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AWS-CWI Preparatory Course

Part A-Fundamentals

Minimum hours: 2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS:
1) Do not write on the question paper or on reference materials

1. At what time CWI to assure compliance with welding procedure


a. Just before welding
b. During production welding
c. At the time of shipping
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

2. An inspector may check which of the following during welding


a. Preheat and interpass temperature
b. Filler metal control
c. Welder qualification
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

3. Welding inspector can accept as records only those which are formatted as per code book
a. True
b. False
c. Code book forms are mandatory
d. Company’s records are to be converted in to code formats
e. None of the above.

4. Good inspection report must


a. Employ good record keeping
b. Always be typed
c. Be complete and accurate
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above
5. Welding inspector is required to verify that the following records are maintained
a. Tacker’s qualification
b. Engineering drawing
c. Welders qualification
d. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above
6. If the area to be inspected is not reality visible, welding inspector may use
a. Mirrors
b. Boroscope
c. Flash lights
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

7. The most extensively used weld inspection method is


a. RT
b. UT
c. MT
d. PT
e. VT
8. Metallographic tests are used to determine
a. Soundness of the weld
b. Metailurgical structure of the weld
c. Extent of heat affected zone
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

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9. What aspect of fabrications can be checked by visual inspection during welding


a. Treatment of tack welds
b. Quality of root welds
c. Interpass temperature
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above

10. Yield strength may be determined by


a. Impact tests
b. Macro examination
c. Tensile testing
d. Bend tests
e. None of the above

11. The base metal next to the weld metal which has microstructure affected by welding heat is known as
a. Unaffected parent metal
b. Heat affected zone
c. Martensitic zone
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

12. Distortion during welding can be reduced by


a. Peening
b. Sequences of welding
c. Rigid fixtures
d. Only B and C
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

13. Fillet weld break tests is used to evaluate


a. Tensile strength of weld metal
b. Ductility of the weld metal
c. Quality of the fractured weld metal
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

14. The upper limit for preheating and interpass temperature is specified in quenched
a. Maintain the strength in base metal
b. Avoid cracking
c. Maintain heat affected zone
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

15. Hardenability of the base material is primarily determined by it’s


a. Thickness
b. Chemistry
c. Heat treatment
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.

16. The term ‘sensitisation of stainless steel’ primarily refers to


a. Weldability
b. Loss of corrosion resistances
c. Hardenability
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above.

17. Hardness of the base metal can be affected by which of the following conditions.
a. Heat treatment
b. Cold working

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c. Composition
d. Welding process
e. All of the above.

18. Inadequate joint penetration can be caused by


a. Insufficient root opening
b. Excessive welding speed
c. Higher size electrode
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above.

19. After a period of finding no defects in welds, welding inspector finds 304 SS welds made with GTAW show
signs of reddish contamination in the area adjacent to the weld. The reason may be:
a. Tungsten electrode has melted
b. Shielding gas is contaminated
c. Carbon steel cleaning tools used to brush the edge preparation
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

20. Undercut may be caused by


a. Incorrect electrode angle
b. Excessive speed of travel
c. Excessive current
d. Excessive arc length
e. All of the above.

21. Porosity in SAW is caused by


a. High travel speeds
b. Low current
c. Coarse flux granules
d. Deoxidized electrode
e. All of the above.

22. A welder may be required to be requalified because


a. Failure to pass the initial qualification test
b. Frequent failures of his production welds
c. His ability is questioned by welding inspector
d. All of the above

23. Which of the following welds does not apply to T joint


a. Fillet
b. Braze
c. Seam
d. Plug
e. All of the above

24. That portion of the base metal that has not been melted but whose microstructure has been altered by the heat
of welding is termed as
a. Weld interface
b. Fusion zone
c. Heat affected zone
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

25. Weld toe is


a. The exposed surface of the weld on the side from which welding was done
b. The junction of the weld face and the base metal
c. The weld reinforcement at the side of the joint from which the welding was
d. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above
e. None of the above

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26. Which of the following welds apply to corner joint


a. Seam
b. Fillet
c. Plug
d. J groove
e. All of the above

27. Electrode used for GTAW of mild steel is


a. 7010
b. Thoriated tungsten
c. Water cooled consumable guide tube
d. ‘a’ and ‘b’ above
e. None of the above

28. Brazing filler metals melts at


a. Parent metal melting temperature
b. Temperature less than 450F
c. Temperature less than 840F
d. Temperature more than 840F
e. None of the above

29. Direct current electrode positive means, the work piece is connected to
a. Positive terminal
b. Negative terminal
c. Either positive or negative terminal
d. Earth
e. None of the above

30. Air carbon arc cutting


a. Requires an electrode holder
b. Requires air supply
c. May be done manually or mechanically
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

31. Short circuiting arc transfer is associated in the


a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. SAW
d. GTAW
e. FCAW

32. SMAW electrodes should be kept


a. Sealed in their original container until ready for use
b. At 550F until the container is opened
c. At 350F until the container is opened
d. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above
e. None of the above.

