written in LATEX. The diagrams and images are created in open-source
applications IPE, LatexDraw, Freeplane, VUE and Blender 3D.
The author is a visiting scientist to Aspen Center for Physicist, USA, the University of
Malaya, Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, the International Center for Theoretical Physics (ICTP),
Italy and the Chinese Academy of Sciences, Beijing, China. The author is also a member
of American Association of Physics Teachers (AAPS), USA. The author’s research profile
can be found at his LinkedIn page & Google Scholar page.
ram_r25@hotmail.com, raguelmoon@gmail.com
http://www.facebook.com/ramcraguel
@RamCRaguel
LinkedIn page: www.linkedin.com/in/ram-chand

Research page: https://sites.google.com/site/thecomphys/research-1/Soft–Condensed-Matter-Theory
First printing, June 2018
Contents
11 HEAT ......................................................... 5
12 ELECTROSTATICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
13 CURRENT ELECTRICITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 57
14 MAGNETIC & ELECTROMAGNETISM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 81
15 ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 99
16 EM WAVES & ELECTRONICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 109
17 ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121
18 THE ATOMIC SPECTRA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 143
19 THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 157

20 NUCLEAR RADIATIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 181
Ram’s Outline Series

11. HEAT
11.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Absolute zero: The temperature of −273.16oC or 0K at which molecular motion

vanishes.
Adiabatic process: Any change in which there is no gain or loss of heat. In this
process, all the change in internal energy is in the form of work
done. These processes occur so rapidly that there is not enough
time for the transfer of energy as heat to take place to or from the
system.
Avogadro number: The number of atoms or molecules in a gram molecular weight

(also known as 1 mole) of a substance, it is equal to 6.02 × 1023
particles (atoms or molecules).
Avogadro’s law: Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal
volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules.
Bar: It is a unit of pressure defined as 105 Pascals. It is about equal to

the atmospheric pressure on Earth at sea level.
Boyle’s law: For a given mass of a gas at constant temperature, the volume of
the gas is inversely proportional to the pressure.

6 Chapter 11. HEAT
Calorie: A unit of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of

water through 1oC (now usually defined as 4.1868 joules).
Carnot Engine: It is an ideal engine whose efficiency is greater than real engine
but not equal to 100%. A Carnot heat engine is an engine that
operates on the reversible Carnot cycle. The basic model for this
engine was developed by Nicolas Léonard Sadi Carnot in 1824.
Carnot’s Theorem: The efficiency of all reversible engines operating between the same
two temperatures is the same, and no irreversible engine operating
between these temperatures can have a greater efficiency than this.
Charles’ Law: For a given mass of a gas at constant pressure, the volume is
directly proportional to the temperature.
Clausius’ Statement It is not possible that at the end of a cycle of changes heat has been
of Second Law of transferred from a colder body to a hotter body without producing
Thermodynamics: some other effect.
Closed System: The system which cannot exchange heat or matter with the sur-
roundings.
Coefficient of The increase in length per unit original length per degree rise in
Linear Expansion: temperature. It is denoted by Greek letter α. The SI unit of α is
K −1 .
Coefficient of The increase in area per unit original area per degree rise in tem-
Superficial perature. It is equal to 2α. The SI unit is K −1 .
Expansion:
Coefficient of The increase in volume per unit original volume per degree rise in
Volumetric temperature. It is denoted by Greek letter β = 3α. The SI unit of
Expansion: β is also K −1 .
Efficiency: Efficiency η of an engine is defined as the ratio between useful

heat (heat converted into work) to the total heat supplied to the
engine.
Enthalpy: The total energy of a thermodynamic system can be measured

by using enthalpy. This includes the internal energy (the energy
required to create a system), and the amount of energy required to
make room for it by displacing its environment and establishing
its volume and pressure.

11.1 CHAPTER REVIEW 7
Entropy: Entropy is the measure of a system’s thermal energy per unit

temperature that is unavailable for doing useful work. It is denoted
by ∆S and its SI unit is J/K.
Equation of state: A relation between pressure, volume and temperature for a system
is called its equation of state.
First Law of It states that energy can be converted from one form to another
Thermodynamics: with the interaction of heat, work and internal energy, but it cannot
be created nor destroyed, under any circumstances. It is also
defined as the change in internal energy of a system is equal to
heat added to the system minus work done by the system.
Heat: Heat is form of energy. It is defined as the total kinetic energy

of all molecules in the substance. Heat always flows from higher
temperature to lower temperature It is denoted by Q and the SI
unit is Joule.
Heat Engine: A heat engine is a device for converting heat energy continuously
into a mechanical work. Components of heat engine- (i) source of
heat (ii) Sink (iii) Working substance.
Internal Energy: Sum of the kinetic energy (translation, rotational and vibrational)
and potential energy of all molecules of the substance. It is the
energy of the system which is related to the energy of the micro-
scopic components of the system like atoms and molecules present
in it. It is denoted by U or if there is change in Internal Energy
then it can be shown as ∆U.
Joule: The SI unit of work or energy, equal to the work done by a force of
one newton when its point of application moves one metre in the
direction of action of the force. IJ = 1N.m = 107 erg (in CGS).
Mole: The amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of

atoms, ions, molecules, or any other chemical unit; a mole is
6.02 × 1023 atoms, ions, or other chemical units.
Open System: A system across whose boundaries both mass and heat energy can
pass.
Pascal: A unit of pressure, equal to the pressure resulting from a force of

1 Newton acting uniformly over an area of 1m2 .

8 Chapter 11. HEAT
Second Law of The Second Law of Thermodynamics is about the quality of energy.
Thermodynamics: This can be defined as follow:
• Kelvin’s Statement – It is impossible to take an amount
of heat from a hot reservoir (source) and convert all into
work-done. Some amount of heat must be rejected to a cold
reservoir (sink), because heat flows from higher temperature
(source) to lower temperature (sink). It is also known as
Kelvin–Planck statement (or the heat engine statement).
• Clausius Statement – It is not possible for heat to flow
from a colder body to a warmer body without any work
having been done to accomplish this flow. Energy will
not flow spontaneously from a low temperature object to a
higher temperature object. It is also known as refrigerator
or heat pump statement.
Specific Heat The specific heat (c) is the amount of heat per unit mass required
Capacity: to raise the temperature by one degree Celsius.
Temperature: It is the average translational K.E of all molecules in the substance.

It is denoted by T and SI unit of temperature is K. It is also known
as the measure of hotness or coldness.
Thermal When the two bodies in contact are at the same temperature and
Equilibrium: there is no flow of heat between them, these are said to be in
thermal equilibrium.
Thermal The increase in the size of an object on heating. Thermal expansion

Expansion: in solid may be of type linear (1D), areal/superficial (2D) and
volumetric/cubical. In liquid and gases only volumetric expansion
is observed.
Thermodynamics: The branch of physics that deals with the relations between heat
and other forms of energy.
Thermodynamic A thermodynamic process is said to be taken place, if the thermo-

Process: dynamic variables of the system change with time.
Thermodynamical An assembly of large numbers of particles having same tempera-

System: ture, pressure etc is called thermo dynamical system.
Thermodynamic The variables which determine the thermodynamic behavior of a

Variables: system are called thermodynamic variables.

Types of
• Quasi-static process: A process taking place very slowly
thermodynamic
enough that a uniform pressure and temperature exist
Process:
throughout the system at all times.
• Isothermal process: A process taking place at constant
temperature.
• Adiabatic process: A process where there is no exchange
of heat.
• Isochoric process: A process taking place at constant vol-
ume
• Isobaric process: A process taking place at constant Pres-
sure.
• Cyclic process: Process where the system returns to its
original state.
• Reversible process: It is a process in which the system can
be retraced to its original state by reversing the conditions.
• Irreversible process: It is a process in which the system
cannot be retraced to its original state by reversing the
conditions.
Third Law of The third law states that the entropy of a pure crystal at absolute
Thermodynamics: zero is zero. In any cyclic process the entropy will either increase
or remain the same.
Work: Work is said to be done by system when the system’s volume

increases. In this case work-done is positive. If its volume is
decreased then work is said to be negative. Work is denoted by
∆W .
Zeroth Law of It is the law of thermal equilibrium. If body A is in thermal

Thermodynamics: equilibrium with body B, and B is also in thermal equilibrium
with C, then A is necessarily in thermal equilibrium with C.
RAM’S MIND MAP

10 Chapter 11. HEAT
RAM’S MIND MAP
RAM’S MIND MAP

RAM’S MIND MAP
Conversion of Temperature
temp on one scale − lower fixed point temp on another scale − lower fixed point
=
upper fixed point − lower fixed point upper fixed point − lower fixed point
For example:
C−0 F − 32 K − 273.15 C F − 32 K − 273.15
= = =⇒ = =
100 − 0 212 − 32 373.15 − 273.15 100 180 100

12 Chapter 11. HEAT
USEFUL EQUATIONS
Description EQUATION
5 9
Temperature Scales TC = (TF − 32) , TF = TC + 32 , TK = TC + 273
9 5
Conversion
Linear Expansion ∆l = αl1 ∆T where l1 is original length at initial tem-

perature T1 . The new length l2 at T2 would be
l2 = l1 (1 + α∆T )
Volume Expansion ∆V = βV1 ∆T where β = 3α; also V2 = V1 (1 + 3α∆T )
Boyle’s Law PV = consant, OR P1V1 = P2V2 (at constant temperature)
V1
Charles’s Law V
T = consant, OR T1 = VT22 (at constant pressure)
Ideal Gas Law PV = nRT where R = 8.314J.mol −1 K −1 (Gas Constant)

P1V1 P2V2
=
T1 T2
1
Root Mean Square P = ρ v¯2 , where v¯2 is root mean square ve-
3
Velocity
locity vrms ; P is pressure and ρ is density. Also
r r
3RT 3kT
vrms = = ; where R is gas constant and M
Mm m
is molar mass and k = 1.381 × 10−23 J.K −1 is Boltzmann
constant.
1 ¯2
Temperature 2 mv = 23 kT , where k is Boltzmann constant
∆Q
Heat Capacity c= ∆T , SI unit is J.K −1
∆Q
Specific Heat Capacity C= m∆T , SI unit is J.kg1 K −1
∆Q
Molar Heat Capacity Cm = n∆T , SI unit is J.mol 1 K −1
Cm at constant P and at CP = 52 R; CV = 32 R =⇒ CP −CV = R

constant V

The First Law of ∆U = ∆Q − ∆W

Thermodynamics
Thermodynamic Process W = P∆V = P(V f −Vi )
Q2
Efficiency of Engine ζ = (1 − TT21 )100; ζ = (1 − Q1
)100
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14 Chapter 11. HEAT
Points to Note:
• Heat is defined as "energy in transit", not as "energy possessed by a body";
it is "swapped" between two bodies (or two parts of the same body) and not
"owned" by a single body, as it happens for the internal energy: heat flows and
occurs due to a temperature difference between the systems (hot and cold), or
between the system under study and the environment.
• Average translational K.E. of gas molecules depends only on its temperature
and is independent of its nature.
• The mean free path for air molecules at NTP is 0.01µm. √
• With rise in temperature rms speed of gas molecules increases as: vrms ∝ T .
• With the increase in molecular weight rms speed of gas molecule decreases
as: vrms ∝ √1M .
• vrms ofq gas molecules
q is of order of km.s, eg., at NTP for hydrogen gas:
vrms = 3RT M =
3×8.31×273
2×10−3
= 1.84 × 103 m/s.
• Average translational KE per molecule of a gas is termed as temperature and
given by: < KE >= (3/2)kT ; where k=Boltzmann’s constant.
• Average translational KE per mole of a gas is given by: < KE >= (3/2)RT ;
where R=universal gas√constant.
• Fo a given gas vrms ∝ T , and for different gases vrms ∝ √1M .
• Boltzmann’s constant k = R/N, where R is universal gas constant and N is
Avogadro number.
• An ideal gas is one which has a zero size of molecule and zero force of
interaction between its molecules.
• Real gas behaves more like an ideal gas at higher temperature and lower
pressure, as the potential energy due to intermolecular forces becomes less
significant compared with the particles’ kinetic energy, and the size of the
molecules becomes less significant compared to the empty space between
them. Therefore, at high temperature or low pressure, real gas obeys gas laws.
• Root mean squared speed (vrms ) of molecules is greater than average speed
(< v >) of molecules: vrms >< v >.
• Phase changes are due to potential energy changes.
• Absolute temperature is that temperature at which the root mean square
velocity of the gas molecules becomes zero (which is impossible in real
world).
• A pendulum clock goes slow in summer and fast in winter due to expansion/-
contraction of metallic bar.
• Thermodynamics is a macroscopic science.
• 1st Law of Thermodynamics is the application of Law of Conservation of
Energy.
• 2nd Law of Thermodynamics shows the direction of heat flow.
• A reversible process is one which can be made to "retrace" its path exactly.
• Truly reversible thermal processes would require an infinite amount of time
for completion. Therefore, reversible process are very very slow.
• All real physical processes are irreversible.
• The Carnot cycle is an ideal reversible cyclic process

11.2 PROBLEMS 15
• Efficiency of practical (real) engine is always less than efficiency of the Carnot
engine.
• Efficiency of Carnot is never equal to 100%.
• Entropy is also thermodynamic state variable like, P, V, T and U (internal
energy). Heat and work are not state variables.
• The energy that is not available for work is determined by using entropy.
• Entropy is not a conserved quantity. And entropy can be created but cannot
be destroyed.
• The second law of thermodynamics may be stated in terms of entropy as "It
is not possible to have a process in which the entropy of an isolated system
decreases."
11.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 11.1. (a) The normal body temperature is 98.4o F. What is this temperature on Celsius
scale? (b) At what temperature do the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales coincide?
Data: To find:
(a) Body temperature on o F scale is TF = 98.4o F (a) TC =?
(b) Let TC = TF = T (b) oC =o F =?
Solution: (a) We can find the body temperature of human body on oC by :
5
TC = (TF − 32)
9
We have TF = 98.4o F, Therefore:-
5 5 5 × 66.4 332
TC = (98.4 − 32) = × 66.4 = = = 36.89
9 9 9 9
TC = 36.89oC .Ans
(b) Suppose that "T" is temperature at which TC = TF , then according to temperature conversion
equation:-
5 5
TC = (TF − 32) =⇒ T = (T − 32)
9 9
By cross multiplication: 9T
= 5(T − 32) = 5T − 160
−160
9T − 5T = −160 =⇒ 4T = −160 =⇒ T = = −40
4
Hence the temperature at which both scales will coincide is −40o .
Problem 11.2. A steel rod has a length of exactly 0.2cm at 30oC. What will be its length at 60oC?
Data:
Length lo = 0.2cm = 0.2 × 10−2 m = 2 × 10−3 m To find:
Temperature of the rod T1 = 30oC l =?
T2 = 60oC

16 Chapter 11. HEAT
Solution: Coefficient of linear expansion: α = 11 × 10−6 K −1 . The linear expansion is given by:
l − lo = αlo ∆T
Here ∆T = T2 − T1 = 60o − 30o = 30
Therefore: l = αlo ∆T + lo
l = 11 × 10−6 × 2 × 10−3 × 30 + 2 × 10−3 = 660 × 10−6−3 − 2 × 10−3
l = 660 × 10−9 + 2 × 10−3 = 0.00066 × 10−3 + 2 × 10−3 = 2.00066 × 10−3
l = 0.200066 × 10−2 m =⇒ l = 0.200066cm
Hence the new length of the rod would be 0.200066cm.
Problem 11.3. Find the change in volume of an aluminum sphere of 0.4m radius when it is heated
from 0 to 100oC.
Data:
Radius r = 0.4m To find:
Temperature of the sphere T1 = 0oC Change in volume ∆V =?
T2 = 100oC
Solution: The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is : α = 24 × 10−6 K −1 .
And the coefficient of volumetric expansion is β = 3α = 3 × 24 × 10−6 K −1 = 7.2 × 10−5 K −1 .
The change is temperature is: ∆T = T2 − T1 = 100 − 0 = 100K. The change in volume is given by:
∆V = βV1 ∆T
4 4
Where V1 = πr3 = (3.142)(0.4)3 = 4.2 × 0.064 = 0.268m3
3 3
Therefore: ∆V = 7.2 × 10−5 × 0.268 × 100 = 0.0019m3 =⇒ ∆V = 0.0019m3
Problem 11.4. Calculate the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecule at 800K.
Data: To find:
Temperature T = 800K. Root mean square velocity: vrms =?
Solution: The root mean square velocity vrms of H2 molecule is given by the equation from Kinetic
Theory of Gases:
r
3kT
vrms = . Where k is Boltzmann constant: k = 1.38 × 10−23 Jmol −1 K −1
m
And m is the mass of H molecule: m = 2 × a.m.u = 2 × 1.6667 × 10−27 kg = 3.32 × 10−27 kg.
s r
3 × 1.38 × 10−23 × 800 3312 × 10−23+27 p
∴ vrms = = = 997.6 × 104 = 3158.5m/s
3.32 × 10−27 3.32
vrms = 3158.5m/s
Problem 11.5. (a) Determine the average value of the kinetic energy of the particles of an ideal
gas at 0oC and at 50oC.
(b) What is the kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas at these temperatures?
Data:
(i) T0 = 0oC = 0 + 237 = 273K. (ii) T50 = 50oC = 50 + 273 = 323K.
(a) (i) < K.E >0 =?; (ii) < K.E >50 =?
(b) (i) K.E0 per mole =?; (ii) K.E50 per mole=?

11.2 PROBLEMS 17
Solution: From the derivation of Kinetic Energy equation from Kinetic Molecular Theory for
ideal gases:
3
< K.E >= kT. Where k is Boltzmann constant: k = 1.38 × 10−23 Jmol −1 K −1
2
3 3
(a): (i) < K.E >0 = kT = × 1.38 × 10−23 × 273 = 5.65 × 10−21 J
2 2
< K.E >0 = 5.65 × 10−21 J
3 3
(ii) < K.E >50 = kT = × 1.38 × 10−23 × 323 = 6.68 × 10−21 J
2 2
< K.E >50 = 6.68 × 10−21 J
To find the Kinetic Energy per mole, we use this formula:
3
K.E per mole = K.E per particle × NA = kT NA .
2
Where NA is Avogadro’s number: NA = 6.022 × 1023 particles
But: kNA = R. where R is universal gas constant: R = 8.31J/mol.K
3
K.E per mole = RT
2
3 3
(b): (i) K.E0 = RT = × 8.31 × 273 = 3402.9J/mole
2 2
K.E0 = 3402.9J/mole
3 3
(ii) K.E50 = RT = × 8.31 × 323 = 4026.2J/mole
2 2
K.E50 = 4026.2J/mole
Problem 11.6. A 2kg iron block is taken from a furnace where its temperature was 650oC and
placed on a large block of ice at 0oC. Assuming that all the heat given up by the iron is used to
melt the ice, how much ice is melted.
Data: specific heat capacity of iron C1 = 499.8 j/kg.K.

mass of iron block m1 = 2kg. latent heat of fusion of ic H f = 33600J/kg
temperature of iron block T1 = 650oC. To find:
temperature of ice T2 = 0oC. mass of ice block m2 =?.
Solution: The temperature difference of mixture of two substances in Kelvin is:
∆T = T1 − T2 = 650 − 0 = 650K
According to Law of Heat Exchange: -
Heat lost by iron block = Heat gained by ice block

m1C1 ∆T
m1C1 ∆T = m2 H f =⇒ m2 =
Hf
2 × 499.8 × 650 649480
m2 = = = 1.93kg
336000 336000
mass of ice melted is: m2 = 1.93kg .

18 Chapter 11. HEAT
Problem 11.7. In a certain process 400J of heat are supplied to a system and at the same time
150J of work are done by the system. What is the increase in the internal energy of the system?
Data:
To find:
Heat supplied to the system: ∆Q = 400J.
Increase in internal energy of the system: ∆U =?.
Work-done by the system: ∆W = 150J
Solution: According to 1st Law of Thermodynamics:
∆U = ∆Q − ∆W = 400 − 150 = 250J

The increase in internal energy of the system: is: ∆U = 250J .
Problem 11.8. There is an increase of internal energy by 400 joules when 800 joules of work is
done by a system. What is the amount of heat supplied during this process?
Data:
Increase in internal energy of the system: To find:
∆U = 400J. Heat supplied to the system: ∆Q =?.
Work-done by the system: ∆W = 800J
Solution: According to 1st Law of Thermodynamics:
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W = 400 + 800 = 1200J

The amount of heat energy supplied to the system: is: ∆Q = 1200J .
Problem 11.9. A heat engine performs 200J of work in each cycle and has efficiency of 20 percent.
For each cycle of operation (a) How much heat is absorbed and (b) How much heat is expelled?
Data: To find:
Work-done by the heat engine: ∆W = 200J (a) Heat absorbed (input): Q1 =?.
Efficiency of the engine: ξ = 20%. (b) Heat expelled (output): Q2 =?.
Solution: The efficiency of the heat engine is given by:

∆W 200
(a) ξ = × 100 =⇒ 20 = × 100
Q1 Q1
20 200 200
= =⇒ Q1 = = 1000J.
100 Q1 0.2
The amount of heat energy absorbed is: Q1 = 1000J .
(b) ∆W = Q1 − Q2 =⇒ Q2 = Q1 − ∆W = 1000 − 200 = 800J.
The amount of heat energy expelled is: Q2 = 800J .
Problem 11.10. A heat engine operates between two reservoirs at temperature of 25oC and 300oC.
What is the maximum efficiency for this engine?
Temperature of the cold reservoir is TC = 25oC + 273 = 298K

Temperature of the hot reservoir is TH = 300oC + 273 = 573K
To find:
Efficiency of the engine: ξ =?.

11.3 Multiple Choice Questions 19
Solution: The efficiency of the heat engine is given by:

TC 298
ξ = (1 − ) × 100 = (1 − ) × 100 = (1 − 0.52) × 100 = 0.48 × 100 = 48%.
TH 573
The efficiency of the engine is: ξ = 48% .
Problem 11.11. The low temperature reservoir of a Carnot engine is at 7oC and has efficiency
40%. It is desired to increase the efficiency to 50%. By how much degree the temperature of hot
reservoir is increased.
Temperature of the cold reservoir is TC = 7oC + 273 = 280K

Efficiency of the engine at that temperature is: ξ1 = 40%.
Efficiency of the engine is increased to the new value: ξ2 = 50%.
Increased in the temperature of the hot body due to new efficiency would be: ∆T =?
Solution: According to the efficiency formula:

TC 280 40 TH − 280
ξ1 = (1 − ) × 100 =⇒ 40 = (1 − ) × 100 =⇒ =
TH TH 100 TH
2 TH − 280
= , By cross multi: 5(TH − 280) = 2TH =⇒ 5TH − 1400 = 2TH
5 TH
1400
5TH − 2TH = 3TH = 1400 =⇒ TH = = 466.6K
3
At new efficiency, the temperature of hot reservoir would be:
TC 280 50 TH0 − 280
ξ2 = (1 − ) × 100 =⇒ 50 = (1 − ) × 100 =⇒ =
TH0 TH0 100 TH0
1 TH0 − 280
= , By cross multi: 2(TH0 − 280) = TH0 =⇒ 2TH0 − 560 = TH0
2 TH0
2TH0 − TH0 = 560K =⇒ TH0 = 560K
Change in temperature is given by: ∆T = TH0 − TH = 560 − 466.6 = 93.4K
Increased in the temperature of the hot body due to new efficiency would be: ∆T = 93.4K .
11.3 Multiple Choice Questions

20 Chapter 11. HEAT
EXERCISE 11.1: (Answer key with explanation)

1. First law of thermodynamics is a consequence of the conservation of
(a) momentum (b) charge (c) mass (d) energy
2. The property of the system that does not change during an adiabatic change is
(a) temperature (b) volume (c) pressure (d) heat
3. The internal energy of a perfect gas is

(a) partly kinetic and partly potential
(b) wholly potential
(c) wholly kinetic
(d) depends on the ratio of two specific heats
4. Two metal strips that constitute a thermostat must necessarily differ in their:
(a) masses (b) lengthes
(c) resistivities (d) coefficients of linear expansion
5. The volume coefficient expansion of a metal whose linear coefficient is 15 × 10−6C−1 ,

will be:
(a) 45 × 10−6C−1 (b) 35 × 10−6C−1 (c) 25 × 10−6C−1 (d) 15 × 10−6C−1
6. The coefficient of linear expansion of crystal in one direction is α1 and that in every
direction perpendicular to it is α2 . The coefficient of cubical expansion is:
(a) α1 + α2 (b) 2α1 + α2 (c) α1 + 2α2 (d) 2α1 + 2α2
7. The temperature at which Centigrade thermometer and Kelvin thermometer gives the
same reading is:
(a) 4o (b) 273o (c) 0o (d) Not possible
8. If same amount of heat is supplied to two identical spheres (one is hollow and other is
solid), then:
(a) the expansion in hollow is greater than the solid
(b) the expansion in hollow is same as that in solid
(c) the expansion in hollow is lesser than the solid
(d) the temperature of both must be same to each other
9. At constant temperature on increasing the pressure of a gas by 5%, the gas will
decrease in its volume by:
(a) 5% (b) 5.26% (c) 4.26% (d) 4.76%
10. Kinetic theory of gases provides a base for:

(a) Charles’ law (b) Boyle’s law
(c) Charles’ law and Boyle’s law (d) None of these

11. Gas exerts pressure on the walls on the container because:

(a) gas has weight
(b) gas molecules have momentum
(c) gas molecules collide with each other
(d) gas molecules collide with the walls of the container
12. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 27oC to 927oC. The root mean
square speed of its molecules becomes:
(a) twice (b) half (c) four times (d) one-fourth
13. 4 moles of an ideal gas is at 0oC. At constant pressure it is heated to double its volume,
then its final temperature will be:
(a) 0oC (b) 273oC (c) 546oC (d) 136.5oC
14. Four molecules of a gas are having speeds 1, 4, 8 and 16 ms−1 . The root mean square
velocity of the gas molecules is:
(a) 7.25ms−1 (b) 52.56ms−1 (c) 84.25ms−1 (d) 9.2ms−1
15. The mean kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas at 0oC is approximately:
(a) 3.4J (b) 3.4 × 103 J (c) 3.4 × 102 J (d) 207J
16. A gas in a vessel is at the pressure P. If the masses of all the molecules be made half
and their speed be made double, then the resultant pressure will be:
P
(a) 4P (b) 2P (c) P (d) 2
17. At what temperature the KE of gas molecule is half that of its value at 27oC ?
(a) 13.5oC (b) 150oC (c) 150K (d) -123K
18. A gas is filled in a cylinder. Its temperature is increased by 20% on kelvin scale and
volume is reduced by 10%. How much percentage of the gas has to leak for pressure
to remain constant?
(a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 15% (d) 25%
19. The rms speed of the molecules of a gas in a vessel is 400 m/s. If half of the gas leaks
out at constant temperature, the rms speed of the remaining molecules will be:
√
(a) 800m/s (b) 400 2m/s (c) 400m/s (d) 200m/s
20. At constant temperature on increasing the pressure of a gas by 25%, the gas will
decrease in its volume by:
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 50%
21. At constant volume, on increasing the temperature of a gas by 75%, the increase in
pressure of gas will be:
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%

22 Chapter 11. HEAT
22. A gas behaves more closely as an ideal gas at:

(a) low pressure and low temperature (b) low pressure and high temperature
(c) high pressure and low temperature (d) high pressure and high temperature
23. In a thermodynamic system working substance is ideal gas, its internal energy is in
the form of:
(a) kinetic energy only (b) kinetic and potential energy
(c) potential energy (d) none of the above
24. For an isolated system:
(a) volume is constant (b) pressure is constant
(c) temperature is constant (d) all of the above
25. A thermodynamical system is changed from state (P1 ,V2 ) to (P2 ,V2 ) by two different
processes, the quantity which will remain same will be:
(a) δ Q (b) δW (c) δ Q + ∆W (d) δ Q − ∆W
26. Work done in converting one gram of ice at −10oC into steam at 100oC is:
(a) 3045J (b) 4.2J (c) 2.1J (d) 2260J
27. If the heat of 120 J is added to a gaseous system and change in internal energy is 40 J,
then the amount of external work done is:
(a) 120J (b) 160J (c) 80J (d) 3J
28. A gas expands under constant pressure P from volume V1 to V2 , the work done by the
gas is
(a) zero (b) P(V2 −V1 ) (c) P(V1 −V2 ) (d) P VV21−V
V2
1
29. A Carnot cycle is to be designed to attain efficiency of 0.75. if temperature of

high temperature reservoir is 727oC, then low temperature reservoir will have to be
maintained at
(a) 23C (b) −23C (c) 181C (d) −181C
30. A cyclic heat engine does 50kJ of work per cycle. If efficiency of engine is 75%, the
heat rejected per cycle will be
(a) 60.6kJ (b) 16.6kJ (c) 66.6kJ (d) 200kJ
31. An aluminum plate has a circular hole. If the temperature of the plate increases, what
happens to the size of the hole?
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) stays the same (d) Increases the top half of the hole
32. A bimetallic plate consists of two materials of different coefficients of thermal expan-
sion. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the top part of the plate is less than the
bottom part. If the temperature of the entire plate increases, what happens to the plate?
(a) expands (b) contracts (c) bends down (d) bends up

33. Which of the following temperature scales doesn’t have negative numbers?
(a) Celsius (b) Kelvin (c) Fahrenheit (d) all of these
34. Which of two temperature changes are equivalent?

(a) 1K = 1o F (b) 1o F = 1oC (c) 1K = 1oC (d) none of these
35. A brass container is completely filled with a liquid. The coefficient of linear expansion
of brass is 2.0 × 10−6C−1 and the coefficient of cubical expansion of the liquid is
6.0 × 10−6C−1 . On heating the vessel, what will happened?
(a) the liquid will level down
(b) the level of the liquid will remain the same
(c) the liquid will over flow
(d) first level of liquid drops and then rises
36. Kinetic Theory is based on an ideal gas model. The following statements about the
ideal gas are true EXCEPT:
(a) The average molecular KE is directly proportional to the absolute temperature
(b) All molecules move with the same speed
(c) All molecules make elastic collisions with each other and the walls of the container
(d) All molecules obey laws of classical mechanics
37. Three containers filled with 1 kg of each: water, ice, and water vapor at the same
temperature T = 0oC. Which of the following is true about the internal energy of the
substances?
(a) Uwater > Uice > Uvapor (b) Uwater < Uice > Uvapor
(c) Uwater = Uice = Uvapor (d) Uice < Uwater < Uvapor
38. When we touch a piece of metal and a piece of wood that are placed in the sun light
for half an hour, the piece of metal feels much hotter than the piece of wood. This
happens because of the difference in:
(a) Densities (b) Internal energies
(c) Specific heat capacities (d) Heat energies
39. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of
matter?
(a) Volume (b) Temperature (c) Pressure (d) Work
40. Internal energy of ideal gas depends on :

(a) only pressure (b) only volume (c) only temperature(d) all of these
41. The process in which the heat is not transferred from one state to another, is:
(a) isothermal process (b) adiabatic process
(c) isobaric process (d) isochoric process

24 Chapter 11. HEAT
42. When a gas is allowed to expand suddenly into a vacuum chamber, then:
(a) heat supplied is zero (b) temperature remains constant
(c) volume does not change (d) both (a) and (b) are correct
43. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
(a) its internal energy decreases
(b) its internal energy does not change
(c) the work done by the gas is equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it
(d) both (b) and (c) are correct
44. If a gas is compressed adiabatically:
(a) the internal energy of gas increases
(b) the internal energy of gas decreases
(c) the internal energy of gas does not change
(d) the work done is positive
45. In a given process for ideal gas, ∆W = 0 and ∆Q > 0. Then for the gas:
(a) the volume remains constant (b) the volume will increase
(c) temperature will increase (d) both (a) and (c) are correct
46. The inside and outside temperatures of a refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively.
Assuming that refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat
delivered to the surrounding will be:
(a) 10 J (b) 20 J (c) 30 J (d) 40 J
47. In heat death condition (for an engine):
(a) temp of source and sink will be equal(b) temp of source > temp of sink
(c) temp of source < temp of sink (d) all of the above
48. The SI unit of Entropy is:
(a) J/oC (b) J/o K (c) J/K (d) J/C
49. If gas expands then work-done by the system is:
(a) −ve (b) +ve (c) zero (d) both a & b
50. When a process or processes are performed on a system in such a way that the final
state is identical with the initial state, it is then known as
(a) thermodynamic cycle (b) thermodynamic property
(c) thermodynamic process (d) 1st law of thermodynamics
1. d 2. d 3. c 4. (d) 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. d
12. a 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. b 21. c
22. b 23. a 24. d 25. d 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. a
32. d 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. b
42. b 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. a

ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

EXERCISE 11.1
Explanations to this exercise is given in VOLUME I of this booklet.

12. ELECTROSTATICS
12.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Absolute Potential: Work done per unit charge when a test charge is moved from a
point at infinity (having zero potential) to that point OR It is work
to bring +q from infinity to point near source charge.
Capacitance: The ratio of charge stored per increase in potential difference. The
SI unit of capacitance is the farad (symbol: F)
Capacitor: Electrical device used to store charge and energy in the electrical
field.
Combination of Inc circuit, capacitors can be combined in two ways:

Capacitors: • Parallel Combination: The equivalent capacitance of ca-
pacitors connected in parallel is the sum of the individual
capacitances: C = C1 +C2 +C3 + .... In this combination,
the voltage across each capacitor remains same.
• Series Combination: The reciprocal of the equivalent ca-
pacitance of capacitors connected in series is the sum
of the reciprocals of the individual capacitances: C1 =
1 1 1
C1 + C2 + C3 + ..... In this combination, the the charge
on each capacitors remains same.

28 Chapter 12. ELECTROSTATICS
Parallel Plate of Consider two large flat plates placed near one another. The plates
Capacitor are parallel, and have equal and opposite charges uniformly dis-
tributed. This configuration is known as a parallel-plate capacitor.
In this situation there is a uniform field between the plates, and
zero field everywhere else. The field between the plates is twice
the field from one plate, so the net field is: E = εσo .
Point Charge An electric charge regarded as concentrated in a mathematical

point, without spatial extent. It has magnitude but no dimension
(space).
Charge Density: Charge density is a measure of the amount of electric charge per
unit length, surface area, or volume. Charge density can be either
positive or negative, since electric charge can be either positive or
negative.
• LINEAR CHARGE DENSITY (λ ) is the quantity of charge
per unit length, measured in coulombs per meter at any
point on a line charge distribution.
• SURFACE CHARGE DENSITY (σ ) is the quantity of
charge per unit area, measured in coulombs per square
meter at any point on a surface charge distribution on a two
dimensional surface.
• VOLUME CHARGE DENSITY (ρ) is the quantity of
charge per unit volume, measured in the SI system in
coulombs per cubic meter at any point in a volume.
Coulomb’s Law: The force between any two charges is directly proportional to the
product of charges and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between the charges.
Dielectric Medium: Dielectrics are the materials which do not contain free charges
for conduction. Therefore, dielectrics are basically insulators as
insulators do not conduct electricity through them. But, dielectrics,
contain positive and negative charges which are bounded together
and these charges could be effected by the electric field. The main
function of dielectric is the charge storage.
Electric Charge: Electric charge can be defined as the intrinsic characteristic that is
associated with fundamental particles due to which they produce
and experience electrical and magnetic effects. Charges are of two
types:
• Positive Charge
• Negative Charge
The SI unit of electric charge is Coulomb (C). The Magnitude
of electric charge on electron (smallest charge in Universe) is
1.6 × 10−19C.

Electrical The materials that have free electrons and allow current to flow
Conductors: through them.
Electrical The materials which do not allow current to flow through them.
Insulators:
Electric Flux: Flux means flow of electric field lines through an imaginary sur-
face. The electric flux through an area is defined as the elec-
tric field multiplied by the area of the surface projected in a
plane perpendicular to the field. It is denoted by Greek letter
Φ = E.∆A = E∆A cos θ . The SI unit of electric flux is volt-meter
(V.m) OR N.m2 .C−1
Electric Flux Electric flux density is same as Electric Field Intensity. Electric
Density: flux density is the amount of flux passing through a defined area
that is perpendicular to the direction of the flux. The SI unit is
Coulombs per meter squared (C/m2 ). The Electric Flux Density
is very similar to the Electric Field, but does not depend on the
material in which we are measuring (that is, it does not depend on
the permittivity).
Electric Intensity: Also known as Electric Field Intensity. Electric field intensity
is the strength of an electric field at any point. It is equal to the
electric force per unit charge experienced by a test charge placed
at that point. The unit of measurement is volts per meter (V/m) or
newtons per coulomb (N/C).
Electric Potential The energy due to the position of a charge near other charges.
Energy:
Electron Volt: The energy gained by an electron when it passes through a poten-
tial difference of one volt, it is equal to 1.60 × 10−19 Joules.
Electrostatics: In electrostatics we deal with the electric effects of charges at

rest. Static electricity is an electrical charge that builds up due to
friction between two dissimilar materials. In static electricity we
use insulator so that electricity could not move.
Electric Potential: Electric potential at any point is defined as the work done in
moving a positive charge from a reference point (generally taken
at infinity) to that point in the presence of electric field. The SI
unit of Electric Potential is Volt (J/C). Electric potential is a scalar
quantity. Its value may be positive or negative.

