AIIMS

Physics
1. In an 𝐿𝐶𝑅 circuit as shown in figure, both switches are open initially. Now
switch 𝑆1 is closed, 𝑆2 kept open. (𝑞 is charge on the capacitor and 𝜏 = 𝑅𝐶 is
capacitive time constant).
Which of the following statement is correct?

𝜏
(A) At 𝑡 = 2 , 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉(1 − 𝑒 −1 )
(B) Work done by the battery is half of the energy dissipated in the resistor
(C) At 𝑡 = 𝜏, 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉/2
(D) At 𝑡 = 2𝜏, 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉(1 − 𝑒 −2 )
Solution: (D)
As switch 𝑆1 is closed and switch 𝑆2 is kept open. Now, capacitor is charging through
−𝑡 −𝑡
a resistor 𝑅. Charge on a capacitor at any time 𝑡 is 𝑞 = 𝑞0 (1 − 𝑒 𝜏 ) = 𝐶𝑉 (1 − 𝑒 𝜏 )
−𝜏 −1
𝜏
At 𝑡 = , 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉 (1 − 𝑒 2𝜏 ) = 𝐶𝑉 (1 − 𝑒 2 )
2
−𝜏
At 𝑡 = 𝜏, 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉 (1 − 𝑒 𝜏 ) = 𝐶𝑉(1 − 𝑒 −1 )
−2𝜏
At 𝑡 = 2𝜏, 𝑞 = 𝐶𝑉 (1 − 𝑒 𝜏 ) = 𝐶𝑉(1 − 𝑒 −2 )
2. A wheel starts rotating from rest at time 𝑡 = 0 with an angular acceleration of 50 radians⁄𝑠 2 . The
angular acceleration (𝛼) decreases to zero value after 5 seconds. During this interval, 𝛼 varies according
to the equation
𝑡
𝛼 = 𝛼0 (1 − )
5
The angular velocity at 𝑡 = 5 𝑠 will be
(A) 10 rad⁄𝑠
(B) 250 rad⁄𝑠
(C) 125 rad⁄𝑠
(D) 100 rad⁄𝑠
Solution: (C)
𝑡
𝛼 = 𝛼0 (1 − )
5
At 𝑡 = 0, 𝛼 = 𝛼0 ∴ 𝛼0 = 50 rad⁄𝑠 2
𝑑𝜔 𝑡
= 𝛼0 (1 − )
𝑑𝑡 5
𝜔 5 5
𝑡 𝑡2
∴ ∫ 𝑑𝜔 = 𝛼0 ∫ (1 − ) 𝑑𝑡 ⇒ 𝜔 = 𝛼0 [𝑡 − ]
5 10 0
0 0
25
= 50 (5 − ) rad⁄𝑠 = 125 rad⁄𝑠
10
3. As shown in figure, two vertical conducting rails separated by distance 1.0𝑚
are placed parallel to 𝑧 −axis. At 𝑧 = 0, a capacitor of 0.15𝐹 is connected
between the rails and a metal rod of mass 100𝑔𝑚 placed across the rails slides
down along the rails. If a constant magnetic fields of 2.0 𝑇 exists perpendicular to
the plane of the rails, what is the acceleration of the rod? (Take 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚⁄𝑠 2 )
(A) 2.5 𝑚⁄𝑠 2

(B) 1.4 𝑚⁄𝑠 2
(C) 9.8 𝑚⁄𝑠 2
(D) 0
Solution: (B)
Due to motion of rod, emf induced across capacitor, 𝜔 = 𝐵𝑙𝑣
∴ Charge stored in capacitor, 𝑄 = 𝐶 (𝐵𝑙𝑣)
𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑣
𝐼= = 𝐶𝐵𝑙 = 𝐶𝐵𝑙𝑎
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
Force opposing the downward motion, 𝐹𝑚 = 𝐵𝐼𝑙
∴ 𝐹𝑚 = 𝐵(𝐶𝐵𝑙𝑎)𝑙 = 𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝐶𝑎
Net force on rod, 𝐹net = 𝑊 − 𝐹𝑚 = 𝑚𝑔 − 𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝐶𝑎
∴ 𝑚𝑎 = 𝑚𝑔 − 𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝐶𝑎
𝑚𝑔
or 𝑎 = (𝑚+𝐵2 𝑙2 𝐶)
0.1×9.8
So, 𝑎 = (0.1+22 = 1.4 𝑚⁄𝑠 2
×12 ×0.15)
4. A body initially at 80𝑜 𝐶 cools to 64𝑜 𝐶 in 5 min and to 52𝑜 𝐶 in 10 min. The temperature of the
surrounding is
(A) 26𝑜 𝐶
(B) 16𝑜 𝐶
(C) 36𝑜 𝐶
(D) 40𝑜 𝐶
Solution: (B)
According to Newton’s law of cooling
𝜃1 − 𝜃2 𝜃1 + 𝜃2
= 𝐾[ − 𝜃0 ]
𝑡 2
80−64 80+64
In the first case, 5 = 𝐾 [ 2 − 𝜃0 ]
Or 3.2 = 𝐾[72 − 𝜃0 ] …(i)
64−52 64+52
In the second case, 5 = 𝐾 [ 2
− 𝜃0 ]
or 2.4 = 𝐾[58 − 𝜃0 ] …(ii)
3.2 72−𝜃
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get 2.4 = 58−𝜃0
0
or 185.6 − 3.2𝜃0 = 172.8 − 2.4𝜃0 or 𝜃0 = 16𝑜 𝐶
5. A wave packet with center frequency 𝜔 is propagating in dispersive medium with phase velocity of
1.5 × 103 𝑚⁄𝑠. When the frequency 𝜔 is increased by 2%, the phase velocity is found to decrease by 3%.
What is the group velocity of the wave packet?
(A) 0.25 × 103 𝑚⁄𝑠
(B) 1.0 × 103 𝑚⁄𝑠
(C) 0.6 × 103 𝑚⁄𝑠
(D) 0.75 × 103 𝑚⁄𝑠
Solution: (C)
𝜔
Phase velocity, 𝑣𝑝 = 𝑘
𝑑𝑣𝑝 𝑑𝜔 𝑑𝑘
= −
𝑣𝑝 𝜔 𝑘
𝑑𝑘 𝑑𝜔 𝑑𝑣𝑝
∴ = − = 2% − (−3%) = 5%
𝑘 𝜔 𝑣𝑝
𝑑𝜔
Group velocity, 𝑣𝑔 = 𝑑𝑘
𝑑𝜔
𝑑𝜔 2
= 𝑣𝑝 ( 𝜔 ) = 1.5 × 103 ( )
𝑑𝑘 𝑑𝑘 5
𝑘
= 0.6 × 103 𝑚⁄𝑠
6. A communication satellite of 500 𝑘𝑔 revolves around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 4.0 × 107 𝑚
in the equatorial plane of the earth from west to east. The magnitude of angular momentum of the
satellite is
(A) ~0.13 × 1014 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 𝑠 −1
(B) ~1.3 × 1014 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 𝑠 −1
(C) ~0.58 × 1014 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 𝑠 −1
(D) ~2.58 × 1014 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 𝑠 −1
Solution: (C)
As the satellite is moving in equatorial plane with orbital radius 4 × 107 𝑚.
∴ Satellite is geostationary satellite.
Hence, the time taken by satellite to complete its one revolution, 𝑇 = 24 ℎ = 86400 𝑠
2𝜋𝑟
Velocity of satellite, 𝑣 = 𝑇
Angular momentum, 𝐿 = 𝑚𝑣𝑟
2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑚 2
𝐿 = 𝑚( )𝑟 = 𝑟
𝑇 𝑇
2 × 3.14 × 500
∴𝐿= × (4 × 107 )2
86400
= 0.58 × 1014 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 𝑠 −1
7. For MRI, a patient is slowly pushed in a time of 10 𝑠 within the coils of the magnet where magnetic field
is 𝐵 = 2.0 𝑇. If the patient’s trunk is 0.8 𝑚 in circumference, the induced emf around the patient’s trunk
is
(A) 10.18 × 10−2 𝑉
(B) 9.66 × 102 𝑉
(C) 10.18 × 10−3 𝑉
(D) 1.51 × 10−2 𝑉
Solution: (C)
Change in magnetic field in 10𝑠 = 2.0 𝑇
−𝑑𝜙 𝑑𝐵
As 𝜀 = = −𝐴 (∵ 𝜙 = 𝐵𝐴)
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
Circumference of patient’s trunk,
2𝜋𝑟 = 0.8 𝑚 (given)
0.8 0.4
∴𝑟= 𝑚= 𝑚
2𝜋 𝜋
0.4 2 0.16
Area of cross section, 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 = 𝜋 ( 𝜋 ) = 𝜋 𝑚2
0.16 2
∴ |𝜀| = × 𝑉 = 10.18 × 10−3 𝑉
𝜋 10
8. The measurement of voltmeter in the following circuit is
(A) 2.25 𝑉
(B) 4.25 𝑉
(C) 2.75 𝑉
(D) 6.25 𝑉
Solution: (A)
Resistance of voltmeter and 60Ω are in parallel.
∴ Equivalent resistance
60 × 40 60 × 40
= = = 24Ω
60 + 40 100
For the whole circuit,
6𝑉 6 3
Current 𝐼 = (40+24) = = 𝐴
Ω 64 32
The voltmeter reads potential difference across 60 Ω
∴ Voltmeter reading = 𝐼 × 𝑅eq
3 9
= × 24 = 𝑉 = 2.25 𝑉
32 4
9. The change in the gravitational potential energy when a body of mass 𝑚 is raised to a height 𝑛𝑅 above
the surface of the earth is (here 𝑅 is the radius of the earth)
𝑛
(A) (𝑛+1) 𝑚𝑔𝑅
𝑛
(B) (𝑛−1) 𝑚𝑔𝑅
(C) 𝑛𝑚𝑔𝑅
𝑚𝑔𝑅
(D) 𝑛
Solution: (A)
Gravitational potential energy of mass 𝑚 at any point at a distance 𝑟 from the centre of earth is
𝐺𝑀𝑚
𝑈=−
𝑟
At the surface of earth 𝑟 = 𝑅,
𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀
∴ 𝑈𝑠 = − = −𝑚𝑔𝑅 (∵ 𝑔 = 2 )
𝑅 𝑅
At the height ℎ = 𝑛𝑅 from the surface of earth
𝑟 = 𝑅 + ℎ = 𝑅 + 𝑛𝑅 = 𝑅(1 + 𝑛)
𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝑚𝑔𝑅
∴ 𝑈ℎ = − =−
𝑅(1 + 𝑛) (1 + 𝑛)
Change in gravitational potential energy is
𝑚𝑔𝑅
∆𝑈 = 𝑈ℎ − 𝑈𝑠 = − − (−𝑚𝑔𝑅)
(1 + 𝑛)
𝑚𝑔𝑅
= − + 𝑚𝑔𝑅
1+𝑛
1 𝑛
= 𝑚𝑔𝑅 (1 − ) = 𝑚𝑔𝑅 ( )
1+𝑛 1+𝑛
10. A large solid sphere with uniformly distributed positive charge has a smooth narrow tunnel through
its centre. A small particle with negative charge, initially at rest far from the sphere, approaches it along
the line of the tunnel, reaches its surface with a speed 𝑣, and passes through the tunnel. Its speed at the
centre of the sphere will be
(A) 0
(B) 𝑣
(C) √2𝑣
(D) √1.5𝑣
Solution: (D)
Potential at infinity = 𝑉∞ = 0
𝑄
Potential at the surface of the sphere, 𝑉𝑠 = 𝑘 𝑅
3 𝑄
Potential at the centre of the sphere, 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘
2 𝑅
Let 𝑚 and −𝑞 be the mass and the charge of the particle respectively.
Let 𝑣0 = speed of the particle at the centre of the sphere.
1 𝑄
𝑚𝑣 2 = −𝑞[𝑉∞ − 𝑉𝑠 ] = 𝑞𝑘 …(i)
2 𝑅
1 3 𝑄
2
𝑚𝑣02 = −𝑞[𝑉∞ − 𝑉𝑐 ] = 𝑞 ∙ 2 𝑘 𝑅 …(ii)
Dividing Equation (ii) by Equation (i),
𝑣02 3
𝑣2
= 2 = 1.5 or 𝑣0 = √1.5𝑣
11. A current 𝐼 is flowing through the loop. The direction of the current and the shape of the loop are as
𝜇 𝐼
shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is 𝑅0 times
(𝑀𝐴 = 𝑅, 𝑀𝐵 = 2𝑅, ∠𝐷𝑀𝐴 = 90𝑜 )
2
(A) 16, but out of the plane of the paper.
5
(B) 16, but into the plane of the paper.
7
(C) 16, but out of the plane of the paper.
7
(D) 16, but into the plane of the paper.
Solution: (D)
Magnetic field at the centre 𝑀 due to current through the curved portion 𝐷𝐴 is
𝜇0 𝐼 3𝜋
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵1 = ×( )
4𝜋𝑅 2
3𝜇0 𝐼
= ×⨂
8𝑅
Magnetic field at the centre 𝑀 due to current through the straight portion 𝐴𝐵 is 𝐵2 = 0, since point 𝑀
lies on the axis of the straight portion 𝐴𝐵.
Magnetic field at the centre 𝑀 due to current through the curved portion 𝐵𝐶 is
𝜇0 𝐼 𝜋 𝜇0 𝐼
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵3 = × = ⨂
4𝜋2𝑅 2 16𝑅
Magnetic field at the centre 𝑀 due to current through the straight portion 𝐶𝐷 is 𝐵4 = 0, since point 𝑀
lies on the axis of the straight portion 𝐶𝐷.
The resultant magnetic field at the point 𝑀 is
𝐵⃗ = ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵1 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵2 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵3 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵4
3𝜇0 𝐼 𝜇0 𝐼 7𝜇0 𝐼
=( +0+ + 0) ⨂ = ⨂
8𝑅 16𝑅 16𝑅
12. In a certain region of space, electric field is along the 𝑧 −direction throughout. The magnitude of
electric field is however not constant, but increases uniformly along the positive 𝑧 −direction at the rate
of 105 𝑁𝐶 −1 𝑚−1 . The force experienced by the system having a total dipole moment equal to 10−7 𝐶 𝑚
in the negative 𝑧 −direction is
(A) −102 𝑁
(B) 10−2 𝑁
(C) 104 𝑁
(D) −10−4 𝑁
Solution: (A)
Consider an electric dipole with −𝑞 charge at 𝐴 and +𝑞 charge at 𝐵, placed along 𝑧 −axis, such that its
dipole moment is in negative 𝑧 direction.
i.e., 𝑝𝑧 = −10−7 𝐶 𝑚
The electric field is along positive direction of 𝑧 −axis, such that
𝑑𝐸
= 105 𝑁𝐶 −1 𝑚−1
𝑑𝑧
From, 𝐹 = 𝑞𝑑𝐸
𝑑𝐸 𝑑𝐸
= (𝑞 × 𝑑𝑧) × =𝑝
𝑑𝑧 𝑑𝑧
Force experienced by the system in the negative 𝑧 −direction,
𝑑𝐸
𝐹 = −𝑝 × (− ) = 107 × (−105 ) = −10−2 𝑁
𝑑𝑧
13. A 2.0 𝑐𝑚 tall object is placed 15 𝑐𝑚 in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 𝑐𝑚. What is the
size and nature of the image?
(A) 4 𝑐𝑚, real
(B) 4 𝑐𝑚, virtual
(C) 1.0 𝑐𝑚, real
(D) None of these
Solution: (A)
According to new cartesian sign convention,