33. Back step technique is used


a. To reduce distortion
b. To produce deeper penetration
c. To increase heat input
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

34. GMAW with short circuit produces


a. Deeper penetration
b. Shallow penetration

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c. Greater melt of rate
d. Excellent fusion
e. None of the above.

35. The letter CJP represents

a. Component joint operation


b. Critical joint preparation
c. Complete joint penetration
d. Combined joint penetration
e. None of the above.

36.

Weld symbol to represent the above weld is


a.

b.

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c.

d.

e. None of the above

37.

Weld symbol for the above weld is


a.

b.

c.

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d.

e. None of the above

38.

The symbol represents


a. Back weld
b. Backing weld
c. Spot weld
d. Surfacing weld
e. None of the above.

39.

The above symbol represents


a. A double bevel groove butt weld with partial penetration
b. A double bevel groove fillet weld with partial penetration
c. A corner joint with double bevel groove and full penetration with a fillet all around on the arrow
side.
d. A T joint with double groove and full penetration with a fillet all around
40.

The above symbol indicates


a. Material testing shall be carried out on 4 samples
b. Magnetic particle testing shall be carried out at 4 locations on the fillet weld of the arrow side
c. Magnetic particle testing shall be carried out for 4 locations on the arrow side
d. Magnetic particle testing shall be carried out on 4 locations on the other side
e. None of the above

41. The suitable NDT method to be adopted for the detection of unexposed laminations in base plate will be
a. RT
b. PT
c. ET
d. UT
e. NRT

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42. For detection of tight cracks and surface defects in steel welds, the NDT method
a. UT
b. RT
c. MT
d. ET
e. VT

43. Surface cracks and internal slag inclusions are suspected in aluminium welds. The suitable method(s) to be
adopted is/are
a. RT only
b. RT and UT
c. RT and PT
d. UT only
e. RT and MT

44. The discontinuity that is normally produced in welds due to improper edge preparation, excessive travel speed
and wrong electrode size can be deducted by
a. VT
b. PT
c. ET
d. RT
e. None of the above

45. When magnetic particle testing of a weld, you find powder is lying loosely on surface depression. This
indication is termed as
a. Discontinuity
b. Defect
c. Porosity
d. Non-relevant indications
e. None of the above

46. In prod MT technique, if the prods are placed on the axis of a groove weld, what type of flaw would cause the
clearest indication?
a. A transverse surface crack
b. An underbead crack
c. A plate lamination
d. A longitudinal surface crack
e. A tungsten inclusion

47.

An ultrasonic test of a plate shows a trace on the CRT with peaks as shown above. If the sweep is from left to
right, the peak at (2) may indicate
a. A flaw at the surface
b. A flaw near the surface
c. A reflection from the back
d. A flaw at the back
e. None of the above

48. Which of the following may an inspector use to perform visual inspection?
a. Magnifier

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b. Micrometer
c. Fillet weld gauge
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above.

49. The liquid penetrant applied to the surface of the specimen


a. Flows into discontinuities upon the application of the developer
b. Is absorbed by discontinuities
c. Is drawn into discontinuities by capillary action
d. Runs into discontinuities by gravity
e. Penetrates the surface by chemical action

50. PT is used for detecting


a. Weld undercut
b. Excessive weld reinforcement
c. Weld discontinuities open to surface
d. Short willet weld leg size
e. Depth of weld penetration

51. MT is most suited for detecting most


a. Cracks
b. Short fillet throat dimensions
c. Weld undercut-shallow
d. Magnetism of weld reinforcement
e. Magnetism of weldment

52. The factor which is most important to the reliability of a tests is


a. Ease of conducting the test
b. Cost of required equipment
c. Reproducibility of test conditions
d. Speed of testing
e. Portability of equipment

53. Prior to welding, the inspector may check


a. Welding equipment and welding consumables
b. Joint designs and joint preparations
c. Testing plans
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