Electric Potential he electric potential difference is the difference in electric potential

Difference (∆V ) (V) between the final and the initial location when work is done
upon a charge to change its potential energy. The SI unit of electric
potential is volt (V).
Electric Field: Electric field is the region surrounding an electric charge or a

group of charges in which another charged particle experiences a
force of attraction or repulsion.
Electron Volt (eV): It is the unit of energy. It is the amount of energy gained (or
lost) by the charge of a single electron moving across an electric
potential difference of one volt. 1 eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J.
Equipotential Surface over which the electric potential is same everywhere is

Surfaces: called an equipotential surface. Equipotential surfaces are graphi-
cal way to represent potential distribution in an electric field.
Farad: The S.I. unit of capacitance, defined as the capacitance of a ca-

pacitor that, if charged to 1 C, has a potential difference of 1
V.
Gauss’s Law: It states that total electric flux through a closed surface is equal to
1
ε0 times the net charge q enclosed by the surface. It is used for
system of charges rather than two point charges (Coulomb’s Law).
Gaussian Surface: Surface on which Gauss’s Law is applied is known as Gaussian

surface which need not be a real surface. Gaussian surface can be
an imaginary geometrical surface which might be empty space or
it could be partially or fully embedded in a solid body.
Polarization: Polarization is the process of separating opposite charges within an

object. The positive charge becomes separated from the negative
charge. By inducing the movement of electrons within an object,
one side of the object is left with an excess of positive charge
and the other side of the object is left with an excess of negative
charge.
Potential Gradient: The rate of change of potential with respect to distance (radial di-
rection) is known as Potential Gradient (E). The SI unit of potential
gradient is volt/meter.

Ram’s Concept
• Area vector is that vector whose magnitude is equal to area of the body and its
direction is perpendicular to the surface.
• In case of closed body, area vector is always taken perpendicular to the surface and
always in outward direction.
• The dot product of any vector with area vector is known as flux of that that vector.
• Flux is always defined for a vector quantity. The physical meaning of electric flux
is the number of lines of force passing through a given area.
RAM’S MIND MAP

USEFUL EQUATIONS
1 q1 q2
Coulomb’s Law F= , where εo = 8.85×10−12C2 /N.m2 is per-
4πεo r2
1
mittivity of free space. Also k = 4πε o
= 9 × 109 N.m2 /C2 .
F kq
E= . where qo is positive test charge. Also E = 2 .
qo r
Electric field is also negative of the potential gradient:
dV ∆V
Electric Field E =− =− .
dr ∆S
Electric Flux Φ = ΣE.∆A . (dot product of E & ∆A).
kq1 q2
Electrostatic Potential U= , (two point charges)
r
Energy
1 Q
Gauss’ Theorem Φ= × charge enclosed =
εo εo
λ
E due to infinitely long E= where λ is linear charge density.
4πεo r
straight wire
σ
E due to thin infinite plane E= , where σ is surface charge density
2εo
sheet of charge
σ
E between two thin infinite E=
εo
plane parallel sheets of
charge
kq
E= for r > R (outside)
r2
E = 0 for r < R (inside sphere)
kq
E due to uniformly E= for r = R (at the surface of sphere)
R2
charged spherical shell

WAB 1 1
VB −VA = = kq[ − ] (potential difference)
qo rB rA
kq
Electrostatic potential V= (Potential due to a point charge)
r
Q
C= , SI unit is Farad(F): 1F=1C/V
V
C = 4πεo r (Isolated spherical conductor)
εA
C= (Parallel plate capacitor), here ε = εr εo ,
d
εr is dielecric constant OR relative permitivity (no unit).
Capacitance εr = εεo = CCo where Co for empty space.
1 1 1 Q2
E = CV 2 = QV =
2 2 2 C
1
Energy stored in a u = εo E 2 (Energy density)
2
capacitor
εo A εo A
(i) Conducting slab: C = t =
d[1 − d ] d − t
εo A
(ii) Dielectric slab: C =
(d − t) + εtr
C with slab between the In above equations t is thickness of slab t < d

two plates
Potential Difference V = Ed (d is the distance between two plates)
Work done by the field ∆W = qo E∆S , where ∆S is distance changed.

Points to Note:
• For each pair there is a dependence on the product of charges, with repulsion
for like charges and attraction for unlike ones.
• Properties of electric charge
– Charge is an scalar quantity
– Electric charge is quantized
– Electric charge is additive
– Electric charge is conserved
• For many charges , the force on any one particular charge can be found as a
vector sum by using the superposition principle.
• Electrostatic force of interaction between two point charges is independent of
the presence of other charges..
• Electrostatic induction is a redistribution of electrical charge in an object,
caused by the influence of nearby charges.
• Theoretically electric field extends up to infinity but practically electric field
is not detectable beyond a certain distance.
• Magnitude of TEST CHARGE is considered zero so that it doesn’t effect the
electric field of source charge.
• SOURCE CHARGE is one which produces electric field.
• POINT CHARGE is an ideal charge which has almost zero dimension but
significant amount of charge value.
• Coulomb’s Law is valid for only when we consider charges as POINT
CHARGES.
• Electric field lines cannot be discontinuous because if they are discontinuous
then it will indicate the absence of electric field at the break point.
• An electroscope is a simple device used to indicate the existence of charge.
• Charging by induction gives an object the charge opposite that of the charged
body.
• Functions of position are called fields. Because eletric field E (function of r)
is itself a vector, it is a vector field. In electromagnetism we shall also meet
functions of position that are scalar quantities, which have magnitude but not
direction. These functions are called scalar fields.
• The rules for drawing electric field lines for any static configuration of charges
are:
– The lines begin on positive charges and terminate on negative charges.
– The number of lines drawn emerging from or terminating on a charge is
proportional to the magnitude of the charge.
– No two field lines ever cross in a charge-free region. (Because the
tangent to the field line represents the direction of the resultant force,
only one line can be at every point.)
– The line approaches the conducting surface perpendicularly.
• Equipotential surfaces are surfaces where no work is required to move a charge
from one point to another. The equipotential surfaces are always perpendicular
to the electric field lines.
• The electric field is zero inside a good conductor, therefore charge is always
distributed on the outside of a conductor.
• Gauss’s law depends on the mathematical concept of solid angle. Solid angle
is the measure of the angular size of a cone: ∆Ω = ∆S r2
.

• Closer electric lines of force mean stronger field.

• Electrostatic lines of force never form a closed curve. But electric lines of
force in the case of induced electric field are in closed curve.
• If no electric lines of force are present in a region, the electric field in that
region is zero and potential is constant.
• Electric potential decreases in the direction of electric lines of force.
• Equipotential surface may be planar, solid etc. But equipotential surface never
be a point.
• Equipotential surface due to isolated point charge is spherical. Equipotential
surfaces are planar in uniform electric field. Equipotential surface due to line
charge is cylindrical.
• At the point where electric field is zero, the direction of electric lines of force
become indeterminate. Such a point is known as neutral point or null point or
equilibrium point.
• There can be no charge at any point in the substance of the conductor in
equilibrium state. It means the charge on a conductor in an electrostatic field
resides entirely on the surface of conductor.
• Gauss’s and Coulomb’s law are not two separate laws. But they are supple-
mentary to each other. Gauss’s law is used to solve for a problem having high
symmetry.
• The larger the dielectric constant (K), the more charge can be stored in
capacitor: C = KCo , where Co is the capacitance with no dielectric between
the plates.
• The electric field between the plates of parallel plate capacitor is directly
proportional to capacitance C of the capacitor. The strength of electric field is
reduced due to presence of dielectric.
• The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor depends upon: The distance d
between two plates and the area A of medium between the plates. When
the plates are placed very close and the area of plates are large we get the
maximum capacitance.
• If a metallic plate is introduced between plates of a charged capacitor, then
electric lines of force can be discontinuous.
• If a dielectric plate is introduced between plates of a charged capacitor then,
number of lines of forces in dielectric is lesser than that in case of vacuum
space.
• If both plates of capacitors are connected by a metallic wire, then capacitance
would be infinite (or no capacitor would be formed): C = VQ = Q0 = ∞.
• If both plates are earthed: C = VQ = Q0 = ∞.
• Force of interaction between the plates is attractive in nature.
• If n different sheets of dielectric constants εr1 , εr2 , εr3 , ..., εrn of thickness t1 , t2 ,
t3 ..., tn are placed between plates of parallel plates capacitor, then capacitance
εo A
is: C = n
∑ εtri
i=1 i

12.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 12.1. Two unequal point charges repel each other with a force of 0.2 newtons when they
are 10cm apart. Find the force which each exerts on the other when they are:
(i) 1cm apart (ii) 5cm apart
DATA:
Let the two unequal charges are q1 and q2 . Force F = 0.2N when d = 10cm = 0.1m
Force F =? when: (i) d = 1cm = 0.01m; (ii) d = 5cm = 0.05m
Solution: According to Coulomb’s Law: F = k q1r2q2

0.2 = Kq 1 q2
(0.1)2
=⇒ Kq1 q2 = 0.2 × 0.01 = 0.002 =⇒ Kq1 q2 = 0.002 .
Now we can find the force when:
Kq1 q2 0.002
(i): F = 2
= = 20N =⇒ F = 20N Ans
(0.01) 0.0001
Kq1 q2 0.002
(ii): F = 2
= = 0.8N =⇒ F = 0.8N Ans
(0.05) 0.0025
Problem 12.2. Two point charges of +1 × 10−4 coulomb and −1 × 10−4 coulomb are placed at a
distance of 40cm from each other. A Charge +6 × 10−5 coulomb is placed midway between them.
What is the magnitude and direction of force on it.
DATA:
Net magnitude of forces on q3 : F =?;
and direction of this force=?.
Solution: According to Coulomb’s Law F13 can be calculated as:
Kq1 q3 9 × 109 × 1 × 10−4 × 6 × 10−5 54 × 109−4−5

F13 = 2
= = = 1350 × 100 = 1350N
r13 (0.2)2 0.04
Similarly F23 would be same: F23 = 1350N.
As F13 and F23 are acting on the same line.
Therefore, their resultant would be sum of these two froces:
F = F13 + F23 = 1350 + 1350 = 2700N
F = 2700N with direction toward negative charge.

12.2 PROBLEMS 37
Problem 12.3. Three point charges each of 4µ.C are placed at the three corners of a square of
side 20cm. Find the magnitude of the force on each.
DATA:
q1 = q2 = q3 = 4 × 10−6C
(i) Magnitude of force on q1 : F1 =?
(ii) Magnitude of force on q2 : F2 =?
(iii) Magnitude of force on q3 : F3 =?
Solution: According to Coulomb’s Law force between charges q1 and q2 is F12 and can be
calculated as:
Kq1 q2 9 × 109 × 4 × 10−6 × 4 × 10−6 144 × 109−6−6
F12 = 2
= = = 3600 × 10−3 = 3.6N
r12 (0.2)2 0.04
Similarly F21 would be same: F12 = 3.6N.
F23 = 3.6N. And F32 = 3.6N
Force between q1 and q3 can be worked out as:
Kq1 q3
F13 = 2 − −− > (1)
r13
Where r13 is the diagonal of the square and can be found as:
q q p √
2 2 2 2 + r2 =
r13 = r12 + r23 =⇒ r13 = r12 23 (0.2)2 + (0.2)2 = (0.04) + (0.04) = 0.08
r13 = 0.283m
Putting this in equation (1), we get:
9 × 109 × 4 × 10−6 × 4 × 10−6 144 × 109−6−6
F13 = = = 1800 × 10−3 = 1.8N
(0.28)2 0.08
Similarly F31 = 1.8N
(i) F1 can be determined by the law of cosine:
q q
2 2
F1 = F21 + F31 + 2F21 F31 cos θ = (3.6)2 + (1.8)2 + 2(3.6)(1.8) cos 45o
√ √
F1 = 12.96 + 3.24 + 9.16 = 25.36 = 5.04N
F1 = 5.04N Ans.
(ii) F2 can be determined by Pythagoras Theorem:
q q
F2 = F12 2 + F2 = (3.6)2 + (3.6)2
32
√ √
F2 = 12.96 + 12.96 = 25.92 = 5.09N
F2 = 5.1N Ans.
(iii) Magnitude of force on q3 will be same as that on q1 because they are placed
diagonally accross. F3 = 5.04N
Problem 12.4. Three charges q1 = +7 × 10−6C, q2 = −4 × 10−6C and q3 = −5 × 10−6C are

placed at the vertices of a triangle. The sides of the triangle measure 3, 4 and 5 cm. Determined
the magnitude and direction of the force on the charge q1 .

DATA:
q1 = +7 × 10−6C
q2 = −4 × 10−6C
q3 = −5 × 10−6C
(i) Magnitude of force on q1 : F =?
(ii) Direction of F on q1 : θ =?
Solution:
(i) F on q1 is the vector sum of forces F21 and F31 .

Therefore, first we need to determine these forces:
Kq3 q1 9 × 109 × 5 × 10−6 × 7 × 10−6 252 × 10−3
F31 = 2
= = = 280N
r31 (0.04)2 0.0009
Kq1 q2 9 × 109 × 4 × 10−6 × 7 × 10−6 315 × 10−3
F21 = 2
= = = 196.875N
r21 (0.03)2 0.0016
F can be determined by Pythagoras Theorem:
q q √ √
F = F21 2 + F2 = (280)2 + (196.875)2 = 78400 + 38759.766 = 117159.77 = 342.3N
31
F = 342.3N Ans.
(ii) The direction can be determined by:
F21 280
θ = tan−1 = tan−1 = tan−1 (1.422) = 54.9o
F31 196.875
θ = 54.9o Ans.
Problem 12.5. Two small spheres, each having a mass 0.1gm, are suspended from the same point
by silk threads each 20cm long. The spheres are given equal charges and they are found to repel
each other, coming to rest 24cm apart. Find the change on each.
DATA:
m1 = 0.1g = 0.0001g
m2 = 0.1g = 0.0001g
∴ m = m1 = m2
l = 20cm = 0.2m
r = 24cm = 0.24m
TO FIND:
Magnitude on charge on each sphere: q1 = q2 =?
Solution: The magnitude of charges on each sphere can be determined by Coulomb’s Law. But
there are two forces acting on each sphere (coulomb’s force and force of gravity) and system is in
equilibrium. Therefore, we can apply first condition of equilibrium to determine the net force on
the system. The net force on x-axis and y-axis is zero and can be worked as (apply first condition
of equilibrium):

12.2 PROBLEMS 39
ΣFx = 0
F − T cos θ = 0 =⇒ F = T cos θ − − − − > (1)
Fy = 0
T sin θ −W = 0 =⇒ W = T sin θ − − − − > (2)
Dividing eq. (3) by eq. (2) :
W T sin θ W mg
= = tan θ =⇒ F = = − − − − > (3)
F T cos θ tan θ tan θ
Where angle θ can be determined by trigonometric ratio
r/2 12
cos θ = = = 0.6 =⇒ θ = cos−1 (0.6) = 53.10
l 20
0.0001 × 9.8
Therefore, from equation (3): F = = 7.36 × 10−4 N
tan(53.1o )
r
Kq2 Fr2
Now using Coulomb’s Law:F = 2 =⇒ q =
s r K
7.36 × 10−4 × (0.24)2
q= = 6.86 × 10−8C
9 × 109
q1 = q2 = 6.86 × 10−8C Ans.
Problem 12.6. Two charges of +2 × 10−7C and −5 × 10−7C are placed at a distance of 50cm
from each other. Find a point on the line joining the charges at which the electric field is zero.
d = 50cm
DATA:
TO FIND:
q1 = +2 × 10−7C
The point where electric field will be zero: x =?
q2 = −5 × 10−7C
Solution: Let us suppose ’P’ be the point at a distance ’x’ from q1 where net electric field is zero,
then:
Kq1 Kq2
E1 = 2 and E2 =
x (x + d)2
As point P lies athe either side of charges.
Therefore, net electric field at point P would be the sum of two charges which is zero:
ΣE = E1 + (−E2 ) = 0 =⇒ E1 = E2
Kq1 Kq2 (x + d)2 5 × 10−7
= =⇒ = = 2.5
x2 (x + r)2 x2 2 × 10−7
x+d 2 x+d √
( ) = 2.5 =⇒ = 2.5 = 1.58
x x
0.5
x + r = 1.58x =⇒ 1.58x − x = 0.58x = 0.5 =⇒ x = = 0.86m
0.58
x = 86cm Ans.
The point where the electric field will be zero lies at 86cm from positive charge and 136cm from
negative charge.
Problem 12.7. What are the electric field and potential at the centre of a square whose diagonals
are 60cm, each when (a) charges each of 2µ.C are placed at the four corners. (b) charges of
+4µ.C on other corners.

DATA:
(a) q1 = q2 = q3 = q4 = 2 × 10−6C
(b) q1 = q2 = +2 × 10−6C; q3 = q4 = −4 ×
10−6C
Diagonal of the square: d = 60cm = 0.6m
To find:
(i) E =? and (ii) V =?
Solution: (a) (i): As point ’P’ lies between q1 and q3 and also between q2 and q4 , therefore, the
net intensity at ’P’ will be vector sum of their intensities. All charges are same so there will be
repulsive force between them. Therefore, E3 and E4 will lie in opposite direction to the E1 and E2 :
E = E1 + E2 − E3 − E4
Kq
As E = 2 , Where r = d/2 Therefore:
r
Kq1 Kq2 Kq3 Kq4 K K
E = 2 + 2 − 2 − 2 = 2 (q1 + q2 − q3 − q4 ) = 2 (0) = 0
r r r r r r
E = 0 Ans.
(ii): Electric potential is scalar quantity, so the the total potential is the sum of all potentials:
V = V1 +V2 +V3 +V4
Kq
As V =
r
K 9 × 109
V = (q1 + q2 + q3 + q4 ) = (2 × 10−6 + 2 × 10−6 + 2 × 10−6 + 2 × 10−6 )
r 0.3
V = 2.4 × 105V .Ans
(b) (i): As point ’P’ lies between q1 and q3 , therefore, the net intensity at ’P’ will be vector
sum of their intensities. As the both charges q1 and q3 are opposite so there will be attractive force
between them. The net intensities would be E 0 :
Kq1 Kq2 K 9 × 109
E 0 = E1 + E2 = 2
+ 2 = 2 (q1 + q2 ) = (2 × 10−6 + 4 × 10−6 )
r r r (0.3)2
E 0 = 1 × 1011 (6 × 10−6 ) = 6 × 105V /m
Similarly, the net intensity of q2 and q4 at the center of the square will also be:
E 00 = 6 × 105V /m
As E’ and E” are along the diagonals of square, which are perpendicular to each other,
therefore their net intensity will be worked by Pythogoras theorem:
p q q
E = E 02 + E 002 = (6 × 105 )2 + (6 × 105 )2 = (72 × 1010 ) = 8.5 × 105V /m
E = 8.5 × 105V /m Ans.

(ii) Electric potential is given as:
K 9 × 109
V = V1 +V2 −V3 −V4 = (q1 + q2 − q3 − q4 ) = (2 × 10−6 + 2 × 10−6 − 4 × 10−6 − 4 × 10−6 )
r 0.3
V = −1.2 × 105V .Ans
Problem 12.8. A particle carrying a charge of 10−5C starts from rest in a uniform electric field
of intensity 50V m−1 . Find the force on the particle and the kinetic energy it acquires when it has
moved 1m.

12.2 PROBLEMS 41
DATA: E = 50V /m
−5
q = 10 C To find:
d = 1m E =? and K.E =?
Solution: The force on the particle is given by:
F = qE = 10−5 × 50 = 5 × 10−4 N
F = 5 × 10−4 N Ans.
KE acquired by the charge is eqaul to work-done and is given by:
K.E = work-done = F.d = 5 × 10−4 × 1
K.E = 5 × 10−4 J .Ans.
Problem 12.9. A proton of mass 1.67 × 10−27 kg and charge 1.6 × 10−19C is to be held motionless
between two horizontal parallel plates 10cm apart. Find the Voltage required to be applied between
the plates.
DATA:
m p = 1.67 × 10−27 Kg
e = +1.6 × 10−19C
d = 10cm = 0.1m
To find:
Voltage required: V =?
Solution: Proton will held motionless between the horizontal plates when:
FE = Weight of Proton
qE = mg, Where q = e (charge on proton)
V
eE = mg, But E =
d
eV mgd 1.67 × 10−27 × 9.8 × 0.1
Therefore: = mg =⇒ V = = = 1.02 × 10−8Volts.
d e 1.6 × 10−19
V = 1.02 × 10−8V Ans.
Problem 12.10. A small sphere of weight 5 × 10−3 N is suspended by a silk thread 50mm long
which is attached a point on a large charged insulating plane. When a charge of 6 × 10−8C is
placed on the ball the thread makes an angle of 30o with the vertical. What is the charge density on
the plane?
DATA:
W = 5 × 10−3 Kg
qo = 6 × 10−8C
θ = 90o − 30o = 60o (see figure)
ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12C2 /N − m2
To find:
σ =?

Solution: According to the application of Gauss’s Law for charged sheet:
σ
E= − − − − > (1)
2ε0
F
But E =
qo
F σ 2Fε0
= =⇒ σ = − − − − > (2)
qo 2ε0 qo
According to the 1st condition of equilibrium:
ΣFx = 0 =⇒ F − T cos θ = 0 =⇒ F = T cos θ − − − −(3)
ΣFy = 0 =⇒ T sin θ −W = 0 =⇒ W = T sin θ − − − −(4)
By dividing eq. (4) by (3), we get:
W T sin θ
= = tan θ
F T cos θ
W 5 × 10−3
F= = = 0.002889N
tan θ tan 60o
Putting this value in eq. (2). we get:
2 × 0.002889 × 8.85 × 10−12
σ= = 8.5 × 10−7
6 × 10−8
σ = 8.5 × 10−7C/m2 Ans.
Problem 12.11. How many electrons should be removed from each of the two similar spheres each
of 10g so that electrostatic repulsion be balanced by gravitational force.
DATA: Electrostatic force Fe = FG (Gravitational force)
Charge on electron: e = 1.6 × 10−19C To find:
Mass of each sphere: m = 10g = 0.01kg Number of electrons placed on each sphere: n =?
Solution: Let us suppose 0 n0 be the number of electrons placed on each sphere and 0 q0 be the total
charge on each sphere placed at a distance ’r’ from each other. given that:
Fe = FG
Kq2 Gm2
= 2 =⇒ kq2 = Gm2
r2 r s
r
Gm2 6.67 × 10−11 × (0.01)2
q= = = 8.6 × 10−13C
K 9 × 109
q 8.6 × 10−13
But q = ne =⇒ n = = = 5.38 × 106 electrons
e 1.6 × 10−19
n = 5.38 × 106 electrons Ans.
Problem 12.12. There is a potential difference of 150 volts between two conductors of a power
line. A charge of 600C is carried from one conductor to the other. What work is required? If the
time necessary to transport the charge is 1.25s how much power is used?
DATA:
To find:
Potential difference: V = 150V
Work-done W =?
qo = 600C
Power: P =?
time: t = 1.25s

12.2 PROBLEMS 43
Solution:
W = qoV = 600 × 150 = 90, 000J
W = 90000J .Ans
W 90000
P= = = 72000W
t 1.25
P = 72000W .Ans
Problem 12.13. A metal sphere of 100mm radius has a charge of 4.25 × 10−9 coul. What is the
potential? (a) at its surface (b) at its centre. What is the energy of a charge of 2.5 × 10−6C at a
point 150mm from the centre of sphere?
DATA:
q = 4.25 × 10−9C To find:
−6
qo = 2.5 × 10 C (i) at the inner surface: V =?
Radius of inner surface:: r1 = 100mm = 0.1m (ii) at the centre: V =?
Radius of outer surface:: r1 = 150mm = 0.15m (iii) Electric Potential Energy: U =?
qo = 600C
Solution:
Kq 9 × 109 × 4.25 × 10−9
(i) V = = = 382.5V
r 0.1
V = 382.5V .Ans
(ii) As distance is the same from the sphere to the inner surface as that from inner surface to
the centre of sphere, therefore:
V = 382.5V .Ans
Kqqo 9 × 109 × 4.25 × 10−9 × 2.5 × 10−6
(iii) U = = = 6.37 × 10−4 J
r 0.15
U = 6.37 × 10−4 J .Ans
Problem 12.14. An electron having an initial speed of 10 + 3cms−1 is directed from a distance of
1mm at another electron whose position is fixed. How close to the stationary electron will the other
approach.
DATA:
e = 1.6 × 10−19C mass of an electron: me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg
r = 1mm = 1 × 10−3 m To find:
3
v = 10 m/s Distance: x =?
Solution: According to the law of conservation of energy:
loss of K.E of electron = gain in P.E of electron
1 2
mv = Ub −Ua − − − − > (1)
2
Kq1 q2
As we know that: U = , where q1 = q2 = e (for electron)
r
Ke2
Therefore: U =
r
1 Ke2 Ke2 1 1
Now, eq (1) will become: mv2 = − = Ke2 −
2 x r x r


1 −31 3 2 9 −19 2 1 1
× 9.1 × 10 × (1 × 10 ) = 9 × 10 × (1.6 × 10 ) −
2 x 1 × 10−3

−25 −28 1 3
4.55 × 10 = 2.304 × 10 − 10
x
1 4.55 × 10−25 1
− 1000 = = 1974.83 =⇒ = 1974.83 + 1000 = 2974.83
x 2.304 × 10−28 x
1
x= = 0.00034m
2974.83
x = 0.00034m .Ans.
Problem 12.15. Find the equivalent capacitance and charge on each of the capacitors shown in
the diagram.
DATA:
V = 120V
C1 = 2µF
C2 = 2µF
C3 = 1µF
To find:
Total capacitance: C =?
Charges q1 =?, q2 =? and q3 =?
Solution: Let C4 be the equivalent capacitance of C2 and C3 connected in parallel:
C4 = C2 +C3 = 2 + 1 = 3µF
Let C be the equivalent capacitance
of C1 and C4 connected in series:
1 1 1 1 1 3+2 5
= + = + = =
C C1 C4 2 3 6 6
6
=⇒ C = = 1.2µF
5
C = 1.2µF .Ans.
The total charge in all capacitor would be:

q = CV = 1.2 × 120 = 144µC
The charge on C1 would be same as on C4 because both are connected in series:
q1 = q4 = 144µC =⇒ q1 = 144µC
Voltage accross C4 would be:
q4 144
V4 = = = 48V
C4 3
As C4 is the equivalent capacitance of C2 and C3 connected in parallel, therefore the charge would be:

12.2 PROBLEMS 45
q2 = C2V4 (the voltage accross each capacitor would be same in parallel)

q2 = C2V2 = 2 × 48 = 96µC =⇒ q2 = 96µC
q3 = C3V3 = 1 × 48 = 48µC =⇒ q3 = 48µC
Problem 12.16. Two capacitors of 2µF and 8µF are joined in series and a potential difference of
300 volts is applied. Find the charge and potential difference for each capacitor.
DATA:
V = 300V
C1 = 2µF
C2 = 8µF
To find:
(i) Charges q1 =? and q2 =?
(ii) Voltage across q1 is: V1 =? and across q2 is:
V2 =?
Solution:
Let C be the equivalent capacitance of C1 and C2 connceted in series:

1 1 1 1 1 4+1 5 8
= + = + = = =⇒ C = = 1.6µF
C C1 C2 2 8 8 8 5
Charge is given by:
q = CV = 1.6 × 300 = 480µC
(i) As C is the equivalent capacitance of C1 and C2 connected in series, therefore:
q1 = q = 480µC =⇒ q1 = 480µC
Also q2 = q = 480µC =⇒ q2 = 480µC
q1 480
(ii) V1 = = = 240V =⇒ V1 = 240V
C1 2
q2 480
V2 = = = 60V =⇒ V1 = 60V
C2 8
Problem 12.17. A capacitor of 100pF is charged to a potential difference of 50 volts. Its plates
are then connected in parallels to another capacitor and it is found that the potential difference
between its plates falls to 35 volts. What is the capacitance of the second capacitor?
DATA: Joined in parallel: V2 = 35V
V1 = 50V C2 =?
C1 = 100pF
Solution:
Charge of C1 when charged separately: q1 = C1V1 = 100 × 50 = 5000pC

Charge of C1 when joined parallel: q01 = C1V2 = 100 × 35 = 3500pC
Charge of C2 in parallel combination: q2 = q1 − q01 = 5000 − 3500 = 1500pC
q2 1500
Capacitance of C2 would be: C2 = = = 42.86pF
V2 35
C2 = 42.86pF Ans.

Problem 12.18. Find the equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the diagram.
DATA:
C1 = C2 = C3 = C5 = C6 = C8 = C9 =
3µF
C7 = C4 = 2µF
C =?
Solution:
Let C10 be the equivalent capaitance of: C1 ,C2 and C3 connected in series:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+1+1 3
= + + = + + = = = 1 =⇒ C10 = 1µF.
C10 C1 C2 C3 3 3 3 3 3
Let C11 be the equivalent capaitance of :C10 and C4 connected in parallel:
C11 = C10 +C4 = 1 + 2 = 3 =⇒ C11 = 3µF.
Let C12 be the equivalent capaitance of: C5 ,C11 and C6 connected in series:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+1+1 3
= + + = + + = = = 1 =⇒ C12 = 1µF.
C12 C5 C1 1 C6 3 3 3 3 3
Let C13 be the equivalent capaitance of: C12 and C7 connected in parallel:
C13 = C12 +C7 = 1 + 2 = 3 =⇒ C13 = 3µF.
Let C be the equivalent capaitance of: C8 ,C13 and C9 connected in series:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1+1+1 3
= + + = + + = = = 1 =⇒ C = 1µF.
C C8 C13 C9 3 3 3 3 3
C = 1µF Ans.
Problem 12.19. A parallel plate capacitor has plates 30cm × 30cm separated by a distance of
2cm. By how much the capacitance changes if a dielectric slab of the same area but of thickness
1.5cm is slipped between the plates. The dielectric constant of the material is 2.
DATA: t = 1.5cm = 0.015m
A = 30cm × 30cm εr = 2
A = 900cm2 = 0.09m2 To find:
d = 2cm = 0.02m =? ∆C =?
Solution:
Capacitance of a capacitor when air is the medium:
ε0 A 8.85 × 10−12 × 0.9
C= = = 3.9825 × 10−11 F
d 0.02
Capacitance of a capacitor when dielectric slab of thickness t<d is slipped between its plates:
ε0 A 8.85 × 10−12 × 0.9 7.965 × 10−13 7.965 × 10−13
C0 = = = =
(d − t) + εtr (0.02 − 0.015) + 0.015
2
0.005 + 0.0075 0.0125
C0 = 6.372 × 10−11 F
∆C = C0 −C = 6.372 × 10−11 − 3.9825 × 10−11 = 2.3895 × 10−11 F
∆C = 2.3895 × 10−11 F Ans.

