ENP MOCK EXAM-Part 1 PDF

ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING
MOCK EXAM
PART 1
1. It is the division of a community into districts or zones
according to present and potential uses of land to
maximize, regulate and direct their use and
development.
a. Comprehensive Development Planning

b. Zoning
c. Land Use Planning
d. None of the above
1. It is the division of a community into districts or zones
according to present and potential uses of land to
maximize, regulate and direct their use and
development.
a. Comprehensive Development Planning

b. Zoning
c. Land Use Planning
2. Under the Local Government Code,
reclassification of agricultural land in component
cities and first to third class municipalities shall be
limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
reclassification of agricultural land in component
cities and first to third class municipalities shall be
limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
3. This Law provides a liberalized environment more
conducive to private sector investment.
a. RA 7718 (BOT Law)

b. Retail Trade Liberation Act
c. Urban Development and Housing Act
3. This Law provides a liberalized environment more
conducive to private sector investment.
a. RA 7718 (BOT Law)

b. Retail Trade Liberation Act
4. A contractual arrangement whereby the project
proponent undertakes the financing construction of a
given infrastructure or development facility and after its
completion turns it over to the government agency or
local government unit concerned, which shall pay the
proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments
expanded on the project, plus a reasonable rate of
return thereon.
a. Build and transfer

b. Build own and operate
c. Build transfer and operate
d. Develop, operate and transfer
4. A contractual arrangement whereby the project
proponent undertakes the financing construction of a
given infrastructure or development facility and after its
completion turns it over to the government agency or
local government unit concerned, which shall pay the
proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments
expanded on the project, plus a reasonable rate of
return thereon.

d. Develop, operate and transfer
5. The use of scientific methods and information to
define the probability and magnitude of potentially
adverse effects which can result from exposure to
hazardous materials or situations.
a. Environment impact statement

b. Environment risk assessment
c. Scoping
5. The use of scientific methods and information to
define the probability and magnitude of potentially
adverse effects which can result from exposure to
hazardous materials or situations.
a. Environment impact statement

b. Environment risk assessment
c. Scoping
6. Which of these projects require an EIS?
a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions

above 10 hectares
b. Drugstore and backyard piggery
c. Projects under Kalakalan 20
d. All of the above
6. Which of these projects require an EIS?

above 10 hectares
b. Drugstore and backyard piggery
d. All of the above
7. A central business district usually has a
a. High daytime population

b. Large concentration of office and retail activities
c. Large daily inflow and outflow of commuters
d. All of the above
7. A central business district usually has a
a. High daytime population

b. Large concentration of office and retail activities
c. Large daily inflow and outflow of commuters
d. All of the above
8. If the location quotient of an industry in a region is
high, it suggest that
a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very

concentrated
b. The distribution of the industry in the region is
dispersed
c. The distribution of the industry in the region does not
deviated much from the distribution of other industries
d. The region has a larger share of the industry relative
to other regions
8. If the location quotient of an industry in a region is
high, it suggest that

concentrated
dispersed
c. The distribution of the industry in the region does not
deviated much from the distribution of other industries
d. The region has a larger share of the industry relative
to other regions
9. Urban development tends to occur along major
transportation routes because
a. Population tends to concentrate where

transportation is available
b. Transportation facilities tend to service areas
where there is population concentration
c. Both A and B

b. Transportation facilities tend to service areas
where there is population concentration
c. Both A and B
10. The rate used to discount the future
streams of estimated costs and benefits is
known as
a. Social discount rate

b. Inflation rate
c. Financial rate of return
d. Economic internal rate of return
known as

b. Inflation rate
11. This represents the earning power of
money invested in the project
a. Internal rate of return

b. Net present value
c. Annuity
d. Discounting

c. Annuity
d. Discounting
12. ________initially developed the concept
of “growth pole of regions”
a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
12. ________initially developed the concept
of “growth pole of regions”
a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
13. ________is a set of accounts, usually in
monetary form, prepared for an economy and
widely used in the analysis of inter-industry
relationships.
a. Regional accounts matrix

b. Input-output table
c. Economic base table
d. Location quotient ratio
13. ________is a set of accounts, usually in
monetary form, prepared for an economy and
widely used in the analysis of inter-industry
relationships.

14. One of the following consists of an area of
land, which is generally developed based on a
comprehensive plan, allocated for factory
buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing
purposes
a. Industrial estate
b. Integrated area development
c. Industrial subdivision
d. Commercial/industrial estate
14. One of the following consists of an area of
land, which is generally developed based on a
buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing
purposes
15. An urban area which has the following characteristics:
it has strong linkage with the economy; it is the center of
the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade
area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a good
urban system; and has a population less that 250,000 is
called
a. Growth center
b. Metropolitan area
c. Major urban center
d. Minor urban center
15. An urban area which has the following characteristics:
it has strong linkage with the economy; it is the center of
the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade
area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a good
urban system; and has a population less than 250,000 is
called
a. Growth center
c. Major urban center
d. Minor urban center
16. A ratio that measures output per worker is
called
a. Labor intensity
b. Labor productivity
c. Efficiency
d. Labor enhancement
16. A ratio that measures output per worker is
called
a. Labor intensity
c. Efficiency
d. Labor enhancement
17. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as
the monitoring and inspection of education
institutions offering courses in environmental
planning is the responsibility of the
a. Commission on Higher Education

b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
c. Board of Environmental Planning
d. School of Urban and Regional Planning
17. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as
the monitoring and inspection of education
institutions offering courses in environmental
planning is the responsibility of the

18. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or
association may engage in the practice of environmental planning
in the Philippines, provided that
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the

entity shall be registered environmental planners
b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by
registered environmental planners
c. At least 70 of the entire membership of the Board is composed
of EnP’s and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the
capitalization is owned by registered environmental planners
association may engage in the practice of environmental planning
in the Philippines, provided that
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the

entity shall be registered environmental planners
c. At least 70 of the entire membership of the Board is composed
of EnP’s and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
19. The practice of environmental planning
within the provisions of PD 1308 does not
involve one of the following:
a. Site and land use planning

b. City/town planning
c. Family planning
19. The practice of environmental planning
within the provisions of PD 1308 does not
involve one of the following:
a. Site and land use planning

b. City/town planning
c. Family planning
20. Demography denotes the study of human population
through statistical methods.
This involves primarily the measurement of the size and
increase or decrease of the numbers of people. The
constituents of change in these numbers are:
a. Births and deaths

b. Births, deaths and migration
c. Birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, legal separation, and
annulment
d. Birth, citizenship, duration of marriage and ethnic origin
20. Demography denotes the study of human population
through statistical methods.
This involves primarily the measurement of the size and
increase or decrease of the numbers of people. The
constituents of change in these numbers are:
a. Births and deaths

b. Births, deaths and migration
c. Birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, legal separation, and
annulment
d. Birth, citizenship, duration of marriage and ethnic origin
21. Under the concept of urbanized areas as
defined in the Philippine Census of Population
and Housing in 1990, central districts of
municipalities and cities have a population density
of at least
a. 100 persons per square kilometer

b. 250 persons per square kilometer
c. 500 persons per square kilometer
d. 1,000 persons per square kilometer
21. Under the concept of urbanized areas as
defined in the Philippine Census of Population
and Housing in 1990, central districts of
municipalities and cities have a population density
of at least
a. 100 persons per square kilometer

b. 250 persons per square kilometer
c. 500 persons per square kilometer
d. 1,000 persons per square kilometer
22. Certain environmental factors affect
population distribution at a given point in
time. They are:
a. Climate
b. Location of water, soil, energy and mineral
resources
c. Transport relationships
d. All of the above
22. Certain environmental factors affect
population distribution at a given point in
time. They are:
a. Climate
b. Location of water, soil, energy and mineral
resources
c. Transport relationships
d. All of the above
23. Sex ratio is defined as:
a. The number of females divided by the number

of males, times 100
b. The number of males divided by the number of
females, times 100
c. The number of males divided by the number of
females, times 10
d. The number of females divided by the number
of males, times 10
23. Sex ratio is defined as:
a. The number of females divided by the number

of males, times 100
b. The number of males divided by the number of
females, times 100
c. The number of males divided by the number of
females, times 10
d. The number of females divided by the number
of males, times 10
24. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first
concluded that
a. The means of subsistence grew only at an

arithmetic rate
b. The means of subsistence and population both grew
at an arithmetic rate
c. The means of subsistence of population few at a
geometric rate
d. The means of subsistence grew only at an
arithmetic rate whereas the population tended to
grow at a geometric rate
24. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first
concluded that
a. The means of subsistence grew only at an

arithmetic rate
b. The means of subsistence and population both grew
at an arithmetic rate
c. The means of subsistence of population few at a
geometric rate
d. The means of subsistence grew only at an
arithmetic rate whereas the population tended to
grow at a geometric rate
25. When the age and sex compositions of most populations are
plotted graphically, the result is a “population pyramid”, the
broad base represents the youngest ages, and the sides
gradually slope toward a point, representing the decrease brought
about by deaths in each successive age group. The pyramid
represents
a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action

of mortality, fertility, and migration at a particular moment in
time
b. A uniform increase in all age brackets over a period of time
c. Migration and fertility trends
d. All of the above
25. When the age and sex compositions of most populations are
plotted graphically, the result is a “population pyramid”, the
broad base represents the youngest ages, and the sides
gradually slope toward a point, representing the decrease brought
about by deaths in each successive age group. The pyramid
represents
a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action

of mortality, fertility, and migration at a particular moment in
time
b. A uniform increase in all age brackets over a period of time
c. Migration and fertility trends
d. All of the above
26. In many metropolitan centers in the
developing world, the largest component of
urban population growth is
a. Births
b. In-migration
c. Increase in territorial jurisdiction
developing world, the largest component of
urban population growth is
a. Births
b. In-migration
c. Increase in territorial jurisdiction
27. Metro Manila is considered a primate city
because
a. It is the largest urban center of the country

b. It contains the country’s primary central
business district
c. It has a very large population compared to
all other urban centers of the country
d. It is a metropolitan center
because
a. It is the largest urban center of the country

business district
all other urban centers of the country
28. Ancestral domain refer to areas that
a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters,

coastal and natural resources therein
b. Are within protected areas which have actually
been occupied by communities for 5 years before the
digestion of the same as protected areas in accordance
with the NIPAS Act
c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in
harmony with the environment to adapt to modern
technology at their pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited
area normally with difficult access
28. Ancestral domain refer to areas that
a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters,

coastal and natural resources therein
b. Are within protected areas which have actually
been occupied by communities for 5 years before the
digestion of the same as protected areas in accordance
with the NIPAS Act
harmony with the environment to adapt to modern
technology at their pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited
area normally with difficult access
29. The law that provides for the
establishment and management of
National Integrated Protected Areas
System is
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
29. The law that provides for the
establishment and management of
National Integrated Protected Areas
System is
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
30.RA 8435 of the Agriculture and Fishery
Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide
full and adequate support to the sustainable
development of highly modernized agriculture and
fishery industry in the Philippines. Under AFMA, one
of the following has been de-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farms

b. On-farm production enhancement technologies
c. Small-scale irrigation systems
d. Research, development and training facilities
30.RA 8435 of the Agriculture and Fishery
development of highly modernized agriculture and
of the following has been de-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farms

31. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for
Agriculture and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD), it
provides the Physical basis for the proper planning of
sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in
identification of sustainable crops, livestock and fishes that
can be economically grown and commercially developed
for local and international markets without creating
irreversible environment and human health problems
a. The Watershed Areas

b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
c. Integrated Area Development
d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
provides the Physical basis for the proper planning of
sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in
identification of sustainable crops, livestock and fishes that
can be economically grown and commercially developed
for local and international markets without creating
irreversible environment and human health problems
a. The Watershed Areas

32. The factors for analyzing industrial location
theory are:
a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising

b. Labor wages
c. The costs of transporting raw materials to
the factory and finished goods to the market
d. All of the above
32. The factors for analyzing industrial location
theory are:
a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising

b. Labor wages
c. The costs of transporting raw materials to
the factory and finished goods to the market
d. All of the above
33. If the Gini Coefficient of an Industry distribution
in region is close to zero, it suggests that

concentrated
dispersed
c. The distribution in the industry in the region does not
deviate much from the distribution of other industries
d. The region has a larger share of the industry
relative to other regions
33. If the Gini Coefficient of an Industry distribution
in region is close to zero, it suggests that

concentrated
dispersed
c. The distribution in the industry in the region does not
deviate much from the distribution of other industries
d. The region has a larger share of the industry
relative to other regions
34. Land use changes in large and developed
cities is largely a function of
a. Government lad use and zoning policies

b. Existing and expected land values
c. Demand for housing
d. Foreign investments
34. Land use changes in large and developed
cities is largely a function of
a. Government lad use and zoning policies

35. The best measure of the project’s
economic worthiness and its adaptation as
a basis for project acceptability is
a. Net present value

b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR

b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR
36. The standard distance of a commercial
activity from an education center should be
a. 15 minutes by public transportation

b. 15 minutes by private transportation
c. 30 minutes by minimum travel time by
public transportation
d. 60 minutes travel by private transportation
a. 15 minutes by public transportation

b. 15 minutes by private transportation
c. 30 minutes by minimum travel time by
public transportation
d. 60 minutes travel by private transportation
37. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way
of choosing between alternative planning options by
ensuring the optimum allocation of available
resources and maximum welfare to the community
is
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Linear programming
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Sensitivity analysis
37. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way
of choosing between alternative planning options by
ensuring the optimum allocation of available
resources and maximum welfare to the community
is
38. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification
ceilings under various legal issuances, e.g.,
Local Government Code. Under the AFMA,
only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted
to other uses, while the LGC limits to
a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly

urbanized and independent component cities
b. 10% of total arable land in any town
c. 5% of total arable land in any city
d. all of the above
38. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification
ceilings under various legal issuances, e.g.,
Local Government Code. Under the AFMA,
only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted
to other uses, while the LGC limits to
a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly

urbanized and independent component cities
b. 10% of total arable land in any town
d. all of the above
39. The first industrial estate in the country,
which became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
39. The first industrial estate in the country,
which became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
40. This is the first place where the first export
processing zone in the world was established
a. Puerto Rico
b. India
c. Taiwan
d. Korea
40. This is the first place where the first export
processing zone in the world was established
a. Puerto Rico
b. India
c. Taiwan
d. Korea
41. This strategy aims to promote greater
complementary between agriculture and
industry and between urban and rural sectors
a. Country-side agro-industrial developments

b. National Council for Integrated Area
Development
c. National agro-industrial area development
complementary between agriculture and
industry and between urban and rural sectors
a. Country-side agro-industrial developments

b. National Council for Integrated Area
Development
c. National agro-industrial area development
42. This strategy refers to a situation where an
industry through the flow of goods and income
stimulates that development and growth of the
industries, that are technically related to it, and
determine the prosperity of the tertiary sector or
stimulates an increase of the regional income
a. Growth pole
b. Industrial polarization
c. Industrial decentralization
d. Industrial location
42. This strategy refers to a situation where an
industry through the flow of goods and income
stimulates that development and growth of the
determine the prosperity of the tertiary sector or
a. Growth pole
43. Ebnezer Howard, the most influential
among the Great Thinkers in odern urban
and regional planning, wrote this famous
book, first published in 1898
a. Garden Cities
b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow
c. Tomorrow’s Cities
d. Tomorrow
43. Ebnezer Howard, the most influential
among the Great Thinkers in modern urban
and regional planning, wrote this famous
book, first published in 1898
a. Garden Cities
d. Tomorrow
44. Patrick Geddes, a Scot biologist who is
acknowledged as the father of regional
planning set forth his ideas in his
masterpiece entitled
a. Cities and Regions

b. Cities ad Evolution
c. Cities in Evolutionary Change
d. Revolution in Cities
44. Patrick Geddes, a Scot biologist who is
acknowledged as the father of regional
planning set forth his ideas in his
masterpiece entitled
a. Cities and Regions

b. Cities ad Evolution
c. Cities in Evolutionary Change
d. Revolution in Cities
45. Kevin Lynch stresses
a. A conceptual system focusing on urban

form
b. A communications theory approach to
urban growth
c. Accessibility concepts and urban structure
d. Urban spatial structure in the frame
45. Kevin Lynch stresses

form
urban growth
d. Urban spatial structure in the frame
46. Albert Z. Guttenberg speculates

form
urban growth
d. Urban spatial structure in the
framework of equilibrium theory
(an economic model of spatial structure)
46. Albert Z. Guttenberg speculates

form
urban growth
d. Urban spatial structure in the
framework of equilibrium theory
(an economic model of spatial structure)
47. Based on the principle of devolution of
powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these
funds to LGUs for their administrative,
public order and safety operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments

b. Budgetary Allocations
c. Local Development Allotments
d. LGU Budgetary Allotments
powers to local government units, the
National Government transfers these
funds to LGUs for their administrative,
public order and safety operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments

b. Budgetary Allocations
c. Local Development Allotments
d. LGU Budgetary Allotments
48. Morbidity refers to
a. Death per 1,00 population

b. Deaths per 10,00 population
c. Deaths due to diseases
d. Incidence of disease
48. Morbidity refers to
a. Death per 1,00 population

b. Deaths per 10,00 population
c. Deaths due to diseases
d. Incidence of disease
49. Because NSO age groupings do not coincide
with school-going age population for primary,
intermediate, secondary and tertiary, this
method is used to disaggregate school age
population within a bracket into a single year
estimate:
a. Sprague multiplier
b. Sprengler multiplier
c. Extrapolition coefficient
d. Interpolation coefficient
49. Because NSO age groupings do not coincide
with school-going age population for primary,
intermediate, secondary and tertiary, this
method is used to disaggregate school age
population within a bracket into a single year
estimate:
a. Sprague multiplier
b. Sprengler multiplier
c. Extrapolition coefficient
d. Interpolation coefficient
50. Planning standards for school facilities include
minimum standards for space measured in
terms of square meters per pupil (p.p.) for
academic classrooms in the elementary level,
the minimum standard is
a. 1.20 sqm. per p.p.

b. 1.40 sqm. per p.p.
c. 1.50 sqm. per p.p.
d. 1.75 sqm. per p.p.
50. Planning standards for school facilities include
minimum standards for space measured in
terms of square meters per pupil (p.p.) for
academic classrooms in the elementary level,
the minimum standard is
a. 1.20 sqm. per p.p.

b. 1.40 sqm. per p.p.
c. 1.50 sqm. per p.p.
d. 1.75 sqm. per p.p.
51. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that
municipalities with 10,000 or more population but
below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck.
Adjoining municipalities, however, are allowed to
share one fire truck provided that the distance is
within prescribed limits. In such cases, the
maximum travel time between municipalities.
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
51. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that
municipalities with 10,000 or more population but
below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck.
Adjoining municipalities, however, are allowed to
share one fire truck provided that the distance is
within prescribed limits. In such cases, the
maximum travel time between municipalities.
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
52. In the identification of needs and
planning of social welfare programs
and services, the planner is expected to
a. Involve the clientele

b. Involve the national and local
governments
c. Involve the private sector
d. Involve all sectors mentioned above
52. In the identification of needs and
planning of social welfare programs
and services, the planner is expected to
a. Involve the clientele

b. Involve the national and local
governments
c. Involve the private sector
d. Involve all sectors mentioned above
53. The Law that authorizes the establishment and
promulgation of different levels of Standards of
economic and socialized housing in urban and
rural areas provided under the Subdivision
and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree
and the National Building Code is
a. BP 220
b. RA 7279
c. PD 957
d. PD 1216
53. The Law that authorizes the establishment and
promulgation of different levels of Standards of
economic and socialized housing in urban and
rural areas provided under the Subdivision
and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree
and the National Building Code is
a. BP 220
b. RA 7279
c. PD 957
d. PD 1216
54. What ratio between saleable and non-
saleable portions of the subdivision is
requires for projects developed under BP
220 standards?
a. No fixed ratio
b. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
c. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
d. Minimum of 50% open space
54. What ratio between saleable and non-
saleable portions of the subdivision is
requires for projects developed under BP
220 standards?
a. No fixed ratio
b. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
c. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
d. Minimum of 50% open space
55. A single detached dwelling units is defined
as a house
a. Good for one household

b. Intended for ownership
c. Completely surrounded be yards
d. With one or more of its sides abutting the
property line
55. A single detached dwelling units is defined
as a house
a. Good for one household

b. Intended for ownership
c. Completely surrounded be yards
d. With one or more of its sides abutting the
property line
56. A study which all the unites in the
population is called
a. Wholistic study
b. Phenomenological study
c. Survey
d. Census
56. A study which all the unites in the
population is called
a. Wholistic study
b. Phenomenological study
c. Survey
d. Census
57. The difference between a census and a survey is
that
a. Census makes use of questionnaires while survey