54. Which of the following is an advantage of fluorescent penetrant over visible penetrant?
a. Inspection can be done in a well lighted area
b. Small indications are clearly seen
c. It can be used when contact with water is objectionable
d. It is less sensitive to contamination
e. The dye requires no vehicle or solvent

55. What should be known for the proper interpretation of penetrant indications?
a. Previous manufacturing process of the part
b. Technique used in penetrant application and removal
c. Precleaning method
d. None of the above

56. The welding inspector should evaluate critical joint fit up before welding begins. Which of the following is NOT
an essential part of evaluations?
a. Tack welds
b. Root opening
c. Post heat treatment
d. Edge preparation
e. Dimension and alignment

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57. In comparison to surface cracks, the sensitivity of MT flaws 1/4 ’ or more below surface of a thick weldment is
a. Generally much less
b. Approximately equal
c. Nearly equal if the flaws are non-metallic inclusions
d. Nearly equal if the internal and external flaws are of equal widths
e. Greater if the flaws are located near the weld’s axis and the current is used

58. What aspects of fabrication can be checked through visual inspection during welding?
a. Sequence of weld pass
b. Interpass cleaning
c. Proper preheat
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

59. Which of the following is/are used to perform MT


a. Magnetic powders
b. Yokes
c. Coils
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above.

60. Brazed joints can be inspected by which of the following test methods?
a. UT
b. Leak
c. Torsion
d. Any of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

61. Which of the following could interfere with PT?


a. An oily surface
b. A wet surface
c. A rough weld
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

62. Ultrasonic waves can be operated to the test object effectively


a. Through a film of oil
b. Through a film of air
c. Through a layer of water
d. Through a layer of grease
e. Only ‘a’ , ‘c’, ‘d’ above

63. Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and extent a liquid penetrant will enter cracks, fissures
and other openings?
a. The hardness of the specimen being tested
b. The surface condition of the specimen being tested
c. The colour of the penetrant
d. The conductivity of the specimen
e. The residual magnetic field in the specimen

64. When should VT to be performed to produce a most cost effective quality as per specification?
a. After welding
b. When the shop formant tells you
c. Prior to welding
d. During welding
e. Only ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ above.

65. The principle advantage of UT compared to other NDT method for weld examination is
a. Good penetration for detection of flaws in thick sections

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b. Relatively high sensitivity to small discontinuities
c. Ability to determine the position of internal discontinuities, estimate their size and shape
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

66. During production testing, the inspector noted that discontinuity indications found by MT method were not
found by PT method. This indicates
a. There are no flaws
b. The discontinuities are all on the surface
c. The discontinuities are too small for PT sensitivity
d. The discontinuities are not exposed to the surface
e. None of the above.

67. In film radiography,penetrameters are normally placed


a. Between the intensifying screen and the film
b. On the source side of the part
c. On the film side of the part
d. Between the operator and the radiation source
e. None of the above

68. The discontinuity at No:3 is known as


a. Macro fissure
b. Incomplete fusion
c. Piping porosity
d. Undercut
e. Underbead crack

69. The discontinuity at No:2 is called


a. Overlap
b. Toe crack
c. Overfill
d. Undercut
e. Toe lamination
70. The flaw at No:1 is known as
a. Wagon crack
b. Toe crack
c. Under lap
d. Undercut
e. Underbead cracking

71. Which of the following discontinuities does NOT occur in GTAW?


a. Porosity
b. Slag inclusions
c. Cracks
d. Incomplete fusion
e. Over lap

72. Inspection record should


a. Include comments on the general character of the work
b. Include explanation of repairs
c. State how the works stayed within the prescribed tolerances

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d. All of the above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above.

73. The welding inspector must verify that


a. All records are completed by the time the component is shipped, even though they might not have
completed at the end of the operation
b. Records of qualification, certification, fabrication, and testing are complete meet code/specification
requirement.
c. All the general points are covered in inspection reports since detail is never allowed
d. The components was completed and the shop promises to complete the records before shipment
e. All of the above

74. Which of the following is not essential to good record keeping


a. Clearly and concisely stated facts
b. A good company policy manual
c. Well organized reports presenting a total picture
d. Logical sequences to reporting
e. All supporting forms, data and reports included or referenced

75. All inspection record may be used


a. To help recall decision
b. To verify payment of work invoices
c. To verify men hour records from the shop
d. For shipping package ships
e. As s basis for re-employment of workers without performances qualification testing

76. A welding inspector must be ethical primarily in order to


a. Insure that the employer receives fair value for inspection fees
b. Resolve impartial decisions
c. Reject every weld for the first time of inspection
d. Safeguard the public health and well being
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above.