12.2 PROBLEMS 47
Problem 12.20. Three 1.0pF capacitors are charged separately to the potential difference of 100,
200 and 300 volts. The capacitors are then joined in parallels. What is the resultant potential
difference?
V2 = 200V
DATA:
V3 = 300V
C1 = C2 = C3 = 1pF
To find:
V1 = 100V
V =?
Solution:
Charge of each capacitor when charged separately:
q1 = C1V1 = 1 × 100V = 100pC
q2 = C2V2 = 1 × 200V = 200pC
q3 = C3V3 = 1 × 300V = 300pC
Total charge capacitance of parallel combination: q = q1 + q2 + q3 = 100 + 200 + 300 = 600pC
Equivalent capacitance of parallel combination: C = C1 +C2 +C3 = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3pF
q 600
Voltage of parallel combination: V = = = 200V
C 3
V = 200V Ans.
Problem 12.21. Compare the capacitances of two identical capacitors with dielectrics inserted as
shown in the diagram. The dielectric constants are k1 and k2 .
Solution: As shown in figure, these parallel plates capacitor has an area A and the plates are
separated by a distance d. Let suppose that two dielectric slabs of different materials of having k1
and k2 are inserted between the plates. When inserted horizontally between the plates, then parallel
combination of two capacitors is formed. In this case the potential difference on each half of the
capacitor is the same. Thus, the capacitance of the system is:
C=C1 +C2 − − − −(1)

Where C1 and C2 are given by:
εo k1 A/2 εo k1 A
C1 = =
d 2d
εo k2 A/2 εo k2 A
C2 = =
d 2d
Putthing these values into equation (1):
εo k1 A εo k2 A εo A
Cp = + = (k1 + k2 ) − − − − > (2)
2d 2d 2d
Now suppose that the dielectric slabs are inserted vertically between the plates such that a compound
capacitor of two series capacitor is formed. In this case the total capacitance Cs is found by (in
series combination):
1 1 1
= + − − − −(3)
Cs C1 C2
εo k1 A 2εo k1 A εo k2 A 2εo k2 A
Where C1 and C2 are given by: C1 = = and C2 = =
d/2 d d/2 d
1 1 1
Putthing these values into equation (3): = 2ε k A + 2ε k A
Cs o 1
d
o 2
d


2εo k1 A 2εo k2 A
1 ×
d d
=
Cs 2εo k1 A
+ 2εo k2 A
d d
2
2εo A
k1 k2
1 d 2εo A k1 k2
= 2εo A
= − − > (4)
Cs d (k1 + k2 )
d k1 + k2
Dividing eq. (4) by (2):
2εo A k1 k2
Cs d k1 +k2 k1 k2
= εo A
=4
Cp 2d (k1 + k2 ) (k1 + k2 )2
k1 k2
4 Ans.
(k1 + k2 )2
Problem 12.22. A capacitor of 10µF and one 20µF are connected across batteries of 600 volts
and 1000 volts respectively and then disconnected. They are then joined in series. What is the
charge on each capacitor?
DATA:
To find:
C1 = 10µF and C2 = 20µF
q1 =? and q2 =?
V1 = 600V and V2 = 1000V
Solution:
Charge of each capacitor when charged separately:

q1 = C1V1 = 10 × 600V = 6000µC
q2 = C2V2 = 20 × 1000V = 20000µC
Total charge in parallel combination: q = q1 + q2 = 6000 + 20000 = 26000µC
Equivalent capacitance of parallel combination: C = C1 +C2 = 10 + 20 = 30µF
q 26000
Voltage of parallel combination: V = = = 866.67V
C 30
Charge of each capacitor in parallel combination: q1 = C1V = 10 × 866.67 = 8666.7µC
q1 = 8666.7µC Ans.
q2 = C2V = 20 × 866.67 = 17333.3µC
q1 = 17333.3µC Ans.
Problem 12.23. Attempt the problem 22 with the difference that the capacitors are joined in series
after being charged, as before.
DATA:
To find:
C1 = 10µF and C2 = 20µF
q1 =? and q2 =?
V1 = 600V and V2 = 1000V
Solution:
1 1 1
Equivalent capacitance of series combination: = +
C C1 C2
1 1 1 2+1 3
= + = = =⇒ C = 6.67µF
C 10 20 20 20
Voltage of series combination: V = V1 +V2 = 600 + 1000 = 1600V

Net charge in series combination: q = CV = 6.67 × 1600 = 10672µC

In series combination, the charge remains same on each capacitor as C is the equivalent capacitance:
∴ q1 = q2 = q = 10672µC.
q1 = q2 = 10672µC Ans.
Printed by
Tando Jan Muhammad
0092 346 2120248

EXERCISE 12.1: (Answer key with explanation of selected MCQs)

1. A charged conductor has charge on its:
(a) inner surface (b) outer surface (c) middle region (d) in whole body
2. In comparison with the electrostatic force between two electrons, the electrostatic
force between two protons is:
(a) greater (b) smaller (c) same (d) zero
3. If a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it acquires a positive charge because:

(a) protons are added to it (b) protons are removed from it
(c) electrons are added to it (d) electrons are removed from it
4. No current flows between two charged bodies when 6. connected if they have same:
(a) capacity (b) potential
(c) charge (d) same surface area
5. An isolated solid metallic sphere is given +Q charge. The charge will be distributed
on the sphere:
(a) uniformly but only on surface (b) only on surface but non uniformly
(c) uniformly inside the volume (d) non uniformly inside the volume
6. When 1014 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, the charge on the sphere
becomes:
(a) 16µC (b) −16µC (c) 32µC (d) −32µC
7. A soap bubble is given a negative charge then its radius:

(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) first increases & then deceases
8. Two plates are 2cm apart. A potential difference of 10 volt is applied between them,
the electric field between the plates is:
(a) 20N/C (b) 500N/C (c) 5N/C (d) 250N/C
9. There are two charges +lµC and +5µC. The ratio of the forces acting on them will
be:
(a) 1:5 (b) 1:1 (c) 5:1 (d) 1:25
10. Conduction electrons are almost uniformly distributed within a conducting plate.
When placed in an electrostatic field E, the electric field within the plate:
(a) depends upon E (b) positive (c) negative (d) zero

11. Five balls, numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4),
(4, 1) show electrostatic attraction; while pairs (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion there-
fore, ball 1 must be:
(a) positively charged (b) negatively charged
(c) neutral (d) made of metal
12. A sure test of electrification is:

(a) attraction (b) repulsion (c) friction (d) induction
13. Two metallic spheres carry equal charges. The distance between the spheres cannot be
considered large in comparison with the diameters of the spheres. In which case, will
the force of interaction between the spheres be greater ?
(a) Like charges (b) unlike charges
(c) One is neutral and other is charged (d) None of the above
14. Mark correct option:

(a) The electric charge without mass is possible
(b) Mass without electric charge is not possible
(c) The charge without mass is not possible
(d) all of these
15. Coulomb’s law is applicable to:

(a) point charges (b) spherical charges(c) surface charges (d) all of these
16. Two positively charged particles each having charge Q are d distance apart. A third
charge is introduced in midway on the line joining the two. Find nature and magnitude
of third charge, so that the system is in equilibrium:
−Q Q 3Q −3Q
(a) q = 4 (b) q = 4 (c) q = 4 (d) q = 4
17. A dielectric K = 2 is inserted between the plates of a 20µF capacitor. It capacitance

will become?
(a) 12µF (b) 18µF (c) 28µF (d) 40µF
18. If the distance between the two point charges become half then force between them
becomes
(a) half (b) double (c) four times (d) remains same

19. The minimum value of charge on any object cannot be less than
(a) 1µC (b) 1.6 × 10−19C (c) 9 × 109C (d) 8.854 × 10−12C
20. In case of a parallel combination of capacitors, the net capacity is greater than?
(a) the greatest individual capacitance
(b) the least individual capacitance
(c) the sum of the capacitance of all capacitors
(d) the sum of capacitance of any two capacitors
21. The change in potential energy of a unit charge between two points in an electrical
field is called:
(a) Intensity (b) electric flux
(c) Potential Difference (d) Electric field
22. The electric flux is positive when the angle between the electric field E and the normal
area vector ∆A is:
(a) θ < 90o (b) θ = 90o (c) θ > 90o (d) θ = 180o
23. One Joule per coulomb is called:

(a) Ampere (b) Farad (c) Volt (d) Gauss
24. The presence of a dielectric between the plates of a capacitor results in:
(a) increasing its capacitance (b) decreasing its capacitance
(c) no effect on capacitance (d) none of these
25. Total potential difference across the combination of three cells becomes maximum
when:
(a) All three cells are connected in series
(b) All three cells are connected in parallel
(c) Two cells are connected in parallel and third cells in series with combination
(d) Two cells are connected in series and third cells in parallel with the combination
26. If two capacitors of l0µF each are connected in parallel, their equivalent capacitance
will be:
(a) 5µF (b) 10µF (c) 20µF (d) 100µF
27. Energy can be expressed in terms of:

(a) electron (b) farad (c) volt (d) electron volt
28. The unit of Capacitance is:

(a) Columb-volt called Farad (b) Columb/volt called Farad
(c) joule-Columb called Weber (d) joule/Columb called Weber

29. When three capacitors are joined in series, the total capacitance is:
(a) Equal to the sum of the capacitance
(b) Greater than the value of the maximum capacitance
(c) Less than the value of the minimum capacitance
(d) all of these
30. Introducing a non-conducting medium between two charges, the force between them:
(a) becomes zero (b) remains same (c) increases (d) decreases
31. The rate of change of potential with respect to the distance is called as:
(a) Potential difference (b) Potential energy
(c) Potential Gradient (d) Capacitance
32. Electric force between two point charges in air or vacuum is F. If we replace air or
vacuum by an insulator (dielectric) of relative permitivity Cr the force between the
charges will
(a) decrease (b) increases (c) remains same (d) both a and b
33. A glass rod rubbed with silk acquires a charge of +8 × 10−12C. The number of
electrons it has gained or lost
(a) 5 × 10−7 (gained) (b) 5 × 107 (lost)
(c) 2 × 10−8 (gained) (d) 8 × 10−12 (lost)
34. The electrostatic force between two point charges kept at a distance d apart, in a
medium εr = 6, is 0.3N. The force between them at the same separation in vacuum is
(a) 20N (b) 0.5N (c) 1.8N (d) 2N
35. Electric field intensity is 400V m−1 at a distance of 2m from a point charge. It will be
100V m−1 at a distance of:
(a) 50cm (b) 4cm (c) 4m (d) 1.5m
36. Two point charges +4q and +q are placed 30cm apart. At what point on the line
joining them the electric field is zero?
(a) 15 cm from the charge q (b) 7.5 cm from the charge q
(c) 20 cm from the charge 4q (d) 5 cm from the charge 4q
37. Four charges +q, +q, −q and −q respectively are placed at the corners A, B, C and D
of a square of side a. The electric potential at the centre O of the square is
(a) k qa (b) k 2q
a (c) k 4q
a (d) zero
38. The work done in moving 500µC charge between two points on equipotential surface
is
(a) zero (b) positive (c) negative (d) infinite

39. Which of the following quantities is scalar?

(a) dipole moment (b) electric force (c) electric field (d) electric potential
40. The number of electric lines of force originating from a charge of 1C is

(a) 1.129 × 1011 (b) 1.6 × 10−19 (c) 6.25 × 1018 (d) 8.85 × 1012
41. The electric field outside the plates of two oppositely charged plane sheets of charge
density σ is
+σ −σ σ
(a) 2εo (b) 2εo (c) εo (d) zero
42. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases from 5µF to 60µF when a
dielectric is filled between the plates. The dielectric constant of the dielectric is
(a) 65 (b) 55 (c) 12 (d) 10
43. A hollow metal ball carrying an electric charge produces no electric field at points
(a) outside the sphere (b) on its surface
(c) inside the sphere (d) at a distance more than twice
44. An external agent pulls a unit positive charge from infinity to a point, then the potential
of that point is:
(a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) both a & b
45. In the direction of electric field, electric potential:

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant(d) none of these
46. If the distance between two charges is increased by 50%, then coulomb force would
be
(a) increased by 50% (b) decreased by 50%
(c) increased by 56% (d) decreased by 56%
47. Coulomb force between two charges is F. One of the charges is decreased by 60%
and another charge is increased by 60%, then Coulomb force would be
(a) decreased by 60% (b) increased by 50%
(c) increased by 120% (d) none of these
48. In parallel combination of capacitors:

(a) voltage remains same across each capacitor
(b) electric charge will remain same on each capacitor
(c) total capacitance will be less than the least individual one
(d) all of these
49. The unit of relative permittivity is

(a) Farad (b) C2 N −1 m−1 (c) Coulomb-volt (d) it has no unit

50. Electric potential of the Earth is considered as

(a) negative (b) positive (c) zero (d) infinitive
51. One coulomb of charge is equal to

(a) 1.6 × 10−19 electronic charge (b) 6.25 × 1018 electronic charge
(c) 9 × 109 electronic charge (d) one electronic charge
52. Velocity of an electron in falling through a potential difference of V volts is v m/s. If

the V is increased by 4 times, the new velocity would be:
(a) 16 times of v (b) 4 times of v
(c) 2 times of v (d) velocity will remain the same
53. The angle between the electric lines of force and equipotential surface is
(a) 0o (b) 45o (c) 90o (d) 180o
54. When they are 80mm apart, two charges attract each other with a force of 4.0 × 10−6 N.
When the same charges are 20mm apart, the force between them is
(a) 1.6 × 10−6 N (b) 1.6 × 10−5 N (c) 8.0 × 10−6 N (d) 6.4 × 10−5 N
55. The same potential difference is used to accelerate a proton and an electron. Afterward
(a) the proton has the higher velocity (b) the electron has the higher velocity
(c) the proton has more KE (d) the electron has more KE
56. In order to increase the capacity of parallel plate condenser one should introduce
between the plates, a sheet of:
(a) mica (b) tin (c) copper (d) stainless steel
57. An air capacitor of capacitance 6µF is immersed in oil whose dielectric constant is
2.0. The capacitance of oil capacitor will be:
(a) 3µF (b) 6µF (c) 12µF (d) 22µF
58. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V from a cell and then
disconnected from it. A charge +Q is now given to its positive plate. The potential
difference across the capacitor is now:
(a) V (b) V + VQ Q
(c) V + 2V (d) V − VQ
59. The amount of charge flow, when a conducting sphere of radius R and carrying a
charge Q, is joined to an uncharged conducting sphere of radius 2R is:
Q Q Q 2Q
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
60. Two capacitors of equal capacity are connected in series, they have resultant capacity
of CR . Now they are connected in parallel. The resultant capacity becomes:
CR CR
(a) 4CR (b) 2CR (c) 4 (d) 2

Answer Key:
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. c
12. b 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c
22. a 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c
32. a 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. d
42. c 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. b
52. c 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. a

EXERCISE 12.1

13. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
13.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Charge Carrier: A particle which carries an electric charge.
Combination of There are mainly two types of circuits, Series and Parallel. Both
Resistances: series and parallel circuits consists of more than one load. Resis-
tors can be connected both in series, parallel or a combination of
both.
• SERIES COMBINATION: In series circuit electrons travel
only in one path. Here the current will be the same which
passes through each resistor. The voltage across resistor in
a series connection will be different. In series connection if
one resistor is broken or any fault occurs, the entire circuit
is turned off. Series circuits do not overheat easily. The
equivalent resistance is given by: Reqv = R1 + R2 + R3 + ....
• PARALLEL COMBINATION: In parallel circuit electrons
travel through many branches in it. In this case the voltage
remains the same across each resistors in the circuit. Here
the current in the circuit is divided among each branches
and finally recombines when the branches meet at a com-
mon point. If one resistor is broken or damaged, it won’t
turn off the entire system. Mostly in buildings and houses
we use parallel connection. The equivalent resistance is
given by: R1eqv = R11 + R12 + R13 + ...

58 Chapter 13. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Combination of Voltage sources can be connected together in both parallel or series.

Voltage Sources: Series voltages add/subtract together while parallel voltages have
the same value. Note that unequal voltage sources cannot be
connected directly together in parallel.
• VOLTAGE SOURCE IN PARALLEL: Two voltage sources
with identical emfs connected in parallel have a net emf
equivalent to one emf source, however, the total internal
resistance is reduced, since the internal resistances are in
parallel. Thus, the parallel connection can produce a larger
current.
• VOLTAGE SOURCE IN SERIES: When voltage sources
are in series facing the same direction, their internal re-
sistances add and their electromotive force, or emf, add
algebraically. But, if the sources oppose one another, then
the total emf is less, since it is the algebraic sum of the
individual emfs. In this combination current will remain
the same.
Conventional Conventional current or simply current, behaves as if positive

Current: charge carriers cause current flow. Conventional current flows
from the positive terminal to the negative one.
Drift Velocity: The average velocity of the free charges in a conductor. There is
an electric field in conductors that causes electrons to drift in the
direction opposite to the field. The drift velocity is the average
velocity of these free charges.
Electric Current: The time rate of flow of electric charge through conductor. The SI
unit for measuring the rate of flow of electric charge is the ampere
(A), which is equal to a charge flowing through some surface at
the rate of one coulomb per second.
Current Density: Current density is the electric current per unit area of cross-section.
It has units of Amperes per square meter.
Electromotive Force The electromotive force (emf) is the potential difference of a

(EMF): source when no current is flowing. The voltage generated by a
battery or by the magnetic force according to Faraday’s Law. It is
measured in units of volts.
Horse Power: The horsepower (hp) is a unit of power in English system. It

was originally defined as 550 foot-pounds per second (ft-lb/s). A
power level of 1 hp is approximately equivalent to 746 watts in SI
system.

Internal Resistance: The resistance within a battery, or other voltage source, that causes
a drop in the source voltage when there is a current.
Kilowatt-hour: A measure of electrical energy equivalent to a power consumption

of one thousand watts for one hour.
Negative A negative coefficient for a material means that its resistance de-
Temperature creases with an increase in temperature. Semiconductor materials
Coefficient: (carbon, silicon, germanium) typically have negative temperature
coefficients of resistance.
Non-ohmic Non-Ohmic conductors do not follow Ohms law. A bulb is a

Conductor: non-ohmic conductor. Its voltage-current graph does not follow a
straight line. Instead, it gives a curve with an increasing gradient.
It shows that the resistance increases as the current increases.
Ohm: The SI unit of electrical resistance; the electrical resistance of a

device across which a potential difference of one volt causes a
current of one ampere; symbol:Ω.
Ohm’s Law: It stats that electric current is proportional to voltage and inversely
proportional to resistance: V = IR
Ohmic Conductor: A conductor that which obeys Ohm’s law OR A resistor at constant
temperature is known as ohmic conductor.
Potential The difference in potential energy between two points in an electric

Difference: field; the difference in charge between two points in an electrical
circuit; it is same as voltage and measured in volts.
Power: Electric power is defined as the rate at which electrical energy is

consumed in an electrical circuit: P = Et = V I. The SI unit of
power is the watt, which is one joule per second.
Resistant: Resistance is the electric property that impedes a current. It is an

extrinsic property that depends on its shape and the material of
which it is composed.
Resistivity: It is a measure of the resisting power of a specified material to the

flow of an electric current. We define the resistivity ρ of a sub-
stance so that the resistance R of an object is directly proportional
to ρ. Resistivity ρ is an intrinsic property of a material which is
independent of its shape or size.
Resistor: A device having resistance to the passage of an electric current.

Temperature The resistance-change factor per degree Celsius of temperature

Coefficient of change is called the temperature coefficient of resistance. It is
Resistance: denoted by Greek letter α. R = Ro (1 + α∆T ).
Terminal Potential Terminal voltage is the voltage output of a device is measured

Difference across its terminals. It is calculated by V = em f − Ir.
(Voltage):
Voltage: The amount of electrostatic potential between two points in space.
Volt: The SI unit of electromotive force, the potential difference, voltage

or EMF. It is defined as a potential of one volt appears across a
resistance of one ohm when a current of one ampere flows through
that resistance.
USEFUL EQUATIONS
Q
I= , where Q is the total charge flow.
t
~ ∆S
It is also a scalar product of two vectors: I = J. ~ ,
Electric Current where J~ is current density and ∆S
~ is cross section area.
eEt
Drift Velocity (vD ) vD =
m
Ohm’s Law V = IR , R in Ω, V in volt and I in ampere.
V2
Electric Power P = IV , OR P = , OR P = I 2 R
R
l
Resistance R=ρ , where ρ is resistivity of a conductor in Ω.m.
A
Resistivity ρT = ρo [1 + α(T − To )] , where α is called the tempera-

ture co-efficient of resistivity measured in K −1 .
Voltage & emf of cell V = E − Ir , where V = IR is potential difference, E is

the emf of the cell and r is internal resistance of the cell.

13.2 PROBLEMS 61
Points to Note:
• Electric current has direction as well as magnitude but it is a scalar quantity
because it obeys simple law of algebra: I = I1 + I2 + I3 + ...
• Ohm’s Law fails in case of vacuum tubes, crystal diodes, transistors etc.
• EMF has no electrostatic origin.
• When a battery is being charged, the terminal voltage is greater than its emf
V = E + Ir. Potential difference across the first cell V1 = E1 + Ir1 (discharging
of cells) and Potential difference across the second cell V2 = E2 −lr2 (charging
of cells).
• When a wire of resistance R is folded n times such that the new length is 1/n
of its original length, then the new resistance = nR2 .
• When wire is drawn (stretched) n times, then resistance becomes n2 R.
• For metal conductors higher temperature = more resistance
• For semi-metal conductors higher temperature = less resistance
• The equivalent resistance of 2 resistors in parallel is less than that of either
resistor by itself.
• The equivalent resistance of 2 resistors in series is more than that of either
resistor by itself.
• Current through any resistor connected in series is same as source current.
• Voltage across each resistor in parallel combination of resistors is same as that
of source voltage while current across each resistor will divide.
• Equivalent emf of cells connected in series is equal to sum of individual
emfs: em f = em f1 + em f2 + em f3 + .....; in this internal resistance (r) will
also increase: r = r1 + r2 + r3 + .....
• Total current of cells connected parallel is given by: I = I1 + I2 + I3 + ..... In
this case emf will remain same and only same emf of cells must be connected
in parallel to give more current.
13.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 13.1. A wire carries a current of 1A. How many electrons pass a point in the wire in each
second?
DATA:
Solution:
I = 80A
t = 1 hour = 3600s
q = It = 80 × 3600 = 2.88 × 105C
To find:
q =? q = 2.88 × 105C Ans.
Problem 13.2. A silver wire 2 m long is to have a resistance of 0.5Ω. What should its diameter be?
DATA: ρ = 1.52 × 10−8 Ω.m
L = 2m To find:
R = 0.5Ω d =?
Solution:
ρL 1.52 × 10−8 × 2
Area of wire: A = =
R 0.5

6.08 × 10−8
A = πr2 = 6.08 × 10−8 =⇒ r2 = = 1.9364 × 10−8
p 3.14
=⇒ r = 1.9364 × 10−8 = 1.39 × 106−4m
d = 2 × r = 2 × 1.39 × 10−4 = 2.78 × 10−4 m
d = 2.78 × 10−4 m Ans.
Problem 13.3. A current of 6 A is drawn from a 120 V line. What power is being developed? How
much energy in joule and in kwh is expended if the current is drawn steadily for one week.
To find:
DATA:
P =?
I = 6A
E =? (in joule)
V = 120V
E =? (in kwh)
t = 1 week = 604800 sec.
Solution:
P = IV = 6 × 120 = 720W =⇒ P = 720W

Energy in joule: E = V It = 120 × 6 × 604800 = 4.35 × 108 J
E = 4.35 × 108J Ans.
1kwh = 3.6 × 106 J
4.35 × 108
E in kwh: E = = 120.83kwh
3.6 × 106
E = 120.83kwh Ans.
Problem 13.4. Currents of 3 A and 1.5 A flow through two wires, one that has a potential difference
of 60 V across its ends and another that has a potential difference of 120 V across its ends. Compare
the rate at which energy pass through each wire.
DATA:
I1 = 3A, V1 = 60V To find:
Rate of energy in wire 1
I2 = 1.5A, V2 = 120V Rate of energy in wire 2 =?
Solution:
Rate of energy = Power = V I

For the first wire: Rate of energy (Power) = 60 × 3 = 180W
For the 2nd wire: Rate of energy (Power) = 120 × 1.5 = 180W
Rate of energy in wire 1 180
∴ = =1
Rate of energy in wire 2 180
Rate of energy in both wires is the same.
Problem 13.5. A wire carries a current of 1 A. How many electrons pass a point in the wire each
second?
DATA: To find:
I = 1A, t = 1s Number of electrons passed = ?

13.2 PROBLEMS 63
Solution:
Let ’n’ be the number of electrons passing a point in each second: q = ne

Where ’e’ is charge on electron and ’q’ is given by:
q = I × t = 1 × 1 = 1C
1
1 = n × 1.6 × 10−19 =⇒ n = = 6.3 × 1018 electrons
1.6 × 10−19
n = 6.3 × 1018 electrons.
Problem 13.6. An electric drill rated at 400 W is connected to a 240 V power line. How much
current does it draw?
DATA: Solution:
P = 400W
P 400
V = 240V P = IV =⇒ I = = = 1.67A
V 240
To find:
I =? I = 1.67A Ans.
Problem 13.7. Resistors of 20Ω, 40Ω, 50Ω are connected in parallel across a 50 V power source.
Find the equivalent resistance of the set and the current in each resistor?
Solution:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) = + + = + +
DATA: R R1 R2 R3 20 40 50
R1 = 20Ω 1 10 + 5 + 4 19
= = =⇒ R = 10.52Ω
R2 = 40Ω R 200 200
R3 = 50Ω R = 10.52Ω Ans.
To find: V 50
(a) R =? (b) I1 = = = 2.5A
R1 20
(b) I1 =?, V 50
I2 =?, I2 = = = 1.25A
R2 40
I3 =? V 50
I3 = = = 1A
R3 50
Problem 13.8. (a) Find the equivalent resistance of the network shown in figure.
(b) What is the current in 8Ω resistor if the p.d. of 12V is applied to the network?
R4 = 3Ω
DATA:
V = 12V
R1 = 5Ω
To find:
R2 = 8Ω
(a) R =?
R3 = 6Ω
(b) I2 =?
Solution:
(a) Let R5 be the equivalent resistance of R1 and R2 connected in parallel:

1 1 1 1 1 13
= + = + = =⇒ R5 = 3.08Ω
R5 R1 R2 5 8 40
Let R6 be the equivalent resistance of R5 and R3 connected in series:

R6 = R5 + R3 = 3.08 + 6 = 9.08Ω
Let R be the equivalent resistance of
R6 and R4 connected in parallel:
1 1 1 1 1 12.08
= + = + =
R R6 R4 9.08 3 27.24
27.24
R= = 2.25Ω
12.08
R = 2.25Ω Ans.
(b) As R is the equivalent resistance of R6 and R4 connecetd in parallel, therefore,

V6 12
V = V4 = V6 = 12V =⇒ I6 = = 1.32A
R6 9.08
As R6 is the equivalent resistance of R5 and R3 connecetd in series, therefore,
I6 = I3 = I5 = 1.32A
V5 = I5 R5 = 1.32 × 3.08 = 4.07V
As R5 is the equivalent resistance of R1 and R2 connecetd in parallel, therefore,
V5 = V1 = V2 = 4.07V
V2 4.07
=⇒ I2 = = = 0.51A
R2 8
I2 = 0.51A Ans.
Problem 13.9. A 60-V potential difference is applied to the circuit shown below. Find the current
in the 10Ω resistor.
R5 = 14Ω
DATA:
R6 = 3Ω
R1 = 15Ω
R7 = 5Ω
R2 = 10Ω
V = 60V
R3 = 4Ω
To find:
R4 = 4Ω
I2 =?

13.2 PROBLEMS 65
Solution:
Let R8 be the equivalent resistance of R1 and R2 connected in parallel:

1 1 1 1 1 5
= + = + =
R8 R1 R2 15 10 30
R8 = 6Ω
Let R9 be the equivalent resistance of R3 , R8 and R4 connected in series:
R9 = R3 + R8 + R4 = 4 + 6 + 4 = 14Ω
Let R10 be the equivalent resistance of R5 and R4 connected in parallel:
1 1 1 1 1 2
= + = + =
R10 R5 R9 14 14 14
14
R10 = = 7Ω
2
Let R be the equivalent resistance of R7 , R10 and R6 connected in series:
V 60
R = R7 + R10 + R6 = 5 + 7 + 3 = 15Ω =⇒ I = = = 4A
R 15
As R is the equivalent resistance of R7 , R10 and R6 connected in series, therefore,
I10 = I = 4A =⇒ V10 = I10 R10 = 4 × 7 = 28V
As R10 is the equivalent resistance of R9 and R5 connected in parallel, therefore,
V9
V9 = V10 = 28V =⇒ I9 = = 2A
R9
As R9 is the equivalent resistance of R3 , R8 and R4 connected in series, therefore,
I8 = I9 = 2A =⇒ V8 = I8 R8 = 2 × 6 = 12V
As R8 is the equivalent resistance of R1 and R2 connected in parallel, therefore,
V8 12
V2 = V8 = 12V =⇒ I2 = = = 1.2A
R8 10
I2 = 1.2A Ans.
Problem 13.10. A source of what potential difference is needed to charge a battery of 20 V e.m.f
and internal resistance of 0.1Ω at a rate of 70 A.
DATA: Solution:
EMF = 20V
r = 0.1Ω (internal resistance) V = E + Ir
I = 70A V = 20 + 70 × 0.1
To find: V = 20 + 7 = 27
V =?
V = 27V Ans.
Problem 13.11. A battery of 24V is connected to a 10Ω load and a current of 2.2 amp is drawn;
find the internal resistance of the battery and its terminal voltage.
DATA:
To find:
E = 24V (emf)
V =?
R = 10Ω
r =? (internal resistance)
I = 2.2A

Solution:
E −V 24 − 22
=⇒ r = =
V = IR = 2.2 × 10 = 22V I 2.2
2
V = 22V Ans. r= = 0.9
2.2
V = E + Ir r = 0.9Ω Ans.
Problem 13.12. A 40Ω resistor is to be wound from platinum wire 0.1mm in diameter. How much
wire is needed? (σ = 11 × 10−8 Ω.m)
Solution:
DATA:
R = 40Ω ρL RA Rπr2
R= =⇒ L =
d = 0.1mm = 1 × 10−4 m A ρ ρ
ρ = 11 × 10−8 Ωm 40 × 3.14 × (5 × 10 )2
−5
To find: L= = 2.85m
11 × 10−8
L =?
L = 2.85m Ans.
Problem 13.13. The battery of a pocket calculator supplies 0.35 A at a p.d. of 6 V. What is the
power rating of the calculator?
DATA: Solution:
I = 0.35A
P = IV
V = 6V
To find: P = 6 × 0.35 = 2.1W
P =? P = 2.1W Ans.
Problem 13.14. A current of 5 A through a battery is maintained for 30 s and in this time 600 J of
chemical energy is transformed into electric energy (a) What is the e.m.f of the battery? (b) How
much electric power is available for heating and other uses?
Solution:
DATA: If internal resistance of circuit is ignored, then

I = 5A e.m. f = V. But energy is given by: E = V It
t = 3s
E 600 600
E = 600J e.m. f = V = = = = 4V
It 5 × 30 150
To find:
e.m. f =? e.m. f = 4V Ans.
P =? P = IV = 4 × 5 = 20
P = 20W Ans.
Problem 13.15. A 12Ω resistor is connected in series with a parallel combination of 10 resistors,
each of 200Ω. What is the net resistance of the circuit?
DATA:
Resistance of each parallel resistor, R1 = 200Ω To find:
Number of parallel resistors, n=10 Equivalent resistance, R=?
Resistance of series resistor, R2 = 12Ω

13.2 PROBLEMS 67
Solution:
Let R3 be the equivalent resistance of

10 parallel resistors
1 1 1
= n = 10
R3 R1 200
R3 = 20Ω
Let R be the equivalent resistance of
R3 and R2 connected in series.
R = R3 + R2 = 20 + 12 = 32Ω
R = 32Ω Ans.
Problem 13.16. Three equal resistors each of 12Ω can be connected in four different ways. What
is equivalent resistance of each combination?
Solution:
(i) When all are in series combination: R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 12 + 12 + 12 = 36Ω

R = 32Ω Ans.
1 1 1 1
(ii) When all are in parallel combination: = + +
R R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1 3
= + + = =⇒ R = 4Ω
R 12 12 12 12
R = 4Ω Ans.
(iii) When two in series & one in parallel: Let R4 be the equivalent resistance of
R1 and R2 connected in series:vR4 = R1 + R2 = 12 + 12 = 24Ω
Let R be the equivalent resistance of R4 and R3 connected in parallel:
1 1 1 1 1 3
= + = + = =⇒ R = 8Ω Ans.
R R4 R3 24 12 24
(iv) When two in parallel & one in series: Let R4 be the equivalent resistance of
R1 and R2 connected in parallel:
1 1 1 1 1 2
= + = + = =⇒ R4 = 6Ω
R4 R1 R2 12 12 12
Let R be the equivalent resistance of R4 and R3 connected in series:
R = R4 + R3 = 6 + 12 = 18Ω
R = 18Ω Ans.
Problem 13.17. Find the resistance at 50oC of a copper wire 2 mm in diameter and 3 m long.
ρ = 1.6 × 10−8 Ωm
DATA:
α = 0.0039/oC
T = 50oC
To find:
d = 2mm = 2 × 10−3 m
RT =?
Solution:
ρL ρL
Initial resistance at OoC is given by: Ro = = 2
A πr

1.6 × 10−8 × 3
L= = 0.0153Ω
3.14 × (1 × 10−3 )2
Now rsistance at T = 50oC is given by: RT = Ro (1 + α∆T ) = 0.0153 (1 + 0.0039 × 50)
RT = 0.0153(1 + 0.195) = 0.0183Ω
RT = 0.0183Ω Ans.
Problem 13.18. The resistance of a tungsten wire used in the filament of a 60 W bulb is 240Ω
when the bulb is hot at a temperature of 2020oC. What would you estimate its resistance at 20oC?
(Given α = 0.0046oC−1 )
α = 0.0046/oC
DATA:
T = 20oC
T = 2020oC
To find:
R = 240Ω (initial resistance)
RT =?
Solution:
RT
The resistance at 2020oC is given by: RT = Ro (1 + α∆T ) =⇒ Ro =
1 + α∆T
240
RT = = 23.32Ω
1 + 0.0046 × 2020
Now rsistance at T = 20oC from Ro is given by: RT = Ro (1 + α∆T ) = 23.32 (1 + 0.0046 × 20)
RT = 23.32(1 + 0.092) = 25.5Ω
RT = 25.5Ω Ans.
Problem 13.19. A water heater that will deliver 1kg of water per minute is required. The water is
supplied at 20oC and an output temperature of 80oC is desired. What should be the resistance of
the heating element in the water if the line voltage is 220V? (Given: specific heat capacity of water
(c) = 4200Jkg−1 K −1 )
DATA:
V = 220V
m = 1kg
c = 4200J/kg.K
t = 1min = 60s
To find:
T1 = 20oC
R =?
T2 = 80oC
Solution:
∆T = T2 − T1 = 80 − 20 = 60oC = 60K
According to the law of conservation of energy: Electrical energy = specific heat capacity of water
V 2t V 2t (220)2 × 60
= mc∆T =⇒ r = = = 11.5Ω
R mc∆T 1 × 4200 × 60
R = 11.5Ω Ans.
Problem 13.20. Prove that the rate of heat production in each of the two resistors connected in
parallel are inversely proportional to the resistance.
To find:
P ∝ R1

13.2 PROBLEMS 69
Solution: Let us consider two resistors of R1 and R2 are connected in parallel with a source voltage
V.
V2
Rate of heat produced in R1 = P1 = − − − − > (1)
R1
V2
Rate of heat produced in R2 = P2 = − − − − > (2)
R2
P1 V 2 /R1 R2
By dividing eq (1) by eq (2), we get: = =
P2 V 2 /R2 R1
1
=⇒ P ∝
R
Problem 13.21. A 240V cloth dryer draws a current of 15A. How much energy in kW h and joules
does it use in 45 minutes operation and how much will be the cost at the rate of Rs. 1.45 per unit of
electric energy?
DATA:
To find:
V = 240V
E =? (in Joule)
I = 15A
E =?(in kwh)
t = 45min = 45 × 60 = 2700s
Cost=?
Rate per unit = Rs. 1.45
Solution:
Energy in Joule = V It = 240 × 15 × 2700 = 9.72 × 106 J
E = 9.72 × 106 J Ans.
As 1kwh = 3.6 × 106 J
Energy in Joule 9.72 × 106
Energy in kwh = = = 2.7kwh
3.6 × 106 3.6 × 106
E = 2.7kwh Ans.
Cost of energy = 2.7 × 1.45 = 3.91
Cost of energy =Rs 3.91
Problem 13.22. A resistor is made by winding on a spool a 40m length of constantan wire of
diameter 0.8 mm. Calculate the resistance of the wire at (a) 0oC (b) 50oC. [Assume ρo at
0oC = 49 × 10−8 Ω.m and α = 1 × 10−5C−1 ].
DATA: T = 50oC
L = 40m To find:
d = 0.8mm = 8 × 10−4 m (i) Ro =? (at 0oC temperature)
o
ρ = 49 × 10 Ωm α = 0.00001/ C
−8
(ii) RT =? (at 50oC temperature)
Solution:
ρL 49 × 10−8 × 40
(i) Resistance at 0oC is given by: Ro = = = 39.01Ω
A 3.14 × (4 × 10−4 )2
RT = 39.01Ω Ans.
Now rsistance at T = 50oC is given by:
RT = Ro (1 + α∆T ) = 39.01 (1 + 0.00001 × 50)
RT = 39.01(1 + 0.0005) = 39.03Ω
RT = 39.03Ω Ans.