makes use of interviews for data gathering.
b. Census involves complete enumeration while survey
involves sampling
c. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can
be done anytime.
d. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can
conduct a survey.
57. The difference between a census and a survey is
that
a. Census makes use of questionnaires while survey

makes use of interviews for data gathering.
b. Census involves complete enumeration while survey
involves sampling
c. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can
be done anytime.
d. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can
conduct a survey.
58. This type of plan shows the allocation of
land into broad functional classes, e.g.,
development areas,
conservation/preservation areas; agricultural
area and forest areas.
a. Structure Plan
b. General Land Use Plan
c. Development Plan
d. Comprehensive Plan
58. This type of plan shows the allocation of
land into broad functional classes, e.g.,
development areas,
conservation/preservation areas; agricultural
area and forest areas.
a. Structure Plan
b. General Land Use Plan
c. Development Plan
d. Comprehensive Plan
59. Agricultural land in its generic sense is
synonymous with that basic land
classification?
a. Timberland
b. Unclassified public forest
c. Alienable and disposable
d. Ancestral domain
e. Critical watershed
59. Agricultural land in its generic sense is
synonymous with that basic land
classification?
a. Timberland
b. Unclassified public forest
c. Alienable and disposable
d. Ancestral domain
e. Critical watershed
60. Which of the following is not a factor in
determining the suitability of land for an
industrial estate?
a. Load-bearing capacity
b. Soil fertility
c. Drainage
d. Slope
e. Location
60. Which of the following is not a factor in
determining the suitability of land for an
industrial estate?
a. Load-bearing capacity
b. Soil fertility
c. Drainage
d. Slope
e. Location
61. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all
lands in the public domain into four categories.
Name the one that is not among the four.
a. Agricultural land
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
61. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all
lands in the public domain into four categories.
Name the one that is not among the four.
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
62. Which of the maps listed below is not
a thematic map?
a. Base map
b. Land use map
c. Slope map
d. Geologic map
e. Physical constraints map
62. Which of the maps listed below is not
a thematic map?
a. Base map
b. Land use map
c. Slope map
d. Geologic map
e. Physical constraints map
63. What class of road is not part of
hierarchy?
a. Arterial
b. Collector
c. Distributor
d. Gravel surfaced
e. Local
63. What class of road is not part of
hierarchy?
a. Arterial
b. Collector
c. Distributor
d. Gravel surfaced
e. Local
64. Which land use type is normally not
classified as urban?
a. Institutional
b. Residential
c. mining and quarrying
d. Industrial
e. Commercial
64. Which land use type is normally not
classified as urban?
a. Institutional
b. Residential
c. mining and quarrying
d. Industrial
e. Commercial
65. The main regulatory tool for
implementing land use in the
Philippines is
a. Capital investment programs

b. Special assessments
c. Expropriation
d. Zoning
65. The main regulatory tool for
implementing land use in the
Philippines is
a. Capital investment programs

b. Special assessments
c. Expropriation
d. Zoning
66. The agency that implements the laws,
rules and regulations that support policies
of Government with regard to optimizing
the use of land as a resource is
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
rules and regulations that support policies
of Government with regard to optimizing
the use of land as a resource is
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
67. The agency responsible for
coordinating the housing program is
a. NHA
b. HUDCC
c. HLURB
d. MMDA
67. The agency responsible for
coordinating the housing program is
a. NHA
b. HUDCC
c. HLURB
d. MMDA
68. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
a. 100 sq. m.
b. 72 sq. m.
c. 150 sq. m.
d. 120 sq. m
68. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
a. 100 sq. m.
b. 72 sq. m.
c. 150 sq. m.
d. 120 sq. m
69. The process of arranging activities and plans
among different interest or planning groups for
the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and
facilitating operations is called
a. Public hearing
b.Consultation
c.Coordination
d. Scoping
69. The process of arranging activities and plans
among different interest or planning groups for
the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and
facilitating operations is called
a. Public hearing
b.Consultation
c.Coordination
d. Scoping
70. The process of obtaining technical
advice or opinion which may or not be
followed is called
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
d. Citizen participation
70. The process of obtaining technical
advice or opinion which may or not be
followed is called
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
71. This document is a series of written statements
accompanied by maps, illustrations and diagrams
which describes what the community wants to become
and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed
of community goals, objectives, policies, programs and
a physical development plan which translates the
various sectoral plans.
a. Land Use Plan

b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan
and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed
of community goals, objectives, policies, programs and
a physical development plan which translates the
various sectoral plans.
a. Land Use Plan

b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan
72. This is the process of appraising the
feasibility, credibility and probable impacts
pr consequences of alternative schemes
of development or specific environmental
conditions.
a. Environmental impact assessment

b. Evaluation
c. Diagnostic survey
d. Feasibility study
72. This is the process of appraising the
feasibility, credibility and probable impacts
pr consequences of alternative schemes
of development or specific environmental
conditions.
a. Environmental impact assessment

b. Evaluation
c. Diagnostic survey
d. Feasibility study
73. One of these plans is not required under
AFMA:
a. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

b. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
c. The Agricultural and Fishery modernization
Plan
73. One of these plans is not required under
AFMA:
a. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan

b. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
c. The Agricultural and Fishery modernization
Plan
74. It is a process of predicting the likely
environmental consequences of implementing a
project of undertaking and designing appropriate
preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Scoping
b. Initial environmental examination
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental risk assessment
74. It is a process of predicting the likely
environmental consequences of implementing a
project of undertaking and designing appropriate
preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Scoping
b. Initial environmental examination
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental risk assessment
75. In transporting planning, the collection of the data
is undertaken through different types of surveys.
The manual counting and classifying, by type of
vehicle and direction of travel, recorder counts
extending over longer periods is called
a. Travel time surveys

b. Roadside surveys
c. Network inventories
d. Zoning
75. In transporting planning, the collection of the data
is undertaken through different types of surveys.
The manual counting and classifying, by type of
vehicle and direction of travel, recorder counts
extending over longer periods is called
a. Travel time surveys

b. Roadside surveys
c. Network inventories
d. Zoning
76. This is one of the methods of trips generation
modeling, which is concerned with finding the
best functional relationship between a
dependent variable and one or more
independent variables. This relationship is
usually assumed to linear.
a. Analysis of variance
b. Multiple regression
c. Category analysis
d. Situational analysis
76. This is one of the methods of trips generation
modeling, which is concerned with finding the
best functional relationship between a
dependent variable and one or more
independent variables. This relationship is
usually assumed to linear.
a. Analysis of variance
b. Multiple regression
c. Category analysis
d. Situational analysis
77. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into
account congestion on the transportation system. It is the
process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known
set of interzonal movements so/that the relationship
between journey time and flow on every link on the
network should be in accordance with that specified for the
link
a. Diversion curves
b. All-or-nothing assignment
c. Capacity restraint
77. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into
account congestion on the transportation system. It is the
process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known
set of interzonal movements so/that the relationship
between journey time and flow on every link on the
network should be in accordance with that specified for the
link
a. Diversion curves
b. All-or-nothing assignment
c. Capacity restraint
78. These are lands that are capable of
sustaining the economic productivity levels of
crops/land use over time in a given climatic
region without adversely affecting the
immediate and adjoining environment.
a. Agricultural lands
b. Prime agricultural lands
c. Environmentally critical areas
d. Agro-industrial zones
78. These are lands that are capable of
sustaining the economic productivity levels of
crops/land use over time in a given climatic
region without adversely affecting the
immediate and adjoining environment.
a. Agricultural lands
b. Prime agricultural lands
c. Environmentally critical areas
d. Agro-industrial zones
79. Areas generally belonging to ICCS/IPs
subject to property rights within ancestral
domain
a. Indigenous areas
b. Cultural minority areas
c. Ancestral areas
d.
79. Areas generally belonging to ICCS/IPs
subject to property rights within ancestral
domain
a. Indigenous areas
b. Cultural minority areas
c. Ancestral areas
d.
80. This refers to a tithe formally recognizing
the rights of possession and ownership of
ICC/IPs over their ancestral domains identified
in accordance with the law
a. Torrens Title
b. Indigenous People Title
c. Land Title
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
80. This refers to a tithe formally recognizing
the rights of possession and ownership of
ICC/IPs over their ancestral domains identified
in accordance with the law
a. Torrens Title
b. Indigenous People Title
c. Land Title
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
81. The following operating principles are adhered to
under the Indigenous People’s Right Act, except
a. Biodiversity
b. Career Development of IPs
c. Protection of the Environment
d. Cultural diversity and Integrity, Consensus
and Peace Building and human Dignity
81. The following operating principles are adhered to
under the Indigenous People’s Right Act, except
a. Biodiversity
b. Career Development of IPs
c. Protection of the Environment
d. Cultural diversity and Integrity, Consensus
and Peace Building and human Dignity
82. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall
include
a. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions

and institutions
b. Right to establish and control educational
and learning systems
c. Right to science and technology
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
82. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall
include
a. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions

and institutions
b. Right to establish and control educational
and learning systems
c. Right to science and technology
d. All of the above
83. The primary government agency to implement the
policies for the IPs is
a. Office of the Cultural Affairs

b. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
c. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
d. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
83. The primary government agency to implement the
policies for the IPs is
a. Office of the Cultural Affairs

b. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
c. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
d. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
84. Systems, Institutions, mechanics and
technologies comprising a unique body of
knowledge enclave through time
a. Cultural practices
b. Cultural way of life
c. Indigenous culture
d. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
84. Systems, Institutions, mechanics and
technologies comprising a unique body of
knowledge enclave through time
a. Cultural practices
b. Cultural way of life
c. Indigenous culture
d. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
85. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs
determined in accordance with their respective
customary laws and practices, free from any
external manipulation and coercion
a. Indigenous consensus
b. Rights of Indigenous people
c. Free and informed consent
d. All of the above
85. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs
determined in accordance with their respective
customary laws and practices, free from any
external manipulation and coercion
a. Indigenous consensus
b. Rights of Indigenous people
c. Free and informed consent
d. All of the above
86. RA No.8371 is also known as the
a. NIPAS Law
b. Conservation and Biodiversity
c. Agenda 21
d. Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA)
86. RA No.8371 is also known as the
a. NIPAS Law
b. Conservation and Biodiversity
c. Agenda 21
d. Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA)
87. The National Commission on Indigenous
Peoples shall protect the rights of
Indigenous peoples, except those of
a. Children and youth

b. Elders
c. Women
87. The National Commission on Indigenous
Peoples shall protect the rights of
Indigenous peoples, except those of
a. Children and youth

b. Elders
c. Women
88. How many commissioners comprise the
national Commission on Indigenous
Peoples?
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Nine
d. Eleven
e. Four
88. How many commissioners comprise the
national Commission on Indigenous
Peoples?
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Nine
d. Eleven
e. Four
89. It consists of resource flows provided by
bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with
the objective of promoting the economic
development and welfare of the recipient country.
a. World bank
b. Official Development Assistance
c. Internal Revenue Allotment
d. Development fund
89. It consists of resource flows provided by
bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with
the objective of promoting the economic
development and welfare of the recipient country.
a. World bank
b. Official Development Assistance
c. Internal Revenue Allotment
d. Development fund
90. This Law provides a liberalization
environment more conductive to private
sector investment.
a. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT Law)

b. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
d. All of the above
90. This Law provides a liberalization
environment more conductive to private
sector investment.
a. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT Law)

b. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
d. All of the above
91. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent
is authorized to finance, construct, own, operate and
maintain an infrastructure or development facility from
which the proponent is allowed to recover its total
investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a
reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees,
rentals and other charges from facility users.