77. The qualification of a CWI covers the responsibility to


a. Specify welding procedures
b. Compute allowable stresses
c. Perform radiographic examinations
d. Conducts test for base metal composition
e. None of the above

78. Any record that require fabrication’s signatures should be prepared by


a. The inspector
b. The fabricator
c. Both the foreman and the inspector
d. The QA manager
e. The engineer

79. If a welding inspector feels that he is not qualified to make judgement as to acceptability of the weldment, he
should
a. Do the best he can and report accordingly
b. Call for assistance for someone who is qualified
c. Wait to make judgement until he has time to get additional training
d. Stop all work until procedures are developed within the inspector’s qualification
e. Allow work to continue because further welder experiences will improve quality

80. A WPS has been qualified with GMAW short arc transfer process. Which condition below should allow or
disallow a welder qualified for FCAW as to make production welds using that WPS?
a. The welder has been checked out on the GMAW equipment, allowing him to weld GMAW on
production
b. The welder’s supervision assigned him to the job

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c. The welder has welded GMAW process in the past, thus qualify him for the production welding with
GMAW
d. The welder is qualified to weld FCAW only and is not qualified to weld production part
e. None of the above.

81. The CAWI


a. Is responsible to determine weldment conformance to acceptance standards
b. Inspects only the fabricated components associated with welding
c. Performs inspection under the direction of a CWI
d. Is a consultant to CWI
e. Cannot inspect critical hardware

82. A welding inspector should


a. Make sure records meet specified requirement
b. Make sure records are available when needed
c. Make sure records are in as mush details as necessary
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

83. A welding performances qualification test services to


a. Determine welder’s reliability
b. Determines a welder’s level of skill
c. Provide statistical input for the purpose of estimating the ratio of accepted/rejected welds
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

84. Under most code rules, welders may be qualified by their employers, provided they have
a. Passed a prescribed set of tests
b. Been employed for a minimum of six month
c. Qualified by at least one previous employer
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ above
e. Both ‘c’ and ‘d’ above

85. What shade filter plate is needed when observing SAW at 1000 amps?
a. No:14
b. No.12
c. No.10
d. No.4
e. Clear safety goggles

86. Electrical hazards are


a. Present in electric arc welders
b. Present in secondary leads
c. Minimised by proper equipment installations
d. More severe in the presence of water or moisture
e. All of the above.

87. Over exposure to X or gamma radiation may cause damage to


a. Sexual tissue
b. Blood tissue
c. Skin
d. Internal organs
e. All of the above.

88. Oxyacetylene welding


a. Requires #10 absorption lens
b. Requires the same absorption lens as SAW
c. Requires eye protection
d. Should not be done in open sunlight
e. Gives off UV light

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89. An old specification refers the term “caulk weld”. This means
a. Putty weld
b. Seal weld
c. Slugged weld
d. A weld with caulking putty
e. Only ‘a’ and‘d’ above.

90. In the figure dimension #5 designates


a. Size of the weld
b. Overlap
c. Undercut
d. Convexity
e. Concavity

91. Dimension #4 refers to


a. Penetration
b. Overlap
c. Undercut
d. Concavity
e. Convexity

92. Dimension #3 refers to


a. Effective throat
b. Convexity
c. Penetration
d. Theoretical throat
e. Actual throat

93. Dimension #2 designates


a. Convexity
b. Size of the weld
c. Theoretical throat
d. Actual throat
e. Effective throat

94. Dimension #1 designates


a. Theoretical throat
b. Effective throat
c. Actual throat
d. Convexity
e. Size of the weld

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95. The weld in the figure No:3 above is said to be welded in the
a. Flat position
b. Horizontal position
c. Vertical position
d. Overhead position
e. None of the above.

96. The weld in figure No.2 is said to be welded in the


a. Flat position
b. Horizontal position
c. Vertical position
d. Overhead position
e. None of the above.

97. What is meant by ‘buttering’ a groove face?


a. A form of surfacing in which one or more layers of weld metal is deposited on the surface of the
joint to be subsequently welded.
b. A surfacing variation to achieve required dimensions
c. A surfacing variation to achieve metallurgical characteristics such as corrosion resistances
d. The condition which results in metal melting through
e. None of the above.

98. Which of the following process can be used to join quenched and tempered steel?
a. SMAW
b. SAW
c. GMAW
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
99.

The sketch shows:


a. SMAW
b. FCAW
c. ESW
d. GTAW
e. SW

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100.

The sketch shows


a. Air carbon arc welding
b. Oxy fuel gas cutting
c. GTA welding
d. Mechanical welding
e. Plasma arc cutting
101.

The sketch shows a test procedure for


a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. ESW
d. GTAW
e. SW

102. In braze welding, flux may be applied by which of the following?


a. Using a filler rod precoated with flux
b. Introducing flux through oxy fuel gas flame
c. Brushing the flux on the joint prior to brazing
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above.

103.

The sketch shows

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a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. GTAW
d. SAW
e. None of the above.

104. During ESW,cracks may be avoided by manufacturing


a. Proper electrode feed rate
b. Proper current
c. Proper spacing between electrodes
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

105. SMAW with too high travel speed can


a. Decrease penetration
b. Cause undercutting at the edges of the weld
c. Cause difficulty in slag removal
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

106. Shielding gases used for GMAW include


a. Argon
b. Helium
c. Carbondioxide
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

107. Reverse polarity is a non-standard term for


a. DC EN
b. DC EP
c. DC Straight polarity
d. DC reverse Polarity
e. None of the above

108. Torch brazing is accomplished by the use of


a. Neutral oxy fuel gas flame
b. A slightly reducing oxy fuel gas flame
c. An air fuel gas flame
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

109. Toxic breathing conditions may be produces when the welding atmosphere consists of
a. Mineral spirits
b. Trichloroethylene
c. Perchloroethylyne
d. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above

110. When other welding variables are kept constant, increasing the weld current during FCAW will
a. Increase electrode deposition rate
b. Increase penetration
c. Production concave weld beads with poor appearances
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

111. To maintain weld quality during SW, it is necessary to


a. Have sufficient welding power
b. Have DC EN for aluminium
c. Make test welds before starting
d. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

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e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above.

112. The distance between the tip of the welding electrode and the weld pool surface is called
a. Arc force
b. Arc length
c. Arc blow
d. Arc strike
e. Arc chamber

113. Optimum results are more likely when EXX 16 and EXX 18 low hydrogen electrodes are
a. Used with long arc on downhill welding and a short arc on uphill welding
b. Stored in a refrigerator when the container has been opened
c. Stored in a holding oven at proper temperature
d. Used with a whipping technique on light gauge metal
e. Replaced with EXX13 electrodes on vertical work

114. Manufactures recommended that E7018 electrodes be used with a ‘short arc’ welding technique. This helps
a. To speed the metal transfer across the arc
b. To maintain good shielding on the molten pool
c. In welding thin sheet metal
d. Root pass ’whipping’ burn through
e. GMAW process weld sheet metal

115. GMAW is suitable for


a. Carbon steel
b. Stainless steel
c. Aluminium
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

116. The function of the covering on a covered arc welding electrode is to provide
a. A shielding gas cover
b. A protection slag
c. A deoxidised weld metal
d. Arc stabilisation
e. All of the above

117. A proper travel speed is essential to a good welding performance. Which of the following factors influence(s)
the travel speed?
a. Surface condition of the base metal
b. Joint fit-up
c. Welding current
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

118. In SMAW the correct arc length is essential to good welding performances. The correct arc length is according
to
a. Electrode classification
b. Electrode diameter
c. Welding position
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above.

119.

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The above symbol represents
a. Double flare V groove weld, ultrasonic test either side in field.
b. Double flare bevel groove weld, ultrasonic test both side in field
c. Double bevel groove weld, ultrasonic test either side in field
d. Double V groove weld, ultrasonic test either side in field.
e. None of the above.
120.

Which of the symbols above is used to indicate a field weld?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. Field welds are not shown in the drawing
e. None of the above.
121.

What welding symbol above represents the adjacent weld joint?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
122.

Identify the correct welding symbol for the desired weld


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

123. The symbol adjacent shows the configuration of a

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a. U groove weld
b. Bevel groove weld
c. J groove weld
d. Fillet weld
e. Flare v groove weld

124. A weld which extends all around the joint is shown in No.
a. 9
b. 4
c. 7
d. 3
e. 8

125. An intermittent fillet weld is shown in No.


a. 1
b. 9
c. 4
d. 7
e. 6

126. A plug indicating the depth of fill is shown in No.


a. 6
b. 3
c. 7
d. 5
e. 8

127. A groove weld with melt through is shown in No.


a. 2
b. 7
c. 6
d. 3
e. 10

128. The symbol requires


a. Penetrant test on either side of the part
b. Proof testing on other side of the part
c. Penetrant testing on all around the part
d. Penetrant testing as arrow side of the part
e. Proof testing all around the part.
129.

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The above NDT symbol refers to


a. Visual test and penetrant test on both sides of the part
b. Visual test on the other side and penetrant test on arrow side
c. Visual test on arrow side and penetrant test on the other side
d. Visual test on the back side of the part and penetrant test on the front
e. None of the above.
130.

The figure above illustrates a (n)


a. Bend specimen
b. Tensile specimen
c. Impact specimen
d. Macro specimen
e. Drop weight specimen

131. For heat treatable alloys, the minimum preheat and interpass temperature required to prevent cracking
depends on
a. Available hydrogen during welding
b. Condition of heat treatment
c. Its carbon and alloy content
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above.
132.

The test which uses the specimen (shown above) is


a. All weld metal tensile
b. Macro tech
c. Impact
d. Bend
e. None of the above

133. An all weld tensile specimen has a reduced section dia of 0.5”. if it has failed at a tensile load of 12,000 lbs,
the tensile strength in Mpa is
(Note for conversion: 1 Psi = 0.00689 Mpa)
a. 42,100 Mpa
b. 4,210 Mpa
c. 421 Mpa
d. 42.1 Mpa
e. 4.21 Mpa

134. Brazed joints can be destructively tested by which of the following methods?
a. Metallographic
b. Peel
c. Tension
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.

135. What is the cross sectional area in sq. Inches of a flat tensile specimen of thickness of 0.58 and width 0.74”?

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a. 0.39
b. 0.40
c. 0.41
d. 0.43
e. 0.44

136. A single wire SAW machine operating at 600A, 32V and travelling at 8” per minute. What is the heat energy
input
If Heat input (joules/inch) =amps X volts X 60 / travel speed (inch/minute)
a. 2,400 jpi
b. 1,152,000 jpi
c. 144,000 jpi
d. 110,000 jpi
e. 14,400 jpi

137. The rate of cooling in a weld is slowed by


a. Decreasing the heat input per inch of weld
b. Preheating the weldment
c. Reducing the electrode size
d. Increasing the speed of travel
e. Increasing the amperage and travel speed proportionally

138. A stress relief heat treatment (approximately 1100F for carbon steel) is intended to
a. Change the microstructure of the weld
b. Increase the tensile strength of the weld
c. Reduce the residual weld stress across the weld
d. Increase the weld the impact strength of the weld
e. Provide a method of overheating for the removal of gas products trapped in the weld

139. Low carbon steel is more weldable than


a. Mild steel
b. High carbon steel
c. Medium carbon steel
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘b’ and ‘c’ above.

140. Hardness test method for metals include


a. Brinell
b. Vickers
c. Knoop
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

141. Destructive test of welds are designated to locate


a. Cracks
b. Porosity
c. Incomplete fusion
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

142. Preheat is sometimes required for SMAW of material which have very high thermo conductivity. Preheat in this
case
a. Reduces the amperage required for welds
b. Improves penetration
c. Aids fusion
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

143. The charpy V notch impact test is


a. The most common fracture toughness test

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b. Often used in specifying minimum acceptances criteria for base metal
c. Often used for welding procedure qualification
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

144. Guided bend specimens may be


a. Longitudinal or transverse to the weld axis
b. Bent in tensile machines
c. Bent in wrap – around bent jigs
d. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above
e. All of the above

145. When the weld structure is to examined at a magnified over 10X, ______ are used
a. Macro specimens
b. Micro specimens
c. Tensile specimens
d. Charpy specimens
e. Chemical tests

146. No.1 indicates the................


a. Beads
b. Weld root
c. Welt toe
d. Face reinforcement
e. Weld face

147. No.2 indicates the...............


a. Beads
b. Weld root
c. Welt toe
d. Face reinforcement
e. Weld face

148. No.3 indicates the................


a. Beads
b. Weld root
c. Welt toe
d. Face reinforcement
e. Weld face

149. No.4 indicates the................


a. Beads
b. Weld root
c. Welt toe
d. Face reinforcement
e. Weld face

150. No.5 indicates the....................


a. Beads
b. Weld root
c. Welt toe
d. Face reinforcement
e. Weld face
*****************

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