1. The same volume of copper can have any of the following combinations of length L
and cross-sectional area A. Which combination has the most resistance?
(a) L and A
(b) L/2 and 2A
(c) 2L and A/2
(d) All have the same resistance because the volume of copper is the same
2. Each of the resistors in the circuits below represents a light bulb. If all three circuits
use the same size battery, which circuit will produce the most light?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II and III will produce the same amount of light
3. Each resistor in the circuit below has a resistance of 2Ω. The battery is a 12 V battery.
What is the current across resistor B?
(a) 1A (b) 2A (c) 3A (d) 4A
4. Which of the following changes to a parallel plate capacitor would not increase its
capacitance?
(a) Decreasing the distance between the plates
(b) Increasing the area of the plates
(c) Increasing the dielectric constant
(d) Increasing the voltage across the plates

5. The circuit shown below has three resistors connected in parallel to a battery.
When an additional resistor, R4 is added to the circuit:

(a) the voltage produced by the battery will be increased.
(b) the voltage produced by the battery will be decreased.
(c) the current produced by the battery will be decreased.
(d) the power produced by the battery will be increased.
6. The length of a wire L is increased by 50% and cross section area A is decreased by
50%, then resistance of the wire:
(a) will increased by 200% (b) will increased by 100%
(c) will increased by 50% (d) will remain same
7. If the cross-section area A of a wire is decreased by 60%, then increase in resistance

will be:
(a) 60% (b) 120% (c) 150% (d) 250%
8. If the cross-section area A of a wire is increased by 100%, then:

(a) resistance will decreased by 100% (b) resistance will increased by 100%
(c) resistance will decreased by 50% (d) resistance will increased by 50%
9. If the radius of a wire is doubled, the resistance will be

(a) doubled (b) 4 times (c) 1/2 times (d) 1/4 times
10. If the radius of a wire is doubled and length is increased by 4 times, then:
(a) resistance will increased by 8 times (b) resistance will increased by 4 times
(c) resistance will increased by 2 times (d) resistance will remain the same
11. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The

quantity constant along the length of the conductor is:
(a) current, electric field and drift speed (b) drift speed only
(c) current and drift speed (d) current only
12. The length of a conductor is halved. Its conductance will be:

(a) halved (b) unchanged (c) doubled (d) 4 times

13. A wire of resistance R is stretched so that its length increases by 10%. The resistance
of the wire increases by:
(a) 11% (b) 15% (c) 21% (d) 28%
14. A wire of resistance R is stretched so that its length increases by 50%. The resistance
of the wire increases by:
(a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 125% (d) 150%
15. If a wire of resistance R is stretched 4 times. Now the resistance of the wire would be:
(a) 2 times old resistance (b) 4 times old resistance
(c) 8 times old resistance (d) 16 times old resistance
16. Repeat Q#15, the increase in resistance is:

(a) 400% (b) 800% (c) 1500% (d) 1600%
17. A wire has resistance 12Ω. It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance
between the two points on any diameter of the circle is:
(a) 12Ω (b) 24Ω (c) 6Ω (d) 3Ω
18. When cells are connected in series:

(a) the emf increases (b) the P.D. decreases
(c) the current capacity increases (d) the current capacity decreases
19. Two identical resistors are connected in parallel then connected in series. The effective
resistances are in the ratio:
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
20. The resistance of two conductors in series is 40Ω and this becomes 7.5Ω in parallel,
the resistances of conductors are:
(a) 20Ω, 20Ω (b) 10Ω, 30Ω (c) 15Ω, 25Ω (d) 18Ω, 22Ω
21. If R1 and R2 be the resistances of the filaments of 200W and 100W electric bulbs
operating at 220V then:
(a) R1 is equal to R2 (b) R1 is twice that of R2
(c) R2 is twice that of R1 (d) R2 is half of the R1
22. N identical cells, each of emf E, are connected in parallel. The emf of the combination
is:
(a) NE (b) E (c) N 2 E (d) E/N
23. A cell supplies a current of 0.9A through a 2Ω resistor and a current of 0.3A through a
7Ω resistor. What is the internal resistance of the cell ?
(a) 0.5Ω (b) 1.0Ω (c) 1.2Ω (d) 2.0Ω

24. The temperature of a conductor in increased. The product of resistivity and conductiv-
ity:
(a) increased (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) both a & b
25. A resistor connected to a battery is heated due to current through it. Which of the
following quantity does not vary?
(a) resistance (b) drift velocity
(c) resistivity (d) number of free electrons
26. When the current in wire is 1A, the drift velocity is 1.2 × 10−4 m/s. The drift velocity
when current becomes 5A is
(a) 1.2 × 10−4 m/s (b) 3.6 × 10−4 m/s (c) 6 × 10−4 m/s (d) 4.8 × 10−4 m/s
27. Two cells of emf 1.25V and 0.75V having equal internal resistance are connected in
parallel. The effective emf is:
(a) 0.75V (b) 1.25V (c) 2.0V (d) 1.0V
28. A 20Ω heater takes 5 minutes to boil a given amount of water. How much resistance
of the heater will be required to boil the same amount of water using the same source
in 1 minute?
(a) 20Ω (b) 10Ω (c) 5Ω (d) 4Ω
29. The equivalent resistance between points M and N is:
(a) 2Ω (b) 3Ω (c) 3/2Ω (d) 2/3Ω
30. A 120-V appliance that draws a current of 20A has a power rating of:
(a) 6W (b) 2.4kW (c) 0.72kW (d) 48kW
Answer Key: 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. d
11. d 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. b
21. c 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. d 30. b

EXERCISE 13.2:
1. Kilowatt-hour (KWH) is the unit of:
(a) Electric power (b) thermal power (c) electric energy (d) all of these
2. Horse power (HP) is the unit of:

(a) electric potential (b) electric power (c) electric energy (d) electric current
3. One horse power (1HP) is equal to

(a) one KWH (b) 36 × 105 joules (c) 746 watts (d) all of these
4. 1KW H is equal to
(a) 746 watts (b) 36 × 105 joules (c) 1000 joules (d) 36 × 105 watts
5. When n resistors of equal resistances (R) are connected in series, the effective resis-
tance is
(a) n/R (b) R/n (c) 1/nR (d) nR
6. When n resistors of equal resistances (R) are connected in parallel, the effective
resistance is
(a) n/R (b) R/n (c) 1/nR (d) nR
7. If the resistance of a coil is 2Ω at 0oC and α = 0.004/oC, then its resistance at 100oC
is
(a) 0Ω (b) 2Ω (c) 2.8Ω (d) 4Ω
8. In the case of insulators, as the temperature decreases, resistivity

(a) decreases (b) increase (c) remains same (d) becomes zero
9. In the case of semiconductor, as the temperature decreases, resistivity

(a) decreases (b) increase (c) remains same (d) becomes zero
10. A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice its original length. What is the resistance
of the wire now ?
(a) 2Ω (b) 4Ω (c) 8Ω (d) 16Ω
11. The net resistance between points P and Q in the circuit shown in the figure is:
(a) R/2 (b) 2R/5 (c) 3R/5 (d) R/3

12. Four resistances each of value 4Ω, are connected as shown in figure. The equivalent
resistance between points A and B is:
(a) 2Ω (b) 3Ω (c) 4Ω (d) 16Ω
13. Two bulbs when connected in parallel to a source take 100 W each. The total power
consumed when they are connected in series with the same source is:
(a) 25W (b) 50W (c) 100W (d) 200W
14. A constant current is passed through a uniform metallic wire. If both the length and
radius of the wire are doubled, then:
(a) the heat developed in wire will be doubled
(b) the electric field in the wire will be doubled
(c) the heat developed will be halved
(d) the electric field in the wire will be halved
15. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some
heat is produced in it. The heat developed is double if:
(a) both the length and radius of the wire are halved
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled
(d) the length of the wire is doubled and the radius of the wire is halved
16. The power consumed by 4 V battery in the circuit as shown is:
(a) 5W (b) 6W
(c) 7W (d) 8W
17. The power consumed by the combination, when three electric lamps of 40 W, 60 W
and 100 W are connected in parallel, is:
(a) 0W (b) 120W (c) 160W (d) 200W

18. To reduce the brightness of a light bulb, a resistance be connected in:

(a) series to it (b) parallel to it
(c) either series or parallel to it (d) both a & b
19. An electric kettle boils some water in 16 minutes. Due to some defect, it becomes
necessary to remove 10% turns of heating coil of the kettle. Now, how much time will
it take to boil the same quantity of water:
(a) 17.7 minute (b) 14.4 minute (c) 20.9 minute (d) 13.7 minute
20. A wire with a resistance of 20Ω is drawn out so that its length becomes thrice its
original length. The new resistance is:
(a) 60Ω (b) 20/3Ω (c) 180Ω (d) 18Ω
Answer Key:
1. c 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. b
12. b 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c
EXPLANATIONS TO SELECTED MCQ

EXERCISE 13.1
1. (c) is correct. Since, the resistance of the wire is given by R = ρ AL . From this
equation, the resistance is directly proportional to the length of the wire L and
inversely proportional to the area of cross section A. So, if length of wire is higher
that is, 2L and cross-section area is lower, i.e., A/2, the resistance would be larger.
2. (a) is correct. The energy for the light comes from the battery. The rate at which the
energy is released is the power. P = I 2 R. Since the voltage remains constant, the
change in the current will produce the greatest change in the power. Where more
light bulbs are attached, the resistance goes up and the current goes down; thus the
power goes down and less light is produced. Circuit I has the least resistance in the
circuit and will draw the most current from the battery.
3. (b) is correct. The effective(total) resistance is 3Ω. First, find the total resistance of
the two resistors in parallel, resistor A and resistor B:
1 1 1 1 1 1+1
= + = + = = 1Ω
R RA RB 2 2 2
Then, attribute this resistance to a single resistor in series with resistor C and find
the overall effective resistance: R = 1Ω + 2Ω = 3Ω.
The voltage divided by the effective resistance gives the current of 4A coming out
of the battery. The 4A splits evenly at the node before A and B; 2A through each
resistor.
4. (d) is correct. Increasing the voltage across the plates would increase the amount
of charge on the capacitor but not the capacitance of the capacitor. Capacitance is
defined by C = Q/V . All the other choices, distance between the plates, area of the
plates, and the dielectric constant change the capacitance.

5. (d) is correct. Adding a resistor in parallel decreased the overall resistance, which
will increase the current and the power. The voltage of the battery is not affected by
changes in the circuit.
6. (a) is correct.
7. (c) is correct.
8. (c) is correct.
9. (d) is correct.
10. (d) is correct.
11. (d) is correct.
12. (c) is correct.
13. (c) is correct. When you stretch the wire, it’s volume will remain same but radius will
decrease. So, if the wire is of cylindrical shape, then the volume will be: V = πr2 L;
where, r is the radius of the cylinder and L is the length of the wire. Since the volume
remains the same: πr12 L1 = πr22 L2 , or A21 L1 = A22 L2 . Let, original length is 100% = 1
and area is 100% = 1. If length is stretched by 10% = 0.1, then new length L2 would
be 1 + 0.1 = 1.1L1 and new area would be: A2 × L2 = A1 × L1 or A2 × 1.1L1 = A1 L1 ,
or A2 = A1 /1.1 = 0.9091A1 , or, A2 = 90.91% which means area will decreases to
100%-90.91%=9.09%. Now resistance will be: R = ρ AL = ρ 0.901 1.1
= 1.21 = 121%.
Subtract original resistance from this: 121%-100%=21%. Resistance will increased
by 21%.
hortcut 2 times. If
we
Ram’s S ases n e as
e s i s t an ce incre ginal reistsanc
, its r g or i
t ch ed n times ance, supposin
s stre resist
iv e wire i or decrease in ∆R:
If a r e s is t
n c r e a se a n c e w ould be
find i resist
want to hen change in
1, t
100%=
n2 − 1)Rol
d
2 R ld (
n o Rol =
Rnew = n2 Rol d −
d
R ld =
− o
s 1.1
∆R = Rne length i
w
n s n ew
2 − 1)R ol d
10 = 0.1. I
t mea
∆R = (n 0% = 100
s t r et c h ed by 1
ire is
r c a se, the w o n = 1.1
In o u
d one, s 0.21Rol d
th e o l 1 ) R o ld =
times 2 − 1)R ol d =
(1.21 −
1.1 ) .
∆R = (( 1 × 1 0 0 = 21%
e: 0. 2
in to p e rcentag
t it
Conver
50
14. (c) is correct. Here, the wire is stretched by 50% = 100 = 0.5. It means new length
would be 1.5 times the old one, so n = 1.5. Now use Ram’s Shortcut :
∆R = ((1.5)2 − 1)Rold = (2.25 − 1)Rold = 1.25Rold

Convert it into percentage: 1.25 × 100 = 125%.

15. (d) is correct. We can use Ram’s Shortcut : Rnew = n2 Rold , here n = 4, so Rnew =
42 Rold = 16Rold . New resistance of wire would be 16 times the old one.
16. (c) is correct. Here we have to find increase in resistance ∆R in percentage format.
Use Ram’s Shortcut :
∆R = ((4)2 − 1)Rold = (16 − 1)Rold = 15Rold
Convert it into percentage: 15 × 100 = 1500%.

17. (d) is correct. The resistance of the wire will divided into 2 equal connecting a parallel
paths, so the effective resistance would be: R1 = R11 + R12 = 16 + 16 = 1+1 2 1
6 = 6 = 3 , or
R = 3Ω.
18. (a) is correct.
19. (c) is correct.
20. (b) is correct.
21. (c) is correct.
22. (b) is correct. If two cells are having equal emf and connected in parallel then
resultant emf will be equal to the emf of any one of the cells.
23. (a) is correct.
24. (c) is correct.
25. (d) is correct.
26. (c) is correct. The current I in a wire is directly proportional to drift velocity vD . It
means I ∝ vD , therefore, vD = 5 × 1.2 × 10−4 = 6 × 10−4 .
27. (d) is correct. em f = 1.25r+0.75r
2r = 2.0V r
2r = 1.0V .
2
28. (d) is correct. According to power dissipation equation: P = VR and P = ∆Q t , where
V2
∆Q is heat energy produced when power is dissipated in resistor. Therefore, Rt = ∆Q .
V2 R 20
∆Q and source V remains same then: ∆Q = t = 5 = 4. If we want to boil the water
R V2 V2
quickly that is in 1 minute then: 1 = ∆Q , but ∆Q = 4, so R = 4 × 1 = 4Ω.
29. (d) is correct.
30. (d) is correct.

Printed by
Tando Jan Muhammad
0092 346 2120248

14. MAGNETIC & ELECTROMAGNETISM
14.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Generator: Electric generators are used to transform mechanical or kinetic

energy into electric energy. It produces an Electromotive Force
(e.m.f.) by changing the number of Magnetic Flux Lines (Lines of
Force), Φ, passing through a Wire Coil.
• D.C Generator: A DC generator is an electrical machine
which converts mechanical energy into direct current elec-
tricity. A DC generator can be used as a DC motor without
any constructional changes and vice versa is also possi-
ble. Thus, a DC generator or a DC motor can be broadly
termed as a DC machine. Basic constructional parts of a
DC machine are: Yoke, poles and pole shoes, field winding,
armature core, armature winding, Commutator and brushes.
• A.C Generator: AC generator is also called as an alternator
which converts mechanical energy into alternative current
electricity. Main parts of the alternator consists of stator
and rotor. But, the unlike other machines, in most of the
alternators, field exciters are rotating and the armature coil
is stationary.
Magnetic Field: A region around a magnetic material or a moving electric charge

within which the force of magnetism acts. It is a vector quantity
and denoted by B. The SI unit for magnetic field is the Tesla. A
smaller unit is the Gauss (1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss).

82 Chapter 14. MAGNETIC & ELECTROMAGNETISM
Ampere’s Law: Ampere’s Law states that for any closed loop path, the sum of
the length elements times the magnetic field in the direction of
the length element is equal to the permeability times the electric
current enclosed in the loop. The mathematical statement of the
law states that the total magnetic field around some path is directly
proportional to the current which passes through that enclosed
path: ΣB|| ∆l = µo I
Biot-Savart Law: Biot-Savart found that the magnitude of field B is directly pro-
portional to twice of current I and inversely proportional to the
distance r.
Charge-to-Mass The charge-to-mass ratio (Q/m) of an object is the charge of an

Ratio (Q/m) object divided by the mass of the same object. This quantity is
generally useful only for objects that may be treated as particles.
e/m of Electron: This is the charge-to-mass ratio of electron which is equal to

1.7588196 × 1011Ckg−1 . This was successfully calculated by J. J.
Thomson in 1897.
Eddy Current: A localized electric current induced in a conductor by a varying

magnetic field. Eddy currents can heat up metal objects without
even touching them.
Electric Motor: An electric motor is an electrical machine that converts electrical

energy into mechanical energy.
Electromagnetic The production of emfs and currents by the changing magnetic

Induction: field through a conducting loop is called electromagnetic induction.
The SI unit for inductance is the henry, and 1 henry = 1(V.s/A).
Faraday’s Laws of
• First Law: Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a cir-
EM Induction:
cuit changes, an emf is always induced in it.
• Second Law: The magnitude of induced emf is directly
proportional to the rate of change of flux linkages.
Henry: If the rate of change of current in a circuit is one ampere per

second and the resulting electromotive force is one volt, then
the inductance of the circuit is one henry. It is denoted by H.
1H = weber V.s
A = A = Ω.s
Lenz’s Law: The direction of an induced emf is such that it will always opposes
the change that is causing it.

Magnetic Flux: Magnetic flux is a measurement of the total magnetic field which
passes through a given area. Mathematically: Φ = B.A. The SI
unit for magnetic flux is Tesla.m2 , which is equal to Weber (Wb).
Magnetic Flux Same as Magnetic field (B). Magnetic flux density (B) is defined
Density: as the force acting per unit current per unit length on a wire placed
at right angles to the magnetic field. It is a vector quantity and SI
unit of B is Tesla (T) OR kg.s−2 .A−1 OR W b.m−2 .
Motional EMF: An EMF (electromotive force) induced by motion relative to a

magnetic field. Motional EMF produced by a moving conductor
in a uniform field is given as follows ξ = Blv, where ξ = em f
Mutual Induction: It is the phenomenon in which a change of current in one coil

causes an induced emf in another coil placed near to the first
coil. The coil in which current is changed is called primary coil
and the coil in which emf is induced is called secondary coil.
Mutual Inductance (M) is defined as the ratio of emf induced in
the secondary coil to the rate of change of electric current in the
em f
primary coil: M = ∆I/∆t . Value of ‘M’ depends upon the number
of turns of secondary coil, their cross-sectional area and their
closeness to each other. The SI unit of M is Henry.
Self Induction: Self induction is that phenomenon in which a change in electric

current in a coil produces an induced emf in the coil itself. Self
inductance (L) of a coil is defined as the ratio of self-induced emf
em f
to the rate of change of current in the coil: L = ∆I/∆t . It depends
upon the physical characteristics of the coil. The SI unit of self
inductance is Henry.
Solenoid A coil of wire that acts as a magnet when an electric current

flows through it. When a current is passed through a solenoid the
magnetic field is produced, which is strong and uniform inside,
while it is negligibly weak outside.
Toroid: A toroid is a solenoid wound on a circular support. When a current

is passed, circular strong uniform magnetic field is setup inside
the coil. The field outside the turns of toroid is zero.
Tesla (T): It is a unit of magnetic field (B). Tesla is defined as the magnetic
flux density of a uniform magnetic field when a wire of length
1m, carrying a current of 1A, placed perpendicular to the field,
experiences a force of 1N in a direction at right angles to both the
field and the current.

Transformer: A transformer is a device which is used to convert high AC voltage

to a low AC voltage and vice versa. Transformer works on the
principle of mutual induction of two coils. When current in the
primary coil is changed the flux linked to the secondary coil also
changes. Consequently an EMF is induced in the secondary coil.
• Step-up Transformer: A step up transformer is a trans-
former which converts low AC voltage to high AC voltage.
In this transformer, the number of turns in secondary coil is
more than that of primary coil.
• Step-down Transformer: A step down transformer is a
transformer which converts high AC voltage to low AC
voltage. In this transformer, the number of turns in primary
coil is more than that of secondary coil.
Weber (Wb): It is SI unit of magnetic flux. The weber is the magnetic flux which,
linking a circuit of one turn, would produce in it an electromotive
force of 1 volt if it were reduced to zero at a uniform rate in 1
second.
RAM’S MIND MAP

USEFUL EQUATIONS
FB = qvB sin θ (scalar form)
Magnetic Force on charge ~B = q~v × ~B (vector form)

F
F µo I1 I2
Parallel wires =
l 2πr
FB = IlB sin θ (scalar form)
Magnetic Force on current ~B = I~l × ~B (vector form)

F
carrying wire
µo Il
Biot-Savart Law B= , µo = 4π × 10−7 T.m/A(N/A2 )
4πr2
Ampere’s Law ΣB.∆l = µo I
F
Magnetic field (B) B= (SI unit: Tesla (T), N/m.A)
Il
µo I
Magnetic field B= (straight wire)
2πr
N
Magnetic field (solenoid) B = µo Inl , where n is turn per unit length: n = l
µo NI
Magnetic field (toroid) B= , where N is total number of turns
2πr
Torque on wire in B τ = BIAN cos α , where N= total number of turn, A= area

of the coil
Magnetic flux Φm = BA cos θ , SI unit: weber(Wb)
r
2Ve E
v= = (velocity of electron)
me B
e v
Charge-to-mass ratio =
m rB

mv
Radius r= (charged particle moves in circular path in mag-
qB
netic field perpendicular to the plane of motion)
Motional emf ξ = Blv
∆Φm
Induced emf ξ = −N (negative sign for lenz’s law)
∆t
∆I
ξ = −L (self induction, here L=self-inductance)
∆t
∆I
Electromagnetic induction ξ = −M (mutual induction, here M=mutual-inductance)
∆t
Self-Inductance (L) NΦm = LI (N=turn and unit of L is henry)
Mutual-Inductance (M) N2 Φm2 = MI1 (N2 =turn in secondary coil, Φm2 = flux in
secondary coil and I1 = current in the primary coil. The SI
unit of M is henry)
Es Ns Ip
Transformer = = , E = emf, N= number of turns and I=
E p Np Is
electric current. Subscript p = primary coil and s= sec-
ondary coil. Ns > Np (=step-up transformer) and Np > Ns
(=step-down transformer).
power output
Efficiency of transformer η=
power input

14.2 PROBLEMS 87
Points to Note:
• The direction of the force on a moving charge is given by right hand rule.
Point the thumb of the right hand in the direction of v , the fingers in the
direction of B , and a perpendicular to the palm points in the direction of F.
• Electromagnet is an object that is temporarily magnetic when an electrical
current is passed through it.
• If a closed loop of any shape is placed in a uniform magnetic field, the
magnetic force on the loop is zero.
• The Lenz’s law is based on conservation of energy and it gives the direction
of induced emf or current in the coil.
• Transformer works for A.C. only.
• Changing magnetic fields can set up current loops in nearby metal (any
conductor) bodies. They dissipate electrical energy as heat. Such currents are
called eddy currents.
• Magnetic fields point from the north to the south outside the magnet and south
to north inside the magnet.
• Solenoids are stronger with more current or more wire turns or adding a soft
iron core.
• Left hands are for negative charges and right hands are for positive charges.
• When the conductor is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the force will be
maximum. When it is parallel to the magnetic field, the force will be zero.
• If the charged particle enters the uniform field at angles other than right angles,
it will take a spiral (or helical) path.
• When a straight wire is bent into a loop (a circular coil), the magnetic field is
concentrated in the centre.
• The magnetic flux density at the ends of a solenoid is half that at the centre.
• Force between two straight, parallel current carrying wires: (1) When the
currents flow in the same direction, there is an attractive force between them.
(2) When the currents flow in opposite directions, there is a repulsive force
between them.
• Any rotating coil will have an induced emf—in motors, this is called back
emf, since it opposes the emf input to the motor.
• Gauss is the unit of the magnetic field strength: 1G = 10−4 T .
14.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 14.1. A horizontal straight wire 5cm long weighing 1.2g.m−1 is placed perpendicular to
a uniform horizontal field of 0.6 weber.m−2 . If the resistance of the wire is 3.8Ωm−1 . Calculate the
potential difference to be applied between the ends of the wire to make it just self supporting.
DATA: Resistance per unit length = 3.8Ω/m
L = 5cm = 0.5m θ = 90o
Linear density of wire= 1.2g/m To find:
B=0.6 Weber/m2 V =?
Solution:
Mass of 1m long wire = 1.2g

Mass of 0.05m long wire m = 1.2 × 0.05 = 0.06g = 6 × 10−5 kg

Resistance of 1m long wire = 3.8Ω
Resistance of 0.05m long wire R = 3.8 × 0.05 = 0.019Ω
Wire will remain self supoorted if and only if Fmag = weight of wire
BV L sin θ
BIL sin θ = mg =⇒ = mg
R
mgR 6 × 10−5 × 9.8 × 0.19
V= = = 3.72 × 10−3V
BL sin θ 0.6 × 0.05 × sin 90o
V = 3.72 × 10−3V Ans.
Problem 14.2. A cathode ray tube is set up horizontally with its axis N − s and surrounded by a
magnetic shield. If the voltage across the tube is 900 volts, the distance from electron gun to the
screen is 10 cm and vertical component of earth’s field is 0.45 × 10−4 web/m2 . Calculate by how
much the spot is removed. Given that e/m = 1.8 × 1011Ckg−1 .
DATA:
V = 900V e/m = 1.8 × 1011Ckg−1
b = 10cm = 0.1m To find:
B = 0.45 × 10−4Weber/m2 a =?
Solution:
e 2V
= 2 2
m B r
2 × 900
e/m = 1.8 × 1011 =
(0.45 × 10−4 )2 r2
1800 √
r2 = 2 11
= 4.94 =⇒ r = 4.94 = 2.22m
(0.45 × 10 ) 1.8 × 10
−4
b2 b2 (0.1)2
r= =⇒ a = = = 2.25 × 10−3
2a 2r 2 × 2.22
a = 2.25 × 10−3 m Ans.
Problem 14.3. What is the flux density at a distance of 0.1 m in air from a long straight conductor
carrying a current of 6.5 amperes? Hence calculate the force per meter on a similar parallel
conductor at a distance of 0.1 m from the first and carrying a current of 3 amperes. Will the wires
attract or repel, if the directions of currents in the two wires are opposite to each other? Explain
how the expression of force between two such conductors is used to define ampere.
DATA: I2 = 3A
(i) B =? θ = 90o
r = 0.1m L = 1m
I1 = 6.5A (iii) Type of force =?
(ii) F12 =? (iv) Definition of one ampere = ?
Solution:
µo I1 4π × 10−7 × 6.5
(i) B = = = 13 × 10−6 weber/m2
2πr 2π × 0.1
B = 13 × 10−6 weber/m2 Ans.

14.2 PROBLEMS 89
(ii) B12 = BI2 L sin θ = 13 × 10−6 × 3 × 1 × sin 90o = 39 × 10−6

B = 39 × 10−6 N Ans.
(iii) As the direction of current in both wore is opposite, therefore, wires will
repel each other.
µo I1
(iv) B12 = BI2 L sin θ = I2 L sin θ
2πr
F12 × 2πr 2 × 10−7 × 2π × 1
I1 I2 = = =1
µo sin θ 4π × 106−7 × sin 90o
I1 I2 = 1
If a current carrying wire is placed perpendicular in a magnetic field of another similar parallel
wire at a distance of 1m in air and if tis unit length acted upon by a force of 2 × 10−7 newton, then
current passing through each wire is said to be of one ampere.
Problem 14.4. A straight metal rod 50cm long can slide with negligible friction on parallel
conducting rails. It moves at right angles to a magnetic field 0.72 weber-m−2 . The rails are joined
to a batter of emf 3 volts and a fixed series resistance of 1.6Ω. Find the force required to hold the
rod at rest.
DATA: V = 3V
L = 50cm = 0.5m R = 1.6Ω
θ = 90 o
To find:
B = 0.72weber/m2 P =?
Solution:
The rod will remain rest when: F = Fmag
BV L sin θ 0.72 × 3 × 0.5 × sin 90o
F = BIL sin θ = = = 0.675N
R 1.6
F = 0.675N Ans.
Problem 14.5. It is required to produce inside a toroid a field of 2 × 10−3 web.m−2 . The toroid has
a radius of 15cm and 300 turns. Find the current required for this purpose. If toroid is wound on
an iron core of permeability 300 times the permeability of free space what increase in B will occur
for the same current.
DATA: Solution:
B = 2 × 10−3 weber/m2 µo NI 2πrB 2π × 0.15 × 2 × 10−3
r = 15cm = 0.15m (i) B = =⇒ I = = = 5A
2πr µo N 4π × 10−7 × 100
N = 300 turns
µr = 300µo I = 5A Ans.
To find: µr NI 300µo NI
(ii) B0 = = = 300B
(i) I =? 2πr 2πr
(ii) B0 =? B0 = 300B Ans.
Problem 14.6. A proton is accelerated by a potential difference of 6 × 105 volts. It then enters a
uniform field B = 0.3web.m−2 in a direction making an angle of 45o with the magnetic field, what
will be the radius of the circular path?
DATA:
e = +1.6 × 10−19C θ = 45o
m = +1.67 × 106−27kg To find:
r =?
B = 0.3weber/m2

Solution:
mv2y mv sin θ
Fmag = Fe OR evB sin θ = =⇒ r =
r eB
Where velocity v can be determined by:
r s
2eV 2 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 6 × 105
V= = = 1.072 × 107 m/s
m 1.67 × 10−27
Putting the value of v into above equation, we get:
1.67 × 106−27 × 1.072 × 107 × sin 45o
r= = 0.26m
1.6 × 10− 19 × 0.3
r = 0.26m Ans.
Problem 14.7. Two parallel metal plates separated by 5 cm of air have a potential difference of
220 volts. A magnetic field B = 5 × 10−3 web.m−2 is also produced perpendicular to electric field.
A beam of electrons travel undeflected through these crossed electric and magnetic fields. Find the
speed of electrons.
Solution:
DATA:
d = 5cm = 0.05m E V
v= where E =
V = 220V B d
B = 5 × 10−3 weber/m2 V 220
∴v= = = 8.8 × 105 m/s
To find: dB 0.05 × 5 × 10−3
v =? v = 8.8 × 105 m/s Ans.
Problem 14.8. A coil of 50 turns wound on a rectangular ivory frame 2cm × 4cm is pivoted to
rotate in a magnetic field of 0.2web.m−2 . The face of the coil is parallel to the field. How much
torque acts over the coil when a current of 0.5 amp passes through it? What will be the torque
when the coil is rotated by 60o from its initial position?
DATA: Solution:
N = 50 turns
A = 2cm × 4cm = 8cm2 τ = BIAN cos α
A = 8 × 10−4 m2 (i) τ = 0.2 × 0.5 × 8 × 10−4 cos 0o
B = 0.2weber/m2 τ = 0.004Nm Ans.
I = 0.5A To find:
(i) α = 0o , τ =? (ii) τ = 0.2 × 0.5 × 8 × 10−4 cos 60o
(ii) α = 60o , τ =? τ = 0.002Nm Ans.
Problem 14.9. A cube 100 cm on a side is placed in a uniform magnetic field of flux density
0.2web.m−2 , as shown in the diagram. Wires A, C and D move in the directions indicated, each at
a rate of 50cm.s−1 , determine the induced emf in each wire.
DATA:
L = 100cm = 1m
B = 0.22weber/m2
v = 50cm/s = 0.5m/s
To find:
(a) θ = 0o , VA =?
(b) θ = 45o , VC =?
(a) θ = 45o , VD =?

14.2 PROBLEMS 91
Solution:
The induced emf in wire is given by: V = vBL sin θ , where L = LA = LC = 1m

(a) VA = 0.5 × 0.2 × 1 × sin 0o = 0
VA = 0V Ans.
(b) VC = 0.5 × 0.2 × 1 × sin 45o = 0.01 × 0.707
VC = 0.0707V Ans.
q √ √
(c) VD = vBLD sin θ , where LD = LA2 + LC2 = 1+1 = 2
√
VD = 0.5 × 0.2 × 2 × sin 45o = 0.1V
VD = 0.1V Ans.
Problem 14.10. What is the mutual Inductance of a pair of coils if a current change of 6 amps in
one coil causes the flux in the second coil of 2000 turns to change by 12 × 10−4 web.m−2 .
Solution:
DATA:
∆Ip = 6A N∆φ
M=
∆φ = 12 × 10−4 weber ∆Ip
N = 2000 turns 2000 × 12 × 10−4
M=
To find: 6
M =? M = 0.4H Henry
M = 400mH Ans.
Problem 14.11. An emf of 45m.volt is induced in a coil of 500 turns, when the current in a
neighbouring coil changes from 10 amps to 4 amps in 0.2 seconds.
(a) What is the mutual Inductance of the coils?
(b) What is the rate of change of flux in the second coil?
Solution:
M∆Ip E∆t
DATA: (a) E = =⇒ M =
∆t ∆Ip
E = 45mV = 45 × 10−3V (emf)
45 × 10−3 × 0.2
N = 500 turns M= = 1.5
∆Ip = 6A 6
∆t = 0.2s To find: M = 1.5mH Ans.
(a) M =? N∆φ ∆φ E 45 × 10−3
(b) E = =⇒ = =
(b) ∆φ
∆t =? ∆t ∆t N 500
∆φ
= 9 × 10−5 weber/s Ans.
∆t
Problem 14.12. An iron core solenoid with 400 turns has a cross section area of 4.0cm2 . A current
of 2 amp passing through it produces B = 0.5web.m−2 . How large an emf is induced in it. What is
the self Inductance of the solenoid?

Solution:
DATA:
N = 400 turns N∆φ
(a) E = . Where ∆φ = B∆A
∆A = 4cm2 = 4 × 10−4 m2 ∆t
∆I = 2A NB∆A 400 × 0.5 × 4 × 10−4
∴E = = = 0.8V
B = 0.5webers/m2 ∆t 0.1
∆t = 0.1s E = 0.8V Ans.
To find: N∆φ NB∆A 400 × 0.5 × 4 × 10−4
(a) E =? (b) L = = = = 0.04
∆I ∆I 2
(b) L =?
L = 40mH Ans.
Problem 14.13. The current in a coil of 325 turns is changed from zero to 6.32 amps, there by
producing a flux of 8.46 × 10−4 weber. What is the self inductance of the coil?
DATA: Solution:
N = 325 turns
Self induction of the coil is give by:
∆φ = 8.4 × 10−4 weber
∆I = 6.32 − 0 = 6.32A N∆φ 325 × 8.46 × 10−4
L= = = 0.0435H
To find: ∆I 6.32
L =? L = 43.5mH Ans.
Problem 14.14. A 100 turns coil in a generator has an area of 500cm2 rotates in a field with
B = 0.06web.m−2 . How fast must the coil rotated in order to generate a maximum voltage of 150
volts?
Solution:
Vo
Vo = ABNω =⇒ ω =
DATA: ABN
N = 100 turns 150
ω= = 500rad/s
A = 500cm2 = 0.05m2 0.05 × 0.06 × 100
B = 0.06weber/m2 ω = 500rad/s Ans.
Vo = 150V
To find: In revolution per second:
ω =? 500
1rev = 2πrad ∴ ω =
2π
ω = 79.6rev/s Ans.
Problem 14.15. A step down transformer at the end of a transmission line reduces the voltage from
2400 volts to 1200 volts. The power output is 9.0 K.W and over all efficiency of the transformer is
95%. The primary winding has 400 turns. How many turns has the secondary coil? What is the
power input, what is the current in each of the coils?
DATA:
To find:
Np = 400 turns
(a) Ns =?
Vp = 2400
(b) Pinput =?
Vs = 1200
(c) Ip =?
η = 95%
Is =?
Pout pu = 9kW = 9000W

Solution:
(a) According to transfermer equation: (c) Pinput = Vp Ip

Vs Ns Pinput
= Ip =
Vp N p Vp
1200 Ns 1 Ns 9473.7
= =⇒ = Ip = = 3.94A
2400 400 2 400 2400
Ns = 200 turns Ans. Ip = 3.94A Ans.
out put
(b) Efficiency η = × 100 Pout put = Vs Is
input
Pout put
9000 Is =
95 = × 100 Vs
Pinput
9000
900000 Is = = 7.5A
Pinput = = 9473.7 1200
95
Is = 7.5A Ans.
Pinput = 9473.7W Ans.
Problem 14.16. The overall efficiency of a transformer is 90%. The transformer is rated for an
output of 12.5 KM. The primary voltage is 1100 volts and the ratio of primary to secondary turns is
5:1. The iron losses at full load are 700 watts. The primary coil has a resistance of 1.82 ohms.
(a) How much power is lost because of the resistance of the primary coils?
(b) What is the resistance of the secondary coils?
DATA: To find:
Np 5
Ns = 1 P(loss)t = 700W (total loss)
Vp = 1100 R p = 1.82Ω (a) P(loss) p =? (loss in primary)
η = 90% (b) Rs =?
Pout pu = 12.5kW = 12500W Is =?
Solution: (b) P(loss)t = P(loss) p + P(loss)s

(a) Power loss is given by: 700 = 290 + P(loss)s =⇒ P(loss)s = 410W
P(loss) p = Ip2 R p − − − − > (1) But P(loss)s = Is2 Rs

P(loss)s
Where P(loss) p is primary or input power: Rs = − −− > (2)
Is2
Pinput = Vp Ip , where input power is:
Where P(loss)s is output power, so
Pout put
Pinput = × 100 Pout put = Vs Is
η
12500 × 100 Vs Ns Vs 1
Pinput = = 13888.9 But = =⇒ =
90 Vp N p 1100 5
Pinput 13888.9 Vs = 220V ∴ 12500 = 220Is
∴ Ip = = = 12.62A
VP 1100 Is = 56.8A. Put this value in equ(2):
Putting this value in eq(1): 410
Rs = = 0.127Ω
P(loss) p = (12.62)2 × 1.82 = 290W (56.8)2
P(loss) p = 290W Ans. Rs = 0.127Ω Ans.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The strength of the magnetic field around a current carrying straight wire:
(a) is same everywhere around the wire
(b) obeys inverse square law
(c) is directly proportional to the square of the distance from the wire
(d) none of the above
2. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field. Then:

(a) torque is formed (b) emf is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct (d) none of the above
3. A uniform magnetic field is at right angle to the direction of motion of proton. As a

result, the proton describes a circular path of radius 2.5 cm. If the speed of the proton
is doubled then the radius of the circular path will be:
(a) 0.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 5.0 cm (d) 7.5 cm
4. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. The distance from the centre of the coil
on the axis where the magnetic induction will be 1/8th of its value at the centre of the
coil, is:
√ √
(a) R 3 (b) √R3 2R
(c) √ 3
(d) (2 3)R
5. A wire of length I is bent to form a circular coil of some turns. A current I is then
established in the coil and it is placed in a uniform magnetic field B. The maximum
torque that acts on the coil is:
Il 2 B
(a) 4π (b) 4πIl 2 B (c) IlB (d) zero
6. An electron moving with velocity of 106 m/s enters a region where magnetic field
exists. If it describes a circle of radius 0.10m, the intensity of the magnetic field must
be:
(a) 1.8 × 10−4 T (b) 5.6 × 10−5 T (c) 14.4 × 10−5 T (d) 1.3 × 10−6 T
7. A long wire carries a current of 20A along the axis of a solenoid, the field due to the
solenoid is 4mT . The resultant field at a point 3mm from the solenoid axis is:
(a) 8.4mT (b) 4.2mT (c) 80mT (d) 8.0mT
8. The normal drawn to the surface of a conductor makes an angle θ with the direction
of field ~B, the flux φ passing through the area ~A is given by:
~B
(a) φ = ~A × ~B (b) φ = ~B × ~A (c) ~A (d) φ = ~A.~B

9. In a step up transformer the number of turns in:

(a) primary are less (b) primary are more
(c) primary and secondary are equal (d) primary are infinite
10. Two pure inductor coils of self inductance L each are connected in series, the net
inductance is:
(a) L (b) 2L (c) L/2 (d) L/4
11. The self induced emf in a 0.2 henry coil when the current in it is changing at the rate
of 400 amp/s, is:
(a) 200V (b) 80V (c) 400V (d) 2000V
12. If a current increases from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 sec in coil of 5 mH, then the
magnitude of the induced emf will be:
(a) 0.005 V (b) 0.05 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 5V
13. A coil of wire of radius R has 200 turns and a self inductance of 108 mH. The self
inductance of a similar coil of 500 turns will be:
(a) 375mH (b) 527mH (c) 675mH (d) 1000mH
14. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 amp, the energy stored in joule is:
(a) 1 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.05 (d) 0.5
15. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils
depend upon:
(a) the currents in the two coils
(b) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils
(c) relative position and orientation of the two coils
(d) the materials of the wires of the coils
16. Ampere’s Law is valid for

(a) any shape of open loop
(b) only closed curve of any shape
(c) radial line normal to the surface of any shape
(d) all of these
17. Ampere’s Law is analogous to

(a) Coulomb’s law of electrostatics (b) Gauss’s Law of electrostatics
(c) Faraday’s Law of electromagnetism (d) all of these
18. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is

(a) zero (b) weak (c) uniform (d) non-uniform

19. Charged particle ’q’ moving through magnetic field with velocity ’V’ will have zero
magnetic force when angle is
(a) 0 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) both a& b
20. Dimensions of rate of change of flux are equivalent to those of

(a) voltage (b) current (c) charge (d) 1/charge
21. Electro motive force induced by motion of conductor across magnetic field is called
(a) EMF (b) motional EMF (c) static EMF (d) rotational EMF
22. Device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is

(a) AC generator (b) DC generator (c) Cell (d) DC Motor
23. Self-induced EMF is sometimes also known as

(a) induced EMF (b) motional EMF (c) back EMF (d) both a and b
24. E.M.F can be induced in a circuit by

(a) changing magnetic flux density (b) changing area of circuit
(c) changing angle (d) all of above
25. By accelerating magnet inside coil, current in it

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant(d) reverses
26. Total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is called
(a) magnetic flux density (b) magnetic flux
(c) EMF (d) voltage
27. The direction of induced current in the generator is given by:

(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Faraday’s left hand rule (d) Faraday’s right hand rule
28. The direction of mechanical force acting on current carrying conductor placed in
magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Faraday’s left hand rule (d) Faraday’s right hand rule
29. Fleming’s right hand rule is also called:

(a) Faraday’s left hand rule (b) Faraday’s right hand rule
(c) dynamo rule (d) motor rule
30. In commutator of DC generator

(a) one slip ring is used (b) two slip rings are used
(c) one split-ring is used (d) all of these

31. In our house, all electrical appliances are connected in

(a) series combination (b) parallel combination
(c) both a & b (d) none of these
32. Magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying conductor

(a) is zero (b) decreases as we move toward its ends
(c) increases as we move toward its ends (d) is same at all points
33. A uniform magnetic field field is directed from west to east in a horizontal plane. an
electron enters the field at right angle to it from north to south direction. The direction
of force acting on an electron will be:
(a) toward east (b) toward west
(c) vertically upward (d) vertically downward
34. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in electromagnetic field?
(a) condenser (b) capacitor (c) inductor (d) resistor
35. The direction of induce emf can be found by:

(a) Fleming’s right hand rule (b) Fleming’s left hand rule
(c) Lenz’s Law (d) Faraday’s Law
36. Air-core coils are practically free from

(a) hysteresis losses (b) eddy current losses
37. Lenz’s Law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) induced current (b) charge (c) energy (d) induced emf
38. An inductor coil of inductance L is divided into two equal parts and both parts are
connected in parallel. The net inductance is:
(a) L (b) 2L (c) L/2 (d) L/4
39. The inductance of a coil in which a current of 0.1 A increasing at the rate of 0.5 A/s
represents a power flow of 1/2 watt, is
(a) 2H (b) 8H (c) 20H (d) 10H
40. Induction coil based on the principle of

(a) induction (b) self induction (c) mutual induction(d) resistance
Answer Key:
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. b
12. b 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. b
22. d 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. c 31. b
32. b 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. c


EXERCISE 14.1
1. (a) is correct.

15. ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
15.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Galvanometer: An analog measuring device, denoted by G, that measures small

current flow using a needle deflection caused by a magnetic field
force acting upon a current-carrying wire. The current through
the coil is directly proportional to the angle of twist of the sus-
pension (or deflection). Sensitivity of galvanometer is defined as
the current in micro ampere required to consume one millimeter
deflection on a scale placed 1m away from the mirror.
Ammeter: Ammeter is an electrical measuring device, which is used to mea-

sure electric current through the circuit. The galvanometer can
function as an ammeter when it is placed in parallel with a small
resistance R, often called the shunt resistance. An ammeter is
always connected in series to a circuit.
Shunt Resistance: A small resistance R placed in parallel with a galvanometer G to

produce an ammeter; the larger the current to be measured, the
smaller R must be; most of the current flowing through the meter
is shunted through R to protect the galvanometer.
Meter Bridge: Also called slide wire bridge. Meter bridge is based on the princi-
ple of wheatstone bridge and it is used to find the resistance of an
unknown conductor or to compare two unknown resistances.

100 Chapter 15. ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
Ohm-Meter: An Ohmmeter is an electrical instrument that measures electrical

resistance.
Post Office Box: A post office box is a practical form of wheatstone bridge. It is
a testing device used to locate faults which may be miles away.
It is used to measure an unknown resistance. It is a Wheatstone
Bridge with three arms P, Q and R; while the fourth arm(s) is the
unknown resistance. P and Q are known as the ratio arms while R
is known as the rheostat arm.
Potentiometer: An instrument that measures a voltage by opposing it with a precise

fraction of a known voltage, and without drawing current from
the unknown source. Potentiometer is based on the principle
that potential drop across any portion of th wire of uniform cross
section is proportional to the length of that portion of the wire
when a constant current flows through the wire.
Voltmeter: Voltmeter is an electrical measuring device, which is used to

measure potential difference between two points in a circuit. A
galvanometer can function as a voltmeter when it is connected in
series with a large resistance R. Voltmeter is always connected in
parallel to a circuit.
Wheatstone Bridge: An instrument used to measure an unknown electrical resistance

by balancing two legs of a bridge circuit, one leg of which includes
the unknown component.
USEFUL EQUATIONS
I c
Galvanometer (sensitivity) = (c = torque per unit twist of suspension strip)
θ BAN
!
Ig
Shunt resistance Rs = Rg (convert Galvanometer into Ammeter)
I − Ig
(Ammeter)
V
Voltmeter Rx = − Rg (convert Galvanometer into Voltmeter)
Ig
R1 R3
Wheatstone Bridge = ,
R2 R4

15.2 PROBLEMS 101
15.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 15.1. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50 Ohms and it deflects full scale when a current
of 10 milliamperes flows in it. How can it be converted into an ammeter of range 10 amperes?
Solution:
DATA:
Rg = 50Ω Ig Rg
Rs =
Ig = 10mA = 0.01A I − Ig
I = 10A 0.01 × 50
Rs = = 0.05
To find: 10 − 0.01
Rs =? Rs = 0.05Ω Ans.
Problem 15.2. A galvanometer whose resistance is 40 Ohms deflects full-scale for a potential
difference of 100 millivolts across its terminals. How can it be converted into an ammeter of 5
ampere range?
Solution:
DATA:
Rg = 40Ω Vg 0.1
Ig = = = 2.5 × 10−3 A
Vg = 100mV = 0.1V Rg 40
I = 5A Ig Rg 2.5 × 10−3 × 40
Rs = =
To find: I − Ig 5 − 2.5 × 10−3
Rs =?
Rs = 0.02Ω Ans.
Problem 15.3. The coil of a galvanometer which has a resistance of 50 ohms and a current of 500
micro amperes produces full-scale deflection in it. Show by a diagram how it can be converted to
(a) an ammeter of 5 ampere range and compute the shunt resistance. (b) a volt meter of 300 volt
range and compute the series resistance.
Solution:
DATA:
Rg = 50Ω Ig Rg 5 × 1004 × 50
Ig = 500µA = 50 × 10−4 A (a) Rs = = = 0.005
I − Ig 5 − 5 × 10−4
(a) I = 5A
Rs = 0.005Ω Ans.
(b) V = 300V
To find: V 300
(b) Rx = − Rg = − 50
(a) Rs =? Ig 5 × 10−4
(b) Rx =? Rx = 599950Ω Ans.
Problem 15.4. A galvanometer of resistance 2.5 ohms deflects full-scale for a current of 0.05
amperes. It is desired to convert this galvanometer into an ammeter reading 25 amperes full-scale.
The only shunt available is of 0.03 ohm. What resistance R must be included in series with the
galvanometer coil as shown in figure for using this shunt?
DATA:
Rs = 0.03Ω
Rg = 2.5Ω
To find:
Ig = 0.05A
R =?
I = 25A

Solution:
Let R’ be the equivalent resistance of R and Rg connected in series:
R0 = R + Rg , But V 0 −Vs
(I − Is )Rs
∴ Ig R0 = Is Rs =⇒ R0 =
Is
(25 − 0.05) × 0.03
R0 = = 14.97Ω
0.05
Now R + Rg = 14.97 =⇒ R = 14.97 − Rg = 14.97 − 2.5 = 12.46
R = 12.47Ω Ans.
Problem 15.5. An ammeter deflects full-scale with a current of 5 amperes and has a total resistance
must be connected to it to measure 25 amperes full-scale?
Solution:
DATA:
RA = 0.5Ω IA RA
Rs =
IA = 5A I − IA
I = 25A 5 × 0.5
Rs =
To find: 25 − 5
Rs =? Rs = 0.125Ω Ans.
Problem 15.6. A moving coil galvanometer G has a resistance of 50 ohms and deflects full-scale
with a current of 0.005 ampere. What resistance R1 , R2 and R3 must be connected to it as shown in
figure to convert into a multi-range ammeter having ranges of 1A, 5A and 10A?
DATA: (iii) I = 1A
Rg = 50Ω To find:
Ig = 0.005A (i) R1 =?
(i) I = 10A (ii) R2 =?
(ii) I = 5A (iii) R3 =?
Solution:
Ig Rg
(i) Rs = . But for our case: Rs = R1
I − Is
Ig Rg 0.005 × 50
∴ R1 = = = 0.0251Ω
I − Is 10 − 0.005
R1 = 0.0251Ω
Ig Rg
(ii) Rs = . But here: Rs = R1 + R2
I − Is
Ig Rg 0.005 × 50
∴ R1 + R2 = =⇒ 0.0251 + R2 =
I − Is 5 − 0.005
0.0251 + R2 = 0.0505Ω =⇒ R2 = 0.0505 − 0.0251 = 0.0249.2
R2 = 0.0249.2Ω
Ig Rg
(iii) Rs = . But here: Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
I − Is
Ig Rg 0.005 × 50
∴ R1 + R2 + R3 = =⇒ 0.0251 + 0.0249.2 + R3 =
I − Is 1 − 0.005
0.0502 + R3 = 0.2513Ω =⇒ R3 = 0.2513 − 0.0502 = 0.201
R3 = 0.0.201Ω

15.2 PROBLEMS 103
Problem 15.7. A 300-volt voltmeter has a total resistance of 20,000 ohms. What additional series
resistance must be connected to it to increase its range to 500 volt?
Solution:
DATA:
Vv = 300V VV 300
IV = = = 0.015A
Rv = 20, 000Ω RV 20, 000
V = 500V V 500
Rx = − Rv = − 20000
To find: Iv 0.015
Rx =? Rx = 13333.3Ω Ans.
Problem 15.8. The resistance of a moving-coil galvanometer is 25 ohms and current of 1 mil-
liampere causes full-scale deflection in it. It is to be converted into a multi-range voltmeter. Find
the series resistance R1 , R2 and R3 to give the range of 5 volts, 50 volts and 500 volts at the range
terminals as shown in figure.
DATA: (c) V = 500V

Rg = 25Ω To find:
Ig = 1mA = 1 × 10−3 A (a) R1 =?
(a) V = 5V (b) R2 =?
(b) V = 50V (c) R3 =?
Solution:
V
(a) Rs = − Rg . But for our case: Rs = R1
Ig
V 5
∴ R1 = − Rg = − 25 = 4975Ω
Ig 1 × 10−3
R1 = 4975Ω
V
(b) Rs = − Rg . But here: Rs = R1 + R2
Ig
V 50
∴ R1 + R2 = − Rg =⇒ 4975 + R2 =
Ig 1 × 10−3
4975 + R2 = 49950 =⇒ R2 = 49950 − 4975 = 44975
R2 = 44975Ω
V
(c) Rs = − Rg . But here: Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
Ig
V 50
∴ R1 + R2 + R3 = − Rg =⇒ 4975 + 4497 + R3 =
Ig 1 × 10−3
94725 + R3 = 49950 =⇒ R3 = 49950 − 94725 = 94725
R3 = 405250Ω
Problem 15.9. The galvanometer of the Ohmmeter in figure has a resistance of 25 ohms and
deflects full scale with a current of 2 milliamperes in it. The e.m.f. E of its cells is 1.5 volts.
(a) What is the value of the series resistance R?
(b) To what values of x connected to its terminals do the deflection of 1/5, 1/2 and 4/5 full-scale
correspond?
(c) Is the scale of the Ohmmeter linear?

DATA: (c) I 0 = 54 Ig
(i) Rg = 25Ω To find:
Ig = 2mA = 2 × 10−3 A (i) R =?
V = 1.5V (ii) (a) X1 =?
(ii) (a) I 0 = 15 Ig (b) X2 =?
(b) I 0 = 21 Ig (c) X3 =?
Solution:
V 1.5
(i) V = Ig (Rg + R) =⇒ R = − Rs = − 25 = 725
Ig 1 × 10−3
R = 725Ω
V
(ii) V = I 0 (Rg + R + X) =⇒ R + X = − R − −− > (1)
I0
1 1.5
(a) I 0 = × 2 × 10−3 = 0.0004A. From equ(1): 725 + X = − 25 =⇒ X = 3000Ω
5 0.0004
X = 3000Ω Ans.
1 1.5
(b) I 0 = × 2 × 10−3 = 0.0001A. From equ(1): 725 + X = − 25 =⇒ X = 750Ω
2 0.0001
X = 750Ω Ans.
4 1.5
(c) I 0 = × 2 × 10−3 = 0.0016A. From equ(1): 725 + X = − 25 =⇒ X = 187.5Ω
5 0.0016
X = 187.5Ω Ans.
The scale of ohmmeter is not linear.
Problem 15.10. A constant potential difference of 25 volts is applied across a uniform resistance
wire AB, 100 cm long. Terminals are soldered to three points C.D.F on the wire respectively 16, 32
and 64 cm from A, see figure. Find the potential differences (between each pair of points given in
the subscripts) (i) VAC (ii) VAD (iii) VAF (iv) VCD (v) VCF (vi) VDF (vii) VCB (viii) VDB (ix) VFB .
Solution:
For a wire of constant linear density: R = L

According to Ohm’s Law: V = IL (v) VCF = ILCF = 0.25 × 48
VAB 25 VCF = 12V Ans.
I= = = 0.25
LAB 100
(vi) VDF = ILDF = 0.25 × 32
(i) VAC = ILAC = 0.25 × 16
VAD = 8V Ans.
VAC = 4V Ans.
(vii) VCB = ILCB = 0.25 × 84
(ii) VAD = ILAD = 0.25 × 32
VCB = 21V Ans.
VAD = 8V Ans.
(viii) VDB = ILDB = 0.25 × 68
(iii) VAF = ILAF = 0.25 × 64
VDB = 17V Ans.
VAF = 16V Ans.
(ix) VFB = ILFB = 0.25 × 36
(iv) VCD = ILCD = 0.25 × 16
VAD = 9V Ans.
VAD = 4V Ans.
Problem 15.11. A potentiometer is set up to measure the em f , Ex of cell (figure). The potentiometer
wire is 120 cm long. Es is the em f of a standard cadmium cell equal to 1.018 volts. When the

key 1 only is closed to include the em f Ex in the galvanometer circuit, the galvanometer gives no
deflection with the sliding contact at C, 56.4 cm from A. When the key 2 only is closed to include
the em f Es in the galvanometer circuit the balance is obtained at C0 , 43.2 cm from A.
(a) What is the em f Ex of the cell?
(b) What is the potential difference across the entire length of the wire AB?
Solution:
DATA: Ex Lx Ex 56.4
= =⇒ =
LAB = 120cm Es Ls 1.018 43.2
Lx = 56.4cm Ex = 1.329V
Ls = 43.2cm
Ex = 1.329V Ans.
Es = 1.018V
To find: Es 1.018
(b) Es = ILs =⇒ I = = = 0.02565
Es =? Ls 43.2
VAB =? VAB = ILAB = 0.02565 × 120 = 2.828
VAB = 2.828V Ans.

EXERCISE 15.1:
1. The restoring couple in the moving coil galvanometer is because of:
(a) magnetic field (b) material of the coil
(c) twist produced in the suspension (d) current in the coil
2. The resistance can be measured most accurately by

(a) Voltmeter-ammeter method (b) bridge method
(c) multimeter (d) galvanometer
3. A potentiometer is a device for measuring?

(a) Potential difference between the two points of a circuit
(b) Voltage between the two points of a circuit
(c) E.M.F. of a current source
(d) all of these
4. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting a?

(a) low resistance in series (b) high resistance in series
(c) low resistance in parallel (d) high resistance in parallel
5. The principle of post office box is based on:

(a) telegraph line (b) multimeter
(c) ohm’s law (d) Wheat stone bridge
6. AVO meter is used to measure:

(a) current (b) resistance (c) voltage (d) all of these
7. A Meter Bridge is used to measure:

(a) current (b) resistance (c) voltage (d) all of these
8. A galvanometer can be used to measure the current by connecting:

(a) low resistance in series (b) high resistance in series
(c) low resistance in parallel (d) high resistance in parallel
9. A galvanometer is used to measure:

(a) current (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) all of these
10. A galvanometer converts:

(a) electrical energy into heat energy
(b) mechanical energy into induced emf
(c) electrical energy into magnetic energy
(d) electrical energy into a mechanical energy

11. An ammeter is connected to the circuit:

(a) in series (b) in parallel (c) in loop (d) none of these
12. In moving coil galvanometer, U-shaped pole-pieces are made concave to produces?
(a) strong and uniform field (b) weak and radial field
(c) radial and strong field (d) weak and uniform field
13. The accuracy of a potentiometer is increased by:

(a) increasing the length of the wire (b) decreasing the length of the wire
(c) using a thin copper wire of short length(d) using twisted wire
14. In order to get maximum accuracy the shunt of the ammeter must be
(a) of high value (b) of very low value
(c) zero (d) equal to the resistance of galvanometer
15. The galvanometer works on the principle of

(a) ohm’s law
(b) lenz’s law
(c) a current carrying coil experiences torque in a magnetic field
(d) Wheat stone Bridge
16. An ammeter is used to measure
(a) magnetic field (b) Potential difference
(c) Electric current (d) resistance
c
17. For the current passing through the galvanometer I = BAN θ , where θ is:
(a) angle of rotation
(b) angle between plane of coil and magnetic field
(c) angle of twist of suspension
(d) radial angle
18. The resistance used with a galvanometer to make it an ammeter is known as:
(a) low resistance (b) high resistance (c) shunt (d) zero resistance
19. Which is the modified form of galvanometer:

(a) Ammeter (b) Voltmeter (c) Multimeter (d) All of these
20. Which of the following are based on the principle of Wheatstone bridge?
(a) slide wire bridge(b) Meter bridge (c) Post-office box (d) all of these
21. Universal meter is also called as:

(a) Ammeter (b) Multi-range ammeter
(c) AVO meter (d) Potentiometer

22. To convert a galvanometer to a voltmeter, a resistance of high resistance is connected

(a) in series (b) in parallel
(c) with a potentiometer (d) with a rectifier
23. In a multi range voltmeter, a number of resistance of appropriate values are connected
(a) in series (b) in parallel
(c) with keys in parallel (d) to a low resistance
24. Deflecting magnetic torque in Galvanometer is given by

(a) BIAN sin α (b) BIAN cos α (c) BIAN (d) BIN
25. Resistance can be measured by

(a) Wheat stone bridge (b) meter bridge
(c) post office box (d) all of these
26. Ohmmeter is used to measure:

(a) Current (b) voltage (c) Resistance (d) all of these
27. In moving coil galvanometer, the deflecting couple depends on

(a) Area of the coil & strength of Magnetic field
(b) Current in the coil & angle of deflection
(c) Number of turns in the coil
(d) all of these
28. In moving coil galvanometer, the restoring elastic torque is proportional to the angle
of twist of the suspension strip provided It obeys
(a) Ohm’s law (b) Hooke’s law (c) Faraday’s law (d) all of these
29. A galvanometer of 10, 000Ω shows full scale deflection for current of 0.02 ampere. If
it is converted into voltmeter of 250 volts range, then the value of multiplier resistance
(shunt) will be:
(a) 5000Ω (b) 500Ω (c) 2500Ω (d) 15000Ω
30. The slide-wire bridge is also known as:

(a) Meter bridge (b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Post office box (d) potentiometer
Answer Key:
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. d 11. a
12. c 13. a 14. b 15. C 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. c
22. a 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. a

16. EM WAVES & ELECTRONICS
16.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Electronics: The branch of physics which deals with the control of flow of
electrons through conductor, semiconductors, vacuum, or gas.
Biasing: Biasing means setting up a fixed level of current, so that there

is a constant voltage drop across the transistor, so that the signal
is proper amplified. In another way, when the electrical energy
applied to the PN junction it cancels the potential barrier is called
biasing.
• Forward Biasing: The process by which, a PN junction
diode allows the electric current in the presence of applied
voltage is called forward biasing. In forward biased PN
junction diode, the positive terminal of the battery is con-
nected to the P-type semiconductor material and the neg-
ative terminal of the battery is connected to the N-type
semiconductor material.
• Reverse Biasing: In reverse biasing no current will flow
through the semiconductor (PN junction). When P-type
end of PN junction is connected to the negative terminal
and N-type end with positive terminal of a (DC) supply.
The height of potential barrier increases to maximum and
the flow of electric charge across the junction will become
zero. In this condition a PN junction diode is called Reverse
Biasing.

110 Chapter 16. EM WAVES & ELECTRONICS
Doping: The addition of a small percentage of foreign atoms in the reg-

ular crystal lattice of silicon or germanium produces dramatic
changes in their electrical properties, producing N-type and P-type
semiconductors.
• Donor Doping: A donor is a dopant atom that, when added
to a semiconductor, can form a N-type region. Impurity
atoms with 5 valence electrons (such as antimony, arsenic
or phosphorous ) produce N-type semiconductors by con-
tributing extra electrons.
• Acceptor Doping: An acceptor is a dopant atom that when
added to a semiconductor can form a P-type region. Im-
purity atoms with 3 valence electrons (such as boron, alu-
minum or gallium) produce P-type semiconductors by pro-
ducing a "hole" or electron deficiency.
Amplification: The amount of increase in signal power or voltage or current

expressed as the ratio of output to input. There are two main types
of signals i.e. voltage amplification and current amplification.
Carrier Signal: The high energy or high frequency signal which has characteristics
like amplitude, frequency, and phase but contains no information is
called a carrier signal. Carrier signal is used to carry the message
signal from transmitter to receiver. The carrier signal is also
sometimes referred to as an empty signal.
Conduction Band: The band energy where positive or negative mobile charge carriers
exist. Electrons in the conduction band have higher energy than
the electrons in valence band. The conduction band electrons are
not bound to the nucleus of atom.
De-modulation: Demodulation is extracting the original information-bearing signal

from a carrier wave. It is inverse of modulation.
Diode: APN junction diode is two-terminal or two-electrode semiconduc-

tor device, which allows the electric current in only one direction
while blocks the electric current in opposite or reverse direction. If
the diode is forward biased, it allows the electric current flow. On
the other hand, if the diode is reverse biased, it blocks the electric
current flow.
Electromagnetic Electromagnetic waves are synchronized oscillations of electric

Waves: and magnetic fields that propagate at the speed of light (c = 3 ×
108 m/s) through a vacuum.

Forbidden Gap: The energy gap which is present between the valence band and
conduction band by separating these two energy bands is called
as forbidden band or forbidden gap. The energy associated with
forbidden is measured in electron volt (eV).
• Wide Forbidden Gap: Wide-bandgap semiconductors are
semiconductor materials which have a relatively large band
gap compared to typical semiconductors which fall in be-
tween those of typical semiconductors and insulators. They
are used to make green and blue LEDs and lasers.
• Narrow Forbidden Gap: Narrow-gap semiconductors are
semiconducting materials with a band gap that is compara-
tively small compared to that of silicon, i.e. smaller than
1.11 eV at room temperature. They are used as infrared
detectors or thermoelectrics.
Information Signal: The signal which contains an information (message) to be trans-

mitted to the destination is called an information signal. The
information signal is also known as a modulating signal or base-
band signal.
Light Emitting It is a PN junction diode that emits light when a suitable current is
Diode (LED): applied to the terminals. In this process, electrons are able to re-
combine with electron holes within the device, releasing energy in
the form of photons. This effect is called electroluminescence, and
the color of the light (corresponding to the energy of the photon)
is determined by the energy band gap of the semiconductor.
Modulated Signal: When information signal is mixed with carrier signal, a new signal
is produced. This new signal is known as a modulated signal.
Modulation: Modulation is the process of mixing a low energy message signal

with the high energy carrier signal to produce a new high energy
signal which carries information to a long distance. There are three
types of modulation: Amplitude Modulation (AM), Frequency
Modulation (FM) and Phase Modulation (PM).
Photo Diode: A Photodiode is a PM semiconductor device that consumes light

energy to generate electric current or changes its electrical resis-
tance.
Photo Voltaic Cell: Photovoltaic cell or solar cell, is an electrical device that converts
the sun light directly into DC electricity by the photovoltaic effect.
PN Junction: A PN junction is a boundary or interface between two types of

semiconductor materials, P-type and N-type, inside a single crystal
of semiconductor.

Depletion Region: The depletion region refers to a region where flow of charge car-
riers are decreased over a given time and finally results in empty
mobile charge carriers or full of immobile charge carriers.The
depletion region acts like a wall between P-type and N-type semi-
conductor and prevents further flow of free electrons and holes.
Barrier Voltage or The minimum potential difference required to move the electrons
Potential: through the electric field is called the barrier potential. The barrier
voltage at the PN junction opposes only the flow of majority charge
carriers. Which means it prevents the flow of electrons from N-
side and flow of holes from P-side. However, it allows the flow of
minority charge carriers. The barrier voltage for silicon diode is
0.7 volts and for germanium is 0.3 volts.
Rectifier: A rectifier is a device which is used to convert alternating current

(AC) into direct current (DC). PN-junction diode is used as a
rectifier.
Rectification: The process of converting alternating current into direct current is

called rectification.
• Half Wave Rectification: A half wave rectifier is a type of
rectifier which allows only half cycle (either positive half
cycle or negative half cycle) of the input AC signal while
the another half cycle is blocked. A half wave rectifier uses
only a single diode to convert AC to DC.
• Full Wave Rectification: A full wave rectifier is a type of
rectifier which converts both half cycles of the AC signal
into pulsating DC signal. It uses two or four rectifiers to
convert AC to DC.
Transistor: A transistor is a three layer semiconductor which consists of a

very thin central layer of one type of semiconductor material
sandwiched between two relatively thick layer of second type.
There are three parts of a transistor: (i) Base:- It is the central thin
layer denoted by B. (ii) Emitter:- It is the outer layer denoted by
E. (iii) Collector: It is the outer layer denoted by C. There are two
current paths through a transistor. One is the base-emitter path or
input and the other is the collector-emitter path or output.
• PNP type: In this type of transistors N-type semi-conductor
piece is sandwiched between two piece of P-type semicon-
ductor layers.
• NPN Type: In this type of transistors P-type semi con-
ductor piece is sandwiched between two piece of N-type
semiconductor layers.

Semiconductor: A semiconductor material has an electrical conductivity value

falling between that of a conductor and an insulator. Their resis-
tance decreases as their temperature increases, which is behavior
opposite to that of a conductor. Their conducting properties may
be altered by introduction of impurities ("doping") into the crystal
structure.
Valance Band: The band of energy where all of the valence electrons reside and
are involved in the highest energy molecular orbital. Electrons in
the valence band have lower energy than the electrons in conduc-
tion band. The electrons present in the valence band are loosely
bound to the nucleus of atom.
USEFUL EQUATIONS
s
1
Speed of EM wave c= = 2.998 × 108 m/s (speed of light)
µo εo
Amplitude of modulation signal (in volts)

%age of Modulation M= × 100
Amplitude of carrier signal (in volts)
Electromagnetic wave c = λ ν , (ν= frequency in Hz)
Current in transistor IE = IB + IC , where IE = emitter current, IB = base current

and IC = collector current.
IC
α= , (common base configuration)
IE
IC
β= , (common emitter configuration)
IB
β α
Current gain α= , OR β =
β +1 1−α
∆Vout R
AV = = × α , (common base configuration)
∆Vin Rin
∆Vout R
Voltage gain AV = = × β , (common emitter configuration)
∆Vin Rin

R
AP = × α 2 , (common base configuration)
Rin
R
Power gain AP = × β 2 , (common emitter configuration)
Rin
RAM’S MIND MAP

16.2 PROBLEMS 115
Points to Note:
• The elements of fourth group behave as semi-conductors, e.g., silicon, germa-
nium.
• The resistivity of semi-conductor decreases with increase of temperature.
• At 0K, conduction band is completely vacant and semi-conductor behaves as
insulator.
• A pure semi-conductor has negative temperature coefficient.
• In the case of pure semi-conductor, number of conduction electrons = number
of holes.
• Electric current in semi-conductor is given by: I = Ie + Ih Here, Ie = current
due to conduction electrons; and Ih = hole current.
• Pure semi-conductor is also known as intrinsic semi-conductor.
• If impurity is added to intrinsic semi-conductor, then the semi-conductor is
known as extrinsic semi-conductor.
• The impurity atoms in P-type semi-conductor are known as acceptor atoms
while in N-type, they are known as donor atoms.
• In the case of P-type semi-conductor, majority charge carriers are holes while
in N-type, majority charge carriers are electrons.
• N-type doping increases the No. of free NOT: valence electrons; P-type
doping increases the No. of holes.
• For ideal diode, the resistance in forward biased connection is zero. While,
the resistance in reversed biased connection is infinite. Drift current in ideal
diode is zero.
• If no voltage is applied to diode, drift current and diffusion current are same
in magnitude. The drift current and diffusion current are always opposite to
each other.
• PN junction does not obey Ohm’s law.
• Reverse biased connection widen the depletion region and in result the height
of the potential barrier increases. Forward biased connection decreases the
height of the potential barrier.
• Diode is used as a rectifier, while transistor is used both as a switch and as an
amplifier.
16.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 16.1. Light is said to be a transverse wave phenomenon. What is that varies at right
angles to the direction in which a light wave travels.
Solution: The electric and magnetic field vary at right angles to each other and to the direction in
which a light wave travels.
Problem 16.2. A radar sends out 0.05µs pulses of microwaves whose wave length is 2.5 cm. What
is the frequency of these microwaves? How many waves does each pulse contain?
DATA: To find:
Duration between pulses= t = 0.05µs = 5 × 10−8 s (a) Frequency: ν
λ = 2.5cm = 2.5 × 10−2 m (b) Number of waves: n =?

Solution:
c 3 × 108
(a) As we know that: c = νλ =⇒ ν = = = 1.2 × 1010
λ 2.5 × 1010
ν = 1.2 × 1010 Ans
t
(b) The ratio between pulse duration and time period is known as numer of waves: n =
T
1 1
Where time period is: T = = = 8.33 × 10−11 s
ν 1.2 × 1010
5 × 10−8
∴n=
8.333 × 10−11 = 600
n = 600 waves. Ans
Problem 16.3. A nanosecond is 10−9 s (a) What is the frequency of electromagnetic wave whose
period is 1ns? (b) What is it’s wave length? (c) To what class of electromagnetic waves does it
belong?
Solution:
DATA:
1
T = 1ns = 10−9 s (a) The requency of EM wave: ν =
c = 8 × 108 m/s T
1
To find: ν= = 109 Hz
10−9
(a) Frequency: ν
c 3 × 108
(b) λ =? (b) Wavelenght : λ = = = 3 × 10−1
(c) Type of EM wave=? ν 109
λ = 0.3m
Problem 16.4. With a sketch explain the working of (i) Half wave rectifier (ii) Full wave rectifier?
Given in VOL-I (notes).
Problem 16.5. Explain the difference between the band structure of a semiconductor and that
of a metal. Why does a semiconductor acts as an insulator at 0K and why does it’s conductivity
increases with increasing temperature?
Given in VOL-I (notes).

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

EXERCISE 16.1:
1. The electric field ’E’ and magnetic field ’B’ in electromagnetic waves are:
(a) parallel to each other (b) inclined at an angle of 45o
(c) perpendicular to each other (d) opposite to each other
2. An object is placed at some distance from a radio station. If the interval between
transmission and reception of pulses is 2.66 × 10−2 sec, then the distance is:
(a) 4000 km (b) 2000km (c) 3000km (d) 2500
3. After ordinary temperature, an increase in temperature increases the conductivity of:

(a) conductor (b) insulator (c) semi-conductor (d) all of these
4. At 0 K a piece of germanium:
(a) becomes semiconductor (b) becomes good conductor
(c) becomes bad conductor (d) has maximum conductivity
5. With the increase in temperature, the width of the forbidden gap will:
(a) decrease (b) increase (c) remain same (d) become zero
6. The impurity added in germanium crystal to make n-type-semi-conductor is:

(a) aluminum (b) gallium (c) iridium (d) phosphorus
7. In a p-type semi-conductor, the majority carriers of current are:

(a) holes (b) electrons (c) protons (d) neutrons
8. The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is of the order of 0.07 eV.
It is a:
(a) conductor (b) insulator (c) semi-conductor (d) alloy
9. Potential barrier developed in a junction diode opposes:

(a) minority carries in both region only (b) majority carriers only
(c) electrons in n-region (d) holes in p-region
10. Depletion layer consists of:

(a) electrons (b) protons (c) mobile ions (d) immobile ions
11. In n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 20 mA. If 80% of the electrons
emitted reach the collector, the emitter current will be:
(a) 9mA (b) 11mA (c) 12.5mA (d) 0.1mA
12. The current gain of transistor is 100, if the base current changes by 10µA. What is the
change in collector current ?
(a) 0.2mA (b) 2mA (c) 1mA (d) 0.5mA

13. The potential barrier Vo of p-n junction diode is of order of

(a) 0.1V to 0.7V (b) 01eV to 0.7eV (c) 0.07eV (d) 0.07V
14. Electronic current is in

(a) conduction band only (b) valence band only
15. When we apply reverse bias to a junction diode, it:

(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) raises the potential barrier
(c) greatly increases the minority carrier current
(d) greatly increases the majority carrier current
16. A p-n diode is reverse biased. The resistance measured by an ohmmeter connected
across it will be:
(a) zero (b) low (c) high (d) infinite
17. The depletion layer in a p-n junction diode consists of layer of:
(a) positively charged donors on the p-side and negatively charged acceptors on the
n-side
(b) negatively charged donors on the p-side and positively charged acceptors on the
n-side
(c) positively charged donors on the n-side and negatively charged acceptors on the
p-side
(d) negatively charged donors on the n-side and positively charged acceptors on the
p-side
18. A transistor operating in a common base configuration has forward current gain factor,
α = 0.99. If the emitter current changes by 1 mA, then the changes in the base current
will be:
(a) 100 mA (b) 0.01 mA (c) 0.99 mA (d) 99 mA
19. If both the collector and emitter junctions of a transistor are forward biased, the
transistor is said to operate in the:
(a) active region (b) saturation region(c) cut off region (d) none of these
20. In the active region operation of a transistor:

(a) the collector-emitter junction is forward biased
(b) the collector-emitter junction is reverse biased
(c) the collector-base junction is forward biased and the emitter junction is reverse
biased
(d) the collector junction is reverse biased and emitter-base junction is forward biased

21. If the ratio of change in current in emitter and corresponding change in current in
collector is 1.013, then the value of α is:
(a) 0.987 (b) 0.100 (c) 0.900 (d) none of these
22. What is the current gain for a transistor used as common emitter amplifier, if the
current gain of the common base n-p-n transistor is 0.96?
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 32
23. In half wave rectification

(a) single diode is used (b) two diodes are used
(c) four diodes in bridge are used (d) both a & b
24. A diode which can be used for converting alternating current (AC) into direct current
(DC) is called as:
(a) amplifier (b) rectifier (c) switch (d) forward biasing
25. A semiconductor device which is used for amplification is

(a) diode (b) LED (c) transistor (d) photo diode
26. The frequency of carrier wave is ....... than/to that of information wave.
(a) lower (b) higher (c) same (d) none of these
27. Information or intelligence signal is known as:

(a) carrier wave (b) modulating signal
(c) mechanical wave (d) all of these
28. Modulation is a process in which

(a) carrier wave is mixed with modulating signal
(b) carrier wave is mixed with EM wave
(c) modulating signal is mixed with audio signal
(d) audio signal is separated from carrier signal
29. Current gain α of transistor is the ratio of

(a) emitter current to collector current (b) collector current to emitter current
(c) base current to collector current (d) base current to emitter current
30. The emitter-base junction of a transistor is set as

(a) reverse biased (b) forward bias (c) both a & b (d) none of these
Answer Key:
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. d 11. c
12. c 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. a
22. c 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b

17. ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS
17.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
USEFUL TERMS
Frames of A frame of reference can be thought of as a set of three orthogonal

Reference: meter sticks, with a clock attached. It is used to locate an event in
space-time.
• Inertial Frames of Reference: A frame of reference that
remains at rest or moves with constant velocity with respect
to other frames of reference is called Inertial Frame of
Reference. Newton’s laws of motion are valid in all inertial
frames of reference.
• Non-inertial Frames of Reference: A frame of reference is
said to be a non-inertial frame of reference when a body,
not acted upon by an external force, is accelerated. In a
non-inertial frame of reference, Newton’s laws of motion
are not valid.
Lorentz Factor (γ): The Lorentz factor is the factor by which time, length, and mass
changes in for an object movingq at speeds close to the speed of
light (relativistic speeds): γ = 1 − ( vc )2 , where v is the speed of
the object and c is the speed of light. Velocity of object must be
less than the velocity of light (v<c).