Object distance, 𝑢 = −15 𝑐𝑚
Focal length of the concave mirror, 𝑓 = −10 𝑐𝑚
Height of the object, ℎ𝑂 = 2 𝑐𝑚
1 1 1
According to mirror formula, 𝑣 + 𝑢 = 𝑓
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ = − = − = −
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢 −10 −15 −10 15
or 𝑣 = −30 𝑐𝑚.
The image is formed at a distance of 30 𝑐𝑚 from the mirror on the same side of the object. It is a real
image.
−𝑣 ℎ
Magnification of the mirror, 𝑚 = = 𝐼
𝑢 ℎ𝑂
−(−30) ℎ𝐼
⇒ = ⇒ ℎ𝐼 = −4 𝑐𝑚.
−15 2
Negative sign shows that image is inverted. The image is real, inverted, of size 4 𝑐𝑚 at a distance of 30 𝑐𝑚
in front of the mirror.
14. A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to determine an unknown resistance 𝑋 using a standard 10 ohm
resistor. The galvanometer shows null point when tapping-key is at 52 𝑐𝑚 mark. The end-corrections are
1 𝑐𝑚 and 2 𝑐𝑚 respectively for the ends 𝐴 and 𝐵. The determined value of 𝑋 is
(A) 10.2 ohm
(B) 10.6 ohm
(C) 10.8 ohm
(D) 11.1 ohm
Solution: (B)
Applying the condition of balanced Wheatstone bridge, we get
𝑋 (52 + 1) 𝑐𝑚 53
= = ,
10Ω (48 + 2) 𝑐𝑚 50
53
𝑋 = 10Ω × = 10.6 Ω
50
15. An early model for an atom considered it to have a positively charged point nucleus of charge 𝑍𝑒,
surrounded by a uniform density of negative charge upto a radius 𝑅. The atom as a whole is neutral. The
electric field at a distance 𝑟 from the nucleus is (𝑟 < 𝑅)
𝑍𝑒 1 𝑟
(A) 4𝜋𝜀 [𝑟2 − 𝑅3 ]
0
𝑍𝑒 1 𝑟
(B) 4𝜋𝜀 [𝑟3 − 𝑅2 ]
0
𝑍𝑒 𝑟 1
(C) 4𝜋𝜀 [𝑅3 − 𝑟2 ]
0
𝑍𝑒 𝑟 1
(D) 4𝜋𝜀 [𝑅3 − 𝑟2 ]
0
Solution: (A)
Charge on nucleus = + 𝑍𝑒
Total negative charge = − 𝑍𝑒
(∵ atom is electrically neutral)
charge −𝑍𝑒
Negative charge, density, 𝜌 = =4
volume 𝜋𝑅3
3
3 𝑍𝑒
i.e., 𝜌 = − …(i)
4 𝜋𝑅3
Consider a Gaussian surface with radius 𝑟.
By Gauss’s theorem,
𝑞
𝐸(𝑟) × 4𝜋𝑟 3 = 𝜀 …(ii)
0
Charge enclosed by Gaussian surface,
4𝜋𝑟 3 𝑟3
𝑞 = 𝑍𝑒 + 3
𝜌 = 𝑍𝑒 − 𝑍𝑒 𝑅3 (Using (i))
From (ii),
𝑟3
𝑞 𝑍𝑒 − 𝑍𝑒
𝐸(𝑟) = = 𝑅 3 = 𝑍𝑒 [ 1 − 𝑟 ]
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2 4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟 2 𝑅 3
16. A deflection magnetometer is adjusted in the usual way. When a magnet is introduced, the deflection
observed is 𝜃, and the period of oscillation of the needle in the magnetometer is 𝑇. When the magnet is
removed, the period of oscillation is 𝑇0 . The relation between 𝑇 and 𝑇0 is
(A) 𝑇 2 = 𝑇02 cos 𝜃
(B) 𝑇 = 𝑇0 cos 𝜃
𝑇
(C) 𝑇 = cos0 𝜃
𝑇2
(D) 𝑇 2 = cos0 𝜃
Solution: (A)
In the usual setting of deflection magnetometer, field due to magnet (𝐹) and horizontal component (𝐻)
of earth's field are perpendicular to each other. Therefore, the net field on the magnetic needle is
√𝐹 2 + 𝐻 2
𝐼
∴ 𝑇 = 2𝜋√ …(i)
𝑀√𝐹 2 +𝐻 2
When the magnet is removed,
𝐼
𝑇0 = 2𝜋√ …(ii)
𝑀𝐻
𝐹
Also, 𝐻 = tan 𝜃
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get
𝑇 𝐻
=√
𝑇0 √𝐹 + 𝐻 2
2
𝐻 𝐻
=√ =√ = √cos 𝜃
√𝐻 2 tan2 𝜃 + 𝐻 2 𝐻√sec 2 𝜃
𝑇2
⇒ 2 = cos 𝜃 ∴ 𝑇 2 = 𝑇02 cos 𝜃
𝑇0
17. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at rest. The first ball is brought to rest by the impact. If half of
the kinetic energy is lost by impact, the value of coefficient of restitution is
1
(A) 2 2
√
1
(B)
√3
1
(C) 2
√
√3
(D) 2
Solution: (C)
Let 𝑢1 and 𝑣1 be the initial and final velocities of ball 1 and 𝑢2 and 𝑣2 be the similar quantities for ball 2.
Here, 𝑢2 = 0 and 𝑣1 = 0.
1 1 1
∴ Initial 𝐾𝐸, 𝐾𝑖 = 2 𝑚𝑢12 + 2 𝑚𝑢22 = 2 𝑚𝑢12
1 1 1
and final 𝐾𝐸, 𝐾𝑓 = 2 𝑚𝑣12 + 2 𝑚𝑣22 = 2 𝑚𝑣22
1 1
Loss of 𝐾𝐸, ∆𝐾 = 𝐾𝑖 − 𝐾𝑓 = 2 𝑚𝑢12 − 2 𝑚𝑣22
According to question,
1 1 1 1
( 𝑚𝑢12 ) = 𝑚𝑢12 − 𝑚𝑣22
2 2 2 2
(∵ half of its 𝐾𝐸 is lost by impact)
𝑢
Or 𝑢12 = 2𝑣22 or 𝑣2 = 21
√
∴ Coefficient of restitution,
𝑣2 − 𝑣1 𝑣2 1
𝑒=| |= =
𝑢1 − 𝑢2 𝑢1 √2
18. A transformer with efficiency 80% works at 4 𝑘𝑊 and 100 𝑉. If the secondary voltage is 200 𝑉, then
the primary and secondary currents are respectively
(A) 40 𝐴 and 16 𝐴
(B) 16 𝐴 and 40 𝐴
(C) 20 𝐴 and 90 𝐴
(D) 40 𝐴 and 20 𝐴
Solution: (A)
Here, 𝜂 = 80%
𝑃𝑖 = 4𝑘𝑊 = 4000 𝑊
𝑉𝑝 = 100 𝑉, 𝑉𝑠 = 200 𝑉
𝑃𝑖 4000
𝐼𝑝 = = = 40 𝐴
𝑉𝑝 100
𝑉𝑠 𝐼𝑠 80 200𝐼𝑠 𝐼𝑠
𝜂= ; = =
𝑉𝑝 𝐼𝑝 100 4000 20
20×80
or 𝐼𝑠 = 100
= 16 𝐴
19. A solid sphere of volume 𝑉 and density 𝜌 floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids of densities
𝜌1 and 𝜌2 respectively. If 𝜌1 < 𝜌 < 𝜌2 , then the ratio of volume of the parts of the sphere in upper and
lower liquid is
𝜌−𝜌
(A) 𝜌 −𝜌1
2
2𝜌 −𝜌
(B) 𝜌−𝜌
1
𝜌+𝜌1
(C)
𝜌+𝜌2
𝜌+𝜌2
(D)
𝜌+𝜌1
Solution: (B)
𝑉 = Volume of solid sphere.
Let 𝑉1 = Volume of the part of the sphere immersed in a liquid of density 𝜌1 and 𝑉2 = Volume of the part
of the sphere immersed in liquid of density 𝜌2 .
According to law of floatation,
𝑉𝜌𝑔 = 𝑉1 𝜌1 𝑔 + 𝑉2 𝜌2 𝑔 …(i)
and 𝑉 = 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 …(ii)
Hence from equations (i) and (ii),
𝑉1 𝜌𝑔 + 𝑉2 𝜌𝑔 = 𝑉1 𝜌1 𝑔 + 𝑉2 𝜌2 𝑔
or 𝑉1 (𝜌 − 𝜌1 )𝑔 = 𝑉2 (𝜌2 − 𝜌)𝑔
𝑉 𝜌2 −𝜌
or 𝑉1 = 𝜌−𝜌
2 1
20. The least distance of vision of a longsighted person is 60 𝑐𝑚. By using a spectacle lens, this distance is
reduced to 12 𝑐𝑚. The power of the lens is
(A) +5.0 𝐷
(B) +(20⁄3)𝐷
(C) −(10⁄3)𝐷
(D) +2.0 𝐷
Solution: (B)
1 1 1
Using, 𝑓 = 𝑣 − 𝑢
Here, 𝑣 = −60𝑐𝑚, 𝑢 = −12 𝑐𝑚.
1 1 1 −1 1 1
∴ = − = + =
𝑓 (−60) (−12) 60 12 15
1 1
= ⇒ 𝑓 = 15 𝑐𝑚
𝑓 15
100 20
Power, 𝑃 = 15 = 3 𝐷
21. 𝐴 and 𝐵 are two points on a uniform ring of resistance 𝑅. The ∠𝐴𝐶𝐵 = 𝜃, where 𝐶 is the centre of the
ring. The equivalent resistance between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is
𝑅𝜃(2𝜋−𝜃)
(A)
4𝜋2
𝜃
(B) 𝑅 (1 − )
2𝜋
𝑅𝜃
(C) 2𝜋
𝑅(2𝜋−𝜃)
(D) 4𝜋
Solution: (A)
𝑅
Resistance per unit length = 𝜌 = 2𝜋𝑟
Lengths of sections 𝐴𝑃𝐵 and 𝐴𝑄𝐵 are 𝑟𝜃 and 𝑟(2𝜋 − 𝜃)
Resistances of sections 𝐴𝑃𝐵 and 𝐴𝑄𝐵 are
𝑅 𝑅𝜃
𝑅1 = 𝜌𝑟𝜃 = 𝑟𝜃 =
2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋
𝑅 𝑅(2𝜋−𝜃)
and 𝑅2 = 2𝜋𝑟 𝑟(2𝜋 − 𝜃) = 2𝜋
As 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are in parallel between 𝐴 and 𝐵, their equivalent resistance is
𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑅eq =
𝑅1 + 𝑅2
𝑅𝜃 𝑅(2𝜋 − 𝜃) 𝑅2 𝜃(2𝜋 − 𝜃)
∙ 𝑅(2𝜋 − 𝜃) 𝜃
= 2𝜋 2𝜋 = 4𝜋 2 =
𝑅𝜃 𝑅(2𝜋 − 𝜃) 𝑅 4𝜋 2
[𝜃
2𝜋 + 2𝜋 2𝜋 + 2𝜋 − 𝜃]
22. Two chambers containing 𝑚1 𝑔 and 𝑚2 𝑔 of a gas at pressures 𝑃1 and 𝑃2 respectively are put in
communication with each other, temperature remaining constant. The common pressure reached will be
𝑃 𝑃2 (𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
(A) (𝑃1
2 𝑚1 +𝑃1 𝑚2 )
𝑃 𝑃 𝑚
(B) 1 2 1
𝑃2 𝑚1 +𝑃1 𝑚2
𝑚1 𝑚2 (𝑃1 +𝑃2 )
(C) 𝑃2 𝑚1 +𝑃1 𝑚2
𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑃2
(D)
𝑃2 𝑚1 +𝑃1 𝑚2
Solution: (A)
According to Boyle’s law, 𝑃𝑉 = 𝑘 (a constant)
𝑚 𝑃𝑚 𝑚
or 𝑃 = 𝑘 or 𝜌 = (∵ 𝑉 = )
𝜌 𝑘 𝜌
𝑃 𝑘
or 𝜌 = (∵ = 𝐾 a constant)
𝐾 𝑚
𝑃1 𝑚1 𝑚1 𝐾𝑚1
So, 𝜌1 = and 𝑉1 = = 𝑃1 =
𝐾 𝜌1 𝑃1
𝐾
𝐾𝑚2
Similarly, 𝑉2 = 𝑃2
𝑚1 𝑚2
∴ Total volume = 𝑉1 + 𝑉2 = 𝐾 ( + )
𝑃1 𝑃2
Let 𝑃 be the common pressure and 𝜌 be the common density of mixture. Then
𝑚 +𝑚 𝑚 +𝑚
𝜌 = 𝑉1 +𝑉 2 = 𝑚11 𝑚22
1 2 𝐾( + )
𝑃1 𝑃2
𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑃 𝑃 (𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
1 2
∴ 𝑃 = 𝐾𝜌 = 𝑚1 𝑚2 = (𝑚
+
𝑃1 𝑃2 1 𝑃2 +𝑚2 𝑃1 )
23. A particle is describing simple harmonic motion. If its velocities are 𝑣1 and 𝑣2 when the displacements
from the mean position are 𝑦1 and 𝑦2 respectively, then its time period is
𝑦 2 +𝑦 2
(A) 2𝜋√ 𝑣12 +𝑣22
1 2
𝑣 2 −𝑣 2
(B) 2𝜋√ 22 12
𝑦1 −𝑦2
𝑣 2 +𝑣 2
(C) 2𝜋√𝑦12 +𝑦22
1 2
𝑦 2 −𝑦 2
(D) 2𝜋√ 12 22
𝑣2 −𝑣1
Solution: (D)
In simple harmonic motion,
Velocity 𝑣 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑦 2
∴ 𝑣1 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑦12 ⇒ 𝑣12 = 𝜔2 𝐴2 − 𝜔2 𝑦12 …(i)
and 𝑣2 = 𝜔√𝐴2 − 𝑦22 ⇒ 𝑣22 = 𝜔2 𝐴2 − 𝜔2 𝑦22 …(ii)
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
𝑣22 − 𝑣12 = 𝜔2 (𝑦12 − 𝑦22 )
𝑣22 − 𝑣12
𝜔=√ 2
𝑣1 − 𝑦22
2𝜋 𝑦12 − 𝑦22
⇒𝑇= = 2𝜋√ 2
𝜔 𝑣2 − 𝑣12
24. A square loop 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷, carrying a current 𝐼2 , is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor
𝑋𝑌 carrying a current 𝐼1 , as shown in figure. The net force on the loop will be
𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
(A)
2𝜋
𝜇 𝐼 𝐼 𝐿
(B) 0 1 2
2𝜋
2𝜇 𝐼 𝐼 𝐿
(C) 0 1 2
3𝜋
2𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
(D) 3𝜋
Solution: (D)
Force on arm 𝐴𝐵 due to current in conductor 𝑋𝑌 is
𝜇 2𝐼 𝐼 𝐿 𝜇 𝐼 𝐼
𝐹1 = 0 1𝐿 2 = 0 1 2 acting towards the wire in the plane of loop.
4𝜋( ) 𝜋
2
Force on arm 𝐶𝐷 due to current in conductor 𝑋𝑌 is
𝜇 2𝐼 𝐼 𝐿 𝜇 𝐼 𝐼
𝐹2 = 0 13𝐿2 = 0 1 2 away from the wire the plane of loop.
4𝜋( ) 3𝜋
2
∴ Net force on the loop = 𝐹1 − 𝐹2
𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2 1 2 𝜇0 𝐼1 𝐼2
= [1 − ] =
𝜋 3 3 𝜋
25. A projectile is given an initial velocity of 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂. The cartesian equation of its path is (Take 𝑔 =
10 𝑚𝑠 −2 )
(A) 𝑦 = 𝑥 − 5𝑥 2
(B) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 5𝑥 2
(C) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 15𝑥 2
(D) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 25𝑥 2
Solution: (B)
Given, 𝑢
⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ = 𝑢𝑥 𝑖̂ + 𝑢𝑦 𝑗̂
Then 𝑢𝑥 = 1 = 𝑢 cos 𝜃
and 𝑢𝑦 = 2 = 𝑢 sin 𝜃
𝑢 sin 𝜃 2
∴ tan 𝜃 = = =2
𝑢 cos 𝜃 1
The equation of trajectory of a projectile motion is
𝑔𝑥 2 𝑔𝑥 2
𝑦 = 𝑥 tan 𝜃 − 2 = 𝑥 tan 𝜃 −
2𝑢 cos2 𝜃 2(𝑢 cos 𝜃)2
2
10 × 𝑥
∴𝑦 =𝑥×2− = 2𝑥 − 5𝑥 2
2(1)2
26. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied
which increases the internal energy of the gas is
2
(A) 5
3
(B) 5
3
(C) 7
5
(D) 7
Solution: (B)
By first law of thermodynamics
𝑄 =𝑈+𝑊
𝑓 𝑓
= 𝑛𝑅𝑇 + 𝑃 ∫ 𝑑𝑉 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇 + 𝑃𝑉
2 2
𝑓
or 𝑄 = 2 𝑛𝑅𝑇 + 𝑛𝑅𝑇 (∵ 𝑃𝑉 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇)
3 5
= 𝑛𝑅𝑇 + 𝑛𝑅𝑇 = 𝑛𝑅𝑇
2 2
𝑈
∴ Fraction of heat energy supplied = 𝑄
3
(2) 𝑛𝑅𝑇 3
= =
5
(2) 𝑛𝑅𝑇 5
27. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 𝑚𝑚 and illuminated with light of wavelength 𝜆 = 6000 Å.
If the screen is placed at 2.5 𝑚 from the slits. The distance of the third bright fringe from the centre will
be
(A) 1.5 𝑚𝑚
(B) 3 𝑚𝑚
(C) 6 mm
(D) 9 𝑚𝑚
Solution: (D)
Distance of 𝑛th bright fringe from the centre,
𝑛𝐷𝜆
𝑥𝑛 =
𝑑
3 × 2.5 × 6000 × 10−10
So, 𝑥3 = 0.5 × 10−3
= 9 × 10−3 𝑚 = 9 𝑚𝑚
28. When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are sounded together, 5 beats per second are produced,
when length of wire is 95 𝑐𝑚 or 100 𝑐𝑚, frequency of the fork is
(A) 90 𝐻𝑧
(B) 100 𝐻𝑧
(C) 105 𝐻𝑧
(D) 195 𝐻𝑧
Solution: (D)
Let the frequency of tuning fork be 𝑛. Suppose 𝑙1 = 95 𝑐𝑚 has frequency 𝑛1 and 𝑙2 = 100 𝑐𝑚 has
frequency 𝑛2 (< 𝑛1 )
Now, 𝑛1 − 𝑛 = 5 … (i)
𝑛 − 𝑛2 = 5 …(ii)
Adding, we get 𝑛1 − 𝑛2 = 10 …(iii)
𝑛 𝑙 100
Also, 𝑛1 = 𝑙2 = 95
2 1
100
𝑛1 = 𝑛
95 2
100
From equation (iii), 95 𝑛2 − 𝑛2 = 10, 𝑛2 = 190
From equation (ii), 𝑛 = 𝑛2 + 5 = 190 + 5 = 195 𝐻𝑧.
2𝑘 3 𝑙2
29. A physical quantity 𝑋 is given by 𝑋 = 𝑚√𝑛
. The percentage error in the measurements of 𝑘, 𝑙, 𝑚 and
𝑛 are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The value of 𝑋 is uncertain by
(A) 8%
(B) 10%
(C) 12%
(D) None of these
Solution: (C)
2𝑘 3 𝑙 2
Given: 𝑋 = 𝑚 𝑛
√
∆𝑋 ∆𝑘 ∆𝑙 ∆𝑚 1 ∆𝑛
∴ =3 +2 + +
𝑋 𝑘 𝑙 𝑚 2 𝑛
Percentage error in 𝑋
∆𝑋 ∆𝑘 ∆𝑙 ∆𝑚 1 ∆𝑛
× 100 = (3 +2 + + ) × 100
𝑋 𝑘 𝑙 𝑚 2 𝑛
1
= 3 × 1% + 2 × 2% + 3% + × 4%
2
= 3% + 4% + 3% + 2% = 12%
Hence, the value of 𝑋 is uncertain by 12%.
30. Four massless springs whose force constants are 2𝑘, 2𝑘, 𝑘 and 2𝑘 respectively are attached to a mass
𝑀 kept on a frictionless plane as shown in the figure. If the mass 𝑀 is displaced in the horizontal direction,
then the frequency of the system is
1 𝑘
(A) 2𝜋 √4𝑀
1 4𝑘
(B) √
2𝜋 𝑀
1 𝑘
(C) 2𝜋 √7𝑀
1 7𝑘
(D) 2𝜋 √ 𝑀
Solution: (B)
Two springs on the L.H.S. of mass 𝑀 are in series and two springs on the R.H.S. of mass 𝑀 are in parallel.
These combinations of springs will be considered in parallel to mass 𝑀. Thus effective spring constant,
2𝑘 × 2𝑘
𝐾= + (𝑘 + 2𝑘) = 4𝑘
2𝑘 + 2𝑘
1 𝐾 1 4𝑘
∴ Frequency 𝑣 = 2𝜋 √𝑀 = 2𝜋 √ 𝑀
31. A circular coil of radius 10 𝑐𝑚, 500 turns and resistance 2 Ω is placed with its plane perpendicular to
the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through
180𝑜 in 0.25 𝑠. The current induced in the coil is
(Horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at that place is 3.0 × 10−5 𝑇)
(A) 1.9 × 10−3 𝐴
(B) 2.9 × 10−3 𝐴
(C) 3.9 × 10−3 𝐴
(D) 4.9 × 10−3 𝐴
Solution: (A)
Initial magnetic flux through the coil, 𝜙𝑖 = 𝐵𝐻 𝐴 cos 𝜃 = 3.0 × 10−5 × (𝜋 × 10−2 ) × cos 0𝑜 = 3𝜋 ×
10−7 𝑊𝑏
Final magnetic flux after the rotation
𝜙𝑓 = 3.0 × 10−5 × (𝜋 × 10−2 ) × cos 180𝑜
= −3𝜋 × 10−7 𝑊𝑏
𝑑𝜙 𝑁(𝜙𝑓 −𝜙𝑖 )
Induced emf, ℰ = −𝑁 𝑑𝑡 = − 𝑡
500(−3𝜋 × 10−7 − 3𝜋 × 10−7 )
= −
0.25
500 × (6𝜋 × 10−7 )
= = 3.8 × 10−3 𝑉
0.25
ℰ 3.8 × 10−3 𝑉
𝐼= = = 1.9 × 10−3 𝐴
𝑅 2Ω
32. Same spring is attached with 2 𝑘𝑔, 3 𝑘𝑔 and 1 𝑘𝑔 blocks in three different cases as shown in figure. If
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , 𝑥3 be the extensions in the spring in the three cases, then
(A) 𝑥1 = 0, 𝑥3 > 𝑥2
(B) 𝑥1 > 𝑥2 > 𝑥3
(C) 𝑥3 > 𝑥2 > 𝑥1
(D) 𝑥2 > 𝑥1 > 𝑥3
Solution: (D)
If 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 , 𝑇3 are the tensions in the strings in the three cases, we have

2𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑔 2 × 2 × 2𝑔
𝑇1 = = = 2𝑔
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 (2 + 2)
2 × 3 × 2𝑔
𝑇2 = = 2.4𝑔
(3 + 2)
2 × 1 × 2𝑔
𝑇3 = = 1.33𝑔
(1 + 2)
As 𝑥 ∝ 𝑇 and 𝑇2 > 𝑇1 > 𝑇3
∴ 𝑥2 > 𝑥1 > 𝑥3
33. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 𝑒𝑉 and 2.5 𝑒𝑉 respectively,
successively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 𝑒𝑉. Ratio of maximum speeds of
emitted electrons will be
(A) 1 ∶ 4
(B) 1 ∶ 1
(C) 1 ∶ 5
(D) 1 ∶ 2
Solution: (D)
According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is
𝐾max = ℎ𝜐 − 𝜙0
Where ℎ𝜐 is the energy of incident photon and 𝜙0 is the work function.
1 2
But 𝐾max = 2 𝑚𝑣max
1 2
∴ 𝑚𝑣max = ℎ𝜐 − 𝜙0
2
As per question,
1
2
𝑚𝑣 2 max1 = 1𝑒𝑉 − 0.5 𝑒𝑉 = 0.5 𝑒𝑉 …(i)
1
and 𝑚𝑣 2 max2 = 2.5 𝑒𝑉 − 0.5 𝑒𝑉 = 2 𝑒𝑉 …(ii)
2
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), we get
𝑣 2 max1 0.5 𝑒𝑉 1
2
= =
𝑣 max2 2 𝑒𝑉 4
𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥1 1 1
=√ =
𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥2 4 2
34. A Carnot engine operates with source at 127𝑜 𝐶 and sink at 27𝑜 𝐶. If the source supplies 40 𝑘𝐽 of heat
energy, the work done by the engine is
(A) 30 𝑘𝐽
(B) 10 𝑘𝐽
(C) 4 𝑘𝐽
(D) 1 𝑘𝐽
Solution: (B)
𝑇
Efficiency, 𝜂 = 1 − 𝑇2
1
(273 + 27) 300 3 1
∴𝜂 =1− =1− =1− =
(273 + 127) 400 4 4
Work done by engine 𝑊
Also 𝜂 = Heat supplied by source = 40 𝑘𝐽
1
∴ 𝑊 = 40𝜂 = 40 × = 10 𝑘𝐽
4
35. In the circuit shown in figure, when the input voltage of the base resistance is 10 𝑉, 𝑉𝑏𝑒 is zero and 𝑉𝑐𝑒
is also zero. Value of 𝛽 is
(A) 133
(B) 154
(C) 196
(D) 105
Solution: (A)
Given 𝑉𝑖 = 10 𝑉, 𝑅𝑏 = 400 𝑘Ω = 400 × 103 Ω

𝑅𝑐 = 3 𝑘Ω = 3 × 103 Ω, 𝑉𝑏𝑒 = 0
𝑉𝑐𝑒 = 0, 𝑉𝐶𝐶 = 10 𝑉
As 𝑉𝑖 − 𝑉𝑏𝑒 = 𝑅𝑏 𝐼𝑏
∴ 10 − 0 = (400 × 103 )𝐼𝑏
10
𝐼𝑏 = = 25 × 10−6 𝐴 = 25𝜇𝐴
400 × 103
and 𝑉𝐶𝐶 − 𝑉𝑐𝑒 = 𝐼𝑐 𝑅𝑐
10
𝐼𝑐 = = 3.33 × 10−3 = 3.33 𝑚𝐴
3 × 103
𝐼𝑐 3.33 × 10−3
𝛽= = = 133
𝐼𝑏 25 × 10−6
36. Two radioactive materials 𝑋1 and 𝑋2 have decay constants 6𝜆 and 3𝜆 respectively. If initially they have
1
the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of 𝑋1 to that of 𝑋2 will be 𝑒 after a time
1
(A) 6𝜆
1
(B)
3𝜆
3
(C)
6𝜆
6
(D) 9𝜆
Solution: (B)
𝑁 1
The ratio of number of nuclei of 𝑋1 to that of 𝑋2 after time 𝑡, 1 =
𝑁2 𝑒
𝑁0 𝑒 −6𝜆𝑡 1
∴ = (∵ 𝑁 = 𝑁0 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 )
𝑁0 𝑒 −3𝜆𝑡 𝑒
1 1 1
or 3𝜆𝑡 = or 3𝜆𝑡 = 1 ∴ 𝑡 =
𝑒 𝑒 3𝜆
37. A neutron in a nuclear reactor collides head on elastically with the nucleus of a carbon atom initially
at rest. The fraction of kinetic energy transferred from the neutron to the carbon atom is
11
(A)
12
2
(B) 11
48
(C) 121
48
(D) 169
Solution: (D)
Let 𝑚 and 𝑀 be the masses of neutron and carbon nucleus (at rest) respectively. If 𝑢 and 𝑣 are the velocity
of neutron before and after collision, then
1 1
𝐾𝑖 = 2 𝑚𝑢2 and 𝐾𝑓 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 ,
(𝑚−𝑀)𝑢
But 𝑣 = 𝑚+𝑀
1 𝑚−𝑀 2 2
∴ 𝐾𝑓 = 𝑚 ( ) 𝑢
2 𝑚+𝑀
𝐾𝑓 𝑚−𝑀 2
∴ −( )
𝐾𝑖 𝑚+𝑀
The fraction of kinetic energy transferred from the neutron to the carbon atom is
4𝑚𝑀
𝑓=
(𝑚 + 𝑀)2
But for carbon, 𝑀 = 12𝑚
4𝑚(12𝑚) 48
∴ 𝑓= 2
=
(𝑚 + 12𝑚) 169
38. A parallel plate capacitor with air as a dielectric has capacitance 𝐶. A slab of dielectric constant 𝐾,
having same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one fourth of the
capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be
𝐶
(A) (𝐾 + 3)
4
𝐶
(B) (𝐾 + 2) 4
𝐶
(C) (𝐾 + 1)
4
𝐾𝐶
(D) 4
Solution: (A)
𝜀0 3𝐴 3𝜀0 𝐴
The two condensers with 𝐾 and with air are in parallel. With air, 𝐶1 = ( )
𝑑 4
= 4𝑑
𝜀 𝐾 𝐴 𝜀 𝐴𝐾
With medium, 𝐶2 = 0𝑑 ( 4 ) = 04𝑑
∴ 𝐶 ′ = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2
3𝜀 𝐴 𝜀 𝐴𝐾 𝜀 𝐴 3 𝐾
or 𝐶 ′ = 4𝑑0 + 04𝑑 = 0𝑑 [4 + 4 ]
𝐶 𝐴𝜀0
or 𝐶 ′ = 4 (𝐾 + 3) [∵ 𝐶 = 𝑑
]
39. The figure shows a horizontal force 𝐹 acting on a block of mass 𝑀 on an inclined plane (angle 𝜃). What
is the normal reaction 𝑁 on the block?
(A) 𝑚𝑔sin𝜃 + 𝐹cos𝜃

(B) 𝑚𝑔sinθ − 𝐹cosθ
(C) 𝑚𝑔cosθ − 𝐹sinθ
(D) 𝑚𝑔cosθ + 𝐹sinθ
Solution: (D)
From the figure, the normal reaction on the block is 𝑁 = 𝑚𝑔cosθ + 𝐹sinθ.
40. In the circuit shown in figure, if the diode forward voltage is 0.3 𝑉, the voltage difference between 𝐴
and 𝐵 is
(A) 1.3 𝑉
(B) 2.3 𝑉
(C) 0
(D) 0.5 𝑉
Solution: (B)
Let 𝑉 be the potential difference between 𝐴 and 𝐵, then
𝑉 − 0.3 = (5 + 5) × 103 × (0.2 × 10−3 ) = 2
or 𝑉 = 2 + 0.3 = 2.3 𝑉
41. Assertion: Thermonuclear fusion reactions may become the source of unlimited power for the
mankind.
Reason: A single fusion event involving isotopes of hydrogen produces more energy than energy from
nuclear fission of 23593𝑈
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If both assertion and reason are false
Solution: (C)
When fusion is achieved by raising the temperature of the system so that particles have enough kinetic
energy to overcome the coulomb repulsive behavior, it is called thermonuclear fusion. It is clean source
of energy but energy released in one fusion is much less than a single uranium fission.
42. Assertion: A rigid body can be elastic.

Reason: If a force is applied on the rigid body, its dimensions may change.
Solution: (D)
An ideal rigid body is a body with perfectly definite and unchanging shape.
43. Assertion: If 𝑎 = −2𝑡 for a particle moving in a straight line starting with an initial velocity 4 𝑚⁄𝑠 from
the origin, then distance travelled by it in 2 𝑠 is same as displacement.
Reason: Velocity changes direction after 2 𝑠 only.
Solution: (B)
𝑎 = −2𝑡
𝑑𝑣 𝑣 𝑡
𝑑𝑡
= −2𝑡 or ∫4 𝑑𝑣 = −2 ∫0 𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑣 − 4 = −𝑡 2 or 𝑣 = 4 − 𝑡 2
⇒ 𝑣 > 0 for 𝑡 < 2,
𝑣 = 0 for 𝑡 = 2,
𝑣 < 0 for 𝑡 > 2
The body reverses its direction of motion after 2 𝑠.
44. Assertion: Acceleration of charged particle in non-uniform electric field does not depend on velocity
of charged particle.
Reason: Charge is an invariant quantity. That is amount of charge on particle does not depend on frame
of reference.
Solution: (B)
𝑞𝐸⃗
𝑎 = as 𝐸⃗ varies so does 𝑎, it does not depend on its velocity.
𝑚
45. Assertion: A ray of light is incident from outside on a glass sphere surrounded by air. This ray may
suffer total internal reflection at second interface.
Reason: If a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.
Solution: (B)
When a ray of light enters a spherical glass sphere, it is first refracted at first interface and then it strikes
the inner surface of sphere (second interface) and get totally internally reflected if the angle between the
refracted ray and normal to the drop surface is greater than the critical angle (42𝑜 , in this case).
46. Assertion: If a dielectric is placed in external field then field inside dielectric will be less than applied
field.
Reason: Electric field will induce dipole moment opposite to field direction.
Solution: (C)
Dipole moment will be in the same direction as the external field. The collective effect of dipole moments
produces a field that opposes the external field and hence, the net electric field inside the dielectric is less
than the external electric field.
47. Assertion: A particle strikes head-on with another stationary particle such that the first particle comes
to rest after collision. The collision should necessarily be elastic.
Reason: In elastic collision, there is a loss of momentum of the system of the particles.
Solution: (D)
Momentum of a system remains conserved in any kind of collision.
48. Assertion: An electrical bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.

Reason: Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.
Solution: (C)
As the conductor is full of electrons, with slight drift anywhere the queue starts moving. As a result bulb
starts glowing instantly. Drift velocity of electrons in a good conductor is very low.
49. Assertion: Pseudo force is an imaginary force which is recognised only by a non-inertial observer to
explain the physical situation according to Newton's laws.
Reason: Pseudo force has no physical origin, i.e., it is not caused by one of the basic interactions in nature.
It does not exist in the action-reaction pair.
Solution: (B)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
50. Assertion: A piece of ice, with a stone frozen inside it, floats on water in a beaker. When the ice melts,
the level of water in the beaker decreases.
Reason: Density of stone is more than that of water.
Solution: (A)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
51. Assertion: A particle in 𝑥 − 𝑦 plane is related by 𝑥 = 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 and 𝑦 = 𝑎(1 − cos 𝜔𝑡), where 𝑎 and
𝜔 are constants, then the particle will have parabolic motion.
Reason: A particle under the influence of two perpendicular velocities has parabolic motion.
Solution: (D)
If both assertion and reason are false
52. Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires greater energy to
excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason: A plot of stopping potential (𝑉𝑠 ) versus frequency (𝜐) for different metals, has greater slope for
metals with greater work functions.
Solution: (C)
As 𝑒𝑉𝑠 = ℎ𝜐 − 𝑊
ℎ 𝑊
𝑉𝑠 = ( ) 𝜐 − ( )
𝑒 𝑒
ℎ
For 𝑉𝑠 versus 𝜐 graph, slope = 𝑒 = constant.
53. Assertion: Work done in moving a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature.
Reason: Work done does not depend on nature of force.
Solution: (D)
Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero only when the body is moving under the
action of conservative forces (like gravitational or electrostatic forces). It is not zero when the forces are
non-conservative e.g. frictional forces etc.
54. Assertion: An 𝑛 −type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but still it is electrically neutral.
Reason: An 𝑛 −type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a pentavalent
impurity.
Solution: (B)
A 𝑛 − type semiconductor is formed by doping pure germanium or silicon crystal with suitable impurity
atoms of valency five. As the impurity atoms take the position of 𝐺𝑒 atom in germanium crystal, its four
electrons form covalent bonds by sharing electrons with the neighbouring four atoms of germanium
whereas the fifth electron is left free. Since the atom on the whole is electrically neutral, the 𝑛 −type
semiconductor is also neutral.
55. Assertion: Two bodies of masses 𝑀 and 𝑚 (𝑀 > 𝑚) are allowed to fall from the same height if the air
resistance for each be the same then both the bodies will reach the earth simultaneously.
Reason: For same air resistance, acceleration of both the bodies will be same.
Solution: (D)
The force acting on the body of mass 𝑀 are its weight 𝑀𝑔 acting vertically downwards and air resistance
𝐹 acting vertically upward.
∴ Acceleration of the body
𝑀𝑔 − 𝐹 𝐹
𝑎= =𝑔−
𝑀 𝑀
Now, 𝑀 > 𝑚, therefore, the body with larger mass will have greater acceleration and it will reach the
ground first.
56. Assertion: Two point coherent sources of light 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are placed on a line as shown. 𝑃 and 𝑄 are
two points on that line. If at point 𝑃 maximum intensity is observed then maximum intensity should also
be observed at
𝑄.
Reason: In the figure of assertion the distance |𝑆1 𝑃 − 𝑆2 𝑃| is equal to distance |𝑆2 𝑄 − 𝑆1 𝑄|.
Solution: (B)
If maximum intensity is observed at 𝑃 then for maximum intensity to be also observed at 𝑄, 𝑆1 and 𝑆2
must have phase difference of 2 𝑚𝜋 (where 𝑚 is an integer).
57. Assertion: Kepler's second law can he understood by conservation of angular momentum principle.
Reason: Kepler's second law is related with areal velocity which can further be proved to be based on
conservation of angular momentum as (𝑑𝐴⁄𝑑𝑡) = (𝑟 2 𝜔)⁄2.
Solution: (A)
According to Kepler’s law,
𝑑𝐴
𝑑𝑡
= constant
𝑑𝐴 1 𝑑𝜃 1
As, 𝑑𝑡 = 2 𝑟 2 𝑑𝑡 = 2 𝑟 2 𝜔
𝑚𝑟 2 𝜔 𝐿
∴ 2𝑚 = 2𝑚 = constant
∴ 𝐿 = constant
58. Assertion: A solid sphere is rolling on a rough horizontal surface. Acceleration of contact point is zero.
Reason: A solid sphere can roll on the smooth surface.
Solution: (D)
During rolling motion, there is radial acceleration towards the centre. Hence, the contact point moves
vertically upward.
On smooth surface, sphere will slide without rolling.
59. Assertion: A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas the ball of the same
material will always sink.
Reason: The buoyancy of an object depends both on the materials and shape of the object.
Solution: (C)
When a needle is placed carefully on the surface of water, it floats on the surface of water due to the
surface tension of water, which does not allow the needle to sink. In case of a steel ball, the surface tension
of the water is not sufficient to keep it floating, so it sinks down.
60. Assertion: Power of an engine depends on mass, angular speed, torque and angular momentum, then
the formula of power is not derived with the help of dimensional method.
Reason: In mechanics, if a particular quantity depends on more than three quantities, then we can not
derive the formula of the quantity by the help of dimensional method.
Solution: (A)
Chemistry
61. Lucas test is given by an alcohol within 5 minutes. 0.22 𝑔 of which liberates 56 𝑚𝐿 of 𝐶𝐻4 at STP on
treating with 𝐶𝐻3 𝑀𝑔𝐼. The structure of alcohol is
(A) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3
|
𝑂𝐻
(B) (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3
|
𝑂𝐻
(C) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3
|
𝑂𝐻
(D) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3
|
𝑂𝐻
Solution: (B)
Lucas test will be given by all the given alcohols within 5 minutes as all are 2𝑜 alcohols. Exact structure
can be known by molecular mass or formula of alcohol which will be obtained as follows:
Let molecular mass of alcohol be 𝑀.
56 0.22 22400×0.22
22400
= 𝑀 or, 𝑀 = 56
= 88
The general formula of alcohols is 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+1 𝑂𝐻. The molecular mass 88 corresponds to the value of 𝑛 =
5. Thus, the 2𝑜 alcohol is (𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂𝐻𝐶𝐻3 .
62. Calculate ∧∞ 2 −1
𝐻𝑂𝐴𝑐 (in 𝑆 𝑐𝑚 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ) using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed in
the given table
Electrolyte 𝐾𝐶𝑙 𝐾𝑁𝑂3 𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐴𝑐 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
∧∞ 149.9 145.0 426.2 91.0 126.5
2
(𝑆 𝑐𝑚 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ) −1
at infinite dilution in 𝐻2 𝑂 at 25𝑜 𝐶.

(A) 517.2
(B) 305.0
(C) 390.7
(D) 217.5
Solution: (C)
∞ ∞
∧∞ ∞
𝐻𝑂𝐴𝑐 =∧𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐴𝑐 +∧𝐻𝐶𝑙 −∧𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
= (91.0 + 426.2 − 126.5) 𝑆𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
= 390.7 𝑆 𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
63. 𝐻2 𝑂 is polar, whereas 𝐵𝑒𝐹2 is not because

(A) Electronegativity of 𝐹 is greater than that of 𝑂
(B) 𝐻2 𝑂 involves 𝐻 −bonding, whereas 𝐵𝑒𝐹2 is a discrete molecule
(C) 𝐻2 𝑂 is angular and 𝐵𝑒𝐹2 is linear
(D) 𝐻2 𝑂 is linear and 𝐵𝑒𝐹2 is angular
Solution: (C)
Because of linear shape, dipole moments cancel each other in 𝐵𝑒𝐹2 and thus, it is
non-polar, whereas 𝐻2 𝑂 is 𝑉 −shaped and hence, it is polar.
64. The correct order of solubility of the following compounds in water is

(A) 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 < 𝑀𝑔(𝑂𝐻)2
(B) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑂3 > 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3
(C) 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 ≃ 𝑀𝑔(𝑂𝐻)2
(D) 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 < 𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4
Solution: (D)
𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 is readily soluble in water. With increase in size of the central metal ion, the Solubility of the
sulphates of alkaline earth metals decreases as the hydration enthalpy from 𝐵𝑒 2+ to 𝐵𝑎2+ decreases
down the group. Therefore, 𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 is more soluble in water than 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 .
65. Which of the following electronic configurations has maximum energy?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (A)
The order of increasing energy of the sub-atomic orbitals is 𝑠 < 𝑝 < 𝑑 < 𝑓. The energy in excited state is
more than that in the ground state. In option (A), two electrons are in excited state therefore, it has
maximum energy.
66. (𝑅) − 2 −lodobutane is treated with 𝑁𝑎𝐼 in acetone and allowed to stand for a long lime. The product
eventually formed is
(A) (𝑅) − 2 −iodobutane
(B) (𝑆) − 2 −iodobutane
(C) (±) − 2 −iodobutane
(D) (±) − 1, 2 −diiodobutane
Solution: (C)
𝐼 − is a good nucleophile as well as a good leaving group. Therefore, if (𝑅) − 2 −iodobutane is treated
with 𝑁𝑎𝐼, repeated 𝑆𝑁 2 reactions occur. As a result, eventually a racemic mixture of (±) −
2 −iodobutane is obtained.
67. The density of a gas 𝐴 is thrice that of a gas 𝐵 at the same temperature. The molecular weight of gas
𝐵 is twice that of 𝐴. What will be the ratio of the pressures acting on 𝐵 and 𝐴?
1
(A) 4
7
(B) 8
2
(C) 5
1
(D) 6
Solution: (D)
𝑑 𝑀
=
𝑝 𝑅𝑇
Let density of gas 𝐵 be 𝑑.
∴ density of gas 𝐴 = 3𝑑
and let molecular weight of 𝐴 be 𝑀.
∴ molecular weight of 𝐵 = 2𝑀
Since, 𝑅 is gas constant and 𝑇 is same for both gases, so
𝑑 𝑅𝑇 𝑑 𝑅𝑇
𝑝𝐴 = 𝐴 and 𝑝𝐵 = 𝐵
𝑀𝐴 𝑀𝐵
𝑝𝐵 𝑑𝐵 𝑀𝐴 𝑑 𝑀 1
= × = × =
𝑝𝐴 𝑑𝐴 𝑀𝐵 3𝑑 2𝑀 6
68. On the basis of standard electrode potential of redox couples given below, find out which of the
following is the strongest oxidising agent.
(𝐸 𝑜 values: 𝐹𝑒 3+ |𝐹𝑒 2+ = +0.77 𝑉; 𝐼2(𝑠) |𝐼 − = +0.54 𝑉; 𝐶𝑢2+ |𝐶𝑢 = +0.34 𝑉; 𝐴𝑔+ |𝐴𝑔 = +0.80𝑉)
(A) 𝐹𝑒 3+
(B) 𝐼2(𝑠)
(C) 𝐶𝑢2+
(D) 𝐴𝑔+
Solution: (D)
Higher the electrode potential, better is the oxidising agent. Since, the electrode potential decreases in
the order:
𝐴𝑔+ |𝐴𝑔(+0.80 𝑉) > 𝐹𝑒 3+ |𝐹𝑒 2+ (+0.77 𝑉) > 𝐼2(𝑠) |𝐼(+0.54 𝑉) > 𝐶𝑢2+ |𝐶𝑢(+0.34 𝑉)
Hence, 𝐴𝑔+ is the strongest oxidizing agent.
69.
The product 𝑃 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (A)
70. For the reaction, 𝐻2 + 𝐼2 ⇌ 2𝐻𝐼, 𝐾 = 47.6. If the initial number of moles of each reactant and
product is 1 mole then at equilibrium
(A) [𝐼2 ] = [𝐻2 ], [𝐼2 ] > [𝐻𝐼]
(B) [𝐼2 ] = [𝐻2 ], [𝐼2 ] < [𝐻𝐼]
(C) [𝐼2 ] < [𝐻2 ], [𝐼2 ] = [𝐻𝐼]
(D) [𝐼2 ] > [𝐻2 ], [𝐼2 ] = [𝐻𝐼]
Solution: (B)
[𝐻𝐼]2
For the given reaction, 𝐾 = [𝐻
2 ][𝐼2 ]
As 1 mole of 𝐻2 reacts with 1 mole of 𝐼2 , even at equilibrium, [𝐻2 ] = [𝐼2 ]

[𝐻𝐼]2 [𝐻𝐼]
Hence, 𝐾 = [𝐼2 ]2
or √𝐾 = [𝐼2 ]
= √47.6
i.e., [𝐻𝐼] > [𝐼2 ]
71. Which of the following compounds is aromatic in nature?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (A)
In (A), due to the presence of (4𝑛 + 2) 𝜋𝑒 − it follows Huckel's rule and therefore, it is aromatic.
In (B), due to the presence of extra lone pair of electrons, total 𝑒 − comes out to be 4𝜋𝑒 − . Thus, it is anti-
aromatic.
In (C), although it is cyclic and has conjugated 8𝜋𝑒 − but Huckel's (4𝑛 + 2)𝜋 rule is not followed and also
ring is not planar. Hence, it is non-aromatic.
In (D), it has 6𝜋𝑒 − in conjugation but not in the ring, hence it is non-aromatic.
72. (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3 and 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐶2 𝐻5 are treated with hydroiodic acid. The fragments obtained after
reactions are respectively
(A) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝐼 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻; 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 + 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻
(B) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝐼 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻; 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝐼
(C) (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼; 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝐼
(D) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 + (𝐶𝐻3 )3 𝐶𝑂𝐻; 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 + 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻
Solution: (A)
When mixed ethers are used, the formation of alkyl iodide depends on the nature of alkyl groups. Methyl
iodide is formed when one group is methyl and the other a primary or secondary alkyl group. Here reaction
follows 𝑆𝑁 2 mechanism and because of the steric effect of the larger group, 𝐼 − attacks the smaller (𝑀𝑒)
group.
𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐶2 𝐻5 + 𝐻𝐼 → 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 + 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻
When the substrate is a methyl 𝑡 −alkyl ether, the products are 𝑡 − 𝑅𝐼 and 𝑀𝑒0𝐻. Here reaction follows
𝑆𝑁 1 mechanism and formation of products is controlled by the stability of carbocation. Since carbocation
+
stability order is 3𝑜 > 2𝑜 > 1𝑜 > 𝐶 𝐻3 , therefore alkyl halide is always derived from 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑡 −alkyl group.
73. The 𝐴𝑠𝐹5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. The hybrid orbitals used by the 𝐴𝑠 atoms for bonding are
(A) 𝑑𝑥 2 −𝑦2 , 𝑑𝑧2 , 𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦
(B) 𝑑𝑥𝑦 , 𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦 , 𝑝𝑧
(C) 𝑑𝑥 2 −𝑦2 , 𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦
(D) 𝑠, 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦 , 𝑝𝑧 , 𝑑𝑧
Solution: (D)
𝐴𝑠𝐹5 has 𝑠𝑝3 𝑑 hybridisation. In 𝑠𝑝3 𝑑 hybridisation, the 𝑑𝑧2 orbital is used along with the ‘𝑠’ and three ‘𝑝’
orbitals to form three equatorial bonds and two equally strong axial bonds for a trigonal bipyramid.
74. The depression in freezing point of 0.1 𝑀 aqueous solutions of 𝐻𝐶𝑙, 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 and 𝐾2 𝑆𝑂4 are in the ratio.
(A) 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1.5
(B) 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 3
(C) 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1
(D) 2 ∶ 4 ∶ 3
Solution: (A)
∆𝑇𝑓 = 𝑖𝑘𝑓 𝑚
Thus, ∆𝑇𝑓 ∝ 𝑖 (as concentration is same for all solutions)
𝑖 for 𝐻𝐶𝑙 = 2, 𝑖 for 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 = 2, 𝑖 for 𝐾2 𝑆𝑂4 = 3 Thus, ratio of depression in freezing point = 2 ∶ 2 ∶ 3 =
1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1.5
75. 𝐻2 𝑂2 can be obtained when following reacts with 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 except with
(A) 𝐵𝑎𝑂2
(B) 𝑃𝑏𝑂2
(C) 𝑁𝑎2 𝑂2
(D) 𝑆𝑟𝑂2
Solution: (B)
𝐻2 𝑂2 is prepared by the reaction of peroxide with 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 . 𝑃𝑏𝑂2 is a dioxide. Hence, it does not give 𝐻2 𝑂2
with dilute 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 .
76. The chemical reaction, 2𝑂3 → 3𝑂2 proceeds as follows:
Step 1: 𝑂3 ⇌ 𝑂2 + 𝑂 …… (fast)
Step 2: 𝑂 + 𝑂3 → 2𝑂2 …… (slow)
The rate law expression should be
(A) 𝑟 = 𝑘 ′ [𝑂3 ][𝑂2 ]
(B) 𝑟 = 𝑘 ′ [𝑂3 ]2 [𝑂2 ]−1
(C) 𝑟 = 𝑘 ′ [𝑂3 ]2
(D) Unpredictable
Solution: (B)
As the slowest step is the rate determining step, hence from step 2,
𝑟 = 𝑘[𝑂3 ][𝑂] ...(i)
[𝑂2 ][𝑂]
From step 1, 𝐾eq = [𝑂3 ]
𝐾eq [𝑂3 ]
or [𝑂] = [𝑂2 ]
…(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
[𝑂3 ]2
𝑟 = 𝑘 𝐾eq = 𝑘 ′ [𝑂3 ]2 [𝑂2 ]−1 [∵ 𝑘 ′ = 𝑘 𝐾eq ]
[𝑂2 ]
77. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(A) 𝐶𝐶𝑙2
(B) 𝐶𝐻3−
(C) 𝐻2 𝑂
(D) 𝑁𝐻3
Solution: (A)
Electron deficient species or electron acceptors are called electrophiles. Hence, out of the given species,
𝐶𝐶𝑙2 , has only 6𝑒 −with carbon so, it is an electrophile.
78. Hydride of boron occurs as 𝐵2 𝐻6 but 𝐵2 𝐶𝑙6 does not exist. This is because
(A) 𝑝𝜋 − 𝑑𝜋 back bonding is possible in 𝐵2 𝐻6 but not in 𝐵2 𝐶𝑙6
(B) Boron and hydrogen have almost equal values of electronegativity
(C) Boron and chlorine have almost equal atomic sizes
(D) Small hydrogen atoms can easily fit in between boron atoms but large chlorine atoms do not.
Solution: (D)
79.
Identify 𝑋.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (C)
Strong electron releasing group (−𝑂𝐶𝐻3 ) generally win over the deactivating group. Thus, 𝑜 and 𝑝 −
products will be formed. Due to steric hindrance ortho product will be formed in lesser amount than para
product.
80. What is the correct order of basicity among the following compounds?
(𝐼)
(𝐼𝐼)
𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑁𝐻2
(𝐼𝐼𝐼)
(𝐶𝐻3 )2 𝑁𝐻
(𝐼𝑉)
(A) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉

(B) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
(C) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
(D) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
Solution: (D)
The conjugate acid formed by addition of a proton to (𝐼) is stabilised by two equivalent resonance
structures and hence, compound (𝐼) is the most basic. Further 2𝑜 amines (𝐼𝐼𝐼) are more basic than 1𝑜
amines (𝐼𝐼) while amides (𝐼𝑉) are least basic due to delocalisation of lone pair of electrons of 𝑁 over the
𝐶𝑂 group. Thus, the order is: 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉.
81. Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the [𝐶𝑢(𝑁𝐻3 )4 ]2+ions, given that
stability constant (𝛽4 ) for this complex is 2.1 × 1013 .
(A) 8.27 × 10−13
(B) 4.76 × 10−14
(C) 2.39 × 10−7
(D) 1.83 × 1014
Solution: (B)
Dissociation constant is the reciprocal of the stability constant (𝛽 = 1⁄𝐾 ).
1
Overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant, 𝐾 =
𝛽4
1
= = 4.76 × 10−14
2.1 × 1013
82. The colourless species is

(A) 𝑉𝐶𝑙3
(B) 𝑉𝑂𝑆𝑂4
(C) 𝑁𝑎3 𝑉𝑂4
(D) [𝑉(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]𝑆𝑂4 ∙ 𝐻2 𝑂
Solution: (C)
In 𝑁𝑎3 𝑉𝑂4 , vanadium is present in +5 oxidation state.
𝑉 5+ : 3𝑑0 4𝑠 0 , does not have unpaired electron. Hence, 𝑁𝑎3 𝑉𝑂4 , is colourless species.
83. Consider the following set of reactions:
The structure of 𝐷 would be

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (A)
84. Among the following substituted silanes, the one which will give rise to cross-linked silicone polymer
on hydrolysis is
(A) 𝑅3 𝑆𝑖𝐶𝑙
(B) 𝑅4 𝑆𝑖
(C) 𝑅𝑆𝑖𝐶𝑙3
(D) 𝑅2 𝑆𝑖𝐶𝑙2
Solution: (C)
𝑅𝑆𝑖𝐶𝑙3
85. What will be compound 𝐴 in the following reaction?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (A)
86. Decreasing order of reactivity in Williamson synthesis of the following:

(𝐼) 𝑀𝑒3 𝐶𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
(𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟
(𝐼𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙
(𝐼𝑉) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙
(A) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼

(B) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼
(C) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼
(D) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉
Solution: (C)
𝐶 − 𝐵𝑟 bond is weaker than 𝐶 − 𝐶𝑙 bond, therefore, alkyl bromide (𝐼𝐼) reacts faster than alkyl chlorides,
(𝐼𝐼𝐼) and (𝐼𝑉). Since 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − is electron withdrawing therefore, 𝐶𝐻2 has more +ve charge on 𝐼𝐼𝐼
than on 𝐼𝑉.
In other words, nucleophilic attack occurs faster on 𝐼𝐼𝐼 than on 𝐼𝑉. Further, since Williamson synthesis
occurs by 𝑆𝑁 2 mechanism, therefore, due to steric hindrance alkyl bromide (𝐼) is the least reactive. Thus,
the decreasing order of reactivity is 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼.
87. Select the correct options from the following:

(A) Graphene is an atomic layer of graphite.
(B) Graphene is an atomic layer composed of 𝑠𝑝2 −hybridised carbon.
(C) Chemical bonds in graphite are similar in strength to that of diamond.
(D) All of these.
Solution: (D)
All of these.
88. The coagulation of 200 𝑚𝐿 of a positive colloid took place when 0.73 𝑔 𝐻𝐶𝑙 was added to it without
changing the volume much. The flocculation value of 𝐻𝐶𝑙 for the colloid is
(A) 100
(B) 36.5
(C) 0.365
(D) 150
Solution: (A)
200 𝑚𝐿 of the sol required = 0.73 𝑔 𝐻𝐶𝑙
0.73
= = 0.02 𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 20 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙
36.5
∴ 1000 𝑚𝐿 (1𝐿) of the sol will require
20
= × 1000 = 100 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙
200
Thus, the flocculation value of 𝐻𝐶𝑙 for the colloid is 100.
89. The temperature dependence of a reaction is represented by the Arrhenius equation:

𝐸
In 𝑘 = − 𝑎 + ln 𝐴
𝑅𝑇
Which among the following is wrong conclusion about the given plot?
(A) Intercept of the line = ln 𝐴
𝐸
(B) Slope = − 𝑅𝑇𝑎
(C) Reaction with high activation energy is more temperature sensitive than that of low activation energy
(𝐸𝑎 ).
𝐸
(D) Slope = 𝑎
𝑅
Solution: (B)
𝐸
Slope = − 𝑅𝑇𝑎
90. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus is a reducing agent and a monobasic acid as well?
(A) 𝐻4 𝑃2 𝑂5
(B) 𝐻𝑃𝑂3
(C) 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂3
(D) 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂2
Solution: (D)
Acids which contain 𝑃— 𝐻 bonds have strong reducing properties. Hypophosphorus acid (𝐻3 𝑃𝑂2 ) is a
good reducing agent as it contains two 𝑃— 𝐻 bonds. It has one 𝑃— 𝑂𝐻 bond, so it is monobasic.
91. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 𝑒𝑉. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by
monochromatic light of energy 12.1 𝑒𝑉. The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen according to Bohr's theory
will be
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Solution: (C)
Since ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 𝑒𝑉.
∴ 𝐸1 = −13.6 𝑒𝑉
−13.6
Now, 𝐸𝑛 − 𝐸1 = 𝑛2 − (−13.6) = 12.1
−13.6
+ 13.6 = 12.1
𝑛2
∴𝑛=3
After absorbing 12.1 𝑒𝑉, the electron of 𝐻 −atom is excited to 3rd shell.
Thus, possible transitions are 3 i.e., 3 → 2, 2 → 1 and 3 → 1
92. What is the name of the following reaction?

𝑁𝑎(𝑂𝐴𝑐)2
𝑃ℎ𝐶𝐻𝑂 + (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂)2 𝑂 → = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑂2 𝐻
𝑃ℎ𝐶𝐻
(A) Oxymercuration demercuration reaction
(B) Cannizzaro reaction
(C) Knoevenagel's reaction
(D) Perkin reaction
Solution: (D)
Perkin reaction
93. Arrange the following nucleophiles in the decreasing order of nucleophilicity:

(𝐼)
(𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂−
(𝐼𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝑁 −
(𝐼𝑉)
(A) 𝐶, 𝐵, 𝐴, 𝐷
(B) 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷
(C) 𝐷, 𝐶, 𝐵, 𝐴
(D) 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐴, 𝐷
Solution: (D)
Conjugate base (nucleophile) is strong if acid is weak and vice-versa.
(𝐼)
(𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂 is a conjugate base of 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 (𝐼𝐼).

(𝐼𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝑁 is a conjugate base of 𝐻𝐶𝑁 (𝐼𝐼𝐼).
(𝐼𝑉)
Order of acidic nature is 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼.

Hence, the decreasing order of nucleophilicity is 𝐵 > 𝐶 > 𝐴 > 𝐷.
94. 𝑍𝑛𝑂 is white when cold and yellow when heated. It is due to the development of
(A) Frenkel defect
(B) Metal excess defect
(C) Schottky defect
(D) Metal deficiency defect
Solution: (B)
𝑍𝑛𝑂 turns yellow on heating as 𝑍𝑛2+ ions move in interstitial sites and electrons also get entrapped in
nearby interstitial sites to maintain electrical neutrality. As extra 𝑍𝑛2+ ions are present in interstitial sites
thus, it is metal excess defect.
95. Which of the following pairs of substances cannot exist together in solution?
(A) 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
(B) 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3
(C) 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
(D) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
Solution: (C)
𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 is a sodium salt of weak acid, while 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 is a strong base so, they react and cannot exist
together in solution.
𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
96. Among the following, the compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured is
(A) 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7
(B) (𝑁𝐻4 )2 [𝑇𝑖𝐶𝑙6 ]
(C) 𝑉𝑂𝑆𝑂4
(D) 𝐾3 [𝐶𝑢(𝐶𝑁)4 ]
Solution: (C)
𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 → 𝐶𝑟 +6 : 3𝑑0
(𝑁𝐻4 )2 [𝑇𝑖𝐶𝑙6 ] → 𝑇𝑖 +4 ∶ 3𝑑 0
𝑉𝑂𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑉 +4 ∶ 3𝑑1
𝐾3 [𝐶𝑢(𝐶𝑁)4 ] → 𝐶𝑢+ ∶ 3𝑑10
𝑉𝑂𝑆𝑂4 , due to the presence of one unpaired electron, is paramagnetic and coloured.
97.
Arrange 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 in order of increasing acidic strengths.

(A) 𝑋 > 𝑍 > 𝑌
(B) 𝑍 < 𝑋 > 𝑌
(C) 𝑋 > 𝑌 > 𝑍
(D) 𝑍 > 𝑋 > 𝑌
Solution: (A)
+
Carboxylic acid is stronger acid than −𝑁𝐻3 , therefore, 𝑋 is the strongest acid. Since — 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 has
−𝐼 −effect which decreases with distance, therefore, −𝐼 −effect is more pronounced on 𝑍 than on 𝑌. As
a result, 𝑍 is more acidic than 𝑌. Thus, overall order of decreasing acidic strength is 𝑋 > 𝑍 > 𝑌.
98. Arrange the following monomers in order of decreasing ability to undergo cationic polymerisation.
(𝐼) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶6 𝐻4 (𝑁𝑂2 )
(𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶6 𝐻4 (𝐶𝐻3 )
(𝐼𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶6 𝐻4 (𝑂𝐶𝐻3 )
(A) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼

(B) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼
(C) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼
(D) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼
Solution: (C)
Electron releasing groups such as — 𝐶𝐻3 , — 𝑂𝐶𝐻3 activate the monomer towards cationic
polymerisation because these groups provide stability to the carbocation formed. On the other hand,
— 𝑁𝑂2 is an electron withdrawing group. So, it reduces the stability of carbocation formed.
Thus, the correct order is
𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶6 𝐻4 (𝑂𝐶𝐻3 ) >
(𝐼𝐼𝐼)
𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶6 𝐻4 (𝐶𝐻3 ) >
(𝐼𝐼)
𝐶𝐻2 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶6 𝐻4 (𝑁𝑂2 )
(𝐼)
99. 𝐾𝑎 for 𝐻𝐶𝑁 is 5 × 10−10 at 25𝑜 𝐶. For maintaining a constant 𝑝𝐻 = 9, the volume of 5 𝑀 𝐾𝐶𝑁
solution required to be added to 10 𝑚𝐿 of 2 𝑀 𝐻𝐶𝑁 solution is
(A) 4 𝑚𝐿
(B) 2.5 𝑚𝐿
(C) 2 𝑚𝐿
(D) 6.4 𝑚𝐿
Solution: (C)
[Salt]
𝑝𝐻 = 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + log
[Acid]
[KCN]
= 𝑝𝐾𝑎 + log [HCN] …(i)
Let the volume of 𝐾𝐶𝑁 solution required be 𝑉 𝑚𝐿
5×𝑉 10×2
∴ [𝐾𝐶𝑁] = 𝑉+10 and [𝐻𝐶𝑁] = 𝑉+10
Now from equation (i),
5 × 𝑉 10 × 2
𝑝𝐻 = − log(5 × 10−10 ) + log [ ⁄ ]
𝑉 + 10 𝑉 + 10
𝑉
9 = − log(5 × 10−10 ) + log
4
On solving, 𝑉 = 1.99 ≈ 2 𝑚𝐿
100. The heat is liberated when 1.89 𝑔 of benzoic acid is burnt in a bomb calorimeter at 25𝑜 𝐶 and it
increases the temperature of 18.94 𝑘𝑔 of water by 0.632𝑜 𝐶. If the specific heat of water at 25𝑜 𝐶 is
0.998 𝑐𝑎𝑙 ⁄𝑔 − 𝑑𝑒𝑔, then value of the heat of combustion of benzoic acid is
(A) 881.1 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
(B) 981.1 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
(C) 771.1 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
(D) 871.2 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
Solution: (C)
Mass of benzoic acid = 1.89 𝑔
Temperature of bomb calorimeter = 25𝑜 𝐶 = 298 𝐾
Mass of water (𝑚) = 18.94 𝑘𝑔 = 18940 𝑔
Increase in temperature (∆𝑡) = 0.632𝑜 𝐶
Specific heat of water (𝑠) = 0.998 𝑐𝑎𝑙 ⁄𝑔 − 𝑑𝑒𝑔
Heat gained by water or heat liberated by benzoic acid (𝑄) = 𝑚𝑠∆𝑡
= 18940 × 0.998 × 0.632 = 11946.14 𝑐𝑎𝑙
Since, 1.89 𝑔 of acid, liberates 11946.14 𝑐𝑎𝑙 of heat, therefore heat liberated by 122 𝑔 (mol. Wt. of
11946.14×122
benzoic acid) of acid = 1.89
= 771126.5 𝑐𝑎𝑙 ≈ 771.1 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
101. Assertion: 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠 −Pent−2 − 𝑒𝑛𝑒 is polar but 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠 − but−2 − 𝑒𝑛𝑒 is non-polar.
Reason: The polarity of 𝑐𝑖𝑠 −isomer is more than 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠 −isomer, which are either non-polar or less polar.
Solution: (B)
The vector sum of all polar bonds in 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠 −pent−2 − 𝑒𝑛𝑒 is not zero while in 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠 − 𝑏𝑢𝑡 − 2 − 𝑒𝑛𝑒 it
is zero.
102. Assertion: The number of tetrahedral voids is double the number of octahedral voids.
Reason: The size of the tetrahedral voids is half of that of the octahedral void.
Solution: (C)
The size of tetrahedral voids is smaller but not half of that of the octahedral voids.
103. Assertion: If standard reduction potential for the reaction 𝐴𝑔+ + 𝑒 − → 𝐴𝑔 is 0.80 volt, then for the
reaction 2𝐴𝑔+ + 2𝑒 − → 2𝐴𝑔, it will be 1.60 volt.
Reason: If concentration of 𝐴𝑔+ ions is doubled, the standard electrode potential is also doubled.
Solution: (D)
Standard reduction potential of an electrode has a fixed value.
104. Assertion: Hydrides of group−16 elements show volatility in the order:

𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝐻2 𝑆 > 𝐻2 𝑆𝑒 > 𝐻2 𝑇𝑒
Reason: Electronegativity of group−16 elements increases down the group from Oxygen to tellurium.
Solution: (D)
Hydrides of group−16 elements show volatility in the order:
𝐻2 𝑆 > 𝐻2 𝑆𝑒 > 𝐻2 𝑇𝑒 > 𝐻2 𝑂

Oxygen is most electronegative than other elements of group−16, it undergoes hydrogen bonding. Due
to strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding in 𝐻2 𝑂, it shows lowest volatility.
As the size of the atom increases regularly from sulphur to tellurium, van der Waals' forces of attraction
increase and hence volatility decreases from 𝐻2 𝑆 to 𝐻2 𝑇𝑒.
17 28
105. Assertion: Equivalent weight of 𝑁𝐻3 in the reaction, 𝑁2 → 𝑁𝐻3 is while that of 𝑁2 is .
3 6
Reason: Equivalent weight
Molecular weight
=
Number of 𝑒 − lost or gained per mole
Solution: (A)
0
𝑁2 + 6𝑒 − → 2𝑁 3−
14+3 17
∴ Equivalent weight of 𝑁𝐻3 = 3 = 3
(Mol. wt. of 𝑁𝐻3 = 17)
14 × 2 28
While, equivalent weight of 𝑁2 = 6 = 6
106. Assertion: The second dissociation constant of fumaric acid is greater than maleic acid.
Reason: Higher the dissociation constant of acid, more is the acidic character.
Solution: (B)
Both fumaric and maleic acids have two ionisable 𝐻 + ions i.e., protons. The maleate monoanion shows
intramolecular 𝐻 −bonding, whereas fumarate monoanion shows intermolecular 𝐻 −bonding. Thus,
fumarate monoanion requires more energy to give fumarate dianion. Hence, second dissociation of
fumaric acid is more than that of maleic acid.
107. Assertion: Oxidation of 1 −nitronaphthalene gives 𝑜 −nitrophthalic acid whereas 1 −amino

naphthalene on oxidation gives phthalic acid.
Reason: An amino group attached to the benzene ring makes it resistant to oxidation whereas nitro group
makes the benzene ring susceptible to oxidation.
Solution: (C)
An amino group increases the electron density in the benzene ring to which it is attached thereby making
it susceptible to oxidation while a nitro group decreases the electron density in the benzene ring to which
it is attached thereby making it resistant to oxidation. Instead, the other benzene ring gets oxidised giving
𝑜 −nitrophthalic acid as shown below:
108. Assertion: [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− has 𝑑2 𝑠𝑝3 type hybridisation.

Reason: [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two unpaired electrons.
Solution: (C)
[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to one unpaired electron.
109. Assertion: Hydrometallurgy involves dissolving the ore in a suitable reagent followed by precipitation
by a more electropositive metal.
Reason: Copper is extracted by hydro-metallurgy.
Solution: (B)
110. Assertion: Benzene reacts with iodine monochloride in presence of anhyd. 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 to form
iodobenzene.
Reason: Iodine monochloride reacts with anhyd. 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 to produce 𝐼 + which attacks the benzene ring.
Solution: (A)
111. Assertion: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions and they may have boiling
points either greater than both the components or lesser than both the components.
Reason: The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase of an azeotropic mixture.
Solution: (B)
Non-ideal solutions with positive deviation i.e.. having more vapour pressure than expected, boil at lower
temperature while those with negative deviation boil at higher temperature than those of the
components.
112. Assertion: The carbonate of lithium decomposes easily on heating to form lithium oxide and 𝐶𝑂2 .
Reason: Lithium being very small in size polarizes large carbonate ion leading to the formation of more
stable 𝐿𝑖2 𝑂 and 𝐶𝑂2 .
Solution: (A)
113. Assertion: Both 𝜋(2𝑝𝑥 ) and 𝜋 ∗ (2𝑝𝑥 ) MO’s have one nodal plane each.
Reason: All MO’s formed by side way overlapping of 2𝑝 −orbitals have one nodal plane.
Solution: (D)
𝜋(2𝑝𝑥 ) has one nodal plane whereas 𝜋 ∗ (2𝑝𝑥 ) has two nodal planes.
114. Assertion: Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 −tribromo-phenol on treatment with 𝐵𝑟2− water at 273 𝐾.
Reason: Phenol is 𝑜, 𝑝 −directing group.
Solution: (B)
Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 tribromophenol on treatment with 𝐵𝑟2− water. In phenols, the polarisation of
bromine takes place even in the absence of Lewis acid.
115. Assertion: Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

Reason: Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
Solution: (C)
Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde do not contain 𝛼 −hydrogen and thus undergo Cannizzaro
reaction. Formaldehyde is more reactive than aromatic aldehydes.
116. Assertion: Activity of an enzyme is 𝑝𝐻 −dependent.

Reason: Change in 𝑝𝐻 affects the solubility of the enzyme in water.
Solution: (B)
Activity of enzyme is maximum at 𝑝𝐻 = 7.4 (physiological 𝑝𝐻). In fact, as 𝑝𝐻 is increased, the rate rises
to a maximum and then falls off.
117. Assertion: Thiophene present in commercial benzene as an impurity can be removed by shaking the
mixture with cold concentrated 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 .
Reason: Thiophene is a heterocyclic aromatic compound.
Solution: (B)
On shaking with concentrated 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 thiophene being more reactive undergoes sulphonation and the
thiophene−2 −sulphonic acid thus formed dissolves in concentrated 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 .
118. Assertion: Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be reversed by some external
agency.
Reason: Decrease in enthalpy is a contributory factor for spontaneity.
Solution: (B)
119. Assertion: Nucleotides are phosphate esters of nucleosides.

Reason: The various nucleotides in nucleic acids are linked either through purine or pyrimidine bases.
Solution: (C)
The various nucleotides in nucleic acids are linked through phosphate ester groups.
120. Assertion: Sulpha drugs contain sulphon-amide group.
Reason: Salvarsan is a sulpha drug.
Solution: (C)
Salvarsan is an antibacterial drug containing arsenic and it does not contain sulphonamide group.
Biology
121. Identify the incorrect statement about ABA growth regulator.

(A) It increases the tolerance of plants against different stresses.
(B) It acts as general plant growth inhibitor and inhibitor of metabolism.
(C) It helps in seed maturation and dormancy.
(D) It promotes morphogenesis and differentiation of shoots.
Solution: (D)
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor. Both auxins and cytokinins are essential for morphogenesis or
differentiation of tissues and organs. Auxins stimulate root formation however when cytokinins are in
excess stem buds develop.
122. The water logging capacity of garden soil will be determined by measuring the weight of
(A) Soil by adding water and humus
(B) Water saturated soil then heating the soil till it is dry and then measuring the weight of soil
(C) Soil by adding water, biomass and humus
(D) Soil from different locations with biomass.
Solution: (B)
The optimum or maximum amount of water retained per unit dry weight of soil after the stoppage of
gravitational flow is called field capacity. Soil moisture beyond field capacity produces water logging. The
soil with high water retention and low or negligible percolation rate is prone to water logging.
123. Refer to the given figure and choose the correct option regarding its parts labelled as 𝐴 − 𝐹.
(A) 𝐵 −Graafian follicle, 𝐹 −Corpus luteum

(B) 𝐶 −Graafian follicle, 𝐴 −Ovum
(C) 𝐵 −Primary follicle, 𝐶 −Tertiary follicle showing antrum
(D) 𝐸 −Corpus callosum, 𝐷 −Antrum cavity
Solution: (C)
In the given figure showing a section of mammalian ovary, 𝐴 is blood vessel, 𝐵 is primary follicle, 𝐶 is
tertiary follicle showing antrum, 𝐷 is Graafian follicle, 𝐸 is ovum, 𝐹 is corpus luteum.
124. The process where a population inhibits the growth of other population without affecting itself is
known as
(A) Amensalism
(B) Parasitism
(C) Mutualism
(D) Commensalism
Solution: (A)
Amensalism is an interaction between two living individuals or populations of different species in which
one organism or population does not allow, other organism or population to grow or live near it. Inhibition
is achieved through the secretion of chemicals called allochemics. E.g., the roots and hulls of black walnut
(Juglans nigra) produce a chemical called juglone. It is toxic to apple, tomato and alfalfa.
125. Select the mismatched pair out of the following.

(A) Rhizome - Dryopteris, Nelumbo nucifera
(B) Corm - Crocus sativus, Amorphophallus
(C) Sucker – Curcuma domestica, Zingiber officinale
(D) Tuber – Helianthus tuberosus, Solanum tuberosum
Solution: (C)
Sucker is a special non-green slender stem branch which arises from underground base of an erect shoot
or crown. It grows horizontally in soil and ultimately comes out to form a new aerial shoot or crown. The
process is repeated. Each sucker has one or more nodes with scale leaves and axillary buds, e.g.,
Chrysanthemum. Curcuma domestica and Zingiber officinale both are the examples of rhizomes.
126. Some salient features and phyla of organisms are given below. Select the option which shows correct
combination of organism, its phylum and salient features.
(A)
Hydra Coelenterata Bilateral symmetry Cnidoblasts present
(B)
Planaria Platyhelminthes Bilateral symmetry High regeneration capacity
(C)
Ancylostoma Annelida Bilateral symmetry Elongated and worm shape
(D)
Octopus Mollusca Radial symmetry External skeleton of shell present
Solution: (B)
Hydra shows radial symmetry, Ancylostoma is an aschelminth. Octopus shows bilateral symmetry and also
lacks an external skeleton of shell.
127. An example of stretch reflex triggered by passive muscle movement is the

(A) Tendon reflex
(B) Ipsilateral reflex
(C) Flexor reflex
(D) Patellar reflex
Solution: (D)
A stretch reflex is the contraction of a muscle in response to a passive stretching of a muscle spindle within
a muscle. This reflex enables the body to correct any unintended changes in body posture in a timely
manner without waiting for input from the cerebral cortex as well as keeps appropriate tone in muscles.
A well known example of stretch reflex is patellar reflex or knee jerk reflex, i.e., sudden kicking movement
of the lower leg in response to a sharp tap on patellar tendon.
128. The figure shows different human tissues labelled as 𝐴 to 𝐷. Which option gives the correct
identification of the label, its location and one feature?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A) 𝐷 −Unicellular glandular epithelium, goblet cells, secrete saliva
(B) 𝐵 −Squamous epithelium, walls of blood vessels, form a diffusion boundary
(C) 𝐴 −Cuboidal epithelium, ducts of glands, secretion and absorption
(D) 𝐶 −Columnar epithelium, lining of stomach, secretion and absorption
Solution: (D)
The given figure 𝐴 is squamous epithelium, found in walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs and is
involved in functions like forming a diffusion layer. 𝐵 is cuboidal epithelium, found in ducts of glands and
tubular parts of nephrons of kidney and its main functions are secretion and absorption. 𝐶 is columnar
epithelium, found in lining of stomach and intestine and helps in secretion and absorption. 𝐷 is ciliated
columnar epithelium, present in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and Fallopian tubes and
helps to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.
129. Select the correct statement regarding reproduction.

(A) Mating in dogs is synchronised with lunar cycle.
(B) Salamanders always have internal fertilisation.
(C) In Trygon, the male introduces sperms into female through a modified pelvic fin.
(D) Catla has internal fertilisation.
Solution: (C)
Mating in dogs is not synchronised with lunar cycle. Six of the nine families of Salamanders have internal
fertilisation. Catla has external fertilisation.
130. Documented microfossils have been found that are as old as

(A) 2.5 billion years
(B) 3.5 billion years
(C) 1.5 billion years
(D) 2.5 million years
Solution: (B)
3.5 billion years
131. Which of the following is not a factor that would limit the growth of a population?
(A) Food shortage
(B) Immigration
(C) Disease
(D) Famine
Solution: (B)
Immigration is the entry of individuals into a region for permanent or temporary settlement thereby
increasing the population density of that particular region due to addition of individuals. Food shortage,
disease and famine are the factors that would limit the growth of a population.
132. When plants/animals are infected with virus, they may produce an anti-viral substance that is capable
of inhibiting the multiplication of that virus. Identify the correct name of this substance.
(A) Virion
(B) Antivirion
(C) Antigen
(D) Interferon
Solution: (D)
Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-infected cells from further viral
infection.
133. Match the tissues/molecules mentioned in column 𝐼 with those of their degrading enzymes
mentioned in column 𝐼𝐼 and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column 𝐼 Column 𝐼𝐼
𝐴. Cell wall (𝑖) Proteases
𝐵. RNA (𝑖𝑖) Pectinases
𝐶. Histone (𝑖𝑖𝑖) Ribonucleases
𝐷. Pectin (𝑖𝑣) Cellulase
(A) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖)

(B) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
(C) 𝐴 − (𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑣)
(D) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐶 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖)
Solution: (A)
𝐴 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖)
134. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option regarding its parts labelled as 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶.
(A) 𝐴 −Histone octamer, 𝐶 −DNA

(B) 𝐵 − 𝐻1 histone, 𝐶 −Histone octamer
(C) 𝐴 − 𝐻1 histone, 𝐵 −DNA
(D) 𝐴 −Histone octamer, 𝐶 − 𝐻1 histone
Solution: (B)
The given figure shows nucleosome. Here 𝐴 is DNA, 𝐵 is 𝐻1 histone and 𝐶 is histone octamer.
135. Which one of the following methods is commonly used to maintain the genetic traits of a given plant?
(A) By propagating through seed germination
(B) By propagating through vegetative multiplication
(C) By generating hybrids through inter-generic pollination
(D) By treating the seeds with gamma radiations
Solution: (B)
The propagation through vegetative multiplication is used to maintain the genetic traits of a given plant.
It gives rise to genetically uniform population or clone. In case of plants propagated through seeds,
variations creep in due to chance segregation and recombination of genes during meiosis and their chance
combination during fertilisation.
136. Match the triplet codons listed in column 𝐼 with their amino acids mentioned in column 𝐼𝐼 and select
the correct option from the given codes.
Column 𝐼 Column 𝐼𝐼
𝐴. GGG (𝑖) Proline
𝐵. UUU (𝑖𝑖) Glycine
𝐶. CCC (𝑖𝑖𝑖) Arginine
𝐷. AAA (𝑖𝑣) Phenylalanine
(𝑣) Lysine
(A) 𝐴 − (𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖)

(B) 𝐴 − (𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑣)
(C) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑣)
(D) 𝐴 − (𝑖), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑣)
Solution: (C)
137. Refer to the given figure depicting a diseased condition in humans and name the worm causing this
disease.
(A) Epidermophyton floccosum
(B) Ascaris lumbricoides
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti
(D) Entamoeba histolytica
Solution: (C)
The given figure show a person suffering from disease elephantiasis caused by the nematode Wuchereria
bancrofti. This disease is characterised by the swelling of legs and scrotum. The disease is therefore
commonly called elephantiasis due to the resemblance of affected person’s leg with that of an elephant.
138. Identify the accurate explanation of mesosome. It is

(A) A specialised structure of prokaryotic cell formed by extension of plasma membrane into the
cytoplasm
(B) The middle layer of the prokaryotic cell wall
(C) The organelle of eukaryotic cell which helps in lipid synthesis
(D) The middle layer of eukaryotic cell wall.
Solution: (A)
A specialised structure of prokaryotic cell formed by extension of plasma membrane into the cytoplasm
139. Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus
and showing affinities with angiosperms.
(A) Perianth and no integuments
(B) Embryo development and apical meristem
(C) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(D) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
Solution: (D)
Unlike Cycas and Pinus, Gnetum shows the occurrence of vessel elements and the complete absence o
archegonia in female gametophyte. Thus, Gnetum shows affinities with angiosperms. Besides its
resembles with angiosperms in several other aspects like presence of tetrasporic embryo sac, free nuclear
divisions in the embryo sac, two cotyledonous embryo, etc.
140. Select the option that contains all plants which produce non-endospermic seeds.
(A) Gram, Pea, Bean, Groundnut
(B) Castor, Peanut, Orchid, Wheat
(C) Coconut, Walnut, Wheat, Gram
(D) Castor, Maize, Coconut, Orchid
Solution: (A)
Non-endospermic seeds or exalbuminous seeds have no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed
during embryo development. Gram, pea, bean and groundnut have non-endospermic seeds.
141. Select the option that correctly matches characteristic features with the group of three animals.
(A) Skeleton of spicules - Sycon, Adamsia, Spongilla
(B) Excretion by flame cells - Taenia, Fasciola, Ancylostoma
(C) Mouth contains radula - Dentalium, Octopus, Ophiura
(D) Jointed appendages - Limulus, Apis, Laccifer
Solution: (D)
In poriferans, the body is supported by a skeleton made up of spicules or spongin fibres. Sycon and
Spongilla are examples of poriferans, whereas Adamsia is a coelenterate. In platyhelminths, specialised
cells called flame cells help in excretion. Taenia and Fasciola are platyhelminths whereas Ancylostoma is
an aschelminth. In molluscs, mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding called radula. Dentalium
and Octopus are molluscs whereas Ophiura is an echinoderm. Arthropods have jointed appendages.
Limulus, Apis and Laccifer all three are arthropods.
142. After double fertilisation, a mature ovule has

(A) 1 diploid and 1 haploid cell
(B) 1 diploid and 1 triploid cell
(C) 2 haploid and 1 triploid cell
(D) 1 haploid and 1 triploid cell
Solution: (B)
Double fertilisation is found only in angiosperms. In this group of plants, the pollen tube on entering the
embryo sac bursts open in one of the two synergids to release the two male gametes. One male gamete
fuses with the egg or oosphere to form a diploid zygote or oospore. It is called generative fertilisation. The
second male gamete descends down and fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus of the central cell to
form a triploid primary endosperm cell. It is known as vegetative fertilisation. Thus, after double
fertilisation, a mature angiospermous ovule contains one diploid cell (zygote) and one triploid cell
(primary endosperm cell). The haploid cells of the ovule such as antipodals and synergids degenerate after
fertilisation.
143. Gerdy fibres are
(A) Ligament of neck
(B) Ligament of ankles
(C) Ligament of palm
(D) Ligament of face
Solution: (C)
Gerdy fibres are the superficial transverse ligament of the palm.
144. 𝐶4 plants have better productivity because

(A) 𝐶4 plants absorb more light
(B) 𝐶4 plants absorb more 𝐶𝑂2
(C) 𝐶4 plants lack photorespiration
(D) All of these
Solution: (C)
Presence of photorespiration is considered as a wasteful and energy consuming process in crop plants
which ultimately leads to reduction in final yield of crops. It is estimated that during 𝐶3 photosynthesis,
upto 50% of the 𝐶𝑂2 fixed may have to pass through photorespiratory process, thereby resulting in
considerable decrease in photosynthetic productivity. In 𝐶3 plants, there is some loss of photosynthetic
activity on account of photorespiration which is absent in 𝐶4 plants and hence they have better
productivity.
145. A large quantity of urban sewage is drained into nearby village river. Which among the given
conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into the river?
(𝑖) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of receiving water body increases.
(𝑖𝑖) Dissolved oxygen of receiving water body decreases
(𝑖𝑖𝑖) It will not cause mortality among fishe and other aquatic creatures.
(𝑖𝑣) It will lead to nutrient enrichment of receiving water body
(A) (𝑖), (𝑖𝑖) and (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
(B) (𝑖), (𝑖𝑖) and (𝑖𝑣)
(C) (𝑖𝑖) and (𝑖𝑖𝑖) only
(D) (𝑖𝑖𝑖) and (𝑖𝑣) only
Solution: (B)
When sewage, having biodegradable organic matter is released into the water body, microorganisms
involved in biodegradation of organic matter (in the receiving water body) consume a lot of oxygen to
decompose the sewage and as a result there would be a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen downstream
from the point of sewage discharge and biological oxygen demand (BOD) would increase. Presence of
sewage causes nutrient enrichment (large amount of nutrients) in water which causes excessive growth
of planktonic (free-floating) algae, called algal bloom. Algal bloom causes deterioration of water quality
and fish mortality.
146. Wharton’s duct is the duct of

(A) Submandibular salivary gland
(B) Parotid gland
(C) Sublingual gland
(D) All of these
Solution: (A)
Wharton's duct is the duct of submandibular salivary gland that opens into the floor of mouth at the
junction where front of the tongue meets the mouth's floor.
147. An artificial pacemaker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients
(A) Having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries
(B) Having a very high blood pressure
(C) With irregularity in the heart rhythm
(D) Suffering from arteriosclerosis
Solution: (C)
Artificial pacemaker is a medical device designed to regulate the beating of the heart. The purpose of an
artificial pacemaker is to stimulate the heart when either the heart’s native pacemaker is not fast enough
or if there are blocks in the heart's electrical conducting system preventing the propagation of electrical
impulses from the native pacemaker to the lower chambers of the heart, known as the ventricles.
Generally, pacemakers do not treat fast rhythms of the heart.
148. Which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?

(A) Proximal convoluted tubule
(B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(D) Descending limb of loop of Henle
Solution: (C)
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water. Here water is not reabsorbed, rather sodium,
potassium, magnesium and chloride are reabsorbed and therefore the filtrate becomes hypotonic to
blood plasma.
149. Pacinian corpuscles occur in the skin of certain parts of body in mammals. These are
(A) Type of glands
(B) Pain receptors
(C) Naked tactile receptors
(D) Encapsulated pressure receptors
Solution: (D)
Pacinian corpuscles occur in the skin of certain parts of the body in mammals. These are encapsulated
pressure receptors. Pacinian corpuscles are very rapid adapting pressure receptors in subcutaneous
adipose tissue of both hairy and hairless vertebrate skin. They are also found in joint capsules, tendons,
etc.
150. Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired
characters?
(A) Absence of limbs in snakes
(B) Melanisation in peppered moth
(C) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
(D) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals.
Solution: (B)
Industrial melanism is an adaptation where the moths living in the industrial areas developed melanin
pigments to match their body to the soot-covered surroundings. The phenomenon provides an excellent
example of operation of selection in natural conditions.
Industrial melanism, therefore, presents an excellent example of natural selection (proposed by Darwin),
but it is not the example of acquired characters proposed by Lamarck.
In caves, due to absence of light, the body of the animal lacks pigmentation, e.g., Proteus anguinus. In
pythons and related snakes rudimentary pelvic girdle and traces of hind-limb are present. They form small
clawed projections externally, but internally there are vestiges of an ilium, femur, tibia and a claw. In
aquatic birds and flying frog, the feet are webbed which sustain it in the prolonged leaps to which it is
adapted.
151. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

(A) "Bt" in "Bt-cotton" indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced through
biotechnology.
(B) Classical plant breeding involves fusion of two somatic cells carrying desired genes.
(C) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
(D) Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice rich in vitamin E.
Solution: (C)
Transgenic Brassica napus seeds are being used to produce the anticoagulant hirudin. Bt in "Bt Cotton"
stands for Bacillus thuringiensis. This is naturally occurring soil bacterium. Classical plant breeding involves
crossing or hybridisation of purelines, followed by artificial selection to produce plants with desirable
traits whereas somatic hybridisation involves fusion of protoplast of two cells. Golden rice is a transgenic
variety of rice rich in 𝛽 −carotene (provitamin A - inactive state of vitamin A).
152. Keystone species deserve protection because these

(A) Are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions
(B) Indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil
(C) Have become rare due to overexploitation
(D) Play an important role in supporting other species.
Solution: (D)
Keystone species are species which have significant and disproportionately large influence on the
community. Removal or decrease in their number causes disruption in structure and function of
community. For example in intertidal regions starfish feeds on mussels. Removal of starfish leads to
dominance o mussels that excludes algae and browsing species. In tropical rain forests, fig trees function
as keystone species as they provide fruits to a number of animals during the period of food scarcity.
153. Which of the following antibiotics is not correctly matched with the source from which it is obtained?
Antibiotic Source
(A) Penicillin Penicillium Chrysogenum
(B) Bacitracin Bacillus licheniformis
(C) Griseofulvin Penicillium griseofulvum
(D) Streptomycin Bacillus griseus
Solution: (D)
Streptomycin is obtained from Streptomyces griseus. It is found useful in meningitis, pneumonia,
tuberculosis and local infections.
154. The checkpoint in cell cycle plays important role in

(A) Repairing DNA damage
(B) Apoptosis initiation
(C) Assessing DNA damage
(D) None of these.
Solution: (C)
Assessing DNA damage
155. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of

(A) Membrane
(B) Cartilage
(C) Mucosa
(D) None of these.
Solution: (B)
Achondroplasia is a disorder inherited as dominant characteristic in which bones of arms and legs fail to
grow to normal size due to defect in both cartilage and bone. It results in a type o dwarfism characterized
by short limbs, a normal sized head and body and normal intelligence.
156. Pick the correct group consisting of all genera exhibiting homospory.
(A) Lycopodium, Psilotum, Selaginella, Equisetum
(B) Equisetum, Pteris, Salvinia, Psilotum
(C) Salvinia, Pteris, Lycopodium, Selaginella
(D) Equisetum, Psilotum, Lycopodium, Pteris
Solution: (D)
Pteridophytes, may produce similar spores (homosporous) or dissimilar spores (heterosporous).
Selaginella and Salvinia show heterospory.
157. Which of the following statements is correct regarding menstrual cycle?

(A) LH induces rupturing of Graafian follicle.
(B) Proliferative phase is characterised by the increased production of progesterone.
(C) Corpus luteum secretes large amount of estrogen.
(D) Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in secretory phase.
Solution: (A)
During follicular phase (proliferative phase), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) secreted by anterior lobe
of the pituitary gland stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete estrogens. Corpus luteum secretes large
amount of progesterone in secretory phase, Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the ovulatory phase
(mid of the cycle).
158. Which of the following conditions represents a case of codominant genes?

(A) A gene expresses itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles.
(B) Genes that are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when together interact to
produce a different trait.
(C) Alleles, both of which interact to produce a trait, which may or may not resemble either of the parental
types.
(D) Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in a heterozygous condition.
Solution: (D)
Codominance is the phenomenon when the two alleles of a gene neither show dominant-recessive
relationship nor show intermediate condition, but both of them express themselves independently in
heterozygous condition. This has been reported in roan coat colour of cattle (i.e., patches of 2 different
colours on the skin).
159. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to the fact that
(A) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
(B) Sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre
(C) Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings
(D) Neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and not by dendrites.
Solution: (D)
A synapse occurs where the axon of one neuron (the pre-synaptic neuron) meets the dendrite of another
(the post-synaptic neuron). At the tip of the pre-synaptic axon is a button shaped swelling called a synaptic
knob, inside which are numerous mitochondria and vesicles packed with a substance called a
neurotransmitter which at the time of nerve impulse conduction diffuse across the space and bind to
receptors in the membrane of the post-synaptic cell. This opens ion channels in the post-synaptic
membrane resulting in a change in its membrane potential and in the consequent generation of a nerve
impulse.
160. Refer to the given figure and choose the organism not related to the condition shown here.
(A) Microsporum
(B) Trichophyton
(C) W. malayi
(D) Epidermophyton
Solution: (C)
The person shown in the given figure is suffering from ringworm infection. Many fungi belonging to the
genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for ringworm disease.
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp are the main symptoms of this disease.
161. Assertion: Flavr-Savr tomato was the first transgenic commercial crop that entered the market.
Reason: Roundup variety of soybean was prepared through breeding.
Solution: (C)
The Flavr-Savr tomato, was the first genetically modified fruit/vegetable to reach the market in USA.
Roundup ready soybean is a genetically modified herbicide tolerant cultivar.
162. Assertion: Glucose is the favoured respiratory substrate.

Reason: When glucose is used as respiratory substrate it is completely oxidized and 𝑅𝑄 is 1.
Solution: (A)
The ratio of the volume of 𝐶𝑂2 evolved to the volume of 𝑂2 consumed in respiration is called the
respiratory quotient (𝑅𝑄) or respiratory ratio.
Volume of 𝐶𝑂2 evolved
𝑅𝑄 =
Volume of 𝑂2 consumed
The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate used during respiration. When
carbohydrates are used as substrate and are completely oxidized, the 𝑅𝑄 will be 1, because equal
amounts of 𝐶𝑂2 and 𝑂2 are evolved and consumed respectively.
𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6 + 6𝑂2 → 6𝐶𝑂2 + 6𝐻2 𝑂 + Energy
6𝐶𝑂2
𝑅𝑄 = =1
6𝑂2
163. Assertion: Photorespiration is a wasteful process where there is no synthesis of ATP energy.
Reason: RuBis𝐶𝑂 is present in mesophyll cells of 𝐶4 plants hence they show more productivity.
Solution: (C)
Photorespiration does not produce energy or reducing power. Rather it consumes energy. In 𝐶4 plants,
photorespiration, does not occur. Here, RuBis𝐶𝑂 is located only in bundle sheath cells where
photosynthetic release of oxygen does not occur. Bundle sheath cells have a high intracellular
concentration of 𝐶𝑂2 due to flow of 𝐶4 acids and their decarboxylation to release 𝐶𝑂2 . Therefore,
RuBis𝐶𝑂 functions purely as carboxylase in 𝐶4 plants. They show high productivity and hence higher yield.
164. Assertion: Translocation of sugar from source (leaf) to sink is defined as pressure flow hypothesis.
Reason: Translocation of the solute is facilitated through living phloem sieve tube cells.
Solution: (B)
The accepted mechanism for the translocation of sugars from source to sink is called pressure flow
hypothesis. The glucose is prepared at the source by photosynthesis, it is converted to sucrose (a
disaccharide). The sugar Is then moved in the form of sucrose into the companion cells and then into living
phloem, sieve tube cells by active transport.
165. Assertion: Black rust of wheat is a hazardous disease which is caused by Puccinia fungus.
Reason: Aflatoxin is produced in the groundnut by the infection of a bacterium.
Solution: (C)
Stem rust, also known as black stem rust is caused by Puccinia graminis tritici, a fungus. It primarily infects
wheat, but also causes minor infections on cultivars of barley and rye. Groundnut production is reduced
by Aspergillus species, a fungus, which causes quantitative losses and produces highly toxic and
carcinogenic chemical substance known as aflatoxins.
166. Assertion: Somatic hybridisation is a process where protoplasts of two desired plants can be fused
to develop improved plants.
Reason: Cross breeding can also induce variability.
Solution: (B)
167. Assertion: Neurospora is commonly called water mould.

Reason: It belongs to basidiomycetes fungi.
Solution: (D)
Neurospora is commonly called pink/ red bread mould or pink mould. It belongs to Class Ascomycetes (sac
fungi). It is used in experimental genetics as it can be grown easily in a definite medium in a laboratory.
168. Assertion: Cephalisation is advantageous to an animal.

Reason: Cephalisation improves the appearance of an animal.
Solution: (C)
Cephalisation is the concentration of nervous tissue and sense organs in or towards the anterior end
forming a distinct head. It provides greater prominence and domination of the head over the rest of the
body. However, it does not improve the appearance of the animal.
169. Assertion: Secondary metabolites are produced in small quantities and their extraction from the plant
is difficult and expensive.
Reason: Secondary metabolites can be commercially produced by using tissue culture technique.
Solution: (B)
Secondary metabolites are biosynthetically derived from primary metabolites but more limited in
distribution in plant kingdom, being restricted to a particular taxonomic group. Secondary metabolites are
accumulated by plants in smaller quantities as compared to primary metabolites. Also, they are
synthesised in specialised cell types at distinct developmental stages, making their extraction and
purification difficult and expensive. By the culture media using tissue culture techniques, secondary
metabolites can be produced on a large scale.
170. Assertion: Yeasts are unicellular fungi that are used in bakery and brewery industries.
Reason: Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by viroids.
Solution: (B)
171. Assertion: Pulmonary circulation consists flow of deoxygenated blood from right ventricle to the
lungs and flow of oxygenated blood from lungs to the left atrium.
Reason: Systemic circulation consists of flow of oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to all parts of the
body and deoxygenated blood from different parts to right atrium.
Solution: (B)
172. Assertion: ADH and RAAS work in response to low blood volume and blood pressure.
Reason: ANF works in response to high blood volume and blood pressure.
Solution: (B)
ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) and RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) work in response to low
blood volume and low blood pressure. ADH increases the reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted
tubule and collecting duct and thus results in an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
RAAS is operated by JGA (Juxtaglomerular apparatus). It increases blood volume and blood pressure by
two ways: Firstly, it induces the proximal convoluted tubules to reabsorb more 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 and water and
secondly, it stimulates the adrenal glands to release a hormone, called aldosterone that induces the distal
convoluted tubule to absorb more 𝑁𝑎+ and water.
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) works in response to high blood volume and high blood pressure. It opposes
the regulation by RAAS. The walls of the atria of the heart release ANF in response to an increase in blood
volume and blood pressure. ANF inhibits release of renin from the JGA and thereby inhibits 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
reabsorption by the collecting duct and reduces aldosterone release from the adrenal gland. Thus ADH,
RAAS and ANF regulate the functions of kidneys and control body fluid osmolarity, salt concentration,
blood pressure and blood volume.
173. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of female heterogamety and is
found in Drosophila.
Reason: Male heterogamety is seen in moths where males produce two different types of gamete.
Solution: (D)
Chromosomal determination of sex is based on heterogamety or occurrence of two types of gamete in
one of the two sexes. In Drosophila XX-XY type of sex determination is found where males are
heterogametic.
In moths, ZO-ZZ type of sex determination occur where males are homogametic.
174. Assertion: Chimpanzee is the closest relative of the present day humans.
Reason: The banding pattern in some autosomes of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar.
Solution: (A)
It has been observed that the banding pattern of some human chromosomes is very similar to the banding
pattern of the corresponding chromosomes in apes. It shows common origin of man and chimpanzee and
their close relatedness.
175. Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Solution: (C)
Restriction enzyme, a type of endonuclease, functions by "inspecting" the length of a DNA sequence. Once
it finds a recognition sequence, it binds and cuts each of the two strands of the double helix at specific
point leaving single stranded portions at the ends. This results in overhanging stretches called sticky ends.
These are named so because they form hydrogen bonds with their complementary counter parts, i.e.,
they can join similar complementary ends of DNA fragment from some other source with the help of DNA
ligase. This stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA ligase, not DNA polymerase.
176. Assertion: Endomycorrhiza of forest trees contribute to the efficient nutrient cycling in tropical forest
ecosystems.
Reason: The fungi that form endo-mycorrhizal associations with plants make nutrient ions available to
them.
Solution: (A)
The fungi of endomycorrhiza invade the cells of the root cortex, with a portion lying externally as a loose
mass of hyphae in the soil. Mycorrhiza cause considerable stimulation of growth in nutrient deficient soil.
The greatest stimulation occurs in the uptake of phosphates. Mycorrhiza can take up phosphate at that
low concentrations at which they are unavailable to non-mycorrhizal roots.
177. Assertion: The honeybee queen copulates only once in her life time.
Reason: The honeybee queen can lay fertilised as well as unfertilised eggs.
Solution: (B)
Queen is the only fertile female in beehive, having immensely developed ovaries. She lives for several
successive years laying about 2000 or more eggs a day. The queen has a remarkable capacity of controlling
the fertilisation of its eggs. A fertilised egg is laid in a worker or queen cell, while an unfertilised egg in a
drone cell, the latter develops parthenogenetically. The queen mates only once in her life time. The
sperms stored in her spermatheca fertilise her eggs as long as she lives.
178. Assertion: Analogous organs are a result of divergent evolution.

Reason: Eye of octopus and of mammals depict divergent evolution.
Solution: (D)
The organs which have similar functions but are different in their structural details and origin are called
analogous organs. The analogous structures are the result of convergent evolution. Eyes of octopus and
of mammals show different patterns of structure. Yet they perform similar functions, so they depict
convergent evolution.
179. Assertion: Conversion of 1, 3 biphospho-glycerate (BPGA) to 3 −phospho-glyceric acid (PGA) is an

energy yielding step.
Reason: This energy is trapped in the form of ATP.
Solution: (B)
One of the two phosphates of 1, 3 biphosphoglycerate (BPGA) is linked by high energy bond. It can
synthesise ATP and form 3 −phosphoglycerate by phosphoglycerate kinase enzyme. The direct synthesis
of ATP from metabolites is called substrate level phosphorylation.
180. Assertion: On stimulation, a muscle cell releases calcium ions (𝐶𝑎2+ ) from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Reason: By reacting with a protein complex, 𝐶𝑎2+ uncover active sites on the actin filaments.
Solution: (B)
General Knowledge
181. Where is the longest river bridge in India?

(A) Assam
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Solution: (A)
Assam
182. Who is current Defence Minister of India?
(A) Manohar Parrikar
(B) Rajnath Singh
(C) Arun Jaitley
(D) Suresh Prabhu
Solution: (C)
Arun Jaitley
183. ICMR stands for

(A) Indian Council of Medicine Research
(B) International Council of Medicine Research
(C) International Council of Medical Research
(D) Indian Council of Medical Research
Solution: (D)
Indian Council of Medical Research
184. ‘URJA’ mobile app is related to

(A) Students scholarship programme
(B) Electricity
(C) Sports
(D) Bank loans
Solution: (B)
Electricity
185. According to international media which country hacked American President's election in 2016?
(A) China
(B) North Korea
(C) Russia
(D) Japan
Solution: (C)
Russia
186. Mr 𝑋′s house is South-East to police station which is East to grocery shop. If 𝑋 wants to go to grocery
shop in which direction should he move?
(A) North-East
(B) North-West
(C) South
(D) South-West
Solution: (A)
North-East
187. Who gave the slogan of "Do or Die"?

(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel
Solution: (B)
Mahatma Gandhi
188. BHIM app is used for

(A) Making digital payments
(B) Gas subsidies
(C) Education loans
(D) Exam locator
Solution: (A)
Making digital payments
189. Select odd one out.

(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Tennis
(D) Badminton
Solution: (D)
190. What does "GST" stands for?

(A) Goods and Service Transfer
(B) Good Service Tax
(C) Good Security Tax
(D) Goods and Services Tax
Solution: (D)
191. Which of the following cyber attacks crippled most of the countries in the world?
(A) Ransomware
(B) GhostNet
(C) StarDust
(D) Cleaver
Solution: (A)
Ransomware
192. Who is the current Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) in the Indian Army?
(A) Balbir Singh Sandhu
(B) Amit Sarin
(C) Bipin Rawat
(D) Dalbir Singh Suhag
Solution: (C)
Bipin Rawat
193. Arrange the following in the correct order of AIIMS MBBS − 2017 application.
1. Registration
2. Receive Password
3. City Choice
4. Fee Payment
(A) 1243
(B) 4321
(C) 1342
(D) 1432
Solution: (A)
1243
194. Select the odd one out.

(A) Violin
(B) Piano
(C) Guitar
(D) Veena
Solution: (B)
Piano
195. Big Bazaar is North of post office and Ravi's house is located in East of post office. Find the direction
of Big Bazaar from Ravi's house?
(A) North-West
(B) South-East
(C) North-East
(D) North
Solution: (A)
North-West
196. Select a figure from the options which will complete the given figure pattern.
(A) 7 ∶ 20
(B) 7 ∶ 40
(C) 6 ∶ 40
(D) 7 ∶ 00
Solution: (D)
7 ∶ 00
197. In Burz Khalifa 𝐴 is descending from 151st floor by lift with a speed of 6 floors per second while 𝐵 is
ascending from 1st floor by lift with a speed of 4 floors per second. After what time both 𝐴 and 𝐵 will
meet?
(A) 15 sec.
(B) 25 sec.
(C) 35 sec.
(D) 10 sec.
Solution: (A)
15 sec.
198. The given three figures (𝑋), (𝑌) and (𝑍) shows a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure (𝑍)
shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Identify the unfolded form of figure (𝑍).
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (A)
199. Select the Venn diagram which satisfies the following criteria:
"Some men are teachers,
All mothers are teachers".
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution: (C)
200. Find the missing characters, if same rule is applied in all the three figures.
(A) 𝑅
(B) 𝑊
(C) 𝑂
(D) 𝑃
Solution: (A)

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Physics

Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) 2.5 𝑚⁄𝑠 2

8. The measurement of voltmeter in the following circuit is

According to new cartesian sign convention,

If 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 , 𝑇3 are the tensions in the strings in the three cases, we have

Given 𝑉𝑖 = 10 𝑉, 𝑅𝑏 = 400 𝑘Ω = 400 × 103 Ω

(A) 𝑚𝑔sin𝜃 + 𝐹cos𝜃

42. Assertion: A rigid body can be elastic.

48. Assertion: An electrical bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.

On smooth surface, sphere will slide without rolling.

at infinite dilution in 𝐻2 𝑂 at 25𝑜 𝐶.

63. 𝐻2 𝑂 is polar, whereas 𝐵𝑒𝐹2 is not because

64. The correct order of solubility of the following compounds in water is

65. Which of the following electronic configurations has maximum energy?

As 1 mole of 𝐻2 reacts with 1 mole of 𝐼2 , even at equilibrium, [𝐻2 ] = [𝐼2 ]

71. Which of the following compounds is aromatic in nature?

77. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(A) 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉

82. The colourless species is

83. Consider the following set of reactions:

The structure of 𝐷 would be

85. What will be compound 𝐴 in the following reaction?

86. Decreasing order of reactivity in Williamson synthesis of the following:

(A) 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼

87. Select the correct options from the following:

89. The temperature dependence of a reaction is represented by the Arrhenius equation:

92. What is the name of the following reaction?

93. Arrange the following nucleophiles in the decreasing order of nucleophilicity:

(𝐼𝐼) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂 is a conjugate base of 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 (𝐼𝐼).

Order of acidic nature is 𝐼𝑉 > 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼.

Arrange 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 in order of increasing acidic strengths.

(A) 𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼 > 𝐼𝐼𝐼

104. Assertion: Hydrides of group−16 elements show volatility in the order:

𝐻2 𝑆 > 𝐻2 𝑆𝑒 > 𝐻2 𝑇𝑒 > 𝐻2 𝑂

107. Assertion: Oxidation of 1 −nitronaphthalene gives 𝑜 −nitrophthalic acid whereas 1 −amino

108. Assertion: [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− has 𝑑2 𝑠𝑝3 type hybridisation.

115. Assertion: Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

116. Assertion: Activity of an enzyme is 𝑝𝐻 −dependent.

119. Assertion: Nucleotides are phosphate esters of nucleosides.

121. Identify the incorrect statement about ABA growth regulator.

(A) 𝐵 −Graafian follicle, 𝐹 −Corpus luteum

125. Select the mismatched pair out of the following.

127. An example of stretch reflex triggered by passive muscle movement is the

129. Select the correct statement regarding reproduction.

130. Documented microfossils have been found that are as old as

(A) 𝐴 − (𝑖𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖)

(A) 𝐴 −Histone octamer, 𝐶 −DNA

(A) 𝐴 − (𝑣), 𝐵 − (𝑖𝑖𝑖), 𝐶 − (𝑖), 𝐷 − (𝑖𝑖)

138. Identify the accurate explanation of mesosome. It is

142. After double fertilisation, a mature ovule has

144. 𝐶4 plants have better productivity because

146. Wharton’s duct is the duct of

148. Which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?

151. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

152. Keystone species deserve protection because these

154. The checkpoint in cell cycle plays important role in

155. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of

157. Which of the following statements is correct regarding menstrual cycle?

158. Which of the following conditions represents a case of codominant genes?

162. Assertion: Glucose is the favoured respiratory substrate.

167. Assertion: Neurospora is commonly called water mould.

168. Assertion: Cephalisation is advantageous to an animal.

178. Assertion: Analogous organs are a result of divergent evolution.