c. Build transfer and operate Develop, operate and
transfer
91. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent
is authorized to finance, construct, own, operate and
maintain an infrastructure or development facility from
which the proponent is allowed to recover its total
investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a
reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees,
rentals and other charges from facility users.

c. Build transfer and operate Develop, operate and
transfer
92. A contractual arrangement whereby the public
sector contracts out the building of an infrastructure
facility to a private entity such that the contractor
builds the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming
cost overrun, delay and specified performance
risks.

d. develop, operate and transfer
92. A contractual arrangement whereby the public
sector contracts out the building of an infrastructure
facility to a private entity such that the contractor
builds the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming
cost overrun, delay and specified performance
risks.

d. develop, operate and transfer
93. The use of scientific methods and
information to define the probability and
magnitude of potentially adverse effects which
can result from exposure to hazardous materials
or situations
a. Environmental impact statement

b. Environmental risk assessment
c. Scoping
93. The use of scientific methods and
information to define the probability and
magnitude of potentially adverse effects which
can result from exposure to hazardous materials
or situations
a. Environmental impact statement

b. Environmental risk assessment
c. Scoping
94. Those persons who may be significantly
affected by the project or undertaking are called
a. Indigenous people
b. Stakeholders
c. Squatters
d. Proponent
94. Those persons who may be significantly
affected by the project or undertaking are called
a. Indigenous people
b. Stakeholders
c. Squatters
d. Proponent
95. Which of these projects requires an EIS?

above 10 hectares
b. Drugstores and backyard piggery
d. All of the above
95. Which of these projects requires an EIS?

above 10 hectares
b. Drugstores and backyard piggery
d. All of the above
96. Those suffering from restriction or lack of
ability to perform an activity in the manner or
within the range considered normal for a human
being as a result of mental, physical or sensory
impairment.
a. Physically challenged
b. Impaired
c. Disabled
d. Disadvantaged
96. Those suffering from restriction or lack of
ability to perform an activity in the manner or
within the range considered normal for a human
being as a result of mental, physical or sensory
impairment.
a. Physically challenged
b. Impaired
c. Disabled
d. Disadvantaged
97. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most
influential among the Great Thinkers in modern
urban and regional planning. His famous book, first
published in 1898, was titled:
a. Garden Cities
d. Tomorrow
97. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most
influential among the Great Thinkers in modern
urban and regional planning. His famous book, first
published in 1898, was titled:
a. Garden Cities
d. Tomorrow
98. Ebenezer Howard’s ideas were adopted by the
British Governments in the enactment of the New Towns
Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to
historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a paper
napkin. This famous diagram consists of:
a. One Magnet
b. Two Magnets
c. Three Magnets
d. Four Magnets
e. Five magnets
98. Ebenezer Howard’s ideas were adopted by the
British Governments in the enactment of the New Towns
Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to
historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a paper
napkin. This famous diagram consists of:
a. One Magnet
b. Two Magnets
c. Three Magnets
d. Four Magnets
e. Five magnets
99. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town
deliberately outside normal commuter range of the
old city. It would fairly small. Its population size shall
be:
a. Ten thousand
b. Twenty thousand
c. Twenty-two thousand
d. Thirty thousand
99. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town
deliberately outside normal commuter range of the
old city. It would fairly small. Its population size shall
be:
a. Ten thousand
b. Twenty thousand
c. Twenty-two thousand
d. Thirty thousand
100. The first new town built following
Ebenezer Howard’s idea is known as:
a. Letchworth
b. Soltaire
c. Strenage
d. Welwyn
100. The first new town built following
Ebenezer Howard’s idea is known as:
a. Letchworth
b. Soltaire
c. Strenage
d. Welwyn
101. The counterpart of Geddes in the
University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss
treatise is entitled:
a. Culture and Cities

b. Cities and Culture
c. The Cities of Culture
d. The Culture of Cities
e. The Culture of the Cities
101. The counterpart of Geddes in the
University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss
treatise is entitled:
a. Culture and Cities

b. Cities and Culture
c. The Cities of Culture
d. The Culture of Cities
e. The Culture of the Cities
102. The advocates of the systems view
planning does not include one of the
following:
a. G. Wilson
b. George Chadwick
c. J.B. McLoughlin
d. Stuart Chapin
e. Andreas faludi
102.The advocates of the systems view
planning does not include one of the
following:
a. G. Wilson
b. George Chadwick
c. J.B. McLoughlin
d. Stuart Chapin
e. Andreas faludi
103. What does reviews Comprehensive Land
Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and
municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
103. What does reviews Comprehensive Land
Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and
municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
104. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly
urbanized cities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
104. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly
urbanized cities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
105. What body reviews CLUPs of
independent component cities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
independent component cities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
106. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro
Manila Cities and Municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
106. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro
Manila Cities and Municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
provinces?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
provinces?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
108. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must
meet the following criteria:
a. Technical feasibility
b. Socio-economical and financial possibility
c. Political viability
d. Administrative operability
e. All of the above
108. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must
meet the following criteria:
a. Technical feasibility
b. Socio-economical and financial possibility
c. Political viability
d. Administrative operability
e. All of the above
109. Choose the relevant criteria for he best
strategic option
a. Sustainability
b. Feasibility
c. Desirability
d. Critical and urgent
f. All of the above
109. Choose the relevant criteria for he best
strategic option
a. Sustainability
b. Feasibility
c. Desirability
f. All of the above
110. What are the techniques relevant to land
use planning?
a. Sieve Mapping
b. Area Ecological Profiling
c. Land Use Accounting
f. All of the above
110. What are the techniques relevant to land
use planning?
a. Sieve Mapping
b. Area Ecological Profiling
c. Land Use Accounting
f. All of the above
111. What technique is useful for determining
strategies?
a. Situational analysis
b. SWOT analysis
c. Land use survey
f. All of the above
111. What technique is useful for determining
strategies?
a. Situational analysis
b. SWOT analysis
c. Land use survey
f. All of the above
112. What are the legal basis for the state’s
regulation of land use?
a. Police power
b. laws against nuisance and pollution
c. The policy that property has social
function
d. The rule that a person must not do
wrong to another person.
112. What are the legal basis for the state’s
regulation of land use?
a. Police power
b. laws against nuisance and pollution
c. The policy that property has social
function
d. The rule that a person must not do
wrong to another person.
113. What kind of project requires an
environmental compliance certificate?
a. Environmentally critical projects

b. Projects in environmentally critical areas
c. a and b
d. All projects
113. What kind of project requires an
environmental compliance certificate?

c. a and b
d. All projects
114.Where can we find the highest
level policy statements on
environmental protection?
a. Constitution
b. PD 1151
114.Where can we find the highest
level policy statements on
environmental protection?
a. Constitution
b. PD 1151
115. What projects require an environmental
impact statement (EIS)

c. Gold courses, major roads and bridges,
infrastructure
d. All of the above
115. What projects require an environmental
impact statement (EIS)

c. Gold courses, major roads and bridges,
infrastructure
d. All of the above
116. What law lays down the mandates and
functions of the Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board?
a. EO 949
b. EO 90
c. PD 933
d. PD 957
116. What law lays down the mandates and
functions of the Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board?
a. EO 949
b. EO 90
c. PD 933
d. PD 957
117. A local legal measure which embodies
regulations affecting land use is:
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Cadastral Survey
d. tax Declaration
117. A local legal measure which embodies
regulations affecting land use is:

b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Cadastral Survey
d. tax Declaration
118. A special locational clearance which grants a property
owner relief from certain provisions of the zoning
ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the
property, compliance with height, area, bulk, setback
and/or density would result in particular hardship
upon the owner is called:
a. Certified of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
118. A special locational clearance which grants a property
owner relief from certain provisions of the zoning
ordinance where, because of the particular physical
surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the
property, compliance with height, area, bulk, setback
and/or density would result in particular hardship
upon the owner is called:
a. Certified of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
119. A device which grants a property owner
relief from certain provisions of a Zoning
ordinance where, because of the specific use would
result n a particular hardship to the owner.
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non- Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
ordinance where, because of the specific use would
result n a particular hardship to the owner.
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non- Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
120. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of
which comprise the poblacion and other built-up
areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent
to said areas and whereat least 50% of the
population area engaged in non-agricultural
activities:
a. Central business district

b. Urban area
c. City center
d. Suburban area
population area engaged in non-agricultural
activities:

b. Urban area
c. City center
d. Suburban area
121. The process of arranging activities and
plans among different interest or planning
groups for the purpose of systemizing,
harmonizing and facilitating operations is called:
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scooping
121. The process of arranging activities and
plans among different interest or planning
groups for the purpose of systemizing,
harmonizing and facilitating operations is called:
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scooping
122. The process of obtaining technical advice
or opinion which may not be followed is called.
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
122. The process of obtaining technical advice
or opinion which may not be followed is called.
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of
community goals, objectives, policies, programs and
physical development plan which translates the various
sectoral plan:
a. Land Use Plan

b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan
and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of
community goals, objectives, policies, programs and
physical development plan which translates the various
sectoral plan:
a. Land Use Plan

b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan
rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use
of land as a resource is:
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use
of land as a resource is:
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
125. What is zoning?
a. It is the designation of species areas of a

community as functional land uses of land may
be allowed or regulated on accordance with the
development plan.
b. It is a tool to implement the development plan
c. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition
and disposition
125. What is zoning?
a. It is the designation of species areas of a

community as functional land uses of land may
be allowed or regulated on accordance with the
development plan.
b. It is a tool to implement the development plan
c. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition
and disposition
126. What are the tools for plan
implementation?
a. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent

domain
b. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
c. Zoning ordinance, local investment
d. Urban land reform
126. What are the tools for plan
implementation?
a. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent

domain
b. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
c. Zoning ordinance, local investment
d. Urban land reform
127. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs)
in preparing their own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
a. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term

Development Plans
b. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional
Development Plans
c. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
d. All of the above
f. None of the above
127. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs)
in preparing their own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?
a. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term

Development Plans
b. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional
Development Plans
c. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
d. All of the above
f. None of the above
128. What is the highest planning body at the
regional level?
a. NEDA
b. The Regional Development Council
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
128. What is the highest planning body at the
regional level?
a. NEDA
b. The Regional Development Council
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
129. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their
comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plains
initiated by their development councils and
approved by their Sanggunian is:
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No.72
c. RA 7160
c. PD 1517
comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plains
initiated by their development councils and
approved by their Sanggunian is:
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No.72
c. RA 7160
c. PD 1517
130. The new law regulating the practice
of environmental planning is:
a. RA 10587
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
130. The new law regulating the practice
of environmental planning is:
a. RA 10587
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
131. The law proclaiming certain areas and
types of projects as environmentally critical
and within the scope of the EIS system:
a. PD 1586
b. Proclamation No. 2146
c. PD 1152
d. DAO 96-37
131. The law proclaiming certain areas and
types of projects as environmentally critical
and within the scope of the EIS system:
a. PD 1586
c. PD 1152
d. DAO 96-37
132. Reclassification of the land highly in
urbanized areas, after conducting public
hearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
132. Reclassification of the land highly in
hearings for the purpose, shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
reclassification of agricultural land in
component cities and to first to third class
municipalities shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
reclassification of agricultural land in
component cities and to first to third class
municipalities shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
134. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the
monitoring and inspection of educational institutions
offering courses in environment planning is the
responsibility of the :

134. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the
monitoring and inspection of educational institutions
offering courses in environment planning is the
responsibility of the :

association may engage on the practice of environmental
planning in the Philippines, provided that:
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity

shall be registered environmental planners
c. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed
of ENPs and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
association may engage on the practice of environmental
planning in the Philippines, provided that:
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity

shall be registered environmental planners
c. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed
of ENPs and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
136. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
a. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters,

coastal areas and natural resources therein
b. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied
by communities for 5 years before the designation of the same
as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act.
harmony with the environment adapt to modern technology at
their pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are
normally with difficult access
136. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
a. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters,

coastal areas and natural resources therein
b. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied
by communities for 5 years before the designation of the same
as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act.
harmony with the environment adapt to modern technology at
their pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are
normally with difficult access
137. This law provides for the establishment
and management of National Integrated
Protection Areas System:
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
137. This law provides for the establishment
and management of National Integrated
Protection Areas System:
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
138. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery
development of a highlt modernized agriculture and
of the following has been d-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farm

138. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery
development of a highlt modernized agriculture and
of the following has been d-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farm

provides the physical basis for the proper planning of
sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the
identification of suitable crops, livestock for local and
international markets without creating irreversible
environmental and human health problems.
a. The watershed areas

provides the physical basis for the proper planning of
sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the
identification of suitable crops, livestock for local and
international markets without creating irreversible
environmental and human health problems.
a. The watershed areas

140. Land use conversion is limited by
reclassification ceiling under various legal issuances,
e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA,
only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to
other uses, while the LGC limits to:
a. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and

1st class Municipalities
b. 10% of total arable lands in any town
d. All of the above
140. Land use conversion is limited by
reclassification ceiling under various legal issuances,
e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA,
only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to
other uses, while the LGC limits to:
a. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and

1st class Municipalities
b. 10% of total arable lands in any town
d. All of the above
141. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all
lands in the public domain onti four categories.
Name pf the one that is not among four
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
141. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all
lands in the public domain onti four categories.
Name pf the one that is not among four
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
powers to local government units, the National
Government transfers these funds to LGUs for
their administrative, public order and safety
operations
a. International Revenue Allotments

b. Budgetary Allocation
c. Local Development Allotment
d. LGU Budgetary Allotment
powers to local government units, the National
Government transfers these funds to LGUs for
their administrative, public order and safety
operations
a. International Revenue Allotments

b. Budgetary Allocation
c. Local Development Allotment
d. LGU Budgetary Allotment
143. As provided for in the Water Code and the
HLURB zoning guidelines, the required
easement in urban areas from the banks of
rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:
a. 3 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 100 meters
143. As provided for in the Water Code and the
HLURB zoning guidelines, the required
easement in urban areas from the banks of
rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:
a. 3 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 100 meters
144. Variances and exemptions from the land
use plan/zoning map are secured from the:
a. Zoning Administrator/Officer
b. Municipal Mayor
c. Municipal Planning and Development
Coordinator (MPDC)
d. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and
Appeals (LZBAA)
144. Variances and exemptions from the land
use plan/zoning map are secured from the:
a. Zoning Administrator/Officer
b. Municipal Mayor
c. Municipal Planning and Development
Coordinator (MPDC)
d. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and
Appeals (LZBAA)
145. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a
small piece of land to deviate from the
approved zone of the area for certain reason is
called:
a. Spot zoning
b. Flexible zoning
c. Euclidean zoning
d. large lot zoning
145. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a
small piece of land to deviate from the
approved zone of the area for certain reason is
called:
a. Spot zoning
b. Flexible zoning
c. Euclidean zoning
d. large lot zoning
146. Any amendment to the provisions of the
zoning ordinance for component cities and
municipalities can only take effect approval and
authentication by the:
a. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
b. HLURB
c. Local Zoning Review Committee
d. local Zoning Board of Adjustment and
Appeals (LZBAA)
146. Any amendment to the provisions of the
zoning ordinance for component cities and
municipalities can only take effect approval and
authentication by the:
a. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
b. HLURB
c. Local Zoning Review Committee
d. local Zoning Board of Adjustment and
Appeals (LZBAA)
147. Alarm over increasing world population may
be traced to Thomas Malthus’
theory that states
a. Population grows geometrically while food

supply grows arithmetically
b. Population grows arithmetically while food
supply grows geometrically
c. Population and food grows geometrically
d. Population and food grows arithmetically
147. Alarm over increasing world population may
be traced to Thomas Malthus’
theory that states
a. Population grows geometrically while food

supply grows arithmetically
b. Population grows arithmetically while food
supply grows geometrically
c. Population and food grows geometrically
d. Population and food grows arithmetically
148. Many industries want to locate near
urban cities because they want to be
a. Close to large market

b. Close to a major transportation hub
c. Avail of urban services and facilities
d. All of the above
148. Many industries want to locate near
urban cities because they want to be
a. Close to large market

b. Close to a major transportation hub
c. Avail of urban services and facilities
d. All of the above
149. In general, an Economic Base ration or
Economic Base Multiplier expressed in terms of
employment indicates:
a. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a
number of jobs created in an industry
b. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of
number of jobs created in the entire country
c. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a
number of jobs created in the entire region
d. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a
result of a number of jobs created in an industry
149. In general, an Economic Base ration or
Economic Base Multiplier expressed in terms of
employment indicates:
a. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a
number of jobs created in an industry
b. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of
number of jobs created in the entire country
c. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a
number of jobs created in the entire region
d. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a
result of a number of jobs created in an industry
150. Traditional location theory analyzes the
location of industries by considering
a. The cost of marketing and advertising

b. labor wages
c. the cost of transporting raw materials to
the factory and finished goods to the
market
d. The costs of transporting consumers to
market centers
150. Traditional location theory analyzes the
location of industries by considering
a. The cost of marketing and advertising

b. labor wages
c. the cost of transporting raw materials to
the factory and finished goods to the
market
d. The costs of transporting consumers to
market centers
151. Urban population growth in developing countries is
unprecented because
a. There are more urban areas in the developing world than

in industrialized countries
b. Urban population growth in developing countries is based
on agriculture
c. The population of large urban centers in developing
countries is becoming much larger than those of
industrialized countries
d. Large urban centers in developing countries account for a
larger share of the total population than in industrialized
countries
151. Urban population growth in developing countries is
unprecented because
a. There are more urban areas in the developing world than

in industrialized countries
b. Urban population growth in developing countries is based
on agriculture
c. The population of large urban centers in developing
countries is becoming much larger than those of
industrialized countries
d. Large urban centers in developing countries account for a
larger share of the total population than in industrialized
countries
developing world, the largest component
of urban growth population is
a. Birth
b. In-migration
c. Increased territorial jurisdiction
developing world, the largest component
of urban growth population is
a. Birth
b. In-migration
c. Increased territorial jurisdiction
153. In the Philippines, the total urban population is
expected to become
a. Larger than the total rural population

b. Equal and will stabilized at the level of the
rural population
c. Maintain its ratio with rural population
d. Decline until it equals rural population
153. In the Philippines, the total urban population is
expected to become
a. Larger than the total rural population

b. Equal and will stabilized at the level of the
rural population
c. Maintain its ratio with rural population
d. Decline until it equals rural population
154. Historically, in contrast to Thomas Malthus
theory
a. Population has grown faster than food supply

b. Population has grown slower than food supply
c. Population and food supply have grown at
approximately the same pace
d. Population and food supply have not grown
154. Historically, in contrast to Thomas Malthus
theory
a. Population has grown faster than food supply

b. Population has grown slower than food supply
c. Population and food supply have grown at
approximately the same pace
d. Population and food supply have not grown
because
a. It is the largest urban city of the country

business district
all the urban centers of the country
because
a. It is the largest urban city of the country

business district
all the urban centers of the country
156. Population growth is usually measured as a
function of
a. The number of deaths, birth and fertility

b. The number of deaths, births, and out-migrants
c. The number of deaths, births and in-migrants
d. the number of deaths, births and net migrants
156. Population growth is usually measured as a
function of
a. The number of deaths, birth and fertility

b. The number of deaths, births, and out-migrants
c. The number of deaths, births and in-migrants
d. the number of deaths, births and net migrants
157. In central business districts, the highest
land values are usually the areas where
a. Zoning is for commercial land use

b. Density is highest
c. Both A and B
157. In central business districts, the highest
land values are usually the areas where
a. Zoning is for commercial land use

b. Density is highest
c. Both A and B
158. A Lorenz Curve can give a graphical
indications of how
a. An industry’s output has grown in a region

b. An industry’s forward and backward linkages
have expanded in a region
c. An industry is distributed in a region
d. An industry’s exports compares with its
imports in a region
158. A Lorenz Curve can give a graphical
indications of how
a. An industry’s output has grown in a region

b. An industry’s forward and backward linkages
have expanded in a region
c. An industry is distributed in a region
d. An industry’s exports compares with its
imports in a region
159. If the location quotient in a region is high, it suggests
that

concentrated
dispersed
c. The distribution of the industry in the region does
not deviate much from the distribution of other
industries
d. the region has a larger share of the industry relative
to other regions
159. If the location quotient in a region is high, it suggests
that

concentrated
dispersed
c. The distribution of the industry in the region does
not deviate much from the distribution of other
industries
d. the region has a larger share of the industry relative
to other regions
160. The Export Base theory argues that
a. The economic growth of a region is dependent

on the growth of its export sector
b. Regional exports should not exceed regional
imports
c. The ratio between regional exports and regional
imports is the basis for determining economic
performance
d. Regional exports should equal regional imports
160. The Export Base theory argues that
a. The economic growth of a region is dependent

on the growth of its export sector
b. Regional exports should not exceed regional
imports
c. The ratio between regional exports and regional
imports is the basis for determining economic
performance
d. Regional exports should equal regional imports
161. An urban area becomes a central
business district because this is an
area where
a. Infrastructure is most concentrated

b. Economic
161. An urban area becomes a central
business district because this is an
area where
a. Infrastructure is most concentrated

b. Economic
162. ______initially developed the concept
of “growth pole” of regions
a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
162. ______initially developed the concept
of “growth pole” of regions
a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
163. What is the main foundation of the
theory of growth pole of regions?
a. Concept of leading industries

b. Concept of polarization
c. Concept of spread effects
d. All of the above
163. What is the main foundation of the
theory of growth pole of regions?
a. Concept of leading industries

b. Concept of polarization
c. Concept of spread effects
d. All of the above
164. What does the concept of leading
industries mean in the growth pole theory?
a. Manufacturing sector
b. Propulsive industries
c. Comparative sector
d. Agricultural sector
164. What does the concept of leading
industries mean in the growth pole theory?
a. Manufacturing sector
b. Propulsive industries
c. Comparative sector
d. Agricultural sector
165. What is the LQ ratio that would
indicate an export or basic activity in
a region?
a. LQ>1
b. LQ=1
c. LQ<1
d. LQ=0
165. What is the LQ ratio that would
indicate an export or basic activity in
a region?
a. LQ>1
b. LQ=1
c. LQ<1
d. LQ=0
166. In economic base studies, economic
activities are generally classified into three
(3) activities, namely
a. Basic, non-basic, retail

b. Basic, non-basic, mixed
c. Basic, intermediate, retail
d. Basic, sectoral, ntermediate
166. In economic base studies, economic
activities are generally classified into three
(3) activities, namely

d. Basic, sectoral, ntermediate
167. The most frequently used unit of measure
for computing the LQ of an economy is

d. Basic, sectoral, intermediate
167. The most frequently used unit of measure
for computing the LQ of an economy is

d. Basic, sectoral, intermediate
168. The most frequently used unit of
measure for computing the LQ of an
economy is
a. Employment
b. Income
c. Sales
d. Production
168. The most frequently used unit of
measure for computing the LQ of an
economy is
a. Employment
b. Income
c. Sales
d. Production
169. Is a set of accounts, usually in
monetary from, prepared for an economy
and widely used in the analysis of inter-
industry relationships.

169. Is a set of accounts, usually in
monetary from, prepared for an economy
and widely used in the analysis of inter-
industry relationships.

170.A tool of analysis developed as an
effective way of choosing between
alternative planning options by ensuring the
optimum allocation of available resources and
maximum welfare to the community
170.A tool of analysis developed as an
effective way of choosing between
alternative planning options by ensuring the
optimum allocation of available resources and
maximum welfare to the community
171. The portion of the feasibility study
(FS) that determines the project’s net
contribution to the national economy and social
welfare is
a. Economic study
b. Demand analysis
c. Financial analysis
d. Technical evaluation
171. The portion of the feasibility study
(FS) that determines the project’s net
contribution to the national economy and social
welfare is
a. Economic study
b. Demand analysis
c. Financial analysis
d. Technical evaluation
a. 15 minutes by public transport

b. 15 minutes by private transport
c. 30 minutes minimum travel time by public
transport
d. 60 minutes travel time by public transport
a. 15 minutes by public transport

b. 15 minutes by private transport
c. 30 minutes minimum travel time by public
transport
d. 60 minutes travel time by public transport

c. Annuity
d. Discounting

c. Annuity
d. Discounting
174. The process of finding the present
value of future amount is called
a. Discounting
b. Acid test
c. Payback
d. Return of investment
174. The process of finding the present
value of future amount is called
a. Discounting
b. Acid test
c. Payback
d. Return of investment

b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR

b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR
176. The hurdle rated used by NEDA is
a. 15%
b. 18%
c. 12%
d. 20%
176. The hurdle rated used by NEDA is
a. 15%
b. 18%
c. 12%
d. 20%
177.Patterned after the
Batem/Johore/Singapore growth triangle,
another growth triangle in Southeast Asia
is being considered which involves
a. Mindanao/Sulawesi/Sabah-Sarawak
b. Mindanao/Sarawak/Borneo
c. Zaboanga/Sulawesi/Sabah
d. Zamboanga/Sabah/Sarawak
177.Patterned after the
Batem/Johore/Singapore growth triangle,
another growth triangle in Southeast Asia
is being considered which involves
a. Mindanao/Sulawesi/Sabah-Sarawak
b. Mindanao/Sarawak/Borneo
c. Zaboanga/Sulawesi/Sabah
d. Zamboanga/Sabah/Sarawak
178. This concept refers to the necessary combination of
agricultural, industrial and institutional activities in ways that
are mutually reinforcing- fostering of small regional towns
which are attractive enough with regards to services,
housing and cultural/social amenities to stabilized the
population and industries closely tied to agricultural
production
a. Integrated area development

b. Agro-industrial development
c. Regional development
d. Rural development
178. This concept refers to the necessary combination of
agricultural, industrial and institutional activities in ways that
are mutually reinforcing- fostering of small regional towns
which are attractive enough with regards to services,
housing and cultural/social amenities to stabilized the
population and industries closely tied to agricultural
production
a. Integrated area development

b. Agro-industrial development
c. Regional development
d. Rural development
179. Based on the principle of devolution of powers
to local government units, the National Government
transfers these funds to LGUs for their
administrative, public order and safety operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments (IRA)

b. Budgetary Allocations (BA)
c. Local Development Allotments (LDA)
d. LGU Budgetary Allotments (LBA
179. Based on the principle of devolution of powers
to local government units, the National Government
transfers these funds to LGUs for their
administrative, public order and safety operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments (IRA)

b. Budgetary Allocations (BA)
c. Local Development Allotments (LDA)
d. LGU Budgetary Allotments (LBA
180. An urban area which has the following
characteristics: It has a strong linkage with
economy; it is the center of the labor market; it is a
major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a high
level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system;
and has a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center
c. Major urban area
d. Minor urban area
180. An urban area which has the following
characteristics: It has a strong linkage with
economy; it is the center of the labor market; it is a
major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a high
level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system;
and has a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center
c. Major urban area
d. Minor urban area
181. A ratio that measures output per
worker is called
a. Labor intensity
c. Efficiency
d. Minor urban area
181. A ratio that measures output per
worker is called
a. Labor intensity
c. Efficiency
d. Minor urban area
182. A measure that indicates the intensity of
the factors of production is known as
a. Capital-labor ratio
b. Return of investment
c. Net cash flow
d. Capital efficiency
182. A measure that indicates the intensity of
the factors of production is known as
a. Capital-labor ratio
b. Return of investment
c. Net cash flow
d. Capital efficiency
183. This concept refers to a situation where an
industry through the flow of goods and incomes
stimulates the development and growth of the
determines the prosperity of the tertiary sector or
a. Growth pole
183. This concept refers to a situation where an
industry through the flow of goods and incomes
stimulates the development and growth of the
determines the prosperity of the tertiary sector or
a. Growth pole
184. Complementing industrial estates, these area
are being established in order to accelerate
industrialization in the regions through small ad
medium enterprises and people’s industrial
enterprises
a. Regional industrial centers

b. Core industries center
c. Industrial corridors
d. Industrial diffusion
184. Complementing industrial estates, these area
are being established in order to accelerate
industrialization in the regions through small ad
medium enterprises and people’s industrial
enterprises
a. Regional industrial centers

b. Core industries center
c. Industrial corridors
d. Industrial diffusion
complementarity between agriculture and industry
and between urban and rural sectors
a. Countryside agro-industrial development

b. National council for integrated area development
c. Nationwide agro-industrial area development
complementarity between agriculture and industry
and between urban and rural sectors
a. Countryside agro-industrial development

b. National council for integrated area development
c. Nationwide agro-industrial area development
186. Specific physical planning standards followed
in the design and construction of industrial estates
on the Philippines are generally based on
a. National Building Code

b. Architectural Graphic Standards
c. Physical Planning Code
d. BP 344
186. Specific physical planning standards followed
in the design and construction of industrial estates
on the Philippines are generally based on
a. National Building Code

b. Architectural Graphic Standards
c. Physical Planning Code
d. BP 344
187. These are free ports where export
trade is the exclusive activity
a. Free trade zones

b. Free trade areas
c. Industrial estates
d. Export processing zones
187. These are free ports where export
trade is the exclusive activity
a. Free trade zones

b. Free trade areas
c. Industrial estates
d. Export processing zones
known as

b. Inflation rate
known as

b. Inflation rate

b. Transportation facilities tend to services
areas where there is a population
concentration
c. Both A and B

b. Transportation facilities tend to services
areas where there is a population
concentration
c. Both A and B
190. Land use changes in large and
development cities is largely a function of
a. Government and land use and zoning

policies
190. Land use changes in large and
development cities is largely a function of
a. Government and land use and zoning

policies
191. The most efficient type of hierarchy of
settlements is one wherein
a. There is no single, dominant urban center

b. All settlements are equal in size
c. All settlements are distributed equally in
space
191. The most efficient type of hierarchy of
settlements is one wherein
a. There is no single, dominant urban center

b. All settlements are equal in size
c. All settlements are distributed equally in
space
192. Often, a hierarchy of settlements is
characterized by the presence of
a. A few large cities, some medium-sized

cities, and many small settlements
b. Only medium-sized and small settlements
c. Equally-sized large cities in every region
d. Only one large city and many smell
settlements
192. Often, a hierarchy of settlements is
characterized by the presence of
a. A few large cities, some medium-sized

cities, and many small settlements
b. Only medium-sized and small settlements
c. Equally-sized large cities in every region
d. Only one large city and many smell
settlements
193. The larger the population of a city, the
more likely its economy allows for
a. More specialization
b. Increased self-sufficiency
c. Environmental protection
d. Higher demand for indigenous products
193. The larger the population of a city, the
more likely its economy allows for
a. More specialization
b. Increased self-sufficiency
c. Environmental protection
d. Higher demand for indigenous products
194.As a region urbanizes and expand
economically, the dominant economic
activities become those from the
a. Mining and other extractive activities

b. Manufacturing sector
c. Services sector
194.As a region urbanizes and expand
economically, the dominant economic
activities become those from the
a. Mining and other extractive activities

b. Manufacturing sector
c. Services sector
195. One of the following consists of an area pf
land. Which is generally developed based on a
buildings either sold or leased for
manufacturing purposes
195. One of the following consists of an area pf
land. Which is generally developed based on a
buildings either sold or leased for
manufacturing purposes
196. This type of industrial estate intends to
advance, improve or increase the level of
industrial activity in the area, particularly
lagging regions
a. Developmental
b. Promotional
c. Relocational
d. Private
196. This type of industrial estate intends to
advance, improve or increase the level of
industrial activity in the area, particularly
lagging regions
a. Developmental
b. Promotional
c. Relocational
d. Private
197.This type of industrial estate refers
to those established for developing
new industries
a. Promotional
b. Developmental
c. Relocational
d. Private
197.This type of industrial estate refers
to those established for developing
new industries
a. Promotional
b. Developmental
c. Relocational
d. Private
198. This type of industrial estate is one where the
functions of one type of industry are subdivided into
smaller specialized units to provide parts or
components to the main industrial manufacturing
unit
a. Ancillary
b. Composite
c. Specialized
d. Promotional
198. This type of industrial estate is one where the
functions of one type of industry are subdivided into
smaller specialized units to provide parts or
components to the main industrial manufacturing
unit
a. Ancillary
b. Composite
c. Specialized
d. Promotional
199. This type of industrial estate is usually
large and built for heavy industry
a. Coastal
b. Rural
c. Specialized
d. Inland
199. This type of industrial estate is usually
large and built for heavy industry
a. Coastal
b. Rural
c. Specialized
d. Inland
200. This type of industrial estate is
generally built for assembly and processing
types of industries
a. Inland
b. Coastal
c. Specialized
d. Rural
200. This type of industrial estate is
generally built for assembly and processing
types of industries
a. Inland
b. Coastal
c. Specialized
d. Rural
201. The first estate in the country which
became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
201. The first estate in the country which
became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
202. Industrial density refers to
a. Number of manufacturing employees per

gross industrially used hectarage
b. Number of manufacturing employees
per net industrially used hectarage
c. Number of industries per gross land
hectarage
d. Number of industries per net land hectrage
202. Industrial density refers to
a. Number of manufacturing employees per

gross industrially used hectarage
b. Number of manufacturing employees
per net industrially used hectarage
c. Number of industries per gross land
hectarage
d. Number of industries per net land hectrage
203. The slope range that is prescribed as
production land use is
a. 0-18%
b. Above 50%
c. 16-50%
d. 0-8%
203. The slope range that is prescribed as
production land use is
a. 0-18%
b. Above 50%
c. 16-50%
d. 0-8%
204. The elevation reserved for protection
land use is
a. Above 500
b. Above 100
c. Above 2,000
d. Above 1,000 mtrs.
204. The elevation reserved for protection
land use is
a. Above 500
b. Above 100
c. Above 2,000
d. Above 1,000 mtrs.
205. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil
Classification System, the classification
level depicted in the Bureau of Soils and
Water Management is the
a. Soil order
b. Soil type
c. Soil great group
d. Soil series
205. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil
Classification System, the classification
level depicted in the Bureau of Soils and
Water Management is the
a. Soil order
b. Soil type
c. Soil great group
d. Soil series
206. A Philippine climatic type
characterized by rainfall evenly
distributed throughout the years refers to:
a. Type III
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type I
206. A Philippine climatic type
characterized by rainfall evenly
distributed throughout the years refers to:
a. Type III
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type I
207. The Philippine forest type that is adapted
to growing in steep slopes and in places
with a distinct wet and dry season is the
a. Pine/saleng
b. Diptrocarp
c. Molave/molawin
d. Mangrove
207. The Philippine forest type that is adapted
to growing in steep slopes and in places
with a distinct wet and dry season is the
a. Pine/saleng
b. Diptrocarp
c. Molave/molawin
d. Mangrove
208. The aw requiring LGUs to prepare their
comprehensive, multi-sectoral development
plan initiated by their development councils
and approved by their Sanggunians is:
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No. 72
c. RA 7160
d. PD 1517
a. PD 399
c. RA 7160
d. PD 1517
a. PD 399
c. RA 7160
d. PD 1517
209. The law regulating the practice of
environmental planning is
a. PD 1308
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
209. The law regulating the practice of
environmental planning is
a. PD 1308
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
210.The Law proclaiming of land certain
areas and types of projects as
environmentally critical and within the
scope of the EIS system
a. PD 1586
c. PD 1152
d. DAO 96-37
210.The Law proclaiming of land certain
areas and types of projects as
environmentally critical and within the
scope of the EIS system
a. PD 1586
c. PD 1152
d. DAO 96-37
211. Reclassification of land in highly
hearing for the purpose, shall be limited to
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
211. Reclassification of land in highly
hearing for the purpose, shall be limited to
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
212. A local legal measure which
embodies regulations affecting the
land use is

b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Cadastral Survey
d. tax Declaration
212. A local legal measure which
embodies regulations affecting the
land use is

b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Cadastral Survey
d. tax Declaration
213. A special locational clearance which grants a
property owners relief from certain provisions of the
zoning ordinance where, because of the particular
physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions
of the property, compliance with height, area bulk,
setback and/or density would result in a particular
hardship to the owner
a. Certificate of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
213. A special locational clearance which grants a
property owners relief from certain provisions of the
zoning ordinance where, because of the particular
physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions
of the property, compliance with height, area bulk,
setback and/or density would result in a particular
hardship to the owner
a. Certificate of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
ordinance where, because of the specific use
would result in a particular hardship to the owner
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non-Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
ordinance where, because of the specific use
would result in a particular hardship to the owner
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non-Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:

b. Urban area
c. City center
d. Suburban area
population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:

b. Urban area
c. City center
d. Suburban area
216. Cities with a minimum population of
200,000 inhabitants as certified by the National
Statistics Office and with latest annual income
of at least P 50,000,000 based on 1996 constant
prices as certified by the City Treasurer are called
a. Independent component cities

b. regional centers
c. Highly urbanized cities
d. Component cities
216. Cities with a minimum population of
200,000 inhabitants as certified by the National
Statistics Office and with latest annual income
of at least P 50,000,000 based on 1996 constant
prices as certified by the City Treasurer are called
a. Independent component cities

b. regional centers
c. Highly urbanized cities
d. Component cities
217. Urbanized began around 4,000 B.C.
in the area known as the
a. Fertile Crescent
b. Mediterranean
c. Babylon
d. Asia
217. Urbanized began around 4,000 B.C.
in the area known as the
a. Fertile Crescent
b. Mediterranean
c. Babylon
d. Asia
218. The primary factor/s in the location of
cities during the Bronze Age along the
Indus Valley is/are:
a. Transport
b. Agriculture
c. Defense
d. None of the three
e. All of the above
218. The primary factor/s in the location of
cities during the Bronze Age along the
Indus Valley is/are:
a. Transport
b. Agriculture
c. Defense
e. All of the above
219. He developed the first theoretical
basis for physical planning
a. Hippodamus
b. Nicodemus
c. Nostradamus
d. Aristotle
219. He developed the first theoretical
basis for physical planning
a. Hippodamus
b. Nicodemus
c. Nostradamus
d. Aristotle
220. They understood the importance of
transportation and thus emerges as the
first regional planners of the world.
a. Greeks
b. Romans
c. Sumerians
d. Egyptians
220. They understood the importance of
transportation and thus emerges as the
first regional planners of the world.
a. Greeks
b. Romans
c. Sumerians
d. Egyptians
221. It was during this period that the
concept of urban design was established
a. Renaissance
b. Bronze Age
c. Medieval Period
d. Atomic Age
221. It was during this period that the
concept of urban design was established
a. Renaissance
b. Bronze Age
c. Medieval Period
d. Atomic Age
222.The garden City as a solution to
urban planning problems
a. Malthus
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Nicodemus
d. Adam Smith
222.The garden City as a solution to
urban planning problems
a. Malthus
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Nicodemus
d. Adam Smith
223. He theorized that physical planning could
not improved urban living conditions unless it
was integrated with social and economic
planning in a context od environmental
concerns.
a. William penn
b. Patrick Geddes
c. Peirre L’ Enfant
223. He theorized that physical planning could
not improved urban living conditions unless it
was integrated with social and economic
planning in a context od environmental
concerns.
a. William penn
b. Patrick Geddes
c. Peirre L’ Enfant
224. The architect planner who designed
Luneta, Tgatay and Baguio
a. Burnham
b. Concio
c. Faithful
224. The architect planner who designed
Luneta, Tgatay and Baguio
a. Burnham
b. Concio
c. Faithful
225. Rectangular streets are examples of
the
a. Grid iron pattern

b. Axial
c. Radial
d. Ribbon-type
225. Rectangular streets are examples of
the
a. Grid iron pattern

b. Axial
c. Radial
d. Ribbon-type
226. What was the most important factor in
designing settlement patterns during the
Spanish Period in the Philippines?
a. Plaza
b. Economy
c. Transportation
d. Religion
226. What was the most important factor in
designing settlement patterns during the
Spanish Period in the Philippines?
a. Plaza
b. Economy
c. Transportation
d. Religion
227. Aside from volume and growth, what is the
other key point that a tourism analyst should
consider in analyzing tourist arrivals?
a. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals

b. Socio-cultural changes
c. Political changes
227. Aside from volume and growth, what is the
other key point that a tourism analyst should
consider in analyzing tourist arrivals?
a. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals

b. Socio-cultural changes
c. Political changes
228. The tourist market can be classified
into business, mass holiday, and
markets.
a. Eco-tourism
b. Historical
c. Location specific natural and cultural
228. The tourist market can be classified
into business, mass holiday, and
markets.
a. Eco-tourism
b. Historical
c. Location specific natural and cultural
229. Tourist may create the type of employment
opportunities in the area. These are direct,
indirect and jobs.
a. Multiplier
b. Induced
c. Locational
d. Service
229. Tourist may create the type of employment
opportunities in the area. These are direct,
indirect and jobs.
a. Multiplier
b. Induced
c. Locational
d. Service
230. The four in typical economic cycle
are recession , recovery and boom.
a. Slump
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Sustainable growth
230. The four in typical economic cycle
are recession , recovery and boom.
a. Slump
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Sustainable growth
231. In formulating its industrial program,
the government should consider equity,
technical efficiency and
a. Allocative efficiency
b. Comparative advantages
c. Resource collection
d. Availability of skilled labor
231. In formulating its industrial program,
the government should consider equity,
technical efficiency and
a. Allocative efficiency
b. Comparative advantages
c. Resource collection
d. Availability of skilled labor
232. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National
Ecological Solid Waste Management Program seeks to:
a. Promote public health and environment protection

b. Encourage greater private sector participation while
retaining the primary enforcement and responsibility with the
LGUs
c. mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes
from disposal facilities through reuse, recycling, composting
and other resource recovery activities
d. A and C only.
e. All of the above
232. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National
Ecological Solid Waste Management Program seeks to:
a. Promote public health and environment protection

b. Encourage greater private sector participation while
retaining the primary enforcement and responsibility with the
LGUs
c. mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes
from disposal facilities through reuse, recycling, composting
and other resource recovery activities
d. A and C only.
e. All of the above
233. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to
divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from
existing disposal facilities within a period of:
a. 10 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year
233. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to
divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from
existing disposal facilities within a period of:
a. 10 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year
234. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates
the creation of National Solid Waste
Management Commission under the office of:
a. President
b. DENR
c. DILG
d. NEDA
234. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates
the creation of National Solid Waste
Management Commission under the office of:
a. President
b. DENR
c. DILG
d. NEDA
235. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall
be formulated and shall include the following:
a. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections

of solid waste management on the national, provincial, and
municipal levels
b. Identification of critical solid waste facilities
c. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage processing,
disposal, operating methods, techniques and practices are
conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
d. Proposed sites for sanitary land fill
e. All of the above
f. A and C only
235. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall
be formulated and shall include the following:
a. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections

of solid waste management on the national, provincial, and
municipal levels
b. Identification of critical solid waste facilities
c. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage processing,
disposal, operating methods, techniques and practices are
conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
d. Proposed sites for sanitary land fill
e. All of the above
f. A and C only
236. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of
generations, storage, collection, transfer and transport,
processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner
that is in accord with the best principles of public health,
economies, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and
other environmental considerations and which is also
responsive to public attitudes
a. Environmental Impact Assessment

b. Development Planning
c. Waste Segregation
d. Solid Waste Management
236. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of
generations, storage, collection, transfer and transport,
processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner
that is in accord with the best principles of public health,
economies, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and
other environmental considerations and which is also
responsive to public attitudes
a. Environmental Impact Assessment

b. Development Planning
c. Waste Segregation
d. Solid Waste Management
237. The Local Government Solid Management
Plan shall include, but not limited to the following
components:
a. City or Municipal profile

b. Waste characterization
c. Collection and transfer
d. Source reduction
e. All of the above
f. B and D only
237. The Local Government Solid Management
Plan shall include, but not limited to the following
components:
a. City or Municipal profile

b. Waste characterization
c. Collection and transfer
d. Source reduction
e. All of the above
f. B and D only
238. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the
mandatory segregation of solid wastes. Specifically,
the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the
owner or person in charge of premises containing:
a. Five residential units

b. Six residential units
c. Six or more residential units
d. At least ten residential units
238. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the
mandatory segregation of solid wastes. Specifically,
the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the
owner or person in charge of premises containing:
a. Five residential units

b. Six residential units
c. Six or more residential units
d. At least ten residential units
to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which to accumulate source
separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal or private center..
239. The following are the minimum criteria siting of
sanitary land fills
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the
LGU
b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
c. the site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily
handled and compacted
d. The site must be large enough to accommodate the community’s wastes
for a period of ten (10) years during which the people must internalize the
value of environmentally sound and sustainable solid waste disposal
e. All of the above
f. All except D
239. The following are the minimum criteria siting of
sanitary land fills
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the
LGU
b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
c. the site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily
handled and compacted
d. The site must be large enough to accommodate the community’s wastes
for a period of ten (10) years during which the people must internalize the
value of environmentally sound and sustainable solid waste disposal
e. All of the above
f. All except D
240. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste
management problems and are appropriate for clustered solid
waste management services shall be based on the following:
a. Preference of political leaders

b. Size and location of areas which should be included
c. Volume of solid waste which should be generated
d. Available means of cording local government planning
between and among LGUs and for the integrated of such
with the national plan
e. Possible life span of the disposal facilities
f. A to E
g. B to E
240. Guidelines for ms and are appropriate for clustered solid
waste management services shall be based on the following:
a. Preference of political leaders

b. Size and location of areas which should be included
c. Volume of solid waste which should be generated
d. Available means of cording local government planning
between and among LGUs and for the integrated of such
with the national plan
e. Possible life span of the disposal facilities
f. A to E
g. B to E
241. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to
pay the cost preparing, Adopting, and implementing a
solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be
based on the following minimum factors:
a. Type of solid waste

b. Amount/volume of solid waste
c. Distance of transfer station to the waste
management facility
d. Capacity to pay
e. A, B, C, D
f. A to C
241. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to
pay the cost preparing, Adopting, and implementing a
solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be
based on the following minimum factors:
a. Type of solid waste

b. Amount/volume of solid waste
c. Distance of transfer station to the waste
management facility
d. Capacity to pay
e. A, B, C, D
f. A to C
242. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall
be closed to all human activity except for scientific
studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by
indigenous communities
a. Restoration Zone
b. Habitat Management Zone
c. Bypass Zone
d. Strict Protection Zone
242. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall
be closed to all human activity except for scientific
studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by
indigenous communities
a. Restoration Zone
b. Habitat Management Zone
c. Bypass Zone
d. Strict Protection Zone
243. Each establishment protected area shall
be administered by:
a. Office of the Mayor

b. Sanggunian Bayan
c. Planning Officer
d. Protested Area Management Board
243. Each establishment protected area shall
be administered by:
a. Office of the Mayor

b. Sanggunian Bayan
c. Planning Officer
d. Protested Area Management Board
244. This is an organizational process for
determining systematically and objectively the
relevance, efficiency, effectiveness and impact of
activities in the light of their objectives
a. Planning
b. Project Identification
c. Resource Generation
d. Evaluation
244. This is an organizational process for
determining systematically and objectively the
relevance, efficiency, effectiveness and impact of
activities in the light of their objectives
a. Planning
b. Project Identification
c. Resource Generation
d. Evaluation
245. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some
years after project completion when full project
benefits and impact are expected to have been
realized.
a. Terminal Evaluation
b. On-going Evaluation
c. Ex-post Evaluation
d. Pre-Evaluation
245. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some
years after project completion when full project
benefits and impact are expected to have been
realized.
a. Terminal Evaluation
b. On-going Evaluation
c. Ex-post Evaluation
d. Pre-Evaluation
246. The M&E strategy should carefully examine
a. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators

used
b. The format
c. The frequency of existing reports
d. All of the above
246. The M&E strategy should carefully examine
a. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators

used
b. The format
c. The frequency of existing reports
d. All of the above
247. A project with negative NPV means;
a. Benefit cost ration is higher that 1

b. Present value of benefits is higher than
present value of roots
c. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
d. discount rate used is higher that IRR
e. none of the above
247. A project with negative NPV means;
a. Benefit cost ration is higher that 1

b. Present value of benefits is higher than
present value of roots
c. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
d. discount rate used is higher that IRR
248. When projecting market demand for a
project, which of the following combination of
techniques is not advisable:
a. Survey/planning standards
b. Market testing/time series analysis
c. Experts’ opinion/census
d. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
248. When projecting market demand for a
project, which of the following combination of
techniques is not advisable:
a. Survey/planning standards
b. Market testing/time series analysis
c. Experts’ opinion/census
d. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
249. This indicate the number of years it
would take to recoup the investments in the
project
a. payback period
b. retention period
c. return on investment
d. profit margin
249. This indicate the number of years it
would take to recoup the investments in the
project
a. payback period
b. retention period
c. return on investment
d. profit margin
250. Money is more valuable now that
tomorrow not because of
a. uncertainty of risk
b. income opportunities now
c. better prospects in the future
d. present consumption
250. Money is more valuable now that
tomorrow not because of
a. uncertainty of risk
b. income opportunities now
c. better prospects in the future
d. present consumption

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ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING

a. Comprehensive Development Planning

a. Comprehensive Development Planning

a. RA 7718 (BOT Law)

a. RA 7718 (BOT Law)

a. Build and transfer

a. Build and transfer

a. Environment impact statement

a. Environment impact statement

a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions

a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions

a. High daytime population

a. High daytime population

a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very

a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very

a. Population tends to concentrate where

a. Population tends to concentrate where

a. Social discount rate

a. Social discount rate

a. Internal rate of return

a. Internal rate of return

a. Regional accounts matrix

a. Regional accounts matrix

a. Commission on Higher Education

a. Commission on Higher Education

a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the

a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the

a. Site and land use planning

a. Site and land use planning

a. Births and deaths

a. Births and deaths

a. 100 persons per square kilometer

a. 100 persons per square kilometer

a. The number of females divided by the number

a. The number of females divided by the number

a. The means of subsistence grew only at an

a. The means of subsistence grew only at an

a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action

a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action

a. It is the largest urban center of the country

a. It is the largest urban center of the country

a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters,

a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters,

a. Identification and establishment of model farms

a. Identification and establishment of model farms

a. The Watershed Areas

a. The Watershed Areas

a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising

a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising

a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very

a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very

a. Government lad use and zoning policies

a. Government lad use and zoning policies

a. Net present value

a. Net present value

a. 15 minutes by public transportation

a. 15 minutes by public transportation

a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly

a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly

a. Country-side agro-industrial developments

a. Country-side agro-industrial developments

a. Cities and Regions

a. Cities and Regions