122 Chapter 17. ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS
Transformation A set of equations that transform position and time in two frames
Equations: of reference moving with respect to each other.
• Galilean Transformation: The equations in classical me-
chanics that relate position and time in two frames of refer-
ence that are moving uniformly with respect to each other.
Galilean transformations formally express the ideas that
space and time are absolute; that length, time, and mass are
independent of the relative motion of the observer; and that
the speed of light depends upon the relative motion of the
observer.
• Lorentz Transformation: A set of equations that relates the
space and time coordinates of two systems moving at a
constant velocity relative to each other. Lorentz transforma-
tions formally express the relativity concepts that space and
time are not absolute; that length, time, and mass depend
on the relative motion of the observer; and that the speed
of light in a vacuum is constant and independent of the
motion of the observer or the source. The equations were
developed by the Dutch physicist Hendrik Antoon Lorentz
in 1904.
Theory of Albert Einstein gave theories of relativity that all objects in uni-
Relativity: verse are measured or observed relative to each other and there is
no absolute frame of reference with whom we can measure the
object’s position accurately.
• Special Theory of Relativity: This theory is for objects
moving in inertial frames of reference. The laws of physics
for observers which are not accelerating relative to one
another should be the same and the speed of light is constant
for all observers. It was published by A. Einstein in 1905.
• General Theory of Relativity: This is the geometric theory
of gravitation published by Albert Einstein in 1916. It
explains that what we perceive as the force of gravity in
fact arises from the curvature of space and time. Einstein
proposed that objects such as the sun and the Earth change
this geometry.
The Principle of All observers, moving at constant speed, measure the same speed
Invariant Light of light regardless of how fast they are moving. The speed of light
Speed: is denoted by c and its value is 3 × 108 m/s.
Principle of The laws of physics for observers which are not accelerating
Relativity: relative to one another should be the same.

Consequences of Special Relativity showed us that space and time are not inde-
Special Theory of pendent of one another but can be mixed into each other and
Relativity: therefore must be considered as the same object, which we shall
denote as space-time. Like-wise, mass and energy are also treated
as same, which we shall call as mass-energy relationship. The
consequences of these mixing are:
• Mass Variation: Mass of moving object will be greater than
it were stationary.
• Length Contraction: Observers measure a moving object’s
length as being smaller than it would be if it were stationary.
• Time Dilation: The slowing of the passage of time experi-
enced by objects in motion relative to an observer; measur-
able only at relativistic speeds.
• Mass-Energy Relation:Mass and energy are equivalent ac-
cording to the relation: E = mc2 .
Black Body: An ideal body or surface that completely absorbs all radiant energy
falling upon it with no reflection and that radiates at all frequen-
cies with a spectral energy distribution dependent on its absolute
temperature only.
Black Body When a black body is at a uniform temperature, its emission

Radiation: has a characteristic frequency distribution that depends on the
temperature. Its emission is called black-body radiation.
Black Body Graphs that represent intensity of radiations with wavelengths at

Radiation Curve: particular temperature. The intensity (or flux) at all wavelengths
increases as the temperature of the blackbody increases.
Wien’s It states that the frequency of the peak of the emission (νmax )
Displacement Law: increases linearly with absolute temperature (T). Conversely, as the
temperature of the body increases, the wavelength at the emission
peak decreases. The product of shortest wavelength at maximum
intensity and its temperature is constant: λmax × T = constant.
Stephen’s Law: The principle that the energy radiated per second by unit area of
a black body at thermodynamic temperature T is directly propor-
tional to T 4 : E = σ T 4 . The constant σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann
constant, equal to 5.670400 × 10−8W.m−2 .K −4 .
Rayleigh-Jean’s According to this law energy associated with a particular wave-

Law: length is inversely proportional to the forth power of wavelength:
E = Constant
λ4
.

Plank’s Quantum Radiant energy is emitted or absorbed not continuously but dis-
Theory of Light: continuously in the form of small packets of energy called quanta.
The amount of energy of energy associated with a quantum( or
photon) of radiation is proportional to the frequency of radiation:
E = hν.
Photoelectric Photo-electric effect is the phenomenon of emission of electrons

Effect: from the surfaces of certain substances, mainly metals, when light
of shorter wavelength is incident upon them.
Threshold or Cutoff The minimum frequency of radiation that will produce a photo-
Frequency: electric effect. It is denoted by νo = Φho .
Work function: It is defined as the minimum energy required to pull an electron

out from the surface of metal. It is denoted by Φo = hνo .
Incident Photon: A particle of light which is going to hit the metallic plate or other
particle. A photon of energy E = Hν before interaction is called
incident photon.
Photon: A particle representing a quantum of light or other electromagnetic

radiation. A photon carries energy proportional to the radiation
frequency but has zero rest mass. A photon travels at the speed of
light c = 3 × 108 m/s. Energy in photon is given by Plank’s law:
E = hν.
Photoelectron: An electron ejected from the surface of a material by the photo-

electric effect having absorbed energy from incident photon.
Stopping Potential: The stopping potential is defined as the potential necessary to stop
any electron from reaching the other side. It is a measure of the
maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted as a result of the
photoelectric effect. It is denoted by Vo = KEmax = hν − Φo .
Einstein’s Einstein assumed that light consists of particles which he called

Explanation for photons. He explained the photoelectric effect that the kinetic
Photoelectric energy of the ejected electron was equal to the energy of the
Effect: incident photon minus the energy required to remove the electron
from the material, which is called the work function. KEmax =
hν − Φo OR hν = hνo + 21 mv2max .
Photocell: A solid-state device that converts light into electrical energy by

producing a voltage. It works on the principle of photoelectric
effect.

Compton Effect: When a light wave(Photon) is incident on an electron,there is a

decrease in energy of the photon as a part of energy its initial
energy is transferred to the electron which is scattered.This effect
is called the Compton effect or Compton Scattering.
Compton Shift: The increase in X-ray or gamma-ray wavelength resulting from

the transfer of energy that accompanies the scattering of photons
h
in the Compton effect. It is given by: λ 0 − λ = mc (1 − cos θ ).
Pair Production: In pair production, energy is converted into matter. When a high
energetic incident photon of energy greater than 1.02MeV strikes
with a heavy nucleus it splits into electron and positron. It never
occurs in free space.
Mass Annihilation: This is inverse process of Pair Production in which mass is con-
verted into energy. It occurs in free space. When a particle (elec-
tron) and its anti-particle (positron) come into contact then they
annihilate each other and in result two gamma particles are created.
This process occurs soon after pair production occurs.
De Broglie’s De Broglie hypothesized that material particles with momentum

Hypothesis: p should have a wave nature and a corresponding wavelength is
given by his equation: λ = hp = mv
h
Davisson and The Davisson-Germer experiment demonstrated the wave nature

Germer of the electron, confirming the earlier hypothesis of deBroglie.
Experiment:
Uncertainty The uncertainty principle, formulated by Werner Heisenberg

Principle: (1901–1976), states that it is impossible to simultaneously measure
a particle’s position and velocity exactly. Specifically, the uncer-
h
tainty in the measurements are given by: ∆p × ∆x ≥ 2π . Another
form of the expression refers to the uncertainty in measurements
h
of energy and time: ∆E × ∆t ≥ 2π
Electron-Volt (eV): A unit of energy equal to the work done on an electron in ac-
celerating it through a potential difference of one volt. 1eV =
1.6 × 10−19 J.

RAM’S MIND MAP
RAM’S MIND MAP

RAM’S MIND MAP
USEFUL EQUATIONS
r
v
Lorentz Factor γ = 1 − ( )2 , (v never equals to c)
c

r
v
Length Contraction L = Lo 1 − ( )2 , (L = relativistic length and Lo =
c
proper length)
mo
Mass variation m= q , (m = relativistic mass and mo = rest
1 − ( vc )2
mass)
To
Time Dilation T=q , (T = relativistic time and To = proper
1 − ( vc )2
time)
hc
Photon E = hν = , (h=plank’s constant=6.63 × 10−34 J.s)
λ
1
Einstein’s Photoelectric hν = hνo + mv2max
2
Equation
1
Stopping Potential eVo = mv2max (e = electron charge)
2
hc
Work Function Φo = hνo =
λo
h h h
λ= = =√ , (particle of mass m)
p mv 2mE
h h
de Broglie’s Wavelength λ= =√ , (charged particle)
p 2mqV
h
Compton Effect ∆λ = λ2 − λ1 = λc (1 − cos θ ) , where λc =
mo c
h h h
Uncertainty Principle ∆x∆p ≥ , and ∆E∆t ≥ , where h̄ =
2π 2π 2π

17.2 PROBLEMS 129
Points to Note:
• Real particle is represented by its mass and energy but has zero dimension
(no space); while real wave has momentum and energy and occupies infinite
space (it propagates in whole universe). Both real mass particle and real wave
are independently impossible to exist, however duality is possible. It means
mixture of both matter and wave is possible (dual nature of matter and light).
• No material object can travel at the speed of light.
• Einstein’s photoelectric effect was verified experimentally by Millikan and
his co-workers.
• Planck called light particles quanta. Einstein called light particles photons.
• Max Planck theorized the particulate nature of light. While Louis de Broglie
theorized the existence of matter waves.
• Particle nature of light (Plank’s Quantum Theory) was experimentally proved
by Einstein while wave nature of particle (de Broglie’s hypothesis) was proved
by Devision-Germer experiment.
• If frequency of incident radiation ν greater than threshold frequency νo , i.e;
ν > νo , then photoelectric effect occurs.
• Matter waves are not physical event.
• If ν < νo , no photoelectrons are not emitted but photon will reflect back
(reflection of light).
• The maximum speed of emitted photoelectrons is proportional to frequency
of incident radiation.
• The maximum speed of electrons does not depend upon intensity of radiation.
• The number of photoelectrons depends upon intensity of light.
• When emission of electrons takes place from the metal surface, the metal gets
positively charged.
• Photo-electric current is proportional to intensity of incident light.
• The rest mass of photon is zero, and photon is neither accelerated nor deceler-
ated.
17.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 17.1. In the inertial frame of a pendulum the time period is measured to be 3 s. What
will be the period of the pendulum for an observer moving at a speed of 0.95c with respect to the
pendulum?
Solution:
DATA: to 3
t=q =r 2
to = 3s 2
1 − vc2 1 − 0.95c
v = 0.95c c
TO FIND: 3 3
t=√ = = 9.6s
t =? 1 − 0.9025 0.312
t = 9.6s Ans.
Problem 17.2. What will be the length of a bar in the stationary frame if its length along the
x−direction is 1 m and the motion is with a velocity 0.75c with respect to the observer at rest.

Solution:
DATA: r s 2
Lo = 1m v2 0.75c
L = Lo 1− 2 = 1 1−
v = 0.75c c c
TO FIND: √
t = 1 1 − 0.5625 = 0.66m
L =?
L = 0.66m Ans.
Problem 17.3. Given mo c2 = 0.511MeV . Find the total energy E and the kinetic energy K of an
electron moving with a speed v = 0.85 c.
DATA: TO FIND:
Eo = 0.511MeV E =?
v = 0.85c KE =?
Solution:
mo c2 0.511 0.511 0.511
E = mc2 = q =r =√ = = 0.970MeV
2
1 − vc2 0.85c
2 1 − 0.7225 0.5268
1− c
E = 0.970MeV Ans.
Total energy of the particle is: E = Eo + KE
∴ KE = E − Eo = 0.970 − 0.511 = 0.459
KE = 0.459MeV Ans.
Problem 17.4. The total energy of a proton of mass 1.67 × 10−27 kg is three times its rest energy.
Find
(a) Protons rest energy.
(b) Speed of the proton.
(c) Kinetic energy k of proton in eV.
TO FIND:
DATA:
(a) Eo =?
mo = 1.67 × 10−27 kg
(b) v =?
E = 3Eo
(c) KE =?
Solution:
(a) E = mo c2 = 1.67 × 10−27 (3 × 10∗)2 = 1.503 × 10−10 J
1.503 × 10−10
Eo = = 9.39 × 108 eV
1.6 × 10−19
Eo = 939MeV Ans.
(b) E = 3Eo =⇒ mc2 = 3mo c2
mo
m = mo c2 =⇒ q = 3mo
2
1 − cv2
r
1 v2
Re-arranging: = 1 − 2
3 c r
1 v2 8 8 2
Squaring both sides: = 1 − 2 =⇒ v2 = c2 =⇒ v = c
9 c 9 9
v = 0.94c Ans.
(c) KE = E − Eo = 3Eo − Eo = 2Eo = 2 × 939 = 1878MeV
KE = 1878MeV Ans.

17.2 PROBLEMS 131
Problem 17.5. A particle of rest mass mo has a speed v = 0.8c, Find its relativistic momentum, its
kinetic energy and total energy?
TO FIND:
DATA:
(a) p =?
Rest mass = mo
(b) E =?
V = 0.8c
(c) KE =?
Solution:
mo v mo × 0.8c 0.8mo c 0.8mo c 0.8mo c 4
(a) p = mv = q = 2
=√ = √ = = mo c
2
1 − cv2 0.8c 1 − 0.64 0.36 0.6 3
1− c
4
p = mo c Ans.
3
mo c2 m o c2 mo c2 mo c2 m o c2 5
(b) E = mc2 = q =r 2 = √ = √ = = mo c2
1 − c2v2 1 − 64 0.36 0.6 3
1 − 0.8cc
5
E = mo c2 Ans.
3
5 5mo c2 − 3mo c2
(c) KE = E − Eo = mo c2 − mo c2 =
3 3
2
KE = mo c2 Ans.
3
Problem 17.6. What will be the velocity and momentum of a particle whose rest mass is mo and
whose kinetic energy is equal to its rest mass energy?
DATA: TO FIND:
Rest mass = mo (a) p =?
KE = Eo (b) v =?
Solution:
(a) Energy of the particle is given by: E = KE + Eo = Eo + Eo = 2Eo

mc2 = 2mo c2 =⇒ m = 2mo
mo 1
2mo = q =⇒ 2 = q
2 2
1 − cv2 1 − cv2
r
1 v2
Re-arranging: = 1 − 2
2 c √
1 v2 v2 1 3 2 3 2 3
Squaring both sides: = 1 − 2 =⇒ 2 = 1 − = =⇒ v = c =⇒ v = c
4 c c 4 4 4 2
v = 0.87c Ans.
√ √
(b) p = mv = 2mo × 32c = 3mo c
√
p = 3mo c Ans.
Problem 17.7. The sun radiates energy at a rate 3.8 × 1026W . At what rate the mass of sun
diminishes?

Solution:
DATA: E
P = 3.8 × 1026W P= =⇒ E = Pt =⇒ mc2 = Pt
t
Time = 1 year = 3.15 × 107 s Pt 3.8 × 1026 × 3.15 × 107
TO FIND: m= 2 =
c (3 × 108 )2
Rate of mass diminished/year=?
m = 1.33 × 1017 kg/year
Problem 17.8. What will be the work function of a substance for a threshold frequency of 43.9 ×
1013 Hz?
Solution:
DATA:
νo = 43.9 × 1013 Hz φ = hνo = 6.63 × 10−34 × 43.9 × 1013 = 2.93 × 10−19
h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js−1 2.93 × 10−19
TO FIND: φ= = 1.83eV
1.6 × 10−19
φ =?
φ = 1.83eV
Problem 17.9. What will be the value of λmin = hc/eVo , if h = 6.63 × 10−34 J.s, c = 3 × 108 ms−1 ,
e = 1.6 × 10−19C and Vo = 104V .
Solution:
DATA:
h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js−1 hc
λmin =
e = 1.6 × 10−19 c eVo
Vo = 104V 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
λmin =
TO FIND: 1.6 × 10−19 × 104
λmin =?
λmin = 1.24 × 10−10 m Ans.
Problem 17.10. In a Compton scattering process, the fractional change in work length of x-ray
photons is 1% at an angle θ = 120o , find the wavelength of x-ray used in the experiment.
DATA:
∆λ 1 ∆λ 1
λ1 = 100 =
θ = 120o λ1 100
TO FIND: λ1
∆λ =
λ =? 100
Solution:
h 6.63 × 10−34
Accroding to Compton Effect: ∆λ = (1 − cos θ ) = (1 − cos 120o )
mo c 9.1 × 10−31 × (3 × 108 )2
λ1
= 2.43 × 10−12 × 1.5 = 3.64 × 10−12 =⇒ λ1 = 3.64 × 10−12 × 100 = 3.64 × 10−10 m
100
λ1 = 3.64 × 10−10 m Ans.
Problem 17.11. Find the wave length of a 2.0 g light ball moving with a velocity:
(a) 1.0mm per century (b) 1.0ms−1 .

17.2 PROBLEMS 133
DATA:
mo = 2g = 2 × 10−3 kg Conversion into SI:
(a) v = 1mm per century 1 × 10−3
(b) v = 1m/s v=
100 × 365 × 24 × 3600
TO FIND: 10−3
λ =? v= = 3.17 × 10−13 m/s
3.15 × 109
h 6.63 × 10−34
(a) λ = = = 1.05 × 10−18 m
mo v 2 × 10−3 × 3.17 × 10−13
λ = 1.05 × 10−18 m
h 6.63 × 10−34
(b) λ = =
mo v 2 × 10−3 × 1
λ = 3.315 × 10−31 m
Problem 17.12. An electron exist with in a region of 10−10 m. Find its momentum, uncertainly and
the approximate kinetic energy.
TO FIND:
DATA:
(a) ∆p =?
∆x = 10−10 m
(b) K.E =?
Solution:
(a) Uncertainty in momentum is given by: ∆x∆p = h

h 1.05 × 10−34
∆p = = = 1.05 × 10−24 kgm/s =⇒ ∆p = 1.05 × 10−24 kgm/s Ans.
∆x 10−10
∆p2
(b) Kinetic Energy is given by: K.E =
2mo
−24
(1.05 × 10 ) 2
K.E = = 3.8eV =⇒ K.E = 3.8eV Ans.
2 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 1.6 × 10−19
Problem 17.13. Sodium surface is shined with light of wave length 3 × 10−7 m. If the work function
of Na = 2.46eV , find the K.E of the photoelectrons and also the cut off wave wave length λc = hc/φ .
Given: (1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J).
DATA: TO FIND:
λ = 3 × 10−7 m (a) K.E =?
φ = 2.46eV (b) λc =?
Solution:
hc
(a) Kinetic energy is given by: KE = E − φ where E is energy of photon: E =
λ
6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
E= = 4.14eV
3 × 10−7 × 1.6 × 10−19
∴ K.E = E − φ = 4.14 − 2.46 = 1.68eV =⇒ K.E = 1.68eV Ans.
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
Cut off wavelength is given by: λc = = = 5.05 × 10−7 m
φ 2.46 × 1.6 × 10−19
λc = 5.05 × 10−7 m Ans.

Problem 17.14. X-rays of wave length λo are scattered from a carbon block at an angle of 45o
with respect to the incident beam. Find the shift in wave length. Given: h = 6.63 × 10−34 J.s,
m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg and c = 3 × 108 ms−1 ).
θ = 45o
DATA:
TO FIND:
λ1 = λo
λ − λo =?
λ2 = λ
Solution:
h
According to Compton Effect: λ − λo = (1 − cos θ )
mo c
6.63 × 10−34
λ − λo = (1 − cos 45o ) = 7.11 × 10−13 m λ − λo = 7.11 × 10−13 m Ans.
9.1 × 10−31 × 3 × 108
Problem 17.15. If the electron beam in a T.V picture tube is accelerated by 10,000 V what will be
the de-Brogle’s wave length?
TO FIND:
DATA:
λ =?
V = 10, 000V
Solution:
h
de-Brogle’s wave length is given by: λ = √
2mo eV
6.63 × 10−34
λ=√ = 1.23 × 10−11 m λ = 1.23 × 10−11 m Ans.
2 × 9.1 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 × 10000
−31 −19
Problem 17.16. What minimum energy photon can be used to observe an object of size 2.5 ×
10−10 m.
TO FIND:
DATA:
∆E =?
∆x = 2.5 × 10−10 m
Solution:
h
According to Uncertainty Relationship: ∆p∆x = h =⇒ ∆p =
∆x
6.63 × 10−34
∆p = = 2.652 × 10−24 kg.m/s
2.5 × 10−10
Minimum energy photon could have: ∆E = mc2 = (mc).c = ∆pc
∆E = 2.652 × 10−24 × 3 × 108 = 7.956 × 10−16 J
7.956 × 10−16
Energy in eV: ∆E = = 4972.5eV
1.6 × 10−19
∆E = 4972.5eV Ans.
Problem 17.17. What will be the de Broglie’s wave length associated with a mass of 0.01 kg
moving with a velocity 10ms−1 ?
DATA: TO FIND:
mo = 0.01kg λ =?
v = 10m/s

Solution:
h
According to de Broglie’s postulate: λ =
mo v
6.63 × 10−34
λ= = 6.63 × 10−33 m
0.01 × 10
λ = 6.63 × 10−33 m Ans.
Problem 17.18. Certain excited state of hydrogen atom have a life time 2.5 × 10−19 s. What will
be the minimum uncertainly in energy?
TO FIND:
DATA:
∆E =?
∆t = 2.5 × 10−19 s
Solution:
h̄
According to Uncertainty in energy: ∆E∆t = h̄ =⇒ ∆E =
∆t
1.05 × 10−34
∆E = = 0.43 × 10−15 J
2.5 × 10−19
0.43 × 10−15
Energy in eV: ∆E = = 2625eV
1.6 × 10−19
∆E = 2625eV Ans.
Problem 17.19. X-rays are scattered from a target material. The scattered radiation is viewed at
an angle of 90o with respect to the incident beam. Find the Compton shift in wave length
TO FIND:
DATA:
∆λ = λ2 − λ1 =?
θ = 90o
Solution:
h
According to Compton shift: λ2 − λ1 = (1 − cos θ )
mo c
6.63 × 10−34
λ2 − λ1 = (1 − cos 90o ) = 2.43 × 10−12 m ∆λ = 2.43 × 10−12 m Ans.
9.1 × 10−31 × 3 × 108
Problem 17.20. Find the frequency of a photon when an electron of 20 KeV is brought to rest in a
collision with a heavy nucleus.
TO FIND:
DATA:
Frequency: ν =?
E = 20keV
Solution:
E
Energy in photon is given by: E = hν =⇒ ν =
h
Convert energy of photon into SI units: E = 20 × 103 × 1.6 × 10−19 = 3.2 × 10−15 J
3.2 × 10−15
∴ν = = 4.83 × 1018 Hz
6.63 × 10−34
ν = 4.83 × 1018 Hz Ans.


1. The minimum wavelength of X-ray produced by electron accelerated through a poten-
tial difference of V volt is directly proportional to:
√ √
(a) V (b) 2V (c) √1V (d) V1
2. Matter waves are:

(a) electromagnetic waves
(b) mechanical waves
(c) either mechanical or electromagnetic waves
(d) neither mechanical nor electromagnetic waves
3. The X-ray tube is operated at 50 kV, the minimum wavelength produced is:
(a) 0.5Å (b) 0.75Å (c) 0.25Å (d) 1.0Å
4. If the kinetic energy of the moving particle is E, then de Broglie wavelength is:
√ √
(a) λ = h 2mE (b) λ = 2mEh (c) λ = √2mEh
(d) λ = √hE
2mE
5. The speed of photon:

(a) may be less than speed of light (b) may be greater than speed of light
(c) must be equal to speed of light (d) must be less than speed of light
6. Planck’s constant:
(a) is universal constant (b) depends upon frequency of light
(c) depends upon wavelength of light (d) depends upon medium
7. If we consider photon and electron of the same wavelength, then they will have the
same:
(a) velocity (b) angular momentum
(c) energy (d) momentum
8. 1000 photons each of energy 2.5 eV are incident on a metal plate whose work function
is 4eV, then the number of electrons emitted from metal surface will be:
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) zero (d) infinite
9. The frequency of the incident light falling on a metal plate is doubled, the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is:
(a) unchanged (b) doubled (c) more than double(d) less than double
10. The number of ejected photoelectrons increases with increase:

(a) in frequency of light (b) in wavelength of light
(c) in intensity of light (d) all of these

11. For the same speed, de Broglie wavelength:

(a) of electron is larger than proton (b) of proton is larger than α−particle
(c) of electron is larger than α−particle (d) all of the above
12. It the velocity of an electron is doubled its de Broglie frequency will:

(a) be halved (b) remain same
(c) be doubled (d) become four times
13. An electron is at rest. Its wavelength is

(a) 1 (b) infinity
h
(c) me (d) it has not wave character
14. Which of the following statements is false ?

(a) Material wave (de Broglie wave) can travel in vacuum
(b) Electromagnetic wave can travel through vacuum
(c) The velocity of photon is not the same whether light passes through any medium
(d) Wavelength of de Broglie wave depends upon velocity
15. The de Broglie wavelength of a bus moving with speed v is X. Some passengers left
the bus at a bus stop. Now when the bus moves with twice its initial speed, its kinetic
energy is found to be twice its initial value. What will be the de Broglie wavelength,
now?
λ λ
(a) λ (b) 2λ (c) 2 (d) 4
16. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because:

(a) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted
(b) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends only on the frequency of
light and not on its intensity
(c) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons leave the
surface immediately
(d) all of the above
17. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a surface is dependent
on the:
(a) intensity of incident light (b) frequency of incident light
(c) number of photons (d) all of these
18. If the work function of the metal is φ and the frequency of incident light is ν, there is
no emission of photoelectrons when:
φ φ φ h
(a) ν < h (b) ν = h (c) ν > h (d) ν > φ

19. Photoelectric effect shows:

(a) wave-like behavior of light
(b) particle-like behavior of light
(c) both wave-like and particle-like behavior of light
(d) Electromagnetic behaviour of light
20. The number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time depends on (ν > νo )
(a) threshold frequency (b) frequency of the incident light
(c) intensity of the incident light (d) work function of plate
21. For a certain metal ν is five times of ν0 and the maximum velocity of coming out
photons is 8 × 106 m/s. If ν = 2ν0 , the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be:
(a) 4 × 106 m/s (b) 6 × 106 m/s (c) 2 × 106 m/s (d) 1 × 106 m/s
22. A red bulb and violet bulb of equal power emits nR and nV number of photons in a
given time, then:
(a) nR = nV (b) nR > nV (c) nR < nV (d) nR = nV /2
23. Einstein’s photoelectric equation states that Ek = hν − φ . In this equation Ek refers to:
(a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(b) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
24. In the case of Compton effect, which of the following is applicable?

(a) Energy conservation (b) Momentum conservation
(c) Charge conservation (d) All of the above
25. Rest mass energy of an electron is

(a) 0.511KeV (b) 0.511MeV (c) 1.02 KeV (d) 1.02 MeV
26. An inertial frame of reference is frame

(a) in which first law of motion is valid
(b) in which law of inertia is valid
(c) which is not moving with uniform velocity
(d) both a and b
27. Special theory of relativity treats problems involving

(a) inertial frame of reference (b) non-inertial frame of reference
(c) accelerated frame of reference (d) all of these

28. According to special theory of relativity which one is not an absolute quantity?
(a) mass (b) time (c) length (d) all of these
29. Length contraction happens only

(a) perpendicular to direction of motion (b) along direction of motion
(c) right angle to direction of motion (d) both a and b
30. When a electron and a positron are annihilated, the number of photons produced are:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
31. According to de Broglie, the waves are associated with:

(a) moving charged particles only (b) moving neutral particles only
(c) electrons only (d) all moving particles
32. Uncertainty principal states that the error in measurement is due to:
(a) dual nature of particles (b) due to small size of particles
(c) due to large size of particles (d) due to error in measuring instruments
33. In Compton Effect, scattered photon has wavelength ......... than incident photon.
(a) smaller (b) larger (c) equal to (d) none of these
34. The minimum energy required for pair production is:

(a) 0.511MeV (b) mo c2 (c) 2mo c2 (d) 1.00MeV
35. Matter waves

(a) show diffraction (b) are longitudinal
(c) are EM in nature (d) travel with velocity of light
36. Pair production occurs in

(a) free space (b) near lighter nucleus
(c) near heavy nucleus (d) near positron
37. Mass annihilation occurs in free spacenear lighter nucleusnear heavy nucleusnear
positrona
38. In Compton Effect, incident photon gives up maximum energy to an electron at angle
of:
(a) 0o (b) 90o (c) 180o (d) 45o
39. In Compton Effect, wavelength of scattered photon is equal to compton wavelength at

angle of:
(a) 0o (b) 90o (c) 180o (d) 45o
40. A metallic cube of density d moves with the speed of 0.8c, its density will
(a) decrease (b) increase (c) remain same (d) both a & b

41. Photocell is a device which

(a) converts heat into electrical energy
(b) converts light energy into electrical energy
(c) converts KE of electron into electrical energy
(d) converts PE of electron into electrical energy
42. Photoelectric effect was explained by Albert Einstein on the basis of
(a) wave nature of light (b) quantum theory of light
(c) pair production (d) Einstein’s mass-energy relationship
43. Compton shift in wavelength is given as:

mo c h
(a) ∆λ = h (1 − cos θ ) (b) ∆λ = mo c (1 − cos θ )
mo c h
(c) ∆λ = h (1 − sin θ ) (d) ∆λ = mo c (1 − sin θ )
44. The value of Compton Wavelength is

(a) 6.63 × 10−34 m (b) 2.42 × 10−34 m (c) 2.42 × 10−12 m (d) 0m
45. An astronaut moves in super spaceship traveling as a speed of 0.8c. The astronaut
observes a photon approaching him from space. The speed of a photon with respect to
the astronaut is:
(a) 1.8c (b) 0.8c (c) c (d) 0.4c
46. Automatic doors work on the principle of

(a) Compton effect (b) photoelectric effect
(c) pair production (d) uncertainty principle
47. An object moving at a relativistic speed past a stationary observer appears to

(a) have contracted and have a faster clock
(b) have expanded and have a faster clock
(c) have contracted and have a slower clock
(d) have expanded and have a slower clock
48. Lorentz factor in Special Theory of Relativity is given by the relationship:
q q
c2 v2 c2 2
(a) 1 − v2 (b) 1 − c2 (c) 1 − v2 (d) 1 − vc2
49. Correct Transformation Equations connecting to the inertial frames of reference are
(a) Galilean (b) Newtonian (c) Lorentz (d) all of these
50. In photoelectric effect, the photon is absorbed by an electron in metallic plate

(a) partially (b) completely (c) not at all (d) about 10%
51. The SI unit of Lorentz factor is:

(a) meter (b) m/s (c) sec (d) none of these

52. The numerical value of Lorentz factor should be

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) ≤ 1 & > 0 (d) ≤ 1 & ≥ 0
53. The stopping potential in photoelectric effect (is)

(a) independent of intensities of incident light
(b) depends upon only frequencies of light
(c) depends upon incident light energy
(d) all of these
54. The value of stopping potential in photoelectric effect is

(a) always +ve (b) always -ve (c) zero (d) all of these
55. The minimum energy of incident photon in photoelectric effect should be

(a) = φ (b) > φ (c) < φ (d) none of these
56. The mass of photon in motion is

hν hν
(a) c2
(b) hν (c) c (d) zero
57. The rest mass of a photon is

(a) 0.511MeV (b) 1.02MeV (c) 13.6eV (d) zero
58. The rest mass of an electron is mo . When it moves with a velocity v = 0.6c, then its
mass is:
(a) mo (b) 5/4mo (c) 4/5mo (d) 2mo
59. The uncertainty is not observable in ......... system because of the smaller value of
Plank’s constant.
(a) small (b) large (c) sub-atomic (d) all
60. An ideal blackbody is:

(a) the most efficient radiator (b) a perfect absorber of radiation
(c) a body whose absorber power is unity(d) all of these
61. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to a maxi-
mum intensity
(a) shifts toward longer wavelength (b) shifts toward shorter wavelength
(c) remains same (d) all of these
62. Electron and positron have same KEs. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelength is:
√
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:1 (d) 1 : 2

Answer Key:
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. c 11. d
12. c 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. a
22. b 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. d
32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. c 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. b
43. b 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. d 52. c
53. d 54. b 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. b 62. c

EXERCISE 17.1
1. (a) is correct.

18. THE ATOMIC SPECTRA
18.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
USEFUL TERMS
Atomic Spectrum: The spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted

or absorbed during transitions of electrons between energy levels
within an atom. Each element has a characteristic spectrum by
which it can be recognized.
Bohr’s Atomic Bohr proposed in 1913 a semi-classical atomic model by using

Model: Plank’s Quantum Theory. The significance of the Bohr model is
that the laws of classical mechanics apply to the motion of the
electron about the nucleus only when restricted by a quantum rule.
It consists of following postulates:
Postulate I: An electron can revolve around the nucleus in certain fixed
orbits of definite energy without emission of any radiant
energy. Such orbits are called stationary orbits.
Postulate II: An electron can make a transition from a stationary state of
higher energy E2 to a state of lower energy E1 and in doing
so, it emits a single photon of frequency: ν = E2 −E
h , where
1
where h is the Planck’s constant.

Postulate III: Only those orbits are allowed for which the angular mo-
h
mentum of the electron is an integral multiple of 2π . Thus
nh
L = 2π , where n = 1, 2, 3, ....

144 Chapter 18. THE ATOMIC SPECTRA
Spectral Series of The emitted light radiation when electron jumps from higher state
H-atom: to the lower state are called spectral linear. A group of spectral
lines are said to form spectral series if electrons jump from differ-
ent excited states to a fixed lower state. The various spectral series
of H are:
• Lyman Series: The spectral series formed when electrons
jump from different higher states to ground state n = 1 is
called Lyman series. This is an ultraviolet emission lines of
the hydrogen atom and it is invisible.
• Ballmer Series: The spectral lines of this series correspond
to the transition of an electron from some higher energy
state to an orbit having n = 2. The spectral line of this series
corresponds to visible region.
• Paschen Series: The spectral lines of this series correspond
to the transition of an electron from some higher energy
state to an orbit n = 3. Paschen series lies in the infrared
region of the spectral and it’s invisible.
• Bracket Series: The spectral lines of this series corre-
sponds to the transition of an electron from a higher energy
stare to the orbit n = 4. This series lies in the infrared region
of the spectral and it’s invisible.
• Pfund Series: The spectral lines of this series correspond
to the transition of electron from a higher energy state to
the orbit having n = 5. This series lies in the far infrared
region of the spectral and it’s invisible.
Ground State: The state of electron that have least energy.
Excitation Energy: The minimum energy required to bring an electron from ground
state to a higher excited state.
Ionization Energy: Ionization energy, also called ionization potential is the amount of
energy required to remove an electron from an atom.
X-rays: X-Rays are electromagnetic waves of short wavelength in the range

of 0.01 to 10 nanometers, corresponding to frequencies in the
range 30 petahertz to 30 exahertz (3 × 1016 Hzto3 × 1019 Hz) and
energies in the range 100 eV to 100 keV. X-rays were discovered
by W. Roentgen in 1895. X-rays are produce when fast moving
electron are suddenly stopped by a solid target. This process is
inverse photoelectric effect.
Meta-stable State: Metastable state is an excited state of an atom or other system

with a longer lifetime than the other excited states. The life time
of metastable state is about 10−3 s.

X-ray Spectrum: The spectrum from an X-ray tube contains two distinct parts:
• Characteristic X-ray: It consists of definite, well defined
wavelengths superimposed on the continuous spectrum.
These spectral lines generally occur in the form of small
groups and are characteristic of the material of the target.
When electrons in the target atoms get ‘excited’ and then
‘de-excited’ – X-rays produced in this way have definite
energies just like other line spectra from atomic electrons.
They are called characteristic X-rays since their energies are
determined by the atomic energy levels which they transit.
• Bremsstrahlung X-ray: Also known as continuous spec-
trum. Electromagnetic radiation produced by the acceler-
ation or especially the deceleration of a charged particle
after passing through the electric and magnetic fields of a
nucleus-these rays are called bremsstrahlung radiation, or
“braking radiation”. It consists of radiations of all possible
wavelengths, from a certain lower limit to higher values
continuously, as in the case of visible light.
LASER: A laser is a device that emits light through a process of optical

amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic
radiation. The term "laser" originated as an acronym for "light
amplification by stimulated emission of radiation"
Emission: When electron transitions from higher state to lower state, it emits
a photon of light, the process is called emission of photon. There
are two types of emission:
• Spontaneous Emission: Spontaneous emission occurs
when an electron that is in an excited state spontaneously
transitions to a lower energy state. When this occurs, a
photon is emitted. The energy of the photon is equal to the
energy difference between the two energy levels.
• Stimulated Emission: A photon of the same frequency
interacts with electron in excited state which drops to lower
state - the emitted photon is coherent with the incoming
photon. It occurs in those atoms which have metastable
states.
Population This phenomenon of having more number of atoms in the excited

Inversion: state than in the ground state is called population inversion.
Optical Pumping: The process by which population inversion is carried out is called
optical pumping.

