(Dated: December 17, 2016)

Consider f (τ, η) = B(τ, η).E(τ, η) in which fields are local. For convience let’s use a
noation as fx,y meaning that we are calculating product of fields at point x measured from
LRF at point y. Then

∆f = fη+∆η,η+∆η − fη,η . (.1)

On the other hand invariance under boost means

fη,η+∆η = fη,η , fη+∆η,η+∆η = fη+∆η,η . (.2)

The general equations are

 
dN ∂ζ
tan(φ − ζ) σ + χe − χe = 0, (.3)
dτ ∂τ
 
dN dM χm ∂φ
E02 e2N (1 + χe ) + σ + e2M − E0 eN +M cos(ζ − φ) = 0, (.4)
dτ dτ τ ∂η
∂φ 1 ∂ζ
eM + E0 sin(φ − ζ)eN = 0, (.5)
∂τ τ ∂η
dM 1 ∂ζ
eM − E0 cos(φ − ζ)eN = 0, (.6)
dτ τ ∂η
∂ζ 1 ∂φ
(1 + χe )E0 eN + (1 − χm ) sin(φ − ζ)eM = 0, (.7)
∂τ τ ∂η
dN 1 ∂φ
(1 + χe )E0 eN + (1 − χm )eM cos(φ − ζ) + σE0 eN = 0, (.8)
dτ τ ∂η
We still have
∂ ∂φ
(cos δ ) = 0, (.9)
∂η ∂η
∂ ∂ζ
(cos δ ) = 0, (.10)
∂η ∂η
∂ ∂δ
(cos δ ) = 0, (.11)
∂η ∂η
and
∂2δ
 2
∂δ
= tan δ . (.12)
∂η 2 ∂η
∂δ
An obvious solution of the above is ∂η = 0 which we have solved and deduced that in this
case tan δ = 0.
χe = 0 limit. The equation (.3) at χe requires tan δ = 0. Since tan δ vanishes at points
which are separated by fixed finite distances(i.e. δ = 0 and δ = pi), δ can’t have any finite
 dδ dδ ∂ζ
non-zero derivative. Therefore we will have dη = dφ = 0. If ∂τ has to be finite, then tan δ
must behave as O(χe ) when χe → 0.
Possible general proof We define
1 ∂φ
F(τ ) ≡ cos δ , (.13)
τ ∂η
1 ∂ζ
G(τ ) ≡ cos δ . (.14)
τ ∂η

From equation (.8)

 
E0 N −M dN
F(τ ) = − e (1 + χe ) +σ . (.15)
(1 − χm ) dτ

Equation (.7) reads

∂ζ
(1 + χe )E0 eN + (1 − χm ) tan(φ − ζ)eM F(τ ) = 0, (.16)
∂τ
therefore
∂ζ (1 − χm )
=− tan(φ − ζ)eM−N F(τ )
∂τ (1 + χe )E0
 
1 dN
= tan(φ − ζ) (1 + χe ) +σ
(1 + χe ) dτ
 
dN σ
= tan(φ − ζ) + (.17)
dτ (1 + χe )

Putting above in (.3) results

   
dN dN σ
0 = tan(φ − ζ) σ + χe − χe tan(φ − ζ) +
dτ dτ (1 + χe )
σ
= tan(φ − ζ) .
1 + χe

Which requires tan(φ − ζ) for non-vanishing σ.