RAM’S MIND MAP
USEFUL EQUATIONS

1 1 1
Balmer’s Empirical = RH − , (RH = 1.097 × 107 m−1 = Rydberg
λ 22 n2
Formula
constant)

1 1 1
Lyman series formula = RH − 2 , (n = 2, 3, 4, ....)
λ 12 n

1 1 1
Paschen series formula = RH − , (n = 4, 5, 6....)
λ 32 n2

1 1 1
Brackett series formula = RH − 2 , (n = 5, 6, 7....)
λ 42 n

18.2 PROBLEMS 147

1 1 1
Pfund series formula = RH − 2 , (n = 6, 7, 8....)
λ 52 n
n2 h̄2
Bohr’s radii r = 4πεo , where n = 1, 2, 3...
me2
4πεo h̄2
Bohr’s radius (n=1) r1 = = 0.53 × 10−10 m = 0.053nm
me2
me4 1 13.6
Total energy of H-atom En = KE +U = − 2 2 2
= − 2 eV
8εo h n n
me4
Kinetic energy of electron KE =
8εo2 h2 n2
me4
Potential energy of U =−
4εo2 h2 n2
electron
hc
λmin = , (continuous X-rays)
eV
hc
X-ray wavelength λ= , (characteristics X-ray)
E f − Ei
18.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 18.1. Calculate the following (a) the orbit radius (b) the angular momentum (c) the linear
momentum (d) the kinetic energy (e) the potential energy (f) the total energy for the Bohrs hydrogen
atom in ground state.
(b) Angular momentum: L =?

DATA:
(c) Linear momentum: P =?
n=1
(d) Kinetic Energy: KE =?
TO FIND:
(e) Potential Energy: U =?
(a) Orbit Radius: r1 =?
(f) Total Energy: E =?
Solution:
n2 h2 (1)2 (6.63 × 10−34 )2

(a) r1 = = = 0.53 × 10−10 m
4π 2 mke2 4(3.14)2 (9.1 × 10−31 )(9 × 109 )(1.6 × 10−19 )2
r1 = 0.53 Å

h
(b) Angular momentum is given by: L = n = nh̄ = 1 × 1.05 × 10−34 = 1.05 × 10−34 J.s
2π
L = 1.05 × 10−34 J.s
nh̄
(c) According to 1st postulate of Bohr’s model: mvr = nh̄ =⇒ mv = , but p = mv
r1
nh̄ 1 × 1.05 × 10−34
∴ p= = = 1.98 × 10−24 J.s
r1 0.53 × 10−10
p = 1.98 × 10−24 J.s
1 ke2 (9 × 109 )(1.6 × 10−19 )2
(d) KE = = = 2.17 × 10−18 J
2 r1 2 × 0.53 × 10−10
2.17 × 10−18
=⇒ KE = = 13.6eV
1.6 × 10−19
KE = 13.6eV
ke2 (9 × 109 )(1.6 × 10−19 )2
(f) U = − =− = −4.34 × 10−18 J
r1 0.53 × 10−10
4.34 × 10−18
=⇒ U = − = −27.2eV
1.6 × 10−19
U = −27.2eV
(e) E = KE + PE = 13.6 − 27.2 = −13.6eV
E = −13.6eV
Problem 18.2. What is the wavelength of the radiation that is emitted when a hydrogen atom
undergoes a transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1.
DATA: TO FIND:
n1 = 3 to n f = 1 Wavelength emitted: λ =?
Solution:
!
1 1 1 7 1 1 7 1
= RH − 2 = 1.097 × 10 − 2 = 1.097 × 10 −1
λ 2
n f ni 3 2 1 9
1 8 1
= 1.097 × 107 × = 9.75 × 106 =⇒ λ = = 1.0255 × 10−7 m = 102.5nm
λ 9 9.75 × 106
λ = 102.5nm Ans.
Problem 18.3. Light of wavelength 486.3 nm is emitted by a hydrogen atom in Balmer series, what
transitions of the hydrogen atom is responsible for this radiation.
DATA:
TO FIND:
Wavelength emitted: λ = 486.3nm = 486.3 × 10−9 m
ni =?
n f =?
Solution:
!
1 1 1
= RH − 2
λ 2
n f ni

18.2 PROBLEMS 149
! !
1 1 1 1 1
= 1.097 × 107 2
− 2 =⇒ = 0.25 − 2
486.3 × 10−9 2 ni 486.3 × 10 × 1.097 × 107
−9 ni
1 1 1
0.1874 = 0.25 − 2 =⇒ 2 = 0.25 − 0.1874 = 0.0625 =⇒ n2i = = 15.98
ni ni 0.0625
√
ni = 15.98 = 3.999 u 4
ni = 4 Ans.
Problem 18.4. In the hydrogen atoms an electron experiences a transition from a state whose
binding energy is 0.54 eV to another state whose excitation energy is 10.2 eV (a) What are the
quantum numbers for these states? (b) Compute the wavelength of the emitted photon. (c) To what
series does this line belong?
TO FIND:
DATA:
(a) ni =? and n f =?
Ei = −0.54eV
(b) λ =?
∆E = 10.2eV
(c) Series=?
Solution:
r r
−13.6eV −13.6eV −13.6eV √
(a) Ei = =⇒ ni = = = 25 = 5
n2i Ei −0.54
ni = 5 Ans.
−13.6eV
Like-wise: E f = , But ∆E = E f − E1 =⇒ E f = ∆E + E1 = 10.2eV + (−13.6eV )
n2f
−13.6eV −13.6eV √
E f = −3.4eV ∴ n2f = = = 4 =⇒ n f = 4 = 2
Ef −3.4eV
n f = 2 Ans.

1 7 1 1
(b) = 1.097 × 10 − = 1.097 × 107 (0.25 − 0.04) = 2.3037 × 106
λ 22 52
1
=⇒ λ = = 4.34 × 10−7 m = 434 × 10−9 = 434nm
2.3037 × 106
λ = 434nm Ans.
(c) Since the ground state of H-atom is 2, therefore it lies in Balmer series.
Problem 18.5. Photon of 12.1 eV absorbed by a hydrogen atom, originally in the ground state,
raises the atom to an excited state. What is the quantum number of this state?
TO FIND:
DATA:
n f =?
∆E = 12.1eV
Solution:
s
−13.6eV −13.6eV
Ef = =⇒ n f =
n2f Ef
But ∆E = E f − E1 =⇒ E f = ∆E + E1 = 12.1eV + (−13.6eV ) = −1.5eV
−13.6eV −13.6eV √
∴ n2f = = = 9 =⇒ n f = 9 = 3
Ef −1.5eV
n f = 3 Ans.

Problem 18.6. Find the wavelength of the first three lines of the Lyman series of hydrogen.
DATA:
TO FIND:
nf = 1
(a) λ1 =?
For 1st spectral line: ni = 2
(b) λ2 =?
For 2nd spectral line: ni = 3
(c) λ3 =?
For 3rd spectral line: ni = 4
Solution:
!
1 1 1
= RH − 2
λ 2
n f ni

1 1 1
(a) For 1st spectral line: = 1.097 × 107 − = 1.097 × 107 (1 − 0.25) = 8.228 × 106
λ1 12 22
1
λ1 = = 0.1215 × 10−6 m = 121.5 × 10−9 m = 121.5nm
8.2275 × 106
λ1 = 121.5nm Ans.

1 7 1 1
(b) For 2nd spectral line: = 1.097 × 10 − = 1.097 × 107 (8/9) = 9.751 × 106
λ2 12 32
1
λ2 = = 0.1025 × 10−6 m = 102.5 × 10−9 m = 102.5nm
9.751 × 106
λ2 = 102.5nm Ans.

1 7 1 1
(c) For 3rd spectral line: = 1.097 × 10 − = 1.097 × 107 (15/16) = 10.28 × 106
λ3 12 42
1
λ3 = = 0.09727 × 10−6 m = 97.2 × 10−9 m = 97.2nm
10.28 × 106
λ3 = 97.2nm Ans.
Problem 18.7. In an experiment, the excitation potentials of hydrogen are found at 10.21 V and
12.10 V, three different spectral lines are emitted. Find their wavelengths.
DATA: TO FIND:
V1 = 12.1 − 10.21 = 1.9V (a) λ1 =? at V1
V2 = 10.21V (b) λ2 =? at V2
V3 = 12.10V (c) λ3 =? at V3
Solution:
hc
λ=
eV
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
(a) λ1 = = = 6.54 × 10−7 = 654 × 10−9 = 654nm
eV1 1.6 × 10−19 × 1.9
λ1 = 654nm Ans.
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
(b) λ2 = = = 1.218 × 10−7 = 121.8 × 10−9 = 121.8nm
eV2 1.6 × 10−19 × 10.21
λ2 = 121.8nm Ans.
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
(c) λ3 = = = 1.028 × 10−7 = 102.7 × 10−9 = 102.7nm
eV3 1.6 × 10−19 × 12.1
λ3 = 102.7nm Ans.

18.2 PROBLEMS 151
Problem 18.8. What minimum energy is needed in an X-ray tube in order to produce X-rays with a
wavelength of 0.1 × 10−10 m.
DATA: TO FIND:
λ1 = 0.1 × 10−10 m Minimum energy needed: E =?
Solution:
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 −16 198.9 × 10−16

E= = = 198.9 × 10 J = = 124312.5eV
λ 0.1 × 10−10 1.6 × 10−19
E = 124312.5eV Ans.
Problem 18.9. A certain atom emits spectrum lines at 300, 400 and 1200 nm. Assuming that three
energy levels are involved in the corresponding transitions; calculate the quantum of energy emitted
at each wave length.
DATA: TO FIND:
λ1 = 300nm = 300 × 10−9 m (a) E1 at λ1
λ2 = 400nm = 400 × 10−9 m (b) E2 at λ2
λ3 = 1200nm = 1200 × 10−9 m (c) E3 at λ3
Solution:
hc
E=
λ
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
(a) E1 = = = 4.14eV
λ1 300 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−19
E1 = 4.14eV Ans.
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
(b) E2 = = = 3.1eV
λ2 400 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−19
E2 = 3.1eV Ans.
hc 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
(c) E3 = = = 1.036eV
λ3 1200 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−19
E3 = 1.036eV Ans.
Problem 18.10. Calculate the energy of a photon whose frequency is

(a) (i) 4 × 1014 Hz (ii) 20 GHz (iii) 30 MHz, Express your answer in ev.
(b) Describe the corresponding wavelengths for the photons described in (a)
DATA:
TO FIND:
ν1 = 4 × 1014 Hz (b) (i) λ1 =?
(a) (i) E1 =?
ν2 = 20GHz = 20 × 109 Hz (ii) λ2 =?
(ii) E2 =?
ν3 = 30MHz = 30 × 106 Hz (iii) λ3 =?
(iii) E3 =?

Solution:
(a) E = hν
6.63 × 10−34 × 4 × 1014
(i) E1 = hν1 = = 11.6575eV
1.6 × 10−19
E1 = 11.6575eV Ans.
6.63 × 10−34 × 20 × 109
(ii) E2 = hν2 = = 8.29 × 10−5 eV
1.6 × 10−19
E2 = 8.29 × 10−5 eV Ans.
6.63 × 10−34 × 30 × 106
(iii) E3 = hν3 = = 1.24 × 10−7 eV
1.6 × 10−19
E3 = 1.24 × 10−7 eV Ans.
c
(b) λ =
ν
c 3 × 108
(i) λ1 = = = 7.5 × 10−7 = 750 × 10−9 = 750nm
ν1 4 × 1014
λ1 = 750nm Ans.
c 3 × 108
(ii) λ2 = = = 0.015m
ν2 20 × 109
λ2 = 0.015m Ans.
c 3 × 108
(iii) λ3 = = = 10m
ν3 30 × 106
λ3 = 10m Ans.


1. Arrange the mass of electron, neutron and proton in ascending order.
(a) neutron < proton < electron (b) electron < neutron < proton
(c) proton < neutron < electron (d) electron < proton < neutron
2. The angular momentum of electron in hydrogen atom is proportional to:

√ 1 1
(a) r (b) (c) r2 (d) √
r r2
3. The radius of hydrogen atom, when it is in its second excited state, becomes:
(a) half (b) double (c) four times (d) nine times
4. If Bohr’s radius is Ro , hydrogen atom will be:

(a) 3Ro (b) 6Ro (c) 9Ro (d) 12Ro
5. In terms of Rydberg Constant R, the wave number of the first Balmer line is:
5R 8R
(a) R (b) 3R (c) (d)
36 9
6. For electron moving in nth orbit of the atom, the angular velocity is proportional to:
1 1
(a) n (b) (c) n3 (d) 3
n n
7. In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, electron has the angular momentum:
π h h 2π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
h π 2π h
8. Bohr’s atomic model is based upon
(a) Einstein’s relativistic theory (b) classical theory
(c) planks quantum theory (d) both b and c
9. Bohr’s model for the hydrogen atom predicts that the absorption spectra involves
(a) accelerating electrons
(b) same wavelengths as emission spectra
(c) electrons going to higher energy levels
(d) electrons dropping to lower energy levels
10. Bohr’s quantum postulate stated that one of the following quantities came in discrete
units of h/2π:
(a) linear momentum (b) energy
(c) position (d) angular momentum
11. Pfund series belongs to

(a) visible region (b) infrared region (c) ultraviolet region(d) all of these

12. Moseley studied:

(a) Continuous X-rays (b) Bremsstrahlung X-rays
(c) Characteristic X-rays (d) all of these
13. LASER is an intense beam of light which is:
(a) monochromatic (b) coherent (c) in phase (d) all of these
14. The state atomic orbit which has life time of approximately 10−3 s is known as:
(a) induced state (b) meta-stable state(c) stimulated state (d) excited state
15. Bound state in atom has:
(a) +ve energy (b) -ve energy (c) zero energy (d) only PE
16. In population inversion, majority of the atoms lie in
(a) meta-stable state (b) ionized state (c) ground state (d) unbound state
17. Bremsstrahlung is
(a) absorption spectrum (b) emission spectrum
(c) characteristic spectrum (d) continuous spectrum
18. Lines of Lyman series are obtained from hydrogen atom when the electron jumps from
some higher orbits to
(a) 4th orbit (b) 3rd orbit (c) 2nd orbit (d) 1st orbit
19. For LASER operation an atom must have:
(a) at least one meta stable state (b) excited state
(c) state of ordinary life time (d) ground state
20. Wavelength of x-ray is of order of:
(a) centimeter (b) micron (10−6 m)
(c) angstrom (10−10 m) (d) meter
21. Bohr radius is equal to:
(a) 13.6nm (b) 0.053m (c) 0.053nm (d) 0.530nm
22. X-rays were discovered by
(a) Rutherford (b) Maxwell (c) Bohr (d) Roentgen
23. The X-rays region lies between:
(a) short & long radio waves (b) gamma & UV rays
(c) visible & UV rays (d) short radio & visible rays
24. X-rays production is inverse of:
(a) Compton effect (b) photoelectric effect
(c) pair production (d) mass annihilation

25. Ruby LASER is an example of"

(a) solid LASER (b) helium LASER (c) gas LASER (d) neon LASER
26. The characteristics of the target element that determines the frequency of characteristic
x-rays is:
(a) conductivity (b) resistivity (c) atomic number (d) high voltage
27. Which photon of x-ray series has greater energy?

(a) K-series (b) L-series (c) M-series (d) N-series
28. Which photon of x-ray series has smaller energy?

(a) K-series (b) L-series (c) M-series (d) N-series
29. Life time of spontaneous transition in atoms is:

(a) 10−1 s (b) 10−3 s (c) 10−8 s (d) 1 s
30. Monochromatic light has

(a) red color (b) green color
(c) single wavelength (d) all seven colors
31. If the accelerating voltage in a x-ray tube is doubled, the minimum x-ray wavelength
is multiplied by a factor of
(a) 1 (b) 1/2 (c) 2 (d) 1/4
32. From shortest to longest wavelength, which of the following correctly orders the
different categories of electromagnetic radiation?
(a) infrared, visible, ultraviolet, gamma rays, radio wave
(b) radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-ray, gamma rays
(c) visible light, infrared, x-rays, ultraviolet, gamma rays, radio
(d) gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, radio
33. A spectrum containing only specific wavelength is called

(a) a line spectrum (b) visible spectrum
(c) continuous spectrum (d) emission spectrum
34. When electrons strike a target and x-rays are emitted:

(a) the maximum x-rays photon energy is less than the incident electron KE
(b) the maximum x-ray frequency depends upon the target material
(c) the highest frequency of photons corresponds to all the electron energy being
converted into a single photon
(d) there is no peak in the x-ray spectrum
35. A hydrogen atom makes a transition from states n = 2 to n = 1. According to Bohr’s

Atomic Model, which of the following statements are true:

I The energy of the atom decreases by a factor of 2

II The radius of the electron’s orbit decreases by a factor of 2
III The orbital angular momentum decreases by a factor of 2
(a) I & II are true; III is false (b) II & III are true; I is false
(c) All three statements are false (d) III is true; I & II are false
36. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line
of highest frequency is:
(a) n=2 to n=1 (b) n=3 to n=8 (c) n=8 to n=3 (d) n=1 to n=2
37. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption lines
of lowest frequency is
(a) n=2 to n=1 (b) n=3 to n=8 (c) n=8 to n=3 (d) n=1 to n=2
38. Lines of Balmer series are obtained from the hydrogen atoms when the electron jumps
from some higher orbits to
(a) 4th orbit (b) 3rd orbit (c) 2nd orbit (d) 1st orbit
39. Lines of Paschen series are obtained from the hydrogen atoms when the electrons
jumps from some higher orbits to the
(a) n=1 (b) n=2 (c) n=3 (d) n=4
40. Which of lines series of the hydrogen atom lie in visible region?
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series
Answer Key:
1. d 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. b
12. c 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. c
22. d 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. b
32. 6 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b

EXERCISE 18.1

19. THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS
19.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Activity (A): The rate of decay for radioactive nuclides. The SI unit of Activity
A is Becquerel (Bq). 1Bq= 1 event/sec.
Alpha Decay: Type of radioactive decay in which heavy unstable nuclide emits
an α particle. It reduces the mass number of parent nucleus by
4 and charge number by 2 according to the equation: Z X A →Z−2
Y A−4 +2 He4 (α)
Alpha Particle α: Alpha particles are helium nuclei. Mass number is 4 and charge
number is +2. It consists of two protons and two neutrons bound
together: 2 He2 .
Atomic Number Z: The number of protons OR electrons in a nucleus. It is also known

as charge number.
Atomic Mass Unit This is defined as 1/12th of the mass of the

(a.m.u): carbon (12C) atom. According to this defi-
mass of one 12C atom −26 kg
nition: 1u = 12 = 1.992647×10
12 ,
1u = 1.660539 × 10−27 kg , 1u = 931.5MeV /c2

158 Chapter 19. THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS
Becquerel (Bq): SI unit for rate of decay (Activity) of a radioactive material. 1 Bq

= 1 decay per second.
Beta Decay: A type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus emits an

electron or positron. There are two types of beta decays: β + and
β − decays. Beta decay does not change the number of nucleons,
A, in the nucleus; it changes only its charge, Z. β − decay increases
Z by 1 while β + decays decreases Z by 1. The general form of
reaction is: Z X Y →z+1 Y A +−1 e0 and Z X Y →z−1 Y A ++1 e0
Binding Energy Eb : The energy needed to separate nucleus into individual protons and
neutrons: Eb = ∆m × 931.5MeV where ∆m is mass defect.
Binding Energy per The Binding Energy per nucleon or Packing Fraction is the total
Nucleon (Packing binding energy of a nucleus divided by the number of nucleons
Fraction): in the nucleus. Mathematically, Packing Fraction= EAb , Where
A = Z + N is total number of nucleons in the nucleus.
Critical Mass: The smallest amount of fuel necessary to sustain a chain reaction
is called the critical size or critical mass. As the size increases, the
volume to surface area ratio increases and a smaller proportion of
neutrons are lost from the fuel.
Curie: Unit of Activity of 1g of Ra − 226, equal to 3.70 × 1010 Bq.
Daughter Nucleus: The nucleus obtained when parent nucleus decays and produces
another nucleus following the rules and the conservation laws.
Decay: The process by which an atomic nucleus of an unstable atom loses

mass and energy by emitting ionizing particles. Another term for
decay is radioactivity.
Decay Constant λ : Decay constant or disintegration constant is the fraction of the

number of atoms that decay in 1 second. Mathematically, λ =
− ∆N/N
∆T . A large value of λ means that the sample will decay
quickly.
Fissile Material: Fissile material consists of fissionable isotopes that are capable of
undergoing nuclear fission only after capturing a thermal neutron.
238 is not fissile isotope. Typical fissile materials: 235 ,
92U 92U
233 , Pu239 and Pu241 .
92U 94 94

Fissionable Those materials which consist of isotopes that are capable of sus-
Material: taining a chain reaction with neutrons of any energy, that is, either
by slow neutrons (i.e., a thermal neutrons) or by fast neutrons
Typical fissionable materials are: 92U 233 , 92U 235 , 92U 238 , 94 Pu239 ,
240 and Pu241 .
94 Pu 94
Fertile Materials: They consist of isotopes that are not fissionable by thermal neu-
trons, but can be converted into fissile isotopes (after neutron
absorption and subsequent nuclear decay). Typical fertile materi-
als: 92U 238 and 90 T h232 .
Gamma Decay Type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus emits a

gamma particle. It occurs in excited nuclei. It has no effect on
the mass number or charge number of nuclide. The reaction is:
∗A → X A + α.
ZX Z
Gamma Particles γ: One of the types of rays emitted from the nucleus of an atom.
Gamma particles are high energetic photons of light carrying no
charge and mass.
Half-life T1/2 : It is defined as the time taken for one half of the radioactive
element to undergo disintegration. It is denoted by T1/2 = 0.693
λ .
Isotope: Two or more forms of the same element that contain equal numbers
of protons but different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei, and
hence they differ in relative atomic mass but not in chemical
properties.
Mass Defect ∆m: The mass of constituent (nucleons) of a nucleus in free state is
greater than that of the total mass of the same constituents in
combined state as nucleus. This difference is called mass defect or
mass deficit. It is given by: ∆m = [Zm p + Nmn ] − mnucleus , where
Z is charge number, m p is the mass of proton, A is mass number
and mn is the mass of proton. Here N = A − Z is the number of
neutrons in the nucleus.
Mass Number (A): It is also known as Nucleon Number. The combined number of all
protons and neutrons inside a nucleus is known as its mass number.
A = P + N =⇒ A = Z + N. Since P = Z is the total number of
protons OR electron (also known as charge number).

Mean Life τ: Average lifetime of all the nuclei of a particular unstable atomic
species. This time interval may be thought of as the sum of the
lifetimes of all the individual unstable nuclei in a sample, divided
by the total number of unstable nuclei present. The mean life of a
particular species of unstable nucleus is always 1.443 times longer
than its half-life τ = λ1 = 1.443 × T1/2 .
Neutrino: A neutral elementary particle that must emit during beta decay.
The mass of the neutrino is much smaller than that of the other
known elementary particles.
Neutron: A neutral particle that is found in a nucleus having mass slightly

more than proton. It is necessary for the stability for the nucleus.
Neutron Number The total number of neutron in the nucleus is known as Neutron
(N): Number (N). Mathematically: N = A − Z.
Nuclear Fission Nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction in which the nucleus of an

atom splits into smaller parts (lighter nuclei). The fission process
often produces free neutrons and photons (in the form of gamma
rays), and releases a large amount of energy. There are two types
of fission:
• Spontaneous fission is decay process and it is very rare
process.
• Induced fission are initiated by projecting nuclear particles
to radionuclide.
Nuclear Fusion: Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic
nuclei collide at a very high energy and fuse together into a new
nucleus and release enormous amount of energy.
Nuclear Reaction: A nuclear reaction is considered to be the process in which two

nuclear particles (two nuclei or a nucleus and a nucleon) interact
to produce two or more nuclear particles or gamma rays. Thus,
a nuclear reaction must cause a transformation of at least one
nuclide to another. If the initial nuclei are denoted by a and b,
and the product nuclei are denoted by c and d, the reaction can be
represented by the equation:a + b → b + d, or by a(b, c)d.

Nuclear Reactor The device to carry out the fission reaction in a controlled manner
to harness the energy for constructive purpose. Main purpose of
the nuclear reactor is to initiate and control a sustained nuclear
chain reaction. Main parts of nuclear reactor are:
• Fuel: The fuel of nuclear reactor is U-325 enriched to 3%.
The other commonly used fuels are Plutonium or Thorium.
• Moderators: Moderator reduces the speed of the neutron
by absorbing its energy but not absorb neutron. Graphite,
Heavy water and Beryllium are common moderators.
• Control Rods:These rods absorb neutrons and stop the
chain reaction to proceed further. Typical elements used as
control rods are boron, silver, indium and cadmium.
• Shielding: Shielding prevents radiations to reach outside
the reactor. Concrete wall and lead are used as shielding.
• Coolant: The coolant is substance in a pipe to the steam
generator where water is boiled. Typical coolants are water,
carbon dioxide gas or liquid sodium.
• Turbine: The turbine transfers the heat from the coolant to
electricity.
Nucleon: A nucleon refers to any subatomic particle found in the nucleus of

an atom. For instance, protons and neutrons are nucleons.
Nuclide: A type of atom whose nucleus has specific num-

bers of protons and neutrons. It is represented as
Parent Nucleus: The original state of nucleus before decay.
Positron Decay: Type of beta decay in which a proton is converted to a neutron,

releasing a positron and a neutrino. Also known as β + decay.
Radioactivity Radioactivity is the spontaneous and random decay of an unstable

nucleus, with the emission of an alpha or beta particle, and is
usually accompanied by the emission of a gamma ray photon.
Rutherford (Rd): This unit is named after Ernest Rutherford in 1946. The rutherford
(Rd) is defined as the activity of a quantity of radioactive material
in which one million nuclei decay per second. It is therefore equiv-
alent to one megabecquerel:1 Rd = 106 Bq = 2.703 × 10−5Ci.

Transmutation When a radioactive atom emitted an alpha particle or a beta par-

ticle, an atom of a new element was produced. This process by
which a new daughter element was formed from a parent element
was termed transmutation.
Q-value: The Q-value of the reaction is defined as the difference between

the sum of the masses of the initial reactants and the sum of the
masses of the final products, in energy units (usually in MeV).
• For reactions in which there is an increase in the kinetic
energy of the products Q is positive. The positive Q reac-
tions are said to be exothermic (or exergic). There is a net
release of energy.
• For reactions in which there is a decrease in the kinetic en-
ergy of the products Q is negative. The negative Q reactions
are said to be endothermic (or endoergic) and they require
a net energy input.

Law of Radioactivity
Law of Radiocativity is drived mathematically as follows:

If N is the number of nuclei in the sample and ∆N undergo decay in time ∆t then:
∆N ∆N
− ∝ N, which means: = −λ N
∆t ∆t
where λ is a constant known as decay constant or disintegration constant. The negative
sign indicates that N decreases with increase in time. The above equation can also be
written as:
∆N
= −λ ∆t
N
Let No be intitial nuclei at t = 0 and N be nuclie at time t. Integrating both sides of the
above equation, we get:
Z N Z t
dN
= −λ dt
No N t=0
h iN h it
ln N = −λ t
No 0
N
ln N − ln No = λ (t − 0) =⇒ ln = −λt
No
Applying anti-log on both sides of above equation, we get:
N
= e−λt =⇒ N = No e−λt
No
Similarly, let Ao be initial activity at t = 0 and A is activity at later time t, then:
A = Ao e−λt
Units of Activity:
• Becquerel (Bq): The SI unit for activity is becquerel (Bq), named after the discoverer of
radioactivity, Henry Becquerel. It is defined as:
1 becquerel = 1Bq = 1 decay per second
• Curie (Ci): An older unit is the curie (Ci), named after Pierre and Marie Curie. One curie is
approximately the activity of 1 gram of radium and equals (exactly) 3.7 × 1010 Bq.
1 Bq = 2.703 × 10−11Ci

RAM’S MIND MAP
Ram’s Notebook
Particle mass in Kg a.m.u MeV
Neutron 1.6749 × 10−27 1.0086649 939.57

Proton 1.6726 × 10−27 1.0072730 938.28
Electron 9.1094 × 10−31 0.0005486 0.511
α particle 6.6442 × 10−27 4.001508 3727.4

Points to Note:
• The binding energy per nucleon reaches a maximum of 8.8 MeV at A=56,
corresponding to the iron nucleus (56 26 Fe). Hence, iron nucleus is the most
stable.
• All elements form a number of radionuclides, although the half-lives of many
are so short that they are not observed in nature.
• The nuclear force is powerfully attractive at distances of about 1 femtometer
(fm), rapidly decreases to insignificance at distances beyond about 2.5 fm, and
becomes repulsive at very short distances less than 0.7 fm.
• The nuclear force is a residual effect of the a strong interaction that binds
together particles called quarks into nucleons.
• For fusion, the light nuclei must have sufficient initial energy to overcome the
coulomb potential barrier. That is why fusion requires very high temperatures.
• The binding energy of nuclei is always a positive number while the mass of
an atom’s nucleus is always less than the sum of the individual masses of the
constituent protons and neutrons when separated.
• If nucleus has too many neutrons relative to number of protons, then β decay
occurs (negative beta decay). It increases the charge number by 1 while mass
number remains same.
• If nucleus has too many protons relative to number of neutrons, then positive β
decay occurs. It reduces the charge number by 1 while mass number remains
same.
• Quarks are elementary particles that make up protons and neutrons. There six
types of quarks (known as flavours): up, down, strange, charm, bottom and
top.
• Up quarks and down quarks are generally stable and the most common. They
are therefore the two most important ones. It is not possible to separate quarks
from each other.
• Protons are made from two up quarks and one down quark. While neutrons
are made from one up quark and two down quarks.
• Up quarks have an electrical charge of +2/3. Down quarks have an electri-
cal charge of −1/3. This explains why protons have a positive charge and
neutrons have no charge.
• β − decay involves a down quark changing into an up quark (a neutron becomes
a proton and an electron). While β + decay involves an up quark changing
into an down quark (a proton becomes a neutron and a positron).
• Strong nuclear force binds the quarks together in proton and neutron while
weak nuclear force changes the flavor of one quark into another.
• Nuclear fusion and fission involve the conversion of matter to energy, but the
matter that is converted is never a full nucleon.
• A moderator is used to slowdown neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are
suitable moderators.
• Cadmium, boron and steel rods are used as controller in nuclear reactor.
• The Q-value of a nuclear process is: Q = final kinetic energy – initial kinetic
energy.
• Energy is released when less tightly bound nuclei are transmuted into more
tightly bound nuclei.

19.2 PROBLEMS
Problem 19.1. When the chlorine atom of mass number 35 and charge number 17, is bombarded
by proton, the resulting atom disintegrates, emitting an α-particle. Write the equation representing
the reaction.
Solution:
35
17Cl + 1 H 1 → 16 S32 + 2 H 4 (al phaparticle)
Problem 19.2. The half life of Radon is 3.80 days what would be its decay constant?
DATA: TO FIND:
T1/2 = 3.80 days= 3.8 × 24 × 3600 = 328320 seconds Decay constant λ =?
Solution:
0.693 0.693 0.693

T1/2 = =⇒ λ = = = 2.1 × 10−6 s−1 .
λ T1/2 328320
λ = 2.1 × 10−6 s−1 Ans.
Problem 19.3. The atomic weight of Bromine is 79.938u and it is composed of two isotopes of
mass 78.943u and 80.942u compute the percentage of each isotopes.
DATA:
Mass of 1st isotope is: mx = 78.943u, TO FIND:
Mass of 2nd isotope is: my = 80.942u, % part of 1st isotope: x =?
Mass of Bromine is: mB = 79.938u % part of 2nd isotope: y = 1 − x =?
Solution:
Let the part of 1st isotope is x and that of 2nd isotope is y=1-x: mx × x + my × y = mB
mx × x + my × (1 − x) = mB
78.943 × x + 80.942 × (1 − x) = 79.938 =⇒ 78.943x + 80.942 − 80.942x = 79.938
1.004
− 1.999x = −1.004 =⇒ x = = 0.502
1.999
Percentage of 1st isotope: x × 100 = 0.502 × 100 = 50.2%
%age of 2nd isotope: y × 100 = (1 − x) × 100 = (1 − 0.502) × 100 = 0.498× = 49.8%
Problem 19.4. The half life of 104 Po210 is 140 days. By what percent does its activity will decrease
per week?
DATA: TO FIND:
Half-life of isotope: T1/2 = 140days %age decrease in activity per week: ∆A
A %=?
Time: t = 1 week

19.2 PROBLEMS 167
Solution:
140 0.693 0.693

T1/2 = = 20 week, and decay constamt: λ = = = 0.03465week−1 .
7 T1/2 20
Let initial activity is: Ao = λ No
And activity after one week be: A = λ N
Decrease in activity per week: ∆A = Ao − A = λ No − λ N = λ (No − N)
Where N can be calculated by Law of Radioactivity as: N = No ε λt = No ε 0.03465×1 = 0.966No
Therefore, decrease in activity = ∆A = λ (No − 0.966No ) = 0.034λ No
∆A 0.034λ No 0.034λ No
%age decrease in activity per week: %= × 100 = × 100 = 3.4%
A A λ No
∆A
% = 3.4% Ans.
A
Problem 19.5. If a neutron would be entirely converted into energy, how much energy would be
produced? Express your answer in Joules as well as electron volts.
DATA: TO FIND:
mn = 1.008665u E =? (in J and eV)
Solution:
E = mn × 931.5 = 1.008665 × 931.5 = 939.6MeV

E = 939.6MeV Ans.
In joule: E = 939.6 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19 = 1.5 × 10−16 J
E = 1.5 × 10−16 J Ans.
Problem 19.6. Find the binding energy of 52 Te126 , Given:

m p = 1.0078u, mn = 1.0086u, mTe = 125.9033u & 1u = 931.5 MeV
Solution:
No. of protons=52; and No pf neutrons=126-52=74

Mass of Te in free stable: M = 52m p + 74mn
M = 52 × 1.0078 + 74 × 1.0086 = 52.4056 + 74.6364 = 127.042u
Mass defect: ∆m = M − mn = 127.042 − 125.9033 = 1.1387u
E = ∆m × 931.5 = 1.1387 × 931.5 = 1060.7MeV
E = 1060.7MeV Ans.
Problem 19.7. If the number of atoms per gramme of 88 Ra226 is 2.66 × 1021 and it decays with a
half life of 1622 years. Find the decay constant and the activity of the sample.
DATA: TO FIND:
No = 2.666 × 1021 λ =?
T1/2 = 1622 years = 5.11 × 1010 s A =?

Solution:
0.693 0.693 0.693

T1/2 = =⇒ λ = = = 1.35 × 1011 s−1
λ T1/2 5.11 × 1016
λ = 1.35 × 1011 s−1 Ans.
Activity is given by: A = λ No = 1.35 × 10−11 × 2.666 × 1021 = 3.61 × 1010 events/s
A = 3.61 × 1010 events/s Ans.
Problem 19.8. What will be the maximum energy of the electron in the beta decay of 1 H 3 through
the reaction:
3 3
1 H − − − − − − − −− > 2 He + β + ν
− −
DATA:
mass of 1 H 3 = 3.016049u TO FIND:
mass of 2 He3 = 3.016029u E =?
Solution:
Mass defect: ∆m = mass of 1 H 3 − mass of 2 He3 = 3.016049 − 3.015029 = 2.41 × 10−4 u

E = ∆m × 931.5 = 2.41 × 10−4 × 931.5 = 0.0186MeV
E = 0.0186MeV Ans.
Problem 19.9. Find the Q-value for the nuclear reaction:

42 41
20Ca (P, d)20Ca
DATA:
mass of deuterium 1 H 2 = 2.014102u
mass of 20Ca42 = 3.016049u
TO FIND:
mass of 20Ca41 = 3.016029u
Q-value=?
mass of proton 1 H 1 = 1.0078u
Solution:
42
20Ca + 1 H 1 − − − − − − − −− > 20Ca41 + 1 He2 + Q − value
mass of reactant: m1 = 41.928 + 1.0078 = 42.9358u
mass of product: m2 = 41.9118 + 2.014102 = 43.926u
Mass defect: ∆m = m2 − m1 = 43.926 − 42.9358 = 0.9902u
Q-value: E = ∆m × 931.5 = 0.9902 × 931.5 = 924MeV
E = 924MeV Ans.
Problem 19.10. Find the energy released when two deuterium (1 H 2 ) nuclei fuse together to form
an alpha particle (2 He4 ).
DATA:
TO FIND:
mass of deuterium 1 H 2 = 2.014102u
E=?
mass of alpha particle 2 He4 = 4.0026034u

Solution:
2
1H + 1 H 2 − − − − − − > 2 He4 + Q − value
mass of reactant: m1 = 2.014102 + 2.014102 = 4.0282u
mass of product: m2 = 4.002603u
Mass defect: ∆m = m2 − m1 = 4.0282 − 4.002603 = 0.0256u
E = ∆m × 931.5 = 0.0256 × 931.5 = 23.82MeV
E = 23.82MeV Ans.


1. In the nucleus of 11 Na23 , the number of protons, neutrons and electrons are:
(a) 11, 12, 11 (b) 12, 11, 0 (c) 23, 12, 11 (d) 23, 11, 12
2. When number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the binding energy per nucleon:
(a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) decreases continuously with mass number
(c) remains constant with mass number
(d) first increases and then decreases with increase of mass number
3. A sample of a radioactive element of 16 g is taken to lab for study. After 2 hours of

time, 1 g of the element remained undisintegrated. Half-life of the element is:
1 1
(a) 2 hr (b) 1 hr (c) 2 (d) 4
4. If radium has half-life of 5 years. Thus for a nucleus in a sample of radium, the
probability of decay in ten years is:
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 75% (d) 100%
5. The rest mass energy of electron is:

(a) 932.5MeV (b) 0.0005MeV (c) 0.511 MeV (d) 931.5MeV
6. The mass of electron in atomic mass unit is:

(a) 0.0005486 (b) 0.5119 (c) 1.0072765 (d) 1.660539
7. The atomic mass of 5 B10 is 10.811u. The binding energy of boron nucleus is:
(a) -681.8 MeV (b) 681.8 MeV (c) -931.5 MeV (d) 931.5MeV
8. The binding energy (Eb ) of 23 23

11 Na is (Given : Atomic mass of 11 Na is 22.9898
amu):
(a) 931.5 MeV (b) 181 MeV (c) 5.38 MeV (d) 0MeV
9. The Eb per nucleon are 5.3 MeV, 6.2 MeV, and 7.4 MeV for the nuclei with mass
numbers 3, 4 and 5 respectively. If one nucleus of mass number 3 combines with one
nucleus of mass number 5 to give two nuclei of mass number 4, then:
(a) 0.3 MeV energy is absorbed (b) 0.3 MeV energy is released
(c) 3.3 MeV energy is released (d) 3.3 MeV energy is absorbed
10. What is the binding energy per nucleon of 6C12 nucleus? (Given: mass of 6C12 is
mc = 12.000u)
(a) 5.26 MeV (b) 10.11 MeV (c) 15.65 MeV (d) 7.68 MeV
11. The mass number of a nucleus is:

(a) always less than its atomic number (b) always more than its atomic number
(c) sometimes equal to its atomic number(d) all of the above

12. When the atomic number A of a nucleus increases:

(a) initially the neutron-proton ratio is constant
(b) initially the neutron-proton ratio increases and then decreases
(c) initially Eb per nucleon increases and then decreases
(d) Eb per nucleon increases when neutron proton ratio increases
13. Which of the following is wrong about β + emission?

(a) Proton convert into neutron
(b) β + emission is associated with emission of neutrino
(c) charge number is increased by one
(d) No change in mass number due to this emission
14. β emission must be associated with:

(a) neutrino emission (b) anti-neutrino emission
(c) positron emission (d) proton emission
15. The radioactive decay rate of a radioactive element is found to be 103 disintegrations
per second at a certain time. If the half life (T1/2 ) of the element is one second, the
decay rate after three second is:
1000
(a) 1000 (b) 250 (c) 3 (d) 125
16. The count rate of a radioactive nuclei falls from 992 counts per minute to 62 counts
per minute in 10 hour. The half-life of the element is:
(a) 1 hour (b) 2.5 hour (c) 5 hour (d) 6 hour
17. 20% of a radioactive substance decay in 10 days. The amount of the original material
left after 30 days is:
(a) 51.2% (b) 62.6% (c) 15% (d) 21.27%
18. The activity of a radioactive sample goes down to about 6% in a time of 2 hours. The
half life of the sample in minutes is about:
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 120
19. At certain observation, count rate meter recorded the activity A as 5050 counts per
minute but after 10 minutes later, the count rate showed the activity A =2300 counts
per minute. The disintegration constant λ is:
(a) 0.065 per min (b) 0.078 per min (c) 0.24 per min (d) 0.868 per min
20. The number of fissions of 92U 235 required to produce a power of 1 W is:
(a) 3.1 × 1010 (b) 3.1 × 1013 (c) 3.1 × 1019 (d) 3.1 × 108
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10.
(d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. c 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a)

EXERCISE 19.2:
1. A radionuclide of half life of 10 days initially contains x grams. After 2 half lives, it
becomes y grams. At that time, 75% of x grams is added to the remaining y grams.
How long it will take to become again y grams (total time starting from initial.)?
(a) 10 days (b) 20 days (c) 30 days (d) 40 days
2. Two radionuclides A and B have half-lives in ratio of 1:4. The decay constant λA of
radionuclide A is:
λB λB
(a) 2λB (b) 4λB (c) 2 (d) 4
3. Repeat question # 2, the radionuclide A takes 12 years to become 1/16 th of its initial
value. What is the half life of radionuclide B?
(a) 3 years (b) 6 years (c) 12 years (d) 24 years
4. During the decay of a radionuclide, its half-life

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) does not change (d) all of these
5. The energy that heats the sun has its origin in

(a) radioactivity
(b) nuclear fission
(c) the production of helium from hydrogen
(d) the production of hydrogen from helium
6. The sum of masses of 10 protons and 10 neutrons is 0.172 more than the mass of a
20
10 Ne nucleus. The binding energy per nucleon in this nucleus is:
(a) 8MeV (b) 8.6 × 10−3 MeV (c) 7.7 × 1014 eV (d) 16MeV
7. The half life of a radionuclide equals

(a) half the time needed for a sample to completely decay
(b) half the time a sample can be kept before it starts to decay
(c) the time needed for half a sample to decay
(d) the time needed for the rest of a sample to decay once half of it has already decayed
8. When the uranium isotope 92U 234 undergoes alpha decay, the result is the nuclide
(a) 92U 230 (b) 90 T h230 (c) 90U 238 (d) 88 Ra2324
9. When th strontium isotope 38 Sr87 undergoes a gamma decay, the result is the nuclide:
(a) 37 Rb87 (b) 38 Sr87 (c) 39Y 87 (d) 36 Kr83
10. The copper isotope 29Cu64 decays into the nickel isotope 28 Ni64 by emitting
(a) an electron (b) an alpha particle (c) a positron (d) a gamma ray

11. A certain radionuclide has a half-life of 12 h. starting from 1.00g of the nuclide, the
amount left after 2 days will be
(a) 0 (b) 0.16g (c) 0.0625g (d) 0.25g
12. The isotopes of an element all have the same

(a) atomic number (b) binding energy (c) mass number (d) half-life
13. The substance which cannot be emitted by radioactive substances during their decay:
(a) electrons (b) protons (c) neutrinos (d) helium nuclei
14. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an α particle are x1 and x2
respectively. What will be the energy Q released in the reaction?
2 + H2 →2 He4 + Q
1H 1
(a) 4(x1 + x2 ) (b) 4(x2 − x1 ) (c) 2(x1 + x2 ) (d) 2(x2 + x1 )
15. In nuclear reaction: 2 He4 +Z X A →Z+2 Y A+3 +Ź M Á ; where M denotes:

(a) electron (b) positron (c) neutron (d) proton
16. In the given reaction: Z X A →Z+1 Y A →Z−1 K A+2 →Z−1 K A+2 ;

Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence:
(a) α, β , γ (b) β , α, γ (c) γ, α, β (d) β , γ, α
17. Four vessels A, B, C and D contain respectively 20 g-atom (T1/2 = 5 hour), 2 g-atom
(T1/2 = 1 hour), 5 g-atom (T1/2 = 2 hours) and 10 g-atom (T1/2 = 3 hours) of different
radionuclides in the beginning, the maximum activity would be exhibited by the vessel
is:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
18. At certain time the activity of three radioactive materials are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5.
What will be the ratio of their activities at any further date?
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 4 : 5 (c) 3 : 4 : 5 (d) 3 : 8 : 10
19. The radioactive nucleus may emit :

(a) all the three α, β and γ radiations simultaneously
(b) all the three α, β and γ one after the other
(c) only α and β simultaneously
(d) only one α or β or γ at a time
20. In how many months, (3/4)th of the substance will decay, if half-life of the radioactive
substance is 2 months?
(a) 4 month (b) 6 month (c) 8 month (d) 14 month

21. The number of β particles, if a radioactive element 90 X 238 decays into 83Y 222 is:
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 1
22. Moderator in a nuclear reactor slows down the neutrons to:
(a) decrease the probability of escape
(b) increase the probability of nuclear fission
(c) decrease the probability of absorption
(d) all of the above
23. Which of the following nuclei is fissionable but not possible?
(a) 92U 233 (b) 92U 235 (c) 92U 238 (d) 94 P239
24. Which of the following nuclei is produced when a 92U 238 nucleus undergoes a (d, 2n)
reaction followed by a beta decay?
(a) 93 N p238 (b) 94 Pu239 (c) 94 Pu238 (d) 92U 238
25. A nuclear reactor used to convert fertile form of nuclear fuel to fissile form is known
as:
(a) atomic reactor (b) nuclear reactor (c) breeder reactor (d) chemical reactor
26. Which of following is fertile isotope:
(a) U-235 (b) U-238 (c) Pu-239 (d) Pu-241
27. An atom of an element differs from an atom of one of its isotopes in the number of:
(a) neutrons (b) protons (c) electrons (d) valence electrons
28. If 15/16 of the radioactive atoms of an element decay in 8 minutes. What will be its
half-life?
(a) 1 minute (b) 2 minutes (c) 4 minutes (d) 8 minutes
29. Half-life of C − 14 is:
(a) 4.5 billion years (b) 5730 years (c) 1032 years (d) 10.3 minutes
30. Fission of U − 235 is achieved by bombarding it with:
(a) proton (b) neutron (c) α particle (d) γ particle
31. Gamma particles are:
I. high energetic photons with zero rest mass
II. EM waves traveling at the speed of light
III. positively charged particle emitted from the nucleus of radionuclide
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) I and III only
32. The atomic bomb is an example of:
(a) controlled nuclear fission (b) controlled nuclear fusion
(c) uncontrolled nuclear fusion (d) uncontrolled nuclear fission

33. Which one of the following can be used as neutron arrestor in nuclear reactor?
(a) uranium (b) graphite (c) cadmium (d) heavy water
34. Radioactivity was accidentally discovered by:

(a) Wilhelm Roentgen (b) Marie Curie
(c) Henri Becquerel (d) Ernest Rutherford
35. After alpha decay, the mass of the nucleus:

(a) decreases by 4 (b) increases by 2 (c) increases by 4 (d) does not change
36. When an element emits β particles, its mass numbers A:

(a) increases by 1 (b) decreases by 1 (c) increases by 2 (d) remains same
37. The positive beta-decay is also known as:

(a) alpha decay (b) positron decay (c) proton emission (d) gamma decay
38. Which of the following conservation laws must be obeyed in a nuclear reaction:
I. The conservation of energy and mass
II. The conservation of linear momentum
III. The conservation of nucleon number
39. Choose right statement for negative beta decay:

I. occurs when number of neutrons are greater than the number of protons
II. occurs only in heavy nuclei
III. occurs when number of neutrons are less than the number of protons
40. SI unit of radioactivity is:

(a) Curie (Ci) (b) Becquerel (Bq) (c) Rutherford (Rd) (d) all of these
41. In fast breeder reaction, a thick blanket of depleted fertile material .............. is used
as ................
(a) Uranium, as a moderator
(b) Boron, as a moderator
(c) Uranium, to absorb the neutrons from the fissile material and gets converted into
fissile material
(d) Boron, to absorb the neutrons from the fissile material and gets converted into
fissile material
42. The reason for providing the thermal shielding to the nuclear reactor is to ...............
(a) Absorb the fast neutrons
(b) Protect the operating personnel from exposure to radiations

(c) Prevent the reactor wall from getting heated

(d) All of the above
43. Graphite and beryllium can be used as ......... in a nuclear plant.

(a) Control rods (b) Moderator (c) Coolant (d) Reflector
44. Choose right option (s) for the cooling system used in a nuclear plant:
I. it is used to remove heat from the nuclear reactor core and transfer it to electrical
generators
II. its only purpose is cool down reactor so that reactor could not burst.
III. ordinary water under high pressure is used as coolant
(a) I only (b) II and III only (c) I, II and III (d) I and III only
45. The product of nuclear fission includes

(a) neutrons and electrons (b) several nuclei and neutrons
(c) several nuclei and beta particles (d) several nuclei and protons
46. What is a chain reaction?

(a) When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the protons emitted can strike other nuclei
in the sample, and cause them to split
(b) When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the neutrons emitted can strike other nuclei
(c) When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the electrons emitted can strike other nuclei
(d) all of these
47. Two nuclei with low masses are combined to form one nucleus of larger mass is called
what?
(a) natural radioactivity (b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear fusion (d) all of these
48. How do today’s nuclear power-plants work?

(a) by use of fusion reactions
(b) by use of fission reactions
(c) by use of both fission & fusion reactions
(d) by using natural radioactivity
49. Nuclear fusion occurs typically in

(a) uranium mines (b) hydrogen gas (c) the sun and stars (d) all of these

50. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because
(a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction
(b) it is difficult to control fusion reaction
(c) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and tritium) is scarce
(d) all of these
51. Fast breeder reactors do not
(a) use Th-232 as fissile fuel
(b) use fast neutrons for fission
(c) use molten sodium as coolant
(d) convert fertile material to fissile material
52. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel ?
(a) Uranium-238 (b) Uranium-235 (c) Thorium-233 (d) Plutonium-239
53. The function of moderators in nuclear reactor is to
(a) control the chain reaction (b) absorb the secondary neutrons
(c) slow down the secondary neutrons (d) all of these
54. Enriched uranium is a type of uranium in which the percent composition of uranium-
235 has been increased through the process of isotope separation. Thermal nuclear
reactors using enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum of
(a) 0.711% of U-235 (b) 99.284% of U-235
(c) 1% of U-235 (d) 3% of U-235
55. If 4 gm of a radioisotope has a half life period of 10 days, the half life of 2 gm of the
same isotope will be
(a) 10 days (b) 20 days (c) 30 days (d) 40 days
56. Pick out the wrong statement:
(a) Positron is heavier than a proton
(b) β particle is identical with an electron
(c) The nucleus of a hydrogen atom is identical with a proton
(d) Mass of an electron is about 1/1800th of the lightest nucleus
57. Percentage of U-235 in natural uranium is around
(a) 99.284% (b) 0.711% (c) 50% (d) 100%
58. A fertile material is the one, which can be
(a) fissioned by fast neutrons
(b) fissioned by slow (thermal) neutrons
(c) fissioned by either slow or fast neutrons
(d) converted into fissile material on absorption of neutron

59. The half life period of a radioactive element depends on its

(a) amount of sample (b) decay constant
(c) temperature (d) both (a) & (b)
60. Activity A of radionuclide depends on:

(a) amount of sample (b) decay constant
(c) temperature (d) both (a) & (b)
61. The half life period of a radioactive element is 100 days. After 400 days, 16 g of the
element will be reduced to
(a) 8g (b) 4g (c) 2g (d) 1g
62. “Critical mass” is the minimum mass of nuclear fissile material required for
(a) economic power generation (b) sustainment of chain reaction
(c) to initiate fusion reaction (d) all of these
63. Atoms of U-238 and U-235 differ in structure by

(a) three protons (b) three neutrons
(c) three electrons (d) three protons & three neutrons
64. Most stable isotope in nature is

(a) iron-56 (b) carbon-12 (c) uranium-235 (d) uranium-238
65. Activity of one decay per second is equal to

(a) 1010 Bq (b) 1 Bq (c) 1 Ci (d) 1 Rd
66. Minimum energy required to pull nucleus apart is called

(a) ionization energy(b) mass defect (c) binding energy (d) packing fraction
67. New nucleus after alpha particle decay is called

(a) parent nucleus (b) decayed nucleus
(c) daughter nucleus (d) undecayed nucleus
68. The fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by:

(a) applying strong electric field (b) elastic collisions with heavy nuclei
(c) passing them through heavy water (d) use of lead shielding
69. If activity of a radioactive substance’s A1 at time t1 & A2 at time t2 (> t1 ). Its decay
constant is λ . Then No . of atoms decayed between time t1 & t2 are
R1 −R2 R2 R1
(a) λ (b) λ (c) λ (d) None
70. 22Nucleus after absorbing energy , decays into two α particles and an unknown
10 Ne
nucleus. The unknown nucleus is
(a) nitrogen (b) carbon (c) boron (d) oxygen

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. c 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19.
(d) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a)
28. (b) 29. (b) 30. ((b)) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36.
(a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (d): The main purpose is
also to protect from the deadly, α, β and γ radiations. Water passes through the reactor
which in turn becomes radioactive. Hence the entire primary circuit including all the major
components in the circuit needs to be shielded to protect the personnel handling it and the
walls of the reactor from exploding. 43. (b): The main purpose of the moderator is to
reduce the neutron speeds to a value that increases the possibility of fission reaction, the
main moderators are graphite, heavy water and beryllium. Ordinary water is used along
with enriched uranium. 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c)
50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58.
(d) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66.
(c) 67. (c) 68. (c): In nuclear engineering, a neutron moderator is a medium that
reduces the speed of fast neutrons, thereby turning them into thermal neutrons capable of
sustaining a nuclear chain reaction involving uranium-235. Commonly used moderators
include regular (light) water (roughly 75% of the world’s reactors), solid graphite (20%
of reactors) and heavy water (5% of reactors). Beryllium has also been used in some
experimental types, and hydrocarbons have been suggested as another possibility. 69.
(a): A1 = λ N1 N1 = Aλ1 And A2 = λ N2 N2 = Aλ2 . Therefore, No. of atoms
decayed is = N1 − N2 = R1 −R
λ .
2
70. (b): Atomic No. of Ne is 10. By emission of two
α particles, atomic No. will be reduced by 4. Atomic No. of unknown element will be
Z = 10 − 4 = 6. Similarly, mass No. of unknown element will be A = 22 − 2 × 4 = 14.
Unknown nucleus is carbon (A=14, Z=6)
EXERCISE 19.1
1. (a) is correct. Since 11 Na23 =Z NaA , where Z = 11 is charge number (number of
protons OR number of electrons) and neutron number can be found by N = A − Z =
23 − 11 = 12. So there are 11 protons, 12 neutrons and 11 electrons.
2. (d). According to Eb per nucleon curve, Eb first increases as mass number increases
and then decreases slowly.
3. (c) is correct option. Let N0 = 16g at time t = 0. After one half life, it becomes 8g,
in 2nd half life, it becomes 4g, in 3rd half life, it becomes 2g and in 4th half life,
the remaining nuclei would be 1g. It takes 4 half lives in 2 hours to become 1g. In
other words 4T1/2 = 2hours, therefore T1/2 = 12 hr. Alternatively, T1/2 = lnλ2 , where
λ can be worked out as: N = No e−λt , putting No = 16g, N = 1g and t = 2hr, we get
1
1 = 16e−2λ , or 16 = e−2λ , re-arranging: 16 = e2λ , taking log on both sides: ln 16 =
2λ , from it put λ into half life equation: T1/2 = 2 lnln162
= 2 × 4lnln22 = 24 = 12 hours.

Ram’s Notebook
DECAY TYPES
α β− β+
Change in proton number (P or Z) −2 +1 −1

Change in neutron number (N) −2 −1 +1
Change in mass number (A) −4 0 0
4. (c) is correct option. Let N0 = 100 atoms at time t = 0. After one half life (5 years),
it becomes 50, in 2nd half life (i.e., 10 years), it becomes 25 atoms. Therefore, total
decayed atoms are (100−25) = 75 or 75%. Alternatively, N = No e−λt , where No = 1
initially at t = 0 and λ can be worked as follow: T1/2 = lnλ2 , putting T1/2 = 5hr, we
get λ = 0.6935 = 0.1386. Now N = 1 × e
−(0.1386)×10 = 1 =
e1.386
1
3.7675 = 0.26. The
decayed atoms would be 1 − 0.26 ≈ 0.75 = 75%.
5. (c). The rest mass energy can be found by E = ∆m × 931.5MeV = 0.0005486 ×
931.5MeV = 0.511MeV
9.1×10−31 kg
6. (a). The mass of electron can be calculated as: m1ue = 1.660539×10 −27 kg/u = 0.0005486u
7. (a). Since the mass of the nucleus is less than the mass of the protons and neutrons,
the binding energy must be negative (if both positive and negative values are given).
Options (b) and (d) are positive so can be easily dropped out. (d) is the rest mass
energy of 1u. The only left option is (a). We can also calculate the binding energy
using Eb = ∆m × 931.5MeV , where mass defect (∆m) can be found as: ∆m = [Zmn +
Nmn ]−mnucleus , we have Z=5 and N=5 and m p = 1.0072765u and mn = 1.0086649u,
Therefore, ∆m = [5 × 1.0072765 + 5 × 1.0086649] − 10.811 = 10.0796 − 10.811 =
0.732. Now Eb = 0.732 × 931.5 = 681.8MeV .
8. (b). Eb = ∆m × 931.5MeV , where mass defect (∆m) can be found as: ∆m = [Zmn +
Nmn ] − mnucleus , we have Z=11 and N=12 and m p = 1.00728 and mn = 1.00867u,
Therefore, ∆m = [11 × 1.00728 + 12 × 1.00867] − 22.9898 = 0.19432. Now Eb =
0.19432 × 931.5 = 181MeV .
9. (c). Apply the law of conservation of energy. Let nuclide X has mass number 3
with total binding energy of 5.3 × 3 = 15.9MeV , another nuclide is Y having mass
number 4 with total binding energy of 6.2 × 4 = 24.8MeV , and the last nuclide Z
has mass number 5 with binding energy of 7.4 × 5 = 37MeV . The nuclear equation
would be: X + Z = Y +Y + Energy, convert this equation into energies: 15.9 + 37 =
24.8 + 24.8 + Energy, balancing the equation we found that 3.3MeV will be released
as form of energy.

20. NUCLEAR RADIATIONS
20.1 CHAPTER REVIEW
GLOSSARY
Cosmic Rays: High-energy particles of ionising radiation from space.
Penetrating Power: The penetrating power of nuclear radiation depends upon the
ionising power of the radiation. The more localised the ionisation
the less penetrating power it will possess.
• Alpha particles are the least penetrating as they are the most
densely ionising
• Beta particles are more penetrating than alpha because they
are less ionising
• Gamma particles have the most penetrating power
Radiation Dose: Absorbed dose is measured in gray (Gy). This is a measure of how
much energy is absorbed by unit mass from the ionising radiation
it is exposed to: 1Gy = 1kg/J. The old unit for absorbed dose was
the ’rad’: 1rad = 0.01J/kg = 0.01Gy
Dose Equivalent: Dose equivalent is a measure of biological damage. It is measured

in sievert (Sv). The old unit for dose equivalent is the rem: 1rem =
0.01Sv

182 Chapter 20. NUCLEAR RADIATIONS
Radioactive Tracer: A small amount of radioisotope is made to replace a non-

radioactive isotope of an element in a compound. The path of
that radioisotope or one of its daughter nuclei (decomposition
product) is then monitored by detection of emitted nuclear radia-
tion. It is also called a radioactive label.
Radiotherapy: The destruction of malignant tumours with a high dose of gamma

radiation that will result in cell death.
Carbon Dating Methods of finding out the age of fossils that contain materials
(C-14): that were once alive. When it dies a living organism takes in no
more carbon from the atmosphere and the percentage of C-14 will
decrease. The ratio of C-14 to total carbon is found and from this
the age can be calculated. Half life of C-14 is 5,700 years
Uranium–lead It is also a type of the radiometric dating by which we can find the
dating: age of volcanic rocks of a very old age. Uranium-238 has a half
life of 4.5 billion years. Uranium can be used to b the age of the
earth.
Scintillator: Any substance that glows under the action of photons or other
high-energy particles
Semiconductor A semiconductor detector uses a semiconductor (usually silicon or

Detector: germanium) to detect traversing charged particles or the absorption
of photons. When these detectors’ sensitive structures are based
on single diodes, they are called semiconductor diode detectors.
When they contain many diodes with different functions, the more
general term semiconductor detector is used.
Gaseous Ionization Gaseous ionization detectors use the ionizing effect of radiation
Detector: upon gas-filled sensors. If a particle has enough energy to ionize
a gas atom or molecule, the resulting electrons and ions cause a
current flow, which can be measured.
Geiger-Müller Often called a Geiger-counter or GM Tube. It is used to count the

Tube: activity of a radioactive sample.

RAM’S MIND MAP


1. Ca-45 is used for the remedy of:
(a) skin cancer (b) thyroid disabilities
(c) lung cancer (d) bone disabilities
2. Wilson Cloud Chamber was devised in 1895 by:

(a) Geiger (b) Geiger & Wilson(c) CTR Wilson (d) Muller
3. The penetrating powers of α, β and γ radiations, in decreasing order are:

(a) γ, α, β (b) γ, β , α (c) α, β , γ (d) β , γ, α
4. The alpha and beta particles cause ionization because of:

(a) photoelectric emission (b) Compton collision
(c) pair production (d) the electrostatic force
5. Age of stone-walls of the ancient civilization is measured by ........ dating method.

(a) carbon-14 (b) uranium-238 (c) iodine-131 (d) all of these
6. Wilson cloud chamber is used to:

(a) count the particles (b) study the paths of particles
(c) see neutrons only (d) all of these
7. In internal therapy, a tiny gamma source is inserted into the body of patient. The
source should have
(a) larger half life (b) smaller half life (c) medium half life (d) all of these
8. Ionization power of beta particles is about ......... of alpha particle.

(a) 10 times (b) 1/5 th (c) 1/50 th (d) 1/100 th
9. Ionization power of protons is about ......... of alpha particle.

(a) 10 times (b) 1/5 th (c) 1/50 th (d) 1/100 th
10. Which of the following will be a better shield against gamma rays?
(a) air (b) light water (c) heavy water (d) lead
11. Narrow beam of ....... from cobalt-60 is widely used for the cancer treatment as an
external therapy.
(a) gamma rays (b) beta particles (c) alpha particles (d) all of these
12. rem is unit of

(a) radiation exposure (b) activity
(c) half life (d) all of these
13. Which of the following objects is/are suitable for using the method of carbon dating to
estimate their age?

I The bodies of dinosaurs

II Animal bodies buried underground
III Stones from the Moon
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II only
14. In radiotherapy, gamma radiation is used to kill cancer cells. Why?

(a) It has a strong ionizing power (b) It has the strongest penetration power
(c) It is easy to produce (d) All of the above
15. Which of the following specimens is suitable to use the method of carbon dating to
determine the age?
(a) 500 years (b) 1 000 years (c) 10 000 years (d) 100 000 years
16. Which of the following radiations are highly penetrating:

(a) alpha (b) beta (c) gamma (d) all of these
17. A Geiger counter is able to provide an indirect measure of radioactivity because

radiation has a property of
(a) ionization (b) making matter glows in the dark
(c) attracting electrons (d) penetrating
18. The tumors are irradiated by:

(a) alpha rays (b) beta rays (c) gamma rays (d) protons
19. Which of the isotope is used as tracer in the body:

(a) U-238 (b) U-235 (c) C-14 (d) cobalt-60
20. Radiations most commonly used for killing harmful germs and drinking water and
milk are
(a) x-rays (b) gamma rays (c) beta rays (d) both a& b
21. Use of solid-state detector has many advantage over GM counter because
(a) it can detect particles having a few eV energy
(b) it uses low potential voltage source
(c) it doesn’t use gaseous tube
(d) all of these
22. Gamma rays can ionize the medium by:

(a) Photoelectric effect (b) Compton effect
(c) pair production (d) all of these
23. Alpha particle loses about ....... energy in each collision in encounter.
(a) 7.7MeV (b) 35MeV (c) 26MeV (d) 200MeV

24. The range of beta particles in medium is ......... that of an alpha particles.
(a) 10 times (b) 50 times (c) 100 times (d) 500 times
25. The sunburn is caused by the radiation from the sun known as:
(a) gamma rays (b) ultraviolet rays (c) alpha rays (d) beta rays
Answer Key:
1. d 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. a
12. a 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. d
22. d 23. b 24. c 25. b

EXERCISE 20.1

APPENDIX
Useful Formula
p
Pythagoras’s Theorem: C = A2 + B2 (20.1)
√
−b ± b2 − 4ac
Quadratic Formula: x = (20.2)
2a
circumference: C = 2πr (20.3)
Area of circle: A = πr2 (20.4)
4
Voulme of sphere: V = πr3 (20.5)
3
Volume of cylinder: V = πr2 h (20.6)
!
n
n n−k k
Binomial Theorem: (a + b) = n
∑ k
a b (20.7)
k=0
where
!
n n!
=
k k!(n − k)!

Physical Constants
Name Symbol Value Unit

Number π π 3.14159265358979323846
Number e e 2.71828182845904523536
Elementary charge e 1.60217733 × 10−19 C
Gravitational constant G 6.67259 × 10−11 m3 kg−1 s−2
Speed of light in vacuum c 2.99792458 × 108 m/s (def)
Permittivity of the vacuum ε0 8.854187 × 10−12 F/m
Permeability of the vacuum µ0 4π · 10−7 H/m
(4πε0 )−1 8.9876 · 109 Nm2 C−2
Planck’s constant h 6.6260755 × 10−34 Js
Bohr magneton µB = eh̄/2me 9.2741 · 10−24 Am2
Bohr radius a0 0.52918 Å
Rydberg’s constant Ry 13.595 eV
Stefan-Boltzmann’s constant σ 5.67032 · 10−8 Wm−2 K−4
Wien’s constant kW 2.8978 · 10−3 mK
Molar gas constant R 8.31441 J×mol−1 ·K−1
Avogadro’s constant NA 6.0221367 × 1023 mol−1
Boltzmann’s constant k = R/NA 1.380658 × 10−23 J/K
Electron mass me 9.1093897 · 10−31 kg
Proton mass mp 1.6726231 × 10−27 kg
Neutron mass mn 1.674954 × 10−27 kg
1 12
Elementary mass unit mu = 12 m( 6 C) 1.6605656 · 10−27 kg
Nuclear magneton µN 5.0508 · 10−27 J/T
Mass of the moon MM 7.36 × 1022 kg
Radius of the moon RM 1.74 × 106 m
Mean earth-moon distance dEM 3.84 × 108 m
Diameter of the Sun D 1392 × 106 m
Mass of the Sun M 1.989 × 1030 kg
Rotational period of the Sun T 25.38 days
Radius of Earth RA 6.378 × 106 m
Mass of Earth MA 5.976 × 1024 kg
Escape speed from the earth vesc 11.2 km/s
Escape speed from the moon vesc 2.38 km/s
Rotational period of Earth TA 23.96 hours
Earth orbital period Tropical year 365.24219879 days
Astronomical unit AU 1.4959787066 × 1011 m
Light year lj 9.4605 × 1015 m
Parsec pc 3.0857 × 1016 m
Hubble constant H ≈ (75 ± 25) km·s−1 ×Mpc−1

Trigonometric Identities
sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 (20.8)

sin(A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B (20.9)
cos(A + B) = cos A cos B − sin A sin B (20.10)
2 2
tan θ + 1 = sec θ (20.11)
2 2
1 + cot θ = csc θ (20.12)
cos(−θ ) = cos θ (20.13)
sin(−θ ) = − sin θ (20.14)
cos(A − B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B (20.15)
1 1
sin A cos B = sin(A − B) + sin(A + B) (20.16)
2 2
1 1
cos A cos B = cos(A − B) + cos(A + B) (20.17)
2 2
1 1
sin A sin B = cos(A − B) − cos(A + B) (20.18)
2 2
sin 2A = 2 sin A cos A (20.19)
2 2
cos 2A = cos A − sin A (20.20)
1
cos2 A = (1 + cos 2A) (20.21)
2
1
sin2 A = (1 − cos 2A) (20.22)
2
tan A + tan B
tan(A + B) = (20.23)
1 − tan A tan B
tan A − tan B
tan(A − B) = (20.24)
1 + tan A tan B
Scientific Notation
Scientific notation is a short-hand form to write numbers which would have a lot of zeros when
written as decimals. For example, 1230000 can be written as 1.23 × 1000000, or 1.23 × 106 . The
familiar powers of ten include:
10−3 = 0.001, 10−2 = 0.01, 10−1 = 0.1, 100 = 1, 101 = 10, 102 = 100, 103 = 1000
To go from scientific notation to a plain decimal number, move the decimal to the right or left
according to the sign of the exponent. Then add "×10n " where n is the number of places you moved
the decimal point (positive if you move left and negative if you move right).

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THE STUDENT GUIDE TO PHYSICS: XII

VOLUME II: Entry Test Preparation Guide

S HORT REVIEW TO ALL CHAPTERS , SOLVED NUMERICALS AND MCQ

LinkedIn page: www.linkedin.com/in/ram-chand

14 MAGNETIC & ELECTROMAGNETISM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 81

15 ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 99

16 EM WAVES & ELECTRONICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 109

17 ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121

18 THE ATOMIC SPECTRA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 143

19 THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 157

Ram’s Outline Series

11.1 CHAPTER REVIEW

Absolute zero: The temperature of −273.16oC or 0K at which molecular motion

Avogadro number: The number of atoms or molecules in a gram molecular weight

Bar: It is a unit of pressure defined as 105 Pascals. It is about equal to

Ram’s Outline Series

Calorie: A unit of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of

Efficiency: Efficiency η of an engine is defined as the ratio between useful

Enthalpy: The total energy of a thermodynamic system can be measured

Ram’s Outline Series

Entropy: Entropy is the measure of a system’s thermal energy per unit

Heat: Heat is form of energy. It is defined as the total kinetic energy

Mole: The amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of

Pascal: A unit of pressure, equal to the pressure resulting from a force of

Ram’s Outline Series

Temperature: It is the average translational K.E of all molecules in the substance.

Thermal The increase in the size of an object on heating. Thermal expansion

Thermodynamic A thermodynamic process is said to be taken place, if the thermo-

Thermodynamical An assembly of large numbers of particles having same tempera-

Thermodynamic The variables which determine the thermodynamic behavior of a

Ram’s Outline Series

Work: Work is said to be done by system when the system’s volume

Zeroth Law of It is the law of thermal equilibrium. If body A is in thermal

RAM’S MIND MAP

Ram’s Outline Series

RAM’S MIND MAP

RAM’S MIND MAP

Ram’s Outline Series

RAM’S MIND MAP

Ram’s Outline Series

Linear Expansion ∆l = αl1 ∆T where l1 is original length at initial tem-

Volume Expansion ∆V = βV1 ∆T where β = 3α; also V2 = V1 (1 + 3α∆T )

Boyle’s Law PV = consant, OR P1V1 = P2V2 (at constant temperature)

Ideal Gas Law PV = nRT where R = 8.314J.mol −1 K −1 (Gas Constant)

Cm at constant P and at CP = 52 R; CV = 32 R =⇒ CP −CV = R

Ram’s Outline Series

The First Law of ∆U = ∆Q − ∆W

Thermodynamic Process W = P∆V = P(V f −Vi )

Ram’s Outline Series

Ram’s Outline Series

Solution: (a) We can find the body temperature of human body on oC by :

Ram’s Outline Series

Hence the new length of the rod would be 0.200066cm.

Ram’s Outline Series

To find the Kinetic Energy per mole, we use this formula:

Data: specific heat capacity of iron C1 = 499.8 j/kg.K.

Solution: The temperature difference of mixture of two substances in Kelvin is:

According to Law of Heat Exchange: -

Heat lost by iron block = Heat gained by ice block

Ram’s Outline Series

Solution: According to 1st Law of Thermodynamics:

∆U = ∆Q − ∆W = 400 − 150 = 250J

Solution: According to 1st Law of Thermodynamics: