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EBD_7208
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(ii)
Contents
1. Physical World 1-4
2. Units and Measurements 5-16
3. Motion in a Straight Line 17-34
4. Motion in a Plane 35-54
5. Laws of Motion 55-74
6. Work, Energy and Power 75-94
7. System of Particles and Rotational Motion 95-114
8. Gravitation 115-130
9. Mechanical Properties of Solids 131-142
10. Mechanical Properties of Fluids 143-160
11. Thermal Properties of Matter 161-176
12. Thermodynamics 177-194
13. Kinetic Theory 195-208
14. Oscillations 209-228
15. Waves 229-246
16. Electric Charges and Fields 247-264
17. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 265-282
18. Current Electricity 283-302
(iii)
EBD_7208
19. Moving Charges and Magnetism 303-322
20. Magnetism and Matter 323-336
21. Electromagnetic Induction 337-350
22. Alternating Current 351-368
23. Electromagnetic Waves 369-378
24. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 379-398
25. Wave Optics 399-416
26. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 417-430
27. Atoms 431-442
28. Nuclei 443-458
29. Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices

and Simple Circuits 459-474
30. Communication Systems 475-486
Mock Test - 1 MT-1-6
(iv)
1
PHYSICAL WORLD
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize for his experiment on
(a) dispersion of light (b) reflection of light
1. The branch of science which deals with nature and natural
(c) deflection of light (d) scattering of light
phenomena is called
(a) Sociology (b) Biology 10. Louis de-Broglie is credited for his work on
(c) Civics (d) Physics (a) theory of relativity
2. Science is exploring, ...x... and ...y... from what we see (b) electromagnetic theory
around us. Here, x and y refer to
(c) matter waves
(a) qualitative, modify (b) experiment, predict
(c) verification, predict (d) reasoning, quantitative (d) law of distribution of velocities
3. The person who has been awarded the title of the Father of 11 Madam Marie Curie won Nobel Prize twice which were in
Physics of 20th century is the field of
(a) Madame Curie (b) Sir C.V. Raman (a) Physics and chemistry(b) Chemistry only
(c) Neils Bohar (d) Albert Einstein (c) Physics only (d) Biology only
4. The man who is known as the Father of Experimental Physics 12. A scientific way of doing things involve
is (a) identifying the problem
(a) Newton (b) Albert Einstein (b) collecting data
(c) Galileo (d) Rutherford (c) hypothesising a possible theory
5. Macroscopic domain includes (d) All of the above
(a) phenomena at the laboratory 13. Two Indian born physicists who have been awarded Nobel
(b) terrestrial scales Prize in Physics are
(c) astronomical scales (a) H. J. Bhabha and APJ Kalam
(d) All of the above (b) C.V. Raman and S. Chandrasekhar
6. The man who has won Nobel Prize twice in physics is (c) J.C. Bose and M.N. Saha
(a) Einstein (b) Bardeen (d) S. N. Bose and H. J. Bhabha
14. Who gave general theory of relativity?
(c) Heisenberg (d) Faraday
(a) Einstein (b) Marconi
7. Prof. Albert Einstein got nobel prize in physics for his work (c) Ampere (d) Newton
on 15. Who discovered X-rays?
(a) special theory of relativity (a) Chadwick (b) Roentgen
(b) general theory of relativity (c) Thomson (d) Madam Curie
(c) photoelectric effect 16. The field of work of S. Chandrashekar is
(a) theory of black hole (b) Cosmic rays
(d) theory of specific heats (c) theory of relativity (d) X-rays
8. Which of the following is wrongly matched ? 17. When we hold a book in our hand, we are balancing the
(a) Barometer-Pressure gravitational force on the book due to
(b) Lactometer-Milk (a) normal force provided by our hand
(b) friction force provided by our book
(c) Coulomb’s law-charges
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Humidity-Calorimeter (d) None of these
EBD_7208
2 PHYSICAL WORLD
18. Which of the following has infinite range? (a) Only I (b) Only III
(a) Gravitational force (b) Electromagnetic force (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(c) Strong nuclear force (d) Both (a) and (b)
19. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
the strengths of four fundamental forces of nature ?
(a) Electromagnetic force > weak nuclear force > Match the Column I and Column II.
gravitational force > strong nuclear force 26. Column I Column II
(b) Strong nuclear force > weak nuclear force > (A) Johannes Kepler (1) Nuclear model of the atom
electromagnetic force > gravitational force (B) Tycho Brahe (2) Planetary motion
(c) Gravitational force > electromagnetic force > strong
(C) Nicolas Copernicus (3) Elliptical orbit theory
nuclear force > weak nuclear force
(d) Strong nuclear force > electromagnetic force > weak (D) Ernest Rutherford (4) Circular orbit theory
nuclear force > gravitational force (a) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
20. The exchange particles for the electromagnetic force are (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
(a) gravitons (b) gluons (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
(c) photons (d) mesons
(d) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
21. Which of the following is true regarding the physical
27. Column I Column II
science?
(a) They deal with non-living things (A) Galileo Galilei (1) Explanation of
(b) The study of matter are conducted at atomic or ionic photoelectric effect.
levels (B) JC Bose (2) Law of inertia.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these (C) Albert Einstein (3) Discovery of Ultra short
22. Which of the following is the weakest force? radio waves.
(a) Nuclear force (b) Gravitational force (D) JJ Thomson (4) Discovery of electron.
(c) Electromagnetic force (d) None of these
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
23. The scientific principle involves in production of ultra high
magnetic fields is (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) super conductivity (b) digital logic (c) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) photoelectric effect (d) laws of thermodynamics (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (A) J.C Maxwell (1) Verified experimentally
24 Consider the following statements and select the correct the prediction of
statement(s). electromagnetic force.
I. Optics deal with the phenomena involving light. (B) Cario Rubia (2) Unified electricity,
II. Unification means physical phenomena in terms of
magnetism and optics,
few concepts and laws.
III. Macroscopic domain of Physics deals with the showed that light is an
constitution and structure of matter at the minute EM waves.
scales of atoms and nuclei. (C) Isaac Newton (3) Unified celestial and
(a) Only I (b) Only II terrestrial mechanics.
(c) I and II (d) II and III (D) Michael Faraday (4) Showed that electric
25. Which of the following statements is/are correct? and magnetic
I. Strong nuclear force binds protons and neutrons in a phenomenon i.e.,
nucleus.
electromagnetism.
II. In twentieth century, silicon chip triggered a
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
revolutionary changes in technology of computer
system. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
III. The fossil fuels of the planet are dwindling fast and (c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1)
there is urgent need to discover new source of energy. (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
PHYSICAL WORLD 3
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

29. In Rutherford, alpha particle scattering experiment as shown Directions : Each of these questions contains two statements,
in given figure, A and B refer to Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
Lead Flash of have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
block light
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
Microscope
explanation for assertion.
Fluorescent (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
screen correct explanation for assertion
A Scattering (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
angle
B (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
30. Assertion : The concept of energy is central to Physics
and expression for energy can be written for every
(a) polonium sample and aluminium foil
physical system.
(b) polonium sample and gold foil
Reason : Law of conservation of energy is not valid for
(c) uranium sample and gold foil
all forces and for any kind of transformation between
(d) uranium sample and aluminium foil
different forms of energy.
31. Assertion : Electromagnetic force is much stronger than
the gravitational farce.
Reason : Electromagnetic force dominates all phenomena
at atomic and molecular scales.
EBD_7208
4 PHYSICAL WORLD
28. (b) Name of the Achievement in

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS Year
Physicist unification
1. (d) Isaac Newton 1687 Unified celestial and
2. (b) Science is exploring, experimenting and predicting terrestrial mechanics,
from what we see around us. showed that the same laws
3. (d) 4. (c)
of motion and the law of
5. (d) The macroscopic domain includes phenomena at the
laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical scales. gravitation apply to both the
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) domains.
10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) Michael 1830 Showed phenomena of
14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) Faraday electromagnetism.
17. (a) When we hold a book in our hand , we are balancing J.C. Maxwell 1873 Unified electricity,
the gravitational force on the book due to the huge mass of magnetism and optics,
the Earth by the ‘normal force’ provided by our hand. showed that light is an
18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (c) electromagnetic wave.
22. (b) 23. (a)
Cario Rubia 1984 Verified experimentally the
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS predictions of the theory of
24. (a) Optics deals with the phenomena involving light. The electromagnetic force.
working of telescopes and microscopes, colours
exhibited by thin films, etc., are topics in optics. DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
The microscopic domain of Physics deals with the 29. (b) The alpha particle scattering experiment of Rutherford
constitution and structure of matter at the minute gave the nuclear model of the atom as shown in figure
scales of atoms and nuclei (and even lower scales of
length) and their interaction with different probes such Lead Flash of
as electrons, photons and other elementary particles. block light
25. (d) In a nucleus, strong nuclear force (strongest
fundamental force) binds protons and neutrons. The
silicon ‘chip’ triggered the computer revolution the Fluorescent
A
last three decades of the twentieth century. screen
A most significant area to which Physics has and will
contribute is the development of alternative energy Scattering
B angle
resources. The fossil fuels of the planet are dwindling
fact and there is an urgent need to discover new and Polonium Gold foil
affordable sources of energy. sample
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS

ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
26. (a) Johannes Kepler examined the extensive data on
planetary motion collected by Tycho Brahe the planetary 30. (c) The concept of energy is central to Physics and the
circular orbits in heliocentric theory (Sun at the centre of expressions for energy can be written for every
the solar system) imagined by Nicolas Copernicus had to physical system. When all forms of energy e.g., Heat,
be replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the data better. mechanical energy, electrical energy etc., are counted,
27. (a) it turns out that energy is conserved. The general law
of conservation of energy is true for all forces and for
Name of the Major contribution Country of any kind of transformation between different forms of
physicist /discovery origin energy.
Galileo Galilei Law of inertia Italy 31. (a) It is mainly the electromagnetic force that governs the
JC Bose Ultra short radio India structure of atoms and molecules, the dynamics of
waves chemical reactions and the mechanical, thermal and
JJ Thomson Electron Uk other properties of materials.
Albert Einstein Explanation of Germeny
photoelectric effect;
Theory of relativity
2
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. One yard in SI unit is equal to

(a) 1.9144 metre (b) 0.9144 metre
1. Which of the following systems of units is not based on (c) 0.09144 kilometre (d) 1.0936 kilometre
units of mass, length and time alone ? 10. Which one of the following is the smallest unit?
(a) SI (b) MKS (a) millimetre (b) angstrom
(b) CGS (d) FPS (c) fermi (d) metre
2. Number of base SI units is 11. The prototype of the international standard kilogram
(a) 4 (b) 7 supplied by the International Bureau of Weights and
(c) 3 (d) 5 Measures (BIPM) are available at
3. Second is defined in terms of periods of radiation from (a) National Physics Laboratory
Cesiuim 133 because (b) National science centre
(a) it is not affected by the change of place (c) CSIR
(b) it is not affected by the change of time (d) None of these
(c) it is not affected by the change of Physical conditions 12. Illuminance of a surface is measured in
(d) All of these. (a) lumen
4. 1° (degree) is equal to (b) Candela
(a) 17 radian (c) lux
(b) 17.45 × 10–2 radian
(d) lux m–2
(c) 17.45 × 10–2 radian
13. Which of the following is not the unit of time ?
(d) 1.745 × 10–2 radian
(a) Micro second (b) Leap year
5. Very large distances such as the distance of a Planet or
(c) Lunar month (d) Parallactic second
a star from Earth can be measured by
14. Universal time is based on
(a) Spectrograph
(a) rotation of the earth on its axis
(b) Millikan’s oil drop method
(c) Parallax method (b) earth’s orbital motion around the Sun
(d) All of these. (c) vibrations of cesium atom
6. One unified atomic mass unit is equal to (d) oscillations of quartz crystal
(a) 12 times the mass of one carbon-12 atom 15. 1 Parsec is equal to
(a) 3.1 × 10 –16 m. (b) 3.26 ly
1 (c) 6.3× 104 Au (d) 1.496 × 1011 m.
(b) of the mass of 12 atoms of C-12
12 16. Which of the following can measure length upto 10–5 m ?
1 (a) Metre scale (b) Vernier callipers
(c) of the mass of one atom of C-12 (c) Spherometer (d) None of these
12
17. Systematic errors can be
(d) 12 times the mass of 12 atoms of C-12
(a) positive only
7. Light year is
(b) negative only
(a) light emitted by the sun in one year.
(c) either positive or negative
(b) time taken by light to travel from sun to earth.
(d) None of these
(c) the distance travelled by light in free space in one year.
18. Instrumental errors are due to
(d) time taken by earth to go once around the sun.
(a) imperfect design
8. Length cannot be measured by
(a) fermi (b) debye (b) zero error in the instrument
(c) micron (d) light year (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
EBD_7208
6 UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS
19. ____ is the ratio of the mean absolute error to the mean 31. The unit of percentage error is
value of the quantity measured. (a) same as that of physical quantity
(a) Absolute error (b) Relative error (b) different from that of physical quantity
(c) Percentage error (d) None of these (c) percentage error is unitless
20. Random error can be eliminated by
(a) careful observation (d) errors have got their own units which are different
(b) eliminating the cause from that of physical quantity measured
(c) measuring the quantity with more than one instrument 32. If L = 2. 331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B =
(d) taking large number of observations and then their (a) 4.4 cm (b) 4 cm
mean. (c) 4.43 cm (d) 4.431 cm
21. When two quantities are added or subtracted, the 33. When two quantities are divided, the relative error in the
absolute error in the final result is the result is given by
(a) sum of the absolute errors in the individual quantities (a) the product of the relative error in the individual
(b) sum of the relative errors in the individual quantities quantities
(c) can be (a) or (b) (b) the quotient of the relative error in the individual
(d) None of these quantities
22. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. Then (c) the difference of the relative error in the individual
error in the measurement of volume is quantities
(a) 1% (b) 5% (d) the sum of the relative error in the individual
(c) 3% (d) 8% quantities
23. The _____ is a measure of how closed the measured
value is to the true value of quantity. Z
34. If Z = A3, then = –––––
(a) Precision (b) accuracy Z
(c) Error (d) None of these. 3
A3 A
24. Which of the following is not a systematic error ? (a) (b)
(a) Instrumental error A A
(b) Imperfection in experimental technique 1/3
A A
(c) Personal error (c) 3 (d)
A A
(d) None of these
25. The smallest value that can be measured by the 35. What is the correct number of significant figures in
measuring instrument is called 0.0003026 ?
(a) least count (b) parallax (a) Four (b) Seven
(c) accuracy (d) precision (c) Eight (d) Six
26. The _____ is the error associated with the resolution of 36. Which of the following is the most accurate?
the instrument. (a) 200.0 m (b) 20 × 101 m
2
(c) 2 × 10 m (d) 0.2 × 103 m
(a) parallax error (b) systematic error
(c) random error (d) least count error 37. The number of significant figures in 0.00060 m is
27. Absolute error is always (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) positive (b) negative (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 38. The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and 0.301 in
28. The magnitude of the difference between the individual appropriate significant figures is
measurement and true value of the quantity is called (a) 6663.821 (b) 664
(a) absolute error (b) relative error (c) 663.8 (d) 663.8
(c) percentage error (d) None of these 4.327 g
29. The pitch and the number of circular scale divisions in a 39. Number of significant figures in expression is
2.51 cm3
screw gauge with least count 0.02 mm are respectively
(a) l mm and 100 (b) 0.5 mm and 50 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 1 mm and 50 (d) 0.5 mm and 100 (c) 3 (d) 5
30. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 40. The dimensions of force are
cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it? (a) [ML2T–1] (b) [M2L3T–2]
(a) A meter scale. (c) [MLT–2] (d) None of these
(b) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale 41. The dimensions of speed and velocity are
matches with 9 division in main scale and main scale (a) [L2T], [LT –1] (b) [LT–1], [LT –2]
has 10 divisions in 1 cm. (c) [LT], [LT] (d) [LT–1], [LT –1]
(c) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale 42. By equating a physical quantity with its dimensional
and pitch as 1 mm. formula we get
(d) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale (a) dimensional analysis (b) dimensional equation
and pitch as 1 mm. (c) dimensional formula (d) none of these
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS 7
–13
43. Dimensional analysis can be applied to III. 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10 Joule
(a) check the dimensional consistency of equations IV. 1 newton = 10–5 dyne
(b) deduce relations among the physical quantities. (a) I, II and III (b) III and IV
(c) to convert from one system of units to another (c) I only (d) IV only
(d) All of these 55. Which the following is/are correct?
44. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions which I. Pressure = energy per unit area
mathematical operation given below is physically II. Pressure = energy per unit volume
meaningful? III. Pressure = force per unit volume
(a) A/B (b) A + B IV. Pressure = momentum per unit volume per unit time
(c) A – B (d) A = B (a) I and II (b) II only
45. Which is dimensionless? (c) III only (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) Force/acceleration (b) Velocity/acceleration 56. Consider the following statements and select the correct
(c) Volume/area (d) Energy/work option.
46. Which of the following quantities has a unit but I. Every measurement by any measuring instrument
dimensionless? has some error
(a) Strain (b) Reynolds number II. Every calculated physical quantity that is based on
(c) Angular displacement(d) Poisson’s ratio measured values has some error
47. The wrong unit conversion among the following is III. A measurement can have more accuracy but less
(a) 1 angstrom = 10–10m precision and vice versa
(b) 1 fermi = 10–15m (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) 1 light year = 9.46 × l015m (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
(d) 1 astronomical unit = 1.496 × 10–11m 57. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
48. The physical quantity that does not have the dimensional I. 345.726 has six significant figures
formula [ML–1T–2] is II. 0.004289 has seven singificant figures
(a) force (b) pressure III. 125000 has three significant figures
(c) stress (d) modulus of elasticity IV. 9.0042 has five significant figures
49. The dimensions of pressure is equal to (a) I only (b) II only
(a) force per unit volume (b) energy per unit volume (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
(c) force (d) energy 58. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
50. The dimensional formula of angular velocity is I. Change of units does not change the number of
significant digits
(a) [MLT–1] (b) [M0L0T]
0 –2 II. All the non– zero digits are significant
(c) [ML T ] (d) [M0L0T–1]
III. All the zero between two non-zero digits are
51. The physical quantity that has no dimensions is
significant
(a) strain (b) angular velocity
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) angular momentum (d) linear momentum
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
52. Consider the following statements and select the correct MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
statement(s).
59. Match the columns I and II.
I. Light year and year, both measure time. Column I Column II
II. Both have dimension of time.
(A) Practical unit (1) radian
III. Light year measures length.
(B) Base unit (2) light year
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(C) Derived unit (3) kg-ms–1
(c) II only (d) III only
(D) Complementary unit (4) second
53. Consider the following statements and select the correct
statement(s)? (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
I. If l1= 0.6 cm ; l2 = 0.60 cm and l3 = 0.600 cm, then (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
l3 is the most accurate measurement. (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
II. l3 = 0.600 cm has the least error so it is most accurate (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(a) I only (b) II only 60. Column-I Column-II
(c) Both I and II (d) None of these (A) Distance between earth & stars (1) micron
54. Consider the following statements and select the correct (B) Inter-atomic distance in a solid (2) angstrom
statement(s). (C) Size of the nucleus (3) light year
I. 1 calorie = 4.18 joule
(D) Wavelength of infrared laser (4) fermi
–10 (5) kilometre
II. 1A = 10 m
EBD_7208
(a) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (2) 66. Column I Column II
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) (A) Mean absolute error (1) amean/ amean
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) a mean
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (B) Relative error (2) 100
a mean
(A) Length (1) burette n
(C) Percentage error (3) | ai | / n
(B) Volume (2) Vernier callipers i=1
(C) Diameter of a thin wire (3) screw gauge (D)Absolute error (4) an – amean
(D) Mass (4) common balance (a)(A) (3); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
(b)(A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(c)(A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(d)(A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
(A) Joule (1) MLT –2
62. Match the following column I and II.
(B) Newton (2) ML–1 T –2
Column I Column II (C) Hertz (3) ML2 T –2
(A) 1 Fermi (1) 3.08 × 1016 m (D) Pascal (4) M0L0 T –1
(B) 1 Astronomical unit (2) 9.46 × 1015 m (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(C) 1 Light year (3) 1.496 × 1011 m (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(D) 1 Parsec (4) 10–15 m (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) 68. Column - I Column - II
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1) (A) Force (1) T–1
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) (B) Angular velocity (2) MLT–2
63. Column I Column II (C) Torque (3) ML–1T–2
(A) Meter scale (1) 3.08 × 1016 m (D) Stress (4) ML–1T–1
(B) Vernier callipers (2) 10–5 m (5) ML2T–2
(C) Screw gauge (3) 10–3m to 102m (a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(D) Parallax method (4) 10–4 m (b) (A) (2); B (1); (C) (5); (D) (4)
(a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (2); (D) (3) (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1) 69. Match the columns I and II.
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) Column I Column II
64. Column I Column II (A) Angle (1) ML2 T–3
(A) Size of atomic nucleus (1) 1011 m (B) Power (2) M0L0T 0
(B) Distance of the (2) 107 m (C) Work (3) ML2 T–2
sun from Earth (D) Force (4) MLT–2
(C) Radius of Earth (3) 10 –15 m (a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(D) Size of proton (4) 10 –14 m (b) (A) (2); B (1); (C) (5); (D) (4)
(a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
70. For the given figure solid angle, d is equal to
(A) Rotation period of (1) 109s
Earth r
(B) Average human (2) 1017s
life – span d dA
(C) Travel time for light (3) 105s
from Sun to Earth
(D) Age of universe (4) 102s
(a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) (a) r2dA steradian (b) dA/r2 steradian
(c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2) r2
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) (c) steradian (d) dA/r steradian
dA
71. The accompanying diagram represents a screw gauge. Reason : The permissible error is calculated by the
The circular scale is divided into 50 divisions and the
A 4 r
linear scale is divided into millimeters. If the screw formula
advances by 1 mm when the circular scale makes 2 A r
complete revolutions, the least count of the instrument 79. Assertion : Absolute error may be negative or positive.
and the reding of the instrument in figure are respectively. Reason : Absolute error is the difference between the real
value and the measured value of a physical quantity.
80. Assertion : The number of significant figures depends on
40 the least count of measuring instrument.
35
30 Reason : Significant figures define the accuracy of
0 1 2 3 25 measuring instrument.
20
81. Assertion : Out of three measurements I = 0.7 m; I = 0.70
m and I = 0.700 m, the last one is most accurate.
(a) 0.01 mm and 3.82 mm Reason : In every measurement, only the last significant
(b) 0.02 mm and 3.70 mm digit is not accurately known.
(c) 0.11 mm and 4.57 mm 82. Assertion : Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one
(d) 1.0 mm and 5.37 mm and that in 0.500 is three
Reason : This is because zeros are not significant.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 83. Assertion: ‘Light year’ and ‘Wavelength’ both measure
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, distance.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four Reason : Both have dimension of time.
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You 84. Assertion : Dimensional constants are the quantities
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. whose values are constant.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct Reason : Dimensional constants are dimensionless.
explanation for assertion. 85. Assertion : Avogadro’s number is the number of atoms
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a in one gram mole.
correct explanation for assertion Reason : Avogadro’s number is a dimensionless constant.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 86. Assertion : Energy cannot be divided by volume.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. Reason : Dimensions for energy and volume are different.
72. Assertion : Now a days a standard metre is defined in terms
87. Assertion : Angle and strain are dimensionless.
of the wavelength of light.
Reason : Light has no relation with length. Reason : Angle and strain have no unit.
73. Assertion : Parallax method cannot be used for measuring mass
distances of stars more than 100 light years away. 88. Assertion : In the equation momentum, P = x, the
area
Reason : Because parallax angle reduces so much that it
dimensional formula of x is LT – 2.
cannot be measured accurately.
74. Assertion : A.U. is much bigger than Å. Reason : Quantities with different dimensions can be multi-
Reason : A.U. stands for astronomical unit and A plied.
stands for Angstrom. 89. Assertion : Force cannot be added to pressure.
75. Assertion : When we change the unit of measurement of a Reason : The dimensions of force and pressure are
quantity, its numerical value changes. different.
Reason : Smaller the unit of measurement smaller is its 90. Assertion : The time period of a pendulum is given by
numerical value. the formula, T = 2 g/
76. Assertion : The cesium atomic clocks are very accurate
Reason : According to the principle of homogeneity of
Reason : The vibration of cesium atom regulate the rate
dimensions, only that formula is correct in which the
of cesium atomic clock.
dimensions of L.H.S. is equal to dimensions of R.H.S.
77. Assertion: In the measurement of physical quantities direct
and indirect methods are used. 1
91. Assertion: Formula for kinetic energy is K = mu2 = ma
Reason : The accuracy and precision of measuring 2
instruments along with errors in measurements should be
taken into account, while expressing the result. 1
Reason : Both the equation K = mv2 and k = ma are
78. Assertion : The error in the measurement of radius of the 2
sphere is 0.3%.The permissible error in its surface area is dimensionally incorrect.
0.6%.
EBD_7208
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 101. One centimetre on the main scale of a vernier callipers is
divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions of vernier coincide
92. If unit of length and force are increased 4 times. The unit of with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of
energy vernier callipers is
(a) is increased by 4 times (a) 0.01 cm (b) 0.02 cm
(b) is increased by 16 times (c) 0.05 cm (d) 0.005 cm
(c) is increased by 8 times 102. The pitch of the screw gauge is 0.5 mm. Its circular scale
(d) remains unchanged contains 50 divisions. The least count of the screw gauge
93. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. is
In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit (a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.01 mm
of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be
(c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.025 mm
(a) 0.4 (b) 40 (c) 400 (d) 0.04 103. Relative density of a metal may be found with the help of
94. Resistance R = V/I, here V= (100 5)V and I = (100 0.2 ) spring balance. In air the spring balance reads (5.00 ± 0.05)
A. Find percentage error in R. N and in water it reads (4.00 ± 0.05) N. Relative density
(a) 5% (b) 2% would be
(c) 7% (d) 3% (a) (5.00 ± 0.05)N (b) (5.00 ± 11%)
95. Find equivalent resistance when R1 = (100 3) and
(c) (5.00 ± 0.10) (d) (5.00 ± 6%)
R2 = (200 4) when connected in series
104. A quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb Tc. The % error
(a) (300 7) (b) (300 1) in measurement of M, L and T are a%, b% and g%
(c) (100 7) (d) None of these respectively. The % error in X would be
96. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured
(a) ( a b c) % (b) ( a b c) %
with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
Quantity P is calculated as follows (c) ( a b c) 100% (d) None of these
a 3b 2 Z
P= % error in P is 105. If Z = A4 B1/3/ CD3/2, than relative error in Z. is
cd Z
(a) 10% (b) 7% (c) 4% (d) 14% equal to
97. In a vernier callipers N division of vernier coincide with 4 1/3 3/2
A B C D
(N – 1) divisions of main scale in which length of a division (a) –
A B C D
is 1 mm. The least count of the instrument in cm is
(a) N (b) N – 1 A 1 B C 3 D
(b) 4
1 A 3 B C 2 D
(c) (d) (1 / N) – 1
10N
A 1 B C 3 D
1 (c) 4
98. The least count of a stop watch is s. The time of 20 A 3 B C 2 D
5
oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 s. What is A
4
1 B C 3 D
the maximum percentage error in this measurement ? (d)
A 3 B C 2 D
(a) 8 % (b) 1 %
(c) 0.8 % (d) 16 % 106. A force F is applied onto a square plate of side L. If the
percentage error in determining L is 2% and that in F is
99. The refractive index of water measured by the relation
4%, the permissible percentage error in determining the
real depth pressure is
= is found to have values of 1.34, 1.38,
apparent depth (a) 2% (b) 4%
1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with (c) 6% (d) 8%
percentage error is L
107. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = 2 .
(a) 1.35 ± 1.48 % (b) 1.35 ± 0 % g
(c) 1.36 ± 6 % (d) 1.36 ± 0 % Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm accuracy
100. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be
length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum percentage error in the 90 s using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in
the determination of g is
measurement of its density is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1% (b) 5%
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 2% (d) 3%
108. ln a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum percentage 116. If P,Q, R are physical quantities, having different
error in the measurement of length is 2% and that in the dimensions, which of the following combinations can never
observation of the time-period is 3%. Then the maximum be a meaningful quantity?
percentage error in determination of the acceleration due (a) (P – Q) / R (b) PQ – R
to gravity g is (c) PQ / R (d) (PR – Q2) / R
(a) 5% (b) 6% 117. Dimensions of specific heat are
(c) 1% (d) 8% (a) [ML2 T–2 K] (b) [ML2 T–2 K–1]
109. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a Vernier callipers 2 2
(c) [ML T K ] –1 (d) [L2 T–2 K–1]
which has divisions of 0.1 cm on its main scale (MS) and 10
118. The dimensions of torque are
divisions of its vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the
main scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given (a) [ MLT 2 ] (b) [ ML2 T 2 ]
below:
(c) [ ML2T 1 ] (d) [ M 2 L2T 2 ]
S.No. MS(cm) VS divisions 119. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that
1. 0.5 8 of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of
2. 0.5 4 (a) time (b) frequency
(c) angular momentum (d) velocity
3. 0.5 6
120. Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal.
If the zero error is – 0.03 cm, then mean corrected diameter is (a) Torque and work (b) Stress and energy
(a) 0.52 cm (b) 0.59 cm (c) Force and stress (d) Force and work.
(c) 0.56 cm (d) 0.53 cm 121. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are
110. The respective number of significant figures for the number (a) torque and work
23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are respectively. (b) momentum and Planck’s constant
(a) 5, 1 and 2 (b) 5, 1 and 5 (c) stress and Young’s modulus
(c) 5, 5 and 2 (d) 4, 4 and 2 1/ 2
(d) speed and ( o o)
111. The value of resistance is 10.845 and the value of current is
122. Which one of the following represents the correct
3.23 A. The potential difference is 35.02935 volt. Its value in
dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity ?
significant number would be
(a) 35 V (b) 35.0 V (a) [ML 1T 1 ] (b) [MLT 1 ]
(c) 35.03 V (d) 35.029 V
112. Mass of a body is 210 gm and its density is 7.981 g/cm3 (c) [ML 1T 2 ] 2 2
(d) [ML T ]
what will be its volume, with regard to significant digits? 123. The density of a material in CGS system is 8 g / cm3. In a
(a) 26.312 cm3 (b) 26 cm3 system of a unit in which unit of length is 5 cm and unit of
(c) 27 cm 3 (d) 26.3 cm3 mass is 20 g. The density of material is
113. A force is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time, the (a) 8 (b) 20
dimensions of a and b are (c) 50 (d) 80
124. The dimensional formula for magnetic flux is
(a) [M L T–4] and [M L T–1]
(b) [M L T–1] and [M L T0] (a) [ML2 T 2 A 1 ] (b) [ML3T 2 A 2
]
(c) [M L T–3] and [M L T–4] (c) [M 0 L 2 T 2 A 2
] (d) [ML2 T 1A 2 ]
(d) [M L T–3] and [M L T0]
125. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are assumed to be
n
114. The frequency of vibration of a string is given by f = fundamental units, then the dimensional formula of the mass
2L
T will be
, where T is tension in the string, L is the length, n is (a) [FL–1T2] (b) [FL–1T–2]
m –1 –1
number of harmonics. The dimensional formula for m is (c) [FL T ] (d) [FL2T2]
126. Which one of the following represents the correct
(a) [M0 L T] (b) [M1 L–1 T–1]
dimensions of the gravitational constant?
(c) [M1 L–1 T0] (d) [M0 L T –1] (a) [M–1L3T–2 ] (b) [MLT–1]
115. Which of the following pairs has same dimensions? –1
(c) [ML T ] –2 (d) [ML–2T–2]
(a) Angular momentum and Plank’s constant 127. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb)
(b) Dipole moment and electric field is given as
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) [MLT–1 C–1] (b) [MT2 C–2]
(d) None of these. –1 –1
(c) [MT C ] (d) [MT–2 C–1]
EBD_7208
128. The dimensions of coefficient of self inductance are 135. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the
(a) [ ML2 T–2 A–2 ] (b) [ ML2 T–2 A–1 ] fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface
–2
(c) [ MLT A ] –2 (d) [ MLT–2 A–1 ] tension will be
(a) [EV–1T–2] (b) [EV–2T–2]
129. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In –2 –1 –3
(c) [E V T ] (d) [EV–2T–1]
another system where the fundamental physical quantities
136. The dimensions of mobility are
are in kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the
(a) [M–2T2A] (b) [M–1T2A]
force is –2 3
(c) [M T A] (d) [M–1T3A]
(a) 0.036 (b) 0.36 (c) 3.6 (d) 36 137. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
130. The division of energy by time is X. The dimensional formula fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are
of X is same as that of (a) [F V T– 1] (b) [F V T– 2]
–1 –1
(a) momentum (b) power (c) [F V T ] (d) [F V– 1 T]
(c) torque (d) electric field 138. If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is measured in terms
of a unit ‘u’ made by combining the electric charge ‘e’,
131. The Solar constant is defined as the energy incident per
Bohr radius ‘a0’, Planck’s constant ‘h’ and speed of light ‘c’
unit area per second. The dimensional formula for solar
then
constant is
(a) [M0L0T0] (b) [MLT–2] e2 h u
hc
2 –2 (a) u (b) 2
(c) [ML T ] (d) [ML0T–3] a0 e a0
132. Which of the following is a dimensional constant?
(a) Refractive index (b) Dielectric constant e2 c e2 a 0
(c) u (d) u
(b) Relative density (d) Gravitational constant ha 0 hc
133. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by
139. If electronic charge e, electron mass m, speed of light in
Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be vacuum c and Planck’s constant h are taken as
(a) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1 fundamental quantities, the permeability of vacuum 0
(b) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2 can be expressed in units of
(c) force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2
h hc
(d) pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2 (a) (b)
134. [MLT–1] + [MLT–1] = ............. me 2 me2
(a) [M°L°T°] (b) [MLT–1]
–1 h mc2
(c) 2[MLT ] (d) None of these (c) (d)
ce 2 he 2
38. (b)
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
39. (c) In multiplication or division the final result should
1. (a) SI is based on seven fundamental units. return as many significant figures as there are in the
2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) original number with the least significant figures.
7. (c) 1 light year = speed of light in vacuum × no. of seconds
L
in one year = (3 × 108) × (365 × 24 × 60 × 60) 40. (c) Force, F = m × a and a =
= 9.467 × 1015 m. T2
8. (b) 9. (b) distance displacement
10. (c) 1 fermi = 10–5 metre 41. (d) speed = and velocity =
time time
11. (a)
12. (c) Illuminance is intensity of illumination measured in 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a)
lux. 45. (d) Both energy and work have same unit.
13. (d) Parallactic second is the unit of distance. energy/work is a pure number.
14. (c) 46. (c) Angular displacement has unit
15. (b) 1 parsec = 3.08 × 1016 m (degree or radian) but it is dimensionless.
1 ly = 9.46 × 1015 m Note : vice-versa is not possible.
47. (d) 1 astronomical unit = 1.496 × 1011m
1Parsec 30.8 1015
3.26 v L
1ly 9.46 1015 48. (a) Force F = ma = M MLT 2 v
t T
1 Parsec = 3.26 ly –2
Force has dimensional formula [MLT ]
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) Energy ML2 T 2
49. (b)
4 3 Volume L3
22. (c) V r ; = [ML–1T–2] = Pressure
3
V r 50. (d) Angular velocity = = [M0L0T–1]
100 3 100 3 1% 3% t
V r
23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a) Change in length
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 51. (a) Strain =
Original length
29. (c) Least count of a screw gauge
Hence no dimension.
Pitch
=
Number of circular scale divisions STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
1 mm 52. (d) 53. (c)
= = 0.02 mm
50
54. (a) 1 newton = 105 dyne
Therefore the pitch and no. of circular scale divisions
are 1mm and 50 respectively. force energy
55. (b) Pressure = = ML–1T –2
30. (b) Measured length of rod = 3.50 cm area volume
For vernier scale with 1 Main Scale Division = 1 mm 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (d)
9 Main Scale Division = 10 Vernier Scale Division,
Least count = 1 MSD –1 VSD = 0.1 mm MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
31. (c)
32. (a) L + B = 2.331 + 2.1 4.4 cm 59. (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
Since minimum significant figure is 2. 60. (b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
33. (d) If z = AB then 61. (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
62. (c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
z A B
63. (a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (2); (D) (3)
z A B 64. (b) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (a) 65. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
37. (b) According to rules of significant figures. 66. (a) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
EBD_7208
67. (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) 89. (a) Addition and subtraction can be done between
68. (b) (A) (3); B (1); (C) (4); (D) (2) quantities having same dimensions.
69. (d) (A) (2); B (1); C (3); (D) (4) 90. (d) Let us write the dimension of various quantities on
two sides of the given relation.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS L.H.S. = T = [T]
70. (b) 71. (a) LT –2

R.H.S. = 2 g/ [T –1 ]
L
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS [ 2 has no dimension]. As dimensions of L.H.S is
not equal to dimensions of R.H.S. Therefore
72. (c) Light has well defined relation with length. according to principle of homogeneity the relation
73. (a) As the distance of star increases, the parallax angle
decreases, and great degree of accuracy is required T = 2 g / is not valid
for its measurement. Keeping in view the practical 91. (d) Mass × acceleration (ma) = F (force)
limitation in measuring the parallax angle, the
maximum distance of a star we can measure is limited CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
to 100 light year.
74. (b) A.U. (Astronomical unit) is used to measure the 92. (b) The work done = force × displacement
average distance of the centre of the sun from the unit, u1 = Fs
centre of the earth, while angstrom is used to and u2 = 4F × 4s = 16u.
measure very short distances. 1 A.U. = 1.5 × 1011m; g
1Å =10–10m. 93. (b) In CGS system, d 4 3
cm
75. (c) We know that Q = n1u1 = n2u2 are the two units of The unit of mass is 100g and unit of length is 10 cm, so
measurement of the quantity Q and n1, n2 are their
respective numerical values. From relation Q1= n1u1 100g 4
4
100 100 (100g)
= n2u2, nu = constant n 1/ u i.e. , smaller the unit density = 3 = 3
of measurement, greater is its numerical value. 10 1 (10cm)3
cm
76. (b) 77. (a) 10 10
78. (c) Area A = 4 r2 4
(10)3 ·
100g
= 40 unit
A 2 r
100 (10cm) 3
Fractional error 94. (c)
A r
95. (a)
A
100 2 0.3% 0.6% a 3b 2 P a b
A 96. (d) P = , × 100% = 3 × 100% + 2 ×
cd P a b
79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (b) The last number is most accurate because it has c d
greatest significant figure (3). 100% + × 100% + × 100%.
c d
82. (c) Since zeros placed to the left of the number are never = 3 × 1% + 2 × 2% + 3% + 4% = 14%
significant, but zeros placed to right of the number are
significant value of 1division of main scale
97. (c) L.C. =
83. (c) Light year and wavelength both represent the number of division on main scale
distance, so both have dimension of length not of
time. 1 1
mm cm
84. (c) Dimensional constants are not dimensionless. N 10N
85. (c) Avogadro number (N) represents the number of 1 100
atoms in 1 gram mole of an element, i.e. it has the 98. (c) The percentage error = = 0.8%
5 25
dimensions of mol–1. 99. (a) The mean value of refractive index,
86. (d)
87. (c) Angle is dimensionless, but it has unit radian. 1.34 1.38 1.32 1.36
1.35
4
mass
88. (d) P x and
area
| (1.35 1.34) | | (1.35 1.38) | | (1.35 1.32) | | (1. 35 1.36) |
P area MLT 1 4
x L2 L3T 1
= 0.02
mass M
0.02
Quantities with different dimensions can be multiplied. Thus 100 = 100 1.48
1.35
M M The maximum percentage error in g

100. (d) Density, 2
V r g L T
100 100 2 100
M 2 r g L T
100 = 100
M r = 2% + 2(3%) = 8%
0.003 0.005 0.06 0.1
= 0.3
2
0.5 6
100 109. (b) Least count = = 0.01 cm
10
= 4 d1 = 0.5 + 8 × 0.01 + 0.03 = 0.61 cm
1 d2 = 0.5 + 4 × 0.01 + 0.03 = 0.57 cm
101. (b) The value of 1 division of main scale = = 0.1 cm
10 d3 = 0.5 + 6 × 0.01 + 0.03 = 0.59 cm
8 0.1 0.61 0.57 0.59
The value of 1 division of vernier scale = Mean diameter =
10 3
= 0.08 cm = 0.59 cm
Thus L.C. = 0.1 – 0.08
= 0.02 cm
110. (a) Number of significant figures in 23.023= 5
0.5
102. (b) Least count 0.01 mm Number of significant figures in 0.0003 = 1
50
Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 = 2
Weight of body in air
103. (d) Relative density = Loss of weight in water 111. (b) The significant number in the potential, V = iR; should
be the minimum of either i or R. So corresponding to i
5.00 5.00 = 3.23 A, we have only three significant numbers in V
= 35.02935 V. Thus the result is V = 35.0 V.
5.00 – 4.00 1.00
112. (b)
0.05 0.05 113. (c) [at] = [F] amd [bt2] = [F]
100 100
5.00 1.00 [a] = MLT–3 and [b] = MLT–4
= (0.01 + 0.05) × 100 n 2T MLT 2
= 0.06 × 100 = 6% 114. (c) Clearly, m ; [m]
4f 2 L2 T 2 .L2
Relative density = 5.00 6% 115. (a) 116. (a)
104. (a) X Ma Lb T c ; Q ML2 T 2
117. (d) s [L2 T 2
K 1]
m MK
X a M b L c T
100 100 118. (b) [Torque] = [Force] [distance]
X M L T
= MLT–2. L = ML2T–2
(a b c )%
105. (b) 2 I
nh
119. (b) Planck's constant n [As I ]
F F Moment of inertia I 2
106. (d) As, pressure P= = 2
A L
2 I(2 f ) 4 2
F L .f [T 1 ]
% Error = 100 2 100 nI n
F L
= 4 + 2 × 2 = 8% 120. (a) Both have the dimension M1L2T–2.
121. (b) [momentum] = [M][L][T–1] = [MLT–1]
2 l
107. (d) As, g 4
E [M][LT 1]2
T2 Planck’s constant = = ML2T 1
1
g l T T
So, 100 100 2 100 122. (a) From stokes law
g l T
F
0.1 1 F 6 rv
100 2 100 = 2.72 3% 6 rv
20 90
108. (d) As we know, time period of a simple pendulum MLT 2
[ML 1T 1 ]
L 4 2
L [L][LT 1 ]
T=2 g
g T2
EBD_7208
123. (c) n1 u 1 = n2u2
MLT –2
3 133. (d) Pressure = ML–1T –2
2
u1 M1 L2 L
n2 = n1 8
u2 M2 L1 a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2.
134. (b)
1 5
3
135. (b) Let surface tension
= 8 = 50. s = Ea Vb Tc
20 1
b
124. (a) Dimension of Magnetic flux MLT –2 L
(ML2 T –2 )a (T)C
= Dimension of voltage × Dimension of time L T
= [ML2T–3A–1] [T] = [ML2T–2A–1] Equating the dimension of LHS and RHS
ML0T–2 = MaL2a + b T–2a – b + c
Work a = 1, 2a + b = 0, –2a – b + c = –2
Voltage
Charge a = 1, b = – 2, c = – 2
Hence, the dimensions of surface tension are [E V–2 T–2]
125. (a) Let m = KFa Lb Tc
Substituting the dimensions of drift velocity Vd (ms 1) m2 s 3
136. (b) Mobility =
[F] = [MLT–2], [L] = [L] and [T] = [T] and comparing electric field E (Vm 1 ) V
both side, we get m = FL–1T2
GMm joule(J)
126. (a) F 2
Volt V
R coulomb(C)
FR 2
G= G = [ML3T–2] m 2 s 1C m 2 s 1 As
Mm = [Coulomb,c As]
127. (c) We know that F = q v B
J kg m 2 s 2
F MLT 2 = kg–1 s2 A = M–1 T2 A

1 1
B MT C 137. (d) Force = mass × acceleration
qv C LT 1
force
1 2 [Mass] =
128. (a) Energy stored in an inductor, U LI acceleration
2
2U [ML2 T 2
] force
= [F V– 1 T]
L [L] [ML2 T 2 A 2
] =
velocity / time
I2 [A]2
138. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a0, h and c as follows.
1 1 2 [u] = [e]a [a0]b [h]c [C]d
M1 L1 T1
129. (c) n2 n1 Using dimensional method,
M2 L2 T2
[M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [A1T1]a[L]b[ML2T–1]c[LT–1]d
1 1 2 [M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [Mc Lb+2c+d Ta–c–d Aa]
gm cm sec a = 2, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
100
103 gm m min
e 2 a0
1
u=
1 2 hc
gm cm sec
100 139. (c) Let µ0 related with e, m, c and h as follows.
103 gm 102 cm 60sec a b c d
0 = ke m c h
3600 [MLT–2A–2] = [AT]a [M]b [LT–1]c [ML2T–1]d
b + d c + 2d a – c – d a
n2 3.6 = [M L T A]
103 On comparing both sides we get
Energy a = – 2 ...(i)
130. (b) Power b+d=1 ...(ii)
time
c + 2d = 1 ...(iii)
131. (d) Energy incident per unit area per second
a – c – d = –2 ...(iv)
Energy ML2 T 2
By equation (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) we get,
= = MT–3 a = – 2, b = 0, c = – 1, d = 1
area×second L2 T
132. (d) h
[ 0]
ce 2
3
MOTION IN A
STRAIGHT LINE
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. Area under velocity-time curve over a given interval of time
represents
1. Which of the following is a one dimensional motion ? (a) acceleration (b) momentum
(a) Landing of an aircraft (c) velocity (d) displacement
(b) Earth revolving around the sun 10. The distance travelled by a body is directly proportional to
(c) Motion of wheels of a moving train the time taken. Its speed
(d) Train running on a straight track (a) increases (b) decreases
2. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving (c) becomes zero (d) remains constant
object is
11. The slope of velocity-time graph for motion with uniform
(a) always less than 1 (b) always equal to 1
(c) always more than 1 (d) equal to or less than 1 velocity is equal to
3. Which of the following can be zero, when a particle is in (a) final velocity (b) initial velocity
motion for some time? (c) zero (d) none of these
(a) Distance (b) Displacement 12. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity
(c) Speed (d) None of these and average speed of a body is
4. If distance covered by a particle is zero, what can you say (a) unity (b) unity or less
about its displacement? (c) unity or more (d) less than unity
(a) It may or may not be zero 13. The slope of the tangent drawn on position-time graph at
(b) It cannot be zero
any instant is equal to the instantaneous
(c) It is negative
(d) It must be zero (a) acceleration (b) force
5. The location of a particle has changed. What can we say (c) velocity (d) momentum
about the displacement and the distance covered by the 14. Which of the following is the correct definition for
particle? Average speed?
(a) Neither can be zero
(b) One may be zero total displacement
(c) Both may be zero (a) Average speed =
total time
(d) One is +ve, other is –ve
6. The displacement of a body is zero. The distance covered total path length
(b) Average speed =
(a) is zero total time
(b) is not zero
change in speed
(c) may or may not be zero (c) Average speed =
total time
(d) depends upon the acceleration
7. A body is moving along a straight line path with constant sum of all the speeds
velocity. At an instant of time the distance travelled by it (d) Average speed =
total time
is S and its displacement is D, then
(a) D < S (b) D > S 15. What is the numerical ratio of velocity to speed of an
(c) D = S (d) D S object ?
8. Speed is in general _____ in magnitude than that of the (a) Always equal to one
velocity. (b) Always less than one
(a) equal (b) greater or equal (c) Always greater than one
(c) smaller (c) none of these (d) Either less than or equal to one.
EBD_7208
18 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE
16. The graph between displacement and time for a particle 27. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly
moving with uniform acceleration is a/an proportional to
(a) straight line with a positive slope (a) square of the initial velocity
(b) parabola (b) square of the initial acceleration
(c) ellipse (c) the initial velocity
(d) straight line parallel to time axis (d) the initial acceleration
17. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from 28. The path of a particle moving under the influence of a
(a) area under velocity - time graph force fixed in magnitude and direction is
(b) area under distance -time graph
(a) straight line (b) circle
(c) slope of the velocity- time graph
(c) parabola (d) ellipse
(d) slope of distance-time graph
29. Velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically upwards
18. What determines the nature of the path followed by the
particle? is
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (a) parabola (b) ellipse
(c) Acceleration (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) hyperbola (d) straight line
19. Acceleration of a particle changes when 30. An object accelerated downward under the influence of
(a) direction of velocity changes force of gravity. The motion of object is said to be
(b) magnitude of velocity changes (a) uniform motion
(c) speed changes (b) free fall
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) non uniformly accelerated motion
20. The area under acceleration time graph gives (d) None of these
(a) distance travelled (b) change in acceleration 31. Choose the wrong statement from the following.
(c) force acting (d) change in velocity (a) The motion of an object along a straight line is a
21. Acceleration is described as rate of change of
rectilinear motion
(a) distance with time
(b) velocity with distance (b) The speed in general is less than the magnitude of the
(c) velocity with time velocity
(d) distance with velocity (c) The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the
22. Which of the following is the correct expression of velocity of the body
instantaneous acceleration ? (d) The area under the velocity-time graph gives the
v dv displacement of the body
(a) a = 2 (b) a =
t dt 32. Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of motion with
2 2 (a) uniform velocity
d v v
(c) a = 2 (d) a = (b) uniform acceleration
dt t
23. If a body travels with constant acceleration, which of the (c) variable acceleration
following quantities remains constant ? (d) constant momentum
(a) Displacement (b) Velocity 33. A ball thrown vertically upwards after reaching a maximum
(c) Time (d) None of these. height h, returns to the starting point after a time of l0 s. Its
24. A body is thrown vertically upwards. If air resistance is displacement is
to be taken into account, then the time during which the (a) h (b) 2 h
body rises is (c) 10 h (d) zero
(a) equal to the time of fall
34. If the displacement of a body varies as the square of elapsed
(b) less than the time of fall
time, then its
(c) greater than the time of fall
(d) twice the time of fall (a) velocity is constant
25. Velocity time curve for a body projected vertically upwards (b) velocity varies non-uniformly
is (c) acceleration is constant
(a) parabola (b) ellipse (d) acceleration changes continuously
(c) hyperbola (d) straight line 35. The total distance travelled by the body in the given time
26. A body is thrown upwards and reaches its maximum height. is equal to
At that position (a) the area which v– t graph encloses with displacement
(a) its acceleration is minimum axis
(b) its velocity is zero and its acceleration is also zero (b) the area which x – t graph encloses with time axis
(c) its velocity is zero but its acceleration is maximum
(c) the area which v – t graph encloses with time axis
(d) its velocity is zero and its acceleration is the
acceleration due to gravity. (d) the area which a – t graph encloses with axis
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 19
36. Choose the correct equation to determine distance in a 46. Two trains, each Xm long are travelling in opposite
straight line for a body with uniform motion. direction with equal velocity 20 m/s. The time of crossing
v
is
(a) s = (b) s = v2t X X
t s s
(a) (b)
40 20
1 2
(c) s = ut + gt (d) s = v × t2
2 2X
(c) s (d) Zero
37. If the v-t graph is a straight line inclined to the time axis, 20
then
(a) a = 0 (b) a 0 STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) a constant 0 (d) a constant 0
38. For a moving body at any instant of time 47. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
(a) if the body is not moving, the acceleration is statements.
necessarily zero I. The magnitude of instantaneous velocity of a particle
(b) if the body is slowing, the retardation is negative is equal to its instantaneous speed
(c) if the body is slowing, the distance is negative II. The magnitude of the average velocity in an interval is
(d) if displacement, velocity and acceleration at that equal to its average speed in that interval.
instant are known, we can find the displacement at III. It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of
any given time in future. the particle is never zero but the average speed in an
39. A particle moves 2m east then 4m north then 5 m west. interval is zero.
The distance is IV. It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of
(a) 11m (b) 10m particle is zero but the average speed is not zero.
(c) –11m (d) 5m (a) II, III and IV (b) I and II
40. The ball is projected up from ground with speed 30 m/sec. (c) II and III (d) IV only
What is the average velocity for time 0 to 4 sec? 48. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
(a) 10 m/sec (b) 20 m/sec I. Average velocity is path length divided by time
(c) 15 m/sec (d) zero interval
41. A body moves in straight line with velocity v1 for 1/3rd II. In general, speed is greater than the magnitude of
time and for remaining time with v2. Find average velocity. the velocity.
v1 2v 2 v1 v2 III. A particle moving in a given direction with a non-
(a) (b) zero velocity can have zero speed.
3 3 3 3
IV. The magnitude of average velocity is equal to the
2v1 v 2 2v 2 average speed
(c) (d) v1
3 3 3 (a) II and III (b) I and IV
42. A particle moves in straight line with velocity v1 and v2 (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
for time intervals which are in ratio 1:2. Find average 49. The incorrect statement(s) from the following is/are
velocity. I. A body having zero velocity will not necessarily
have zero acceleration
v1 2v 2 v1 v2 II. A body having zero velocity will necessarily have
(a) (b)
3 3 3 3 zero acceleration
III. A body having uniform speed can have only
2v1 v 2 2v 2
(c) (d) v1 uniform acceleration
3 3 3 IV. A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero
43. A particle moves from (2,3) m to (4,1) m. The displacement acceleration
vector is (a) II, III and IV (b) I and II
(a) 2i + 2jm (b) –2i – 2jm (c) II and III (d) IV only
(c) 2i – 2jm (d) –2i + 2jm 50. Which of the following statements are correct?
44. If a train travelling at 20 m/s is to be brought to rest in I. A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated
a distance of 200 m, then its retardation should be II. A body can have a constant velocity and still have a
(a) 1 m/s2 (b) 2 m/s2 varying speed
2
(c) 10 m/s (d) 20 m/s2 III. A body can have a constant speed and still have a
45. A body starts from rest and travels ‘s’ m in 2nd second, varying velocity
then acceleration is IV. The direction of the velocity of a body cannot change
(a) 2s m/s2 (b) 3s m/s2 when its acceleration is constant.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
2 3 (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
(c) s m/s2 (d) s m/s2
3 2
EBD_7208
51. Select the correct statements from the following (C) u = + ve, and a = – ve (3) v
I. A body can have constant velocity but variable
speed
II. A body can have constant speed but variable t
velocity 0
III. A body can have zero velocity but non–zero
acceleration
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III v
52. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity u. (D) u = – ve, and a = – ve (4)
Select the incorrect statements from the following.
I. Both velocity and acceleration are zero at its highest
point
t
II. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero at the 0
highest point.
III. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is g downwards (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (1)
at its highest point. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
53. Which of the following is/are correct statements ? 56. For a particle in one dimensional motion, match the following
I. When a body reaches highest point in vertical columns :
motion, its velocity becomes zero but acceleration is Column I Column II
non -zero. (A) Zero speed but non-zero (1) Body which is about
II. Average velocity of an object is not equal to the acceleration. to fall
instantaneous velocity in uniform motion. (B) Zero speed non-zero (2) Extreme position of
III. Average speed can be zero but average velocity can velocity. oscillating body
never be zero (C) Constant speed (3) Possible
(a) I and II (b) II and III non-zero acceleration.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(D) Positive acceleration (4) Not possible
54. The relative velocity VAB or VBA of two bodies A and B may
be must speeding up.
I. greater than velocity of body A (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
II. greater than velocity of body B (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
III. less than the velocity of body A (c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
IV. less than the velocity of body B (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(a) I and II only (b) III and IV only 57. Column I Column II
(c) I, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV
(A) Physical quantity whose unit (1) Linear motion
is cm s–2 in CGS system
(B) Negative acceleration (2) Zero
55. A particle is going along a straight line with constant (C) Motion exhibited by body moving (3) Distance
acceleration a, having initial velocity u. Then match the in a straight line
columns : (D) Area under a speed time graph (4) Acceleration
Column I Column II (E) Velocity of an upward throwing (5) Retardation
v
body at the peak point
(A) u = + ve and a = + ve (1) (a) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (2)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (5)
t
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) ; (E) (4)
0 (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (5)
(A) Zero acceleration (1) Retardation
(B) u = – ve, and a = + ve (2) v
(B) Velocity time graph (2) Speed
(C) Speed in a direction (3) Constant
motion
(D) Acts in opposite direction of (4) Acceleration
t motion
0
(E) Slope of a distance time graph (5) Velocity
(a) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (3)
s
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (5)
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) ; (E) (4)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (1) ; (E) (2) (C) Uniform velocity (3)
59. Column I Column II t
0
s
v
(A) Uniform retardation (1)
t (D) Constant motion (4)
t
a 0
v
(B) Uniform velocity (2)
t
(5)
v t
0
(C) Uniform acceleration with initial (3) (a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1, 5)
t (b) (A) (1, 2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4)
velocity (c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
a (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(D) Constant acceleration (4) (A) Distance travelled (1) zero acceleration
t
by a body
s 1
(B) Uniform velocity (2) ut + at2
2
(E) Decreasing acceleration at steady (5) (C) Speedometer (3) instantaneous speed
t
rate. u2
(a) (A) (2); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (4) ; (E) (3) (D) Height of a vertically (4)
2g
(b) (A) (5); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (2)
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) ; (E) (4) thrown body
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (1) ; (E) (2)
(a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1, 5)
(A) Velocity (1) m/s2 (b) (A) (1, 2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4)
(B) Displacement (2) vector (c) (A) (1, 5); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4, 5)
(C) Speed (3) m/s
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(D) Acceleration (4) scalar
(a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1) 63. Column I Column II
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) (A) sn (1) m/s2
(c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) u v
61. Column I Column II (B) v2 – u2 (2)
t
v
(C) Average speed (3) 2gh
(A) Decreasing acceleration (1) a

t (D) Acceleration (4) u (2n 1)
0 2
at steady rate (a) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
a
(b) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(B) A body at rest (2)
t (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
0
EBD_7208
64. Match the Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Displacement (1) Slope of x – t graph v0
(B) Velocity (2) Slope of tangent to x
(a) (b) v
x – t Curve
(C) Acceleration (3) Area under v – t curve t
(D) Instantaneous (4) Slope of v – t graph t
velocity (5) Area. under x – t curve
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1) v0
(c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2) (c) v (d) None of these
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
t
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 69. The equation represented by the graph below is :
65. The graph shown below represent
object B
t(s)
Position
x02 object A O
x01
y
(m)
Time
(a) A and B are moving with same velocity in opposite
directions 1 1
(b) velocity of B is more than A in same direction (a) y = gt (b) y = gt
2 2
(c) velocity of A is more than B in same direction
(d) velocity of A and B is equal in same direction
1 2 1 2
66. Which of the following is not possible for a body in (c) y = gt (d) y = gt
uniform motion? 2 2
70. Wind is blowing west to east along two parallel tracks. Two
Displacement
Displacement
trains moving with same speed in opposite directions have

the relative velocity w.r.t. wind in the ratio 1 : 2. The speed
(a) (b) of each train is
Time Time u
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these wind
67. The velocity time graph of the motion of the body is as
v
shown below u
A B (a) equal to that of wind

u
v(m/s)
(b) double that of wind

D E C
o (c) three times that of wind
t (s) t1 t2 t3
(d) half that of wind
The total distance travelled by the body during the
motion is equal to ____. 71. Which one of the following represents the time-
displacement graph of two objects A and B moving with
1 1
(a) (AD + BE) × OC (b) (OA + BC) × OC zero relative speed?
2 2
1 1
(c) (OC + AB) × AD (d) (OA + AB) × BC
Displacemnt
Displacemnt
2 2 A
A
68. Which of the following graphs gives the equation B
(a) B (b)
1 2
x = vot + at
2 Time Time
A a
A a
Displacemnt
Displacemnt
B
(c) (d)
(c) (d) B
r r
Time Time
72. Figure shows the v-t graph for two particles P and Q. Which ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
of the following statements regarding their relative motion Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
is true ? Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
V alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
P have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
Q
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
O T (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Their relative velocity is
75. Assertion : Displacement of a body may be zero when
(a) is zero distance travelled by it is not zero.
(b) is non-zero but constant Reason : The displacement is the longest distance
(c) continuously decreases between initial and final position.
(d) continuously increases 76. Assertion : Displacement of a body is vector sum of the
area under velocity– time graph.
73. The displacement of a particle as a function of time is shown
Reason : Displacement is a vector quantity.
in figure. It indicates that 77. Assertion : The position-time graph of a uniform motion,
in one dimension of a body cannot have negative slope.
Reason : In one – dimensional motion the position does
not reverse, so it cannot have a negative slope.
78. Assertion : Position-time graph of a stationary object is
a straight line parallel to time axis.
Reason : For a stationary object, position does not
change with time.
79. Assertion : Velocity-time graph for an object in
10
20 30 40 50 uniform motion along a straight path is a straight
Time in sec line parallel to the time axis.
(a) the velocity of the particle is constant throughout Reason : In uniform motion of an object velocity
(b) the acceleration of the particle is constant throughout increases as the square of time elapsed.
(c) the particle starts with a constant velocity and is 80. Assertion: The average velocity of the object over an
accelerated interval of time is either smaller than or equal to the average
(d) the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops speed of the object over the same interval.
74. If a body moving in circular path maintains constant speed Reason: Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar
of 10 ms–1, then which of the following correctly describes quantity.
relation between acceleration and radius ?
81. Assertion : The speedometer of an automobile measure
the average speed of the automobile.
Reason : Average velocity is equal to total displacement
a a
per total time taken.
(a) (b)
82. Assertion : An object can have constant speed but
variable velocity.
r r Reason : Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector
quantity.
EBD_7208
83. Assertion : The position-time graph of a uniform motion 96. Assertion : A body falling freely may do so with constant
in one dimension of a body can have negative slope. velocity.
Reason : When the speed of body decreases with time, Reason : The body falls freely, when acceleration of a
the position-time graph of the moving body has negative body is equal to acceleration due to gravity.
slope. 97. Assertion : A body, whatever its motion is always at rest
84. Assertion : position-time graph of a body moving in a frame of reference which is fixed to the body itself.
uniformly in a straight line parallel to position axis. Says Reason: The relative velocity of a body with respect to
body is at rest. itself is zero.
Reason : The slope of position-time graph in a uniform 98. Assertion : If wind blows west to east and two trains are
motion gives the velocity of an object. moving with the same speed in opposite direction and
have the stream track of one double than other, then the
85. Assertion : The average and instantaneous velocities have
speed of each train is three times that of the wind.
same value in a uniform motion.
Reason : If u speed of each train and v speed of
Reason : In uniform motion, the velocity of an object wind then (u + v) = 2 (u – v) u = 3v
increases uniformly.
86. Assertion : A body may be accelerated even when it is CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
moving uniformly.
99. A truck and a car are moving with equal velocity. On
Reason : When direction of motion of the body is changing,
applying the brakes both will stop after certain distance,
the body must have acceleration. then
87. Assertion : For one dimensional motion the angle between (a) truck will cover less distance before rest
acceleration and velocity must be zero. (b) car will coverless distance before rest
Reason : One dimensional motion is always on a straight (c) Both will cover equal distance
line. (d) None of these
100. If Position of a particle is given by
88. Assertion : A particle starting from rest and moving with x = (4t2 – 8t), then which of the following is true?
uniform acceleration travels' a length of x and 3x in first two (a) Acceleration is zero at t = 0
and next two-seconds. (b) Velocity is zero at t = 0
Reason : Displacement is directly proportional to velocity. (c) Velocity is zero at t = 1s
89. Assertion : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses (d) Velocity and acceleration will never be zero
the direction. 101. A particle located at x=0 at time t=0, starts moving along
Reason : A body cannot have acceleration if its velocity is with the positive x-direction with a velocity 'v' that varies
zero at a given instant of time. as v = x . The displacement of the particle varies with
90. Assertion : The equation of motion can be applied only time as
if acceleration is along the direction of velocity and is (a) t 2 (b) t
constant. (c) t 1/2 (d) t 3
Reason : If the acceleration of a body is zero then its 102. A man leaves his house for a cycle ride. He comes back to
motion is known as uniform motion. his house after half-an-hour after covering a distance of
91. Assertion : A positive acceleration of a body can be one km. What is his average velocity for the ride ?
associated with ‘slowing down’ of the body. (a) zero (b) 2 km h–1
Reason : Acceleration is a vector quantity. 1
(c) 10 km s–1 (d) km s 1
92. Assertion : The speed of a body can never be negative. 2
Reason : The speed of an object is the distance travelled 103. A point traversed half of the distance with a velocity v0.
by it in unit time and distance can never be negative. The half of remaining part of the distance was covered with
93. Assertion : If a passenger stands ‘d’ aways from a bus velocity v1 & second half of remaining part by v2 velocity.
and the bus starts moving with a constant acceleration ‘a’ The mean velocity of the point, averaged over the whole
then the minimum speed of the passenger in order to time of motion is
catch the bus will be 2ad v 0 v1 v 2 2 v 0 v1 v 2
(a) (b)
Reason : v2 = u2 + 2ad, 3 3
94. Assertion : When brakes are applied to a moving vehicle v 0 .2 v1 2 v 2 2 v 0 (v1 v 2 )
the distance it travels before stopping is proportional to (c) (d)
3 ( 2 v 0 v1 v 2 )
the square of initial velocity of the vehicle.
104. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in
Reason : u2 = v2 – 2as, s u2 second) the distance x (in metre) of the particle from O is
95. Assertion : In a free fall, weight of a body becomes given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel
effectively zero. before coming to rest?
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity acting on a body (a) 24 m (b) 40 m
having free fall is zero. (c) 56 m (d) 16 m
105. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. If the coin 2 2 2 2
falls behind him, the train must be moving with t t
(a) (b)
(a) an acceleration (b) a deceleration
(c) a uniform speed (d) any of the above
106. The deceleration experienced by a moving motorboat after
(c) t (d) t
its engine is cut off, is given by dv/dt = – kv3 where k is
constant. If v0 is the magnitude of the velocity at cut-off,
113. A metro train starts from rest and in 5 s achieves 108 km/h.
the magnitude of the velocity at a time t after the cut-off is
After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to
v0 rest after travelling 45 m with uniform retardation. If total
(a) (c) kt distance travelled is 395 m, find total time of travelling.
v0 e
(2v 0 2 kt 1) (a) 12.2 s (b) 15.3 s
(c) 9 s (d) 17.2 s
(c) v 0 / 2 (d) v 0
114. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a
107. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation distance S, then continues at constant speed for time t and
x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of particle is proportional to f
(a) (velocity) 3/2 (b) (distance)2 then decelerates at the rate to come to rest. If the total
–2 2
(c) (distance) (d) (velocity)2/3 distance traversed is 15 S , then
108. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms–1. In 1 2
10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 ms–1 northwards. (a) S = ft (b) S = f t
6
The average acceleration in this time is
1 1 2
1 2
(c) S = ft 2 (d) S = ft
(a) ms towards north 4 72
2 115. A body is projected vertically upwards. If t1 and t2 be the
times at which it is at height h above the projection while
1 2 ascending and descending respectively, then h is
(b) ms towards north - east
2 1
(a) gt1t2 (b) gt1t2
2
1 2
(c) ms towards north - west (c) 2 gt1t2 (d) 2hg
2
116. Two balls A and B of same mass are thrown from the top of
(d) zero the building. A thrown upward with velocity v and B, thrown
109. It is given that t = px2 + qx, where x is displacement and t is down with velocity v, then
time. The acceleration of particle at origin is (a) velocity A is more than B at the ground
2p 2q 2p 2q (b) velocity of B is more than A at the ground
(a) (b) (c) (d)
q 3 p 3
q 3
p3 (c) both A &B strike the ground with same velocity
(d) None of these
110. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated 117. A rocket is fired upward from the earth’s surface such that
dv
at a rate given by:
dt
2.5 v where v is the instantaneous it creates an acceleration of 19.6 m s 2 . If after 5 s, its engine
speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from
be earth’s surface would be
(a) 2 s (b) 4 s (a) 980 m (b) 735 m
(c) 490 m (d) 245 m
(c) 8 s (d) 1 s
118. A man throws balls with same speed vertically upwards
111. The position of a particle along the x-axis at certain times is one after the other at an interval of 2 sec. What should be
given below the speed of throw so that more than two balls are in air at
any time ?
t (s) 0 1 2 3
(a) Only with speed 19.6 m/s
x(m) –2 0 6 16 (b) More than 19.6 m/s
Which of the following describes the motion correctly? (c) At least 9.8 m/s
(d) Any speed less then 19.6 m/s.
(a) uniform acceleration
119. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting
(b) uniform retardation
from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards
(c) non-uniform acceleration
from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at
(d) there is not enough data for generalization
t = 18s. What is the value of v?
112. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some
time after which it decelerates at a constant rate to come (take g = 10 m/s2)
to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity (a) 75 m/s (b) 55 m/s
acquired by the car is given by (c) 40 m/s (d) 60 m/s
EBD_7208
120. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, 125. Let A, B, C, D be points on a vertical line such that AB = BC
h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the = CD. If a body is released from position A, the times of
next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h 1, h2 descent through AB, BC and CD are in the ratio.
and h3 is
h h (a) 1 : 3 2: 3 2 (b) 1 : 2 1 : 3 2
(a) h1 = 2 = 3 (b) h2 = 3h 1 and h3 = 3h2
3 5 (c) 1 : 2 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2 : 3 1
(c) h1 = h2 = h3 (d) h1 = 2h 2 = 3h 3
121. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is 126. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tab which is
thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If vA hm above the ground. After how many seconds does the
and vB are their respective velocities on reaching the first drop reach the ground?
ground, then 2h h
(a) vA > vB (a) (b)
g 2g
(b) vA = vB
(c) vA < vB h 2h
(d) their velocities depend on their masses. (c) (d)
2g g
122. A ball is released from the top of tower of height h metre. It
takes T second to reach the ground. What is the position of 127. If two balls of masses m1 and m2(m1= 2m2) are dropped
the ball in T/3 second ? from the same height, then the ratio of the time taken by
them to reach the ground will be
h (a) m1 : m2 (b) 2m2 : m1
(a) metre from the ground
9 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
128. Two cars A and B approach each other at the same
7h
(b) metre from the ground speed, then what will be the velocity of A if velocity of
9 B is 8 m/s ?
8h (a) 16 m/s (b) 8 m/s
(c) metre from the ground (c) – 8 m/s (d) Can’t be determined.
9
129. A train of 150 m length is going towards north direction at a
17h speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms–1 towards
(d) metre from the ground south direction parallel to the railway track. The time taken
18
123. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. by the parrot to cross the train is equal to
It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height d/ (a) 12 s (b) 8 s
(c) 15 s (d) 10 s
2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its
velocity v varies with the height h above the ground as 130. Two trains are each 50 m long moving parallel towards each
other at speeds 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. After what
time will they pass each other?
2
d
(a) 5 sec (b) 4 sec
h h 3
(a) (b) d
(c) 2 sec (d) 6 sec
131. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion
such that its velocity varies according to v(x) = bx–2n where
b and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The
acceleration of the particle as d function of x, is given by
(a) –2nb2x–4n–1 (b) –2b2x–2n+1
d d 2 –4n+1
h h (c) –2nb e (d) –2nb2x–2n–1
(c) (d)
132. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h –1
and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with
a speed of 10 km h–1. The time after which the distance
124. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is between them becomes shortest, is
h below the top of the well. If v is velocity of sound, the
time T after which the splash is heard is given by (a) 5 h (b) 5 2h
(c) 10 2 h (d) 0 h
(a) T = 2h/v (b) 2h h
T 133. From a balloon moving upwards with a velocity of 12 ms -1,
g v
a packet is released when it is at a height of 65 m from the
ground. The time taken by it to reach the ground is
2h h h 2h (g = 10 ms–2)
(c) T (d) T
v g 2g v (a) 5 s (b) 8 s
(c) 4 s (d) 7 s
134. A bus is moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1
on a straight
road. A scootorist wishes to overtake the bus in one minute. (y2 – y1 ) m
If the bus is at a distance of 1.2 km ahead, then the velocity 240
with which he has to chase the bus is (c)
(a) 20 ms–1 (b) 25 ms–1
(c) 60 ms –1 (d) 30 ms–1
135. A ball dropped from a point A falls down vertically to C, t(s)
t 8 12
through the midpoint B. The descending time from A to B
and that from A to C are in the ratio (y2 – y1 ) m
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 240
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1: 2 (d)
136. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of
a cliff 240 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s
t(s)
respectively. Which of the following graph best represents 12
the time variation of relative position of the second stone 137. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m
with respect to the first ? and at the same time another ball is projected vertically
(Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground upwards from ground with a velocity 25 ms–1. Then the
and neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/ s2) distance from the top of the tower, at which the two balls
(The figures are schematic and not drawn to scale) meet is
(a) 68.4 m (b) 48.4 m
(y2 – y1) m (c) 18.4 m (d) 78.4 m
240 138. The ratio of distances traversed in successive intervals of
time when a body falls freely under gravity from certain
(a)
height is
(a) l : 2 : 3 (b) l : 5 : 9
t(s)
8 12 (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1: 2 : 3
139. A particle starting with certain initial velocity and uniform
(y2 – y1 ) m acceleration covers a distance of 12 m in first 3 seconds and
240 a distance of 30 m in next 3 seconds. The initial velocity of
(b) the particle is
(a) 3 ms–1 (b) 2.5 ms–1
(c) 2 ms –1 (d) 1 ms–1
t(s) 140 . From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically
8 12
upwards with a speed u. The time taken by the particle, to
hit the ground, is n times that taken by it to reach the highest
point of its path. The relation between H, u and n is
2 2
(a) 2gH n2u 2 (b) gH n 2 u d
(c) 2gH nu 2 n 2 (d) gH n 2 u2

EBD_7208
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 17. (c) Slope of velocity-time graph shows acceleration.
18. (d) The nature of the path is decided by the direction
of velocity, and the direction of acceleration. The
1. (d) Motion of a body along a straight line is one
trajectory can be a straight line, circle or a parabola
dimensional motion.
depending on these factors.
Displacement 19. (c) Because acceleration is a vector quantity.
2. (d) 1
distance 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d)
3. (b) 24. (b) Let the initial velocity of ball be u
4. (d) Distance covered by a particle is zero only when it is u
at rest. Therefore, its displacement must be zero. Time of rise t1 and height reached
g a
5. (a) When location of a particle has changed, it must have
covered some distance an d undergone some u2
displacement.
2( g a)
6. (c)
7. (c) If a body is moving along a straight line path with Time of fall t2 is given by
constant velocity then distance travelled =
1 u2
displacement i.e., D = S ( g – a )t22
8. (b) In general, in magnitude of speed velocity 2 2( g a )
9. (d) Area under velocity-time curve represents
u u g a
displacement. t2
( g a)( g a) ( g a) g –a
s
10. (d) When s t, so constant .
t 1 1
11. (c) The velocity-time graph for a uniform motion is a t2 > t1 because
g a g a
straight. line parallel to time axis. Its slope is zero. 25. (d) Velocity time curve will be a straight line as shown:
12. (b)
|Average velocity| |displacement| v
|Average speed| | distance |
because displacement will either be equal or less
than distance. It can never be greater than distance
travelled. o
13. (c) The slope of the tangent drawn on position-time graph t
at any instant gives instantaneous velocity. At the highest point v = 0.
S 26. (d)
27. (a) Let s be the distance travelled by the vehicle before it
A stops.
AB
Position C B AC Vinst Final velocity = 0, initial velocity = u
BC
O Time
Using equation of motion v2 – u2 = 2aS
02 – u2 = 2aS
14. (b)
u2
Stopping distance, S –
velocity 2a
15. (d) 1
speed 28. (a)
16. (b) For a particle moving with uniform acceleration the 29. (d) Because acceleration due to gravity is constant so
displacement-time graph is a parabola. the slope of line will be constant i.e. velocity time
curve for a body projected vertically upwards is
S straight line.
30. (b)
31. (b) The speed in general the magnitude of velocity
32. (b) Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of motion
t with uniform acceleration.
33. (d) As ball returns to starting point so displacement is 54. (d) All options are correct :
zero. (i) When two bodies A & B move in opposite
1 2 directions then relative velocity between A & B either
34. (c) As, s = at VAB or VBA both are greater than VA & VB.
2
(ii) When two bodies A & B move in same direction
If a is constant, then s t2
35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) then VAB VA VB VAB VA
40. (a) We should know the displacement in this time. VBA VB VA VBA VB
at 2
S ut (we take upward as positive) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
2
55. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
4
S 30 4 10 4 40 m. 56. (c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
2 57. (a) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (2)
The average velocity will be 10 m/sec. 58. (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (1) ; (E) (2)
v1t / 3 v 2 2t / 3 v1 2v 2 59. (b) (A) (5); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (2)
41. (a) vav 60. (a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1)
t 3 3
61. (b) (A) (1, 2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4)
v1t / 3 v 2 2t / 3 v1 2v 2 62. (c) (A) ( 2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
42. (a) vav 63. (a) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
t 3 3
64. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
43. (c)
u2 (20)2 DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
44. (a) v2 – u2 = 2as a= = 1 m/s2
2as 2 200 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d)
70. (c) Let v be velocity of wind and u be velocity of each
a train.
45. (c) Sn = u + (2n – 1)
2 Rel. vel. of one train w.r.t. wind = 2 × Rel. vel. of other
train w.r.t. wind
a 2
or, S= (2 2 – 1) a= m/s2 u + v = 2 (u – v)
2 3 v + 2 v = 2u – u = u.
total length i.e., u = 3v.
X X X
46. (a) Time = relative velocity = s 71. (b)
20 20 40 72. (d) The difference in velocities is increasing with time as
both of them have different acceleration.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 73. (e) From displacement-time graph, it is clear that in equal
intervals of time displacements are not equal infact,
47. (a) Instantaneous speed is the distance being covered decreases and after 40s displacement constant i.e. the
by the particle per unit time at the given instant. It is particle stops.
equal to the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity 74. (c) Speed, V = constant (from question)
at the given instant. Centripetal acceleration,
displacement V2
48. (c) Average velocity = a=
time interval r
A particle moving in a given direction with non-zero ra = constant
velocity cannot have zero speed. Hence graph (c) correctly describes relation between
In general, average speed is not equal to magnitude acceleration and radius.
of average velocity. However, it can be so if the
motion is along a straight line without change in ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
direction.
49. (a) When the body is projected vertically upward then 75. (c) The displacement is the shortest distance between
at the highest point its velocity is zero but initial and final position. When final position of a
acceleration is not equal to zero (g = 9.8m/s2). body coincides with its initial position, displacement
50. (b) 51. (b) is zero, but the distance travelled is not zero.
76. (a) According to definition, displacement = velocity ×
u2 time. Since displacement is a vector quantity so its
52. (d) At highest point v = 0 and Hmax= value is equal to the vector sum of the area under
2g
velocity-time graph.
53. (a) Average velocity can be positive, negative or zero.
EBD_7208
77. (c) CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
78. (a) Position-time graph for a stationary object is a
straight line parallel to time axis showing that not 1
change in position with time. mu 2
kinetic energy 2
99. (c) Stopping distance =
79. (c) In uniform motion the object moves with uniform velocity, retarding force F
the magnitude of its velocity at different instance i.e., at
t = 0, t =1, sec, t = 2sec ..... will always be constant. Thus u2
velocity-time graph for an object in uniform motion along [ F mg ]
2 g
a straight path is a straight line parallel to time axis.
80. (a) Because displacement distance and so average So both will cover equal distance.
velocity average speed.
81. (d) Speedometer measures instantaneous speed of 100. (c) Velocity V dx
automobile. dt
82. (a) Since velocity is a vector quantity, hence as its 101. (a) v x
direction changes keeping magnitude constant,
velocity is said to be changed. But for constant dx
x
speed in equal time interval distance travelled dt
should be equal. dx
dt
83. (c) Negative slope of position time graph represents x
that the body is moving towards the negative x t
direction and if the slope of the graph decrease with dx
dt
time then it represents the decrease in speed i.e. x
0 0
retardation in motion.
84. (c) If the position-time graph of a body moving x
uniformly in a straight line parallel to position axis, 2 x
[ t ]0t
it means that the position of body is changing at 1
0
constant time. The statement is abrupt and shows
that the velocity of body is infinite. 2 x t
85. (c) In uniform motion the speed is same at each instant of
2
motion. x t2
86. (a) In uniform circular motion, there is acceleration of 4
constant magnitude. 102. (a) Since displacement is zero.
87. (d) One dimensional motion is always along straight line. 103. (d) Let the total distance be d. Then for first half distance,
But acceleration may be opposite of velocity and so
d
angle between them will be 180°. time = , next distance. = v1t and last half distance
2v 0
88. (c)
89. (c) Assertion is True, Reason is False. = v2t
90. (d) Equation of motion can be applied if the acceleration d
d t
is in opposite direction to that of velocity and v1t v2 t
;
2 2(v1 v2 )
uniform motion mean the acceleration is zero.
91. (b) A body having positive acceleration can be Now average speed
associated with slowing down, as time rate of d
change of velocity decreases, but velocity increases t
d d d
with time.
2v 0 2( v1 v 2 ) 2( v1 v 2 )
92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (c)
96. (d) When a body falling freely, only gravitational force 2v0 (v1 v2 )
acts on it in vertically downward direction. Due to
(v1 v 2 ) 2v0
this downward acceleration the velocity of a body
increases and will be maximum when the body 104. (c) When particle comes to rest,
touches the ground. dx d
97. (a) A body has no relative motion with respect to itself. V=0= (40 + 12t – t3)
dt dt
Hence, if a frame of reference of body is fixed, then
12 – 3t2 = 0
the body will be always at relative rest in this frame
of reference. 12
t2 = 4 t = 2 sec
98. (a) 3
Therefore distance travelled by particle before coming v 5 2 1
to rest, Avg. acc. = m / s2
t 10 2
x = 40 + 12t – t3 = 40 + 12 × 2 – (2)3 = 56m
5
105. (a) As the coin falls behind him, force due to air must be tan 1
backwards. Therefore, the train must be accelerating 5
forward. which means is in the second quadrant. (towards north-
dv dv west)
106. (a) kv 3 or k dt 109. (a) Differentiate two times and put x = 0.
dt v3
1 dv dv
Integrating we get, kt c ...(1) 110. (a) 2.5 v = – 2.5 dt
dt v
2v 2
1 Integrating,
At t = 0, v = v0 c
2v2o 0
½
t
v dv 2.5 dt
Putting in (1) 6.25 0
1 1 1 1 0
kt or kt v ½
2v2 2v02 2v20 2v2 2.5 t
t
(½) 0
6.25
or
1 1
or 1 2v 02 kt v 02 – 2(6.25)½ = – 2.5t t = 2 sec
kt
2 v 02 2v 2
v 2
1 2
111. (a) x = x0 (ut at )
2
v 20 v0 At t = 0, x = – 2,
or v 2 or v
1 2 v 20 kt 1 2v 02 kt –2 = x0 + 0
or x0 = – 2
1 dx 1 1
107. (a) x v= Thus,0 = 2 (u 1 a 12 ) ...(i)
2 2
t 5 dt (t 5)
1
d2x 2 and 6 = 2 (u 2 a 22 ) ...(ii)
a= = = 2x3 2
dt 2 (t 5)3 After solving equations, we get u = 0, a = 4 m/s2.
1 3
1 1 Now for t = 3,
Now v2 a v2
(t 5) (t 5)3 1
x = 2 (u 3 4 32 )
change in velocity 2
108. (c) Average acceleration =
time interval = 16 m.
Clearly it represents motion with constant accelera-
v
= tion.
t 112. (d) Let the car accelerates for a time t 1 and travels a
v2
distance s1. Suppose the maximum velocity attained
N
by the car be v Then
v v2 ( v1 ) 1 2
s1 t1 and v t1 , t1 v / ,
2
1 v2
90 s1 (v2 / 2 ) ...(1)
W E 2 2
v1 v1 Let the car decelerates for a time t2 and travels a
distances s2. Then
S 1 v
s2 v t2 t 2 2 and 0 v t 2 or t 2
v1 ˆ v
5i, 5jˆ 2
2
v (v 2 v 1) = v12 v 22 2 v1v 2 cos 90 v 1 v2

s2 v
2 2
= 5 2 2 [As | v1 | = | v 2 | = 5 m/s]
5 0
= 5 2 m/s v2 v2 v2
or s 2 ...(2)
2 2
EBD_7208
As per question, S f t1t 2S 15 S
Let max. velocity is v
then v = t1 & v – t2 = 0, where t = t1 + t2 f t1t 12 S ............. (i)
v v 1 2
Now t1 + t2 = t or t f t1 S ............ (ii)
2
t
t Dividing (i) by (ii), we get t1 =
v t and 6
1 1
2
1 t f t2
S f
2 6 72
s
v2 v2 v2 1 1
s1 s2
2 2 2 1 2
115. (a) h = ut1 gt1
2
113. (d) Given : u = 0, t = 5 sec, v = 108 km/hr = 30m/s
By eqn of motion ut2
1 2
gt2
Also h =
v = u + at 2
v 30 After simplify above equations, we get
or a 6 m / s2 [ u 0] 1
t 5 h = gt1t2 .
2
1 2 116. (c) If h is the height of the building, then
S1 at
2
v2A = v 2 2 gh
1
6 52 75 m and vB2 = ( v ) 2 2 gh .
2
Distance travelled in first 5 sec is 75m. Clearly vA = vB.
Distance travelled with uniform speed of 30 m/s is S2 117. (b) Velocity when the engine is switched off
395 = S1 + S2 + S3 v 19.6 5 98 m s 1
395 = 75 + S2 + 45
S2 = 395 – 120 = 275 m h max h1 h 2 where h1 1 2 v2
at & h 2
2 2a
275 1 98 98
Time taken to travel 275 m = 9.2sec h max 19.6 5 5
30 2 2 9.8
For retarding motion, we have = 245 + 490 = 735 m
02 – 302 = 2 (– a) × 45 118. (b) Height attained by balls in 2 sec is
We get, a = 10 m/s2
1
1 2 9. 8 4 19 . 6 m
Now by, S = ut + at 2
2
the same distance will be covered in 2 second (for
1 descent)
45 = 30t +(–10)t 2
2 Time interval of throwing balls, remaining same. So,
45 = 30t – 5t2 for two balls remaining in air, the time of ascent or
on solving we get, descent must be greater than 2 seconds. Hence speed
t = 3 sec of balls must be greater than 19.6 m/sec.
Total time taken = 5 + 9.2 + 3 119. (a) Clearly distance moved by 1st ball in 18s = distance
= 17.2 sec. moved by 2nd ball in 12s.
1 2 Now, distance moved in 18 s by 1st ball
114. (d) Distance from A to B = S = ft 1
2 1
= × 10 × 182 = 90 × 18 = 1620 m
Distance from B to C = (ft 1 ) t 2
Distance moved in 12 s by 2nd ball
u2 (ft 1 ) 2
Distance from C to D = 1 2
2a 2( f / 2) = ut + gt 1620 = 12 v + 5 × 144
2
ft 12 2S v = 135 – 60 = 75 ms –1
A f B C f /2 D 1 2
120. (a) h= gt
2
t1 t 2t 1
1
h1 = g(5)2 = 125
15 S 2
A
1 4S 4S 2S
h1 + h2 = g(10)2 = 500 t1 t2 , t2
2 g g g S
h2 = 375 6S B
1 t1 t2 t3
h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125 g 2S S
3S
2
h3 = 625 C
6S 4S
h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h 1 t3 S
g g
h2 h3
or h1 = = t1 : t 2 : t 3 : : 1 : ( 2 1) : ( 3 2) D
3 5
121. (b) As the ball moves down from height ‘h’ to ground the 1 2
P.E. at height ‘h’ is converted to K.E. at the ground 126. (a) h ut gt
2
(Applying Law of conservation of Energy).
1 2
1 h gt [ u 0]
Hence, mAvA2 = mAghA or vA = 2gh ; 2
2
t 2h / g
Similarly, vB = 2 gh or vA = vB 127. (c)
128. (c) Velocity of A is same as that of B in magnitude but
1 2 opposite in direction.
122. (c) h gT
2 129. (d) So by figure the velocity of parrot
w.r. t. train is = 5–(–10) = 15m/sec
2
T 1 T h so time taken to cross the train is
In sec, the distance travelled g
3 2 3 9 length of train 150
Position of the ball from the ground 10 sec
relative velocity 15
h 8h
h m
9 9 North
123. (a) Before hitting the ground, the velocity is given by train
2 10m/sec
v 2gd
West East
2 d parrot
Further, v ' 2g gd ;
2 5m/sec
v South
2 or v v' 2
v'
130. (b) Relative speed of each train with respect to each other
As the direction is reversed and speed is decreased
be, = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s
and hence graph (a) represents these conditions
Here distance covered by each train = sum of their lengths
correctly.
= 50 + 50 = 100 m
124. (b) Time taken by the stone to reach the water level
100
2h Required time 4 sec .
t1 25
g
131. (a) According to question,
Time taken by sound to come to the mouth of the well, V (x) = bx–2n
h dv
t2 So, = – 2 nb x– 2n – 1
v dx
Acceleration of the particle as function of x,
2h h
Total time t1 t2 dv –2n –1
g v a=v = bx–2n b (–2n) x
dx
1 1 = – 2nb2x–4n–1
125. (b) S AB g t 12 2S AC g (t1 t 2 )2
2 2
1 132. (a) VA 10 –i
and 3S AD g ( t1 t 2 t 3 ) 2
2 VB 10 j
2S
t1 V BA 10 j 10 î 10 2 km / h
g
EBD_7208
N(j) For ball Q

S = (100 – x) m, u = 0, a = g
1 2
100 – x = 0 + gt .......... (ii)
2
Adding eqns. (i) and (ii), we get
w 10 km/h A 100 km 100 = 25t or t = 4 s
45° From eqn. (i),
1
x = 25 × 4 – 9.8 (4)2 21.6 m
100 km O 2
V BA 10 2 km / h Hence distance from the top of the tower
B = (100 – x) m = (100 – 21.6 m) = 78.4 m
S 138. (c) As we know, distance traversed in nth second
Distance OB = 100 cos 45° = 50 2 km 1
Sn = u + a (2 n 1)
Time taken to each the shortest distance between 2
Here, u = 0, a = g
OB 50 2 1
A and B 5h Sn = g (2n 1)
VBA 10 2 2
1 2 Distance traversed in 1st second i.e., n = 1
133. (a) s = ut + at 1 1
2 S1 = g (2 1 1) g
–65 = 12t – 5t2 on solving we get, t = 5s 2 2
134. (d) Speed to cover 1200 m by scootarist Distance traversed in 2nd second i.e., n = 2
vr × 60 = 1200 vr = 20 1 3
speed to overtake bus S2 = g (2 2 1) g
2 2
v = vr + 10 = 30 m/s Distance traversed in 3rd second i.e., n = 3
135. (d) For A to B
1 5
1 2 S3 = g (2 3 1) g
S= gt ...(i) 2 2
2 1 3 5
For A to C S1 : S2 : S3 = g : g : g 1: 3 : 5
2 2 2
1 2 139. (d) Let u be the initial velocity that have to find and a be
2S = gt ...(ii)
2 the uniform acceleration of the particle.
Dividing (i) by (ii) we get For t = 3s, distance travelled S = 12 m and
t 1 for t = 3 + 3 = 6 s distance travelled S = 12 + 30 = 42 m
t
=
2 From, S = ut + 1/2 at2
136. (b) y1 = 10t – 5t2 ; y2 = 40t – 5t2 1
12 = u × 3 + a 32
for y1 = – 240m, t = 8s 2
y2 – y1 = 30t for t < 8s. or 24 = 6u + 9a ...(i)
for t > 8s, 1
1 Similarly, 42 = u × 6 + a 62
y2 – y1 = 240 – 40t – gt2 2
2 or 42 = 6u + 18a ...(ii)
137. (d) Let the two balls Pand Q meet at height x m from the On solving, we get u = 1 m s–1
ground after time t s from the start.
We have to find distance, BC = (100 – x) 140. (c) Speed on reaching ground v = u2 2 gh
Q C
u
(100 – x)m
100 m H
–1 B
25 m s
xm
P Now, v = u + at
A
For ball P u2 2 gh u gt
S = x m, u = 25 m s–1, a = –g
u
1 Time taken to reach highest point is t ,
From S = ut + at 2 g
2
1 2 u u2 2 gH nu
x = 25t – gt .......... (i) t (from question)
2 g g
2gH = n(n –2)u2
4
MOTION IN A PLANE
FACT/ DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. The resultant of A 0 will be equal to

1. A scalar quantity is one that (a) zero (b) A
(a) can never take negative values (c) zero vector (d) unit vector
(b) has magnitude as well as direction 10. In a clockwise system
(c) does not vary from one point to another in space (a) j× k i (b) i×k 0
(d) has the same value for observers with different
orientations of axes. (c) j× j 1 (d) k × i 1
2. Which of the following conditions are sufficient and 11. The component of a vector r along x-axis will have
essential for a quantity to be a vector? maximum value if
(a) Magnitude and direction (a) r is along positive y-axis
(b) Magnitude and addition, subtraction, multiplication (b) r is along positive x-axis
by ordinary rules of algebra (c) r makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis
(c) Magnitude, direction, and addition, subtraction (d) r is along negative y-axis
multiplication and division by vector laws 12. It is found that | A + B | = | A |. This necessarily implies,
(d) Magnitude, direction and combination of vectors by (a) B = 0
ordinary rules of algebra (b) A and B are antiparallel
3. If is the angle between two vectors, then the resultant
(c) A and B are perpendicular
vector is maximum, when value of is
(d) A.B < 0
(a) 0° (b) 90°
13. The shape of trajectory of the motion of an object is
(c) 180° (d) Same in all cases.
determined by
4. How many minimum number of vectors in different planes
(a) acceleration (b) initial position
can be added to give zero resultant?
(c) initial velocity (d) All of these
(a) 2 (b) 3
14. The position vector a of particle is
(c) 4 (d) 5
5. The unit vectors along the three co-ordinate axes are related r (a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj
as The velocity of the particle is
(a) î ˆj kˆ 1 (b) î ˆj kˆ 0 (a) directed towards the origin
î ˆj kˆ 1 (b) directed away from the origin
(c) (d) î ˆj kˆ 1
(c) parallel to the position vector
6. The angle between the direction of î and (iˆ ˆj) is (d) perpendicular to the position vector
(a) 90° (b) 0° 15. If tm is the time taken by a projectile to achieve the maximum
(c) 45° (d) 180° height, then the total time of flight Tf related to tm as
7. Consider the quantities pressure, power, energy, impulse, (a) tm = 2 Tf (b) Tf = tm
gravitational potential, electric charge, temperature and (c) Tf = 2tm (d) None of these
area. Out of these, the vector quantities are 16. If u is the initial velocity of a projectile and v is the velocity
(a) impulse, pressure and area at any instant, then the maximum horizontal range Rm is
(b) impulse and area equal to
(c) area and gravitational potential 2 v2
(d) impulse and pressure (a) Rm = u sin 2 (b) Rm =
g g
8. Angular momentum is
(a) a scalar (b) a polar vector v2 sin 2 u2
(c) Rm = (d) Rm =
(c) an axial vector (d) None of these g g
EBD_7208
36 MOTION IN A PLANE
17. Which of the following is an essential condition for 28. For projectile motion, we will assume that the air resistance
horizontal component of projectile to remain constant? has ...X... effect on the motion of the projectile. Here, X
(a) Acceleration due to gravity should be exactly constant refers to
(b) Angle of projection should be 45° (a) sufficient (b) insufficient
(c) There should be no air-resistance (c) negligible (d) proper
(d) All of these 29. For angle ...X..., the projectile has maximum range and it
18. In the projectile motion, if air resistance is ignored, the is equal to ...X.... Here, X and Y refer to
horizontal motion is at
(a) constant acceleration (b) constant velocity v02 v0
(a) and (b) and
(b) variable acceleration (d) constant retardation 4 2g 2 g
19. A moves with 65 km/h while B is coming back of A with
80 km/h. The relative velocity of B with respect to A is v02 v02
(a) 80 km/h (b) 60 km/h (c) and (d) and
4 g 2 g
(c) 15 km/h (d) 145 km/h
20. A bullet is dropped from the same height when another 30. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration
bullet is fired horizontally. They will hit the ground is
(a) one after the other (a) maximum (b) minimum
(b) simultaneously
(c) zero (d) g
(c) depends on the observer
(d) None of these 31. Centripetal acceleration is
21. What determines the nature of the path followed by a (a) a constant vector
particle? (b) a constant scalar
(c) a magnitude changing vector
(a) Velocity (b) Speed
(d) not a constant vector
(c) Acceleration (d) None of these
22. The time of flight of a projectile on an upward inclined 32. The force required to keep a body in uniform circular
plane depends upon motion is
(a) angle of inclination of the plane (a) centripetal force (b) centrifugal force
(b) angle of projection (c) resistance (d) None of these
33. In a vertical circle of radius r at what point in the path
(c) the value of acceleration due to gravity
a particle has tension equal to zero if it is just able to
(d) all of the above.
complete the vertical circle?
23. At the highest point on the trajectory of a projectile, its
(a) Highest point
(a) potential energy is minimum
(b) Lowest point
(b) kinetic energy is maximum (c) Any point
(c) total energy is maximum (d) At a point horizontally from the centre of circle of
(d) kinetic energy is minimum. radius r
24. In a projectile motion, velocity at maximum height is 34. Two stones are moving with same angular speeds in the
u cos radii of circular paths 1 m and 2 m. The ratio of their linear
(a) (b) u cos speed is ...X.... Here, X refers to
2
(a) 2 (b) 1/2
u sin (c) 1/3 (d) 3
(c) (d) None of these
2 35. The direction of the angular velocity vector is along
25. The angle of projection, for which the horizontal range (a) the tangent to the circular path
and the maximum height of a projectile are equal, is: (b) the inward radius
(a) 45° (b) = tan–14 (c) the outward radius
(c) –1
= tan (0.25) (d) none of these. (d) the axis of rotation
26. For an object thrown at 45° to horizontal, the maximum 36. If ar and at represent radial and tangential accelerations,
height (H) and horizontal range (R) are related as the motion of particle will be uniformly circular, if
(a) R = 16 H (b) R = 8 H (a) ar = 0 and at = 0 (b) ar = 0 but at 0
(c) R = 4 H (d) R = 2H (c) ar 0 and at = 0 (d) ar 0 and at 0
37. In uniform circular motion
27. The vertical component of velocity of a projectile at its
(a) both velocity and acceleration are constant
maximum height (u - velocity of projection, -angle of
(b) acceleration and speed are constant but velocity
projection) is
(a) u sin (b) u cos changes
(c) both acceleration and velocity change
u (d) both acceleration and speed are constant
(c) (d) 0
sin
MOTION IN A PLANE 37
38. When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle 47. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) no work is done on it I. A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a
(b) no acceleration is produced in the body process.
(c) no force acts on the body II. A scalar quantity is the one that can never take
(d) its velocity remains constant negative values.
39. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It III. A scalar quantity has the same value for observers
(a) has a constant velocity with different orientations of the axes.
(b) is not accelerated (a) I and III (b) II only
(c) has an inward radial acceleration (c) II and III (d) I and II
(d) has an outward radial acceleration 48. Which of the following is/are correct ?
40. A body is moving with a constant speed v in a circle of
radius r. Its angular acceleration is I. A B B A
(a) vr (b) v/r A B B A
II.
(c) zero (d) vr2
41. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length and rotated III. A ( B C ) ( A B ) C
in a circle with a constant speed v, if the string is released (a) I only (b) II and III
the stone flies (b) I and III (d) I and II
(a) radially outward 49. Three vectors A, B and C add up to zero. Select the correct
(b) radially inward statements.
(c) tangentially outward I (A × B) . C is not zero unless B, C are parallel
(d) with an acceleration mv2/ II If A,B,C define a plane, (A × B) × C is in that plane
42. If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in III (A × B) .C = | A | | B | C | C2 = A2 + B2
equal interval of time, its velocity vector (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) remains constant (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(b) changes in magnitude 50. In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous speed v0 is
(c) changes in direction a positive constant. Then which of the following statements
(d) changes both in magnitude and direction is/are incorrect?
43. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is I. The average velocity is not zero at any time.
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic II. Average acceleration must always vanish.
(b) simple harmonic but not periodic III. Equal path lengths are traversed in equal intervals.
(c) periodic and simple harmonic (a) I and II (b) II only
(d) neither periodic nor simple harmonic (c) III only (d) II and III
44. In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector and 51. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
acceleration vector are I. If speed of a body in a curved path is constant it has
zero acceleration
(a) perpendicular to each other II. When a body moves on a curved path with a constant
(b) same direction speed, it has acceleration perpendicular to the direction
(c) opposite direction of motion
(d) not related to each other
(c) I and II (d) None of these
45. A body of mass m moves in a circular path with uniform 52. Select the correct statements about the football thrown in a
angular velocity. The motion of the body has constant parabolic path.
(a) acceleration (b) velocity I. At the highest point the vertical component of velocity
is zero
(c) momentum (d) kinetic energy
II. At the highest point, the velocity of the football, acts
horizontally
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS III. At the highest point, the acceleration of the ball acts
vertically downwards
statements from the following.
I. Addition and subtraction of scalars make sense only
53. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the following.
for quantities with same units
I. In projectile motion, the range depends on the mass.
II. Multiplication and division of scalars with different
It is greater for heavier object
units is possible
II. In projectile motion, the range is independent of the
III. Addition, subtraction, multiplication and division of
angle of projection.
scalars with same unit is possible
EBD_7208
54. A ball is thrown upwards and it returns to ground describing (D) The difference of vector, A B (4) 20
a parabolic path. Which of the following has the same (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
value at the time of throw and the time of return? (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
I. Kinetic energy of the ball (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
II. Speed of the ball (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
III. Vertical component of velocity 59. Given two vectors; A = î ˆj and B = î ˆj . Then match the
following columns :
(c) III only (d) I, II and III Column - I Column - II
55. For a particle performing uniform circular motion, select
the correct statement(s) from the following. (A) A B /2 (1) î
I. Magnitude of particle velocity (speed) remains
constant. (B) A B /2 (2) ĵ
II. Particle velocity remains directed perpendicular to
radius vector. (C) A B /2 (3) kˆ
III. Angular momentum is constant.
(a) I only (b) II and III (D) A B /2 (4) 0
(c) III only (d) I and II
56. Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (2)
I. Centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
centre. (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
v2 (d) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
II. Magnitude of the centripetal acceleration is . 60. The velocity v of a particle moving in the xy – plane is
R
III. Direction of centripetal acceleration changes pointing
always towards the centre. given by v = 6t – 4t 2 î + 8ˆj , with v in m/s and t(>0) in
(a) I and II (b) II and III second.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III Match the following columns :
Column - I Column - II
(A) Acceleration magnitude is 10 m/s2 (1) ¾ s
57. Vector A has components Ax = 2, Ay = 3 and vector B has at a time
components Bx = 4, By = 5, then match the columns : (B) Acceleration zero at time (2) never
Column I Column II (C) velocity zero at time (3) 1 s
(D) The speed 10 m/s at a time (4) 2 s
(A)The components of vector sum A B (1) 8
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
(B)The magnitude of A B (2) – 2 (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(C)The componet of vector difference A B (3) 2 2
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(D)The magnitude of A B (4) 10 61. The equation of trajectory of a particle projected from the
surface of the planet is given by the equation y = x – x2.
(a) (A) (1); (B) (4); C (2); (D) (3)
(suppose, g = 2 m/s2)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) Column - I Column - II
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (magnitude only)
(A) angle of projection, tan q (1) ¼
58. Given two vectors A = 3î 4ˆj and B = î 2 ˆj . Then match
(B) time of flight, T (2) 1
the following columns : (C) maximum height attained, H (3) 2
Column I Column II
(D) horizontal range, R (4) 4
(A) Magnitude of vector A or B (1) 5 (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (2)
0.6iˆ 0.8ˆj (b) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
(B) Unit vector of A (2)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(C) The magnitude of A B (3) 2î 6ˆj (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
62. A particle is projected with some angle from the surface of
the planet. The motion of the particle is described by the b
2 a c
equation; x t , y t t . Then match the following columns:
Column - I Column - II d e
f
(quantity) (magnitude only)
(A) velocity of projection (1) 1
(a) b c f (b) d c f
(B) acceleration (2) 2
(C) time of flight (3) 2 (c)d e f (d) b e f
1
66. Which law is governed by the given figure ?
(D) maximum height attained (4)
4
A B
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (2) C
(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4) R B
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2)
63. A ball is thrown at an angle 75° with the horizontal at a O A
C
speed of 20 m/s towards a high wall at a distance d. If the
ball strikes the wall, its horizontal velocity component (a) Associative law of vector addition
reverses the direction without change in magnitude and (b) Commutative law of vector addition
the vertical velocity component remains same. Ball stops (c) Associative law of vector multiplication
(d) Commutative law of vector multiplication
after hitting the ground. Match the statement of column I
67. Which of the following figures represents
with the distance of the wall from the point of throw in
column II . A AXiˆ Ayjˆ Az k ?
Column I Column II
(A) Ball strikes the wall directly (1) 8 m Ay Ay
(B) Ball strikes the ground at x = 12 m (2) 10 m
from the wall
(C) Ball strikes the ground at x = 10m (3) 0 m A Ax A Ax
(a) (b)
from the wall
(D) Ball strikes the ground at x = 5 m (4) 25 m
Az Az
from the wall
(a) (A) (1,2); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
Ay
(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2)
Ax
(c) (d) All of these
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS A
64. For the figure, which of the following is correct? Az
(a) A B C 68. Which of the following holds true for the given figure?
C D C
(b) B C A
B
(c) C A B
(d) A B C 0 A A B
65. Six vectors, a through f have the magnitudes and (a) AC BD 2BC (b) AB BC 2CD
directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following (c) (d) All of these
AC AB 2BD
statements is true?
EBD_7208
69. A swimmer wants to cross a river straight. He swim at (a) (b)
2i 3 j 2i 3 j
5 km/hr in still water. A river 1 km wide flows at the rate of
3 km/hr. Which of the following figure shows the correct (c) 2i 3 j (d) 2i 3 j
direction for the swimmer along which he should strike?
(Vs velocity of swimmer, Vr velocity of river, V 72. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm clockwise at
resultant velocity) constant speed 2 cm/s. If x̂ and ŷ are unit acceleration
B C vectors along X and Y-axis respectively (in cm/s2), the
acceleration of the particle at the instant half way between
P and Q is given by
1 km
V y
VS (a) 4(xˆ y)ˆ P
(a)
(b) 4(xˆ y)
ˆ
O V A
r
(c) (xˆ y)
ˆ / 2 O x
Q
(d) (xˆ y)
ˆ /4
1 km
V Vr
(b)
VS
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
1 km
(c) have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
1 km
(d) (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

73. Assertion: A physical quantity cannot be called as a vector
if its magnitude is zero.
Reason: A vector has both magnitude and direction.
70. If V1 is velocity of a body projected from the point A and
74. Assertion : The scalar product of two vectors can be zero.
V2 is the velocity of a body projected from point B which is
Reason : If two vectors are perpendicular to each other,
vertically below the highest point C. if both the bodies
their scalar product will be zero.
collide, then
75. Assertion : Minimum number of non-equal vectors in a
plane required to give zero resultant is three.
V1 C Reason : If A B C 0 , then they must lie in one plane.
76. Assertion : If A.B B.C , then A may not always be equal
V2
to C .
A B Reason : The dot product of two vectors involves cosine of
the angle between the two vectors.
1 1
(a) V1 V (b) V2 V 77. Assertion : r F and F r
2 2 2 1
(c) V1 = V2 (d) Two bodies can't collide. Reason : Cross product of vectors is commutative.
78. Assertion : If dot product and cross product of A and B
71. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2i 3 j
m/s its velocity (in m/s) at point B is are zero, it implies that one of the vector A and B must
be a null vector
Y Reason : Null vector is a vector with zero magnitude.
79. Assertion : The magnitude of velocity of two boats relative
to river is same. Both boats start simultaneously from same
point on one bank may reach opposite bank simultaneously
B moving along different paths.
A X Reason : For boats to cross the river in same time. The
component of their velocity relative to river in direction
normal to flow should be same.
80. Assertion : Two balls of different masses are thrown 89. Assertion : The maximum horizontal range of projectile
vertically upward with same speed. They will pass through is proportional to square of velocity.
their point of projection in the downward direction with Reason : The maximum horizontal range of projectile is
the same speed. equal to maximum height attained by projectile.
90. Assertion : The trajectory of projectile is quadratic in y
Reason : The maximum height and downward velocity
and linear in x.
attained at the point of projection are independent of the
Reason : y component of trajectory is independent of x-
mass of the ball. component.
81. Assertion : If a body of mass m is projected upwards with 91. Assertion : When range of a projectile is maximum, its
a speed V making an angle with the vertical, than the angle of projection may be 45° or 135°.
change in the momentum of the body along X–axis is zero. Reason : Wheather is 45° or 135° value of range
Reason : Mass of the body remains constant along X–axis remains the same, only the sign changes.
82. Assertion : The horizontal range is same when the angle 92. Assertion : A body of mass 1 kg is making 1 rps in a circle
of projection is greater than 45° by certain value and less of radius 1 m. Centrifugal force acting on it is 4 2 N.
than 45° by the same value.
mv 2
Reason: If = 45° + , then Reason : Centrifugal force is given by F =
r
u 2sin2(45 ) u 2 cos 2 93. Assertion : K.E. of a moving body given by as where s is
2
R1 = =
g g the distance travelled in a circular path a refers to variable
acceleration.
u 2sin2(45 ) u 2 cos 2 Reason : Acceleration varies with direction only in this
If = 45° – then R2 = =
g g case of circular motion.
83. Assertion : If there were no gravitational force, the path 94. Assertion : Centripetal and centrifugal forces cancel each
of the projected body always be a straight line. other.
Reason : Gravitational force makes the path of projected Reason : This is because they are always equal and opposite.
body always parabolic.
84. Assertion: The maximum possible height attained by the CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
2 95. For which angle between two equal vectors A and B will
projected body is u , where u is the velocity of the magnitude of the sum of two vectors be equal to the
2g
magnitude of each vector?
projection. (a) = 60° (b) = 120°
Reason : To attain the maximum height, body is thrown (c) = 0° (d) = 90°
vertically upwards. 96. A can be written in terms of components as
85. Assertion : When the range of projectile is maximum, the
A = Axiˆ Ayjˆ Azkˆ . When will A | be zero
time of flight is the largest.
(a) Ax = Ay = 0 & Az 0 (b) Ax = Ay = Az 0
Reason : Range is maximum when angle of projection is
450. (c) Ax = Ay = Az = 0 (d) | A | can never be zero.
86. Assertion : A shell fired from a gun is moving along the 97. Two vectors A and B lie in a plane, a third vector C lies
parabolic path. If it explodes at the top of the trajectory, outside this plane, the sum of these vectors A + B + C
then no part of the shell can fly vertically. (a) can be zero
(b) can never be zero
Reason : The vertical momentum of the shell at the top of
the trajectory is zero. (c) lies in a plane containing A B
87. Assertion : A body is thrown with a velocity u inclined to (d) lies in a plane containing A B
the horizontal at some angle. It moves along a parabolic 98. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon. The centre of hexagon is
path and falls to the ground. Linear momentum of the body, a point O. Then the value of
during its motion, will remain conserve. AB AC AD AE AF is
Reason : Throughout the motion of the body, a constant
force acts on it. (a) 2AO (b) 4AO (c) 6 AO (d) Zero
88. Assertion : Two projectiles having same range must have 99. For two vectors A and B, | A + B | = | A B| is always
true when
the same time of flight.
(a) | A | = | B | 0 (b) | A B
Reason : Horizontal component of velocity is constant in (c) | A | = | B | 0 and A and B are parallel or anti parallel
projectile motion under gravity. (d) None of these
EBD_7208
108. A body of 3kg. moves in X-Y plane under the action of
100. If a vector 2 i 3 j 8 k is perpendicular to the vector
force given by 6t î 4 tĵ . Assuming that the body is at rest
4 j 4i k , then the value of
is
at time t = 0, the velocity of body at t = 3 sec is
(a) 1/2 (b) –1/2
(c) 1 (d) –1 (a) 9î 6ˆj (b) 18î 6 ĵ
101. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is
(c) 18î 12ˆj (d) 12î 68 ĵ
16 N and their resultant 8 3 N is at 90° with the force of
smaller magnitude. The two forces (in N) are 109. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given
(a) 11, 5 (b) 9, 7 by x = a t2 and y = b t2. The speed of the particle is
(c) 6, 10 (d) 2, 14
(a) 2 t (a + b) (b) 2t a2 b2
102. The coordinates of a particle moving in x–y plane at any
instant of time t are x = 4t2; y = 3t2. The speed of the
particle at that instant is (c) 2t a2 b2 (d) a2 b2
(a) 10 t (b) 5 t 110. A boat which has a speed of 5 km h –1 in still water crosses
(c) 3 t (d) 2 t a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15
103. If r is the position vector of a particle at time t, r is the minutes. The velocity of the river water is
(a) 1 km h –1 (b) 3 km h –1
position vector of the particle at time t’, and r is the
(c) 4 km h –1 (d) 1
displacement vector, then instantaneous velocity is given 41 km h
by 111. If rain falls vertically with a velocity Vr and wind blows
lim r lim r With a velocity vw from east to west, then a person standing
(a) V t 0 (b) V t 0
t t on the roadside should hold the umbrella in the direction
lim r r r Vw Vr
(c) V t 0 (d) V = (a) tan (b) tan
t t Vr Vw
104. For motion in two or three dimensions, the angle between
velocity and acceleration is Vrw Vr
(c) tan (d) tan
(a) 0° Vr 2 Vw 2 Vr 2 Vw 2
(b) 90°
(c) 180° 112. If Vr is the velocity of rain falling vertically and Vm is the
(d) Any angle between 0° & 180° velocity of a man walking on a level road, and is the
105. A particle crossing the origin of co-ordinates at time t = 0, angle with vertical at which he should hold the umbrella to
moves in the xy-plane with a constant acceleration a in the protect himself, than the relative velocity of rain w.r.t. the
y-direction. If its equation of motion is y = bx2 (b is a man is given by:
constant), its velocity component in the x-direction is (a) Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2 2VrVm cos
2b a
(a) (b)
a 2b (b) Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2 2VrVm cos
a b
(c) (d) (c) Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2
b a
2
106. The position of particle is given by r 2 t î 3tjˆ 4k, ˆ (d) Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2
where t is in second and the coefficients have proper units 113. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a monkey
on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the barrel of the
for r to be in metre. The a(t) of the particle at t = 1 s is
gun, the monkey drops. Pick the correct statement regarding
(a) 4 m s–2 along y-direction the situation.
(b) 3 m s–2 along x-direction (a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(c) 4 m s–2 along x-direction (b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(d) 2 m s–2 along z-direction (c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
107. The position vector of a particle is
(d) Can’t be predicted
r (a cos t )î (a sin t ) ĵ. The velocity of the particle is 114. A particle moves in a plane with a constant acceleration
(a) directed towards the origin in a direction different from the initial velocity. The path
(b) directed away from the origin of the particle is a/an
(c) parallel to the position vector (a) straight line (b) arc of a circle
(d) perpendicular to the position vector (c) parabola (d) ellipse
115. A stone is just released from the window of a moving train to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball?
moving along a horizontal straight track. The stone will If yes, what should be the angle of projection ?
hit the ground following a
(a) No (b) Yes, 30°
(a) straight line path (b) circular path
(c) Yes, 60° (d) Yes, 45°
(c) parabolic path (d) hyperbolic path
123. A projectilel can have the same range R for two angles of
116. Two bullets are fired horizontally with different velocities projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in two cases,
from the same height. Which will reach the ground first?
then what is the product of two times of flight?
(a) Slower one (a) t1t2 R (b) t1t2 R2
(b) Faster one (c) t1t2 1/R (d) t1t2 1/R2
(c) Both will reach simultaneously 124. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle with
(d) It cannot be predicted the x-axis with an initial velocity in the x-y plane as
117. A stone is projected with an initial velocity at an angle to 0 sin
the horizontal. A small piece separates from the stone before shown in the figure. At a time t , the angular
g
the stone reaches its maximum height. Then this piece will
momentum of the particle is
(a) fall to the ground vertically
(b) fly side by side with the parent stone along a parabolic where iˆ, ˆj and k̂ are unit vectors along x, y and z-axis
path respectively.
(c) fly horizontally initially and will trace a different y
parabolic path
(d) lag behind the parent stone, increasing the distance v0
from it
118. A ball is thrown from rear end of the compartment of train
to the front end which is moving at a constant horizontal
velocity. An observer A sitting in the compartment and
another observer B standing on the ground draw the x
trajectory. They will have mg 0t cos kˆ
(a) mg 0 t 2 cos ˆj (b)
(a) equal horizontal and equal vertical ranges
(b) equal vertical ranges but different horizontal ranges 1 1
(c) mg 0 t 2 cos kˆ (d) mg 0 t 2 cos iˆ
(c) different vertical ranges but equal horizontal ranges 2 2
(d) different vertical and different horizontal ranges 125. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity making
119. Two balls are projected simultaneously in the same vertical an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The magnitude of
plane from the same point with velocities v1 and v2 with angular momentum of the projectile about the point of
angle 1 and 2 respectively with the horizontal. If v1 cos projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is
1 = v2 cos 2, the path of one ball as seen from the position 3m 2
of other ball is : (a) (b) zero
2 g
(a) parabola 3
m 3m 3
(b) horizontal straight line (c) (d)
(c) vertical straight line 2g 16 g
(d) straight line making 45° with the vertical 126. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in the ratio
120. Two stones are projected from the same point with same 1 : 2 acquired the same heights. If A is thrown at an
speed making angles 45° + and 45° – with the angle of 45° with the horizontal, the angle of projection of
horizontal respectively. If 45 , then the horizontal B will be
ranges of the two stones are in the ratio of (a) 0° (b) 60°
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 30° (d) 45°
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 127. A body projected at an angle with the horizontal has a range
121. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity 300 m. If the time of flight is 6 s, then the horizontal
of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is component of velocity is
(a) 40 m (b) 50 m (a) 30 m s–1 (b) 50 m s–1
(c) 60 m (d) 20 m (c) 40 m s–1 (d) 45 m s–1
122. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ‘v0’ at an 128. A particle of unit mass is projected with velocity u at an
elevation angle of . From the same point and at the same inclination above the horizon in a medium whose
resistance is k times the velocity. Its direction will again
'v 0 '
instant, a person starts running with a constant speed make an angle with the horizon after a time
2
EBD_7208
2 2
1 2ku 1 2ku (a) cos iˆ sin ˆj
(a) log 1 sin (b) log 1 sin
k g k g R R
2 2
(b) sin iˆ cos ˆj
1 ku 1 2 ku R R
(c) log 1 sin (d) log 1 sin
k g k 3g 2 2
(c) cos iˆ sin ˆj
129. The greatest range of a particle, projected with a given R R
velocity on an inclined plane, is x times the greatest vertical 2 2
altitude above the inclined plane. Find the value of x. (d) iˆ ˆj
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d)1/2 R R
130. A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity u, 136. When a particle is in uniform circular motion it does not
after time t another body is projected vertically upwards have
from the same point with a velocity v, where v < u. If they (a) radial velocity and radial acceleration
meet as soon as possible, then choose the correct option (b) radial velocity and tangential acceleration
(c) tangential velocity and radial acceleration
u v u2 v2 u v u2 v2
(a) t (b) t (d) tangential velocity and transverse acceleration
g g 137. A particle moves in a circular orbit under the action of a
central attractive force inversely proportional to the distance
u v u2 v2 u v u2 v2 ‘r’. The speed of the particle is
(c) t (d) t
g 2g (a) proportional to r 2 (b) independent of r
131. A cricket ball is hit at an angle of 30° to the horizontal (c) proportional to r (d) proportional to 1/r
with a kinetic energy E. Its kinetic energy when it reaches 138. A particle describes uniform circular motion in a circle of
the highest point is radius 2 m, with the angular speed of 2 rad s –1 . The
E magnitude of the change in its velocity in s is
(a) (b) 0 2
2
(a) 0 m s–1 (b) 1
2 2m s
2E 3E
(c) (d) (c) 8 m s–1 (d) 4 m s–1
3 4
139. A stone of mass 2 kg is tied to a string of length 0.5 m. If
132. The range of a projectile is R when the angle of projection
the breaking tension of the string is 900 N, then the
is 40°. For the same velocity of projection and range, the
maximum angular velocity, the stone can have in uniform
other possible angle of projection is
circular motion is
(a) 45° (b) 50°
(a) 30 rad s–1 (b) 20 rad s–1
(c) 60° (d) 40° (c) 10 rad s –1 (d) 25 rad s–1
133. If the angles of projection of a projectile with same initial
velocity exceed or fall short of 45° by equal amounts , then 20
140. A particle moves along a circle of radius m with
the ratio of horizontal ranges is
(a) l : 2 (b) l : 3 constant tangential acceleration. It the velocity of particle
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 is 80 m/sec at end of second revolution after motion has
134. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a begun, the tangential acceleration is
velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle with the horizontal. Another (a) 40 m/sec2 (b) 40 m/sec2
projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 (c) 640 m/sec 2 (d) 160 m/sec2
ms– 1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is 141. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in
identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes
earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the 22 revolution in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and
planet is (in ms– 2) given g = 9.8 m/s2 direction of acceleration of the stone?
(a) 3.5 (b) 5.9 (a) 2 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the
(c) 16.3 (d) 110.8 centre.
135. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration (b) 2 m s–2 and direction along the radius away from
a at a point P(R, ) on the circle of radius R is (Here is the centre.
measured from the x-axis ) (c) 2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent to the circle.
(d) 2/4 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the
centre.
FACT/ DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 14. (d) Position vector, r (a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj
1. (d) A scalar quantity has only magnitude and the same Velocity vector
value for observers with different orientations of axes. dr
2. (c) A vector quantity is defined as the quantity which has v (– a sin t) i + (a cos t) j
dt
magnitude and direction and for which all the (– a sin t)(a cos t) + (– a cos t) + (a cos t) = 0
mathematical operations are possible only through
vector laws of algebra. v r
15. (c) Vy = u sin – gtm = 0
3. (a) Resultant vector of two vectors A & B inclined at an
angle , is given by u y sin
tm = (time to reach the maximum height)
2 2 g
R= A B 2ABcos if = 0°; cos 0° = 1
2(u sin )
R= A2 B2 2AB = (A B)2 Total time of flight Tf =
g
R=A+B Tf = 2tm
This is the maximum resultant possible.
4. (c) The resultant of any three vectors will be cancel out u 2 sin 2
16. (d) Horizontal range =
g
by Fourth vector
5. (d) All the three unit vectors have the magnitude as unity For maximum range = 45°
î ˆj kˆ 1 u 2 sin 90 u2
Rmax = = ( sin 90° = 1)
y g g
6. (c) | iˆ ˆj | (1)2 (1)2 2 17. (c) Force due to viscosity, air – resistance are all dissipative
forces. Thus in the presence of air – resistance the
| î | 1 ˆj î ˆj horizontal component of velocity will decrease, thus
for horizontal component of velocity to remain
1 constant, there should be no air-resistance.
cos = 45° B
2 x 18. (b) If air resistance is ignored, then there is no acceleration
iˆ in horizontal direction in projectile motion. Hence the
7. (b)
8. (c) particle move with constant velocity in horizontal
direction.
9. (c) The resultant of A 0 is a vector of zero magnitude. 19. (c) V BA = V B V A
The product of a vector with a scalar gives a vector.
= 80 – 65 = 15 km/h
10. (a) In a clockwise system, 20. (b) In both the cases, the initial velocity in the vertical
i j k, j k i and k i j downward direction is zero. So they will hit the ground
simultaneously.
And i i i 21. (c) The nature of path is determined by acceleration of
j j = k k 0
particle. For example in uniform circular motion the
transverse acceleration is zero & only radial acceleration
i.i j.j k . k 1 k j acts. If aR (radial acceleration) is zero, then particle go
in the direction in which transverse acceleration acts
i .j j .k k.i 0 (if it is not zero).
Therefore, the right option is j k i 2u sin ( )
22. (d) T
11. (b) 12. (b) g cos
1 23. (d) Velocity and kinetic energy is minimum at the highest
13. (d) The equation of motion for projectile is x = x0 + Uxt + point.
2
axt2 1
The shape of the trajectory depends on the initial K.E m v 2 cos 2
2
position, initial velocity and acceleration.
EBD_7208
24. (b) Only horizontal component of velocity (u cos ) circular motion in a plane. This motion has radial
2 2 2 acceleration whose magnitude remains constant but
u sin 2 u sin
25. (b) = whose direction changes continuously, So ar 0 and
g 2g
at = 0.
tan = 4. If the circular motion of the particle is not uniform
u 2 sin 45 u2 but accelerated then along with the radial acceleration
26. (c) H = = it will have tangential acceleration also and both
2g 4g
these acceleration will be mutually perpendicular.
u2
R = = = 4 H. Vr at
g
27. (d) At maximum height (H) i.e. at point P the vertical ar
component of the projectile u sin = 0 whereas its
r
horizontal component i.e. u cos remains the same. r ar
o
o
y
So, ar 0 and at = 0.
u sin u P
u cos When, ar = 0 and at = 0 motion is accelerated translatory.
Also, when ar = 0 and then motion is uniform translatory.
H 37. (c) In circular motion with constant speed, acceleration
x is always inward, its magnitude is constant but
u cos direction changes, hence acceleration changes, so does
velocity. K.E. is constant.
28. (c) In our discussion, we shall assume that the air
resistance has negligible effect on the motion of the a
projectile.
v2
29. (c) If the angle of projection is , then range = 0 sin ( /2)
4 g 38. (a) Body moves with constant speed, it means that it
performs uniform circular motion. In this motion the
v02 direction of motion is always perpendicular to
( R)max [ {sin ( /2)}max = 1] centripetal force. Hence the work done by centripetal
g
force is always zero
30. (d) At the highest point of trajectory, the acceleration is equal
to g. (dW = Fc .dr = Fc dr cos = 0, = 90º)
39. (c) Body moves with constant speed it means that
v2
31. (d) Centripetal acceleration, ac tangential acceleration a T = 0 & only centripetal
R acceleration a C exists whose direction is always
Where v is the speed of an object and R is the radius of towards the centre or inward (along the radius of the
the circle. It is always directed towards the centre of the circle).
circle. Since v and R are constants for a given uniform 40. (c) Since the circular motion is uniform, therfore there is
circular motions, therefore the magnitude of centripetal no change of angular velocity. Thus angular
acceleration is also constant. However, the direction of acceleration is zero.
centripetal acceleration changes continuously. Therefore, 41. (c) In uniform circular motion, the body move with vT
a centripetal acceleration is not a constant vector. (tangential velocity) & aC. If aC = 0 then it implies
32. (a) 33. (a) that the body is no longer bound to rotate in circle &
so no change in the direction of velocity. Hence it move
v1 r1 1 tangentially to the circle outward with velocity vT.
34. (b) [v = r ]
v2 r2 2
vT
35. (d) v r
O a
As linear velocity vector v is along the tangent to the C
circular path and angular velocity vector is perpendicular

to v , so is along the axis of rotation. s
42. (c) Since velocity is defined as v r
36. (c) When a particle moves on a circular path with a t t
constant speed, then its motion is said to be a uniform Where s = r. is an arc to circle, which is swept by
the particle in t time, r is radius of circle which is y
constant in uniform circular motion & u
is angular displacement in t time.
Hence if particle in a circle describe equal angles in
equal intervals of time, its speed (magnitude of velocity x
vector) remains same but the direction changes due to To find vertical component use equation,
centripetal acceleration aC.
v 2f v i2 2g h , vi u sin , h = 0,
P1 (t= t)
v f2 u 2 sin 2 0 , vf u sin
r P2 (t=0)
hence v u cos î u sin ˆj
Speed is same, so K.E. is same.
43. (a) In circular motion of a particle with constant speed, 55. (c)
particle repeats its motion after a regular interval of 56. (d) Centripetal acceleration has a constant magnitude and
time but does not oscillate about a fixed point. So, is always directed towards the centre.
motion of particle is periodic but not simple harmonic.
57. (a) A (1) ; B (4) ; C (2) ; D (3)
(A) A 2iˆ 3 ˆj and B 4iˆ 5 ˆj A B 6iˆ 8 ˆj
(B) | A B | 62 82 = 10
44. (a) In uniform circular motion speed is constant. So, no
tangential acceleration. (C) A B (2iˆ 3 ˆj ) (4iˆ 5 ˆj ) = 2iˆ 2 ˆj
v2
It has only radial acceleration a R [directed (D) | A B | ( 2) 2 ( 2)2 2 2.
R
towards center] 58. (b) A (2) ; B (2) ; C (4) ; D (3)
and its velocity is always in tangential direction. So these (A) A 3iˆ 4 ˆj , A 32 42 = 5
two are perpendicular to each other.
45. (d) and B iˆ 2 ˆj , B 12 ( 2) 2 5
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS A 3iˆ 4 ˆj

(B) A 0.6iˆ 0.8 ˆj
A 5
46. (d) Addition and subtraction of scalars make sense only
for quantities with same units, however multiplication (C) A B (3iˆ 4 ˆj ) (iˆ – 2 ˆj ) 4iˆ 2 ˆj
and division of scalars of different unit is possible.
47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d) |A B| 42 22 20
51. (b) When a body moves on a curved path with a constant
speed, it experiences the centripetal acceleration which (D) A B (3iˆ 4 ˆj ) (iˆ 2 ˆj ) = 2iˆ 6 ˆj .
along the radius. Since velocity acts along the tangent 59. (d) A (1) ; B (2) ; C (4) ; D (3)
therefore acceleration is perpendicular to the direction
of velocity and hence motion. (iˆ ˆj ) (iˆ ˆj )
(A) ( A B) / 2 = iˆ
52. (d) While going up, the vertical component of velocity 2
keeps on decreasing due to gravity & thus at highest
point it becomes zero. The horizontal component (iˆ ˆj ) (iˆ ˆj )
ˆj
(B) ( A B) / 2 =
remains constant so at the highest point, if is non- 2
zero. Acceleration due to gravity acts at the heighest
point. So it acts vertically downwards. (iˆ ˆj ).(iˆ ˆj ) 1 1
(C) ( A.B) / 2 = 0
53. (c) In projectile motion, the horizontal range is 2 2
independent of the mass and depends on the angle of
(A B) (iˆ ˆj ) (iˆ ˆj ) 0 kˆ kˆ 0
2 (D) = kˆ
u sin 2 2 2 2
projection according to the relation: R
g 60. (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
54. (a) If we neglect air resistance, horizontal component of 61. (b) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
velocity is always same.
EBD_7208
62. (c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4) 66. (a)
A
dx C
Ux = =1 A
A+ ( B + C )
dt +B
C
B+ B
dx
and Uy = = 1 – 2t
dt
C
Ut=0 = u x2 y 2y = 1 It illustrates the associative law of addition.
2
1 =
2 2 m/s.
67. (a)
d 2x y
ax = 2 =0
dt
Ay
d 2y
dy = =–2
dt 2 Ay
A
For time of flight,
x
y= 0 Ax
or 0 = t – t2 Az Az
Ax
t = 1s. z
For maximum height,
1 68. (a) D C
t= s.
2
2
1 1 1
H = t – t2 = = m.
2 2 4
A B
63. (a) (A) (1,2); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
AC BD (AB BC) (BC CD)
Range of the ball in absence of the wall
= AB 2BC CD
u 2 sin 2 20 2 sin150
= m 20m = AB 2BC AB
g 10
= 2BC
When d < 20m, ball will hit the wall, when d = 25m, ball 69. (d) The swimmer will cross straight if the resultant
will fall 5m short of the wall. velocity of river flow and swimmer acts perpendicular
When d < 20m, ball will hit the ground, at a distance, x = to the direction of river flow. It will be so if the
20m – d in front of the wall. swimmer moves making an angle with the upstream.
i.e. goes along OB.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS B C
64. (c) By the triangle law of vector addition C A B

1 km
v
65. (c) Using the law of vector addition, (d e ) is as VS
shown in the fig.
O Vr A
d
70. (b) Two bodies will collide at the highest point if both
cover the same vertical height in the same time.
V12 sin 2 30 V22 V2

sin 30
1
So V1 2
f 2g 2g
e
d e f 1
V2 V
2 1
71. (b) At point B the direction of velocity component of the
u2
projectile along Y - axis reverses. h = .
2g
Hence, V B 2i 3 j
2u sin
2 85. (d) T = , it will maximum, when = 0°.
v g
72. (c) a = 1 cm/s. Centripetal acceleration is directed
r
towards the centre. Its magnitude = 1. Unit vector at u2
Rmax = , for = 45°.
the mid point on the path between P and Q is g
ˆ / 2.
(xˆ y) 86. (d) At the highest point of the trajectory,
vy = 0, and
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS so, Py = 0.
73. (d) If a vector quantity has zero magnitude then it is called For the two pieces, it is
a null vector. That quantity may have some direction P1y P2 y = 0.
even if its magnitude is zero.
87. (d) Linear momentum during parabolic path changes
74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c)
continuously.
88. (d) Statement-1 is false because angles of projection and
79. (b) Boat 2 v Boat 1 (90° – give same range but time of flight will be
v different. Statement-2 is true because in horizontal
river direction acceleration is zero.
Vr,g=5m/s
u 2 sin 2
If component of velocities of boat relative to river is 89. (c) Maximum horizontal range, R Rmax
same normal to river flow (as shown in figure) both g
boats reach other bank simultaneously.
u2
1 2 = when = 45
80. (b) h ut gt and v2 = u2 – 2gh; g
2
Rmax u2
These equations are independent of mass.
81. (b) When a body is projected up making an angle the u 2 sin 2 u2
Height H = H max when = 90
velocity component along-axis remains constant. 2g 2g
Momentum along x-axis is constant.
Along horizontal, mass and velocity both are constant. Rmax
It is clear that Hmax =
2
u 2 sin 2
82. (a) R = If = 45° +
g gx 2
90. (d) y = x tan –
2u 2 cos 2
u 2 sin 2(45 ) u 2 sin(90 ) u 2 cos
then R1 = =
g g g u 2 sin 2
If – 91. (a) Range, R =
g
u 2 sin 2 (45 ) u 2 sin(90 )
then R2 = u2 u2
g g when = 45°, Rmax = sin 90° =
g g
u 2 cos
= R1 = R2 u2 u2
g when = 135°, Rmax = sin 270° =
g g
83. (c) If gravitational force is zero, then ay = 0.
Negative sign shows opposite direction.
So, x = u cos t and y = u sin t
92. (a) From relation
y = x tan It represent straight line.
mv 2 m( r ) 2
The resultant path of the body depends on initial F= = mr 2 [ v r ]
velocities and acceleration. r r
84. (a) For maximum height = 90°, or body must be = mr (2 v)2 = 4 2mrv2
projected straight upwards. Then Here, m = 1kg, v = 1 rps, r = 1m
F = 4 2 × 1× 1 × 12 = 4 2 N
0 = u2 – 2gh,
93. (c) 94. (d)
EBD_7208
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 102. (a) According to the question, at any instant t,
x = 4t2, y = 3t2
95. (b) | A B | = A2 B2 2AB cos120 ( = 120°) dx d
vx = (4t 2 ) 8t
dt dt
1 1
= A2 B2 2 AB cos120 dy d
2 2 and vy = (3t 2 ) 6t
dt dt
= A2 B2 A(A) The speed of the particle at instant t.
v= v x2 v 2y (8t ) 2 (6t )2 10t

= B2 B ( A = B)
96. (c) A = Axiˆ Ayjˆ Azkˆ displacement vector

r
103. (b) Average velocity = time interval =
t
|A| Ax 2 Ay 2 Az 2 Instantaneous velocity is limiting value of average velocity
Even if one component is non – zero the sum as the time interval approaches zero.
Ax2 + Ay2 + Az2 can’t be zero.
lt r
V = t 0
for | A | = 0, Ax = Ay = Az = 0. t
104. (d) Along same straight line, velocity & acceleration can
97. (b) Given A and B lie in a plane and vector C be in the same direction, opposite to each other or
lies outside this plane. perpendicular as in circular motion with uniform
Resultant vector of A and B lies in the same speed. Thus can be anywhere between 0 & 180°.
105. (b) y = bx2
plane as that vectors A and B . Differentiating w.r.t to t an both sides, we get
dy dx
Resultant vector of A , B and C in non. b2x
dx dt
coplanar vector therefore, their resultant can vy = 2bxvx
never be zero. Again differentiating w.r.t to t on both sides we get
98. (c) 99. (b) dv y dx dv
2bv x 2bx x 2bv 2x 0
100. For two vectors to be perpendicular to each other dt dt dt
dv x
A B =0 [ = 0, because the particle has constant
dt
acceleration along y-direction]
( 2 i 3 j 8k ) · ( 4 j 4 i k)=0
dv y
4 1 Now, a 2bv 2x ;
–8 + 12 + 8 = 0 or dt
8 2 a
v 2x
101. (d) D C
2b
a
vx =
2b
F F2 2ˆ
F2 106. (c) r 2t i 3tjˆ 4kˆ
dr d
90° v (2t 2 iˆ 3tjˆ 4k)
ˆ 4tiˆ 3jˆ
B dt dt
A F1
In ABC, dv d
a (4tiˆ 3j)
ˆ 4iˆ
dt dt
F22 F 2
F12 or F 2
F22 – F12
2 along x-direction
a 4ms
2
8 3 F22 – F12 107. (d) r (a cos t )î (a sin t )ˆj
192 = (F2 + F1) (F2 – F1)
d(r ) d
v {(a cos t )î (a sin t )ˆj}
192 dt dt
F2 – F1 = 12N [ F1 + F2 = 16N]
16
( a sin t )î (a cos t ) ĵ
On solving we get,
F1 = 2N, F2 = 14 N [( a sin t )î (a cos t )ˆj]
r .v 0 112. (c) According to pythagorus theorem

velocity is perpendicular to the displacement.
Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2
6t 4t
108. (a) F = 6tiˆ + 4tjˆ or a x ,a y
3 3
so u x = ot a x dt = t 2 (u x ) t=3 = 9m/sec
2t 2
and u y = ot a y dt = (u y ) t 3 6 m / sec
3
VW Vm
(because ux & uy = 0 at t = 0 sec)
O
dr
109. (b) r = i a t2 +j b t2 , v i 2a t j2 b t
dt
Magnitude of v 4a 2 t 2 4b2 t 2 Vrm

B
Vr
2t a2 b2
110. (b) v
1km
4 km h 1, 1 113. (b)
vb 5 km h
1
h
4
A
vw
v
u sin
vb
u
B
vw vb 2 v2 25 16 9 3 km h 1 y
111. (a) Man should hold the umbrella in the direction of the
relative velocity of the rain. If Vr velocity of rain, O u cos C
VW velocity of wind and Vrw relative velocity of
rain w.r.t. wind
N OC x
t=
u cos u cos
AC = x tan
BC = distance travelled by bullet in time t, vertically.
VW –Vw 1 2
C y = u sin t– gt
W E 2
O
1 2
Vr AB = x tan – (u sin t – gt )
2
B D x 1 2
Vr = x tan – (usin × – gt )
u cos 2
S
distance trevelled by monkey
Vw
1 2 1 2
= x tan – x tan +
gt = gt
2 2
. bullet will always hit the monkey)
114. (c) Only in case of parabolic motion, the direction and
Vw
tan = magnitude of the velocity changes, acceleration
Vr remains same. Morever, in case of uniform circular
motion, the direction changes.
R Vr
EBD_7208
115. (c) The horizontal velocity of the stone will be the same 3
sin 2 cos
m 3m 3
as that of the train. In this way, the horizontal motion L
2g 16 g
will be uniform. The vertical motion will be controlled
by the force of gravity. Hence it is accelerated motion. 126. (c) For projectile A
The resultant motion is a parabolic trajectory. u 2A sin 2 45
Maximum height, HA =
116. (c) The time taken to reach the ground depends on the 2g
height from which the projectile is fired horizontally.
For projectile B
Here height is same for both the bullets and hence
they will reach the ground simultaneously. u 2B sin 2
117. (b) The piece will fly side by side because the velocity of Maximum height, HB =
2g
the piece is the same.
As we know, HA = HB
118. (b)
119. (c) u 2A sin 2 45 u 2B sin 2
120. (a) Note that the given angles of projection add upto 90°. 2g 2g
So, the ratio of horizontal ranges is 1 : 1.
sin 2 u 2A
121. (a) For maximum range, the angle of projection, = 45°
sin 2 45 u B2
2 2
u 2 sin 2 20 sin 2 45 400 1 uA
R 40m. sin 2 sin 2 45
g 10 10 uB
122. (c) Yes, the person can catch the ball when horizontal 1
2
1
2
1
velocity is equal to the horizontal component of ball’s sin 2 =
velocity, the motion of ball will be only in vertical direction 2 2 4
w.r.t person
1 1
sin sin 1 30
v 2 2
for that 0 v 0 cos or 60
2 127. (b) As we know, R = u cos × t
Given, R = 300 m, t = 6 s
2u sin
123. (a) t1 and R 300
g u cos 50ms –1
t 6
2 u sin (90 ) 2 u cos ds
t2 128. (b) Resistance = kv k
g g dt
Equations of motion are
4 u 2 cos sin 2 u 2 sin 2 2 d2x dx
t1 t 2 R, k
g 2 g g g 2 ............. (1)
dt dt
where R is the range.
d2 y dy
k g ............. (2)
Hence t 1 t 2 R dt 2 dt
124. (c) L m( r v ) Integrating (1) and (2) and using the initial conditions,
we get
1 2 ˆ dx
L m v0 cos t iˆ (v0 sin t gt ) j u cos .e kt
............. (3)
2 dt
v0 cos iˆ (v0 sin gt ) ˆj dy kt
and k g (ku sin g ).e
dt
1 1
gt kˆ =
= mv0 cos t mgv0 t 2 cos kˆ dy 1 kt
2 2 i.e., [(ku sin g ).e g ] ......... (4)
dt k
125. (d) Angular momentum of the projectile
kt
dy dy / dt [(ku sing] g ).e
L = mvhr = m (vcos ) h .... (5)
dx dx / dt ku cos .e kt
where h is the maximum height
Direction of projection was with the horizontal, when
2
sin 2 the direction of motion again makes the angle with
m( cos )
2g
the horizontal, it really makes the angle ( – ) with 130. (b) Let the two bodies meet each other at a height h after
the horizontal in the sense of the direction of time T of the projection of second body. Then before
projection. If this happens after the time t, we have meeting, the first body was in motion for time (t + T)
from (5), whereas the second body was in motion for time T.
kt The distance moved by the first body in time (t + T)
(ku sin g ).e g
tan ( ) kt 1
ku cos .e = u (t + T) – g (t + T)2.
2
(ku sin g ) ge kt And the distance moved by the second body in time T
i.e., tan
ku cos 1 2
= vT – gT = h (supposed above). ........ (1)
i.e., kt 2
ku sin ku sin g g .e
The two bodies meet each other,
kt 2ku They are equidistant from the point of projection.
or e 1 sin
g
1 1
Hence, u (t + T) – g (t + T)2 = vT – gT2
1 2 ku 2 2
or t log 1 sin
k g
1
129. (b) P be the point where the tangent is parallel to the or u (t + T) – g (t2 + 2tT) = vT
2
inclined plane. If PN = z be perpendicular from P on
the inclined plane and PM the vertical altitude of P or gt2 + 2t (gT – u) + 2 (v – u) T = 0 ......... (2)
then evidently for all points on the path, P is the point 1 2
where z is the greatest and consequently PM is greatest. Also from (1) we get, h = vT – gT
2
P dh
v gT
dT
u h increases as T increases
T is minimum when h is minimum i.e., when
z
dh
A = 0, i.e. when v – gT = 0 or T = v/g.
dT
M N Substituting this value of T in (2), we get
gt2 + 2t (v – u) + 2 (v – u) (v/g) = 0
Now for the point P, velocity perpendicular to the or g2t2 – 2gt (u – v) + 2v (u – v) = 0
inclined plane is zero. Now the velocity and
acceleration perp. to the plane at O is u sin ( – ) 2 g (u v ) 4 g 2 (u v ) 2 8vg 2 (u v )
and g cos and this velocity becomes zero at P. or t
2g 2
0 = u2 sin2 ( – ) – 2g cos .z
u v u2 v2
u 2 sin 2 ( ) or t
z g
2 g cos
neglecting the negative sign which gives negative
For max. range or value of t.
4 2 4 2
u 2 131. (d) Kinetic energy at the highest point is
Hence, z sin 2
2 g cos 4 2 1
Etop= mu 2 cos 2
2
u2
= 1 cos 1 2
4 g cos 2 Here mu = E
2
u2
= (1 sin ) or PM = z sec
4 g cos 3
and cos = 30
2 2 2
u u 1
= (1 sin ) (max.
4 g cos 2 4 g (1 sin ) 4 3
Etop E
range) 4
Maximum range = 4 × PM
EBD_7208
u 2 sin 2 138. (c) Given, = 2 rad s–1, r = 2 m, t = s

132. (b) Horizontal range R 2
g
Range is same for angle of projection and (90° – ) 2 rad
Angular displacement, = t
133. (d) For complementary angles of projection (45° + ) 2
Linear velocity, v = r × = 2 × 2 = 4 m s–1
and (45° – ) with same initial velocity u, range R is
same. change in velocity, v = 2v sin = 2 × 4 × sin
2
1 + 2 = (45° + ) + (45° – ) = 90°
u 2sin 2 2
134. (a) Horizontal range = so g u2 = 8 m s–1
g 139. (a) As T = mr 2
2 T 900
g planet (u planet ) or 2
900 = 30 rad s–1
or = mr 2 0.5
g earth (u earth ) 2
140. (b) Circumference of circle is 2 r = 40m
2 Total distance travelled in two revolution is 80m.
3
Therefore gplanet = (9.8 m / s2 ) Initial velocity u = 0, final veloctiy v = 80 m/sec
5
so from
= 3.5 m/s2
v2 =u2+2as
135. (c) Clearly Y (80)2 = 02+2×80×a
a ac cos ( iˆ) ac sin ( ˆj ) P( R, )
a = 40m/sec2
R 141. (a) ar = 2 R
v2 v2 X
= cos iˆ sin ˆj O
R R
136. (c) It has only tangential velocity vT & radial acceleration

or centripetal acceleration aC.
2 22
vT 2 22
ar = (2 2)2R = 4 222R = 4 (1) v
44 44
O a
C dv
at 0
dt
anet = ar = 2 ms–2 and direction along the radius
mv 2 1 towards the centre.
137. (b) Centripetal force, F , so, F so v is
r r
independent of r.
5
LAWS OF MOTION
9. According to Galileo's experiment for a double inclined plane,

if slope of second plane is zero and planes are smooth, then
1. Inertia is the property of a body linked to tendency of a a ball is released from rest on one of the planes rolls down
body and move on the second plane ...X... distance.
(a) to change its position Here, X is
(b) to change its direction (a) zero
(c) to change the momentum (b) infinite
(d) to resist any change in its state (c) equal to length of first plane
2. Physical independence of force is a consequence of (d) None of these
(a) third law of motion (b) second law of motion
10. When a body is stationary
(c) first law of motion (d) all of these (a) there is no force acting on it
3. Newton's first law of motion describes the (b) the force acting on it is not in contact with it
(a) energy (b) work (c) the combination of forces acting on it balances each
(c) inertia (d) moment of inertia other
4. Force depends on (d) the body is in vacuum
(a) change in momentum 11. No force is required for
(b) how fast the change in momentum is brought about (a) an object moving in straight line with constant
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these velocity
5. Which motion does not require force to maintain it ? (b) an object moving in circular motion
(a) Uniform circular motion (c) an object moving with constant acceleration
(b) Elliptical motion (d) an object moving in elliptical path.
(c) Uniform straight line motion 12. If a stone is thrown out of an accelerated train, then
(d) Projectile motion acceleration of the stone at any instant depends on
6. A ball is travelling with uniform translatory motion. This (a) force acting on it at that instant
means that (b) acceleration of the train
(a) it is at rest. (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
(b) the path can be a straight line or circular and the ball 13. Which of the following expression is correct?
travels with uniform speed. m
(c) all parts of the ball have the same velocity (magnitude (a) F = ma (b) F =
a
and direction) and the velocity is constant.
(d) the centre of the ball moves with constant velocity a
(c) F = (d) None of these
and the ball spins about its centre uniformly. m
7. An object will continue moving uniformly when 14. Newton’s second law measures the
(a) the resultant force on it is increasing continuously (a) acceleration (b) force
(b) the resultant force is at right angles to its rotation (c) momentum (d) angular momentum
(c) the resultant force on it is zero 15. A reference frame attached to the earth
(d) the resultant force on it begins to decrease (a) is an inertial frame by definition
(b) cannot be an inertial frame because earth is revolving
8. External agencies like gravitational and magnetic forces ...X...
round the sun
exerts force on a body from a distance.
(c) is an inertial frame because Newton's laws are
Here, X refers to
applicable
(a) can (b) cannot (d) is an inertial frame because the earth is rotating about
(c) never (d) None of these its own axis
EBD_7208
56 LAWS OF MOTION
16. Impulse equals 27. Swimming is possible on account of
(a) rate of change of momentum (a) first law of motion
(b) change in momentum (b) second law of motion
(c) momentum multiplied by time (c) third law of motion
(d) rate of change of force (d) newton's law of gravitation
17. The direction of impulse is 28. Newton’s second and third laws of motion lead to the
(a) same as that of the net force conservation of
(b) opposite to that of the net force
(a) linear momentum (b) angular momentum
(c) same as that of the final velocity
(d) same as that of the initial velocity (c) potential energy (d) kinetic energy
18. A particle of mass m is moving with velocity v1, it is given an 29. Rocket engines lift a rocket from the earth surface,
impulse such that the velocity becomes v2. Then magnitude because hot gases with high velocity
of impulse is equal to (a) push against the air
(a) m( v2 v1 ) (b) m( v1 v 2 ) (b) push against the earth
(c) react against the rocket and push it up
(c) m (v 2 v1 ) (d) 0.5m(v 2 v1 ) (d) heat up the air which lifts the rocket.
19. Impulse is 30. A cannon after firing recoils due to
(a) a scalar quantity (a) conservation of energy
(b) equal to change in the momentum of a body (b) backward thrust of gases produced
(c) equal to rate of change of momentum of a body (c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) a force (d) Newton’s first law of motion
20. A large force is acting on a body for a short time. The impulse 31. A man is standing at the centre of frictionless pond of ice.
imparted is equal to the change in How can he get himself to the shore?
(a) acceleration (b) momentum (a) By throwing his shirt in vertically upward direction
(b) By spitting horizontally
(c) energy (d) velocity
(c) He will wait for the ice to melt in pond
21. China wares are wraped in straw of paper before packing.
(d) Unable to get at the shore
This is the application of concept of
32. The acceleration of an astronaut is zero once he steps out of
(a) impulse (b) momentum
his accelerated spaceship in the intersteller space. this
(c) acceleration (d) force
statement is in accordance with
22. Which one of the following is not a force?
(a) Newton’s second law of motion
(a) Impulse (b) Tension (b) Newton's first law of motion
(c) Thrust (d) Air resistance (c) Newton's third law of motion
23. In which of the following cases, net force acting on the (d) All of these
body is zero? 33. Law of conservation of momentum follows from
(a) A car moving with uniform velocity (a) Newton's first law of motion
(b) A book lying on the table (b) Newton's second law of motion
(c) Both (a) & (b) (c) Newton's third law of motion
(d) None of these (d) Both (b) & (c)
24. If the net external force on a body is ...X..., its acceleration is 34. A body whose momentum is constant must have constant
zero. Acceleration can be ...Y... only, if there is a net external (a) velocity (b) force
force on the body. Here, X and Y refer to (c) acceleration (d) All of the above
(a) zero, zero (b) zero, non-zero 35. In an explosion, a body breaks up into two pieces of unequal
(c) non-zero, zero (d) non-zero, non-zero masses. In this
25. The same change in momentum about in ...X... time needs (a) both parts will have numerically equal momentum
...Y... force applied. Here, X and Y refer to (b) lighter part will have more momentum
(a) longer, lesser (b) shorter, greater (c) heavier part will have more momentum
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) longer, greater (d) both parts will have equal kinetic energy
26. We can derive Newton’s 36. A jet engine works on the principle of
(a) second and third laws from the first law (a) conservation of mass
(b) first and second laws from the third law (b) conservation of energy
(c) third and first laws from the second law (c) conservation of linear momentum
(d) All the three laws are independent of each other (d) conservation of angular momentum
LAWS OF MOTION 57
37. Which one of the following motions on a smooth plane box as that of the train, keeping it stationary relative to the
surface does not involve force? train. Here, X refers to
(a) Accelerated motion in a straight line (a) kinetic friction (b) static friction
(b) Retarded motion in a straight line (c) limiting friction (d) None of these
(c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line 45. If s, k and r are coefficients of static friction, kinetic friction
(d) Motion along a straight line with varying velocity and rolling friction, then
38. Identify the correct statement. (a) s < k < f (b) k < r < s
(a) Static friction depends on the area of contact (c) r < k < s (d) r = k = s
(b) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact 46. It is difficult to move a cycle with brakes on because
(c) Coefficient of kinetic friction does not depend on the (a) rolling friction opposes motion on road
surfaces in contact (b) sliding friction opposes motion on road
(c) rolling friction is more than sliding friction
(d) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient
(d) sliding friction is more than rolling friction
of static friction
47. Which of the following statements about friction is true?
39. If the resultant of all the external forces acting on a system
(a) Friction can be reduced to zero
of particles is zero, then from an inertial frame, one can
(b) Frictional force cannot accelerate a body
surely say that
(c) Frictional force is proportional to the area of contact
(a) linear momentum of the system does not change in
between the two surfaces
time
(d) Kinetic friction is always greater than rolling friction
(b) kinetic energy of the system does not change in time
48. A thin cushion of air maintained between solid surfaces in
(c) angular momentum of the system does not change in
...X... is another effective way of ...Y... friction. Here, X and Y
time
refer to
(d) potential energy of the system does not change in
time (a) relative motion, reducing
40. Frictional force that opposes relative motion between (b) motion, increasing
surfaces in contact is called ...X... and denoted by ...Y.... (c) relative motion, increasing
Here, X and Y refer to (d) None of these
(a) static friction, fs (b) kinetic friction, fs 49. What are the effects if force is acting on a moving body in a
(c) kinetic friction, fk (d) static friction, fk direction perpendicular to the direction of motion?
41. The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces (a) The speed changes uniformly
depends upon (b) The acceleration changes uniformly
(a) the normal reaction (c) The direction of motion changes
(b) the shape of the surface in contact (d) All of these
(c) the area of contact 50. When a car moves on a level road, then the centripetal force
(d) None of the these required for circular motion is provided by ________
42. A rectangular block is placed on a rough horizontal surface (a) weight of the car
in two different ways as shown, then (b) normal reaction
(c) component of friction between the road & tyres along
the surface.
F (d) All of these
F
51. On a banked road, which force is essential to provide the
necessary centripetal force to a car to take a turn while driving
(a) (b)
at the optimum speed?
(a) friction will be more in case (a) (a) Component of normal reaction
(b) friction will be more in case (b) (b) Component of frictional force
(c) friction will be equal in both the cases (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
(d) friction depends on the relations among its dimensions. 52. Which of the following forces does not act on a body moving
43. If the normal force is doubled, then coefficient of friction in uniform circular motion?
is (a) Centripetal force (b) Weight of the body
(a) halved (b) tripled (c) Normal reaction (d) Force of friction
(c) doubled (d) not changed 53. A particle revolves round a circular path. The acceleration
44. When a box is in stationary position with respect to train of the particle is inversely proportional to
moving with acceleration, then relative motion is opposed (a) radius (b) velocity
by the ...X.... Which provides the same acceleration to the (c) mass of particle (d) both (b) and (c)
EBD_7208
58 LAWS OF MOTION
54. A cyclist taking turn bends inwards while a car passenger 61. Which of the following statements is/are correct about action
taking the same turn is thrown outwards. The reason is and reaction forces?
(a) car is heavier than cycle I. Action and reaction are simultancous forces
(b) car has four wheels while cycle has only two II. There is no cause-effect relation between action and
(c) difference in the speed of the two reaction.
(d) cyclist has to counteract the centrifugal force while in III. Action and reaction always on two different body
the case of car only the passenger is thrown by this (a) I only (b) II only
force (c) III only (d) I, II and III
55. A car takes a circular turn with a uniform speed u. If the 62. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect, when a
reaction at inner and outer wheels be denoted by R1 and R2, person walks on a rough surface?
then I. The frictional force exerted by the surface keeps him moving
(a) R1 = R2 (b) R1 < R2 II. The force which the man exerts on the floor keeps him
(c) R1 > R2 (d) None of these moving
56. A cyclist bends while taking turn in order to III. The reaction of the force which the man exerts on floor
(a) reduce friction keeps him moving
(b) provide required centripetal force (a) I only (b) II only
(c) reduce apparent weight (c) I and III (d) I and II
(d) reduce speed 63. Select the wrong statement(s) from the following.
I. Newton's laws of motion hold good for both inertial
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS and non-inertial frames
II. During explosion, linear momentum is conserved
57. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect III. Force of friction is zero when no driving force is applied
statement(s). (a) I only (b) II only
I. To move a football at rest, some one must kick it. (c) I and II (d) II and III
64. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
II. To throw a stone upwards, one has to give it an upward
I. Recoiling of a gun is an application of principle of
push.
conservation of linear momentum.
III. A breeze causes the branches of a tree to become
II. Explosion of a bomb is based on second law of motion
stationary.
IV. A strong wind can move even heavy objects. (c) I and II (d) None of these
(a) Only I (b) Only III 65. Select the incorrect statement(s) about static friction.
(c) III and IV (d) I and II I. Static friction exists on its own
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? II. In the absence of applied force static friction is maximum
I. Newton’s first law of motion defines force III. Static friction is equal and opposite to the applied force
II. Newton’s first law of motion defines inertia upto a certain limit
III. Newton’s first law of motion is a measure of force (a) I only (b) II and III
(a) I only (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I and II
(c) I and III (d) I and II 66. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the following.
59. Choose the incorrect statement(s) from the following. I. Limiting friction is always greater than the kinetic friction
I. If a body is not in rest position, then the net external II. Limiting friction is always less than the static friction
force acting on it cannot be zero. III. Coefficient of static fiction is always greater than the
II. If the net force acting on a body be zero then the body coefficient of kinetic fiction
will essentially remain at rest. (a) I only (b) I and III
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III (d) I and II
60. There are different types of inertia called MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
I. Inertia of rest.
67. Match the column I and II.
II. Inertia of motion.
Column I Column II
III. Inertia of direction.
(A) Inertia (1) 105 gcms–1
IV. Inertia of shape.
(B) Recoil of gun (2) kg f
Choose the correct option.
(C) 1 kg ms–1 (3) Newton’s third law of
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III
motion
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) None of these
(D) Weight (4) Newton’s first law of motion
LAWS OF MOTION 59
(a)(A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) 71. Column I Column II
(b)(A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2) (A) Rocket’s work (1) Momentum
(c)(A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) (B) F = ma (2) Uniform motion
(d)(A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (C) Quantity of motion (3) Conservation of momentum
68. Column I Column II (D) Constant force (4) Newton’s second law
(A) Unbalanced (1) Acts on two different (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
bodies (b) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
(B) Action & Reaction (2) Inability to change the (c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
state (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(C) Inertia (3) mv
(D) Momentum (4) Variable velocity DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
72. Which equation holds true for the given figure?
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) F1
(A) Accelerated motion (1) Newton’s 1st law
(B) Impulse (2) Mass
(C) Law of inertia (3) Force×time F2
(D) Measure of inertia (4) Change in speed and
direction F3
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) (a) F1 – F2 = F3 (b) F1 + F2 = F3
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2) (c) F1 + F2 + F3 = 0 (d) F2 + F3 = F1
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
73. A block of mass 4 kg is suspended
70. A light string ABCDE whose extremity A is fixed, has weights
through two light spring balances A
W1 and W2 attached to it at B and C. It passes round a small A
and B. Then A and B will read
smooth peg at D carrying a weight of 300 N at the free end E
as shown in figure. If in the equilibrium position, BC is respectively :
horizontal and AB and CD make 150° and 120° with CB. (a) 4 kg and zero kg
B
Match the columns : (b) zero kg and 4 kg
(c) 4 kg and 4 kg
4kg
(d) 2 kg and 2 kg
74. Which figure shows the correct force acting on the body
D
A sliding down an inclined plane? (m mass, fs force of
150°
friction)
120°
B C E
300 N N B N B
w1 w2 fs fs
(a) sin (b)

sin
mg mg mg mg mg cos
Column I Column II C mg cos A C A
(A) Tension in portion AB, TAB (1) 150 N
(B) Tension in portion BC, TBC (2) 173 N
N B
(C) Weight, W1 (3) 260 N N sin B
mg
(D) Weight, W2 (4) 87 N
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) (c) fs (d) fs
sin mg mg cos
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3) mg mg cos mg A
C A C
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
EBD_7208
60 LAWS OF MOTION
75. For the given situation as shown in the figure, the value of 78. For the system shown in figure, the correct expression is
to keep the system in equilibrium will be m3
m2 m1
F3 F2 F1
T1
m 3F
(a) F3 = F1 + F2 (b) F3 = F F2 F3
1
T2
m 3F m 3F
(c) F3 = m m2 m3 (d) F3 = m
1 1 m2
W = 60N
79. Which of the following is true about acceleration, a for the
system?
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 0° (d) 90° m2
76. The acceleration of the system shown in the figure is given m1
by the expression (ignore force of friction) T T B
F A
a (a) Acceleration is more in A, when force is applied on A.

m1 T (b) Acceleration is more in B, when force is applied on B.
(c) Acceleration is same and does not depend on whether
the force is applied on m1 or m2
T (d) Acceleration depends on the tension in the string.
a 80. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected
m2 by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs
freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the
m2 g coefficient of friction = ). The pulley is frictionless and of
negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
m2g m1g
(a) a = (b) a = g(1 – g )
(m1 m 2 ) (m1 m 2 ) (a)
g m2 m3
P
m1 m2 2g
(c) a = (c) a =
(m1 m 2 ) g (m1 m 2 ) g (b)
3
77. What is the direction of force on the wall due to the ball in
g(1 – 2 )
two cases shown in the figures? (c) m1
3
u g(1 – 2 )
(d)
2
30° 81. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by
u u 30° the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum
u of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :
(a) (b) 6
3
(a) In (a) force is normal to the wall and in (b) force is
0
F(N)
inclined at 30° to the normal. 2 4 6 8

(b) In (a) force is normal to the wall and in (b) force is –3
inclined at 60° to the normal.
t(s)
(c) In (a) the force is along the wall and in (b) force is
normal to the wall. (a) 24 Ns (b) 20 Ns
(d) In (a) and (b) both the force is normal to the wall. (c) 12 Ns (d) 6 Ns
LAWS OF MOTION 61
82. The motion of a car on a banked road is shown in the figure. 90. Assertion : A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the rifle recoils
The centripetal force equation will be given by freely, the kinetic energy of rifle is more than that of the
bullet.
N cos Reason : In case of rifle bullet system, the law of
N conservation of momentum violates.
v2 91. Assertion : A rocket works on the principle of conservation
a
R of linear momentum.
f Reason : Whenever there is change in momentum of one
mg body, the same change occurs in the momentum of the
second body of the same system but in the opposite
mv 2 2
(a) Nsin + fcos = (b) f = mv direction.
R R 92. Assertion : The two bodies of masses M and m (M > m)
are allowed to fall from the same height if the air resistance
mv 2 mv 2
(c) N cos + f = (d) N sin + f = for each be the same then both the bodies will reach the
R R
earth simultaneously.
Reason : For same air resistance, acceleration of both the
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS bodies will be same.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, 93. Assertion : A block placed on a table is at rest, because
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four action force cancels the reaction force on the block.
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You Assertion : The net force on the block is zero.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 94. Assertion : On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive a car or bus
explanation for assertion. at high speed.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is lowered due
correct explanation for assertion to wetting of the surface.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 95. Assertion : Frictional forces are conservating forces.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. Reason : Potential energy can be associated with frictional
forces.
83. Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in 96. Assertion : A man and a block rest on smooth horizontal
linear motion.
surface. The man holds a rope which is connected to block.
Reason : Greater the mass, greater is the force required to
change its state of rest or of uniform motion. The man cannot move on the horizontal surface.
84. Assertion : An object can move with constant velocity if no
net force acts on it.
Reason : No net force is needed to move an object with
constant velocity.
85. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, Reason : A man standing at rest on smooth horizontal surface
then its acceleration is zero. cannot start walking due to absence of friction (The man is
Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force. only in contact with floor as shown).
86. Assertion : For the motion of electron around nucleus,
Newton's second law is used.
Reason : Newton's second law can be used for motion of any
object.
87. Assertion : Impulse of force and momentum are same physi- 97. Assertion: Friction is a necessary evil
cal quantities. Reason: Though friction dissipates power, but without
Reason : Both quantities have same unit. friction we cannot walk.
88. Assertion: A cricketer moves his hands forward to catch a 98. Assertion: There is a stage when frictional force is not needed
ball so as to catch it easily without hurting. at all to provide the necessary centripetal force on a banked
Reason: He tries to decrease the distance travelled by the road.
ball so that it hurts less. Reason: On a banked road, due to its inclination the vehicle
89. Assertion: Same force applied for the same time causes the tends to remain inwards without any chances of skidding.
same change in momentum for different bodies 99. Assertion : Force is required to move a body uniformly
Reason: The total momentum of an isolated system of
along a circle.
interacting bodies remains conserved.
Reason : When the motion is uniform, acceleration is zero.
EBD_7208
62 LAWS OF MOTION
100. Assertion : Linear momentum of a body changes even 108. A metre scale is moving with uniform velocity. This implies
when it is moving uniformly in a circle. (a) the force acting on the scale is zero, but a torque
Reason : In uniform circular motion, velocity remains about the centre of mass can act on the scale.
constant. (b) the force acting on the scale is zero and the torque
101. Assertion : A cyclist always bends inwards while negotiating acting about centre of mass of the scale is also zero.
a curve. (c) the total force acting on it need not be zero but the
Reason : By bending, cyclist lowers his centre of gravity. torque on it is zero.
(d) neither the force nor the torque need to be zero.
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 109. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V
and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse
102. A boy, sitting on the topmost birth in the compartment of experienced by the body is
a train which is just going to stop on the railway station, (a) MV (b) 1.5 MV (c) 2 MV (d) zero
drops an apple aiming at the open hand of his brother 110. If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the
situated vertically below his own hand at a distance of surface of lift (a = acceleration of lift)
2m. The apple will fall (a) mg (b) m(g + a)
(a) in the hand of his brother (c) m(g – a) (d) 0
(b) slightly away from the hand of his brother in the 111. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal
direction of motion of the train plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The
(c) slightly away from the hand of his brother opposite first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the
to the direction of motion of the train second part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms–1. If the
(d) None of the above third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 then its mass is
103. A person sitting in an open car moving at constant (a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg
velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball falls
(c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg
(a) outside the car
112. A stationary body of mass 3 kg explodes into three equal
(b) in the car ahead of the person
pieces. Two of the pieces fly off in two mutually
(c) in the car to the side of the person
(d) exactly in the hand which threw it up perpendicular directions, one with a velocity of 3iˆ ms 1
104. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window of a train

and the other with a velocity of 4jˆ ms 1. If the explosion
moving at a constant speed of 100 km/h then magnitude of
occurs in 10–4 s, the average force acting on the third piece
the net force acting on the stone is
in newton is
(a) 0.5 N (b) zero
4
(c) 50 N (d) 5 N (a) (3iˆ 4j)
ˆ 10 y
105. A closed compartment containing gas is moving with same
4
acceleration in horizontal direction. Neglect effect of gravity. (b) (3iˆ 4j)
ˆ 10
Then the pressure in the compartment is 1 4ˆj

(c) (3iˆ 4ˆj) 10 4 x
(a) same everywhere (b) lower in front side 1 3iˆ
4j)
(c) lower in rear side (d) lower in upper side (d) ˆ 104
(3iˆ 4j) i +
(3
106. When an elevator cabin falls down, the cabin and all the (–
1×
bodies fixed in the cabin are accelerated with respect to
(a) ceiling of elevator (b) floor of elevator 113. A spacecraft of mass 100 kg breaks into two when its velocity
(c) man standing on earth is 104 m s–1. After the break, a mass of 10 kg of the space
(d) man standing in the cabin craft is left stationary. The velocity of the remaining part is
107. A monkey is climbing up a rope, then the tension in the rope (a) 103 m s–1 (b) 11.11 × 103 m s–1
(a) must be equal to the force applied by the monkey on (c) 11.11 × 10 m s 2 –1 (d) 104 m s–1
the rope 114. A ball is thrown up at an angle with the horizontal. Then
(b) must be less than the force applied by the monkey on the total change of momentum by the instant it returns to
the rope. ground is
(c) must be greater than the force applied by the monkey (a) acceleration due to gravity × total time of flight
on the rope. (b) weight of the ball × half the time of flight
(d) may be equal to, less than or greater the force applied (c) weight of the ball × total time of flight
by the monkey on the rope. (d) weight of the ball × horizontal range
LAWS OF MOTION 63
115. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man 122. The force required to just move a body up the inclined plane
hangs his bag on the spring and the spring reads 49 N, when is double the force required to just prevent the body from
the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an sliding down the plane. The coefficient of friction is . The
acceleration of 5m / s 2 , the reading of the spring balance inclination of the plane is
will be (a) tan–1 (b) tan–1 ( /2)
(c) tan 2–1 (d) tan–1 3
(a) 24 N (b) 74 N
(c) 15 N (d) 49 N 123. A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly turns
westward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The
116. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination
force that acts on the player is
. The whole system is accelerated horizontally so that the
(a) frictional force along westward
block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the
(b) muscles force along southward
wedge on the block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be
(c) frictional force along south-west
(a) mg/cos (b) mg cos
(d) muscle force along south-west
(c) mg sin (d) mg
124. The coefficient of static friction s, between block A of mass
117. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and
2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. What would
presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving
be the maximum mass value of block B so that the two blocks
upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the
do not move? The string and the pulley are assumed to be
tension in the supporting cable is
smooth and massless. (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 8600 N (b) 9680 N
(c) 11000 N (d) 1200 N 2 kg
A
118. Three blocks with masses m, 2 m and 3 m are connected by
strings as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is
B
applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant
speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (a) 0.4 kg (b) 2.0 kg
(g is the acceleration due to gravity) (c) 4.0 kg (d) 0.2 kg
(a) 2 mg 125. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2m/s. A box
is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between
(b) 3 mg them is µ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to
(c) 6 mg belt before coming to rest on it taking g = 10 ms–2, is
(a) 1.2 m (b) 0.6 m (c) zero (d) 0.4 m
(d) zero
126. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination is per-
119. The net force on a rain drop falling down with a constant fectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting
speed is ________ from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the
(a) weight of drop W bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and
(b) viscous drag of air F lower half of the plane is given by
(c) W + F + force of buoyany 2
(a) = (b) = 2 tan
(d) zero tan
120. If two masses (M & m) are connected on a horizontal plane 1
and a force is applied on the combination, then the tension (c) = tan (d) =
tan
T depends on 127. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity
(a) the force applied on the system of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of
(b) whether force is applied on M or m friction is (Take g = 10 ms–2)
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) 0.06 (b) 0.03
(d) Can’t be predicted. (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01
121. A body is imparted motion from rest to move in a straight 128. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of
line. If it is then obstructed by an opposite force, then 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction
(a) the body may necessarily change direction between the block and the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force
(b) the body is sure to slow down on the block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg) is
(c) the body will necessarily continue to move in the (take g 10 m / s 2 )
same direction at the same speed
(a) 1.6 (b) 4.0
(d) None of these
(c) 2.0 (d) 2.5
EBD_7208
64 LAWS OF MOTION
129. A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 136. A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross
45º rough incline as it takes to slide down a perfectly smooth
45º incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the x3
section given by y . If the coefficient of friction is 0.5,
object and incline is given by 6
1 1 the maximum height above the ground at which the block
(a) 1 (b)
n 2
1 n2 can be placed without slipping is:
1 1
1 2
(c) 1 (d) (a) m (b) m
6 3
n2 1 n2
1 1
130. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up rough (c) m (d) m
(frictional coefficient ) inclined plane is F1 while the 3 2
minimum force needed to prevent it from sliding down is F2. 137. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg moving with same
If the inclined plane makes an angle from the horizontal velocities are stopped by the same force. Then the ratio of
F their stopping distances is
such that tan 2 then the ratio 1 is
F (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2
131. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude
which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the 138. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light
particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the
It follows that edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass
(a) its velocity is constant m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between
(b) its acceleration is constant
the block and the table is µk. When the block A is sliding on
(c) its kinetic energy is constant
(d) it moves in a straight line. the table, the tension in the string is
132. If n bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity v per
second from a machine gun, the force required to hold the (m 2 – k m1 ) g m1m 2 (1 k )g
(a) (m1 m 2 ) (b) (m1 m 2 )
gun in position is
mv m1m 2 (1 – k )g (m 2 km1 )g
(a) (n + 1) mv (b) (c) (d)
n2 (m1 m 2 ) (m1 m2 )
mv 139. The retarding acceleration of 7.35 m s–2 due to frictional
(c) (d) mnv
n force stops the car of mass 400 kg travelling on a road. The
133. A car moves at a speed of 20 ms–1 on a banked track and coefficient of friction between the tyre of the car and the
describes an arc of a circle of radius 40 3 m. The angle of road is
banking is (g = 10 ms–2 ) (a) 0.55 (b) 0.75
(a) 25° (b) 60°
(c) 0.70 (d) 0.65
(c) 45° (d) 30°
134. A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the 140. A hammer weighing 3 kg strikes the head of a nail with a
wall strikes it and rebounds in the same line with the same speed of 2 ms–1 drives it by l cm into the wall. The impulse
velocity. If the impulse experienced by the wall is 0.54 Ns, imparted to the wall is
the velocity of the ball is
(a) 6Ns (b) 3Ns
(a) 27 ms–1 (b) 3.7 ms–1
(c) 54 ms –1 (d) 37 ms–1 (c) 2Ns (d) l2 Ns
135. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are attached by an 141. A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an
inextensible light string as shown in the figure. If a force of acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be
120 N pulls the blocks vertically upward, the tension in the removed from it so that it starts moving up with an
string is (take g = 10 ms–2) acceleration ‘a’?
F = 120 N 2ma 2ma
(a) 20 N
4 kg (a) g a (b) g a
(b) 15 N
(c) 35 N ma ma
(c) (d)
(d) 40 N 2 kg g a g a
LAWS OF MOTION 65
142. The time required to stop a car of mass 800 kg, moving at a (a) have a horizontal inward component
speed of 20 ms–1 over a distance of 25 m is (b) be vertical
(a) 2s (b) 2.5s (c) equilibriate the centripetal force
(c) 4s (d) 4.5s
(d) be decreased
143. A particle rests on the top of a hemisphere of radius R.
Find the smallest horizontal velocity that must be imparted 148. A sphere is suspended by a thread of length . What
to the particle if it is to leave the hemisphere without minimum horizontal velocity has to be imparted to the sphere
sliding down is for it to reach the height of the suspension?
(a) g (b) 2 g
(a) gR (b) 2g R
(c) g (d) 2g
(c) 3g R (d) 5g R
149. A car when passes through a bridge exerts a force on it
144. A train is moving with a speed of 36 km/hour on a curved which is equal to
path of radius 200 m. If the distance between the rails is 1.5
m, the height of the outer rail over the inner rail is Mv 2 Mv 2
(a) 1 m (b) 0.5 m (a) Mg (b)
r r
(c) 0.75 m (d) 0.075 m
145. A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the Mv 2
road in taking a turn (c) Mg – (d) None of these
r
(a) by the gravitational force
150. A bridge is in the from of a semi-circle of radius 40m. The
(b) due to the lack of proper centripetal force
greatest speed with which a motor cycle can cross the bridge
(c) due to the rolling frictional force between the tyre and
without leaving the ground at the highest point is
road
(d) due to the reaction of the ground (g = 10 m s–2) (frictional force is negligibly small)
146. A car sometimes overturns while taking a turn. When it (a) 40 m s–1 (b) 20 m s–1
overturns, it is (c) 30 m s–1 (d) 15 m s–1
(a) the inner wheel which leaves the ground first 151. A particle tied to a string describes a vertical circular motion
(b) the outer wheel which leaves the ground first
of radius r continually. If it has a velocity 3 gr at the
(c) both the wheel leave the ground simultaneously
(d) either wheel will leave the ground first highest point, then the ratio of the respective tensions in
the string holding it at the highest and lowest points is
147. On a railway curve the outside rail is laid higher than the
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 5 : 4
inside one so that resultant force exerted on the wheels of
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
the rail car by the tops of the rails will
EBD_7208
66 LAWS OF MOTION
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS acceleration is determined only by the instantaneous

force and not by any history of the motion of the
1. (d) Inertia is defined as the ability of a body to oppose any particle. Therefore, the moment the stone is thrown out
change in its state of rest or of uniform motion. of an accelerated train, it has no horizontal force and
2. (c) Newton's first law of motion is related to the physical acceleration, if air resistance is neglected.
independence of force. 13. (a)
3. (c) Newton's first law of motion defines the inertia of
dp
body. It states that every body has a tendency to 14. (b) F
remain in its state (either rest or motion) due to its dt
inertia. 15. (b) The frame of reference which are at rest or in uniform
4. (c) According to Newton’s 2nd law of motion motion are called inertial frames while frames which
are accelerated with respect to each other are non–
change in momentum inertial frames. Spinning or rotating frames are
F=
time accelerated frame, hence these are non-inertial frames.
Thus force depends directly on the rate of change of 16. (b) Impulse = Force × time duration. …(1)
momentum. According to Newton’s second law
5. (c) According to Newton's second law of motion,
Change in momentum
F = ma Force = …(2)
time duration
When body is moving uniformly along a straight line
and there is no force of friction, acceleration / Force × time = change in momentum
retardation of the body a = 0, i.e., Impulse = change is momentum.
F = ma = 0 17. (a)
i.e, no external force is required.
For accelerated motion, force is necessary. In uniform 18. (a) Impulse = change in momentum = m v 2 m v1
circular motion, elliptical motion and projectile motion P
direction of velocity changes due to which force is 19. (b) F and impulse = F. T
t
imposed.
6. (c) 20. (b) If a large force F acts for a short time dt the impulse
imparted I is
7. (c) The body will continue accelerating until the resultant
force acting on the body becomes zero. dp
I F.dt .dt
8. (a) External agencies like gravitational and magnetic forces dt
can exert force on body from distance. When ball is I = dp = change in momentum
21. (a)
released from some height. Earth exerts gravitational
22. (a) Impulse is not a force.
force from distance, ball moves faster with time. Impulse = Force × Time duration
9. (b) 23. (c) A book lying on the table is acted by its weight
downwards and a reaction upwards.
A car moving on a road, has an applied forward force
and force of friction acts backwards. Thus it moves
with constant velocity.
Force, F = ma, if a = 0, then Fnet = 0
On second plane ball will move with constant velocity 24. (b) If the net external force on a body is zero, its acceleration
because no external force is there to provide acceleration is zero.
or retardation. Acceleration can be non-zero only if there is net external
10. (c) From Newton’s second law if Fi 0 then the body is force on the body. This is concluded from Newton's
first law of motion.
in translational equilibrium.
11. (a) No force is required for an object moving in straight P P
line with constant velocity or for non acceleration 25. (c) As fext , if constant
t t
motion.
i.e, fext t = constant. If force is small time taken is
12. (a) Since force at a point at any instant is related to the
more and if force is large time taken is less.
acceleration at that point, at that instant and
LAWS OF MOTION 67
26. (c) 48. (a) A thin cushion of air maintained between solid surfaces
27. (c) Swimming is a result of pushing water in the opposite in relative motion is another effective way or reducing
direction of the motion. friction
28. (a) Newton’s second and third laws of motion leads to the
conservation of linear momentum. Inflated balloon
29. (c) Hot gases with high velocity react against the rocket Plastic disc with hole
and push it up.
30. (c) The gun applied a force F12 on the bullet in forward
Air cushion
direction & according to Newton’s third law bullet surface
applies a reaction force on gun F21 in backward
Because of air cushion between plastic disc and surface,
direction. But the recoil speed of gun is very low in
there is very less friction between plastic disc and
comparison to bullet due to large mass.
surface. So plastic disc can be moved on surface with
31. (b)
very less frictional dissipation of energy. This is
32. (b) Since no nearby stars are there to exert gravitational because friction between solid and air is very small.
force on the astronaut, so the net force acting on him is
49. (c) When force is applied on a moving body in a direction
zero when he moves out of the spaceship. Thus in perpendicular to the direction of motion, then it takes a
accordance with first law of motion the acceleration of circular path. Thus the direction of motion changes
astronaut will be zero. without changes in the speed.
33. (d) 50. (c) Normal reaction N = weight mg thus the centripetal
34. (a) It works on the principle of conservation of linear force required by the car for circular motion is provided
momentum. by the component of the force of friction b/w the road
35. (a) If m1, m2 are masses and u1, u2 are velocity then by and the car tyres.
conservation of momentum m 1u1 + m 2u2 = 0 or
N
| m1u1 | | m2 u 2 |
36. (c)
37. (c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line. f
According to Newton's second law rate of change of
momentum is directly proportional to force applied. mg
38. (d) k < s coefficient of static friction is always greater 51. (a) Optimum speed is given by V0 = (Rg tan )1/2 on a
than kinetic friction. banked road, the normal reaction’s component is
39. (a) Since there in no resultant external force, linear enough to provide the necessary centripetal force to a
momentum of the system remains constant. car driven at optimum speed.
40. (c) Frictional force that opposes relative motion between 52. (a) Material forces like friction, gravitational force etc. act
surfaces in contact is called kinetic friction and denoted on the body and provide the centripetal force. The
by fk. centripetal force cannot be regarded as any kind of
force acting externally. It is simple name given to the
force of friction force that provides inward radial acceleration to a body
41. (a) Coefficient of static friction =
normal reaction in circular motion.
Therefore, coefficient of static friction depends upon v2 1
the normal reaction. 53. (a) Acceleration (centripetal) a i.e., a
r r
42. (c) Friction does not depend on area of surfaces in 54. (d)
contact. 55. (b) Due to centrifugal force, the inner wheel will be left up
43. (d) Coefficient of friction is independent of normal force. when car is taking a circular turn. Due to this, the reaction
44. (b) When a box is in stationary position with respect to on outer wheel is more than that on inner wheel.
train moving with acceleration, then relative motion is 56. (b) The cyclist bends while taking turn in order to provide
opposed by the static friction. necessary centripetal force.
45. (c)
46. (d) When brakes are on, the wheels of the cycle will slide STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
on the road instead of rolling there. It means the sliding
friction will come into play instead of rolling friction. 57. (b) A breeze causes branches of tree to swing. In general
The value of sliding friction is more than that of rolling force is required to put a stationary object in motion.
friction. 58. (d) Newton’s 2nd law of motion gives F = ma. Thus it is a
47. (d) measure of force. Newton’s first law of motion simply
gives a qualitative definition of force.
EBD_7208
68 LAWS OF MOTION
59. (d) If a body is moving with a constant velocity then the Applying Lami's equation, we have
net force on the body is zero. Also if net force is zero,
TBC W2 300
the body may be moving uniformly along a straight = =
sin150 sin120 sin 90
line. Thus both the given statements are false.
60. (b) There are three types of inertia. TAB W1 TBC
Inertia of rest : The resistance of a body to change its and
sin 90
=
sin150
=
sin120
state of rest is called inertia of rest.
After simplifying, we get
Inertia of motion : The resistance of a body to change
its state of motion is called inertia of motion. TAB = 173 N, TBC = 150 N, W1 = 87 N, W2 = 260 N.
Inertia of direction : The resistance of a body to change 71. (c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
its direction of motion is called inertia of direction.
61. (d) Action & reaction forces act simultaneously: There is DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
no cause effect relation between action and reaction as
any of the two mutual forces can be called action and 72. (c) Equilibrium under three concurrent forces F1, F2and F3
the other reaction since action & reaction act on requires that vector sum of the three forces is zero.
different bodies, so they cannot be cancelled out. F1 + F2 + F3 = 0.
62. (c) When the men push the rough surface on walking, R F1 F2 F1
then surface (from Newton’ third Law) applies reaction R
force in forward direction. It occurs because there is F3 R (In eqbm)
friction between men & surface. If surface is frictionless
(such as ice), then it is very difficult to move on it. F3 (F1 F2 )
F2
63. (a) Newton's laws of motion are applicable only for inertial
F1 F2 F3 = 0 F3
frames. All refrence frames present on surface of earth
are supposed to be inertial frame of refrence.
64. (a) According to third law of motion bullet experiences a
force F then, give experiences an equal and opposite 73. (c) In series each spring will have same force.
force F. According to second law, F t is change in Here it is 4 kg-wt.
momentum of the bullet, then – F t is change in
momentum of the gun. Since initially both are at rest, 74. (b) If a body slides down, then the force of friction acts
the final momentum = 0. Pb + Pg = 0. Thus the total upwards along the plane weight(mg) act vertically
momentum of (bullet + gun) is conserved. downwards.
65. (d) The static friction comes into play, the moment there is 75. (b)
an applied force. As the applied force increases, static
friction also increases, remaining equal and opposite
to the applied force upto a certain limit. But if the applied T1 cos
T1
force increases so much, it overcomes the static friction
and the body starts moving.
66. (c) Limiting friction is the maximum static friction beyond T1 sin T2
which the object starts moving. It decreases a little bit 2m
before the object comes into motion. Thus limiting T2
friction is less than the kinetic friction.
W = 60N
In eqbm T1cos = T2 = 60N. …(1)
67. (b) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2) T1sin = 60 N …(2)
68. (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) tan = 1
69. (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2) = 45°.
70. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 76. (a) Equations of motion of m1 & m2 are as:
T = m1a …(1)
300N
m2g – T = m2a …(2)
A Adding eqn. (i) and (ii)
150° 120°
C
m2g = (m1 + m2) a
B
TBC TBC
m2g
a= m m
2
w1 w2
LAWS OF MOTION 69
77. (d) Case (a) ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(Px)i = mu Py(initial) = 0
(Px)f = f = –mu Py(final) = 0
F
Impulse = P = –2mu (along x –axis) 83. (a) According to Newton's second law of motion a =
Impulse = 0 along y–axis m
parallaly in case (b) i.e. magnitude of the acceleration produced by a
(Px)i = mu cos30° (Py)i = –mu sin30° given force is inversely proportional to the mass of
(Px)f = f = –mu cos30° (Py)f = –mu sin30°
the body. Higher is the mass of the body, lesser will
Impulse = –2mu cos 30°(along x-axis)
Impulse = 0 (along y–axis) be the acceleration produced i.e. mass of the body is
Force and impulse are in the same direction the force a measure of the opposition offered by the body to
on wall due to the ball is normal to the wall along change a state, when the force is applied i.e. mass of
positive x–direction in both (a) & (b) case. a body is the measure of its inertia.
78. (c) Common acceleration of system is 84. (a)
a=
F 85. (c) According to Newton's second law
m1 m2 m3
force
Acceleration = i.e. if net external force on the
m 3F mass
Force on m3 is F3 = m3 × a = m m2 m3 body is zero then acceleration will be zero
1
86. (c) Newton's second law can not be used for any object.
F 87. (d) Impulse and momentum are different quantities, but
79. (c) a = m m2
1 both hae same unit (N–s).
So the acceleration is same whether the force is applied 88. (d) A cricket player moves his hands backward to increase
on m1 or m2. the time interval for reducing the momentum of the ball
80. (c) Acceleration to zero. Thus the ball does not hit him hard as force is
Net force in the direction of motion directly proportional to change of momentum.
=
Total mass of system 89. (b) According to 2nd law of motion;
m1g (m 2 m3 )g g P1 P2
= = (1 2 ) F1 = F2 =
m1m 2 m3 3 t1 t2
( m1 = m2 = m3 = m given) F1 × t1 = F2 × t2
81. (c) Change in momentum,
P1 = P2
p = Fdt Thus the same force for the same time causes the same
= Area of F-t graph change in momentum for different bodies.
= ar of – ar of + ar of
90. (d) Law of conservation of linear momentum is correct
1 when no external force acts. When bullet is fired form
= 2 6 3 2 4 3
2 a rifle then both should possess equal momentum
= 12 N-s
82. (a) p2
N cos but different kinetic energy. E = Kinetic
2m
N energy of the rifle is less than that of bullet because
f cos E 1/m
N sin 91. (a)
f 92. (a) The force acting on the body of mass M are its weight
mg
Mg acting vertically downward and air resistance F
f sin
acting vertically upward.
Clearly form the figure, N sin and f cos contribute to
F
the centripetal force. Acceration of the body , a g
M
2
N sin + f cos = mv Now M > m, therefore, the body with larger mass will
R have great acceleration and it will reach the ground first.
EBD_7208
70 LAWS OF MOTION
93. (d) The net force on the block is zero, but action cannot 106. (c) When an elevator cabin falls down, it is accelerated down
cancel the reaction because these two act on different with respect to earth i.e. man standing on earth.
bodies. 107. (a)
94. (a) On a rainy day, the roads are wet. Wetting of roads
108. (b)
lowers the coefficient of friction between the types
109. (c) Impulse experienced by the body
and the road. Therefore, grip on a road of car reduces
and thus chances of skidding increases. = change in momentum
95. (d) = MV – (–MV)
96. (d) The man can exert force on block by pulling the rope. = 2MV.
The tension in rope will make the man move. Hence 110. (d) If rope of lift breaks suddenly, then acceleration
statement-1 is false. becomes equal to g so that tension T = m(g – g) = 0
97. (a) Friction causes wear & tear and loss of energy, so it is
an evil but without friction walking. Stopping a vehicle
etc. would not be possible. So it is necessary for us. 111. (a) y
98. (c) The assertion is true for a reason that when the car is 2 kg m2
driven at optimum speed. Then the normal reaction
8 m/sec Presultant
component is enough to provide the centripetal force.
99. (b) When a body is moving in a circle, its speed remains
12 m/sec
same but velocity changes due to change in the m1
c x
direction of motion of body. According to first law of /se 1 kg
motion, force is required to change the state of a 4m
3
body. As in circular motion the direction of velocity m
of body is changing so the acceleration cannot be
zero. But for a uniform motion acceleration is zero (for
rectilinear motion).
100. (c) In uniform circular motion, the direction of motion Presultant = 122 162
changes, therefore velocity changes.
= 144 256 = 20
As P = mv therefore momentum of a body also
changes uniform circular motion. m3v3 = 20 (momentum of third part)
101. (c) The purpose of bending is to acquire centripetal
force for circular motion. By doing so component of 20
or, m3 = = 5 kg
normal reaction will counter balance the centrifugal 4
force. 112. (d) According to law of conservation of momentum the
third piece has momentum
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
1 –(3iˆ 4j)
ˆ kg ms–1
102. (b) The apple will fall slightly away from the hand of his
brother in the direction of motion of the train due to Impulse = Average force × time
inertia of motion. When train is just going to stop, Impulse
the boy and his brother slows down with train but Average force
time
the apple which is in free fall continue to move with y
the same speed and therefore, falls slightly away
from the hand in the direction of motion of the train. Change in momentum
103. (d) Horizontal velocity of ball and person are same so time
1 4ˆj
both will cover equal horizontal distance in a given x
1 3iˆ
interval of time and after following the parabolic path –(3iˆ 4ˆj)kg ms –1 4j)
the ball falls exactly in the hand which threw it up. i +
10 –4 s (3
104. (a) After the stone is thrown out of the moving train, the (–
only force acting on it is the force of gravity i.e. its 1×
weight. 113. (b) From law of conservation of momentum
F = mg = 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 N.
MV = m1v1 + m2v2
105. (b) The pressure on rear side would be more due to fictious
force on the rear face. Consequently the pressure in Here, M = 100 kg, v = 104 m s–1
the front side would be lowered. m1 = 10 kg, v1 = 0
m2 = 90 kg, v2 = ?
LAWS OF MOTION 71
120. (b) When force is applied on m1
4
100 10 then T = m2a and when force is applied on m2, then
100 × 104 = 10 × 0 + 90 × v2 v2
90 T = m1a. Thus value of T is different for each case. And
v2 = 11.11 × 103 m s–1. it depends on whether the force is applied on m1, or m2.
114. (c) Change in momentum of the ball
= mv sin – (– mv sin ) 121. (b) Opposite force causes retardation.
= 2 mv sin 122. (d) In case (a) In case (b)
2vsin
= mg
g N mN N
F2
= weight of the ball × total time of flight
F1
115. (a) 49 mg mg
Mass 5 kg
9.8 mg Cos mN Sin mg Cos S in
When lift is moving downward mg mg

Apparent weight = 5(9.8 – 5) = 5 × 4.8 = 24 N
116. (a) N = m a sin + mg cos ......(1)
mg sin = F1 – N
also m g sin = m a cos ......(2)
N = mg cos
from (2) a = g tan
mg sin + mg cos = F1
sin 2 In second case (b)
N mg mg cos ,
cos
N + F2 = mg sin
mg mg cos – F2 = mg sin
or N
cos or F2 = mg sin – mg cos
m but F1 = 2F2
ac
os therefore mg sin + mg cos
N = 2(mg sin – mg cos )
ma
mg sin = 3 mg cos
cos
mg m or tan = 3 or = tan–1 (3 )
cos g
ma mg sin
123. (c) Frictional force is always opposite to the direction of
motion
117. (c) a=1
N
W E
m = 1000 kg
S
124. (a) mBg = s mAg { mAg = s mAg}

mB = s mA
Total mass = (60 + 940) kg = 1000 kg
or mB = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 kg
Let T be the tension in the supporting cable, then
125. (d) Frictional force on the box f = mg
T – 1000g = 1000 × 1
Acceleration in the box
T = 1000 × 11 = 11000 N
118. (d) v = constant a = g = 5 ms–2
so, a = 0, Hence, Fnet = ma = 0 v2 = u2 + 2as

119. (d) When a rain drop falls down with the constant speed, 0 = 22 + 2 × (5) s
its weight is balanced by the upward viscous drag of 2
s=– w.r.t. belt
air and the force of buoyancy. Thus the net force acting 5
on it is zero. distance = 0.4 m
EBD_7208
72 LAWS OF MOTION
126. (b) For the upward motion of the body
mg sin f1 F1
S/2 or, F1 = mg sin + mg cos

h
oot S/2 sin For the downward motion of the body,
Sm
mg sin – f 2 F2
S/2
ugh S/2 sin or F2 = mg sin – mg cos
Ro
F1 sin cos
For upper half of inclined plane =
F2 sin cos
v2 = u2 + 2a S/2 = 2 (g sin ) S/2 = gS sin
For lower half of inclined plane tan 2 3
3
0 = u2 + 2 g (sin – cos ) S/2 tan 2
– gS sin = gS ( sin – cos ) 131. (c) It is a case of uniform circular motion in which
2 sin = cos velocity and acceleration vectors change due to
change in direction. As the magnitude of velocity
2 sin
= = 2 tan remains constant, the kinetic energy is constant.
cos
132. (d) By Newton’s second law of motion
6 F = n(mv) = nmv
127. (a) a g [using v = u + at]
10
v2 20 2
6 6 133. (d) Angle of banking is tan =
= 0.06 rg 40 3 10
10 g 10 10
1
tan =
128. (c) fs 3
N = 30º
134. (a) As the ball, m = 10 g = 0.01 kg rebounds after striking
mg the wall
Change in momentum = mv – (–mv) = 2 mv
Inpulse = Change in momentum = 2mv
mg sin fs ( for body to be at rest) Impulse 0.54 N s 1

= 27 m s
2m 2 × 0.01 kg
m 10 sin 30 10
m 2.0 kg 135. (d) Acceleration of the system
T
2s 2s F 4g 2g 120 40 20
n a=
129. (a) We have 4 2 6
g(sin cos ) gsin
2 kg a
2s 2s n 2 10 ms 2
g (sin cos ) g sin From figure
T – 2g = 2a 2g
1 2 FBD of block
here = 45º n 2 or (1 1 / n ) T = 2 (a + g) = 2 (10 + 10)
1
= 40 N
130. (c) F1 N2 136. (a) At limiting equilibrium,
N1
2
F
= tan
f2 m
dy x 2 y
tan = =
mg sin
dx 2
mg sin
f1 mg cos mg cos (from question)
mg mg
Coefficient of friction = 0.5
LAWS OF MOTION 73
x2 2ma
0.5 Therefore m =
2 g a
x=+1 u v
3
142. (b) As we know, S = t
x 1 2
Now, y m
6 6
0 20
137. (a) Energy of both bodies is given by 2
t = 25 t = 2.5s
KE1 = F.S1
143. (a) The velocity should be such that the centripetal
KE2 = F.S2
acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity
As force is equal
v2
S1 m1v12 m1 1 g or v gR
v1 v2 R
S2 m 2 v 22 m2 2
144. (d) tan = v2 / rg, tan = H / 1.5, r = 200 m, b = 1.5 m
138. (b) For the motion of both the blocks v = 36 km/hour = 36 × (5/18) = 10 m/s.
m1a = T – Putting these values, we get H = 0.075 m.
km1g
145. (b) It means that car which is moving on a horizontal road
m2g – T = m2a
& the necessary centripetal force, which is provided
a
T by friction (between car & road) is not sufficient.
k m1g m1
If is friction between car and road, then max speed of
k safely turn on horizontal road is determined from figure.
m2
a
N
m2g car of
f mass m
m 2g – k m1g
a= m1 m 2 mg
m 2 g – k m1g
m2g – T = (m2) m1 m 2
solving we get tension in the string N = mg ...(i)
m1mg (1 k )g mv 2
T= f ...(ii)
m1 m 2 r
F Where f is frictional force between road & car, N is the
139. (b) As we know, coefficient of friction =
N normal reaction exerted by road on the car. We know
ma a that
= (a = 7.35 m s–2 given)
mg g f sN s mg ......(iii)
7.35 where s is static friction
= 0.75 so from eq (ii) & (iii) we have
9.8
140. (a) As we know, |impulse| = |change in momentum| mv 2
s mg v2 s rg or v s rg
= |p2 – p1| r
= |0 – mv1| = |0 – 3 × 2| = 6 Ns & v max s rg
141. (a) Let upthrust of air be Fa then If the speed of car is greater than vmax at that road,
For downward motion of balloon then it will be thrown out from road i.e., skidding.
Fa = mg – ma 146. (a) The car over turn, when reaction on inner wheel of car
mg – Fa = ma is zero, i.e., first the inner wheel of car leaves the ground
For upward motion (where G is C.G of car, h is height of C.G from the ground,
Fa – (m – m)g = (m – m)a f1 & f2 are frictional force exerted by ground on inner &
EBD_7208
74 LAWS OF MOTION
outer wheel respectively). The max. speed for no over Where is angle of banking of rail track, N is normal
turning is reaction exerted by rail track on rail.
G It is clear from the equation (i) & (ii) that N cos balance
N1 N2 the weight of the train & N sin provide the necessary
h centripetal force to turn.
f1 B
A If width of track is (OB) & h (AB) be height of outside
inner wheel f2 mg outer wheel
of car of track from the inside, then
of car
2a h v2 v2
tan or h .................(iv)
rg rg
gra So it is clear from the above analysis that if we increase
v max
h the height of track from inside by h metre then resultant
where r is radius of the path followed by car for turn & 2a force on rail is provided by railway track & whose
direction is inwards.
is distance between two wheels of car (i.e., AB)
147. (a) If the outside rail is h units higher than inside of rail track 1
148. (d) mv 2 m g or v (2 g )
as shown in figure then 2
N cos = mg....................(i) 149. (c) Force exerted by a car when passes through a bridge
Mv 2
F Mg .
N Ncos Train
r
1
sin A 150. (b) v gr 10 40 20 m s
N
O
h 151. (c) Tension at the highest point
mg B
inside mv2
Ttop – mg 2mg ( vtop = 3gr )
r
trrack
Rail
outside Tension at the lowest point

Tbottom = 2mg + 6mg = 8mg
mv 2 Ttop
N sin ...................(ii) 2mg 1
r .
Tbottom 8mg 4
v2
& tan ....................(iii)
rg
6
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. According to work-energy theorem, the work done by the
net force on a particle is equal to the change in its
1. No work is done if (a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy
(a) displacement is zero (c) linear momentum (d) angular momentum
(b) force is zero 9. A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which
(c) force and displacement are mutually perpendicular one has greater K.E.?
(d) All of these (a) The lighter body
2. The magnitude of work done by a force (b) The heavier body
(a) depends on frame of reference (c) Both have equal K.E.
(b) does not depend on frame of reference (d) Data given is incomplete
(c) cannot be calculated in non-inertial frames. 10. A particle of mass m has momentum p. Its kinetic energy
will be
(d) both (a) and (b) (a) mp (b) p2m
3. Work is always done on a body when
(a) a force acts on it p2 p2
(c) (d)
(b) it moves through a certain distance m 2m
(c) it experiences an increase in energy through a 11. Kinetic energy, with any reference, must be
mechanical influence (a) zero (b) positive
(d) None of these (c) negative (d) both (b) and (c)
4. A boy carrying a box on his head is walking on a level road 12. Total ....X.... energy of a system is conserved, if the forces,
from one place to another is doing no work. This statement doing work on it, are .....Y..... .
is Here, X and Y refer to
(a) correct (b) incorrect (a) conservative, mechanical
(c) partly correct (d) cannot say (b) mechanical, conservative
5. When the force retards the motion of body, the work done (c) mechanical, non-conservative
is (d) kinetic, conservative
(a) zero 13. A bullet is fired and gets embedded in block kept on table.
(b) negative If table is frictionless, then
(c) positive (a) kinetic energy gets conserved
(d) Positive or negative depending upon the magnitude of (b) potential energy gets conserved
force and displacement (c) momentum gets conserved
6. In which of the following work is being not done? (d) both (a) and (c)
(a) Shopping in the supermarket 14. Unit of energy is
(b) Standing with a basket of fruit on the head (a) kwh (b) joule
(c) Climbing a tree (c) electron volt (d) All of these
(d) Pushing a wheel barrow 15. Which of the following is not a conservative force?
(a) Gravitational force (b) Frictional force
7. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it, he does
(c) Spring force (d) None of these
(a) negative work
16. If a light body and heavy body have same kinetic energy,
(b) positive but not maximum work
then which one has greater linear momentum?
(c) no work at all
(a) Lighter body (b) Heavier body
(d) maximum positive work
(c) Both have same momentum (d) Can’t be predicted
EBD_7208
76 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
17. The time rate of change of kinetic energy is equal to 27. Work done by a conservative force is positive if
(a) P.E. of the body increases
1 dv dv
(a) m (b) m v (b) P.E. of the body decreases
2 dt dt
(c) K.E. of the body increases
dv 1 dv (d) K.E. of the body decreases
(c) m (d) mv
dt 2 dt 28. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
18. Two bodies of different masses are moving with same kinetic (a) upon the system by a non conservative force
energy. Then the ratio of their momenta is equal to the ratio (b) by the system against a conservative force
of their (c) by the system against a non conservative force
(d) upon the system by a conservative force
(a) masses (b) square of masses
29. The ...X... energy V(x) of the spring is said to be zero when
(c) square root of masses (d) cube root of masses block and spring system is in the ...Y... position.
19. A spring with force constant k is initially stretched by x1 . If
Here, X and Y refer to
it is further stretched by x2, then the increase in its potential
(a) potential, equilibrium
energy is
(b) kinetic, equilibrium
1 1 (c) mechanical, equilibrium
(a) k(x 2 x1 ) 2 (b) kx 2 (x 2 2x1 )
2 2 (d) vibrational, left
30. For a conservative force in one dimension, potential energy
1 1 1
(c) kx12 kx 2 2 (d) k(x1 x 2 )2 function V(x) is related to the force F(x) as
2 2 2
dV(x) dV(x)
20. The speed of an object of mass m dropped from an inclined (a) F(x) (b) F(x)
dx dx
plane (frictionless), at the bottom of the plane, depends on:
(a) height of the plane above the ground –dV(x)
(c) F(x) = V(x) dx (d) F(x)
(b) angle of inclination of the plane dx
(c) mass of the object 31. The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the
(d) All of these force, doing work on it is
21. A particle is taken round a circle by application of force. (a) constant (b) variable
The work done by the force is (c) conservative (d) non-conservative
32. If stretch in a spring of force constant k is doubled then the
(a) positive non–zero (b) negative non–zero
ratio of elastic potential energy in the two cases will be
(c) Zero (d) None of the above
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
22. Four particles given, have same momentum. Which has (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
maximum kinetic energy 33. The energy stored in wounded spring watch is
(a) Proton (b) Electron (a) Kinetic (b) Potential
(c) Deutron (d) -particles (c) Heat (d) chemical
23. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done 34. The work done in stretching a spring of force constant k
(a) upon the system by a non conservative force from length 1 and 2 is
(b) by the system against a conservative force
1
(c) by the system against a non conservative force (a) k( 2
2
2
1) (b) k ( 22 12 )
2
(d) upon the system by a conservative force
k
24. The temperature at the bottom of a high water fall is higher (c) k ( 2 1 ) (d) ( 2 1)
2
than that at the top because 35. Which of the following force(s) is/are non-conservative?
(a) by itself heat flows from higher to lower temperature
(a) Frictional force (b) Spring force
(b) the difference in height causes a difference in pressure
(c) Elastic force (d) All of these
(c) thermal energy is transformed into mechanical energy
36. Law of conservation of energy states that
(d) mechanical energy is transformed into thermal energy. (a) work done is zero
25. If two particles are brought near one another, the potential (b) energy is zero
energy of the system will (c) work done is constant
(a) increase (b) decrease (d) energy of world is constant
(c) remains the same (d) equal to the K.E 37. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves with a velocity
26. Which of the following is correct? V, the power will be
(a) W = FS cos (a) F×v (b) F/v
(b) P. E. = mgh (c) F/v 2 (d) F×v2
1 38. Unit of power is
(c) K. E. = mv2
2 (a) kilowatt hour (b) kilowatt/hour
(d) All of these (c) watt (d) erg
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 77
39. Which of the following must be known in order to determine (a) is extremely small
the power output of an automobile? (b) is moderately small
(a) Final velocity and height (c) is extremely large
(b) Mass and amount of work performed (d) depends on particular case
(c) Force exerted and distance of motion 49. In a one-dimensional elastic collision, the relative velocity
(d) Work performed and elapsed time of work of approach before collision is equal to
40. If a shell fired from a cannon, explodes in mid air, then (a) sum of the velocities of the bodies
(a) its total kinetic energy increases (b) e times the relative velocity of separation after collision
(b) its total momentum increases (c) 1/e times the relative velocity of separation after
(c) its total momentum decreases collision
(d) None of these (d) relative velocity of separation after collision
41. Which one of the following statements is true? 50. In case of elastic collision, at the time of impact.
(a) Momentum is conserved in elastic collisions but not in (a) total K.E. of colliding bodies is conserved.
inelastic collisions (b) total K.E. of colliding bodies increases
(b) Total kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions (c) total K.E. of colliding bodies decreases
but momentum is not conserved in elastic collisions (d) total momentum of colliding bodies decreases.
(c) Total kinetic energy is not conserved but momentum is 51. When two spheres of equal masses undergo glancing elastic
conserved in inelastic collisions collision with one of them at rest, after collision they will
(d) Kinetic energy and momentum both are conserved in move
all types of collisions (a) opposite to one another
42. When after collision the deformation is not relived and the
(b) in the same direction
two bodies move together after the collision, it is called
(a) elastic collision (c) together
(b) inelastic collision (d) at right angle to each other
(c) perfectly inelastic collision 52. In an inelastic collision
(d) perfectly elastic collision (a) momentum is not conserved
43. In an inelastic collision, which of the following does not (b) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
remain conserved? conserved
(a) Momentum (c) both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
(b) kinetic energy (d) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
(c) Total energy 53. In an elastic collision, what is conserved ?
(d) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy (a) Kinetic energy (b) Momentum
44. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
collision is 54. In elastic collision, 100% energy transfer takes place when
(a) 1 (b) 0 (a) m1 = m2 (b) m1 > m2
(c) (d) –1 (c) m1 < m2 (d) m1 = 2m2
45. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly inelastic collision
is STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) 1 (b) 0
55. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
(c) (d) –1
46. When two bodies stick together after collision, the collision I. No work is done if the displacement is perpendicular to
is said to be the direction of the applied force
(a) partially elastic (b) elastic II. If the angle between the force and displacement vectors
(c) inelastic (d) perfectly inelastic is obtuse, then the work done is negative
47. Consider the elastic collision of two bodies A and B of equal III. All the central forces are non-conservative
mass. Initially B is at rest and A moves with velocity v. After (a) I only (b) I and II
the collision (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
(a) the body A traces its path back with the same speed 56. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
(b) the body A comes to rest and B moves away in the statement(s).
direction of A’s approach with the velocity v I. If work is done on a body against some force, then
(c) both the bodies stick together and are at rest kinetic energy has to change.
(d) B moves along with velocity v/2 and A retraces its path II. No work done on earth by sun when it revolves around
with velocity v/2. the sun in a perfectly circular orbit
48. The principle of conservation of linear momentum can be III. K.E. can never be negative
strictly applied during a collision between two particles (a) I only (b) II only
provided the time of impact (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
EBD_7208
57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? III. Work energy theorem holds in all inertial frames
I. K.E. of a system can be changed without changing its (a) I and II (b) II and III
momentum (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
II. Momentum of a system can be changed without 64. In elastic collision,
changing its K.E. I. initial kinetic energy is equal to the final kinetic energy.
(a) I only (b) II only II. kinetic energy during the collision time t is constant.
III. total momentum is conserved.
58. Which of the following statements are incorrect for an
oscillating spring? Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
I. Kinetic energy is maximum at the extreme position (a) Only I (b) I and III
II. Kinetic energy is minimum at the extreme position (c) Only III (d) Only II
III. Potential energy is maximum at equilibrium position
(a) I and II (b) II and III MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
59. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following. 65. A small block of mass 200g is kept at the top of a an incline
I. Work-energy theorem is not independent of Newton's which is 10 m long and 3.2 m high. Match the columns
second law. Column I Column II
II. Work-energy theorem holds in all inertial frames. (A) Work done, to lift the block from (1) 6.4 J
III. Work done by friction over a closed path is zero. the ground and put it at the top
(a) I only (b) II and III (B) Work done to slide the block (2) 7.2 J
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III up the incline
60. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? (C) the speed of the block at the (3) 4 m/s
I. If there were no friction, work need to be done to move ground when left from the top
a body up an inclined plane is zero. of the incline to fall vertically
II. If there were no friction, moving vehicles could not be (D) The speed of the block at the (4) 8 m/s
stopped even by locking the brakes. ground when side along the incline
III. As the angle of inclination is increased, the normal (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
reaction on the body placed on it increases. (b) (A) (1); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (3)
IV. A duster weighing 0.5 kg is pressed against a vertical (c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (2)
board with a force of 11 N. If the coefficient of friction (d) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
is 0.5, the work done in rubbing it upward through a 66. If W represents the work done, then match the two columns:
distance of 10 cm is 0.55J. Column I Column II
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (A) Force is always along the velocity (1) W = 0
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV (B) Force is always perpendicular to (2) W < 0
61. A force F(x) is conservative, if velocity
I. it can be derived from a scalar quantity V(x). (C) Force is always perpendicular to (3) W > 0
II. it depends only on the end points. acceleration
(D) The object is stationary but the point
III. work done by F(x) in a closed path is zero.
of application of the force moves on
Which of the following option is correct ?
the object
(a) Only I (b) I and III
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (2)
(c) Only II (d) I, II and III
(b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (2,3); (D) (1)
62. Choose the correct conversion taking place in the generation (c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
of electricity by burning of coal in a thermal station in all the (d) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1)
stages. 67. Column I represents work done by forces and column II
I. Chemical energy to heat energy represents change in kinetic energy k, change in potential
II. Heat energy to mechanical energy energy U, change in mechanical energy E. Then match
III. Mechanical energy to electrical energy
the two columns
(a) II and III (b) I and II
Column I Column II
(magnitude
only)
statements.
(A) Work done by conservative force (1) K
I. Work energy theorem is a scalar form of Newton’s
(B) Work done by non-conservative force (2) U
second law.
(C) Work done by internal force (3) E
II. Conservation of mechanical energy is a consequence
(D) Work done by external force
of work energy theorem for conservative forces
(a) (A) (1,2); (B) (1,2); C (1,2); (D) (1,3)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (1,2); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (2,3)
(d) (A) (1,3); (B) (2,3); C (2); (D) (1)
(A) Kinetic energy (1) Drilling anail
(B) Potential energy (2) Water tank on the roof
(a) 1.50 J (b) 2.40 J
(C) Mechanical energy (3) Pushing a wall
(D) Muscular energy (4) Motion of a car (c) 3.00 J (d) 6.00 J
73. A force Fx acts on a particle such that its position x changes
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
as shown in the figure.
(b) (A) (1); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
69. Column I Column II 3
Fx (N)
(A) Kinetic Energy (1) Stretched spring
(B) Potential Energy (2) Watt
(C) Collision (3) Elastic or inelastic
(D) Power (4) A boy running on the 0 5 x(m) 15 20
roof
The work done by the particle as it moves from x = 0 to 20 m
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
is
(b) (A) (1); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (3)
(a) 37.5 J (b) 10 J
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (2)
(c) 45 J (d) 22.5 J
(d) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (2)
74. The figure gives the potential energy function U(x) for a
system in which a particle is in one-dimensional motion. In
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS which region the magnitude of the force on the particle is
70. Which one of the following physical quantities is greatest :
represented by the shaded area in the given graph?
Force
Distance
(a) Torque (b) Impulse (a) OA (b) AB
(c) Power (d) Work done (c) BC (d) CD
71. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as 75. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting
shown here. The force is in N and x in m. The work done by on it (where k is positive constant). If U(0) = 0, the graph of
the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy
F(N) function) :
3
2
1 (a) (b)
x(m)
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 18.0 J (b) 13.5 J
(c) 9.0 J (d) 4.5 J
72. Figure shows three forces applied to a trunk that moves
leftward by 3 m over a smooth floor. The force magnitudes
(c) (d)
are F1 = 5N, F2 = 9N, and F3 = 3N. The net work done on the
trunk by the three forces
EBD_7208
76. Figure shows a bob of mass m suspended from a string of (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
length L. The velocity is V0 at A, then the potential energy correct explanation for assertion
of the system is _______ at the lowest point A. (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
C mg (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
TC 79. Assertion : The work done in moving a body over a closed

loop is zero for every force in nature.
B Reason : Work done depends on nature of force.
80. Assertion : A force applied on the body always does work
TA on the body.
A VO Reason : If a force applied on a body displaces the body
mg along the direction of force work done will be maximum.
1 2
81. Assertion : A man rowing a boat upstream is at rest with
(a) mv 0 (b) mgh respect to the bank. He is doing no external work.
2
1 2 Reason : Work done by constant force, W = F s cos .
(c) mv0 (d) zero
2 82. Assertion : The rate of change of total momentum of a many
77. For the given case which figure is correctly showing the particle system is proportional to the sum of the internal
after inelastic collision situation? forces of the system.
Reason : Internal forces can change the kinetic energy but
m1 not the momentum of the system.
u1 m2
83. Assertion : A work done by friction is always negative.
Before collision
u 2= 0 Reason : If frictional force acts on a body its K.E. may
decrease.
v1 84. Assertion : The change in kinetic energy of a particle is
v2
equal to the work done on it by the net force.
(a) m2 Reason : Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to
m1
workdone only in case of a system of one particle.
m2 85. Assertion: Kinetic energy of a body is quadrupled, when
(b) m1 its velocity is doubled.
v
Reason : Kinetic energy is proportional to square of
m1 m2 velocity. If velocity is doubled the K.E. will be quadrupled
(c) 86. Assertion: If the velocity of a body is tripled, then K.E.
–v1 +v1
becomes 9 times.
1
(d) m1 m2 Reason : Kinetic energy , K.E.= mv2
–v 2
78. A ball of mass m hits the floor making an angle as shown in 87. Assertion: Kinetic energy of a system can be increased or
the figure. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then which decreased without applying any external force on the system.
relation is true, for the velocity component before and after 1
Reason: This is because K.E. = mV2, so it independent of
collision? 2
any external forces.
88. If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1 and k2 ,
1 1 respectively, are stretched by the same force, it is found that
v v more work is done on spring S1 than on spring S2.
Assertion : If stretched by the same amount work done on S1
(a) V1 sin = V sin (b) V1 sin = – sin Reason : k1 < k2

(c) V1 cos = V cos (d) V1 cos = –V cos 89. Assertion : A spring has potential energy, both when it is
compressed or stretched.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS Reason : In compressing or stretching, work is done on the
spring against the restoring force.
90. Assertion : Graph between potential energy of a spring
versus the extension or compression of the spring is a
straight line.
Reason : Potential energy of a stretched or compressed
spring, proportional to square of extension or compression.
91. Assertion: The P.E. of a spring increases when it is
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
compressed and decreases when it is stretched.
Reason: During compression work is done on the spring 103. If a motorcyclist skids and stops after covering a distance of
while during stretching work is done by the spring. 15 m. The stopping force acting on the motorcycle by the
92. Assertion : When a body moves vertically upward, work road is 100 N, then the work done by the motorcycle on the
done by gravitational force is negative. road is
Reason : According to conservation of mechanical energy, (a) 1500 J (b) –1500 J
K + U = 0. (c) 750J (d) Zero
93. Assertion : Mechanical energy is the sum of macroscopic 104. A ball moves in a frictionless inclined table without
kinetic & potential energies. slipping. The work done by the table surface on the ball
Reason : Mechanical energy is that part of total energy which is
always remain conserved. (a) positive (b) negative
94. Assertion : Mass and energy are not conserved separately, (c) zero (d) None of these
but are conserved as a single entity called mass-energy. 105. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that the position
Reason : Mass and energy are inter-convertible in of the particle as a function of time is given by x = 3t – 4t 2
accordance with Einstein's relation. + t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done
E = mc2 during the first 4 seconds is
95. Assertion : When a machine gun fires n bullets per second (a) 576mJ (b) 450mJ
each with kinetic energy K, the power of a gun is P = nK (c) 490mJ (d) 530mJ
Reason : Power P = work done / time 106. A uniform force of (3iˆ ˆj ) newton acts on a particle of
96. Assertion : Power developed in circular motion is always
zero. mass 2 kg. The particle is displaced from position (2i k )
Reason : Work done in case of circular motion is not zero.
97. Assertion: Linear momentum is conserved in both elastic meter to position (4i 3 j k ) meter. The work done by the
and inelastic collisions but total energy is not conserved in force on the particle is
inelastic collision. (a) 6 J (b) 13 J
Reason: Law of conservation of momentum states that (c) 15 J (d) 9 J
momentum has to be conserved in an isolated system. 107. The position of a particle of mass 4 g, acted upon by a
98. Assertion : A point particle of mass m moving with speed constant force is given by x = 4t2 + t, where x is in metre and
collides with stationary point particle of mass M. If the t in second. The work done during the first 2 seconds is
1 2 (a) 128 mJ (b) 512 mJ
maximum energy loss possible is given as f mv then
(c) 576 mJ (d) 144 mJ
2
108. An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m
m
f= . in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to be in the range
M m (a) 200 J - 500 J (b) 2 × 105 J - 3 × 105 J
Reason : Maximum energy loss occurs when the particles
(c) 20, 000 J - 50,000 J (d) 2,000 J - 5, 000 J
get stuck together as a result of the collision.
109. At time t = 0s particle starts moving along the x-axis. If its
99. Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more kinetic energy increases uniformly with time t, the net force
violent than slow collision, even when initial and final acting on it must be proportional to
velocities are identical.
Reason : The rate of change of momentum determines that (a) t (b) constant
the force is small or large. 1
100. Assertion : If collision occurs between two elastic bodies (c) t (d)
t
their kinetic energy decreases during the time of collision.
Reason : During collision intermolecular space decreases 110. Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are moving with equal
and hence elastic potential energy increases. momentum. Then the ratio of their respective kinetic energies
101. Assertion : Two particles moving in the same direction do is
not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision. (a) 4 : 5 (b) 2 : 1
Reason : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true (c) 1 : 3 (d) 5 : 4
for all kinds of collisions. 111. A crate is pushed horizontally with 100 N across a 5 m floor.
102. Assertion : In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, the If the frictional force between the crate and the floor is 40 N,
total kinetic energy is conserved during the short time of then the kinetic energy gained by the crate is
collision of the balls (i.e., when they are in contact).
(a) 200 J (b) 240 J
Reason : Energy spent against friction follow the law of
(c) 250 J (d) 300 J
conservation of energy.
EBD_7208
112. An electron and a proton are moving under the influence
(a) E (b) 2E
of mutual forces. In calculating the change in the kinetic
(c) E /8 (d) E /2
energy of the system during motion, one ignores the
119. Two springs have their force constant as k 1 and
magnetic force of one on another. This is because,
k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same force
(a) the two magnetic forces are equal and opposite, so (a) no work is done in case of both the springs.
they produce no net effect. (b) equal work is done in case of both the springs
(b) the magnetic forces do no work on each particle. (c) more work is done in case of second spring
(c) the magnetic forces do equal and opposite (but non- (d) more work is done in case of first spring.
zero) work on each particle. 120. One end of a light spring of spring constant k is fixed to a
(d) the magnetic forces are necessarily negligible. wall and the other end is tied to a block placed on a
113. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation smooth horizontal surface. In a displacement, the work
proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic energy done by the spring is 1/2 k x2. The possible cases are
for any displacement x is proportional to (a) the spring was initially compressed by a distance x,
(a) x2 (b) ex was finally in its natural length
(c) x (d) loge x (b) it was initially stretched by a distance x and was finally
in its natural length
114. A weight hangs freely from the end of a spring. A boy
(c) it was initially in its natural length and finally in a
then slowly pushes the weight upwards until the spring
compressed position
becomes slack. The gain in gravitational potential energy
(d) it was initially in its natural length and finally in the
of the weight during this process is equal to
stretched position
(a) the work done by the boy against the force of gravity
121. If the extension in a spring is increased to 4 times then the
acting on the weight
potential energy
(b) the loss of stored energy by the spring minus the
(a) remains the same (b) becomes 4 times
work done by the tension in the spring
(c) becomes one fourth (d) becomes 16 times
(c) the work done on the weight by the boy plus the
122. Before a rubber ball bounces off from the floor, the ball is in
stored energy lost by the spring
contact with the floor for a fraction of second. Which of the
(d) the work done on the weight by the boy minus the following statements is correct?
work done by the tension in the spring plus the stored (a) Conservation of energy is not valid during this period
energy lost by the spring.
(b) Conservation of energy is valid during this period
115. A rod of mass m and length I is made to stand at an angle of
(c) As ball is compressed, kinetic energy is converted to
60° with the vertical. Potential energy of the rod in this
compressed potential energy
position is
(d) None of these
mgl
(a) mgl (b) 123. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill
2 of height 100 m. It rolls down a smooth surface to the ground,
mgl mgl then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally rolls
(c) (d)
3 4 down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the
116. A mass of m kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal ground. The velocity attained by the ball is
smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of (a) 20 m/s (b) 40 m/s
force constant k = 50 N/m. If the maximum compression of
the spring is 0.15 m, the value of mass m is (c) 10 30 m/s (d) 10 m/s
124. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on a plane, where
the acceleration due to gravity is not shown. On bouncing
it rises to 1.8 m. The ball loses its velocity on bouncing by
a factor of
(a) 0.5 kg (b) 0.15 kg
(c) 0.12 kg (d) 1.5 kg 16 2
(a) (b)
117. A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4m/s. 25 5
It strikes a uncompressed spring, and compresses it till the 3 9
block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15N and (c) (d)
5 25
spring constant is 10,000 N/m. The spring compresses by 125. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from rest to a
(a) 8.5 cm (b) 5.5 cm speed v in a time T . The instantaneous power delivered to
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 11.0 cm the body as a function of time is given by
kp mv 2 2 mv 2
(a) .t (b) .t
118. Two spring P and Q of force constant kp and k q k q 2 T2 T2
are stretched by applying forces of equal magnitude. If the 1 mv 2 2 1 mv 2

(c) .t (d) .t
energy stored in Q is E, then the energy stored in P is 2 T2 2 T2
126. A vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity on a smooth 134. A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is connected to a spring of
horizontal road, then power delivered by its engine must be unknown spring constant k. It is compressed to a distance
(a) uniform (b) increasing x from its equilibrium position and released from rest. After
(c) decreasing (d) zero x
approaching half the distance from equilibrium
127. The engine of a vehicle delivers constant power. If the vehicle 2
is moving up the inclined plane then, its velocity,
position, it hits another block and comes to rest momentarily,
(a) must remain constant
while the other block moves with a velocity 3 ms–1.
(b) must increase The total initial energy of the spring is
(c) must decrease (a) 0.3 J (b) 0.6 J
(d) may increase, decrease or remain same. (c) 0.8 J (d) 1.5 J
128. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height 135. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r under the action
equal to earth's radius before returning to the earth. The of a force F = r2 which is directed towards centre of the circle.
power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest Total mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy) of
(a) at the highest position of the body the particle is (take potential energy = 0 for r = 0)
(b) at the instant just before the body hits the earth
1 3 5 3
(c) it remains constant all through (a) r (b) r
2 6
(d) at the instant just after the body is projected
129. Johnny and his sister Jane race up a hill. Johnny weighs 4 3
twice as much as jane and takes twice as long as jane to (c) r (d) r3
3
reach the top . Compared to Jane
136. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground
(a) Johnny did more work and delivered more power.
with certain velocity, its potential energy and kinetic energy
(b) Johnny did more work and delivered the same amount
at a point A are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the same body is projected
of power.
with double the previous velocity, then at the same point A
(c) Johnny did more work and delivered less power
the ratio of its potential energy to kinetic energy is
(d) Johnny did less work and johnny delivered less power.
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 2 : 9
130. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly
explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) (c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 2
move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). 137. The total energy of a solid sphere of mass 300 g which rolls
The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is without slipping with a constant velocity of 5 ms–1 along a
straight line is
3
(a) mv2 (b) mv2 (a) 5.25 J (b) 3.25 J
2 (c) 0.25 J (d) l.25 J
(c) 2 mv2 (d) 4 mv2 138. A bullet when fired into a target loses half of its velocity
131. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a after penetrating 20 cm. Further distance of penetration before
constant power of k watts. If the particle starts from rest the it comes to rest is
force on the particle at time t is (a) 6.66 cm (b) 3.33 cm
(a) mk t –1/2 (b) 2mk t –1/2 (c) 12.5 cm (d) 10 cm
139. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts
1 mk –1/2 restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx2 where a and b are
(c) mk t –1/2 (d) t constants. The work done in stretching the unstretched
2 2
rubber-band by L is
132. If two persons A and B take 2 seconds and 4 seconds
1
respectively to lift an object to the same height h, then the (a) aL2 bL3 (b) aL2 bL3
ratio of their powers is 2
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
aL2 bL3 1 aL2 bL3
(c) 2 : 1 (d) l : 3 (c) (d) 2 2
2 3 3
133. If a machine gun fires n bullets per second each with kinetic
energy K, then the power of the machine gun is 140. If two equal masses (m1 = m2) collide elastically in one
dimension, where m2 is at rest and m1 moves with a velocity
K
(a) nK2 (b) u1, then the final velocities of two masses are
n (a) V1 = 0; V2 = u1 (b) V1 = V2 = 0
(c) n 2K (d) nK (c) V1 = 0 and V2 = –u1 (d) V1 = –u1; V2 = 0
EBD_7208
141. A particle A suffers an oblique elastic collision with a particle
B that is at rest initially. If their masses are the same, then 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ 2 ˆ
(a) vi vj (b) vi vj
after collision 4 2 3 3
(a) they will move in opposite directions
2 ˆ 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ
(b) A continues to move in the original direction while B (c) vi vj (d) vi vj
remains at rest 3 3 2 4
(c) they will move in mutually perpendicular directions 148. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms–
1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass of 1.00 kg and
(d) A comes to rest and B starts moving in the direction of
the original motion of A then they move together as a single body. The energy loss
142. Which one of the following statements does hold good when during the collision is
two balls of masses m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision? (a) 0.16 J (b) 1.00 J
(a) When m1 < m2 and m2 at rest, there will be maximum (c) 0.67 J (d) 0.34 J
transfer of momentum
149. Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities v1
(b) When m1 > m2 and m2 at rest, after collision the ball
of mass m2 moves with four times the velocity of m1 and v2 . At the initial moment their position vectors are r1
(c) When m1 = m2 and m2 at rest, there will be maximum
and r2 respectively. The condition for particles A and B for
transfer of K.E.
(d) When collision is oblique and m 2 at rest with their collision is
m1 = m2, after collisions the ball moves in opposite (a) r1.v1 r2 .v2
direction
143. A ball of mass m moving with a constant velocity strikes (b) r1 v1 r2 v2
against a ball of same mass at rest. If e = coefficient of (c) r1 r2 v1 v 2
restitution, then what will be the ratio of velocity of two
balls after collision? r1 r2 v2 v1
(d) | r1 r2 | | v2 v1 |
1 e e 1
(a) (b) 150. On a frictionless surface a block of mass M moving at speed
1 e e 1
v collides elastically with another block of same mass M
1 e 2 e which is initially at rest. After collision the first block moves
(c) (d)
1 e e 1 v
at an angle to its initial direction and has a speed . The
144. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v strikes with a 3
mass m2 at rest, then the condition for maximum transfer of second block's speed after the collision is
kinetic energy is 3
3
(a) m1 >> m2 (b) m2 >> m2 (a) v (b) v
4 2
(c) m1 = m2 (d) m1 = 2m2
145. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 2 2
(c) v (d) v
36 km/h has a head on collision with a stationary ball of 2 3
mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together, 151. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m
the loss in kinetic energy due to collision is with an initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground loses
(a) 140 J (b) 100 J 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the
(c) 60 J (d) 40 J same height. The initial velocity v0 is
146. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with (Take g = 10 ms-2)
another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient (a) 20 ms-1 (b) 28 ms-1
of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s) after collision (c) 10 ms-1 (d) 14 ms-1
will be 152. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v
(a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1 is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction
(c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2 with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the
147. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to
v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving vertically upward (a) 56% (b) 62%
(along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the (c) 44% (d) 50%
combination is
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 1 1 (mv )2

(E) = mv 2 .
1. (d) W = FS cos 2 2 m
If F = 0; W= 0
p2
If S = 0; W= 0 E
2m
& if = 90°; cos 90° = 0
W = 0. 1 2
11. (b) K. E = mv
2. (a) 2
It is always positive
3. (c) (i) Since work W F.s Fs cos 12. (b) The principle of conservation of total mechanical
If = 90º W = 0 , but force is acting on it so energy can be stated as, the total mechanical energy of
a system is conserved if the forces, doing work on it,
option (a) is not correct.
are conservative.
(ii) A person carrying a suit case vertically in his hand 13. (c) Only momentum is conserved. Some kinetic energy is
walks in a horizontal direction, no work is done, lost when bullet penetrates the block.
because the angle between the direction of force 14. (d) 1Kwh = 3.6 × 106 J
applied by hand on weight & direction of 1 ev = 1.6 × 10–19 J
displacement is 90º. So option (b) is also not J, Kwh and ev all are units of energy.
correct. 15. (b) As work done by frictional force over a closed path is
not zero, therefore, it is non-conservative force.
(iii) According to work energy theorem
work done on body = change in kinetic energy of 1 1 V m1
16. (b) E1 = E2 m1v12 = m2v22 or 2
the bod 2 2 V1 m2
4. (a) When a person carrying load on his head moves over
a horizontal road, work done against gravitational force P2 m 2 v2 m2 m1 m 22 m1 m2
is zero. P1 m1v1 m1 m2 m 22 m 2 m1
5. (b) If m2 > m1, then P2 > P1 i.e. heavier body has greater linear
6. (b) momentum.
7. (c) When a man pushes a wall and fails to displace it,
dk d mv 2
then displacement of wall = 0 17. (b)
dt dt 2
Work done by man = F × 0 = 0
Therefore, man does no work at all. 1 dv mdv
= m2v = v
8. (a) Work done by the net force = change in kinetic energy 2 dt dt
of the particle. p2
This is according to work energy theorem. 18. (c) Kinetic energy is given by k.E
2m
9. (a) Since momentum of both bodies are equal
p12 p 22
M1 u2 2m1 2m 2
So p1= p2 u2 u1 (let M1>M2)
M2 u1
p1 m1
or
p2 m2
E k1 P12 / 2M1 M2 Ek1 Ek 2
so 1 2
E k2 P22 / 2M 2 M1 19. (b) P.E in case of spring = kx
2
It means that light body has greater kinetic energy, if Increase in potential energy
they have equal momentum. 1 1 2 1
k ( x1 x2 )2 kx1 = k 2 x1x2 x22
10. (d) Let the velocity of the particle be v m/s. 2 2 2
Momentum of the particle (p) = mv
1
Kinetic energy of the particle = kx2 x2 2 x1
2
EBD_7208
20. (a) If an object of mass m is released from rest from top of 39. (d) Power is defined as the rate of doing work. For the
a smooth inclined plane, its speed at the bottom is automobile, the power output is the amount of work
done (overcoming friction) divided by the length of time
2gh , independent of angle and mass.
in which the work was done.
21. (c) Displacement of the particle when it takes a complete 40. (a)
round the circular path is zero.
41. (c) The law of conservation of momentum is true in all type
Work done = force × displacement
of collisions, but kinetic energy is conserved only in
W=F×0=0
elastic collision. The kinetic energy is not conserved in
Therefore, work done by the force is zero.
inelastic collision but the total energy is conserved in all
P2 1 type of collisions.
22. (b) E E [If P = constant] 42. (c) In a perfectly inelastic collision, the two bodies move
2m m
together as one body.
i.e. the lightest particle will possess maximum kinetic
43. (b) In an inelastic collision, momentum remains conserved,
energy and in the given option mass of electron is
but K.E is changed.
minimum.
23. (d) When work is done upon a system by a conservative – (v1 v2 ) -velocity of separation
force then its potential energy increases. 44. (a) Since e
(u 2 u1 ) velocity of approach
24. (d) By the principle of conservation energy
(i) For perfectly elastic collision e =1
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b)
28. (d) When work is done upon a system by a conservative (ii) For perfectly inelastic collision e = 0
force then its potential energy increases. (iii) For other collision 0 < e < 1
29. (a) We define the potential energy V(x) of the spring to be 45. (b) For a perfectly inelastic collision, e = 0.
zero when block and spring system is in the equilibrium 46. (d) When the two bodies stick together after collision, then
position. it is perfectly inelastic collision and in this case, the
30. (a) Conservative force is negative gradient of potential coefficient of restitution e is equal to zero.
–dV(x) 47. (b) When two bodies of equal mass collide head on
F(x) = elastically, their velocities are mutually exchanged.
dx
31. (c) Principle of conservation of energy states that, the total 48. (a) In physics, collision does not means that are particle
mechanical energy is conserved if the forces doing work strike another particle. Infact, two particles may
on it are conservative. not even touch each other & may still said to be
colliding.
1 2
32. (a) For a given spring, u = kx The necessary requirements of collision are
2
(i) A large force for a relatively short time (i.e., an
1
Kx 2 2 impulse) acts on each colliding particle.
u2 2 2 2x
u1 1 = =4:1 (ii) The motion of the particles (at least one of the
Kx12 x2
2 particle) is changed abruptly.
(iii) The total momentum (as also the total energy) of
33. (b) The energy stored in spring in the form of elastic
particles remains conserved.
1 2 49. (d) Coefficient of restitution,
potential energy. i.e., (P.E ) elastic kx
2
velocity of seperation
Where x is compression or elongation of spring & k is e
spring constant. velocity of approach
1 2 1 2 1 for elastic collision e = 1

34. (b) w kl 2 kl1 k l 22 l12 50. (c)
2 2 2
35. (a) 51. (d) When two spheres of equal masses undergo a glancing
elastic collision with one of them at rest, after the
36. (d) According to the law of conservation of energy the
collision they will move at right angle to each other.
total energy of the world (universe) remains constant.
52. (b) Momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
37. (a)
conserved.
38. (c) The S.I. unit of power is watt (W)
53. (c) In an elastic collision, momentum and K.E. both 68. (c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
conserved. 69. (d) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (2)
54. (a) During elastic collision between two equal masses,
the velocities get exchanged. Hence energy transfer DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
is maximum when m1 = m2.
70. (d) Work done Fdx

71. (b) F(N)
55. (d) A conservative force is that force which is independant
of path followed e.g. gravitational force, electrostatic A B
3
force, etc. All of these are central forces. So, all the
2
central forces are conservative. 1 C
56. (a) When a body is moved on a rough horizontal surface x(m)
0
with a constant velocity, then work is done against 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
friction but K.E. is constant. So, even if work is done Work done = area under F-x graph
on a body by some force, K.E. remains unchanged
1
57. (c) When a bomb explodes; momentum is conserved K.E. = area of trapezium OABC = ( 3 6)( 3) = 13.5 J
changes and in uniform circular motion , K.E remains 2
constant but momentum changes due to change in 72. (a) F = –5iˆ 9cos 60 iˆ 9sin 60 ˆj 3 ˆj
directions of motion. 9ˆ 9 3ˆ
58. (c) When spring oscillates, its velocity is minimum at the = –5iˆ i j 3 ˆj
2 2
mean position & hence KE is maximum at the equilibrium
iˆ 9 3
position. = 3 ˆj
2 2
59. (c) Friction is a non-conservative force. Work done by a
non-conservative force over a closed path is not zero. s = –3iˆ .
60. (c) If there were no friction, moving vehicles could not be iˆ 9 3
W = F .s = 3 ˆj .( 3iˆ)
stopped by looking the brakes. Vehicles are stopped 2 2
by air friction only. So, this statement is correct. = 1.5 J.
61. (d) A force F(x) is conservative, if it can be derived from a 73. (c) W = area of F – x graph
scalar quantity V(x) by the relation given by eq, = area of + area of rectangle + area of
v = –F(x) x. The work done by the conservative force 5 3 5 3
= 10 3 = 45 J
depends only on the end points. 2 2
This can be seen from the relation, dU
W = Kf – Ki = V(Xi) – V(Xf) 74. (d) |F | = , which is greatest in the reagion CD.
dx
which depends on the end points.
x x 1 2
A third definition states that the work done by this 75. (a) U Fdx kxdx kx .
0 0 2
force in a closed path is zero. This is once again apparent
from Eq. Ki + v(Xi) = Kf + v(Xf), since Xi = Xf It is correctly drawn in (a)
76. (d) At the lowest point, h = 0 P.E. = 0 (gravitational P.E.).
62. (d) In burning of coal, chemical energy is converted to
There is no work done on the bob by the tension as it is
heat energy.
perpendicular to the displacement.
63. (d) Potential energy is associated only to the gravitational
64. (b) In elastic collision, total momentum and kinetic energy force.
will remain conserved. 77. (b) When m1 > m2 & m2 at rest then the bodies collide in
elastically and move together as one body without
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS changing the direction.
78. (a) As the floor exerts a force on the ball along the normal,
65. (b) A (1); B (1); C (3); D (3) & no force parallel to the surface, therefore the velocity
66. (b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (2,3); (D) (1) component along the parallel to the floor remains
67. (a) (A) (1,2); (B) (1,2); C (1,2); (D) (1,3) constant. Hence V sin = V1 sin 1.
EBD_7208
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS Reason is a case of perfectly inelastic collision.

By comparing the equation given in Assertion with
79. (b) In close loop, s = 0, and so W = Fs = 0. above equation, we get
80. (d) Work done may be zero, even F is not zero.
M m
W = Fs cos 0° = Fs (maximum). f instead of
m M M m
81. (a) In this case, s = 0, and so W = 0.
82. (d) Hence Assertion is wrong and Reason is correct.
83. (d) When frictional force is opposite to velocity, kinetic 99. (b) 100. (b) 101. (a)
energy will decrease. 102. (d) The billiard balls in an elastic collision are in a
84. (c) Change in kinetic energy = work done by net force. deformed state. Their total energy is partly kinetic
This relationship is valid for particle as well as and partly potential. So K.E. is less than the total
system of particles. energy. The energy spent against friction is dissipated
as heat which is not available for doing work.
1 2
85. (a) K = mv K v2
2 CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
If velocity is doubled the K.E. will be quadrupled
103. (d) Though an equal and opposite force acts on the road
1
86. (a) K.E. = mv 2 if V is tripled then K.E. = v2 = (3)2 but since road does not undergo any displacement,
2
hence no work is done on the road.
87. (c) K.E. can be increased or decreased without applying 104. (c) Motion without slipping implies pure rolling. During
any external force, as internal forces can do work e.g., pure rolling work done by friction force is zero.
explosion of a bomb.
88. (b) dx
105. (a) x = 3t –4t2 + t3 3 8 t 3t 2
89. (a) dt
1 2
90. (d) Potential energy U kx i.e. U x2 d 2x
2 Acceleration = 8 6t
dt 2
This is a equation of parabola, so graph between U
and x is a parabola not a straight line. Acceleration after 4 sec = –8 + 6 × 4 = 16
91. (d) P.E. of a spring either it is compressed or stretched as Displacement in 4 sec = 3 ×4 – 4 × 42 + 43 = 12 m
work is done by us on the spring. Work = Force × displacement
= Mass × acc. × disp. = 3 × 10–3 × 16 × 12 = 576 mJ
92. (b) W Fs cos180 mgs .
93. (d) 106. (d) Given : F = 3i j

94. (a) Both reason and assertion are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion. r1 = 2i k , r2 = 4i 3j k
W K
95. (a) Power = nK
t 1/ n r = r2 r1 = 4i 3j k – 2i k
96. (d) Work done and power developed one zero in uniform
circular motion only. or r = 2i 3j – 2k
97. (d) Total momentum and total energy both are conserved
So work done by the given force w = f .r
in an inelastic collision. It is the K.E. which changes.
P2 P2 = 3i j . 2i 3j 2k = 6 + 3 = 9J
98. (d) Maximum energy loss =
2m 2(m M)
107. (c) here, m = 4 , g = 4 × 10–3 kg
2
P 1
K.E. mv2 x 4t 2 t
2m 2
dx d2 x
P2 M 1 M 8t 1 8
mv 2 dt dt 2
2m (m M) 2 m M
114. (a) In this case the boy has done work (see the fig.) against
d 2 x dx
Work done, W fdx m dt force of gravity acting on the weight and this work is
dt 2 dt stored in weight in the form of gravitational potential
2
energy (work done on weight = mgh = gravitation P.E
(4 10 3 )(8)(8 t 1) dt of weight).
0
2 2
3 3 8t 2
32 10 (8t 1)dt 32 10 t
2
0 0 h
= 32 × 10–3 [4(2)2 + 2 – 0] = 576 mJ
108. (d) The average speed of the athelete ground
boy
100 115. (d) For any uniform rod, the mass is supposed to be
v 10m / s
10 concentrated at its centre.
height of the mass from ground is, h = (l/2) sin 30º
1
K.E. mv 2 Potential energy of the rod
2
m g sin 30º
1 2
If mass is 40 kg then, K.E. 40 (10) 2 2000 J l 60º
2 m
1 mg
If mass is 100 kg then, m g 30º
2 2 4
1
K.E. 100 (10) 2 5000 J
2
m
dk /2
109. (d) Given, constant 30º
h
dt
k t v t
dk 116. (a) 1 1 2 mv2 = kx2 or m × (1.5)2 = 50 × (0.15)2
Also, P Fv constant mv 2 kx
dt 2 2
1 1 m = 0.5 kg
F F
v t 117. (b) Let the blow compress the spring by x before stopping.
Kinetic energy of the block = (P.E of compressed spring)
p2
110. (d) Kinetic energy of a body, K = + work done against function.
2m
As p1 = p2 (Given) 1 1
2 (4) 2 10, 000 x 2 ( 15) x
K1 m2 5 2 2
K2 m1 4 10,000 x2 + 30x – 32 = 0
111. (d) Here, F = 100 N, d = 5 m,
frictional force fr = 40 N 5000x 2 15x 16 0
F – fr = ma
100 – 40 = ma 15 (15)2 4 (5000)( 16)
x
Now kinetic energy gained is = ma × d 2 5000
= 60 × 5 = 300 J
112. (b) = 0.055m = 5.5cm.
113. (a) This condition is applicable for simple harmonic 118. (d) According to Hooke's law, FP = – kI xP
motion. As particle moves form mean position to FP kP xP
extreme position its potential energy increases FQ = – kQxQ or F kQ xQ
Q
1 2
according to expression U kx and according xP kQ
2
kinetic energy decreases. FP = FQ (Given) xQ kP
EBD_7208
Using conservation of energy,
1 2
Energy stored in a spring is U kx
2 1 2
m (10 × 100) m v 10 20
2
2
UP k P x P2 kP kQ
2
UQ kQ xQ kQ k P2 1 2
or v 800 or v = 1600 = 40 m/s
2
UP kQ kP
kQ Alternative method :
UQ kP 2 Loss in potential energy = gain in kinetic energy
1 1
m g 80 mv2
2 2
UQ E 1 2
or UP ( UQ = E) 10 80 v
2 2 2
119. (c) From Hooke’s law v2 = 1600 or v = 40 m/s
F x F = kx., where k is spring constant 124. (b) According to principle of conservation of energy
Since force is same in stretching for both spring so Potential energy = kinetic energy
F=k1x1 = k2x2 x1<x2 because k1>k2 1
mgh mv2 v 2gh
2
1
so work done in case of first spring is W1 k1x12 If h 1 and h2 are initial and final heights, then
2
and work done in case of second spring is v1 2gh 1 , v 2 2gh 2
1 W x1
W2 k 2 x 22 so 1 W1 W2 Loss in velocity, v v1 – v 2 2gh 1 – 2gh 2
2 W2 x2
fractional loss in velocity
It means that more work is done in case of second
spring (work done on spring is equal to stored elastic v 2gh1 – 2gh 2 h2
= 1–
potential energy of the spring) v1 2gh1 h1
120. (a) Stored elastic potential energy of spring =½kx2 where
x is compression or elongation of spring from its natural 1.8 2
length. In this position the spring can do work on the 1– 1 – 0.36 1 – 0.6 0.4
5 5
block tied to it, which is equal to ½kx2, so both option
(a) & b are correct. 125. (b) u = 0; v = u + aT; v = aT
1 2 2
121. (d) P.E. = kx Instantaneous power = F × v = m. a. at = m. a . t
2
1 1 v2
If x = 4x, then P.E = k(16x2) = 16 kx 2 Instantaneous power = m t
2 2 T2
126. (d)
122. (b) The law of conservation of energy is valid at any instant
127. (a)
& in all circumstances.
128. (b) Power exerted by a force is given by
P = F.v
123. (b)
When the body is just above the earth’s surface, its
velocity is greatest. At this instant, gravitational force
100
30 20 is also maximum. Hence, the power exerted by the
gravitational force is greatest at the instant just before
mgH 1
mv 2 mgh the body hits the earth.
2
129. (b) The work is done against gravity so it is equal to the
total work done
change in potential energy. W = Ep = mgh 133. (d) Power =
time
For a fixed height, work is proportional to weight lifted.
Since Johnny weighs twice as much as Jane he works 1
twice as hard to get up the hill. Mv 2 1 M
= 2 (mv 2 )n mn
Power is work done per unit time. For Johnny this t 2 t
is W/ t. Jane did half the work in half the time,
(1/2 W)/(1/2 t) = W/ t which is the same power 1 2
= kn K.E. K mv
delivered by Johnny. 2
130. (b) By conservation of linear momentum
134. (b) Applying momentum conservation
v
2mv1 = 2mv v1 m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2
2 0.1u + m(0) = 0.1(0) + m(3)
v
m 0.1u = 3m
1 1
m 0.1u 2 m(3)2
v 2 2
Solving we get, u = 3
2m
v1 2
1 2 1 x 1
As two masses of each of mass m move perpendicular kx K (0.1)32
2 2 2 2
to each other.
Total KE generated 3 2
kx 0.9
1 2 2 1 4
= mv mv (2m)v12
2 2 2 3 1 2
kx 0.9
2 2
mv2 3 2
= mv2 mv
2 2 1 2
Kx J total initial energy of the spring
dw 2
131. (d) As we know power P =
dt 135. (b) As we know, dU = F.dr
1 2
w = Pt = mV
2 r
ar 3
U r 2 dr ...(i)
2Pt 3
So, v = 0
m
dV 2P 1 mv 2
Hence, acceleration a . As, r2
dt m 2 t r
Therefore, force on the particle at time ‘t’
m2v2 = m r3
2Km 2 1 Km mK –1/2 1 3
= ma = . t or, 2m(KE) = r ...(ii)
m 2 t 2t 2 2
Total energy = Potential energy + kinetic energy
work done Now, from eqn (i) and (ii)
132. (c) Power =
time Total energy = K.E. + P.E.
mgh r3 r3 5 3
Therefore power of A, PA = t = r
A 3 2 6
136. (c) Let E be the total energy then
mgh
and power of B, PB = t P.E mgh 2 5
B = = E= mgh
K .E E mgh 3 2
PA tB 4 When velocity is double then inital energy becomes
2 :1 4E.
PB tA 2
EBD_7208
mgh mgh 2m1u1

So, = NL = 10 V2 =
4 E mgh mgh mgh m1 m2
P.E 1 2 m1v1
On solving we get .
K .E 9 if m1 = m2, then V1 = 0; and V2 = = u1
2m1
137. (a) Given, mass of the sphere, M = 300 g = 0.3 kg
Speed of the sphere V = 5 m s–1
v1
In case of rolling motion without slipping A y
Total energy, K = Ktrans + Krot
A u1 B
141. (c)
m m
R v x
B
1 1 v2
i.e., K = Mv 2 I 2
2 2
(a) By law of conservation of momentum
1 2 12 2
= Mv MR 2 2 I solid sphere MR 2 (i) along x axis
2 25 5
mu1 0 mv1 cos mv 2 cos .........(i)
1 2 1
= Mv Mv 2 ( v=R ) (ii) along y axis
2 5
7 7 0 mv1 sin mv 2 sin . ........(ii)
= Mv 2 0.3 52 5.25 J
10 10 (b) By law of conservation of energy
138. (a) Let the bullet be fired with velocity .
For 20 cm penetration of bullet 1 1 1
mu 12 mv12 mv 22 u12 v12 v 22 .......(iii)
using v2 – u2 = 2as 2 2 2
2 From eq (i) & (ii) we get
( )2 2a(20)
2
u12 v12 v22 2v1v 2 cos( ) …… (iv)
2
3 2 3
– 40 a or a .......... (i) Now use eq.(iii) in eq.(iv), we get
4 160
For latter part of penetration, cos( ) 0 90º
Let before it comes to rest distance travelled by the ie, after collision they will move in mutually
bullet be x perpendicular directions.
Again, using v2 – u2 = 2as we get
142. (c) When two particles of mass m1& m2 undergo elastic
2
collision, then
0– 2ax
2
(m1 m 2 ) 2m 2 u 2
2 2 v1 u1
160 m1 m 2 (m1 m 2 )
or x=– 6.66 cm (using eq. (i))
8a 3 2 8
Therefore, the distance travelled by the bullet before it (m 2 m1 )u 2 2m1u1
v2
comes to rest = 6.66 cm m1 m 2 m1 m 2
139. (c) Work done in stretching the rubber-band by a distance
dx is Where u1 & u2 are the initial velocity of m1 & m2
dW = F dx = (ax + bx2)dx respectively and v1 & v2 are the velocity of m1 & m2
Integrating both sides, respectively after collision. So when m1 = m2 & u2 =0
L L v2 = u1 & v1 =0
2 aL2 bL3
W axdx bx dx It means that m1 ball has zero velocity after collision &
2 3
0 0 ball m2 moves with the velocity v2 = u1, so maximum
140. (a) In an elastic collision transfer of kinetic energy.
(m1 m 2 ) 143. (a) As u2 = 0 and m1 = m2, therefore from
V1 = u m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2 we get u1 = v1 + v2
m1 m 2 1
v2 v1 v2 v1 1 v1 / v 2 1 m1m2 2
Also, e , Ek u1 u 2
u1 v2 v1 1 v1 / v 2 2 m1 m 2
v1 1 e 146. (a) Clearly v1 = 2 ms –1, v2 = 0

which gives
v2 1 e m1 = m (say), m2 = 2m
v1' = ?, v'2 = ?
1
144. (c) Ki m1u12 ,
2 v1 ' v2 '
e= v v ....(i)
2 1
1 m1 m 2
Kf m1v12 , v1 u1 By conservation of momentum,
2 m1 m 2
2m = mv1' + 2mv2' ... (ii)
Fractional loss
v2 ' v1 '
1 1 From (i), 0.5 =
m1u12 m1v12 2
Ki Kf 2 2
Ki 1 v2' = 1 + v1'
m1u12
2 From (ii), 2 = v1'+ 2 + 2 v1'
v1 = 0 and v2 = 1 ms–1
2
v12 m1 m 2 4m1m 2 147. (a) As the two masses stick together after collision, hence
1 1
u12 m1 m 2 2
m1 m 2 2 it is inelastic collision. Therefore, only momentum is
conserved.
Kf 4n
m2 m ; m1 nm 1 2v
Ki 2
1 n
Energy transfer is maximum when K f 0

m v x
4n 3m
2
1 4n 1 n2 2n n 2 1 2n 0
1 n
mviˆ 3m(2v)ˆj (4m)v
2 n 1 ie. m 2 m , m1 m
n 1 0 vˆ 6 ˆ
v i vj
Transfer will be maximum when both masses are equal 4 4
and one is at rest.
vˆ 3 ˆ
145. (c) Apply conservation of momentum, = i vj
4 2
m1v1 = (m1 + m2)v
148. (c) Initial kinetic energy of the system
m1 v1
1 1 1
v=
(m1 m 2 ) K.Ei mu 2 M(0) 2 0.5 2 2 0 1J
2 2 2
Here v1 = 36 km/hr = 10 m/s, For collision, applying conservation of linear momentum
m1 = 2 kg, m2 = 3 kg m × u = (m + M) × v
10 2 0.5 2 (0.5 1) v
v 4 m/s
5 2
vm/s
1 3
K.E. (initial) = 2 (10) 2 100 J
2 Final kinetic energy of the system is
1 1 1 2 2 1
K.E. (Final) = (3 2 ) ( 4 ) 2 40 J K.E f (m M)v 2 (0.5 1) J
2 2 2 3 3 3
Loss in K.E. = 100 – 40 = 60 J
1
Alternatively use the formula Energy loss during collision 1 J 0.67J
3
EBD_7208
149. (d) For collision V B/A should be along B A rA/B 151. (a) When ball collides with the ground it loses its 50% of
energy
V 2 V1 r1 r2 1
So, KEf 1 mVf2
V2 V1 r1 r2 2 1
KEi 2 1 2
mVi2 M
V1 V2 2
Vf 1
or V
i 2
A B
A B 2gh 1
or, M
V02 2gh 2
150. (d) Here, M1 = M2 and u2 = 0
V or, 4gh = V02 2gh
u1 = V, V1 = ; V2 = ?
3 V0 = 20ms–1
V1=V/3
Y
pf = 3 m V
u2=0 M1
u1=V
M1 M2 m pi
2v 45°
M2 152. (a) X
V2=? v
2m
From figure, along x-axis,
M1u1 + M2u2 = M1V1 cos + M2V2 cos ...(i) Initial momentum of the system
Along y-axis pi = [m(2V)2 m(2V)2 ]
0 = M1V1 sin – M2Vs sin ...(ii)
By law of conservation of kinetic energy = 2m 2V
1 1 1 1 Final momentum of the system = 3mV
M1u12 M 2 u 22 M1V12 M 2 V22 ...(iii) By the law of conservation of momentum
2 2 2 2
Putting M1 = M2 and u2 = 0 in equation (i), (ii) and (iii) 2 2mv 3mV
we get
2 2v
Vcombined
+ = = 90° 3
2
Loss in energy
2
and u1 V12 V22 1 1 1
E m1V12 m2V22 2
(m1 m2 )Vcombined
2 2 2 2
V V
V2 = V22 u1 V and V1
3 3 4 2 5 2
E 3mv2 mv mv = 55.55%
3 3
2
V Percentage loss in energy during the collision 56%
or, V2 – = V22
3
V2
V2 = V22
9
8 2 2 2
or V22 = V V2 = V
9 3
7
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND
ROTATIONAL MOTION
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 10. The position of centre of mass of a system of particles does
not depend upon the
1. The centre of mass of a body is the average position of its (a) mass of particles
(a) mass (b) weight (b) symmetry of the body
(c) either mass or weight (d) None of these (c) position of the particles
2. The centre of mass of a body (d) relative distance between the particles
(a) lies always outside the body 11. In rotatory motion, linear velocities of all the particles of the
(b) may lie within, outside on the surface of the body
body are
(c) lies always inside the body
(a) same (b) different
(d) lies always on the surface of the body
3. Position vector of centre of mass of two particles system is (c) zero (d) cannot say
given by 12. Which of the following is invalid equation? (where , , L
and have their usual meanings)
m1 r1 m 2 r2 m 1 r1 .m 2 r2
(a) R (b) R (a) I (b) L I
m1 m2 r1 r2
(c) I (d) All of these
m1 r1 m 2 r2 m1 r1 m2 r2 13. The time rate of change of angular momentum of a particle is
(c) R (d) R
r1 r2 m1 m2 equal to
4. The motion of the centre of mass depends on (a) force (b) acceleration
(a) total external forces (b) total internal forces (c) torque (d) linear momentum
(c) sum of (a) and (b) (d) None of these 14. Which component of force contributes to the torque?
5. The centre of mass of a rigid body lies (a) Radial component
(a) inside the body (b) outside the body (b) Transverse component
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) either (a) or (b) (c) Both (a) and (b)
6. The sum of moments of all the particles in a system about (d) Either radial or transverse
the centre of mass is always 15. The wide handle of screw is based upon
(a) maximum (b) minimum (a) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) infinite (d) zero (b) law of conservation of linear momentum
7. The centre of mass of two particles lies on the line (c) turning moment of force
(a) joining the particles (d) None of these
(b) perpendicular to the line joining the particles 16. Which of the following is an expression for power?
(c) at any angle to this line
(a) P = (b) P = I
(d) None of these
(c) P = I (d) P =
8. If the resultant of all external forces is zero, then velocity of
17. Which of the following statements about angular momentum
centre of mass will be
is correct?
(a) zero (b) constant
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b) (a) It is directly proportional to moment of inertia
(b) It is a scalar quantity
9. Centre of mass of the earth and the moon system lies
(a) closer to the earth
(d) None of these
(b) closer to the moon 18. A couple produces
(c) at the mid-point of line joining the earth and the moon (a) linear motion (b) rotational motion
(d) cannot be predicted (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
EBD_7208
96 SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTAATIONAL MOTION
19. According to the principle of conservation of angular Here, A, B and C refer to
momentum, if moment of inertia of a rotating body decreases, (a) particle, perpendicular and circle
then its angular velocity (b) circle, particle and perpendicular
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) particle, circle and perpendicular
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero (d) particle perpendicular and perpendicular
20. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its 28. Moment of inertia does not depend upon
angular momentum is directed along the (a) distribution of mass
(b) axis of rotation
(a) radius of orbit
(c) point of application of force
(b) tangent to the orbit
(d) None of these
(c) line parallel to plane of rotation
29. Force change the ...X... state of motion of a rigid body.
(d) line perpendicular to plane of rotation (a) Here X refers to rotational
21. The motion of a rigid body which is not pivoted or fixed in (b) translational
some way is either a pure ...A... or a combination of translation (c) rotational and translational in general
and rotation. The motion of a rigid body which is pivoted or (d) None of the above
fixed in some way is ...B... 30. Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M and radius R
Here, A and B refer to about its diameter is
(a) rotation and translation (a) MR2/2 (b) MR2
(b) translation and rotation (c) 2MR 2 (d) MR2/4.
(c) translation and the combination of rotation and 31. Moment of inertia does not depend upon
translation (a) angular velocity of body
(d) None of the above (b) shape and size
22. The moment of inertia of a ...A... body about an axis ...B... to (c) mass
its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia about (d) position of axis of rotation
two ...C... axes concurrent with perpendicular axis and lying 32. Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of mass M and radius
in the plane of the body. r about its own axis is
Here, A, B and C refer to 2 2
(a) Mr 2 (b) Mr 2
(a) three dimensional, perpendicular and perpendicular 3 5
(b) planar, perpendicular and parallel 1 2
(c) Mr (d) Mr2
(c) planar, perpendicular and perpendicular 3
(d) three dimensional, parallel and perpendicular 33. Which of the following has the highest moment of inertia
23. During summersault, a swimmer bends his body to when each of them has the same mass and the same outer
(a) increase moment of Inertia radius
(b) decrease moment of Inertia (a) a ring about its axis, perpendicular to the plane of the
(c) decrease the angular momentum ring
(d) reduce the angular velocity (b) a disc about its axis, perpendicular to the plane of the
24. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius ‘R’ ring
and mass ‘M’ about an axis passing from the edge of the disc (c) a solid sphere about one of its diameters
and normal to the disc is (d) a spherical shell about one of its diameters
34. Radius of gyration of a body depends upon
1 2 (a) axis of rotation (b) translational motion
(a) MR2 (b) MR
2 (c) shape of the body (d) area of the body
3 2 7 2 35. The correct relation between moment of inertia I, radius of
(c) MR (d) MR
2 2 gyration k and mass M of the body is
25. Rotational analogue of force in linear motion is (a) K = I2M (b) K = IM2
(a) weight (b) angular momentum M I
(c) moment of inertia (d) torque (c) K = (d) K =
I M
26. A boy comes and sits suddenly on a circular rotating table.
36. Choose the wrong statement from the following.
What will remain conserved for the table-boy system?
(a) The centre of mass of a uniform circular ring is at its
(a) Angular velocity (b) Angular momentum
geometric centre
(c) Linear momentum (d) Angular acceleration
(b) Moment of inertia is a scalar quantity
27. In rotation of a rigid body about a fixed axis, every ...A...of
(c) Radius of gyration is a vector quantity
the body moves in a ...B..., which lies in a plane ...C... to the
(d) For same mass and radius, the moment of inertia of a
axis and has its centre on the axis. ring is twice that of a uniform disc
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION 97
37. If two circular discs A and B are of same mass but of radii r L
and 2r respectively, then the moment of inertia of A is (a) (b) L
2
(a) the same as that of B (b) twice that of B
(c) four times that of B (d) 1/4 that of B L L
(c) (d)
38. Analogue of mass in rotational motion is 3 4
(a) moment of inertia (b) angular momentum 48. A circular disc A and a ring B have same mass and same
(c) torque (d) None of these radius. If they are rotated with the same angular speed about
39. For a given mass and size, moment of inertia of a solid disc is their own axis, then
(a) more than that of a ring (a) A has less moment of inertia than B
(b) less than that of a ring (b) A has less rotational kinetic energy than B
(c) equal to that of a ring (c) A and B have the same angular momentum
(d) depend on the material of ring and disc (d) A has greater angular momentum than B
40. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its 49. The angular momentum of a system of particle is conserved
diameter? (a) when no external force acts upon the system
2 1 (b) when no external torque acts upon the system
(a) MR2 (b) MR2
5 5 (c) when no external impulse acts upon the system
2 (d) when axis of rotation remains same
(c) MR2 (d) MR2
3 50. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a central
41. If Ixy is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent in the force is constant due to
plane of the ring and Ix y is the moment of inertia of a ring
(a) constant torque
about a tangent perpendicular to the plane of the ring then
(b) constant force
1
(a) Ixy = Ix y (b) Ixy = I (c) constant linear momentum
2 xy
(d) zero torque
3 3 51. When a body starts to roll on an inclined plane, its potential
(c) Ix y = I (d) Ixy = Ix y
4 xy 4
energy is converted into
42. Moment of inertia of a rigid body depends on (a) translation kinetic energy only
(a) Mass of the body (b) Shape of the body
(b) translation and rotational kinetic energy
(c) Size of the body (d) All of these
(c) rotational energy only
43. Which of the following is not the moment of inertia of a
(d) None of these
uniform circular disc along any axis?
52. A body cannot roll without slipping on a
1 3
(a) MR2 (b) MR2 (a) rough horizontal surface
2 2
(b) smooth horizontal surface
1 3 (c) rough inclined surface
(c) MR2 (d) MR2
4 4 (d) smooth inclined surface
44. Which of the following is/are essential condition for 53. A fan is moving around its axis, What will be its motion
mechanical equilibrium of a body? regarded as ?
(a) Total force on the body should be zero (a) Pure rolling (b) Rolling with shipping
(b) Total torque on the body should be zero (c) Skidding (d) Pure rotation
(c) Both (a) and (b) 54. A sphere rolls on a rough horizontal surface and stops. What
(d) Total linear momentum should be zero does the force of friction do?
45. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) It decreases the angular velocity
(a) v r (b) F r (b) It decreases the linear velocity
(c) It increases the angular velocity
(c) L r p (d) None of these
(d) It decreases both angular and linear velocity
46. Which of the following is not an expression for kinetic 55. If a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down the
energy? same inclined plane without slipping then
1 1 (a) ring has the least velocity of centre of mass at the bottom
(a) k = MR2 2 (b) k = I 2
of inclined plane
2 2
(b) sphere has the least velocity of centre of mass at the
1 2 bottom of the inclined plane
(c) k = mv (d) None of these
2 (c) cylinder has the greatest velocity of centre of mass at
47. A particle moving in a circular path has an angular momentum the bottom of the inclined plane
of L. If the frequency of rotation is halved, then its angular (d) sphere has the least velocity of centre of mass at the
momentum becomes bottom of the inclined plane.
EBD_7208
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS II. If A points vertically upwards and B points towards
east then, A B points along South
statements. (a) I only (b) II only
I. The position of centre of mass depends upon the shape (c) I and II (d) None of these
of the body 62. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
II. The position of centre of mass depends upon the I. Moment of inertia is a scalar quantity
distribution of mass II. Angular acceleration requires torque
III. The positon of centre of mass is independent of the III. The rotational equivalent of distance is radius
co-ordinate system chosen IV. State of rest or motion of centre of mass can never be
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only changed
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III (a) I only (b) II only
57. Which of the following statements are incorrect about centre (c) I and II (d) II and IV
of mass? 63. Consider the following statements and select the correct
I. Centre of mass can coincide with geometrical centre of statement(s).
a body I. Two satellites of equal masses orbiting the earth at
II. Centre of mass of a system of two particles does not different heights have equal moments of inertia
always lie on the line joining the particles II. If earth were to shrink suddenly, length of the day will
III. Centre of mass should always lie on the body. increase
(a) II and III (b) I and II III. Centre of gravity cannot coincide with centre of mass
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (a) I only (b) II only
58. Consider the following statements and choose the correct (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
option.
I. Position vector of centre of mass of two particles of MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
equal mass is equal to the position vector of either
64. Match Column I and Column II
particle.
Column I Column II
II. Centre of mass is always at the mid-point of the line
(A) Moment of inertia (1) Twice the product of mass
joining two particles
and areal velocity of the
III. Centre of mass of a body can lie where there is no mass
(a) I and II (b) II only particle
(c) III only (d) I, II and III (B) Radius of gyration (2) The product of masses of the
59. Consider the following statements and select the correct various particles and square
statement(s). of their perpendicular
I. Angular velocity is a scalar quantity distances
II. Linear velocity is a vector quantity (C) Angular momentum (3) The root mean square
III. About a fixed axis, angular velocity has fixed direction distance of the particles from
IV. Every point on a rigid rotating body has different the axis of rotation
angular velocity (D) Torque (4) The product of force and its
(a) I only (b) II only perpendicular distance
(c) II and III (d) III and IV (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
60. Consider the following statements and select the correct (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
option. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
I. Moment of a couple depends on the point about which (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
moment is taken. 65. Column I Column II
II. Principle of moments holds only when parallel forces (A) Rolling motion (1) Torque
F1 and F2 are perpendicular to the lever (B) Rate of change of (2) Rotatory motion
III. Centre of mass depends on the gravity angular momentum
IV. Centre of mass depends on the distribution of mass of (C) Hollow cylinder (3) Iz + Ma2
the body about axis
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (D) Theorem of parallel (4) MR2
(c) I, II and III (d) IV only axes
61. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect (a) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (2)
statement(s). (b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
I. A body in translatory motion cannot have angular (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
momentum (d) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
66. Column I Column II Column I Column II
(A) Translational equilibrium (1) F= 0 (A) Circular ring (1) 1/2
(B) Moment of inertia of disc (2) MR2
(B) Circular disc (2) 1
1 2
(C) Rotational equilibrium (3) I (C) Solid sphere (3) 3/2
2
(D) Spherical shell (4) 2
1 1
(D) Kinetic energy of rolling (4) mVcm2 + I 2
(5) 5/2
2 2
body (5) =0 (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(E) Moment of inertia of ring (6) MR2/2 (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) (A) (1); (B) (6); C (5); (D) (4); (E) (2) (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (5); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1); (E) (6) (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (6); (B) (5); C (3); (D) (4); (E) (2) 70. A rigid body of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping
(d) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (5); (E) (6) on an inclined plane of inclination , under gravity. Match
67. Match Column I and Column II. the type of body Column I with magnitude of the force of
Column I Column II friction Column II
(Quantity) (Expression) Column I Column II
(A) Angular momentum (1) r (mv )
(A) For ring (1) Mg sin
1 2 2.5
(B) Impulse (2) I
2
(C) Torque (3) Mg sin
r F (B) For solid sphere (2)
3
(D) Rotational energy (4) m v
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) Mg sin
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3) (C) For solid cylinder (3)
3.5
(c) (A) (2,4); (B) (1); C (5); (D) (3)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2) Mg sin
(D) For hollow spherical shell (4)
68. Match Column I and Column II. 2
Column I Column II
(a) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
(A) Moment of Inertia of a solid uniform
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
sphere about the diameter (1) MR2
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (5); (D) (3)
(B) Moment of inertia of a thin uniform
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
1
spherical shell about the tangent (2) MR2
2
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
5 71. The motion of binary stars , S1 and S2 is the combination of
(C) Moment of inertia of a uniform disc (3) MR2 ....X.... and ....Y.... . Here, X and Y refer to
3
through centre of a mass and s1
perpendicular to plane of the disc
2
(D) Moment of inertia of disc about (4) MR2
5
tangent in the plane of disc.
5
(5) MR2 s2
4
(a) (A) (3,2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4) (a) motion of the CM and motion about the CM
(b) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) (b) motion about the CM and motion of one star
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (5) (c) position of the CM and motion of the CM
(d) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (2); (D) (1) (d) motion about CM and position of one star
69. Match Column I (Body rolling on a surface without slipping) 72. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc (figure) is
with Column II (Ratio of Translational energy to Rotational maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing
energy. through
EBD_7208
76. The moment of inertia of the rectangular plate
C ABCD, (AB = 2 BC) is minimum along the axis
(a) G H
D
B (b) E F
A
(c) B C
(d) A C
77. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod
(a) B (b) C is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as
(c) D (d) A shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular
73. A uniform square plate has a small piece Q of an irregular acceleration of the rod is
shape removed and glued to the centre of the plate leaving
a hole behind. Then the moment of inertia about the z-axis
y y
Hole
Q
x x
(a) g /L (b) 2g/L
2g 3g
(a) increases (c) (d)
3L 2L
(b) decreases
(c) remains same 78. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane
(d) changed in unpredicted manner. with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to
74. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as
vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side cm (as shown shown.
v0
in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a
line AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in
gram-cm2 units will be m
3 2
(a) m
2 X
m C
The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally
3 2 R
(b) m mass m moves in a circle of radius 0 . The final value of
4 2
l l the kinetic energy is
(c) 2 m 2
1
(a) mv02 (b) 2mv02
5 2 A B 4
(d) m
4 m l m
1 2
75. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r (c) mv0 (d) mv02
2
are placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX' which is
79. A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal surface C
touching to two shells and passing through diameter of third
is its centre and Q and P are two points equidistant from C.
shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these Let Vp, Vq and Vc be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q
three spherical shells about XX' axis is and C respectively, then
(a) 3mr2 X
16 2 Q
(b) mr C
5 P
(c) 4mr2
11 2 X (a) VQ > VC > VP (b) VQ < VC < VP
(d) mr
5 1
(c) VQ = VP , VC VP (d) VQ < VC > VP
2
90. Assertion : For a system of particles under central force
field, the total angular momentum is conserved.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Reason : The torque acting on such a system is zero.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 91. Assertion : It is harder to open and shut the door if we
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You apply force near the hinge.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 92. Assertion : Torque is equal to rate of change of angular
explanation for assertion. momentum.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a Reason : Angular momentum depends on moment of
correct explanation for assertion inertia and angular velocity.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 93. Assertion: When no external torque acts on a body, its
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. angular velocity remains constant as long as moment of
inertia is constant.
80. Assertion: Centre of mass of a ring lies at its geometric
dL
centre though there is no mass. Reason: Torque = 0; = 0, L = constant.
dt
Reason: Centre of mass is independent of mass.
L = I = constant
81. Assertion : When you lean behind over the hind legs of the 94. Assertion: Torque is a vector quantity directed opposite to
chair, the chair falls back after a certain angle. the applied force.
Reason : Centre of mass lying outside the system makes the
Reason: Torque = r F
system unstable.
95. Assertion: When axis of rotation passes through the centre
82. Assertion : The centre of mass of a two particle system of gravity, then the moment of inertia of a rigid body
lies on the line joining the two particle, being closer to the increases.
heavier particle. Reason: At the centre of gravity mass gets concentrated
Reason : Product of mass of particle and its distance from and moment of inertia increases.
centre of mass is numerically equal to product of mass of 96. Assertion: An ice-skater stretches out arms-legs during
other particle and its distance from centre of mass. performance.
83. Assertion : The centre of mass of system of n particles Reason: Stretching out arms-legs helps the performer to
is the weighted average of the position vector of the n balance his or her body so that he or she does not fall.
particles making up the system. 97. Assertion : If polar ice melts, days will be longer.
Reason : The position of the centre of mass of a system Reason : Moment of inertia decreases and thus angular
in independent of coordinate system. velocity increases.
84. Assertion : The centre of mass of an isolated system has 98. Assertion : Moment of inertia of a particle is same,
a constant velocity. whatever be the axis of rotation
Reason : If centre of mass of an isolated system is already Reason : Moment of inertia depends on mass and
at rest, it remains at rest. distance of the particles.
85. Assertion : The centre of mass of a body may lie where 99. Assertion : Radius of gyration of body is a constant
there is no mass. quantity.
Reason : Centre of mass of body is a point, where the Reason : The radius of gyration of a body about an axis
whole mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated. of rotation may be defined as the root mean square
86. Assertion : The position of centre of mass of body distance of the particle from the axis of rotation.
depend upon shape and size of the body. 100. Assertion: A rigid disc rolls without slipping on a fixed rough
Reason : Centre of mass of a body lies always at the horizontal surface with uniform angular velocity. Then the
centre of the body acceleration of lowest point on the disc is zero.
87. Assertion : If no external force acts on a system of Reason : For a rigid disc rolling without slipping on a fixed
particles, then the centre of mass will not move in any rough horizontal surface, the velocity of the lowest point on
direction.
the disc is always zero.
Reason : If net external force is zero, then the linear
101. Assertion : A wheel moving down a frictionless inclined
momentum of the system remains constant.
plane will slip and not roll on the plane.
88. Assertion : A particle is moving on a straight line with a Reason : It is the frictional force which provides a torque
uniform velocity, its angular momentum is always zero. necessary for a body to roll on a surface.
Reason : The momentum is not zero when particle moves
102. Assertion : When a sphere is rolls on a horizontal table it
with a uniform velocity.
slows down and eventually stops.
89. Assertion : The earth is slowing down and as a result the
moon is coming nearer to it. Reason : When the sphere rolls on the table, both the sphere
Reason : The angular momentum of the earth moon and the surface deform near the contact. As a result, the
system is conserved. normal force does not pass through the centre and provide
an angular declaration.
EBD_7208
103. Assertion : The velocity of a body at the bottom of an 110. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and
inclined plane of given height, is more when it slides down m2 . If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the centre
the plane, compared to when it is rolling down the same of mass particles through a distance d, by what distance
plane. would the particle of mass m2 move so as to keep the mass
Reason : In rolling, down, a body acquires both, kinetic centre of particles at the original position?
energy of translation and rotation.
104. Assertion : The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid m2 m1
(a) d (b) d
sphere is the sum of translational and rotational kinetic m1 m1 m 2
energies. m1
Reason : For all solid bodies total kinetic energy is always (c) d (d) d
m2
twice the translational kinetic energy.
111. Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at origin, 500 g
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre
of mass from the origin is
105. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) attract each
other with a force inversely proportional to the square of the (a) 40 cm (b) 45 cm
distance between them. If the particles are initially held at (c) 50 cm (d) 30 cm
rest and then released, the centre of mass will 112. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards
1
(a) move towards m1 (b) move towards m2 under gravity breaks into two parts; a body B of mass M
(c) remains at rest (d) None of these 3
2
106. A shell following a parabolic path explodes somewhere in its and a body C of mass M. The centre of mass of bodies B
3
flight. The centre of mass of fragments will continue to move and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A
in
(a) vertical direction (b) any direction (a) does not shift
(c) horizontal direction (d) same parabolic path (b) depends on height of breaking
107. A man stands at one end of a boat which is stationary in (c) towards body B
water. Neglect water resistance. The man now moves to the
(d) towards body C
other end of the boat and again becomes stationary. The
113. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular
centre of mass of the ‘man plus boat’ system will remain
disc of radius 2R such that the circumferences of the discs
stationary with respect to water
coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is / R form
(a) in all cases
the centre of the bigger disc. The value of is
(b) only when the man is stationary initially and finally
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
(c) only if the man moves without acceleration on the boat
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/6
(d) only if the man and the boat have equal masses
114. The centre of mass of three bodies each of mass 1 kg located
108. There are some passengers inside a stationary railway
at the points (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4) in the XY plane is
compartment. The centre of mass of the compartment itself
(without the passengers) is C1, while the centre of mass of 4 1 2
(a) ,1 (b) ,
the ‘compartment plus passengers’ system is C2. If the 3 3 3
passengers move about inside the compartment then
1 1 4
(a) both C1 and C2 will move with respect to the ground (c) , (d) 1,
2 2 3
(b) neither C1 nor C2 will be stationary with respect to the
ground 115. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating
(c) C1 will move but C2 will be stationary with respect to wheel is given by the equation (t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on
the ground the wheel becomes zero at
(d) C2 will move but C1 will be stationary with respect to (a) t = 1s (b) t = 0.5 s
(c) t = 0.25 s (d) t = 2s
the ground
116. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible
109. A stick is thrown in the air and lands on the ground at some
liquid of mass M and closed at both ends. The tube is then
distance from the thrower. The centre of mass of the stick
rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with
will move along a parabolic path
uniform angular speed . What is the force exerted by the
(a) in all cases
liquid at the other end?
(b) only if the stick is uniform
2
(c) only if the stick has linear motion but no rotational ML 2
(a) (b) ML
motion 2
(d) only if the stick has a shape such that its centre of 2 2
ML ML
mass is located at some point on it and not outside it (c) (d)
4 8
117. A planet is moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit. Its 126. A ring of mass m and radius r is melted and then moulded
speed is into a sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere will be
(a) same at all points of the orbit (a) more than that of the ring
(b) maximum when it is nearest to sun (b) less than that of the ring
(c) maximum when it is farthest from the sun (c) equal to that of the ring
(d) cannot say (d) None of these
118. A man standing on a rotating table is holding two masses at 127. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about its vertical
arm’s length. Without moving his arms, he drops the two axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis, The torque
masses. His angular speed will which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be
(a) increase (b) decrease 2
(d) become zero (d) remain constant (a) Nm (b) Nm
18 15
119. When sand is poured on a rotating disc, its angular
velocity will
(c) Nm (d) Nm
(a) decrease (b) increase 12 15
(c) remain constant (d) None of the above
128. A round disc of moment of inertia I 2 about its axis
120. A disc is given a linear velocity on a rough horizontal surface
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is
then its angular momentum is
placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating
(a) conserved about COM only
with an angular velocity about the same axis. The final
(b) conserved about the point of contact only
angular velocity of the combination of discs is
(c) conserved about all the points
(d) not conserved about any point. (I1 I 2 ) I2
(a) (b)
121. Standing on a turn table, you are rotating holding weights I1 I1 I 2
in your hands outstretched horizontally, If you suddenly
draw your hands and weights towards your chest, you I1
will now (c) (d)
I1 I 2
(a) stop rotating (b) rotate as before
(c) rotate slower (d) rotate faster 129. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a
122. Of the two eggs which have identical sizes, shapes and tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring
weights, one is raw, and other is half boiled. The ratio between of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the
the moment of inertia of the raw to the half boiled egg about ring is
central axis is (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(a) one (b) greater than one (c) 2 : 1 (d) 5 : 6
(c) less than one (d) not comparable 130. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I
123. A gymnast takes turns with her arms and legs stretched. respectively about their axis of rotation. If their kinetic
When she pulls her arms and legs in energies of rotation are equal, their angular momenta will be
(a) the angular velocity decreases in the ratio
(b) the moment of inertia decreases (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) the angular velocity stays constant
(d) the angular momentum increases (c) 2:1 (d) 1 : 2
124. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of 131. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and
same mass and same outer radii, Their moments of inertia length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and
about their diameters are respectively IA and IB, such that perpendicular to its length is I0. Its moment of inertia about
(a) IA = IB (b) IA > IB an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular
(c) IA < IB (d) IA / IB = A = B to its length is
Here A and B represent their densities. (a) I0 + ML2/2 (b) I0 + ML2/4
125. A diver in a swimming pool bends his head before (c) I0 + 2ML 2 (d) I0 + ML2
diving. It 132. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners
(a) increases his linear velocity of a square ABCD of side . The moment of inertia of this
(b) decreases his angular velocity system about an axis passing through A and parallel to
(c) increases his moment of inertia BD is
(d) decreases his moment of inertia
EBD_7208
2 2 138. A force F î 3jˆ 6kˆ is acting at a point

(a) 2m (b) 3m
r 2iˆ 6ˆj 12kˆ . The value of for which angular
(c)3m 2 (d) m 2
133. Consider a uniform square plate of side ‘a’ and mass ‘m’. momentum about origin is conserved is
The moment of inertia of this plate about an axis (a) 2 (b) zero
perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its (c) 1 (d) –1
corners is 139. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to
5 1 rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound
(a) ma 2 (b) ma 2 round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other
6 12
hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an
7 2 angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s– 2 is
(c) ma 2 (d) ma
2
12 3 (a) 25 N (b) 50 N
134. Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the points (0, 0, 0), (c) 78.5 N (d) 157 N
(2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (–2, –2, 0) respectively. The moment of 140. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges
inertia of this system about X-axis will be A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The
(a) 43 kg m2 (b) 34 kg m2 knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of
(c) 27 kg m 2 (d) 72 kg m2 mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction
135. The moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass M and on A is
radius R about an axis passing through the centre of mass is
I0. The moment of inertia of another circular disc of same Wd W(d – x)
(a) (b)
mass and thickness but half the density about the same axis x x
is
W(d – x) Wx
I0 I0 (c) (d)
(a) (b) d d
8 4
(c) 8I0 (d) 2I0 141. A uniform solid cylindrical roller of mass ‘m’ is being pulled
136. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km h -1. on a horizontal surface with force F parallel to the surface and
The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the moment of inertia applied at its centre. If the acceleration of the cylinder is ‘a’
of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg m2. If the and it is rolling without slipping then the value of ‘F’ is
vehicle is brought to rest in 15s, the magnitude of average
5
torque transmitted by its brakes to the wheel is : (a) ma (b) ma
3
(a) 8.58 kg m2 s-2 (b) 10.86 kg m2 s-2
(c) 2.86 kg m s 2 -2 (d) 6.66 kg m2 s-2 3
137. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of (c) ma (d) 2 ma
2
a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass. The rod is to be
142. Consider a thin uniform square sheet made of a rigid material.
set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position
If its side is ‘a’ mass m and moment of inertia I about one of
of point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so
that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular its diagonals, then
velocity 0 is minimum, is given by
ma 2 ma 2 ma 2
(a) I (b) I
0 12 24 12
ma 2 ma 2
(c) I (d) I
m1 P m2 24 12
143. A particle of mass 2 kg is on a smooth horizontal table and
x (L–x) moves in a circular path of radius 0.6 m. The height of the
table from the ground is 0.8 m. If the angular speed of the
particle is 12 rad s–1, the magnitude of its angular momentum
about a point on the ground right under the centre of the
m1 m2
(a) x L (b) x L circle is
m2 m1 (a) 14.4 kg m2s–1 (b) 8.64 kg m2s–1
2 –1
x
m2 L m1L (c) 20.16 kg m s (d) 11.52 kg m2s–1
(c) (d) x
m1 m 2 m1 m 2
144. A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass density 150. If the angular momentum of a particle of mass m rotating
along a circular path of radius r with uniform speed is L, the
bx
(x) = a + , where x is measured from A. If the CM centripetal force acting on the particle is
L
L2 L2
7 (a) (b)
of the rod lies at a distance of L from A, then a and mr 2
mr
12
L L2 m
b are related as : (c) (d)
mr r
(a) a = 2b (b) 2a = b
151. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string of length
(c) a = b (d) 3a = 2b
l is suspended from a vertical support. The bob rotates in a
145. Two objects P and Q initially at rest move towards each horizontal circle with an angular speed rad/s about the vertical.
other under mutual force of attraction. At the instant when About the point of suspension:
the velocity of P is v and that of Q is 2v, the velocity of (a) angular momentum is conserved.
centre of mass of the system is (b) angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in
(a) v (b) 3v direction.
(c) 2v (d) zero (c) angular momentum changes in direction but not in
146. A body rolls down an inclined plane. If its kinetic energy of magnitude.
rotation is 40% of its kinetic energy of translation motion, (d) angular momentum changes both in direction and
then the body is magnitude.
(a) hollow cylinder (b) ring 152. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 0.1 m rolls down an
(c) solid disc (d) solid sphere inclined plane of height 3m without slipping. Its rotational
147. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of kinetic energy when it reaches the foot of the plane would
maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of inertia of cube be :
about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular (a) 22.7 J (b) 19.6 J
to one of its faces is (c) 10.2 J (d) 9.8 J
4MR 2 4MR 2 153. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material
(a) (b)
9 3 3 3 and of a same size can be distinguished without weighing
(a) by determining their moments of inertia about their
MR 2 MR 2
(c) (d) coaxial axes
32 2 16 2 (b) by rolling them simultaneously on an inclined plane
148. Two discs rotating about their respective axis of rotation (c) by rotating them about a common axis of rotation
with angular speeds 2 rads–1 and 5 rads–1 are brought into (d) by applying equal torque on them
contact such that their axes of rotation coincide. Now, the 154. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of
angular speed of the system becomes 4 rads–1. If the moment same height, but of different inclinations. In both cases
of inertia of the second disc is 1 × 10–3 kg m2, then the (a) speed and time of descent will be same
(b) speed will be same, but time of descent will be
moment of inertia of the first disc (in kg m2) is
different
(a) 0.25 × 10–3 (b) 1.5 × 10–3
(c) speed will be different, but time of descent will be
(c) 1.25 × 10–3 (d) 0.5 × 10–3 same
149. A wheel is rotating at 1800 rpm about its own axis. When the (d) speed and time of descent both are different
power is switched off, it comes to rest in 2 minutes. Then 155. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’
the angular retardation in rad s–1 is and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘ ’ without
(a) 2 (b) slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3
(c) (d) (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
2 4
EBD_7208
22. (c) Planar, perpendicular and perpendicular. The moment

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS of inertia of a planar body about an axis perpendicular
1. (a) to its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia
2. (b) Depends on the distribution of mass in the body. about two perpendicular axes concurrent with
3. (d) By definition, position vector of centre of mass of two perpendicular axis and lying in the plane of the body.
particle system is such that the product of total mass of 23. (b) By bending his body, he decreases his moment of inertia.
the system and position vector of centre of mass is This would increase his angular velocity.
equal to the sum of products of masses of two particles 24. (c) M.I. of a uniform circular disc of radius ‘R’ and
mass ‘M’ about an axis passing through C.M. and
and their respective position vectors i.e. normal to the disc is
(m1 m 2 ) R m1 r2 m r r2 1 2
I C.M. MR
4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 2
8. (c) 9. (a)
10. (d) The position of centre of mass of a system depends
upon mass, relative distance, position and symmetry
of the body.
mi ri
RCM =
mi
11. (b) From v = r , linear velocities (v) for particles at different
distances (r) from the axis of rotation are different.
12. (a) Since torque is rotational analogue of force F and
F = mass × acceleration, therefore torque = moment From parallel axis theorem
of inertia xangular acceleration (I ) as moment of inertia 1 3
IT I C.M . MR 2 MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
is rotational analogue of mass. 2 2
13. (c) In analogy to Newton’s second law of motion in linear 25. (d) Force in linear motion corresponds to torque in
motion, rotational motion.
Force = rate of charge of linear momentum, in angular 26. (b) Angular momentum will remain conserved as no torque
motion is exerted by the boy.
Torque = rate of change of angular momentum
27. (c) In rotation of a rigid body about a fixed axis, every
14. (b) Only the transverse component contributes to the
torque. particle of the body moves in a circle, which lies in a
15. (c) Turning moment of force = Force × distance from the plane perpendicular to the axis and has its centre on
axis of rotation. the axis.
Thus a small force is required to produce a given turning 28. (c)
moment, when distance is large. That is why handle of 29. (c) Force changes the linear momentum of the body. The
a screw is made wider. external force (or force) change the translational motion
16. (a) P = . (P = FV in translational motion) of the rigid body. But this is not the only effect of the
Since = I force. The total torque due to the force on the body
P= I changes the rotational state of motion of the rigid body.
17. (a) From L = I , we find that angular momentum is directly 30. (a)
proportional to the moment of inertia.
31. (a) Basic equation of moment of inertia is given
18. (b) A couple can produce rotational motion only and not
linear motion. n
19. (b) As L = I = constant, therefore, when I decreases, by I m i ri2
i 1
will increase.
20. (d) As angular momentum, L r p , therefore, direction
mi
of L is along a line perpendicular to the plane of ri
rotation.
21. (b) The motion of a rigid body which is not pivoted or
fixed in some way is either a pure translation or a
combination of translation and rotation. The motion of where m i is the mass of i th particle at a distance of ri
a rigid body which is pivoted or fixed in some way is
from axis of rotation.
rotation.
Thus it does not depend on angular velocity.
32. (d) Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of mass M and 47. (a) Angular momentum of particle is given by :
2
radius r about its own axis is Mr .
L = I = mr2 = 2 mr2f [ W 2 f]
33. (a)
(a) Moment of inertia of a ring about its axis and If frequency is halved then,
perpendicular to its plane = Mr2
(b) Moment of inertia of disc about its axis and L I mr 2 mr 2f
1 2
perpendicular to its plane = Mr 2 = 0.5 Mr2
2 L
(c) Moment of inertia of a solid sphere about one of its L
2
2
diameter = Mr 2 = 0.4 Mr2 48. (a) Moment of inertia of ring is greater than disc.
5
About a diameter
(d) Moment of inertia of a spherical shell about one of
1
2 1ring = MR 2
its diameter = Mr 2 = 0.66 Mr2 2
3
Therefore, the moment of inertia of the ring is highest 1
34. (a) Radius of gyration of a body depends on the axis of and Idisc = MR 2
4
rotation.
35. (d) dL
49. (b) We know that ext
36. (b) Moment of inertia is a tensor quantity. dt
if angular momentum is conserved, it means change in
37. (d) Ratio of M.I is angular momentum = 0
MAr 2 IA or, dL 0
2 IB
M B 2r dL
0 ext 0
IA 1 dt
[ MA MB ]
IB 4 Thus total external torque = 0.
IB dL c
or, I A 50. (d) We know that c
4 dt
38. (a)
39. (b) Because the entire mass of a ring is at its periphery i.e. where c Torque about the center of mass of the body
at maximum distance from the centre and I = Mr 2
40. (a) and Lc = Angular momentum about the center of mass
41. (d) Ixy, moment of inertia of a ring about its tangent in the of the body. Central forces act along the center of mass.
3 Therefore torque about center of mass is zero.
plane of ring MR 2
x1 y
=
2 When c = 0 then Lc = constt.
Moment of inertia about a tangent perpendicular to the
plane of ring Ixy = 2MR2 51. (b) P.E. of the body is converted into both translational KE
3 3 1 1
Ixy = (2MR 2 ) = MR 2 and rotational K.E i.e., P.E Mv 2 I 2
4 2 2 2
3 52. (d)
or Ixy = I x1y1 53. (d) A rigid body performs a pure rotational motion of
4
42. (d) From I = MR2, moment of inertia depends on the mass every particle of the body moves in a circle and the
and size of the body. It also depends on the distribution centres of all the circles lie on a straight line called
of mass, thus it depends on the shape of the body as the axis of rotation. Particles lying on the axis of
well. rotation remain stationary. Hence, motion of fan
43. (d) moving around the axis satisfies this criteria is purely
44. (c) A rigid body is in mechanical equilibrium if
rotational.
(i) it is in translational equilibrium and
(ii) it is in rotational equilibrium. Z
45. (b) Torque r F
d
1 r
46. (d) K.E. = mV2
2
Since V = r
1 1 O
K.E. = mV2 = m 2r2
2 2
1 2
= I ( mr2 = I) Y X
2
EBD_7208
54. (c) Frictional force acts upwards forming a couple and MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
hence creating torque on the body which increases the
angular velocity of the body. 64. (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
1 2 k 65. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
55. (a) Kinetic energy of a rolling body k = 2 mv 1 . Rolling motion combination of translatory and
R2 rotatory motion
According to law of conservation of energy, potential Rate of change of angular momentum torque
energy lost by rolling body is equal to the final kinetic
dL
energy of the body.
dt
1 k2
m gh m v2 1 Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder about axis
2 R2 = MR2
2gh Theorem of parallel axis IZ1 = IZ + Ma2
v2 66. (a) (A) (1); (B) (6); C (5); (D) (4); (E) (2)
k2 For translational equilibrium, total ext force = 0
1
R2 F 0
Thus it is independent of the mass of the bodies.
MR 2
For ring, k2 = R2 Moment of inertia of disc =
2
V= gh For rotational equilibrium, net external torque =0
For cylinder, k2 = R2/2 =0
Kinetic energy of rolling body = K. E. of translation +
4gh K. E. of rotation.
V=
3 1 1 2
K= mVcm 2 I
For solid sphere, k2 = 2R2/5 2 2
Moment of inertia of a ring = MR2
10gh 67. (d) (A) (1); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2)
V=
7 68. (c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (5)
Thus sphere has greatest and ring has least velocity of centre 69. (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (3)
of mass at the bottom of the inclined plane. 70. (a) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS

56. (d) 71. (a) When no external force acts on the binary star, its CM
57. (a) Centre of mass of a body can coincide with its will move like a free particle [Fig. (a)]. From the CM
geometrical centre when the body has a uniform mass frame, the two stars will seems to move in a circle about
density. the CM with diametrically opposite positions.
58. (c) Centre of mass does not necessarily lie only where s1
there is mass. It can lie outside the body as well. For
e.g. Centre of mass of circular ring lies in the centre of s1
the ring where there is no mass.
59. (c) Linear velocity has magnitude and direction both C
therefore it is a vector quantity. Angular velocity has a
fixed direction when a body rotates about a fixed axis.
60. (d) Centre of mass depends on the distribution of mass. s2 s2
61. (c) (a) (b)
I. A body in translatory motion shall have angular (a) Trajectories of two stars. S1 (dotted line) and S2 (solid
momentum unless the fixed point about which angular line) forming a binary system with their centre of mass
momentum is taken lies on the line of motion of the C in uniform motion
body.
(b) The same binary system, with the centre of mass C at
II. If A points vertically upwards and B points towards rest.
east then A B points towards north. So, to understand the motion of a complicated system,
62. (b) Moment of inertia is a tensor quantity. we can separate the motion of the system into two
=I for constant I parts. So, the combination of the motion of the CM and
can change only if torque acts. motion about the CM could described the motion of
63. (b) If Earth shrinks suddenly, its radius R would decrease the system.
and I =
2
MR2 would decrease. Thus, increases to 72. (a) According to parallel axis theorem of the moment of
5 Inertia
keep angular momentum constant. Hence the length of I = Icm + md2
the day will decrease. d is maximum for point B so Imax about B.
73. (b) V0
74. (d) IAX = m(AB)2 + m(OC)2 = m 2 + m ( cos 60º)2 m
= m 2 + m 2/4 = 5/4 m 2 v1 = 2V0
X
1 2
Cm Therefore, new KE = m (2V0)2 = 2mv0
O 2
60º
79. (a) VQ
v VCQ
C C
P
r r
60º
Am Bm O O
(I) (II)
75. (c) Moment of inertia of shell 1 along diameter From Fig. (I), we have OC = r (radius)
2 2
Therefore, v r
Idiameter = MR Since , = constant, therefore v r
3
Now, form Fig (II), it is clear that the distance,
Moment of inertia of shell 2 = m. i of shell 3 OP < OC < OQ VP < VC < VQ or VQ > VC > VP.
2 5
= Itengential = MR 2 MR 2 MR 2 ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
3 3
X 80. (b) 81. (c)
82. (a) If centre of mass of system lies at origin then
1
r cm 0
2 3
y
X
So, I of the system along x x1 m1 m2 x
r1 r2
= Idiameter + (Itengential) × 2
2 5
or, Itotal = MR 2 MR 2 2
3 3
m1 r1 m2 r 2
r cm
12 m1 m2
= MR 2 4MR 2
3
76. (b) The distribution of mass about axis EF is minimum so m1 r1 m2 r 2 0
radius of gyration is minimum and therefore moment of or m1r1 = m2r2
inertia is minimum about EF. 83. (b)
d
84. (b) External force on the system Fext = M v
dt cm
77. (d)
If system is isolated i.e. Fext = 0 then v cm constant
If initially the velocity of centre of mass is zero then
Weight of the rod will produce the torque it will remain zero.
85. (a) As the concept of centre of mass is only theoretical,
L mL2 ML2 therefore in practice no mass may lie at the centre of
= mg = I = Irod
2 3 3 mass. For example, centre of mass of a uniform
circular ring is at the centre of the ring where there
3g is no mass.
Hence, angular acceleration =
2L 86. (c) The position of centre of mass of a body depends on
78. (b) Applying angular momentum conservation shape, size and distribution of mass of the body. The
R0 centre of mass does not lie necessarily at the centre
mV0R0 = (m) (V1) of the body.
2
EBD_7208
87. (a) 99. (d) Radius of gyration of body is not a constant
88. (d) When particle moves with constant velocity v then quantity. Its value changes with the change in
location of the axis of rotation. Radius of gyration
its linear momentum has some finite value ( P mv) . of a body about a given axis is given as
Angular momentum (L) = Linear momentum (P) ×
Perpendicular distance of line of action of linear r12 r22 .....rn2
K
momentum form the point of rotation (d) n
So if d 0 then L 0, but if d = 0 then L may be 100. (d) For a disc rolling without slipping on a horizontal rough
zero. So we can conclude that angular momentum of surface with uniform angular velocity, the acceleration
a particle moving with constant velocity is not of lowest point of disc is directed vertically upwards
always zero. and is not zero (Due to translation part of rolling,
89. (d) The earth is not slowing down. The angular acceleration of lowest point is zero. Due to rotational
momentum of the earth – moon system is conserved. part of rolling, the tangential acceleration of lowest point
90. (a) Both the assertion and reason are true. is zero and centripetal acceleration is non-zero and
For central forces, upwards). Hence assertion is false.
dL 101. (b)
0 102. (b)
dt
103. (a) In sliding down, the entire potential energy is
L = constant converted into kinetic energy. While in rolling down
91. (c) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance of line of some part of potential energy is converted into K.E.
action of force from the axis of rotation (d). of rotation. Therefore linear velocity acquired is less.
Hence for a given applied force, torque or true 104. (c) KN = KR + KT
tendency of rotation will be high for large value of d. This equation is correct for any body which is rolling
If distance d is smaller, then greater force is required with slipping
to cause the same torque, hence it is harder to open For the ring and hollow cylinder only KR = KT i.e. KN
or shut down the door by applying a force near the = 2KT
hinge.
dL
92. (b) and L = I
dt 105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (a)
93. (a) Torque

dL m1d
dt
= 0, L = constant. 110. (c) m1d = m2 d2 d2
m2
I = constant
is constants as long as I is constant. m1 x1 m2 x2 m3 x3
94. (d) Torque is a vector whose direction is perpendicular to 111. (a) X cm
m1 m2 m3
F since r F.
95. (d) The moment of inertia of a rigid body reduces to its 300 (0) 500(40) 400 70
X cm
minimum value, when the axis of rotation passes 300 500 400
through its centre of gravity because the weight of a
500 40 400 70
rigid body always acts through its centre of gravity. X cm
96. (c) An ice-skater stretches out arms and legs during 1200
performance to take advantage of principle of 50 70 120
conservation of angular momentum. As on doing so, X cm = 40 cm
3 3
their moment of inertia increases or decreases
respectively and hence the angular velocity of spin 112. (a) Does not shift as no external force acts. The centre of
motion decreases or increases accordingly. mass of the system continues its original path. It is
97. (c) As the polar ice melts, water so formed flows towards only the internal forces which comes into play while
the equator. The moment of inertia of the earth breaking.
increases. To conserve angular momentum, angular 113. (b) Let the mass per unit area be .
velocity decreases. This increases the length (T = 2 Then the mass of the complete disc
/ ) of the day. [ (2R)2 ] 4 R2
98. (d) The moment of inertia of a particle about an axis of
rotation is given by the product of the mass of the 2R
particle and the square of the perpendicular distance
of the particle from the axis of rotation. For different
axis, distance would be different, therefore moment of O R
inertia of a particle changes with the change in axis
of rotation.
118. (a) As mass decreases, moment of inertia I decreases. Since
The mass of the removed disc ( R2 ) R2
L = I is constant, therefore increases.
Let us consider the above situation to be a complete 119. (a) When sand is poured on a rotating disc, the effective
disc of radius 2R on which a disc of radius R of negative mass of the disc increases.
mass is superimposed. Let O be the origin. Then the According to the law of conservation of angular
above figure can be redrawn keeping in mind the momentum
concept of centre of mass as : L = I = constant
R
4 R2 As the mass of the disc increases, its moment of
inertia increases and therefore, its angular velocity
O R2 decreases.
120. (b)
4 R2 0 R2 R 121. (d) When person suddenly draw his hands and weights
Xc.m towards his chest, the moment of inertia (I = mr2) of
4 R2 R2
the person decreases.
R2 R According to law of conservation of angular
x c.m
3 R2 momentum if no external torque acts on a system,
then the angular momentum of the system remains
R
x c.m conserved, ie,
3 L = I = constant
1 or I1 1 = I2 2
3 As the moment of inertia decreases, the angular
m1x1 m 2 x 2 m 3 x 3 velocity will increase and therefore, person will rotate
114. (d) XCM
m1 m 2 m 3 faster.
122. (b) A raw egg behaves like a spherical shell and a half
1 0 1 3 1 0 boiled egg behaves like a solid sphere
1
1 1 1
Ir 2 / 3 m r2 5
m1 y1 m 2 y2 m3 y3 1
Is 2 3
YCM 2/5 mr
m1 m 2 m3
123. (b) Since no external torque act on gymnast, so angular
1 0 1 0 1 4 4 momentum (L=I ) is conserved. After pulling her arms
1 1 1 3 & legs, the angular velocity increases but moment of
inertia of gymnast, decreases in, such a way that angular
4 momentum remains constant.
Therefore the coordinates of centre of mass are 1,.
3 124. (c) In a hollow sphere, the mass is distributed away from
115. (a) When angular acceleration ( ) is zero then torque on the axis of rotation. So, its moment of inertia is
the wheel becomes zero. greater than that of a solid sphere.
(t) = 2t3 – 6t2 125. (d) It decreases his moment of inertia and increases his
angular velocity.
d 126. (b) Because radius of the sphere will be very less in
6t 12t
dt comparison to ring (although mass is equal).
127. (d) × t = L0 { since Lf = 0}
d2 × t=I
12t 12 0
dt or × 60 = 2 × 2 × 60 /60
t = 1 sec. 60
116. (a) Tube may be treated as a particle of mass M at distance ( f 60rpm 2 f 2
60
L/2 from one end.
ML 2 N m
2 15
Centripetal force Mr
2 128. (d) Angular momentum will be conserved
117. (b) Since no external torque is applied on planet + sun
system, hence the angular momentum of the planet I1
I1 = I 1 ' + I 2 '
about the sun is constant. I1 I 2
since L = mrv
y1 y1
(i) At the nearest point, r is minimum, so v is maximum
to conserve L. 129. (d) Circular disc (1)
(ii) At the farthest point, r is maximum, so v is minimum
to conserve L.
EBD_7208
MR 2 n m
Iy
1 4
A
MR 2 5 D
Iy MR 2 MR 2
1 4 4
y2 y2
Circular ring (2)

B
C
MR 2 n' m'
Iy
2 2 DB 2a a
Also, DO
2 2 2
MR 2 3
Iy MR 2 MR 2 According to parallel axis theorem
2 2 2 2
a Ma 2 Ma 2
Imm ' Inn ' M
Iy MK 12 , I y2 MK 22 2 6 2
1
Ma 2 3Ma 2 2
Iy Ma 2
K12 1 6 3
K1 : K 2 5: 6 134. (a) Moment of inertia of the whole system about the axis
K 22 Iy
2 of rotation will be equal to the sum of the moments of
inertia of all the particles.
2
L Y
130. (d) K L2 = 2KI L 2 KI
2I
(0, 3, 0)
L1 K1 I1 K I 1 3 kg
L2 K2 I 2 K 2I 2 X
(0, 0, 9) (2, 0, 0)
(–2,–2, 0) 1 kg 2 kg
L1 : L2= 1 : 2 4 kg
131. (b) By theorem of parallel axes, I = I 1 + I2 + I3 + I4
I = Icm + Md2 = 0 + 0 + 27 + 16 = 43 kg m2
I = I0 + M (L/2)2 = I0 + ML2/4 135. (d) For circular disc 1
mass = M, radius R1 = R
132. (c) moment of inertia I1 = I0
D C For circular disc 2, of same thickness t,
n
O mass = M, density =
/2 2
A B then R 2 t 2
R 12 t M
2
R22 = 2R12
n' R2 = 2R1 2R
Inn' = M.I due to the point mass at B + As we know, moment of inertia I (Radius)2
M.I due to the point mass at D + 2
M.I due to the point mass at C. I1 R1
2
I2 R2
2
I nn ' 2 m m( 2 ) 2 I0 R
2 I 2 2I0
I2 2R
2 2 2 136. (d) Given : speed V = 54 kmh–1 = 15 ms–1
m 2m 3m Moment of inertia, I = 3 kgm2
Time t = 15s
1 Ma 2
133. (d) Inn' M(a 2 a2 )
12 6 V 15 100 =0
i= = f
r 0.45 3
a
f= i+ t
F
100 100
Mass = m
0= + (– ) (15) = O
3 45
Average torque transmitted by brakes to the wheel
f
100 And, torque =I
= (I) ( ) = 3 × = 6.66 kgm2s–2
45 2
mR
fR
137. (c) Work required to set the rod rotating with angular 2
velocity 0 mR 2 a a
fR
1 2 2 R R
K.E. = I
2 ma
Work is minimum when I is minimum. f ...(ii)
2
I is minimum about the centre of mass Put this value in equation (i),
So, (m1) (x) = (m2) (L – x)
ma 3ma
or, m1x = m2L – m2x ma = F – or F
2 2
m 2L 142. (d) For a thin uniform square sheet
x= m m
1 2 ma 2
I1 = I2 = I3 =
138. (d) From Newton's second law for rotational motion, 12
dL
= , if L = constant then =0
dt
So, = r F = 0 I1
2iˆ 6ˆj 12kˆ ( î 3jˆ 6k)

ˆ 0
I2
Solving we get = –1 I3
143. (a) Angular momentum,
139. (d) Here = 2 revolutions/s2 = 4 rad/s2 (given)
L0 = mvr sin 90°
1 1 = 2 × 0.6 × 12 × 1 × 1
Icylinder = MR 2 (50)(0.5) 2
2 2 [As V = r , Sin 90° = 1]
So, L0 = 14.4 kgm2/s
25
= Kg-m2
4
As = I so TR = I
o 0.6m
25
(4 )
I 4
T= N = 50 N = 157 N 0.8m
R (0.5) 1m
140. (c) By torque balancing about B
NA (d) = W (d – x)
O
W(d – x)
NA 144. (b) Centre of mass of the rod is given by:
d
NA NB L
bx2
(ax ) dx
L
A B xcm 0
L
bx
(a )dx
d L
0
x d–x
aL2 bL2 L
a b
W 2 3 2 3
141. (c) From figure,
bL b
ma = F – f ....(i) aL a
2 2
EBD_7208
0 –
b a Angular retardation =
t
7L 3 2
Now 60 0
12 b =rad s –2
a 120 2
2 150. (a) From the relation, angular momentum, L = mvr
On solving we get, b = 2a L
145. (d) Centre of mass is at rest v=
mr
VCM = 0 Centripetal force acting on the particle
2
L
1 2 k2 2 m
mv mv mr L2
KErot 2 R2 K2 2 F=
146. (d) = = 0.4 r r mr 3
KEtrans 1 2 R 2 5 151. (c) Torque working on th e bob of mass m is,
mv
2 mg sin . (Direction parallel to plane of rotation
2 2 of particle)
k2 =
R
5
Therefore it is a solid sphere.
2 l l
147. (a) Here a R
3
4 3 m mg
R
Now, M 3 As is perpendicular to L , direction of L changes
M a3 but magnitude remains same.
1 1 2
4 3
R 152. (b) mgh mv 2 lw
3 3 2 2
3
. a
2 2
2 1 1 MR 2 V
R mv2
3 2 2 2 R
2M 1 1 2 3 2
M mv2 mv mv
3 2 4 4
Moment of inertia of the cube about the given axis, 1 1 4
Rotation K.E. mv 2 mgh
M a2 4 4 3
I
6 mgh
2 9.8 (3 / 3) 19.6J
2 3
2M 2 153. (b) Time of descent will be less for solid sphere.
R
3 3 4MR 2 i.e., solid, sphere will reach first at the bottom of
6 9 3 inclined plane.
154. (b) In pure rolling, mechanical energy remains conserved.
148. (d) According to law of conservation of angular Therefore, when heights of inclines are equal, speed
momentum, of sphere will be same in both the case. But as
I1 1 I 2 2 = I1 I 2 acceleration down the plane, a sin . Therefore,
Substituting the values of = 2 rad s–1 acceleration and time of descent will be different.
1 155. (a) For solid sphere rolling without slipping on inclined
–1
2 = 5 rad s plane, acceleration
= I 10–3 kg m2
2
I1 2 + 1 10–3, 5 = (I1 + 1 10–3) 4 g sin
a1 =
2I1 + 5 10–3 = 4I1 + 4 10–3 K2
1
2I1 = 1 10–3 R2
1 10 –3 For solid sphere slipping on inclined plane without
I1 = 0.5 10 –3 kg m 2 rolling, acceleration
2 a2 = g sin
149. (c) Given, no. of rotation n = 1800 rpm = 1800 rps
a
Time, t = 2 minutes = 120s Therefore required ratio = 1
a2
2 1800
Initial angular speed 0= rad s –1
60 1 1 5
= 60 rad s–1 = 2 2
K 7
Final angular speed (as wheel comes to rest) 1 1
=0 R2 5
8
GRAVITATION
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and
the gravitational force between them is F. The space
1. Newton's universal law of gravitation applies to around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific
(a) small bodies only gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be
(b) planets only (a) 3 F (b) F
(c) both small and big bodies
F F
(d) only valid for solar system (c) (d)
3 9
2. For a particle inside a uniform spherical shell, the
gravitational force on the particle is 9. Consider Earth to be a homogeneous sphere. Scientist A
(a) infinite (b) zero goes deep down in a mine and scientist B goes high up in a
balloon. The gravitational field measured by
G m1 m2 G m1 m2
(c) (d) (a) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on increasing
2
r r2 (b) B goes on decreasing and that by A goes on increasing
3. The value of G varies with (c) each decreases at the same rate
(a) height above the earth's surface (d) each decreases at different rates
(b) depth below the ground 10. In some region, the gravitational field is zero. The
(c) radius of the planet gravitational potential in this region.
(d) None of these (a) must be variable (b) must be constant
4. Force of gravitational attraction is least (c) cannot be zero (d) must be zero
(a) at the equator 11. Where will it be profitable to purchase one kilogram sugar?
(b) at the poles (a) At poles (b) At equator
(c) at a point in between equator and any pole (c) At 45° latitude (d) At 40° latitude
(d) None of these 12. At sea level, a body will have minimum weight at
5. The ratio of the inertial mass to gravitational mass is equal to (a) pole (b) equator
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 42° south latitude (d) 37° north latitude
(c) 2 (d) no fixed number 13. Earth is flattened at poles, bulged at the equator. This is due
6. Who among the following gave first the experimental value to
of G (a) the angular velocity of spinning about its axis is less at
(a) Cavendish (b) Copernicus equator
(c) Brok Taylor (d) None of these (b) the angular velocity of spinning about its axis is more
7. Mass of the Earth has been determined through at equator
(c) the centrifugal force is more at the equator than at the
T2
(a) use of Kepler's constancy law and Moon's period poles
R3 (d) earth revolves round the sun in an elliptical orbit
(b) sampling the density of Earth's crust and using Earth's 14. In a gravitational field, at a point where the gravitational
radius potential is zero
(c) Cavendish's determination of G and using Earth radius (a) the gravitational field is necessarily zero
and g at its surface (b) the gravitational field is not necesarily zero
(d) use of periods of satellites at different heights above (c) any value between one and infinite
Earth's surface and known radius of Earth (d) None of these
EBD_7208
116 GRAVITATION
15. There are _______ gravitational lines of force inside a 26. If the distance of earth is halved from the sun, then the no.
spherically symmetric shell. of days in a year will be
(a) infinitely many (a) 365 (b) 182.5
(b) zero (c) 730 (d) 129
(c) varying number depending upon surface area 27. In planetary motion
(d) varying number depending upon volume (a) the angular speed remains constant
16. Intensity of the gravitational field inside the solid sphere is (b) the total angular momentum remains constant
(a) variable (proportional to distance from centre) (c) the linear speed remains constant
(b) constant
(d) neither the angular momentum nor angular speed
(c) variable (does not depend on distance from the centre) remains constant
(d) zero 28. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of areal velocity
17. Intensity of the gravitational field inside the hollow of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of
spherical shell is
(a) variable (b) minimum (a) energy (b) angular momentum
(c) maximum (d) zero (c) linear momentum (d) None of these
18. The value of acceleration due to gravity on moving from 29. In planetary motion, the angular momentum conservation
equator to poles will leads to the law of
(a) decrease (b) increase (a) orbits
(c) remain same (d) become half
(b) areas
19. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is
(c) periods
(a) zero
(b) infinite (d) conservation of kinetic energy
(c) same as on the surface of earth 30. Weightlessness experienced while orbiting the earth in
(d) None of these spaceship is the result of
20. In motion of an object under the influence of gravitational (a) inertia
force of another object, which of the following quantity is (b) acceleration
not conserved? (c) zero gravity
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum (d) centre of gravity
(c) Total mechanical energy 31. If the earth is at one-fourth of its present distance from the
(d) None of these sun, the duration of the year will be
21. As we go down below the earth's surface, the acceleration (a) half the present year
due to gravity decreases by a factor (d distance, R (b) one-eighth the present year
radius of earth) (c) one-sixth the present year
d R (d) one-tenth the present year
(a) 1 (b) 1
R d 32. Time period of a simple pendulum inside a satellite orbiting
d earth is
(c) 1 (d) remains constant
R (a) zero (b)
22. There is no atmosphere on moon, because of (c) T (d) 2 T
(a) smaller value of G (b) smaller value of g 33. Which of the following is always positive?
(c) smaller value of R (d) smaller value of m (a) Potential energy of an object
23. If measured by a spring balance, then 1 kg of salt will weigh (b) Total energy of a satellite
more at (c) Kinetic energy (d) None of these
(a) equator (b) poles 34. The distance of neptune and saturn from the sun is nearly
(c) centre of earth (d) same at all places
1013 and 1012 meter respectively. Assuming that they move
24. The gravitational potential energy associated with two
in circular orbits, their periodic times will be in the ratio
particles separated by a distance r, when r , is given by
(a) 10 (b) 100
G m1 m2 G m1 m2
(a) (b) (c) 10 10 (d) 1000
r r
(c) zero (d) infinity 35. A person sitting in a chair in a satellite feels weightless
because
4 2 (a) the earth does not attract the objects in a satellite
25. For elliptical orbits, in the equation T2 = R3
GMs (b) the normal force bythe chair on the person balances
R refers to the earth's attraction
(a) radius of orbit (b) major axis (c) the normal force is zero
(c) semi-minor axis (d) semi-major axis (d) the person in satellite is not accelerated.
GRAVITATION 117
36. The relay satellite transmits the TV programme 44. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is
continuously from one part of the world to another because independent of
its (a) the mass of the planet
(a) period is greater than the period of rotation of the earth
(b) the radius of the planet
(b) period is less than the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis (c) the mass of the satellite
(c) period has no relation with the period of the earth (d) All of the above
about its axis 45. If a satellite is orbiting the earth very close to its surface, then
(d) period is equal to the period of rotation of the earth the orbital velocity mainly depends on
about its axis
(a) the mass of the satellite
37. To an astronaut in a spaceship the sky appears black due to
(a) absence of atmosphere in his neighbourhood (b) the radius of earth
(b) light from the sky is absorbed by the medium (c) the orbital radius
surrounding him (d) the mass of earth
(c) the fact at that height, sky radiations are only in the 46. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving
infra-red and the ultraviolet region round the earth in circular orbits of radii r1 and r 2 (r1 > r2)
(d) None of these
respectively. Which of the following statements is true
38. To have an earth synchronous satellite it should be launched
regarding their velocities v1 and v2?
at the proper height moving from
(a) north to south in a polar plane (a) v1 = v2 (b) v1 < v2
(b) east to west in an equatorial plane (c) v1 > v2 (d) (v1 / r2) = (v2 / r2)
(c) south to north in a polar plane 47. The escape velocity of a body depends upon mass as
(d) west to east in an equatorial plane (a) m0 (b) m1
39. A missile is launched with a velocity less than escape
(c) m2 (d) m3.
velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energies is
(a) zero 48. The minimum velocity of projection to go out from the
(b) negative earth’s gravitational pull is called
(c) positive (a) terminal velocity (b) escape velocity
(d) may be positive, negative or zero. (c) angular velocity (d) orbital velocity
40. The orbital speed of Jupiter is 49. There is no atmosphere on the moon because
(a) greater than the orbital speed of earth
(a) it is closer to the earth
(b) less than the orbital speed of earth
(c) equal to the orbital speed of earth (b) it revolves round the earth
(d) zero (c) it gets light from the sun
41. The total energy of a circularly orbiting satellite is (d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is lesser than
(a) twice the kinetic energy of the satellite their root mean square velocity
(b) half the kinetic energy of the satellite
50. The escape velocity of a projectile from the earth is
(c) twice the potential energy of the satellite
approximately
(d) half the potential energy of the satellite
42. Geo-stationary satellite is one which (a) 7 km/sec (b) 112 km/sec
(a) remains stationary at a fixed height from the earth’s (c) 11.2 km/sec (d) 1.1 km/sec
surface 51. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface
(b) revolves like other satellites but in the opposite of a given planet is independent of
direction of earth’s rotation (a) radius of the planet
(c) revolves round the earth at a suitable height with same
angular velocity and in the same direction as earth (b) the direction of projection
does about its own axis (c) the mass of the planet
(d) None of these (d) None of these
43. An artificial satellite orbiting the earth does not fall down 52. Escape speed on the moon is _______ than escape speed
because the earth’s attraction on the earth.
(a) is balanced by the attraction of the moon (a) five times smaller (b) five times greater
(b) vanishes at such distances (c) six times greater (d) six times smaller
(c) is balanced by the viscous drag produced by the 53. The orbit traced by planet around a star is in general
atmosphere (a) a circle (b) an ellipse
(d) produces the necessary acceleration of its motion in
(c) a parabola (d) a straight line
a curved path
EBD_7208
118 GRAVITATION
54. If Ve is escape speed from the earth and Vp is that from a shell. Consider the following two statements and select the
planet of half the radius of earth, then correct statement(s).
Vp I. The plot of V against r is discontinuous
(a) Ve = Vp (b) Ve =
2 II. The plot of E against r is discontinuous.
Vp (a) Both I and II (b) I only
(c) Ve = 2Vp (d) Ve =
4 (c) II only (d) None of these
55. In which of the following cases, a person feels weightless? 64. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
(a) A person standing on the moon I. The orbital velocity of a satellite increases with the
(b) A person sitting in an artificial satellite of earth
radius of the orbit
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these II. Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the
56. When does the object in a satellite escapes to infinity? earth depends on the speed with which it is fired
(a) When the total energy is positive III. The time period of a satellite does not depend onthe
(b) When total energy is zero radius of the orbit
(c) Both (a) & (b) IV. The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to the
(d) None of these sequare root of the radius of the orbit.
57. In case of a circular orbiting satellite which option is correct
(a) I and II (b) I and IV
for its energies?
(a) Kinetic energy is negative (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
(b) Potential energy is positive 65. Which of the following is/are not a relevant statement(s) to
(c) Total energy is positive Kepler's laws of planetary motion?
(d) None of these I. Kepler's second law is based on law of conservation of
58. What is the distance of a geostationary satellite from the angular momentum.
earth's centre? II. Every planet revolves around the sun in circular orbits
(a) 4.22 × 104 km (b) 4.22 × 104 m
6 with sun at the centre of the orbit.
(c) 4.22 × 10 km (d) 4.22 × 106 m
III. Planets situated at larger distances from the sun take
59. Persons sitting in artificial satellite of the earth have
(a) zero mass (b) zero weight longer time to complete one rotation
(c) certain definite weight (d) infinite weight (a) I only (b) II only
66. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
statement(s) from the following.
60. Consider the following statements and select the correct I. When height of a satellite is increased, its potential
statement(s). energy increases & kinetic energy decrease
I. Gravitational force may be attractive or repulsive II. When speed of satellite increases, the total energy
II. Gravitational force between two particles is independent increases & it starts orbiting in a circular path
of presence of other particles
III. For a satellite orbiting in circular orbit, the kinetic energy
III. Gravitational force is a short-range force
is always greater than potential energy
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) II and III
61. For a body taken to the moon which of the following (c) III only (d) I, II and III
statements is/are true?
I. Weight of the body will become 1\6 of that on earth MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
II. Inertial mass remains the same
III. Gravitational mass remains the same
(a) I only (b) II only Column I Column II
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (A) Force between any two bodies (1) Maximum at the
62. Which of the given statements is/are true? earth’s surface
I. Motion of a particle under a central force is always (B) Acceleration due to gravity (2) Always attractive
confined to a plane (C) Escape velocity (3) gR
II. Under the influence of central force, position vector
sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time (D) Orbital velocity (4) 2. gR
(a) I only (d) II only (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) Both (I) and (II) (d) None of these (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
63. Let V and E be the gravitational potential and gravitational (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
field at a distance r from the centre of a uniform spherical (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
GRAVITATION 119
68. Column I Column II 72. Two concentric spherical shells are as shown in figure. Match
the following:
2h
(A) Gravitational force Fg (1) g 1–
R B
A
(B) gsurface of earth (2) G Mm D
R2
C
(C) Escape velocity (3) 2gR
(D)
g height (4) GM/R2
(a)
(A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(b)
(A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
Column I Column II
(c)
(A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(A) Potential at A (1) greater than B
(d)
(A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(B) Gravitational field at A (2) less than B
(C) As one moves from C to D (3) potential remains
(A) Gravitational constant (1) Law of periods
constant
(B) g h (2) 24 Hrs (D) As one moves from D to A (4) gravitational field
(C) T 2 R3 (3) 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2kg–2 decreases
(D) Time period of a (5) None
2h (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
geostationary satellite (4) g0 1 –
R (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (d) (A) (5) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) 73. Column I Column II
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (A) Acceleration due (1) 2g R E
70. Column I Column II to gravity
(A) Weight (1) Minimum
Gm1m 2
(B) gequator (2) Zero (B) Escape speed (2)
r
(C) g poles (3) Vector (C) Total energy of a (3) Gm/R2
(D) g centre (4) Maximum satellite
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) Gm1m 2
(D) Gravitational potential (4)
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 2(R h)
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) energy.
(d) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
71. On the surface of earth acceleration due to gravity is g and (b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
gravitational potential is V. Match the following:
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
Column I Column -II 74. Column I Column II
(A) At height h = R, (1) decreases by a (A) Potential energy (1) Positive
value of g factor 1/4 of satellite
(B) At depth h = R/2, (2) decreases by a (B) Total energy of (2) Negative
value of g factor 1/2 satellite
(C) At height h = R/2, (3) decreases by a (C) kinetic energy of (3) Zero
satellite
value of g factor 3/4
(D) Gravitational (4) Infinite
(D) At depth h = R / 4, (4) decreases by a potential energy of
value of g factor 2/3 satellite at infinity
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (c) (A) (2); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(d) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
EBD_7208
120 GRAVITATION
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 9 GMm 5 GMm

(a) (b)
d2 d2
75. In the figure, the direction of gravitational force on m1 due
to m2 is along 3 GMm GMm
(c) (d)
d2 d2
y 78. A planet is revolving around the sun as shown in elliptical
m1 r path
m2
r1 B
r2
A C
O x S
D
The correct option is
z
(a) the time taken in travelling DAB is less than that for
BCD
(a) r1 (b) r2
(b) the time taken in travelling DAB is greater than that for
(c) r (d) r ABC
76. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation (c) the time taken in travelling CDA is less than that for
of acceleration due to gravity with the height above the ABC
earth's surface? (d) the time taken in travelling CDA is greater than that for
g ABC
g 79. The gravitational field strength due to a solid sphere (mass
M, radius R) varies with distance r from centre as
E
E
(a) (b)
R
O r O r (a) r (b) r
R
E E

(c) R r (d) R r
O r
77. A central particle M is surrounded by a square array of other 80. The gravitational potential due to a hollow sphere
particles, separated by either distance d or distance d/2 along (mass M, radius R) varies with distance r from centre as
the perimeter of the square. The magnitude of the V
V
gravitational force on the central particle due to the other
particles is
(a) R r (b) R r
2m 3m
4m
7m 5m
V V
R
3m
M
5m 7m R
(c) r (d) r
2m
4m 3m
GRAVITATION 121
81. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun 87. Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity i.e. 'g' is
S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t 1 different at different places on the surface of earth.
is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the Reason: Earth is flattened at poles and bulging out at the
time to move from A to B then equator. Therefore radius is smaller at poles and larger at
v 1
m equator and g , so, g is smaller at equator than at
R2
B C poles.
88. Assertion: A body loses weight when it is at the centre of
S the earth.
A D Reason: At the centre of earth, g = 0
weight = mg = 0.
89. Assertion: The gain in potential energy of an object of mass m
(a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2 1
(c) t1 = t2 (d) t1 > t2 raised to height equal to the radius of earth is mg R
2
82. Two satellites of masses m and 2m are revolving around a
1
planet of mass M with different speeds in orbits of radii r Reason: Kinetic energy at surface = P.E at the top mv2
and 2r respectively. The ratio of minimum and maximum forces 2
on the planet due to satellites is 1
and at the top v = gR . PE = mgR.
1 2
(a) r 90. Assertion : The tidal waves in sea are primarily due to the
2
gravitational effect of earth.
1 2r M
(b) Reason : The intensity of gravitational field of earth is
4
maximum at the surface of earth.
1 91. Assertion : Smaller the orbit of the planet around the sun,
(c)
3 shorter is the time it takes to complete one revolution.
(d) None of these Reason : According to Kepler's third law of planetary motion,
square of time period is proportional to cube of mean distance
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS from sun.
92. Assertion : Moon travellers tie heavy weight at their back
before landing on the moon.
Reason : The acceleration due to gravity on moon is smaller
than that of earth.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 93. Assertion : Generally, the path of a projectile from the earth
explanation for assertion. is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a large height.
correct explanation for assertion Reason : The path of a projectile is independent of the
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect gravitational force of earth.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 94. Assertion : Gravitational potential is maximum at infinity.
Reason : Gravitational potential is the amount of work done
83. Assertion : Gravitational force between two particles is to shift a unit mass from infinity to a given point in
negligibly small compared to the electrical force. gravitational attraction force field.
Reason : The electrical force is experienced by charged 95. Assertion : Gravitational potential of earth at every place
particles only. on it is negative.
84. Assertion : A body becomes massless at the centre of earth. Reason : Every body on earth is bound by the attraction
d of earth.
Reason : This follows from g' = g 1
R 96. Assertion : For the planets orbiting around the sun, angular
85. Assertion : If earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis,
speed, linear speed and K.E. changes with time, but angular
then the value of acceleration due to gravity will become
momentum remains constant.
same at all the places.
Reason : No torque is acting on the rotating planet. So its
Reason : The value of acceleration due to gravity depends
upon the rotation of the earth. angular momentum is constant.
86. Assertion : Space rockets are usually launched in the 97. Assertion: Planets appear to move slower when they are
equatorial line from west to east. farther from the sun than when they are nearer.
Reason : The acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the Reason: All planets move in elliptical orbits with sun at one
equator. of the foci of the ellipse.
EBD_7208
122 GRAVITATION
98. Assertion: The escape velocity on the moon is much higher 110. Both earth and moon are subject to the gravitational force
than that on the earth. of the sun. As observed from the sun, the orbit of the
moon
Reason: Ve = 2g / R
(a) will be elliptical
Thus for lower R, Ve on moon is higher. (b) will not be strictly elliptical because the total
99. Assertion : The escape speed does not depend on the gravitational force on it is not central.
direction in which the projectile is fired. (c) is not elliptical but will necessarily be a closed curve.
Reason : Attaining the escape speed is easier if a projectile (d) deviates considerably from being elliptical due to
is fired in the direction the launch site is moving as the earth influence of planets other than earth.
rotates about its axis. 111. Two identical spheres of gold are in contact with each other.
100. Assertion : If an object is projected from earth surface with The gravitational attraction between them is
escape velocity path of object will be parabola. (a) directly proportional to the square of the radius
Reason : When object is projected with velocity less than (b) directly proportional to the cube of the radius
escape velocity from horizontal surface and greater than (c) directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius
orbital velocity path of object will be ellipse. (d) inversely proportional to the square of the radius
101. Assertion : The atmosphere of Jupiter contains light gases, 112. Two air bubbles in water
where as earth’s atmosphere has little amount of hydrogen (a) attract each other
gas. (b) repel each other
Reason : The escape velocity from the Jupiter is smaller (c) neither attract nor repel
than the escape velocity from the earth. (d) None of these
102. Assertion : An astronaut in an orbiting space station above 113. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth
the earth experiences weightlessness. and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the
Reason : An object moving around earth under the influence satellite will
of earth s gravitational force is in a state of free fall. (a) continue to move in its orbit with same velocity
103. Assertion : Space rocket are usually launched in the (b) move tangentialy to the original orbit in the same
equatorial line from west to east velocity
Reason : The acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the (c) become stationary in its orbit
equator. (d) move towards the earth
104. Assertion : Orbital velocity of a satellite is greater than its 114. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ go around a circle of radius
escape velocity. R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction.
Reason : Orbit of a satellite is within the gravitational field The speed of each particle with respect to their centre of
of earth whereas escaping is beyond the gravitational field mass is
of earth. Gm Gm
105. Assertion : Escape velocity is independent of the angle of (a) (b)
4R 3R
projection.
Reason : Escape velocity from the surface of earth is 2gR Gm Gm
(c) (d)
where R is radius of earth. 2R R
106. Assertion : If the total energy of a satellite moving around 115. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the
earth is E, its potential energy is 2 E. surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the
Reason : Total energy E = KE + PE. surface of earth. When both ‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller
107. Assertion : The speed of satellite always remains constant than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is
in an orbit. correct ?
Reason : The speed of a satellite depends on its path. 3h h
108. Assertion : A person sitting in an artificial satellite revolving (a) d = (b) d =
2 2
around earth feels weightless.
(c) d = h (d) d =2 h
Reason : There is no gravitational force on the satellite.
116. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes
g
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (where g = the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
9
of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is
109. If three equal masses m are placed at the three vertices of an
equilateral triangle of side 1/m then what force acts on a R
(a) (b) R / 2
particle of mass 2m placed at the centroid? 2
(a) Gm2 (b) 2Gm2 (c) 2R (d) 2 R
(c) Zero (d) –Gm2
GRAVITATION 123
117. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of Gm
earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the (a) Zero (b) 4 2
a
planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the
radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be Gm Gm 2
(c) 4 2 (d) 4 2
(a) ½ R (b) 2 R a a
(c) 4 R (d) 1/4 R 126. If value of acceleration due to gravity is 'g' at a height 50 km
118. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of above the surface of earth, then at what depth inside the
earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the earth will the acceleration due to gravity be same as 'g'?
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and (a) 100 km (b) 50 km
that on the surface of the new planet is g’, then (c) 25 km (d) 75 km
(a) g’ = g/9 (b) g’ = 27g 127. The tail of the comet Halley is directed away from the sun
(c) g’= 9g (d) g’ = 3g due to the fact that
119. Average density of the earth (a) the comet rotates around the sun the lighter mass of
(a) is a complex function of g the comet is pushed away due to centrifugal force
(b) does not depend on g only
(c) is inversely proportional to g (b) the comet rotates the lighter mass of the comet is
(d) is directly proportional to g attracted by some star situated in the direction of the
120. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining tail
its shape. The gravitational potential at the centre (c) the radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radiation
(a) increases (b) decreases pressure of the comet throwing its tail away from the
(c) remains constant (d) cannot say sun
121. If the earth were to rotates faster than its present speed, the (d) the tail of the comet always exists in the same
weight of an object will orientation
(a) increase at the equator but remain unchanged at the 128. The time period T of the moon of planet Mars (mass M m) is
poles related to its orbital radius R (G = Gravitational constant) as
(b) decrease at the equator but remain unchanged at the
2
poles 4 2R3 4 GR 3
(c) remain unchanged at the equator but decrease at the (a) T2 (b) T2
GM m Mm
poles
(d) remain unchanged at the equator but increase at the
2 R 3G
poles (c) T2 (d) T2 = 4 MmGR3
122. At what height from the ground will the value of g be the Mm
same as that in 10 km deep mine below the surface of earth? 129. The planet mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around
(a) 20 km (b) 10 km the sun as shown in fig. The kinetic energy of mercury will
(c) 15 km (d) 5 km be greatest at D
123. The earth is an approximate sphere. If the interior (a) A C
contained matter which is not of the same density (b) B A SUN B
everywhere, then on the surface of the earth, the (c) C
acceleration due to gravity (d) D E
(a) will be directed towards the centre but not the same 130. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of
everywhere. 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of the
(b) will have the same value everywhere but not directed earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height
towards the centre. of 2R from the surface of the earth is
(c) will be same everywhere in magnitude and directed (a) 5 (b) 10
towards the centre. 6
(c) 6 2 (d)
(d) Cannot be zero at any point. 2
124. If a person goes to height equal to the radius of the earth, 131. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical
from its surface, then his weight (w ) relative to the weight shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential
on earth (w) will be a
at a point situated at distance from the centre, will be
(a) W = W (b) W = 2W 2
4
3GM 2 GM
(a) (b)
(c) W = W (d) W = W a a
2
125. The gravitational potential at the centre of a square of side GM 4 GM
'a' and four equal masses (m each) placed at the corners of a (c) (d)
a a
square is
EBD_7208
124 GRAVITATION
132. The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from (a) 1.1 km s–1 (b) 11 km s–1
the earth's surface out into free space. The value of g and R (c) 110 km s –1 (d) 0.11 km s–1
(radius of earth) are 10 m/s2 and 6400 km respectively. The 135. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio
required energy for this work will be of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(a) 6.4 × 1011J (b) 6.4 × 108 J
9 1 1
(c) 6.4 × 10 J (d) 6.4 × 1010 J (a) (b)
2 2
133. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of
the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the (c) 2 (d) 2
earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant
136. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the
and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A is
earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not
3 V, then the speed of satellite B will be
return back to earth, is
(a) 3 V/4 (b) 6 V
2GM 2GM (c) 12 V (d) 3 V/2
(a) (b) 137. What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of
R R2
mass m from the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R
2GM in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R?
(c) 2gR 2 (d)
R2 5GmM 2GmM
(a) (b)
134. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive 6R 3R
than the earth and its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that
the escape velocity from the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape GmM GmM
(c) (d)
velocity from the surface of the planet would be 2R 2R
GRAVITATION 125
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 19. (a) The weight (= mg) of the body at the centre of the earth
is zero, because the value of g at centre is zero.
1. (c) It is applicable to both small & big bodies. 20. (a) In the motion of an object under gravitational influence
2. (b) Various regions of spherical shell attract the point mass of another object, angular momentum and total
inside it in various directions. These forces cancel each mechanical energy is conserved but linear momentum
other completely. Therefore the gravitational force on is not conserved.
the particle is zero. 21. (c) Acceleration due to gravity g varies with dpth as
3. (d) G is a universal gravitational constant as the value of G
is same for all pairs of bodies situated anywhere in the d
g = g 1
universe. RE
4. (a) The gravitational force of attraction on a body of 22. (b) Because of smaller value of acceleration due to gravity
mass m is given by on moon, the value of escape velocity is small there.
GMm The molecules of atmospheric gases have thermal
F speeds much greater than the escape velocity. So all
R2
the molecules have escaped and there is no atmosphere.
1 23. (b) Value of g is larger at poles than the equator so, if salt
Therefore, F 2 is weighed by a spring balance 1 kg will weigh more at
R
The radius of earth is maximum at equator, therefore, poles.
gravitational force of attraction is least at equator. 24. (c) Gravitational potential energy associated with two
5. (c) The inertial mass & gravitational mass are equivalent particles of masses m1 & m2 separated by distance r is
& ratio of inertial mass to gravitational mass = 1 to a given by
high degree of accuracy (experimental finding). G m1m 2 1
6. (a) 7. (c) V= if r . 0.
r
8. (b) It will remain the same as the gravitational force is V = 0.
independent of the medium separating the masses. 25. (d) Kepler's third law states that the square of time period
9. (d) Both decreases but variation are different. of revolution of a planet around the sun is directly
dV proportional to the cube of semi-major axis of its elliptical
10. (b) I . If I = 0 then V = constant orbit.
dr
11. (a) 26. (d) From Kepler's law of periods,
12. (b) At poles, the effect of rotation is zero and also the 3/2
R2 3/ 2
distance from the centre of earth is least. T2 = T1 = 365 R / 2
13. (c) Because of the centrifugal force, earth stretches out R1 R
and so bulges at the equator. 1
= 365 × = 129 days.
dV 2 2
14. (a) I = 27. (b) In planetary motion, there is no external torque. Hence
dx
15. (b) There is no gravitational field in the shell. dL
16. (a) The gravitational field intensity inside the solid sphere from the equation ext . , if ext. =0 L = constant
dt
GMr
is given by Eg . ie, E g r 28. (b) Since areal velocity A & angular momentum L of a
R3
17. (d) At a point inside a spherical shell, the value of planet are related by equation A L , where M is the
gravitational intensity, I = 0. 2M
If V = 0 then gravitational field is necessarily zero. mass of planet. Since in planetary motion L is constant
18. (b) Acceleration due to gravity (g) is given by
GM 1 ( ext. = 0), hence A is also constant.
g= g 29. (b) In planetary motion, the angular momentum
R2 R2 conservation leads to the law of areas. Which means it
As one moves from the equator to the poles, the radius
sweeps out equal area in equal internals of tine or areal
of the earth decreases, hence g increases.
velocity is constant.
EBD_7208
126 GRAVITATION
30. (c) Weightlessness means that there is no reaction on a 43. (d)
body from the floor. Since both the artificial satellite & 44. (c) The orbital velocity of satellite moving in circular orbit
the astronaut have same centripetal acceleration (as in GM
a lift; which is falling freely, we does not feel any weight, near a planet is v 0
R
because both lift & we fall with same acceleration). so
2 R R R3
the astronaut does not feel any weight inside the space so period T 2 R 2
craft. v0 GM GM
Where R & M are the radius & mass of that planet.
T12 r13 Since satellite moves very near to planet, hence the
31. (b) = (4)3
T22 r23 radius of its circular orbit is approximately equal to
T2 = T1 /8. radius of the planet.
45. (b) When satellite is orbiting close to the surface of earth,
l
32. (b) Since T 2 GM
g orbital velocity, vo where M and R are the
R
but inside the satellite g = 0 mass and radius of earth.
So T = GM
46. (b) Since v 0 (orbital velocity )
1 r
33. (c) Kinetic energy = mv 2 is always positive but
2 v 01 r2
So v 01 v 02 r1 r2
potential energy and total energy are negative for a v 02 r1
satellite.
47. (a) vesc = 2 gR , where R is radius of the planet.
34. (c) T2 R 3 (According to Kepler’s law)
Hence escape velocity is independent of m.
T12 (1013 )3 and T2 2 (1012 )3
48. (b) It is called escape velocity ( v e 2 gR e )
T12 T1 49. (d) There is no atmosphere at moon, because escape
(10)3 or 10 10 .
T2 2 T2 velocity is less than the root mean square velocity of
the molecules at moon. Hence all molecules escape.
35. (c) 50. (c) The escape velocity of projectile from earth is
36. (d) Because, the period of satellite is equal to period of
rotation of earth about its own axis & it seems to be at ve 2gRe , where Re is radius of earth
one point about the equator and so is able to transmit sinceg = 9.8m/sec2, Re = 6.4×106 metre
the signals from one part to other.
ve= 11.2 km/sec
37. (a) 51. (b) The escape veloctiy of an object from any planet is
38. (d) The sense of synchronous satellite must be same as
the sense of rotation of earth i.e., from west to east. vescape 2gR 2GM / R
39. (b)
where R & M are the radius & mass of the planet.
1 52. (a) Since 'g' on moon is smaller than earth and radius of
40. (b) orbital speed v ; As Jupiter is farther than earth
r moon is also smaller, therefore escape velocity on moon
from sun, so its orbital speed is less than orbital speed is just 2.3 km/s, which is approximately five times smaller
of earth. than earth 11.2 km/s.
41. (d) Total energy of satellite is half the potential energy i.e., 53. (b) According to Kepler's law of planetary motion all the
planets revolve around the sun in elliptical orbit.
U
E Therefore, the orbit traced by planet around a star is
2
an ellipse.
42. (c) Geo-stationary satellites are also called synchronous
satellite. They always remain about the same path on 54. (c) Escape speed, Ve = R 8 Gs
equater, i.e., it has a period of exactly one day (86400 3
sec) Ve R.
55. (b) When a person is sitting in an artificial satellite of earth,
r3 the gravitational pull on the person due to earth is
So orbit radius T 2 comes out to be
GM counterbalanced by the centrifugal force acting on the
person. Thus the net force acting on the person in the
42400 km, which is nearly equal to the circumference of satellite is zero & the person feels weightless but on
earth. So height of Geostationary satellite from the earth the moon his weight is due to the gravitational pull of
surface is 42,400 – 6400 = 36,000 km. the moon.
GRAVITATION 127
56. (c) Since total energy of a body is positive or zero, when it 72. (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
is at infinity from the earth therefore, the satellite will GM
Inside a shell V = constant and E = 0
escape to infinity if its total energy becomes zero or R
positive.
GM GM
57. (d) For a satellite in circular orbit the kinetic energy is Outside the shell, V and E
r r2
positive, potential energy and total energy is negative.
As r increases, V increases and E decreases.
Hence none of the given options is correct.
58. (a) A geostationary satellite moves in a circular orbit in the 73. (b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
equatorial plane at an approx. distance of 4.22 × 104 km Acceleration due to gravity, g = Gm/R2
from zero the earth's centre.
59. (b) The reaction force of the artificial satellite acting on Escape velocity, VE = 2gR E
the person sitting in satellite is zero. Therefore, the Total energy of a satellite at a height, h above the earth
weight of the person is zero in artificial satellite is G m1m 2
zero. surface =
2(R h)
G m1m 2
Gravitational potential energy =
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS r
74. (c) (A) (2); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
60. (b) Gravitational force is always attractive and a long range Potential energy of a satellite = Negative
force. It is independent of the presence of other bodies. Total energy of a satellite = Negative
61. (d) All the three statements are true. Kinetic energy of a satellite = Positive
62. (c) 63. (c) Grav P.E of a satellite at infinity = zero.
GM
64. (d) Orbital velocity v0 = DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
r
75. (c) As m2 attracts m1 towards itself, force is along r 3.
65. (b) Every planet revolves around the sun in elliptical orbit 76. (b) Acceleration due to gravity with height h varies as
and not in circular orbit.
66. (c) For a satellite orbiting in circular orbit the potential 1
g
energy is always greater than the kinetic energy. r2
(when r = R + h). Thus variation of g and r is a parabolic
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS curve.
GM (3m) 3GMm
67. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 77. (c) F = .
d2 d2
68. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
78. (a) The speed of the planet is faster in region DAB in
69. (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) comparision to the region BCD.
70. (c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
g
71. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 79. (a)
gr
g'= – for r R and g' = (1 r / R)2 for r R
R
GM
g= , so option (a) is correct.
R2
GM GM
g g 80. (b) vg = – for r R and vg = – , for r > R, and so
At height h = R: g' R r
h 2
1 option (b) is correct.
R
81. (b) According to Kepler’s law, the areal velocity of a planet
1 around the sun always remains constant.
i.e., g' decreases by a factor .
2 SCD : A1– t1 (areal velocity constant)
2 SAB : A2 – t2
Similarly, at height h = R/2, g g.
A1 A 2
3
,
t1 t2
R h 1 g
At depth h = : g' g 1 1 A
2 R 2 2 t1 = t2 . 1 , (given A1 = 2A2)
A2
3 2A 2
Similarly at h = R/4, g g = t2 . t1 = 2t2
4 A2
EBD_7208
128 GRAVITATION
GM m GM (2m ) 101. (c) Escape velocity for Jupiter is greater than escape
82. (c) F min = r 2
(2r ) 2 velocity for earth.
102. (a) Freely faling body experiences weightlessness.
GMm 103. (b) Space rocket are usually launched from west to east to
=
2r 2 take the advantage of rotation of earth.
GMm GM (2 m) Also g' = g – 2R cos2 , at equator = 0, and so cos
and F ma x = 2 + (2r ) 2 = 1, and g' is least.
r
104. (d) 105. (a)
3 GMm
= . U
2 r2 106. (a) K = – E = – .
2
Fmin 1
= . 107. (d) If the orbital path of a satellite is circular, then its speed
Fmax 3 is constant and if the orbital path of a satellite is elliptical,
then its speed in its orbit is not constant. In that case
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS its areal velocity is constant.
108. (c) Gravitational force on the person in satellite is not zero,
but normal reaction of the satellite on the person is
Fg zero.
83. (b) For two electron 10 43 i.e., gravitational force is
Fe
negligible in comparison to electrostatic force of
attraction.
84. (d) At the centre of the earth, weight is zero but mass cannot
109. (c) y
be and never zero.
Am
85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a)
89. (c) Work done in raising the body
2R G 2m x
GMm 30°
= dx
R x2 m m
B C
2R 2R z
gR 2 1
= 2
mdx = mgR 2 .
x Gm(2 m) ˆ
R x R
FGA = j
1
1 1
= mgR 2 Gm(2 m) ˆ ˆjsin 30 )
2R R FGB = ( i cos30
1
1 2 1 Gm(2 m) ˆ
= mgR 2 = mgR FGC = (i cos30 ˆjsin 30 )
2R 2 1
90. (d) The tidal effect is due to the gravitation effect of moon Resultant force on (2m) is FR = FGA + FGB + FGC
and earth both. g' =

g
, for h = 0, g' = g. = 2Gm 2 ˆj 2Gm 2î( cos 30 cos30 )
2
h
1
R + 2Gm 2 ˆj( sin 30 sin 30 )
91. (a) According to Kepler's third law T2 r3 1
if r is small then T will also be small. = 2Gm 2 ˆj.2Gm 2 ˆj 2
2
92. (a) To counter balance the effect of gravity.
93. (c) 94. (b) = 2Gm 2 ˆj 2Gm 2 ˆj 0.
95. (a) Because gravitational force is always attractive in 110. (b)
nature and every body is bound by this gravitational 111. (c) The gravitational force of attraction between two
force of attraction of earth. identical spheres of radius r is
96. (a)
97. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not G
4 3
r
4 3
r
correct explanation of the assertion. Gm1m 2 3 3
F
From Kepler's laws of period T2 r3 r2 (2r)2
For more r, T is more.
98. (d) Escape velocity on the moon is five times smaller than 4 2 2 4 r r
on the earth 11.2 km/s. p r m1 m2
9
99. (c) 100. (c)
ie. F r 4
GRAVITATION 129
112. (a) The two air bubbles in water attract each other. The
GM 4
mass of air bubble in water (denser medium in 117. (a) g also M d R3
2 3
comparision to air) behave like a negative mass as far R
as gravitational attraction is concerned. The absolute 4
value of mass of bubble in water is equal to the mass of g d R at the surface of planet
3
an equal volume of water. So by Newton’ Law of
gravitation 4 4
gp (2d ) R , g e (d ) R
3 3
m1m 2
F G r̂ ge = gp dR = 2d R'
r2
R' = R/2
but in water F
G ( m1 )( m 2 ) Gm1m 2 118. (d) We know that
2
r̂ r̂
r r2 4 3
GM G R
It means that force has attractive nature between two 3 4
g= 2 = = GR
air bubble in water. R R2 3
113. (b) When gravitational force becomes zero, centripetal force
g' R' 3R
on satellite becomes zero so satellite will move 3 g' 3g
g R R
tangentially to the original orbit with same velocity.
114. (a) Here, centripetal force will be given by the gravitational 4
G R3
force between the two particles. GM G V 3
119. (d) g = g=
R2 R2 R2
Gm2 2
2
m R
2R R 4
g= G. R where average density
3
Gm 2
m m
4R 3 3g
=
4 GR
Gm
4 R3 is directly proportional to g.
If the velocity of the two particles with respect to the 120. (a) The gravitational potential at the centre of uniform
centre of gravity is v then v = R spherical shell is equal to the gravitational potential at
the surface of shell i.e.,
Gm Gm
v 3
R= GM
4R 4R V , where a is radius of spherical shell
a
115. (d) Variation of g with altitude is,
Now, if the shell shrinks then its radius decrease then
2h density increases, but mass is constant. so from above
gh g1 ;
R expression if a decreases, then V increases.
variation of g with depth is, 121. (b) At the equator, g' = g – R 2
d As increases, g' decreases and hence weight

gd g1 decreases.
R
At the pole, g' = g.
Equating g h and g d , we get d = 2h So weight remain unchanged.
g' R2 d 2h
122. (d) g 1 g 1
116. (d) We know that R R
g ( R h) 2
d = 2h 10 = 2h
g /9 R
2 h = 5 km
123. (d)
g R h
GMm
124. (a) Wr = mg = GMm/R2 ; at a height h, Wh =
R 1 (R R)2
R h 3
GMm 1 w
h = 2R = = WE . w1h
(2 R)2 4 4
EBD_7208
130 GRAVITATION
132. (d) Potential energy on earth surface is – mgR while in free
A a B
125. (c) space it is zero. So, to free the spaceship, minimum
required energy is
a a K = mgR= 103 × 10 × 6400 × 103 J
O = 6.4 × 1010 J
133. (a) The velocity u should be equal to the escape velocity.
D a C
That is, u = 2gR
a 2 GM
OA = OB = OC = OD = = a But g =
2 2 R2
Total gravitational potential at the centre of the square
GM 2GM
u 2· ·R
Gm 4 4Gm 4 2Gm R2 R
= = =
OA a/ 2 a
2GM p
2h d
126. (a) As we know, g = g 1 =g 1 (ve ) p Rp Mp
R R Re
134. (c)
2h d d (ve )e 2GM e Me Rp
= h= or d = 2h. Re
R R 2
d = 2 × 50 = 100 km.
127. (c) A comet consists of solid mass of rocks surrounded 10M e Re
10
by large volume of combustible gases. The Me R e /10
gravitational force acting between the sun and comet
attracts the comet's mass, due to which head of (ve )p 10 (ve )e 10 11 110 km / s
comet points towards the sun. The radiations emitted 135. (a) K.E. of satellite moving in an orbit around the earth is
by the sun exerts a radiation pressure on the comet 2
throwing its tail away from the sun. 1 1 GM GMm
K= mv 2 m
2 2 r 2r
128. (a) Time period of satellite is given by :
circumference of an orbit 2 R P.E. of satellite and earth system is
Velocity in orbit v0 GMm
GMm K 2r 1
2 R 2 R 3/2 U
r U GMm 2
GM m GM m r
R 136. (b) Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius
Squaring both sides, we get a is given by
4 2R 3 GM 1 v2 a1
T2 v v =
GM m a a v1 a2
129. (a) Angular momentum is conserved. At A, the moment of 4R
inertia is least and hence angular speed is maximum. Thus v2 = v1 = 2 v1 = 6V
R
the K.E. at A is maximum.
137. (a) As we know,
130. (c) According to Kepler’s law of period T2 R3
GMm
Gravitational potential energy =
T12 R13 (6 R ) 3 r
8
T22 R23 (3 R )3 and orbital velocity, v0 = GM / R h
24 24 1 GMm 1 GM GMm
8 Ef mv02 m
T22 2 3R 2 3R 3R
24 24 GMm 1 GMm
T22 = 72 = 36 × 2 1
8 3R 2 6R
T2 6 2 GMm
Ei K
131. (a) Potential at the given point = Potential at the point due R
to the shell + Potential due to the particle Ei Ef
GM 2GM 3GM 5GMm
= = Therefore minimum required energy, K
a a a 6R
9
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
OF SOLIDS
12. Which of the following is not a type of stress?
(a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stsress
1. The property of a body by virtue of which it tends to regain (c) Hydraulic stress (d) None of these
its original size and shape when the applied force is removed 13. If the load is increased beyond the _______ point, the strain
is called increases rapidly for even a small change in the stress.
(a) elasticity (b) plasticity (a) elastic point (b) yield point
(c) rigidity (d) compressibility (c) plastic point (d) fracture point
2. Which of the following materials is most elastic? 14. What is the phenomenon of temporary delay in regaining
(a) Steel (b) Rubber the original configuration by an elastic body, after the
(c) Copper (d) Glass removel of a deforming force?
3. When forces are applied on a body such that it is still in (a) Elastic fatigue (b) Elasticity
static equilibrium, then the extent to which the body gets (c) Plasticity (d) Elastic after effect
deformed, depends on 15. Which of the following types of stress causes no chang in
(a) nature of the material shape?
(b) magnitude of deforming force (a) Compressive stress (b) Hydraulic stress
(c) Both (a) & (b) (c) Shearing stress (d) None of these
(d) None of these 16. Which of the following elastic moduli is used to describe
4. The restoring force per unit area is known as the elastic behaviour of object as they respond to the
(a) strain (b) elasticity deforming forces acting on them?
(c) stress (d) plasticity (a) Young's modulus (b) Shear modulus
5. In magnitude hydraulic stress is equal to (c) Bulk modulus (d) All of these
(a) hydraulic force (b) hydraulic pressure 17. If a mass M produces an elongation of L in a wire of radius
(c) restoring force (d) hydraulic strain r and length L, then the young's modulus of the material of
6. Substances which can be stretched to cause large strains the wire is given by
are called Mg Mg L
(a) brittle (b) ductile (a) Y (b) Y
2 2
(c) plastic (d) elastomer ( r L) ( r L)
7. Shearing stress change _______ of the body. Mg L M L
(a) length (b) breadth (c) Y (d) Y
(c) shape (d) volume ( r2 L) ( r 2 L)
8. The reason for the change in shape of a regular body is 18. Which is relevant only for solids?
(a) volume stress (b) shearing strain (a) Young's modulus (b) Shear modulus
(c) longitudinal strain (d) metallic strain (c) Bulk modulus (d) Both (a) & (b)
9. Shearing strain is expressed by 19. When a fluid compresses an object, then the Hooke's law is
(a) angle of shear (b) angle of twist expressed as
(c) decrease in volume (d) increase in volume V
10. Which of the following substance has the lowest elasticity? (a) F = kV (b) P =
V
(a) Steel (b) Copper
V V
(c) Rubber (d) wood (c) P = B (d) F = B
V V
11. Which of the following affects the elasticity of a substance?
(a) Hammering and annealing 20. Which of the following is the correct relation? Y = Young's
(b) Change in temperature modulus & G = modulus of rigidity?
(c) Impurity in substance (a) Y < G (b) Y > G
(d) All of the above (c) Y = G (d) None of these
EBD_7208
132 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS
21. The expression of force constant for a spring following 33. The only elastic modulus that applies to fluids is
Hooke's law is given by (a) Young's modulus (b) modulus of rigidity
ya ya (c) bulk modulus (d) shear modulus
(a) k = (b) k =
34. The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called
ya ya (a) modulus of rigidity (b) volume stress
(c) k = (d) k =
(c) volume strain (d) compressibility
22. How is modulus of rigidity related to young's modulus?
35. Modulus of rigidity of a liquid is
G Y
(a) Y = (b) G = (a) constant (b) infinite
3 3
(c) zero (d) cannot be predicted
Y
(c) G = Y (d) G = 36. According to Hook’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased,
2
23. For an equal stretching force F, the young's modulus (Ys) for then the ratio of stress to strain
steel and rubber (Yr) are related as (a) becomes zero (b) remains constant
(a) Ys = Yr (b) Ys < Yr (c) decreases (d) increases
(c) Ys > Yr (d) Ys Yr
24. A 2 m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from one end is
given a twist of 0.8 radians. The shear strain developed will 37. Which of the following statements are correct ?
be I. Elastic fatigue is the property by virtue of which
(a) 0.002 (b) 0.004 (c) 0.008 (d) 0.016 behavior becomes less elastic under the action of
25. The isothermal bulk modulus of a gas at atmospheric pressure repeated alternating deforming forces.
is II. Elasticity is the property due to which the body regains
(a) 1 mm of Hg (b) 13.6 mm of Hg its original configuration, when deforming forces are
(c) 1.013 × 105 N/m2 (d) 2.026 × 105 N/m2 removed.
26. Hooke's law states that III. Plasticity is the property due to which the regain in
(a) stress is directly proportional to strain
original shape is delayed after the removal of deforming
(b) stress is inversely proportional to strain
(c) stress is equal to strain forces.
(d) stress and strain are independent of each other (a) I and II (b) II and III
27. The ratio of stress and strain is called (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(a) elastic limit (b) plastic deformation 38. The diagram shows a force - extension graph for a rubber
(c) modulus of elasticity (d) tensile strength band. Consider the following statements :
28. The ratio of tensile stress to the longitudinal strain is I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than expand it
defined as
II. Rubber does not return to its original length after it is
(a) modulus of elasticity (b) Yong's modulus
(c) bulk modulus (d) None of these stretched
29. The correct increasing order of coefficient of elasticity of III. The rubber band will get heated if it is stretched and
Copper, Steel, Glass and Rubber is released
(a) Steel, Rubber, Copper, Glass
(b) Rubber, Copper, Glass, Steel
(c) Rubber, Glass, Steel, Copper
(d) Rubber, Glass, Copper, Steel Extension
30. If the length of a wire is reduced to half, then it can hold
the
(a) half load (b) same load Force
(c) double load (d) one fourth load
Which of these can be deduced from the graph?
31. The ratio of shearing stress to the corresponding shearing
strain is called (a) III only (b) II and III
(a) bulk modulus (b) Young's modulus (c) I and III (d) I only
(c) modulus of rigidity (d) None of these 39. Which of the following statements is/are true?
32. The Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is I. Stress is not a vector quantity
(a) unity II. Deforming force in one direction can produce strains
(b) zero in other directions also.
(c) infinity (a) I only (b) II only
(d) some finite non-zero constant (c) Both I and II (d) None of these
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS 133
40. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) about

shearing strain?
I Shearing strain is produced by applying normal force. 47. Match the column - I and Column - II.
II Shearing strain = tan Column I Column II
(a) I only (b) II only (A) Mud (1) Elastic
(c) Both I and II (d) None of these (B) Steel (2) Elastomer
41. Consider the following statements and select the correct (C) Rubber (3) Plastic
statements from the following. (D) Copper (4) Compressible
I. A material which stretches to a lesser exent for a load is (a) (A) (2), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (1)
more elastic (b) (A) (3), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (1)
II. A material which undergoes compression is most elastic (c) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
III. A material which stretches to greater extent is more (d) (A) (2), (B) (1), (C) (3), (D) (4)
elastic 48. Column I Column II
(a) I and II (b) II and III (A) Young's modulus (1) Rubber
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III of elasticity
42. Which of the following statements is/are true? (B) Hooke's law (2) Solids
I. Water is more elastic than air (C) Hydraulic stress (3) Sraight line
II. Modulus of elasticity is more for steel than that of (D) Elastomers (4) Solids, liquids & gases
copper. (a) (A) (2), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (1)
III. Young's modulus of elasticity for a perfectly rigid body (b) (A) (4), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (1)
is infinte (c) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
(a) I only (b) II only (d) (A) (2), (B) (1), (C) (3), (D) (4)
(c) I and II only (d) I, II and III 49. Column -I Column-II
43. Consider the following statements and select the correct (A) Equal force acting (1) Balance
option. perpendicular to each the net weight to be
I. Young's modulus for a perfectly rigid body is zero point on a spherical supported
II. Rubber is less elastic than steel surface
III. Bulk modulus is relevant for solids, liquids and gases (B) Cross-sectional area (2) Higher modulus of
IV. The young's modulus and shear modulus are relevant of the rope used in elasticity
for solids giant structures
(C) Steel in structural (3) Reduction in volume
designs without change in shape
(c) III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(D) Stress-strain curve (4) Inversely depends on the
44. Which of the following statements is/are wrong ?
yeild strength
I. Hollow shaft is much stronger than a solid rod of
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1, 3); (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
same length and same mass.
(b) (A) (3); (B) (1, 2); (C) (4) ; (D) (3, 4)
II. Reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
compressibility.
(d) (A) (3); B (1, 4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
III. It is difficult to twist a long rod as compared to small
50. A copper wire (Y = 1011 N/m2) of length 8 m and steel wire
rod.
(Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2) of length 4 m each of 0.5 cm2 cross-
section are fastened end to end and stretched with a tension
(c) III only (d) I only
of 500 N.
45. Which of the following is/are false? Column-I Column-II
I Normal stress = force/area (A) Elongation in copper (1) 0.25
force change in length wire in mm
II Young's modulus =
area original length (B) Elongation in steel (2) 1.0
(a) I only (b) II only wire in mm
(c) Both I and II (d) None of these (C) Total elongation in mm (3) 0.8
46. Select the correct statement(s) from the following. 1
I. Modulus of rigidity for a liquid is zero (D) Elastic potential energy (4) th the elongation in
4
II. Young's modulus of a material decreases with rise in of the system in joules copper wire
temperature (a) (A) (3), (B) (4), (C) (2), (D) (1)
III. Poisson's ratio is unitless (b) (A) (4), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (1)
(a) I only (b) II only (c) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (d) (A) (2), (B) (1), (C) (3), (D) (4)
EBD_7208
55. A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A is
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS stretched, well within elastic limit, horizontally between two
51. A rectangular frame is to be suspended symmetrically by pillars. A mass m is suspended from the mid point of the
two strings of equal length on two supports . It can be done wire. Strain in the wire is
in one of the following three ways 2L
x
m
x2 x
(a) (b)
2L L
(a) (b) (c) x2 x2

(c) (d)
L 2L
The tension in the strings will be
(a) the same in all cases 56. Th e adjacent graph
shows the extension ( l) 4
(b) least in (a)
(l ×10 )m
3
(c) least in (b) of a wire of length 1m
–4
(d) least in (c) 2
suspended from the top
52. The graph given is a stress-strain curve for 1
of a roof at one end with
a load W connected to the
other end. if the corss- 20 40 60 80 W(N)
1.0 sectional area of the wire is 10–6m2, calculate the Young’s
Stress (N/ m2)
modulus of the material of the wire

0.5 (a) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–11 N/m2
(c) 2 × 10–12 N/m2 (d) 2 × 10–13 N/m2
57. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is loaded at the
0 centre. The depression at the centre is proportional to
0.5 1.0
Strain
(a) elastic objects (b) plastics

(c) elastomers (d) None of these (a) Y 2 (b) Y (c) 1/Y (d) 1/Y 2
53. For the given graph, Hooke's law is obeyed in the region 58. Two different types of rubber are found to have the stress-
strain curve as shown :
C I. To absorb vibrations one would prefer rubber A
A II. For manufacturing car tyre one would prefer B
E B
Stress
I II
O Strain
(a) I, II are true (b) I is true, II is false
(a) OA (b) C (c) I is false, II is true (d) I, II are false
(c) OE (d) OB 59. The load versus elongation graph for four wires is shown.
54. The diagram shown below The thinnest wire is
represents the applied forces per
F
unit area with the corresponding Load P
change X (per unit length) d Q
b
produced in a thin wire of uniform a R
cross section in the curve shown. c
S
The region in which the wire
behaves like a liquid is O X
Elongation
(a) ab (b) bc
(c) cd (d) Oa (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
60. The value of tan (90° – ) in the graph gives ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Strain

Stress correct explanation for assertion
(a) Young's modulus of elasticity (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(b) compressibility (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(c) shear strain
(d) tensile strength 64. Assertion: Solids are least compressible and gases are most
61. The diagram below shows the change in the length X of a compressible.
thin uniform wire caused by the application of stress F at Reason: solids have definite shape and volume but gases
two different temperatures T1 and T2. The variation shown do not have either definite shape or definite volume.
suggests that 65. Assertion: Rubber is more elastic than lead
(a) T1 > T2 T2
F Reason: If same load is attached to lead and rubber, then the
(b) T1 < T2 T1 strain produced is much less in rubber than in lead.
(c) T2 > T1 66. Assertion: Hollow shaft is found to be stronger than a solid
(d) T1 T2 shaft made of same equal material.
X Reason: Torque required to produce a given twist in hollow
62. Stress vs strain curve for the elastic tissue of the aorta, the cylinder is greater than that required to twist a solid cylinder
large tube (vessel) carrying blood from the heart, will be : of same length and material.
[stress is proportional to square of the strain for the elastic 67. Assertion : Bulk modulus of elasticity (k) represents
incompressibility of the material.
tissue of the aorta]
Reason : Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional to
change in pressure.
68. Assertion : Stress is the internal force per unit area of a
(a) (b) body.
Reason : Rubber is less elastic than steel.
69. Assertion : Young’s modulus for a perfectly plastic body is
zero.
Reason : For a perfectly plastic body, restoring force is zero.
(c) (d) 70. Assertion : Identical springs of steel and copper are equally
stretched. More work will be done on the steel spring
Reason : Steel is more elastic than copper.
63. The potential energy U between two atoms in a diatomic
71. Assertion : The stress-strain graphs are shown in the figure
molecules as a function of the distance x between atoms has for two materials A and B are shown in figure. Young's
been shown in the figure. The atoms are modulus of A is greater than that of B.
Stress
A
B
O
U
Strain
Reason : The Young's modules for small strain is,
A B C x
stress
Y = slope of linear portion, of graph; and slope of
strain
(a) attracted when x lies between A and B and are repelled
A is more than slope that of B.
when x lies between B and C
(b) attracted when x lies between B and C and are repelled 72. Assertion : Strain causes the stress in an elastic body.
Reason : An elastic rubber is more plastic in nature.
when x lies between A and B
73. Assertion: Girders are given I shape.
(c) are attracted when they reach B from C
Reason: To bear more pressure, depth is increased as per
(d) are repelled when they reach B from A
P=h g
EBD_7208
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (a) 10 × 1012 (b) 100 × 1012

(c) 1 × 1012 (d) 10 × 1012
74. If the ratio of radii of two wires of same material is 2 : 1 and
ratio of their lengths is 4 : 1, then the ratio of the normal 82. From a steel wire of density is suspended a brass block of
forces that will produce the same extension in the length of density b. The extension of steel wire comes to e. If the
two wires is brass block is now fully immersed in a liquid of density l,
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
e
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 the extension becomes e'. The ratio will be
75. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice that of B. e'
They are stretched by the same load. Then the stress on
b b l
B is (a) (b)
(a) equal to that on A (b) four times that on A b l b
(c) twice that on A (d) half that on A
76. An iron bar of length cm and cross section A cm2 is pulled b l
by a force of F dynes from ends so as to produce an (c) (d)
l b l
elongation cm. Which of the following statement is
correct ? 83. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 mm 2
(a) Elongation is inversely proportional to length stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung from its
(b) Elongation is directly proportional to cross section A lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is
(c) Elongation is inversely proportional to cross-section 18 2
(d) Elongation is directly proportional to Young’s modulus (a) 19.6 10 20 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 10 N / m
77. Two wires of equal lengths are made of the same material.
(c) 19.6 1010 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 1015 N / m 2
Wire A has a diameter that is twice as that of wire B. If identical
weights are suspended from the ends of these wires, the 84. What per cent of length of wire increases by applying a stress
increase in length is of 1 kg weight/mm2 on it?
(a) four times for wire A as for wire B (Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2 and 1 kg weight = 9.8 newton)
(b) twice for wire A as for wire B (a) 0.0067% (b) 0.0098%
(c) half for wire A as for wire B (c) 0.0088% (d) 0.0078%
(d) one-fourth for wire A as for wire B 85. A wooden wheel of radius R is made of
78. A steel ring of radius r and cross-section area 'A' is fitted on
two semicircular parts (see figure). The
to a wooden disc of radius R(R > r). If Young's modulus be E,
then the force with which the steel ring is expanded is two parts are held together by a ring
made of a metal strip of cross-sectional R
R R r
(a) AE (b) AE area S and length L. L is slightly less
r r
than 2 R. To fit the ring on the wheel, it
E R r Er is heated so that its temperature rises by T and it just steps
(c) (d)
A A AR over the wheel. As it cools down to surrounding temperature,
79. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by it presses the semicircular parts together. If the coefficient
the spring is (if T is tension in the spring and k is spring of linear expansion of the metal is and its Young’s modulus
constant)
is Y, the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other
T2 T2 2x 2T 2 part is
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d)
2x 2k T k (a) 2 SY T (b) SY T
80. A steel wire of length ‘L’ at 40°C is suspended from the (c) SY T (d) 2SY T
ceiling and then a mass ‘m’ is hung from its free end. The 86. The extension in a string obeying Hooke’s law is x. The
wire is cooled down from 40°C to 30°C to regain its original speed of sound in the stretched string is v. If the extension
length ‘L’. The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of the in the string is increased to 1.5 x, the speed of sound will be
steel is 10–5 /° C, Young’s modulus of steel is 1011 N/m2 and (a) 1.22 v (b) 0.61 v (c) 1.50 v (d) 0.75 v
radius of the wire is 1 mm. Assume that L >>diameter of the 87. An elevator cable is to have a maximum stress of 7 x 107 N/
wire. Then the value of ‘m’ in kg is nearly m2 to allow for appropriate safety factors. Its maximum
upward acceleratiom is 1.5 m/s2. If the cable has to support
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
the total weight of 2000 kg of a loaded elevator, the area of
81. When a pressure of 100 atmosphere is applied on a spherical cross–section of the cable should be
ball, then its volume reduces to 0.01%. The bulk modulus of (a) 3.28 cm2 (b) 2.38 cm2
(c) 0.328 cm 2 (d) 8.23 cm2
the material of the rubber in dyne/cm2 is
88. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. 96. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
When loaded with a weight in air, it extends by a and when compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and density of
the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension is water is 103 kg/m3.What fractional compression of water will
reduced to w. Then the relative density of material of the be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ?
weight is
(a) 1.0 × 10–2 (b) 1.2 × 10–2
a (c) 1.4 × 10 –2 (d) 0.8 × 10–2
(a) a / w (b)
a w
97. Consider four steel wires of dimensions given below
(c) w /( a w) (d) w/ a (d = diameter and l = length) :
89. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a pool, its (a) l = 1m, d = 1mm (b) l = 2m, d = 2 mm
volume decreases by 0.1%. If the density of the water is 1 × (c) l = 2m, d = 1mm (d) l = 1m, d = 2 mm
103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2, then the volume elasticity in N/m2 If same force is applied to all the wires then the elastic
will be potential energy stored will be maximum in wire:
(a) 108 (b) 2 × 108
(a) A (b) B
(c) 109 (d) 2 × 109
90. A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. If each (c) C (d) D
side is decreased by 1%, then bulk strain is 98. If in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, longitudinal strain X is
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.06 produced, then the value of potential energy stored in its
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.03 unit volume will be
91. To break a wire, a force of 106 N/m2 is required. If the density (a) Y X2 (b) 2 Y X2
of the material is 3 × 103 kg/m3, then the length of the wire
which will break by its own weight will be (c) Y2 X/2 (d) Y X2/2
(a) 34 m (b) 30 m 99. A steel ring of radius r and cross sectional area A is fitted
(c) 300 m (d) 3 m onto a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If the Young’s modulus
92. When a 4 kg mass is hung vertically on a light spring that of steel is Y, then the force with which the steel ring is
obeys Hooke’s law, the spring stretches by 2 cms. The work expanded is
required to be done by an external agent in stretching this (a) A Y (R/r) (b) A Y (R – r)/r
spring by 5 cms will be (g = 9.8 m/sec2) (c) (Y/A)[(R – r)/r] (d) Y r/A R
(a) 4.900 joule (b) 2.450 joule
100. For the same cross-sectional area and for a given load, the
(c) 0.495 joule (d) 0.245 joule
ratio of depressions for the beam of a square cross-section
93. A rubber cord catapult has cross-sectional area 25 mm2 and and circular cross-section is
initial length of rubber cord is 10 cm. It is stretched to 5 cm
(a) 3 : (b) :3
and then released to project a missile of mass 5 gm. Taking
(c) 1 : (d) :1
Yrubber = 5 × 108 N/m2. Velocity of projected missile is
101. The length of a metal is 1 when the tension in it is T1 and is
(a) 20 ms–1 (b) 100 ms–1
–1 2 when the tension is T2. The original length of the wire is
(c) 250 ms (d) 200 ms–1
94. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two 1 2 1T2 2T1
wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one (a) (b)
2 T1 T2
of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same
roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same 1T2 2T1
level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires (c) T2 T1
(d) T1T2 1 2
must be in the ratio of :
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 102. A wire elongates by l mm when a load W is hanged from it.
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 If the wire goes over a pulley and two weights W each are
95. Copper of fixed volume ‘V; is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be
When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the (in mm)
extension produced in the wire is ‘ l’. Which of the following (a) l (b) 2l
graphs is a straight line? (c) zero (d) l/2
1 103. A thick rope of density and length L is hung from a rigid
(a) l versus (b) l versus l2 support. The Young’s modulus of the material of rope is Y.
l
The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is
1 (a) (1/4) g L2/Y (b) (1/2) g L2/Y
(c) l versus 2 (d) l versus l
l (c) 2
g L /Y (d) g L/Y
EBD_7208
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS elastic behavior of objects as they respond to

deforming forces acting on them.
1. (a)
normal stress F/A
2. (a) Young's modulus of elasticity is highest for steel and 17. (c) Young's modulus =
Greater the young's modulus larger is its elasticity. longitudinal strain L/L
3. (c) The deformation of a body on application of a force Mg L
F L
depends on the nature of the material and the magnitude =
of the applied force.
A L r2 L
4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) normal stress
18. (d) Young's modulus =
x longitudinal stran
9. (a) tan = angle of shear = shearing strain
L
T angential stress
Shear modulus =
Shearing strain
Ftangential
Longitudinal & shearing strains are possible only in solids.
A x A' B B' 19. (c) When an object undergoes hydraulic compression due
to a stress exerted by a surrounding liquid the Hooke's
L law takes the form P = B ( v/v)
20. (b) Young's modulus Y = 2G(1 – )
G = modulus of rigidity and = poissons's ratio
D
C F
21. (a) Y = . or F YA
A L
ABCD is the shape of body, before we apply tangential
force and A B CD is the shape of body after applying
Hence force constant = F YA
tangential force.
10. (a) 22. (b) Modulus of rigidity is, generally less than that of
11. (d) The hammering increases elasticity while annealing young's modulus of a solid. For most of the solids,
decreases it. The increase in temperature increases the value of shear modulus is one-third of the young's
elasticity while decrease in temperature decreases it. modulus i.e.
The impurity in the substance increases the elasticity. G = Y/3.
12. (d) A cylinder stretched by two equal forces applied normal 23. (c) Young's modulus of steel is highest.
to its cross-sectional area, it experiences tensile stress;
& if cylinder is compressed under the action of applied 24. (b) r L 10 2 0.8 2 0.004
forces, the restoring force per unit area is known as 25. (c) Isothermal elasticity K1 = P = 1atm = 1.013 × 105 N/m2
compressive stress. 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b)
A body immersed in a fluid develops restoring force 29. (d) Elasticity is maximum for steel and minimum for
equal & opposite to the forces applied by fluid. This rubber.
restoring force per unit area is hydraulic stress. 30. (b) 31. (c)
13. (b) Yield point is the point, beyond which the wire starts 32. (c) For a perfectly rigid body strain produced is zero for
showing increase in strain without any increase in the given force applied, so
stress. Y = stress/strain =
14. (d) Elastic after effect is defined as the temporary delay in 33. (c) Bulk modulus = change in volume
regaining the original configuration by an elastic body
1
after the removal of a deforming force. 34. (d) Compressibility =
Bulk modulus
15. (b) Hydraulic stress is relevant to volumetric strain, V/V,
but there is no change in shape. 35. (c)
16. (d) The three elastic moduli viz young's modulus, shear 36. (b) The ratio of stress to strain is always constant. If stress
modulus and bulk modulus are used to describe the is increased, strain will also increase so that their ratio
remains constant.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 50. (a) (A) (3), (B) (4), (C) (2), (D) (1)
F 500 8
(A) = AY 0.8 mm
37. (d) copper
0.5 10 4
1011
38. (c) From the figure, it is clear that
F 500 4
Fcom < Fext. (B) steel 0.2 mm
4
AY 0.5 10 2 1011
(C) copper steel 1.0 mm
x
e 2Ycopper e 2Ysteel
(D) U Vol = 0.25 J
2 2
F 51. (c)
Fcom Fext 52. (c) The given graph does not obey Hooke's law. and there
is no well defined plastic region. So the graph represents
elastomers.
39. (c) 53. (c) Since OE is a straight line so, stress strain.
x Hooke's law is obeyed in the region OE of the graph.
40. (b) Shearing strain = = tan 54. (b) The wire starts behaving like a liquid at point b. It behaves
L
like a viscous liquid in the region bc of the graph.
x 55. (a)
F 56. (a) From the graph l = 10–4m, F = 20 N
A = 10–6m2, L = 1m
FL 20 1
Y 6 4
Al 10 10
41. (a) A material for which strain is less for a given load is 20 1010 2 1011 N/m 2
more elastic.
42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c)
57. (c)
normal stress
45. (b) Young's modulus Y =
longitudinal strain For a beam, the depression at the centre is given by,
force fL
= area Force original length 4Ybd3

chage in length Area change in length [f, L, b, d are constants for a particular beam]
original length
1
46. (d) i.e.
Y
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 58. (d)
59. (b)
47. (b) (A) (3), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (1)
stress
Mud is a completely plastic material. 60. (a) tan(90 )
strain
Steel is perfect elastic.
61. (a) When same stress is applied at two different
Rubber is elastomer. temperatures, the increase in length is more at higher
Copper is elastic. temperature. Thus T1 > T2.
48. (a) Young's modulus of elasticity exists only for solids. 62. (a) As stress strain2 hence graph (a) correctly dipicts.
Hooke's law refers to a straight line on stress strain 63. (b) The atoms when brought from infinity are attracted due
curve. to interatomic electrostatic force of attraction. At point
Hydraulic stress exists for all the three states, rubber is B, the potential energy is minimum and force of
an elastomer. attraction is maximum. But if we bring atoms closer than
x = B, force of repulsion between two nucleii starts and
49. (d) (A) (3); B (1, 4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
P.E. increases.
EBD_7208
76. (c) According to Hooke’s law
P.E. F l
Stress strain i.e.,
A l
1
x For same F & l, l
C A
FL 1
77. (d) l l (F, L and Y are same)
AY r2
A B
2 2
lA rB rB 1
lA 4l B
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS lB rA 2rB 4
64. (b) The incompressibility of solids is primarily due to the lA

or l B
tight coupling between the neighbouring atoms. 4
Molecules in gases are very poorly coupled to their 78. (b) Initial length (circumference) of the ring = 2 r
neighbours. Final length (circumference) of the ring = 2 R
65. (d) Lead is more elastic than rubber because for same load Change in length = 2 R – 2 r
strain produced is much less in lead than rubber.
change in length 2 (R–r) R r
66. (a) Torque required to produce a given twist in hollow strain = =
original length 2 r r
cylinder is greater than solid cylinder thus both are
true. F/A F/A
Now Young's modulus E
67. (a) l/L (R r ) / r
68. (b) Stress is defined as internal force (restoring force) per
unit area of a body. Also, rubber is less elastic than R r
F AE
steel, because restoring force is less for rubber than r
steel.
stress F2 T2
69. (a) Young’s modulus of a material, Y 79. (b) U
strain 2K 2K
restoring force 80. (c) We know that
Here, stress
area mg / A mg
Y ....(1)
As restoring force is zero Y = 0. / A
1 1 Also T ...(2)
70. (a) Work done Stress Strain Y (Strain)2 .
2 2 From (1) and (2)
Since, elasticity of steel is more than copper, hence
more work has to be done in order to stretch the steel. mg mg
Y
71. (d) 72. (a) A T A T
73. (b) The most effective method to reduce depression in a
beam of given length & material is to make depth of the YA T 1011 (10 3 )2 10 5
10
m 3
beam large as compared to its breadth. But on increasing g 10
the depth too much, the beam bends. To check this
buckling, a compromise between breadth & depth of a P 100
81. (c) Bulk modulus K 106 atm
beam is made by using I-shaped girder. V 0.01 / 100
V
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS = 10 N/m = 10 dyne/cm2
11 2 12
82. (a) Weights without and with liquid proportional to b and

F YA
74. (d) Y = ; F= b – l.
A
250 9.8
F1 A1 l2 r2 l2 4 1 = 1 : 1. 6
= 12 = 83. (c) Y F/A 50 10
F2 A2 l1 r2 l1 1 4 3
/ 0.5 10
F F 2
75. (b) Stress
A r2 250 9.8 2
6 3 19.6 1010 N / m 2
50 10 0.5 10
84. (b) Stress = 1 kg wt/mm2 = 9.8 N/mm2
P h g 200 103 10
= 9.8 × 106 N/m2. 89. (d) K 2 109
V /V V /V 0.1/100
Y 1 1011 N / m 2 , 100 ?
dV dL
Stress Stress 90. (d) If side of the cube is L. then V = L3 3
Y V L
Strain /
% change in volume = 3 × (% change in length)
Stress 9.8 106
= 3 × 1% = 3%
Y 1 1011
V
11 6 Bulk strain 0.03
100 9.8 10 100 10 V
= 9.8 × 10–3 = 0.0098 % S 106 100

85. (d) Elongation due to change in temperature, 91. (a) L 3
34 m
dg 3 10 10 3
l L T
Which is compensated by elastic strain, F 4 9.8
92. (b) K 2
19.6 102
When temperature becomes normal, i.e., x 2 10
TL
l 1
YS Work done = 19.6 102 (0.05)2 2.45 J
F 2
TL
Thus, L T 93. (c) Young’s modulus of rubber, Yrubber
YS
T T F
T VS T F YA.
A
At equilibrium force exerted by one half on other,
On putting the values from question,
F 2T 2YS T
T 5 108 25 10 6
5 10 2
86. (a) Speed of sound in a stretched string v …(i) F
2
10 10
Where T is the tension in the string and is mass per
unit length. 25 25 10 2 1 6250 N
According to Hooke’s law, F x T x …(ii) kinetic energy = potential energy of rubber
From (i) and (ii), v x v' 1.5 v 1.22 v 1 1
mv 2 F
87. (a) Given, the breaking strength of cable fu = 7 × 107 N/m2 2 2
The force carried by the cable, F 6250 5 10 2
v = 62500
F = m( g a ) m 5 10 3
= 2000(9.8 1.5) = 22600 N = 25 × 10 = 250 m/s
F 22600 W l
The area of cross-section, A = f 7
94. (a) Young's modulus Y = .
u 7 10 A l
W1 W2
= 3.28 × 10–4 m2.
88. (b) Let V be the volume of the load and its relative density Y1 Y2
[ A, l, l same for both brass and steel]
FL V gL
So, Y .....(1)
A a A a
When the load is immersed in the liquid, then A, l, l l, A, l
Y2 Y1
FL (V g V 1 g ) L ....(2)
Y Brass Steel
A w A w
( Now net weight = weight – upthrust)
From eqs. (1) and (2), we get
W1 Y1 [Ysteel/Ybrass = 2 given]
( 1) a 2
or W2 Y2
a w ( a w)
EBD_7208
F b4
I1
A Fl 12
95. (b) As Y = l l
AY
l r4
V For a beam of circular cross-section, I2
But V = Al so A = 4
l
W 3 12 4W 3
Fl 2
Therefore l = l2 1
3Y b 4
Y b4
VY
Hence graph of l versus l2 will give a straight line. (for sq. cross section)
96. (b) Compressibility of water,
K = 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 W 3
4W 3
density of water P = 103 kg/m3 and 2
3Y ( r 4 / 4) 3Y ( r 4 )
depth of ocean, h = 2700 m
(for circular cross-section)
V
We have to find ?
V
1 3 r4 3 r4 3
Now
As we know, compressibility, b 4
( r 2 )2
2
1 ( V / V)
K= (P Pgh) ( b2 r 2 i.e., they have same cross-sectional area)
B P
So, ( V/V) = KPgh 101. (c) If is the original length of wire, then change in length
= 45.4 × 10–11 × 103 × 10 × 2700 = 1.2258 × 10–2 of first wire,
F2 ( 1 ) 1
97. (c) We have, U
2k Change in length of second wire,
Yl Yl 2 ( 2 )
where k
A 1
d2 Now, Y
T1 T2
4 A A
1 2
2
d T1 T2
U T1 T2
l or or
1 2 1 2
1 or T1 – T1 = T2 – T2
98. (d) P .E . stress strain volume 2 1
2
T2 1 T1 2
1 or
or (P.E./ volume) (Y strain) (strain) T2 T1
2 T
102. (a) Case (i)
1 1
Y (strain)2
= Y X2 At equilibrium, T = W
2 2
W/A W
99. (b) Let T be the tension in the ring, then Y .....(1)
/L
T .2 r Tr Case (ii)
Y
A.2 ( R r ) A(R r) At equilibrium T = W
Y A(R r) W/A W/A
T Y Y
r /2 /L
L/2
W 3 T T
100. (a) , where W = load, = length of beam and I is Elongation is the same.
3Y
geometrical moment of inertia for rectangular beam, F ( L / 2) ( A L g )( L / 2) W W
3
103. (b)
bd AY AY
I where b = breadth and d = depth
12
1
For square beam b = d = g L2 / Y
2
10
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
OF FLUIDS
11. If a solid floats with 1/4th of its volume above the surface of
water, then density of the solid ( s) is related to density of
1. The most characteristic property of a liquid is water ( w) as
(a) elasticity (b) fluidity 1
(c) formlessness (d) volume conservation (a) s = w (b) s = w
4
2. _________ and _________ play the same role in case of
fluids as force and mass play in case of solids. 3 4
(c) s = (d) s =
(a) Thrust and density (b) Pressure and density 4 w 3 w
(c) Pressure and thrust (d) thrust and volume 12. Smaller the area on which the force acts, greater is the
3. Which of the following is a unit of pressure? impact. This concept is known as
(a) atm (b) pascal (a) impulse (b) pressure
(c) bar (d) All of these (c) surface tension (d) magnus effect
4. Which of the following pressure-measuring device measures 13. Pressure in a fluid at rest is same at all points which
the guage pressure? are at the same height. This is known as
(a) Mercury barometer (b) Sphygmomanometer (a) Archemedes'. Principle (b) Bernoulli's principle
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
(c) Stoke's law (d) Pascal's law
5. Liquid pressure depends upon
(a) area of the liquid surface 14. The excess pressure at depth below the surface of a
(b) shape of the liquid surface liquid open to the atmosphere is called
(c) height of the liquid column (a) atmospheric pressure (b) hydrostatic paradox
(d) directions (c) gauge pressure (d) None of these
6. Hydraulic lifts and hydraulic brakes are based on 15. A pressure equivalent to 1 mm is called
(a) Archimedes' principle (b) Bernoulli's principle (a) 1 Pa (b) 1 torr
(c) Stoke's law (d) Pascal's law (c) 1 atm (d) 1 N/m2
7. According to archimedes' principle, loss of weight of a body 16. When a body is wholly or partially immersed in a fluid at
immersed in a liquid is equal to rest, the force working on it in upward direction is called
(a) weight of the liquid displaced
(a) buoyant force (b) surface tension
(b) weight of the total liquid
(c) viscous force (d) None of these
(c) weight of the body
(d) None of these 17. Pressure applied to enclosed fluid is
8. Specific gravity of a body is numerically equal to (a) increased and applied to every part of the fluid
(a) weight of the body in air (b) diminished and transmitted to wall of container
(b) weight of the body in water (c) increased in proportion to the mass of the fluid and
(c) relative density of the body then transmitted
(d) density of body in water (d) transmitted unchanged to every portion of the fluid
9. Which of the following parameters decrease as we go up? and wall of containing vessel.
(a) Density of air (b) Acceleration due to gravity 18. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid
(c) Atmospheric pressure (d) All of these does not depend on
10. Which liquid is used in an open-tube manometer for
(a) acceleration due to gravity
measuring small pressure differences?
(b) height of the liquid column
(a) Oil (b) Mercury
(c) Water (d) None of these (c) area of the bottom surface
(d) nature of the liquid
EBD_7208
144 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
19. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with 32. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(a) high density and low viscosity (a) Terminal velocities of rain drops are proportional to
(b) low density and high viscosity square of their radii
(c) high density and high viscosity (b) Water proof agents decrease the angle of contact
(d) low density and low viscosity between water and fibres
20. Beyond the critical speed, the flow of fluids becomes (c) Detergents increase the surface tension of water
(a) streamline (b) turbulent (d) Hydraulic machines work on the principle of Torricelli's
(c) steady (d) very slow law
33. According to stokes law, the relation between terminal
21. For flow of a fluid to be turbulent
velocity (vt) and viscosity of the medium (n) is
(a) fluid should have high density
(a) vt = n (b) vt n
(b) velocity should be large
(c) reynold number should be less than 2000 1
(c) vt (d) vt is independent of n.
(d) both (a) and (b) n
22. In a stream line (laminar flow) the velocity of flow at any 34. When the temperature increases, the viscosity of
point in the liquid (a) gases decreases and liquid increases
(a) does not vary with time (b) gases increases and liquid decreases
(b) may vary in direction but not in magnitude (c) gases and liquids increases
(c) may vary in magnitude but not in direction (d) gases and liquids decreases
(d) may vary both in magnitude and direction 35. Fevicol is added to paint to be painted on the walls, because
23. In Bernoulli’s theorem which of the following is conserved? (a) it increases adhesive force between paint and wall.
(a) Mass (b) Linear momentum (b) it decreases adhesive force between paint and wall
(c) Energy (d) Angular momentum molecules.
24. Bernoulli’s equation is important in the field of (c) it decreases cohesive force between paint molecules
(a) electrical circuits (b) magnetism (d) None of these
(c) flow of fluids (d) photoelectric effect 36. A rectangular glass plate is held vertically with long side
25. Paint-gun is based on horizontal and half the plate immersed in water. Which of the
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Archimedes’ principle following forces is acting on the plate?
(a) Weight of the plate acting vertically upwards
(c) Boyle’s law (d) Pascal’s law
(b) Force of surface tension acting vertically downwards
26. Magnus effect is very near to the (c) Force of viscosity acting horizontally
(a) magnetic field (b) electric field (d) All of these
(c) bernoulli’s theorem (d) magnetic effect of current 37. Which of the following expressions represents the excess
27. A liquid is allowed to flow into a tube of truncated cone of pressure inside the soap bubble?
shape. Identify the correct statement from the following:
(a) the speed is high at the wider end and high at the narrow (a) Pi – Po = s (b) Pi – Po = 2s
r r
end.
(b) the speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow 2s 4s
(c) Pi – Po = +h g (d) Pi – Po =
end. r r
38. For a given volume which of the following will have
(c) the speed is same at both ends in a stream line flow.
minimum energy?
(d) the liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube. (a) Cube (b) Cone
28. Toricelli’s theorem is used to find (c) Sphere (d) All have same energy
(a) the velocity of efflux through an orifice. 39. If a soap bubble formed at the end of the tube is blown very
(b) the velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe. slowly, then the graph between excess pressure inside the
(c) terminal velocity bubble with time will be a
(d) critical velocity (a) straight line sloping up
29. The device which measures the flow speed of incompressible (b) straight line sloping down
fluid is (c) parabolic curve sloping down
(a) sphygmomanometer (b) open-tube manometer (d) parabolic curve sloping up
(c) venturimeter (d) mercury barometer 40. Surface tension of a liquid is due to
30. As the temperature of a liquid is raised, the coefficient of (a) gravitational force between molecules
(b) electrical force between molecules
viscosity
(c) adhesive force between molecules
(a) decreases (b) increases (d) cohesive force between molecules
(c) remains the same 41. Surface tension may be defined as
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the nature of (a) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
liquid area of a liquid under isothermal conditions
31. After terminal velocity is reached, the acceleration of a body (b) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
falling through a fluid is area of a liquid under adiabatic conditions
(a) equal to g (b) zero (c) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
(c) less than g (d) greater than g area of a liquid under adiabatic conditions
(d) free surface energy per unit volume
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 145
42. At critical temperature, the surface tension of a liquid is STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) zero
(b) infinity 52. Which of the following statements are true about streamline
(c) the same as that at any other temperature
flow?
(d) None of these
I. Path taken by a fluid particle under a steady flow is a
43. If two soap bubbles of different radii are in communication
streamline
with each other then
(a) air flows from the larger bubble into the smaller one II. No two streamlines can cross each other
until the two bubbles are of equal size III. Velocity increases at the narrower portions where the
(b) the size of the bubbles remains the same streamlines are closely spaced
(c) air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one (a) I & II only (b) II & III only
and the larger one grows at the expense of the smaller (c) I & III only (d) I, II & III
one 53. Select the correct statements from the following.
(d) the air flows from the larger into the smaller bubble I. Bunsen burner and sprayers work on Bernoulli's
until the radius of the smaller one becomes equal to principle
that of the larger one and of the larger one equal to II. Blood flow in arteries is explained by Bernoulli's principle
that of the smaller one.
III. A siphon works on account of atmospheric pressure.
44. Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger
droplet. In this process (a) I & II only (b) II & III only
(a) energy is liberated (c) I & III only (d) I, II & III
(b) energy is absorbed 54. Consider the following statements : In a streamline flow of a
(c) energy is neither liberated nor absorbed liquid
(d) some mass is converted into energy I. the kinetic energies of all particles arriving at a given
45. When a pinch of salt or any other salt which is soluble in point are same.
water is added to water, its surface tension II. the momenta of all particles arriving at a given point are
(a) increases same.
(b) decreases III. the speed of particles are below the critical velocity.
(c) may increase or decrease depending upon salt Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) None of these
(a) I & II only (b) II & III only
46. If more air is pushed in a soap bubble, the pressure in it
(a) decreases (b) becomes zero (c) I &III only (d) I, II & III
(c) remains same (d) increases 55. Consider the following statements :
47. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water. Which of the I. Magnus effect is a consequence of Bernoulli’s principle.
following is correct? II. A cricketer, while spinning a ball makes it to experience
(a) It will remain on it as a sphere magnus effect.
(b) It will spread as a thin layer Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) It will partly be a spherical droplet and partly a thin (a) I only (b) II only
film (c) Both I & II (d) Neither I nor II
(d) It will float as a distorted drop on the water surface 56. Consider the following statements :
48. For which of the following liquids, the liquid meniscus in the
There is a small hole near the bottom of an open tank filled
capillary tube is, convex?
with water. The speed of water ejected depends on
(a) Water (b) Mercury
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these I. area of the hole
49. Kerosene oil rises up in a wick of a lantern because of II. density of liquid
(a) diffusion of the oil through the wick III. height of liquid from the hole
(b) capillary action IV acceleration due to gravity
(c) buoyant force of air Which of the statements given above are correct
(d) the gravitational pull of the wick (a) I & II only (b) I, III & IV
50. Due to capillary action, a liquid will rise in a tube if angle of (c) III & IV only (d) II, III & IV
contact is 57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) acute (b) obtuse
I. For gases, in general, viscosity increases with
(c) 90º (d) zero
temperature
51. With the increase in temperature, the angle of contact
(a) decreases II. For liquids, viscosity varies directly with pressure
(b) increases III. For gases, viscosity is independent of pressure
(c) remains constant (a) I & II (b) II & III
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases (c) I & III (d) I, II, & III
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58. Which of the following statements is/are true? 60. Select the false statement(s) about surface tension from the
I. Solid friction is independent of area of surface in contact following?
and viscous drag is also independent of area of layers I. Surface tension is the extra energy that the molecules
in contact. at the interface have as compared to the molecules in
II. Solid friction depends on the relative velocity of one the interior
body on the surface of another body while viscous II. The value of surface tension is independent of the
drag is independent of the relative velocity between temperature
two layers of the liquid. III. Surface tension causes capillary action
III. Solid friction is directly proportional to the normal (a) I only (b) II only
reaction while viscosity is independent of the normal (c) I & II (d) I, II & III
reaction between two layers of the liquid. 61. Consider the following statements and select the true
(a) I, II & III (b) I & II statement(s)?
(c) III only (d) II only I. A large soap bubble shrinks while a small soap bubble
59. Which of the following are incorrect statement(s) about expands when they are connected to each other by a
viscosity of liquids? capillary tube, in order to gain equilibrium
I. Viscosity decreases with increase in density II. The raindrops fall on the surface of earth with the same
II. Viscosity decreases with increase in temperature constant velocity
III. Viscosity of liquids (except water) decreases with III. A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has
increase in pressure attained a certain height in the sky
(a) I only (b) II only (a) I only (b) II only
(c) III only (d) I & III (c) III only (d) I & III

62. Match column I and column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Barometer (1) Law of conservation of energy
(B) Hydrometer (2) To measure density
(C) Bernoulli's Principle (3) To measure atmospheric pressure
(D) Archimedes' Principle (4) upthrust
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(A) Stoke's law (1) Pressure energy
(B) Turbulence (2) Hydraulic lift
(C) Bernoulli's principle (3) Viscous drag
(D) Pascal's law (4) Reynold's number
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(A) Terminal velocity (1) Average density becomes less than that of liquid
(B) Objects of high density can also float (2) Upthrust is zero
(C) A beaker having a solid iron under free fall (3) Varies with velocity
(D) Viscous drag (4) Upthrust and viscous force
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(A) Bernoullis theorem (1) Narrower pipes have less pressure
(B) Ball moving with spin (2) Paint gun
(C) Artificial high pressure (3) Non-viscous fluids
(D) Streamline flow (4) Conservation of energy
(5) Uplift due to pressure difference
(a) (A) (3,4) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1,3) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)

(A) Magnus effect (1) Pascal's law
(B) Loss of energy (2) Archimede's principle
(C) Pressure is same at the same level in a liquid (3) Viscous force
(D) Hydraulic machines (4) Lifting of Asbestos roofs
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (5) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(A) Water proofing agents (1) Increase in terminal velocity
(B) Sphygmomanometer (2) Gauge pressure
(C) More than gauge pressure (3) Actual pressure
(D) Mixing of drops of smaller dimension (4) Increase the angle of contact
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (5) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(A) Capillaries of smaller radii (1) Flat meniscus
(B) Fc > 2Fa where Fc and Fa are cohesive (2) Greater height difference
and adhesive force
(C) Angle of contact is zero (3) Drop in level
(D) Lower angle of contact (4) Welding agents
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2,3)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
69. Match the column I and column II
Column I Column II
(A) Floating bodies (1) Torricelli's law
(B) Capillarity (2) Bernoulli's principle
(C) Energy conservation (3) Archimedes principle
(D) Speed of efflux (4) Pascal's law
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)

material of density 3 , is dropped in the jar. It comes to
70. From the figure, the correct observation is equilibrium in the position shown in the figure.Which of the
following is true for 1, 1and 3?
(a) 3< 1 2
Water Water
(b) 1> 3 2
(a) (b) (c) 1< 2 3
(a) the pressure on the bottom of tank (a) is greater than at (d) 1< 3 2
the bottom of (b)
(b) the pressure on the botttom of the tank (a) is smaller 72. A ball is made of a material of density where
than at the bottom (b) oil with oil and water representing the
water
(c) the pressure depend on the shape of the container densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are
(d) the pressure on the bottom of (a) and (b) is the same. immiscible. If the above ball is in equilibrium in a mixture of
71. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents
densities 1 and, 2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a its equilibrium position?
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76. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the bottom of the
vessel detach and rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres of
water Oil radius R and making a circular contact of radius r with the
bottom of the vessel. If r << R and the surface tension of
(a) (b) water is T, value of r just before bubbles detach is:
Oil water (density of water is )
w
water Oil
(c) (d)
Oil water
73. Figure shows a U-tube of uniform cross-sectional area A, R

accelerated with acceleration a as shown. If d is the
separation between the limbs, then what is the difference in 2r
the levels of the liquid in the U-tube is
2 g 2 wg
(a) R
w
(b) R2
h = h1–h2 3T 3T
2 g 3 g
(c) R
w
(d) R2 w
a T T
77. A thin liquid film formed between a U-
d shaped wire and a light slider supports a
ad ag weight of 1.5 × 10–2 N (see figure). The Film
(a) g
(b) length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight
d
negligible. The surface tension of the
a dg liquid film is
(c) (d)
d a (a) 0.0125 Nm–1 (b) 0.1 Nm–1
74. What is the absolute pressure of the gas above the liquid (c) 0.05 Nm –1 (d) 0.025 Nm–1 W
surface in the tank shown in fig. Density of oil = 820 kg/m3,
density of mercury = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3. Given 1 atmospheric
pressure = 1.01× 105 N/m2.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(a) 3.81 × 105 N/m2 (b) 6 × 106 N/m2 78. Assertion: Mercury is preferred as a barometric substance
(c) 5 × 107 N/m2 (d) 4.6 × 102 N/m2 over water.
Reason: Mercury is opaque and shiny so it is easier to note
75. A candle of diameter d is floating on a
the observation.
liquid in a cylindrical container of
79. Assertion: A small iron needle sinks in water while a large
diameter D (D >> d) as shown in figure. L iron ship floats.
If it is burning at the rate of 2 cm/hour Reason: The shape of iron needle is like a flat surface while
then the top of the candle will the shape of a ship is that which makes it easier to float.
(a) remain at the same height L
80. Assertion: The apparent weight of a floating body is zero.
(b) fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour d Reason: The weight of the block acting vertically downwards
(c) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour is balanced by the buoyant force acting on the block
(d) go up at the rate of 1 cm/hour D
upwards.
81. Assertion : Pascal's law is the working principle of a hydraulic 92. Assertion: Surface tension of all lubricating oils and paints
lift. is kept high.
Reason : Pressure is equal to the thrust per unit area. Reason: Due to high value of surface tension the fluids
82. Assertion : Imagine holding two identical bricks under water. don't get damaged.
Brick A is completely submerged just below the surface of 93. Assertion : If a body is floating in a liquid, the density of
water, while Brick B is at a greater depth. The magnitude of liquid is always greater than the density of solid.
force exerted by the person (on the brick) to hold brick B in Reason : Surface tension is the property of liquid surface.
place is the same as magnitude of force exerted by the person 94. Assertion : Smaller the droplets of water, spherical they are.
(on the brick) to hold brick A in place. Reason : Force of surface tension is equal, and opposite to
Reason : The magnitude of buoyant force on a brick com- force of gravity.
pletely submerged in water is equal to magnitude of weight 95. Assertion : A large force is required to draw apart normally
of water it displaces and does not depend on depth of brick two glass plates enclosing a thin water film.
in water. Reason : Water works as glue and sticks two glass plates.
83. Assertion : The blood pressure in humans is greater at the 96. Assertion : It is better to wash the clothes in cold soap
feet than at the brain solution.
Reason : Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to Reason : The surface tension of cold solution is more than
height, density of liquid and acceleration due to gravity the surface tension of hot solution.
84. Assertion : Hydrostatic pressure is a vector quantity. 97. Assertion : The concept of surface tensiton is held only for
Reason : Pressure is force divided by area, and force is vector liquid
quantity.
Reason : Surface tension does not hold for gases.
85. Assertion : The velocity of flow of a liquid is smaller when
98. Assertion : When height of a tube is less than liquid rise in
pressure is larger and vice-versa.
the capillary tube, the liquid does not overflow
Reason : According to Bernoulli’s theorem, for the stream
line flow of an ideal liquid, the total energy per unit mass Reason : Product of radius of meniscus and height of liquid
remains constant in capillary tube always remains constant.
86. Assertion : A bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the
top. CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
Reason : Its radius increases.
87. Assertion : Sudden fall of pressure at a place indicates 99. Consider an iceberg floating in sea water. The density of sea
storm. water is 1.03 g/cc and that of ice is 0.92 g/cc. The fraction of
Reason : Air flows from higher pressure to lower pressure. total volume of iceberg above the level of sea water is near
88. Assertion : As wind flows left to right and a ball is spinned by
as shown, there will be a lift of the ball. (a) 1.8% (b) 3%
(c) 8% (d) 11%
100. A block of ice floats on a liquid of density 1.2 in a beaker
then level of liquid when ice completely melt
(a) remains same (b) rises
(c) lowers (d) either (b) or (c)
101. The total weight of a piece of wood is 6 kg. In the floating
Reason : Decreased velocity of air below the ball increases 1
state in water its part remains inside the water. On this
the pressure more than that above the ball. 3
89. Assertion : Lifting of aircraft is caused by pressure floating piece of wood what maximum weight is to be put
such that the whole of the piece of wood is to be drowned in
difference brought by varying speed of air molecules.
the water?
Reason : As the wings/ aerofoils move against the wind, (a) 15 kg (b) 14 kg
the streamlines crowd more above them than below, causing (c) 10 kg (d) 12 kg
higher velocity above than below. 102. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3) over mercury
90. Assertion: The pressure of water reduces when it flows (denisty = 13.6 gm/cm3). A homogeneous sphere floats with
from a narrow pipe to a wider pipe. half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in
Reason: Since for wider pipe area is large, so flow of speed oil. The density of the material of the sphere in gm/cm3 is
is small and pressure also reduces proportionately. (a) 3.3 (b) 6.4
91. Assertion : Falling raindrops acquire a terminal velocity. (c) 7.2 (d) 12.8
Reason : A constant force in the direction of motion and a 103.In a hydraulic lift, compressed air exerts a force F1 on a small
velocity dependent force opposite to the direction of motion, piston having a radius of 5 cm. This pressure is transmitted
always result in the acquisition of terminal velocity. to a second piston of radius 15 cm. If the mass of the load to
EBD_7208
be lifted is 1350 kg, find the value of F1 ? The pressure the magnitude of q is
necessary to accomplish this task is (a) 1.6 × 10–19 C (b) 3.2 × 10–19 C
(a) 1.4 × 105 Pa (b) 2 × 105 Pa (c) 4.8 × 10–19 C (d) 8.0 × 10–19 C
5
(c) 1.9 × 10 Pa (d) 1.9 Pa 111. A solid sphere of density 1 times lighter than water is
104. The two thigh bones, each of cross - sectional area
suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as
10 cm 2 support the upper part of a human body of mass shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m, then the tension
40 kg. Estimate the average pressure sustained by the in the string is given by
bones. Take g = 10 m/s2
(a) 2 × 105 N/m2 (b) 5 × 104 N/m2
(c) 2 × 107 N/m2 (d) 3 × 106 N/m2
105. A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in a liquid
of density 1.2 × 103 kg/m3. If outer diameter and the density
of the bowl are 1 m and 2 × 104 kg/m3 respectively then the
inner diameter of the bowl will be 1
(a) mg (b) mg
(a) 0.94 m (b) 0.97 m
(c) 0.98 m (d) 0.99 m mg
(c) (d) 1 mg
106. A uniform rod of density is placed in a wide tank containing 1
a liquid of density 0( 0 > ). The depth of liquid in the tank 112. An air bubble of radius 1 cm rises with terminal velocity 0.21
is half the length of the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, with its cm/s in liquid column. If the density of liquid is 1.47 × 103 kg/
lower end resting on the bottom of the tank. In this position m3. Then the value of coefficient of viscosity of liquid
the rod makes an angle with the horizontal ignoring the density of air, will be
1 (a) 1.71 × 104 poise (b) 1.82 × 104 poise
1 0 4
(a) sin 0 / (b) sin . (c) 1.78 × 10 poise (d) 1.52 × 104 poise
2 2 113. The relative velocity of two parallel layers of water is 8 cm/
(c) sin / 0 (d) sin 0 / sec. If the perpendicular distance between the layers is 0.1
cm. Then velocity gradient will be
107. Air flows horizontally with a speed v = 106 km/hr. A house
(a) 80/sec (b) 60 /sec
has plane roof of area A = 20m 2 . The magnitude of
(c) 50/sec (d) 40/sec
aerodynamic lift of the roof is
114. If a ball of steel (density = 7.8 g cm–3) attains a terminal
(a) 1.127 × 104 N (b) 5.0 × 104 N velocity of 10 cms–1 when falling in a tank of water
5
(c) 1.127 × 10 N (d) 3.127 × 104 N
(coefficient of viscosity 4
8.5 10 Pa s ) then its
108. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of water
density 1. It is falling through a liquid of density 2 ( 2< terminal velocity in glycerine ( 12 gcm 3 , 13.2 Pa s)
1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the would be nearly
ball that is proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,
(a) 1.6 × 10–5 cms–1 (b) 6.25 × 10–4 cms–1
Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is –4 –1
(c) 6.45 × 10 cms (d) 1.5 × 10–5 cms–1
Vg ( 1 – 2) Vg 1 115. A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a valve
(a) (b) separating the two identical ends. Initially, the valve is in a
k k
tightly closed position. End 1 has a hemispherical soap
Vg 1 Vg ( 1 – 2 ) bubble of radius r. End 2 has sub-hemispherical soap bubble
(c) (d) as shown in figure. Just after opening the valve
k k
109. When a ball is released from rest in a very long column of
viscous liquid, its downward acceleration is ‘a’ (just after
release). Its acceleration when it has acquired two third of
the maximum velocity is a/X. Find the value of X.
(a) 2 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 4 (d) 5
110. A tiny spherical oil drop carrying a net charge q is balanced (a) air from end 1 flows towards end 2. No change in the
volume of the soap bubbles
in still air will a vertical uniform electric field of
81 (b) air from end 1 flows towards end 2. Volume of the soap
strength 105 Vm –1 . When the field is switched off, bubble at end 1 decreases
7 (c) no change occurs
the drop is observed to fall with terminal velocity
2 × 10–3 ms–1.(Given : g = 9.8 ms–2 , viscosity of the (d) air from end 2 flows towards end 1. Volume of the soap
air = 1.8 × 10–5 Nsm–2 and the density of oil = 900 kgm–3) bubble at end 1 increases
116. A liquid is filled upto a height of 20 cm in a cylindrical vessel. 124. The work done in increasing the size of a soap film from
The speed of liquid coming out of a small hole at the bottom 10 cm × 6 cm to 10 cm × 11 cm is 3 × 10–4J. The surface tension
of the vessel is (g = 10 ms–2) of the film is
(a) 1.2 ms–1 (b) 1 ms–1 (a) 11 × 10–2 N/m (b) 6 × 10–2 N/m
(c) 2 ms–1 (d) 3.2 ms–1 (c) 3 × 10–2 N/m (d) 1.5 × 10–2 N/m
117. Two soap bubbles each with radius r1 and r2 coalesce in
125. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 106 drops of
vacuum under isothermal conditions to form a bigger bubble
equal size. The energy expressed in joule is (surface tension
of radius R. Then R is equal to
of Mercury is 460 × 10–3 N/m)
(a) r12 r22 (b) r12 r22 (a) 0.057 (b) 5.7
(c) 5.7 × 10–4 (d) 5.7 × 10–6
r12 r22
(c) r1 – r2 (d) 126. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from
2 radius 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (surface tension of soap solution
118. A boy can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of = 0.03 Nm–1)
mercury. Using a straw he can drink water from a glass upto (a) 0.2 mJ (b) 2 mJ
the maximum depth of (atmospheric pressure = 760 mm of
(c) 0.4 mJ (d) 4 mJ
mercury; density of mercury = 13.6 gcm–3)
127. Two soap bubbles A and B are kept in a closed chamber
(a) 13.6 cm (b) 9.8 cm where the air is maintained at pressure 8 N/m2. The radii of
(c) 10 cm (d) 76 cm bubbles A and B are 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively.Surface
119. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such a way tension of the soap-water used to make bubbles is 0.04 N/m.
that a length of 8 cm extends above the mercury level. The Find the ratio nB/nA, where nAand nB are the number of
open end of the tube is then closed and sealed and the tube moles of air in bubbles A and B, respectively. [Neglect the
is raised vertically up by additional 46 cm. What will be effect of gravity]
length of the air column above mercury in the tube now? (a) 2 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 6
(Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
128. An isolated and charged spherical soap bubble has a radius
(a) 16 cm (b) 22 cm r and the pressure inside is atmospheric. If T is the surface
(c) 38 cm (d) 6 cm tension of soap solution, then charge on drop is
120. A boat carrying a few number of big stones floats in a water
X r 2rT 0 then find the value of X.
tank. If the stones are unloaded into water, the water level
(a) rises till half the number of stones are unloaded and (a) 8 (b) 9
then begins to fall (c) 7 (d) 2
(b) remains unchanged 129. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of
(c) rises density 'd' keeping them vertical . If the distance between
(d) falls the plates is 'x', surface tension for liquids is T and angle of
121. A solid ball of volume V experiences a viscous force F when contact is , then rise of liquid between the plates due to
falling with a speed v in a liquid. If another ball of volume capillary will be
8 V with the same velocity v is allowed to fall in the same T cos 2T cos
liquid, it experiences a force (a) (b)
xd xdg
(a) F (b) l6 F
2T T cos
(c) 4 F (d) 2 F (c) (d)
122. A beaker of radius 15 cm is filled with a liquid of surface xdg cos xdg
tension 0.075 N/m. Force across an imaginary diameter on 130. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises
the surface of the liquid is up to 8 cm. If the entire arrangement is put in a freely falling
(a) 0.075 N (b) 1.5 × 10–2 N elevator the length of water column in the capillary tube will
(c) 0.225 N (d) 2.25 × 10–2 N be
123. A water film is formed between two straight parallel wires of (a) 10 cm (b) 8 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 4 cm
10 cm length 0.5 cm apart. If the distance between wires is
131. In a capillary tube, water rises to 3 mm. The height of water
increased by 1 mm. What will be the work done ?
that will rise in another capillary tube having one-third radius
(surface tension of water = 72 dyne/cm)
of the first is
(a) 36 erg (b) 288 erg
(a) 1 mm (b) 3mm
(c) 144 erg (d) 72 erg
(c) 6 mm (d) 9mm
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132. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a water is T then the pressure in water between the plates is
house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the lower by
pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force
exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force Cylindrical surface
will be ( air = 1.2 kg/m3) of water
(a) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards
(b) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards 2T 4T
(a) (b)
(c) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards R R
(d) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards T T
(c) (d)
4R R
133. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube water 139. Water rises to a height 'h' in a capillary tube. If the length of
rises upto 0.1 m. If the same experiment is repeated on an capaillary tube above the surface of water is made less than
artificial satellite, which is revolving around the earth, water 'h' then
will rise in the capillary tube upto a height of (a) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there
without overflowing
(a) 0.1 m
(b) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays
(b) 0.2 m there
(c) 0.98 m (c) water does not rise at all.
(d) full length of the capillary tube (d) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts
134. Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that overflowing like fountain.
the upward force due to surface tension is balanced by 7.5 × 140. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, R, one end
10–4N force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the
tension of water is 6 × 10–2Nm–1, the inner circumference of liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid
the capillary tube must be through the holes is
(a) 1.25 × 10–2m (b) 0.50 × 10–2m
(c) 6.5 × 10 m–2 (d) 12.5 × 10–2m VR 2 VR 2
(a) (b)
135. Radius of a capillary tube is 2 × 10–3m. A liquid of weight nr 2 n3r 2
6.28 × 10–4 N may remain in the capillary then the surface
tension of liquid will be V 2R VR 2
(c) (d)
(a) 5 × 103 N/m (b) 5 × 10–2 N/m nr n2r2
(c) 5 N/m (d) 50 N/m 141. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius ‘r’
136. If the surface tension of water is 0.06 Nm –1, then the capil- coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’.
lary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is ( = 0°) If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then :
(a) 1.22 cm (b) 2.44 cm
(c) 3.12 cm (d) 3.68 cm 1 1
137. The height upto which liquid rises in a capillary tube is given (a) energy = 4VT is released
r R
2Scos
by h = this is for which of the following cases, 1 1
h g (b) energy = 3VT is absorbed
water will be depressed in such a tube? r R
(a) is acute (b) is a right angle
1 1
(c) is zero (d) is obtuse (c) energy = 3VT is released
138. If two glass plates have water between them and are r R
separated by very small distance (see figure), it is very (d) energy is neither released nor absorbed
difficult to pull them apart. It is because the water in between 142. Two capillary tubes A and B of diameter 1 mm and 2 mm
forms cylindrical surface on the side that gives rise to lower respectively are dipped vertically in a liquid. If the capillary
pressure in the water in comparison to atmosphere. If the rise in A is 6 cm, then the capillary rise in B is
radius of the cylindrical surface is R and surface tension of (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) 6 cm
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 23. (c) In Bernoulli’s theorem only law of conservation of
energy is obeyed.
1. (d) 2. (b) 24. (c) Bernoulli’s equation is a indespensable tool for the
3. (d) 1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa; 1 bar = 105 Pa analysis of flow of liquids.
Pa, atm, Bar, all are the units of pressure. 25. (a)
4. (b) Sphygmomanometer is the blood pressure gauge and 26. (c) Magnus effect of the ball can be explained easily by
it measures the gauge pressure. Bernoulli’s theorem.
5. (c) Liquid pressure depends upon the height of liquid 27. (b) The theorem of continuity is valid.
column and is independent of the shape of liquid surface A1v1 = A2v2 as the density of the liquid can be
and the area of liquid surface. The liquid at rest exerts taken as uniform.
equal pressure in all directions.
A2
6. (d) Hydraulic machines & lifts are based on A1
F1 F2
P1 = P2 ;
A1 A 2
7. (a) Archimedes's principle states that when a body is A1v1 = A2v2
immersed in a liquid, it loses it weight and the loss in Smaller the area, greater the velocity.
weight of body is equal to the weight of the liquid 28. (a) 29. (c)
displaced by the immersed part of the body. 30. (a) As the temperature rises the atoms of the liquid become
8. (c) Specific gravity of a body is defined as ratio of weight more mobile and the coefficient of viscosity falls.
of body in air to the loss of weight of body in water at 31. (b) When terminal velocity is reached then body moves
4°C. with constant velocity hence, accelesation is zero.
Vsg s 32. (a) Terminal velocities of rain drops are proportional to
= = Relative density of the body.. square of their radii.
Vswg sw
Terminal velocity of a body is given by
9. (d) As we go up the density of air decreases and so does
the value of g. since P = h g 2R 2
P also decreases. vT d g. or, V R2
9
10. (a) In open-tube manometer, low-density liquid such as oil
is used for measuring small pressure differenes. 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a)
11. (c) Weight of water displaced 36. (b) The various forces acting on the plate are,
3
(i) Weight of the plate acting vertically downward
(Below the water volum = v) (ii) Surface tension acting vertically downwards
4
=V g (iii) Upthrust due to liquid acting vertically upward
37. (d) 38. (c)
3
= Vs g 39. (c) Excess pressure inside the soap bubble
4 w
For a floating body weight of body 4s 1
p= p
= weight of water displaced by it r r
12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 40. (d) Surface tension of a liquid is due to force of attraction
15. (b) 16. (a) between like molecules of a liquid i.e., cohesive force
17. (d) Pressure applied to enclosed fluid is transmitted equally between the molecules.
in all direction according to Pascal law. 41. (a) Surface tension = workdone per unit area in increasing
18. (c) P = h g i.e. pressure does not depend upon the area the surface area of a liquid under isothermal condition.
of bottom surface. 42. (a) The surface tension of liquid at critical temperature is
19. (b) zero.
20. (b) Beyond the critical speed, the flow of fluids becomes 1
43. (c) Excess of pressure in a soap bubble, P = 4T/r i.e., P
turbulent as the flow loses its steadiness. r
21. (d) Reynold’s number N for turbulent motion is more than therefore pressure in a smaller bubble is more than that
v r of a bigger bubble. When two bubbles of different radii
3000 and N i.e., N v are in communication, then the air flows from higher
22. (a) In stream line flow velocity of flow at any point in the pressure to lower pressure i.e. from smaller bubble into
liquid does not vary with time. larger one.
EBD_7208
44. (a) When two drops merge together to form one drop, the 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d)
surface area of drop will decrease, due to which the 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b)
energy of bigger drop is less than the sum of the energy
of two smaller drops. Due to it, the energy is released. DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
45. (a) When a highly soluble salt (like sodium chloride) is
70. (d) Pressure = h g i.e. pressure at the bottom is
dissolved in water, the surface tension of water
independent of the area of the bottom of the tank. It
increases.
depends onthe height of water upto which the tank is
46. (b) When a sparingly soluble salt (like detergent) added to
filled with water. As is both the tanks, the levels of
water, the surface tension of water decreases.
water are the same, pressure at the bottom is also the
47. (b) The surface tension of oil is less than that of water, so
same.
the oil spreads as a thin layer.
71. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats on liquid 2.
48. (b) The contact angle between water & glass is acute but
The lighter liquid floats over heavier liquid. Therefore
that of water & mercury is obtuse.
the liquid meniscus is common for mercury. we can conclude that 1 2
49. (b) Kerosene oil rises up in wick of a lantern because of Also 3 < 2 otherwise the ball would have sink to the
capillary action. If the surface tension of oil is zero, bottom of the jar.
then it will not rise, so oil rises up in a wick of a lantern Also 3 > 1 otherwise the ball would have floated in
due to surface tension. liquid 1. From the above discussion we conclude that
1 < 3 < 2.
2 T cos
50. (a) h ; The liquid will rise i.e., h is positive 72. (b) oil water
r g
Oil is the least dense of them so it should settle at the
if cos is +ve; It is so if < 90º or is acute. top with water at the base. Now the ball is denser than
51. (a) With the increase in temperature, the surface tension oil but less denser than water. So it will sink through oil
of liquid decreases and angle of contact also decreases. but will not sink in water. So it will stay at the oil-water
interface.
73. (a) Mass of liquid in horizontal portion of U-tube = Ad
52. (d) Pseudo force on this mass = Ad a
53. (d) According to Bernoulli's theorem, when velocity of Force due to pressure difference in the two limbs
liquid flow increases, the pressure decreases. As the = (h1 g – h2 g) A
two boats moving in parallel directions close to each Equating both the forces
other, the stream of water between the boats is set into (h1 – h2) gA = Ad a
vigorous motion. As a result the presssure exerted by
water in between the boats becomes less than the Ad a ad
pressure of water outside the boats. Due to this (h1 – h 2) = gA g
pressure difference the boats are pulled towards each
other.
74. (a)
54. (d) For streamline flow, all are correct.
55. (c)
56. (c) Velocity of efflux, ve 2 gh , clearly ve depends on g
and h.
57. (d) For gases, T ; for liquids, increases with
increase in pressure, whereas for gases, is independent
of pressure.
58. (c) 59. (d)
60. (b) Surface tension depends on the temperature like
viscosity, surface tension decreases with rise in
temperature. Suppose Pgas is the pressure of the gas on the oil. As
61. (c) the points A and B are at the same level in the mercury
columns, so
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS PA = PB
62. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4) or Pgas + oil ghoil = Pa + Hg g hHg
or Pgas + 820 9.8 (1 + 1.50) = 80. (a)
Pa + 13.6 103 9.8 (1.5 + 0.75) 81. (b) According to Pascal's law, if gravity effect is neglected,
the pressure at every point of liquid in equilibrium of
or Pgas + 20.09 103 = Pa + 299.88 103 rest is same
Pgas – Pa = 299.88 103 – 20.09 103
F1
or [Pgas]gauge = 279.8 103 N/m2 Load
a1 C D a2
= 2.8 105 N/m2
Absolute pressure of gas F2
[Pgas] absolute = [Pgas]gauge + Pa
= 2.8 105 + 1.01 105
= 3.81 105 N/m2
F1 F2 a2
75. (b) The candle floats on the water with half its length above P1 P2 i.e., a or F2 F1
1 a2 a1
and below water level. Let its length be 10 cm. with 5
cm. below the surface and 5 cm. above it. If its length is As a2 >> a1 F2 >> F1
reduced to 8 cm, it will have 4 cm. above water surface. This shows that small force (F1) applied onthe smaller
So we see tip going down by 1 cm. So rate of fall of tip piston (of area a1) will be appearing as a very large
force onthe larger piston.
= 1 cm/hour.
76. (b) None of the given option is correct. 82. (a) Since the net buoyant force on the brick completely
When the bubble gets detached, submerged in water is independent of its depth below
Bouyant force = force due to surface tension the water surface, the man will have to exert same force
on both the bricks. Hence statement 1 is true, statement
2 is a correct explanation for statement 1.
83. (a) Height of the blood column in the human body is more
at feet than at the brain. As P = h g. therefore the
R blood exerts more pressure at the feet than at the brain.
84. (d) Since due to applied force on liquid, the pressure is
transmitted equally in all directions inside the liquid.
r That is why there is no fixed direction for the pressure
T×dl
due to liquid. Hence hydrostatic pressure is a scalar
Force due to excess pressure = upthrust quantity.
2T 85. (a)
Access pressure in air bubble =
R 86. (a) Since, the fluid move from higher pressure to lower
2T 4 R3 pressure and in a fluid, the pressure increase with
( r2 ) wg increase of depth. Hence, the pressure p0 will be lesser
R 3T
at the top than that at the bottom (p0 + h g). So, the air
2 R4 w g 2 wg bubble moves from the bottom to the top and does not
r2 r R2
3T 3T move sideways, since the pressure is same at the same
77. (d) At equilibrium, weight of the given block is balanced level. Further in coming from bottom to top the pressure
by force due to surface tension, i.e., decreases. According to Boyle's law pV = constant.
2L. S = W Therefore, if pressure decreases the volume increses,
W 1.5 10 2 N it means radius increases
or S 1
0.025 Nm
2L 2 0.3 m 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (a)
90. (d) Pressure of water reduces when it comes from wide
pipe to narrow pipe. According to equation of continuity,
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS av = constant. As the water flows from wider tube to
78. (b) Since mercury is a most dense liquid available therefore narrow tube, its velocity increases. According to
by using it, barometric arrangement will be of very Bernouli prinicple, where velocity is large pressure is
convinient size. less.
79. (c) In case of iron needle, the weight of water displaced by 91. (a)
the needle is much less than the weight of the needle, 92. (d) Surface tension of oils and paints is kept low so that it
hence it sinks but in case of a large iron ship the weight can spread over larger area.
of water displaced by the ship is higher than the weight 93. (d) 94. (c)
of the ship, hence it floats in water.
EBD_7208
95. (c) The two glass plates stick together due to surface lesser than water formed and so the level if liquid will
tension. rise.
96. (d) The soap solution, has less surface tension as 101. (d) Weight of submerged part of the block
compared to ordinary water and its surface tension 1
W v (Density of water) g ...(i)
decreases further on heating. The hot soap solution 3
can, therefore spread over large surface area and also it
2
has more wetting power. It is on account of this Excess weight, = weight of water having volume of
3
property that hot soap solution can penetrate and clean
the block.
the clothes better than the ordinary water.
97. (b) We know that the intermolecular distance between the 2
W' v (Density of water) g ...(ii)
gas molecules is large as compared to that of liquid. 3
Due to it the forces of cohesion in the gas molecules Dividing (ii) by (i),
are very small and these are quite large for liquids. W' 2/3
Therefore, the concept of surface tension is applicable W' 2W W' 2 6 12 kg
W 1/ 3
to liquid but not to gases.
102. (c)
2T 2T
98. (a) h hR hR constant
Rdg dg
Hence when the tube is of insufficient length, radius of Oil
curvature of the liquid meniscus increases, so as to
maintain the product hR a finite constant. Mercury
i.e., as h decreases, R increases and the liquid meniscus
becomes more and more flat, but the liquid does not
overflow. As the sphere floats in the liquid. Therefore its weight
will be equal to the upthrust force on it
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 4 3
Weight of sphere = R g … (i)
3
99. (d) Let Vi be the volume of the iceberg inside sea water
and V is the total volume of iceberg. Upthrust due to oil and mercury
Total weight of iceberg 2 3 2 3
R oil g R Hg g … (ii)
= weight of water displaced by iceberg. 3 3
Vi ice 0.92 Equating (i) and (ii)
V. ice
g Vi . water .g
V water 1.03 4 3 2 3 2 3
R g R 0.8 g R 13.6 g
Thus the fraction of total volume of iceberg above the 3 3 3
sea level 2 0.8 13.6 14.4 7.2
0.92 103. (c) Since pressure is transmitted undiminished throughout
V– V the fluid (Pascal's law)
V Vi 1.03
100% 100%
V V A1 (5 5)
F1 F2 (1350 9.81)
A2 (15 15)
0.92 0.11
1 100% 100% 11% 1.5 × 103 N
1.03 1.03 The air pressure that will produce this force is
100. (b) The volume of liquid displaced by floating ice F1 1.5 103
P= 1.9 105 Pa
M A1 (5 10 2 m) 2
VD
L 104. (a) Total cross-sectional area of the thigh bones
M A = 2 (10 × 10–4) = 2 × 10–3 m2
Volume of water formed by melting ice, VF Force acting on the bones = mg = 40 10
w
= 400 N
M M
If L w , then i.e., VD VF F 400
L w Pav = A 3 = 2 × 105 N/m2
2 10
i.e., volume of liquid displaced by floating ice will be
105. (c) Weight of the bowl = mg P1 = P2 + 1/2 v2
P1 – P2 = P = 1/2 v2.
3 3
4 D d Since the area of the roof is A, the aerodynamic lift
V g g
3 2 2 exerted on it = F = ( P) A
F = 1/2 Av2
Where D = Outer diameter where = density of air = 1.3 kg/m3
d = Inner diameter , = Density of bowl A = 20 m2, v = 29.44 m/sec.
Weight of the liquid diplaced by the bowl F = {1/2 × 1.3 × 20 × (29.44)2} N = 1.127 × 104 N.
3 108. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
D Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force
V g g
3 2 Fv B=V 2 g
where is the density of the liquid
For the floation
3 3 3
4 D 4 D d
g pg
3 2 3 2 2
W=V 1 g
3 3 3
1 1 d
1.2 103 2 104 Vg ( 1 2)
2 2 2 V 1g V 2 g kvt2 vt
k
By solving we get d = 0.98 m. 109. (b)
106. (a) Let L = PQ = length of rod
L vf 2 2
SP = SQ = vf = Weff
2 3 3
Weight of rod, W = Al g. acting
At point S
Weff = vf
Q
R Weff
Weff
When the When the ball attains
ball is released When the ball attains
terminal velocity
L 2/3 of terminal velocity
FB S
h = L/2 When the ball is just released, the net force on ball is
P W Weff ( mg buoyant force)
And force of buoyancy, The terminal velocity vf of the ball is attained when net
FB Al 0 g . [l = PR] force on the ball is zero.
Which acts at mid-point of PR. Viscous force 6 r vf Weff
For rotational equilibrium.
2
L When the ball acquires rd of its maximum velocity
Al 0 g cos AL g cos 3
2 2
l2 l 2
vf the viscous force is = Weff
3
L2 0 L 0
2 1
h L 1 0 Hence net force is Weff Weff Weff
From figure, sin 3 3
l 2l 2
required acceleration is a/3
107. (a) Air flows just above the roof and there is no air flow 110. (d) When the electric field is on
just below the roof inside the room. Therefore v1 = 0 Force due to electric field = weight
and v2 = v. Applying Bermaulli’s theorem at the points 4 3
inside and outside the roof, we obtain. qE = mg qE = R g
3
(1/2) v12 + gh1 + P1 = (1/2) v22 + gh2 + P2. 4 R3 g
Since h1 = h2 = h, v1 = 0 and v2 = v1 q ...(i)
3E
EBD_7208
When the electric field is switched off
Weight = viscous drag force
mg = 6 Rvt
4 3
R g 6 Rvt
3 2 1
Subhemispherical Hemispherical
9 vt
R ...(ii) radius = r2 radius = r1
2 g
3
116. (c) Velocity of efflux v = 2gh
4 9 vt 2 g 1
From (i) & (ii) g = 2 10 0.2 2 ms
3 2 g E
117. (a) Volumes of two soap bubbles
3
4 3 4 3
4 9 1.8 10 5 2 10 3 2
900 9.8 7 V1r1 and V2 r
3 3 2
3 2 900 9.8 81 105
where r1 and r2 are the radii of soap bubbles.
= 7.8 × 10–19 C Let s be the surface tension of the soap solution. The
111. (d) T mg = Fb Fb excess pressure inside the two soap bubbles, then
T = Fb – mg 4S 4S
P1 and P2
=V wg mg r1 r2
m When these two bubbles coalesce under isothermal
= wg mg T
w/ conditions a bigger bubble of radius R is formed. If V
mg
=( and P be the volume and excess pressure inside this
1)mg .
bigger bubble, then
112. (d) Using the formula of the terminal velocity of a body 4 3 4S
VR and P
falling through a viscous medium, 3 R
2r 2 ( )g 2r 2 ( )g Here Boyle's law holds as the bigger bubble is formed
V under isothermal conditions
9 9v
i.e., P1V1 + P2V2 = PV
Where is the density of material of body and is the
density of medium. 4S 4 3 4S 4 3 4S 4 3
In case of the air bubble = 1 and = 1.47 × 103 kg/ms r1 r2 R
r1 3 r2 3 R 3
and the air bubble rises up.
2r 2 g r12 r22 R 2 or R r12 r22
9V 118. (a) Pressure difference between lungs and atmosphere
2 2 3 = (760 –750) mm of Hg
2 (10 ) 1.47 10
2 1.47 9.8 10 9.8
–2
9 0.21 = 10 mm of Hg = 1 cm of Hg
9 0.21 10
3 4
= 1.52 × 10 decapoise = 1.52 × 10 Poise Let the boy can suck water from depth h. Then
113. (a) dv = 8 cm/s and dx = 0.1 cm Pressure difference = h water g = 1 cm of Hg
or, h × 1g cm–3 × 980 cm s–2
dv 8
Velocity gradient = 80 / s. = 1 cm × 13.6g cm–3 × 980 cm s–2
dx 0.1
h = 13.6 cm
v 0 The boy can suck water from the depth of 13.6 cm
114. (b)
119. (a) (54–x)

v2 02 1 7.8 –1.2 8.5 10 4 10 P
v1 = 54 cm
01 2 7.8 –1 13.2 8 cm
= 6.25 ×10–4 cms–1 x
4T
115. (b) Pressure inside tube = P P0
r
P2 P1 (since r 2 > r1)
Hg
Hence pressure on side 1 will be greater than side 2. So
air from end 1 flows towards end 2
Length of the air column above mercury in the tube is,

P + x = P0 4S 4
8 (rA )3
P = (76 – x) PAV A nA rA 3 nA
8 × A × 76 = (76 – x) × A × (54 – x) PBVB nB 4S 4 nB
8 (rB )3
x = 38 rB 3
Thus, length of air column = 54 – 38 = 16 cm.
Substituting S = 0.04 N/m, rA = 2cm, rB = 4 cm.
120. (d) When stones are inside and float, water displacement
= V.p nA 1 nB
6.
When inside water displacement is V only. nB 6 nA
Then water level falls.
4T
128. (a) Inside pressure must be greater than outside pres-
4 3 r
121. (d) From stoke's law, F = 6 R1v, and V = R
3 sure in bubble.
pa
4
F' = 6 R2v, volume 8 V (2R)3 pa
3
=6 (2R)v
This excess pressure is provided by charge on bubble.
= 2F
122. (d) Surface tension = 0.075 N/m; diameter = 30 cm = 0.30 m 4T 2
4T Q2 Q
Force = 0.075 × 0.30 = 0.0225 N = 2.25 × 10–2N. ; 2 4
r 2 0 r 16 r 2 0 4 r2
123. (c) Work done = Surface tension × increase in area of the
film Q 8 r 2rT 0
W=S× A 129. (b) x

b
Increase in area = Final area – initial area
= 10 × (0.5 + 0.1) – 10 × 0.5 = 1 cm2
W = 72 × 2 × 1 = 144 erg
[ There are 2 free surfaces; h
A = 2 × 1].
124. (c) Work done, W = S [2 × (Change in area)]
[ there are two free surface]
W
Surface tension, S =
2 (change in area)
Let the width of each plate is b and due to surface
4
3 10 tension liquid will rise upto height h then upward force
= 3 × 10–2 N/m
2 10(11 6) (10 2 ) 2 due to surface tension.
= 2Tbcos ...(i)
125. (a) W = T A = 4 R2T(n1/3 – 1) Weight of the liquid rises in between the plates
= 4 × 3.14 × (10–2)2 × 460 × 10–3 [(106)1/3 –1] = 0.057 = Vdg = (bxh)dg ...(ii)
126. (c) Work done = Change in surface energy Equating (i) and (ii) we get, 2T cos = xhdg
W = 2T × 4 ( R22 R12 ) 2T cos

h
xdg
= 2 × 0.03 × 4 [(5)2 – (3)2] × 10–4J = 0.4 mJ
130. (c) Water fills the tube entirely in gravity less condition
4S i.e., 20 cm.
127. (d) Excess pressure inside the soap bubble =
r
2T
131. (d) For rise in capillary, the formula is h =
4S r g
So the pressure inside the soap bubble = Patm
r
2T
From ideal gas equation PV So, for first capillary tube h1 =
nRT r1 g
EBD_7208
2T 2T 2 6 10 –2
For second, h 2 = 136. (b) h 2.4 10 2 m 2.4cm
r2 g rdg 5 10 4
103 10
h1 r2 3 r1 r1 2s cos
= r2 = 137. (d) Since h =
h2 r1 h2 3×r1 3 h g
if is obtuse, cos is negative. Hence h is negative
h 2 = 9mm
and water is depressed in the tube.
132. (b) According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
T T
P 1
v2 P0 0 138. (d) Here excess pressure, Pexcess =
2 r1 r2
1 2 P
So, P= v T r1 R
2 Pexcess =
R r2 O
1 2 P0
F = PA = vA
2 139. (a) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays
there without overflowing.
1 140. (a) Inflow rate of volume of the liquid = Outflow rate of
= × 1.2 × 40 × 40 × 250
2 volume of the liquid
= 2.4 × 105 N (upwards)
R 2V VR 2
133. (d) In the satellite , the weight of the liquid column is zero. R2V = n r2(v) v=
n r2 nr 2
So the liquid will rise up to the top of the tube.
141. (c) As surface area decreases so energy is released.
134. (a) Weight of the liquid column = T cos × 2 r.
Energy released = 4 R2T[n 1/3 – 1]
For water = 0°. Here weight of liquid column
where R = n 1/3r
W = 7.5 × 10–4 N and T = 6 × 10 –2 N/m. Then
circumference, 2 r = W/T = 1.25 × 10–2m 3 1 1 1 1
= 4 R T = 3VT
r R r R
4
F 6.28 10
135. (b) T 3
5 10 –2 N / m 142. (b) For capillary rise, according, to zurin’s law
2 r 2 3.14 2 10 h1r1 = h2r2
6 × 1 = h2 × 2 h2 = 3 cm
11
THERMAL PROPERTIES
OF MATTER
7. When water is heated from 0ºC to 4ºC, its volume
(a) increases
1. Heat is associated with (b) decreases
(a) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules (c) does not change
(b) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules (d) first decreases and then increases
(c) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of 8. 4200 J of work is required for
molecules (a) increasing the temperature of 10 g of water through
(d) None of these 10°C
2. Heat content of a body depends on (b) increasing the temperature of 100 g of water through
(a) mass of the body (b) temperature of the body 10°C
(c) specific heat capacity (d) all of the above (c) increasing the temperature of 1 kg of water through
3. Which of the following is not a unit of heat energy ? 10°C
(a) joule (b) kelvin (d) increasing the temperature of 10 g of water through
(c) calorie (d) None of these 10°C
4. Choose the correct equation for interconversion of 9. Triple point of water is
temperature scales. (a) 273.16°F (b) 273.16 K
(c) 273.16°C (d) 273.16 R
TC 0 TF 32
(a) = 10. The reading of Centigrade thermometer coincides with that
100 180
of Fahrenheit thermometer in a liquid. The temperature of
TF 32 T 273.15 the liquid is
(b) = K (a) – 40ºC (b) 313°C
180 100
(c) 0°C (d) 100°C
TF 32 T 273.15 11. Which of the following will expand the most for same rise
(c) = K
180 180 in temperature?
(a) Aluminium (b) Glass
TC 0 TF 32
(d) = (c) Wood (d) All will expand same
180 100 12. Which of the following is an expression for heat capacity?
5. Which of the following pairs may give equal numerical values 1 Q Q
of the temperature of a body? (a) S = (b) S =
m T T
(a) Fahrenheit and Celsius
1 Q
(b) Celsius and Kelvin (c) S = (d) All of the above
T
(c) Kelvin and Reaumur
13. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat ?
(d) None of these
(a) Copper (b) Concrete
6. Expansion during heating
(c) Mercury (d) Air
(a) occurs only in solids
14. If and are coefficient of linear, area and volume
(b) increases the weight of a material
expansion respectively, then
(c) generally decreases the density of a material
(a) =3 (b) =3
(d) occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids
(c) (d)
EBD_7208
162 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
15. If two rods A and B of equal length L, and different areas 25. Which of the following is used as a coolent in automobile
of cross-section A1 and A2 have one end each at radiator as well as a heater in hot water bags?
temperature T1 and T2, have equal rates of flow of heat, (a) Ice (b) Sand
then (c) Water (d) All of these
A1 K1 26. ... A... and ...B... of heat energy required some material as a
(a) A1 = A2 (b) transport medium.
A2 K2
Hear, A and B refer to
A1 K 2
(c) (d) K1 = K2 (a) conduction, radiation
A2 K1 (b) radiation, convection
16. Mass of water which absorbs or emits the same amount (c) conduction, convection
of heat as is done by the body for the same rise or fall (d) radiation, evaporation
in temperature is known as
27. Which law is obeyed when temperature difference
(a) thermal capacity of the body
between the body and the surroundings is small?
(b) specific heat capacity of the body
(a) Stefan’s law (b) Newton’s law of cooling
(c) latent heat capacity of the body
(d) water equivalent of the body (c) Planck’s law (d) All of these
17. Which of the following is the unit of specific heat 28. Heat is transmitted from higher to lower temperature through
(a) J kg°C–1 (b) J/kg°C actual mass motion of the molecules in
(c) kg°C/J (d) J/kg°C–2 (a) conduction (b) convection
(c) radiation (d) None of these
TF 32 T
18. The equation = c , relates the Fahrenheit and 29. Good absorbers of heat are
180 100
(a) poor emitters (b) non-emitters
Celsius scale temperature. The TF versus Tc graph will be a (c) good emitters (d) highly polished
(a) straight line parallel to x-axis
30. Three bodies A, B and C have equal area which are
(b) straight line parallel to y-axis painted red, yellow and black respectively. If they are at
(c) straight line inclined to x-axis same temperature, then
(d) parabolic curve
(a) emissive power of A is maximum.
19. Which of the following undergo sublimation ?
(b) emissive power of B is maximum.
(a) Dry ice (b) Iodine
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) emissive power of C is maximum.
20. The phenomenon of refreezing the water into ice on (d) emissive power of A, B and C are equal.
removing the increased pressure is called 31. Sweet makers do not clean the bottom of cauldron
(a) freezing (b) fusion because
(c) sublimation (d) regelation (a) emission power of black and bright surface is more.
21. The value of molar heat capacity at constant temperature is (b) absorption power of black and bright surface is
(a) zero (b) infinity more.
(c) unity (d) 4.2 (c) black and rough surface absorbs more heat.
22. The latent heat of vaporization of a substance is always (d) transmission power of black and rough surface is
(a) greater than its latent heat of fusion more.
(b) greater than its latent heat of sublimation 32. Lamp black absorbs radiant heat which is near about
(c) equal to its latent heat of sublimation (a) 90% (b) 98%
(d) less than its latent heat of fusion (c) 100% (d) 50%
23. A quantity of heat required to change the unit mass of 33. At temperature T, the emissive power and absorption
a solid substance, from solid state to liquid state, while power of a body for certain wavelength are e and a
the temperature remains constant, is known as respectively, then
(a) latent heat (b) sublimation (a) e = a
(c) hoar frost (d) latent heat of fusion (b) e > a
24. A bubble of n mole of helium is submerged at a certain (c) e < a
depth in water. The temperature of water increases by t°C. (d) there will not be any difinite relation between e and
How much heat is added approximately to helium during a
expansion? 34. Newton’s law of cooling is applicable for
nc p (a) any excess of temperature over the surrounding.
(a) ncv t (b) (b) small excess of temperature over the surrounding.
t
(c) large excess of temperature over the surrounding.
n 2c v
(c) (d) ncp t (d) very large excess of temperature over the surrounding.
t
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER 163
35. Newton’s law of cooling is also applicable to 42. During vapourisation
(a) convection losses. I. change of state from liquid to vapour state occurs.
(b) natural convection losses. II. temperature remains constant.
(c) forced convection losses. III. both liquid and vapour states coexist inequilibrium.
(d) conduction losses. IV. specific heat of substance increases.
Correct statements are
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
36. A body A is at a temperature T A and a body B is at (c) I, III and IV (d) I , II and III
temperature TB such that TA > TB. Bodies A and B are 43. Consider the following statements and select the correct
connected. Which of the following statements is/are true statement(s).
related to two bodies ? I. Water can never be boiled without heating.
I. Body A is hotter than body B. II. Water can be boiled below room temperature by
II. Heat flows from A to B. lowering the pressure.
III. Heat flows from B to A.
III. On releasing the excess pressure water refreezes into
(a) I and II (b) Only I ice.
(c) II and III (d) I and III
37. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
(c) I and II (d) II and III
statements.
44. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
I. Water expands on heating between 0°C & 4°C
II. The density of water is minimum at 4°C I. Steam causes more severe burns than boiling water.
III. Density of water increases on heating above 4°C II. Specific heat capacity of water is maximum
IV. Water contracts on heating between 0°C & 4°C (a) I only (b) II only
(a) I and II only (b) III and IV only (c) I and II (d) None of these
(c) I , II and III (d) I, II, III and IV 45. Which of the following statements is/ are false about
38. Which of the following statements regarding specific heat mode of heat transfer?
capacity of a substance are correct ? It depends on I. In radiation, heat is transfered from one medium to
I. mass of substance. another without affecting the intervening medium
II. nature of substance. II. Radiation and convection are possible in vaccum
III. temperature of substance. while conduction requires material medium.
IV. volume of substance. III. Conduction is possible in solids while convection
(a) I and II (b) II and III occurs in liquids and gases.
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV (a) I only (b) II only
39. Consider the following statements and select the correct (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
statement(s). 46. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
I. Water and ice have same specific heats I. Convection is a mode of heat transfer by actual motion
II. Water and ice have different specific heats of matter.
III. Specific heat of water is more than that of ice II. Convection is possible only in gases.
IV. Specific heat of ice is more than that of water III. Convection can be natural or forced process in nature.
(a) I only (b) II only (a) Only I (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) III and IV (c) Only II (d) I, II and III
statement(s). MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
I. Copper is a better conductor of heat than glass.
II. Silver is the best condutor of heat 47. Match the quantities in column-I with the units in
III. Thermal conductivity of steel is greater than that of column-II.
copper. Column-I Column-II
(a) I only (b) II only (A) Amount of substance (1) J kg–1 K–1
(c) I and II (d) II and III (B) Coefficient of volume (2) J s–1 K–1
41. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? expansion
I. Gases are poor thermal conductors. (C) Specific heat (3) K–1
II. Liquids have conductivities intermediate between (D) Thermal conductivity (4) mol
solids and gases
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
III. Heat conduction can be take less from old body to
(b) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
hotter body.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(c) Only III (d) I and II (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
EBD_7208
48. Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) Bimetalic strip (1). Change in length (A) A and B are mixed (1). 33.3°C
(B) Steam engine (2) Energy conversion (B) A and C are mixed (2) 52°C
(C) Linear expansion (3) Change in area (C) B and C are mixed (3) 50°C
(D) Area expansion (4) Thermal expansion (D) A, B and C all three (4) 46.67°C
are mixed
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(a) (A) (1) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (4)
(b) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3)
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
49. Match the column I and column II.
Column I Column II DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
(A) PV = RT (1) Molar specific heat
53. A cylindrical metal rod is shaped into a ring with a small gap
(B) = 3 (2) Newton’s law of cooling
as shown. On heating the system :
1 Q
(C) C = (3) Ideal gas equation
T
dQ
(D) = – k(T2 – T1) (4) Coefficient of expansion
dt
(a) x decreases, r and d increase
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(b) x and r increase, d decreases
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) x, r and d all increase
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(d) x and r decreased, d remains constant
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
54. Which of the following graphs is correct for pressure
versus temperature, for low density gases?
(A) Lowest temperature (1) Less than 4°C
Pressure
of water in a lake
(B) Rate of variation of (2) Coexistence of three Gas A
density (r) is zero phases of a substance.
(C) Least volume of water (3) Surface tension is zero Gas B
×
(D) Triple point (4) Equal to 4°C (a) × Gas C
×
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) ×
×
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) –273.15°C 0°C Temperature
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) Gas A
51. Column-I Column-II Gas B
(A) Specific heat (1) l1 – l2 = constant for ×
capacity S l1 1 = l2 2 × Gas C
(b)
(B) Two metals (l1, a1) (2) Y is same ×
and (l2, a2) are heated ×
– 273.15°C
uniformly – 173.5°C – 73.5°C
(C) Thermal stress (3) S= for T = 0 (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
(D) Four wires of same (4) Y t 55. In the given pressure-temperature diagram, for water,
material which point indicates triple point ?
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) D B
(a) A
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) water
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (b) C steam
Pressure (P)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) ice C A
(c) P P
52. Three liquids A, B and C having same specific heat and
mass m, 2m and 3m have temperatures 20°C, 40°C and 60°C (d) E F E
respectively. Temperature of the mixture when
Temp. (T)
56. In the diagram given above, the CD curve is known as
Temperature
(a) hoarfrost line (b) steam line
Temperature
(c) vapourisation line (d) ice line
57. There rods of the same dimensions have thermal (c) (d)
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as shown
in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 20°C. The
temperature of their junction is Heat supplied Heat supplied
50°C 61. A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C)
2K and heats it till it boils. The graph between temperature and
100°C 3K time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute and
boiling point are respectively
Temperature (°C)
(a) 500 cal, 50°C 250
K 200
(b) 1000 cal, 100°C 150
20°C 100
(a) 60° (b) 70° (c) 50° (d) 35°
(c) 1500 cal, 200°C 50
58. The rate of heat flow through the cross-section of the rod
0
shown in figure is (T2 > T1 and thermal conductivity of the 1 2 3 4 56 7 8
material of the rod is K) (d) 1000 cal, 200°C Time (Minute)
62. In the plot of temperature versus time showing changes
r1 r2 in the state of ice on heating, which part represents
constant temperature ?
L
D
T1 T2
10°C B
K r1r2 (T2 T1 ) K (r1 r2 )2 (T2 T1 ) C
(a) (b)
L
(in °C)
4L
Temp.
K (r1 r1 )2 (T2 T1 ) K (r1 r1 ) 2 (T2 T1 ) A

(c) (d) 0°C
L 2L O tm
59. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite Time (in sec.)
slab, consisting of two materials having coefficients of (a) OA (b) AB
thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x,
(c) CD (d) All of these
respectively, are T2 and T1 (T2 T1 ) . The rate of heat 63. Which portion of the graph above indicates that two
transfer through the slab, in a steady state is states co-exist in thermal equilibrium ?
A(T2 T1 ) K (a) OA (b) BC
f , with f equal to
x (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
2 x 4x 64. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature and then allowed
(a) to cool in a room which is at temperature 0, the graph
3
between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be
1 closest to
(b)
2 K
2K T1
(c) 1
1 T T
(d) 0
3 (a) (b)
60. A block of ice at – 10°C is slowly heated and converted to
steam at 100°C. Which of the following curves represents O t O t
the phenomenon qualitatively
Temperature
Temperature
T T
0 0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O t O t
Heat supplied Heat supplied
EBD_7208
65. A solid substance is at 30°C. To this substance heat energy 69. Assertion : It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same
is supplied at a constant rate. Then temperature versus distance on the sides.
time graph is as shown in the figure. The substance is in Reason : Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat
liquid state for the portion (of the graph) upwards.
70. Assertion: The triple point of water is a standard fixed
Temperature (T°C)
F point in modern thermometry.

240
Reason: The triple point of a substance is unique i.e. it
210 D
E occurs at one particular set of values of pressure and
60 B temperature.
C
30 Time 71. Assertion: Copper expands five times more than glass for
A
same rise in temperature.
(a) BC (b) CD Reason: Copper is five times far better conductor of heat
(c) ED (d) EF than glass.
66. Which of the given graphs proves Newton’s law of 72. Assertion: In insulators electrons do not contribute to
cooling? their conductivity.
Reason: In insulators, no free electrons are present, they
cannot conduct heat.
73. Assertion : Specific heat capacity is the cause of
formation of land and sea breeze.
log (T – T 0)
Reason : The specific heat of water is more than land

log(T – T0)
74. Assertion : Specific heat of a body is always greater than

(a) (b) its thermal capacity.
Reason : Specific heat capacity is required for raising
Time temperature of unit mass of the body through unit
Time
degree.
75. Assertion : Two bodies at different temperature if
brought in thermal contact do not necessary settle to the
mean temperature.
Reason : The two bodies may have different thermal
log (T – T0)
capacities.
76. Assertion : A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C.
It will overflow, both when heated or cooled.
Time
Reason : There is expansion of water below and above
4°C.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 77. Assertion : Water kept in an open vessel will quickly
evaporate onthe surface of the moon.
Reason : The temperature at the surface of the moon is
much higher than boiling point of the water.
78. Assertion : The melting point of ice decreases with increase
of pressure.
Reason : Ice contracts on melting.
79. Assertion : The molecules at 0°C ice and 0°C water will
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a have same potential energy.
Reason : Potential energy depens on temperature of the
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect system.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 80. Assertion : Melting of solid causes no change in internal
67. Assertion : Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring energy.
temperature. Reason : Latent heat is the heat required to melt a unit
Reason : Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale used mass of solid.
for measuring temperature. 81. Assertion: The rate of cooling and the rate of loss of heat
68. Assertion : The temperature at which Centigrade and are same thing.
Fahrenheit thermometers read the same is –40° Reason: In both the cases, the material has to cool down
Reason : There is no relation between Faherenheit and and for a given material, rate of cooling and rate of loss
Centigrade temperature. of heat will be same.
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 90. A glass flask is filled up to a mark with 50 cc of mercury at
18°C. If the flask and contents are heated to 38°C, how
82. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole much mercury will be above the mark? ( for glass is 9 ×
(a) gets larger 10 –6/ºC and coefficient of real expansion of mercury is 180
(b) gets smaller × 10–6/ºC)
(c) remains of the same size (a) 0.85 cc (b) 0.46 cc (c) 0.153 cc (d) 0.05 cc
(d) gets deformed 91. A bar of iron is 10 cm at 20°C. At 19°C it will be ( of iron
83. A solid ball of metal has a spherical cavity inside it. The ball = 11 × 10–6/°C)
is heated. The volume of cavity will (a) 11 × 10–6 cm longer (b) 11 × 10–6 cm shorter
(a) decrease (b) increase (c) 11 × 10 cm shorter (d) 11 × 10–5 cm longer
–5
(c) remain unchanged (d) have its shape changed 92. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass
84. On a linear temperature scale Y, water freezes at – 160° Y vessel is 153 × 10–6/ºC and in a steel vessel is 144 × 10–6/ºC.
and boils at – 50° Y. On this Y scale, a temperature of 340 K If for steel is 12 × 10–6/ºC , then that of glass is
would be read as : (water freezes at 273 K and boils at 373 K) (a) 9 × 10–6/ºC (b) 6 × 10–6/ºC
(a) – 73.7° Y (b) – 233.7° Y (c) 36 × 10–6/ºC (d) 27 × 10–6/ºC
(c) – 86.3° Y (d) – 106.3° Y 93. A lead bullet strikes against a steel plate with a velocity 200
85. On heating a liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion m s–1. If the impact is perfectly inelastic and the heat
in a container having coefficient of linear expansion /3, produced is equally shared between the bullet and the
the level of liquid in the container will target, then the rise in temperature of the bullet is (specific
heat capacity of lead = 125 J kg–1 K–1)
(a) rise
(a) 80°C (b) 60°C
(b) fall
(c) 160°C (d) 40°C
(c) remain almost stationary
94. Certain amount of heat is given to 100 g of copper to
(d) It is difficult to say
increase its temperature by 21° C. If the same amount of
86. An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel 1m in
heat is given to 50 g of water, then the rise in its
diameter. The diameter of tyre is 6 mm smaller than that of
temperature is
wheel. The tyre should be heated so that its temperature
increases by a minimum of (the coefficient of cubical (Specific heat capacity of copper = 400 J kg–1 K–1 and that
expansion of iron is 3.6 × 10–5/°C) for water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1)
(a) 167°C (b) 334°C (c) 500°C (d) 1000°C (a) 4° C (b) 5.25° C
87. Water of volume 2 litre in a container is heated with a coil of (c) 8° C (d) 6° C
1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container is open and energy 95. A hammer of mass 1 kg having speed of 50 m/s, hit a iron
dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In how much time temperature nail of mass 200 gm. If specific heat of iron is 0.105 cal/gm°C
will rise from 27°C to 77°C? [Given specific heat of water is and half the energy is converted into heat. the raise in
4.2 kJ/kg] temperature of nail is
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6 min 2 s (a) 7.1°C (b) 9.2°C
(c) 7 min (d) 14 min (c) 10.5°C (d) 12.1°C
88. A beaker is filled with water at 4°C. At one time the 96. In an energy recycling process, 100 g of steam at 100°C
temperature is increased by few degrees above 4°C and at becomes water at 100°C which converts y g of ice at 0°C
another time it is decreased by a few degrees below 4°C. into water at 100°C. The numeric value of y is
One shall observe that: (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400
(a) the level remains constant in each case 97. In a water-fall the water falls from a height of 100 m. If the
(b) in first case water flows while in second case its level entire K.E. of water is converted into heat, the rise in
comes down temperature of water will be
(c) in second case water over flows while in first case its (a) 0.23°C (b) 0.46°C
comes down (c) 2.3°C (d) 0.023°C
(d) water overflows in both the cases 98. 19 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at – 20°C are mixed
89. Assuming no heat losses, the heat released by the together in a calorimeter. What is the final temperature of
condensation of x g of steam at 100°C can be used to convert the mixture? Given specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g–1(°C)–1
y g of ice at 0°C into water at 100°C, the ratio x : y is : and latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g–1
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (a) 0°C (b) –5°C
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 (c) 5°C (d) 10°C
EBD_7208
99. Steam is passed into 22 g of water at 20°C . The mass of 107. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures
water that will be present when the water acquires a 100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to
temperature of 90°C is (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/gm) be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200°C
(a) 24.8 gm (b) 24 gm (c) 36.6 gm (d) 30 gm and 210°C, the rate of heat flow will be
(a) 16.8 J/s (b) 8.0 J/s
100. A 2 kg copper block is heated to 500°C and then it is placed
(c) 4.0 J/s (d) 44.0 J/s
on a large block of ice at 0°C. If the specific heat capacity of
108. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine
copper is 400 J/kg°C and latent heat of fusion of water is 3.5
is 5 × 10-4 K-1. The fractional change in the density of
× 105 J/kg, the amount of ice that can melt is
glycerine for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is:
(a) (7/8) kg (b) (7/5) kg (a) 0.020 (b) 0.025
(c) (8/7) kg (d) (5/7) kg (c) 0.010 (d) 0.015
101. Two spheres of different materials one with double the radius 109. Four identical rods of same material are joined end to end to
and one-fourth wall thickness of the other are filled with form a square. If the temperature difference between the
ends of a diagonal is 100°C, then the temperture difference
ice. If the time taken for complete melting of ice in the larger
between the ends of other diagonal will be
sphere is 25 minute and for smaller one is 16 minute, the
ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials of larger 100 100
(a) 0°C C (c)
(b) º C (d) 100°C
spheres to that of smaller sphere is l 2l
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 25 : 8 (d) 8 : 25 (where l is the length of each rod)
102. Ice starts forming in a lake with water at 0ºC when the 110. Three very large plates of same area are kept parallel and
atomspheric temperature is –10ºC. If the time taken for the close to each other. They are considered as ideal black
first 1 cm of ice to be formed is 7 hours, then the time taken surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first
for the thickness of ice to change from 1 cm to 2 cm is and third plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T
respectively. The temperature of the middle (i.e. second)
(a) 7 hours (b) 14 hours
plate under steady state condition is
(c) 21 hours (d) 3.5 hours
1/ 4 1/ 4
103. A kettle with 2 litre water at 27°C is heated by operating coil 65
T
97
T
(a) (b)
heater of power 1 kW. The heat is lost to the atmosphere at 2 4
constant rate 160J/sec, when its lid is open. In how much
1/ 4
time will water heated to 77°C with the lid open? (specific 97
(c) T (d) (97)1/4T
heat of water = 4.2 kJ/kg) 2
(a) 8 min 20 sec (b) 6 min 2 sec 111. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of
(c) 14 min (d) 7 min radii r1 and r 2 are kept at temperatures T1 and T 2 ,
104. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in a substance
water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of water between the two concentric spheres is proportional to
present will be: r2
(a) In
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g– 1 °C– 1 and latent heat r1
of steam = 540 cal g– 1] (r2 r1 ) r1
(b) T1
(a) 24 g (b) 31.5 g (r1 r2 )
(c) 42.5 g (d) 22.5 g (c) ( r2 r1 ) r2 T2
105. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first
r1 r2
5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature (d)
of the surroundings is: (r2 r1 )
112. 300 gm of water at 25°C is added to 100 g of ice at 0°C. The
(a) 45°C (b) 20°C final temperature of the mixture is
(c) 42°C (d) 10°C 5 5
106. On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R, it (a) – C (b) – C (c) 5°C (d) 0°C
3 2
was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the
113. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m 2 and thickness
spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in
0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100°C. A
the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper surface of the slab. In
in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of
absolute temperature of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded slab is :
from the above observations that (Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1.) :
(a) TP > TR > TQ (b) TP < TR < TQ (a) 1.24 J/m°C (b) 1.29 J/m°C
(c) TP < TQ < TR (d) TP > TQ > TR (c) 2.05 J/m°C (d) 1.02 J/m°C
114. A partition wall has two layers of different materials A and B manner. The time required for this cube to cool from 100°C
in contact with each other. They have the same thickness to 99°C will be approximately
but the thermal conductivity of layer A is twice that of layer (a) 25 s (b) 50 s (c) 200 s (d) 400 s
B. At steady state the temperature difference across the 119. A body cools from 50.0°C to 49.9°C in 5s. How long will it
layer B is 50 K, then the corresponding difference across take to cool from 40.0°C to 39.9°C? Assume the temperature
the layer A is of surroundings to be 30.0°C and Newton’s law of cooling
(a) 50 K (b) 12.5 K to be valid
(c) 25 K (d) 60 K (a) 2.5 s (b) 10 s (c) 20 s (d) 5 s
115. The length of a metallic rod is 5 m at 0°C and becomes 5.01 120. In a room where the temperature is 30°C, a body cools from
m, on heating upto 100°C. The linear expansion of the metal 61°C to 59°C in 4 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken by
will be the body to cool from 51°C to 49°C will be
(a) 2.33 × 10–5/°C (b) 6.0 × 10–5/°C (a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4
(c) 4.0 × 10–5/°C (d) 2.0 × 10–5/°C 121. In a surrounding medium of temperature 10°C, a body takes
116. A pendulum clock is 5 seconds fast at temperature of 15ºC 7 min for a fall of temperature from 60°C to 40°C. In what
and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30ºC. At what time the temperature of the body will fall from 40°C to 28°C?
temperature does it give the correct time? (take time interval (a) 7 min (b) 11 min
= 24 hours) (c) 14 min (d) 21 min
(a) 18ºC (b) 20ºC 122. A container contains hot water at 100°C. If in time T1
(c) 22ºC (d) 25ºC temperature falls to 80° C and the time T2 temperature falls
117. The tempertaure of equal masses of three different liquids to 60°C form 80°C, then
A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C and 28°C respectively. The (a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 > T2
temperature when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B (c) T1 < T2 (d) None of these
and C are mixed is 23°C . The temperature when A and C are 123. Consider two hot bodies B1 and B2 which have temperatures
mixed is 100°C and 80°C respectively at t = 0. The temperature of the
(a) 18.2°C (b) 22°C (c) 20.2°C (d) 25.2°C surroundings is 40°C. The ratio of the respective rates of
118. A solid copper cube of edges 1 cm each is suspended in an cooling R1 and R2 of these two bodies at t = 0 will be
evacuated enclosure. Its temperture is found to fall from (a) R1 : R2 = 3 : 2 (b) R1 : R2 = 5 : 4
100°C to 99°C in 100 s. Another solid copper cube of edges (c) R1 : R2 = 2 : 3 (d) R1 : R2 = 4 : 5
2 cm, with similar surface nature, is suspended in a similar
EBD_7208
16. (d) Water equivalent is the quantity of water whose

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS thermal capacity is same as the heat capacity of the
1. (a) 2. (d) body.
3. (b) Kelvin is a unit of temperature. Q J
4. (a) Temperature on celsius scale (TC), kelvin scale (TK) 17. (b) c
m kg C
and Fahrenheit scale (TF) are related as
18. (c)
TC 0 TF 32 TK 273.15 Temp.(°F)
= =
100 180 100
5. (a) The normal temperature of a person is 98.6°F or 37°C.
6. (c) Solids, liquids and gases all expand on being heated,
as a result density (=mass/volume) decreases. Temp.°C
7. (d)
8. (b) Work done to raise the temperature of 100 gm water 19. (c) Dry ice and iodine pass from solid to vapour state
through 10°C is without going into the liquid state.
W = JQ = 4.2 × (100 × 10–3× 1000 ×10) =4200 J 20. (d)
9. (b) Triple point of water is 273.16 K 21. (b) At constant temperature molar heat capacity
10. (a) Let the readings of two thermometers coincide at C =
F=x Q
CT =
C F 32 n T
As
5 9 T is const. T=0
x x 32
Q
5 9 CT = =
0
or 9x = 5x – 160
4x = – 160, x = – 40°C 22. (a) The latent heat of vaporization is always greater
11. (a) Among glass, wood and metals, metals expand more than latent heat of fusion because in liquid to
for same rise in temperature. vapour phase change there is a large increase in
12. (b) Heat capacity is the amount of heat absorbed by a volume. Hence more heat is required as compared to
substance for a unit rise in temperature. solid to liquid phase change
Q 23. (d)
Q 24. (d) H = ncp t
Q S S=
T 25. (c) Water has highest specific heat capacity and hence
13. (d) Thermal conductivity of air is very-very low 0.024. it is used as a coolant in car radiators as well as
14. (a) V + V = (L + L)3 = (L + L T)3 heater in hot water bags.
= L3 + (1 + 3 T + 3 T + T3) 26. (c) Conduction and convection require some material as
and 3 terms are neglected. a transport medium. These modes of heat transfer
V (1 + T) = V (1 + 3 T) cannot operate between bodies separated by distance
1+ T=1+3 T in vacuum. But the Earth does receive heat from the
3 Sun across a huge distance and we quickly feel the
Q1 Q2 warmth of the fire near by even though air conducts
15. (c) poorly and before convection can set in. We receive
t t
heat from Sun by radiation. Radiation can occur in
T1 T2 T T vacuum.
K1A1 = K2 A 2 1 2 (L1 = L2)
L1 L2 27. (b) When the temperature difference between the body
and surroundings is small, then Newton’s law of
A1 K2
cooling is obeyed.
A2 K1
28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (b)
33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c)
53. (b) Material expands outward and so x, r increases. Due
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS to linear expansion diameter of rod will increase.
54. (a) The graph refers to absolute zero which is same for
36. (a) If TA > TB body 'A' is hotter than body B and heat
low density gases.
flows from A to B i.e., from body at higher temperature
55. (c) The three curves AB, CD and EF meet at point P
to body at lower temperature till the temperature
which is called the triple point of water. It is the
becomes same.
point where all three states solid, liquid and gas of
37. (c)
water co-exists.
38. (b) Specific heat capacity is given by C
S 1 Q 56. (d) Line CD is the border between ice and water. At
m m T every point of line CD, the temperature and pressure
It is defined as the amount of heat per unit mass values are such that substance co-exist in solid and
absorbed or rejected by the substance to change its liquid phase.
temperature by one unit. It depends on the nature of dQ T
the substance and its temperature. It is independent 57. (b) KA
dt L
of mass of substance.
39. (b) Water and ice have different specific heats. Specific dQ 3KA
heat of water is 1 Jg–1°C–1 while that of water ice For the first rod, (100 – )
dt L
is 0.5 Jg–1°C–1. 1
40. (c) Thermal conductivity of copper is more than that of dQ A

steel, hence stainless steel cooking pans are provided Similarly, 2K ( – 50)
dt 2 L
with extra copper bottoms.
41. (d) Gases are poor thermal conductors while liquids have dQ A
conductive intermediate between solids and gases. K ( – 20)
dt 3 L
Heat conduction may be described quantitatively as
the time rate of heat flow in a material for a given dQ dQ dQ
temperature difference. Now,
dt dt dt
42. (d) The change of state from liquid to vapour (for gas) is 1 2 3
called vapourisation. It is observed that when liquid is 3 (100 – ) = 2 ( – 50) + ( – 20)

heated, the temperature remains constant untill the = 70°
entire amount of the liquid is converted into vapour.
58. (a) reff r1r2
The temperature at which the liquid and the vapour
states of the substance coexists is called its boiling dQ KA(T2 T 1 ) K r1r2 (T2 T1 )
point.
dt L L
43. (d) Water can be boiled, even at low temperature on
59. (d) The thermal resistance is given by
releasing the excess pressure, water refreezes into
ice called regelation. x 4x x 2x 3x
44. (c) 45. (b) KA 2KA KA KA KA
46. (b) Convection is mode of heat transfer by actual motion
of mater. It is possible only through its. Convection dQ T (T2 T1 ) KA 1 A(T2 T1 ) K
can be natural or forced. In natural convection, gravity dt 3x 3x 3 x
plays an important part. KA
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 1

f
3
47. (b) 48. (b) 60. (a) Initially, on heating temperature rises from – 100°C to
49. (c) Ideal gas equation PV = RT. 0°C. then ice melts and temperature does not rise. After
= 3 , relation for coefficient of expansions the whole ice has melted, temperature beigins to rise
1 until it reaches 100°C. then it becomes constant, as at
c= gives molar specific heat the boiling point will not rise.
T
61. (c) Since specific heat = 0.6 kcal/g × °C = 0.6 cal/g × °C
Newton’s law of cooling
From graph it is clear that in a minute, the temperature
d is raised from 0°C to 50°C.
= – k (T2 – T1)
dT Heat required for a minute = 50 × 0.6 × 50 = 1500 cal.
50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (a) Also from graph, Boiling point of wax is 200°C.
EBD_7208
62. (a) OA refers to change of state from ice to water 86. (c) Initial diameter of tyre = (1000 – 6) mm = 994 mm, so
without change of temperature. 994
initial radius of tyre R 497 mm
63. (c) At OA and BC, there is a change of state from ice 2
to water and water to steam respectively. During this 6
and change in diameter D = 6 mm so R 3 mm
both the state co-exist in thermal equilibirium. 2
After increasing temperature by tyre will fit onto
64. (c) According to Newton’s law of cooling, the temperature wheel
goes on decreasing with time non-linearly. Increment in the length (circumference) of the iron tyre
65. (b) At C, solid completely will convert into liquid.
66. (b) When hot water temperature (T) and surrounding L L L [As ]
temparature (T0) readings are noted, and log(T – T0) 3
is plotted versus time, we get a straight line having 3 R 3 3
2 R 2 R
a negative slope; as a proof of Newton’s law of 3.6 10 –5 497 R
cooling. 500°C
87. (a) Heat gained by the water = (Heat supplied by the coil)
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS – (Heat dissipated to environment)
mc = PCoil t – PLoss t
67. (c) 68. (c)
2 × 4.2 × 103 × (77 – 27) = 1000 t – 160 t
69. (c) Heat is carried away from a fire sideways mainly by
4.2 105
radiations. Above the fire, heat is carried by both t = 500 s = 8 min 20 s
radiation and by convection of air. The latter process 840
88. (d) water expands on both sides of 4 °C.
carries much more heat.
89. (c) The heat lost in condensation = x × 540 cal.
70. (a)
71. (a) Metals generally have higher coefficient of linear x 540 = y 80 y 1 (100 – 0)
expansion. Since copper has 1.7 K–1 and glass has x 1
0.32 K–1 coefficient of linear expansion so, copper or y
=
3
.
expands five times more than glass.
90. (c) Due to volume expansion of both mercury and flask,
72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (a)
the change in volume of mercury relative to flask is
77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (d) Rate of cooling a body at a temperature is defined given by V V0 L g V L 3 g
as the fall in temperature per second at that
= 50 [ 180 × 10–6 – 3×9×10–6] (38 – 18) = 0.153 cc
temperature, while rate of loss of heat from a body
is the quantity of heat lost per second from the L1 1 ( )1
91. (c) L = L0 (1 + )
body. L2 1 ( )2
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 10 1 11 10 –6 20

L2 = 9.99989
L2 1 11 10–6 19
82. (a) The area of circular hole increases when we heat the Length is shorten by
metal sheet & expansion of metal sheet will be 10 – 9.99989 = 0.00011 = 11 × 10–5 cm.
independent of shape & size of the hole.
83. (b) The volume of cavity inside the solid ball increases 92. (a) real app. vessel
when it is heated.
So ( app. vessel )glass ( app vessel )steel
Reading on any scale – LFP
84. (c) 153 10 6 ( vessel )glass 144 10 6 ( vessel )steel
UFP LFP
= constant for all scales Further,
340 273 y ( 160) ( vessel )steel 3 3 (12 10 6 ) 36 10 6 / C
373 273 50 ( 160)
67 y 160
153 10 6 ( vessel )glass 144 10 6 36 10 6
100 110
y = – 86.3° y
( vessel )glass 3 27 10 6 / C
85. (c) As coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid equals
coefficient of cubical expansion of vessel, the level 9 10 6
/ C
of liquid will not change on heating.
1 1 99. (a) Let m g of steam get condensed into water (By heat
93. (a) Heat produced = ms T = mv 2 loss). This happens in following two steps.
2 2
2 100°C
v2 200 4 104 Water
T= 80 C 100°C
4s 4 125 4 125 Steam (H1= m × 540)
94. (a) The amount of heat requir ed to increase the
temperature of copper by 21ºC is
[H2= m ×1× (100× 90)]
Q m T 100 10 –3 400 21 J
CuSCu
The amount of heat requir ed to increase the

temperature of water by T10C is 90°C
Water
Q1 m T1 50 10 –3 4200 T1
w Sw Heat gained by water (20°C) to raise it's temperature
According to question, Q = Q1 upto 90°C = 22 × 1× (90 – 20)
100 × 10–3 × 400 × 21 = 50 × 10–3 × 4200 × T1 Hence , in equilibrium, heat lost = Heat gain
m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 90) = 22 × 1 × (90 – 20)
2 21 4
T1 4º C m = 2.8 gm
42
The net mass of the water present in the mixture
1 1 = 22 +2.8 =24.8 gm.
95. (a) W = JQ Mv2 J(m.c. )
2 2 100. (c) Let x kg of ice can melt
Using law of Calorimetry,
1
1 (50) 2 4.2[200 0.105 ] 7.1 C Heat lost by copper = Heat gained by ice
4
2 × 400 × (500 – 0) = x × 3.5 × 105
96. (c) Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg-K
Latent heat of fusion = 3.36 × 105 J/kg 2 400 500 8
or x kg
5 7
Latent heat of vapourisation = 22.68 × 105 J/kg 3.5 10
x × 10–3 × 22.68 × 105 J = y × 10–3 × 3.36 × 105 J 101. (d) Radius of small sphere = r
+ y × 10–3 × 4200 × 100 Thickness of small sphere = t
x 7.56 1 Radius of bigger sphere = 2r
y 22.68 3 Thickness of bigger sphere = t/4
97. (a) 0.0023h 0.0023 100 0.23 C Mass of ice melted = (volume of sphere) × (density of
98. (c) Here, specific heat of ice, Sice = 0.5 cal g–1°C–1 ice)
Specific heat of water, Swater = 1 cal g–1°C–1 Let K1 and K2 be the thermal conductivities of larger
Latent heat of fusion of ice Llice = 80 cal g–1 and smaller sphere.
Here ice will absorb heat while hot water will release it. For bigger sphere,
4
Let T be the final temperature of the mixture. K1 4 (2r)2 100 (2r)3 L
3
Assuming water equivalent of calorimeter to be t/4 25 60
neglected.
For smaller sphere,
Heat given by water, Q1 = mwaterSwater T
4 3
= 19 × 1 × (30 – T) = 570 – 19T … (i) r L
K2 4 r 2 100 3 K1 8
Heat absorbed by ice. K2 25
t 16 60
Q2 = mice × Sice × [0 – (–20)] + mice × Lf ice
102. (c)
+ mice × Swater × (T – 0)
103. (a) By the law of conservation of energy, energy given
= 5 × 0.5 × 20 + 5 × 80 + 5 × 1 × T
by heater must be equal to the sum of energy gained
= 450 + 5T
by water and energy lost from the lid.
According to principle of calorimetry, Q1 = Q2
Pt = ms + energy lost
120 1000t = 2 × 4.2 × 103 × 50 + 160t
i.e., 570 – 19T = 450 + 5T T= 5 C
24 840t = 8.4 × 103 × 50 = 500 sec = 8 min 20 sec
EBD_7208
104. (d) According to the principle of calorimetry.
Heat lost = Heat gained C
mLv + msw = mwsw
H/2 H/2
m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)
= 20 × 1 × (80 – 10) B
A
m = 2.5 g
H H
Therefore total mass of water at 80°C
= (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g H/2 H/2
105. (a) Let the temperature of surroundings be 0
By Newton's law of cooling D
1 2
k 1 2 Heat current will flow from A to B via path ACB and
0
t 2 ADB. Since all the rod are identical, so, ( )AC = ( )AD
70 60 70 60 (Because heat current H ; here R = same for all)

k 0 R
5 2
2 = k [65 – A C A D C D
0] ...(i)
i.e., temperature difference between C and D will be
60 54 60 54 zero.
Similarly, k 0
5 2 110. (c) Under steady conditions, the heat gained per second
by a plate is equal to the heat released per second by
6 the plate.
= k [57 – 0] ...(ii)
5
2T T' 3T
By dividing (i) by (ii) we have
10 65 0
0 = 45º
6 57 0
A A
106. (a) From Wein’s displacement law, m × T = constant
P – max. intensity is at violet m is minimum temp
maximum 1 2 3
R – max. intensity is at green m is moderate
temp moderate Heat gained Heat gained
[by (2) from (1)] +
Q – max. intensity is at red Second Second
m is maximum temp
minimum i.e., Tp > TR > TQ Heat gained
[(by ((2) from (3)] = (by 2)
107. (c) As the temperature difference T = 10°C as well as the Second
thermal resistance is same for both the cases, so thermal A(2T)4 + A(3T)4 = (2A) (T )4
current or rate of heat flow will also be same for both
1/ 4
the cases. 97
T = T
108. (a) From question, 2
Rise in temperature t = 40°C 111. (d) Consider a shell of thickness (dr) and of radii (r) and
the temperature of inner and outer surfaces of this
Fractional change in the density =? shell be T, (T – dT)
0
dQ
Coefficient of volume expansion = rate of flow of heat through it
= 5 × 10–4K–1 dt
= 0 (1 – t) KA[(T dT ) T ] KAdT
= =
dr dr
= T = (5 × 10–4) (40) = 0.02
0 dT
= 4 Kr 2 ( A 4 r2 )
109. (a) Suppose temperature difference between A and B is dr
100°C and A B
Let T be temperature of the junction
T dT
Here, K A 2K B , T TB 50K
dr
At the steady state,
T1 r
r1 HA HB
K A A(TA T) K B A(T TB )
T2
L L
r2
2K B (TA T) K B (T TB )
To measure the radial rate of heat flow, integration
T TB
technique is used, since the area of the surface TA T
through which heat will flow is not constant. 2
r2 T2
50K
25K
dQ 1 2
Then, dr 4 K dT
dt
r1 r2 T1 115. (d) 5m t1 = 0°C
2 5.01m t2 = 100°C
dQ 1 1
4 K T2 T 1 5.01 5
dt r1 r2 2 1
2 10 5 / C .
1 (t 2 t1 ) 5 100
dQ 4 Kr1r2 (T2 T1 ) dQ r1 r2 1
or dt (r2 r1 ) 116. (c) t T t
dt (r2 r1 ) 2
mL 1
mW W – i i 5 (T 15 ) 86400
SW 2
112. (d) mix 1
mi mW and 10 (30 T ) 86400
100 80 2
300 25 –
1 –1.25 C 117. (c) Heat gain = heat lost
100 300
Which is not possible. Hence mix = 0°C CA 3
C A (16 12) CB (19 16)
100°C (steam) CB 4
CB 5
113. (a) 0.1 m A = 0.36 m2 and CB (23 19) Cc (28 23)
CC 4
ice 0ºC
CA 15
Rate of heat given by steam = Rate of heat taken by CC
...(i)
16
ice
If is the temperature when A and C are mixed then,
where K = Thermal conductivity of the slab
m = Mass of the ice CA 28
CA ( 12) CC (28 ) ...(ii)
L = Latent heat of melting/fusion CC 12
A = Area of the slab On solving equations (i) and (ii) = 20.2°C
dQ KA(100 0) dL
m , A (T 4 T04 )
dt 1 dt 118. (c) Rate of cooling
t mc
5
K 100 0.36 4.8 3.36 10
m
0.1 60 60 t [ , t , , (T 4 T04 ) are constant]
A
K =1.24 J/m/s/°C
m Volume a3 t1 a1
TA T TB t t a
2 t2 a2
114. (c) A Area a
A B
100 1
t2 200sec
t2 2
L L
EBD_7208
121. (a) According to Newton's law of cooling,
50 – 49.9 50 49.9
119. (b) K – 30 ....(i)
5 2 1 2 1 2
K 0
t 2
40 – 39.9 40 39.9
K – 30 ....(ii) where
t 2 0 is the surrounding temperature.
From equations (i) and (ii), we get t 10 s. 60 40 60 40
K 10
120. (c) From Newtwon's law of cooling 7 2
dQ dT 20 1
KA 40K K
dt dx 7 14
Area of cross-section A and thickness dx is the same.
40 28 40 28 12
Also dQ mCd K 10 24K
t 2 t
Thus in first case
12 12 14
m C (61 – 59 ) KA 61 51 or t 7 min
30 (i) 24K 24
4 dx 2
d
In second case, 122. (c) Rate of colling 1 2
0
dt 2
m C (51 49 ) KA 51 49 In second case average temperature will be less hence
30 (ii)
t dx 2 rate of colling will be less. Therefore time taken will be
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii) more than 4 minutes.
123. (a) Initially at t = 0
t 30 Rate of cooling (R) Fall in temperature of body
or t = 6 minutes.
4 20 ( – 0)
R1 1 – 0 100 – 40 3
R2 2 – 0 80 – 40 2
12
THERMODYNAMICS
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 7. The first law of thermodynamics is a special case of
(a) Newton’s law
1. The branch of physics that deals with the concepts of heat
(b) the law of conservation of energy
and temperature and the interconversion of heat and other
forms of energy is called (c) Charle’s law
(a) calorimetry (b) thermometry (d) the law of heat exchange
(c) thermodynamics (d) Pyrometry 8. Energy transfer brought about by moving the piston of a
2. Thermodynamics is concerned in part with transformations cylinder containing the gas is known as
between (a) work (b) heat
(a) different forms of heat energy (c) pressure (d) temperature
(b) internal energy at various temperatures 9. Which of the following macroscopic variable is not
(c) one form of mechanical energy into other forms measurable ?
(d) heat, internal energy and mechnical work (a) Pressure (b) Volume
3. A system X is neither in thermal equilibrium with Y nor with Z. (c) Mass (d) None of these
The systems Y and Z 10. Which of the following is a state variable ?
(a) must be in thermal equilibrium (a) Heat (b) Work
(b) cannot be in thermal equilibrium (c) Internal energy (d) All of these
(c) may be in thermal equilibrium
11. The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of
(d) None of these
(a) pressure (b) volume
4. When two bodies A and B are in thermal equilibrium
(c) temperature (d) All of the above
(a) the kinetic energies of all the molecules of A and B will
be equal 12. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends upon
(b) the potential energies of all the molecules of A and B (a) specific volume (b) pressure
will be equal (c) temperature (d) density
(c) the internal energies of the two bodies will be equal 13. At a given temperature the internal energy of a substance
(d) the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the two (a) in liquid state is equal to that in gaseous state.
bodies will be equal (b) in liquid state is less than that in gaseous state.
5. Temperature is a measurement of coldness or hotness of (c) in liquid state is more than that in gaseous state.
an object. This definition is based on
(d) is equal for the three states of matter.
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
14. The variable defined by Zeroth law of thermodynamics is
(b) First law of thermodynamics
(a) temperature (b) internal energy
(c) Second law of thermodynamics
(c) work (d) All of these
(d) Newton’s law of cooling
15. The internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend upon
6. The first law of thermodynamics expresses
(a) law of conservation of momentum (a) temperature of the gas
(b) law of conservation of energy (b) pressure of the gas
(c) law of conservation of mass (c) atomicity of the gas
(d) All of the above (d) number of moles of the gas.
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178 THERMODYNAMICS
16. If Q and W represent the heat supplied to the system 24. for a gas is always
and the work done on the system respectively, then the (a) negative (b) zero
first law of thermodynamics can be written as (c) between zero and one (d) more than one
(a) Q U W (b) Q U W 25. The specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is greater
(c) Q W U (d) Q – W U than the specific heat of the same gas at constant volume
because
17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding first law of
(a) work is done in the expansion of the gas at constant
thermodynamics?
pressure.
(a) It is a restatement of principle of conservation of
energy. (b) work is done in the expansion of the gas at constant
(b) It is applicable to cyclic processes volume.
(c) It introduces the concept of entropy (c) the attraction between the molecules increases at
(d) It introduces the concept of internal energy constant pressure.
18. First law of thermodynamics states that (d) the molecular attraction increases at constant volume.
(a) system can do work 26. Which of the following holds good for an isochoric
(b) system has temperature process?
(c) system has pressure (a) No work is done on the gas
(d) heat is a form of energy (b) No work is done by the gas
19. Which of the following statements is correct for any (c) Both (a) and (b)
thermodynamic system ? (d) None of these
(a) The change in entropy can never be zero 27. Which process will increase the temperature of the
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions system without heating it ?
(c) The internal energy changes in all processes (a) Adiabatic compression
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero. (b) Adiabatic expansion
20. For one mole of solid, at constant pressure how is C (c) Isothernal compression
related to R ? (C moler specific heat, R universal (d) Isothernal expansion
gas constant)
28. The state of a thermodynamic system is represented by
3R (a) Pressure only
(a) C = (b) C = 3R
T (b) Volume only
1 1 (c) Pressure, volume and temperature
(c) C = RT (d) C = R
3 3 (d) Number of moles
21. If CP and CV are specific heat capacities at constant 29. Which of the following is not a thermodynamics co-
pressure and constant volume respectively, then for an ordinate?
adiabatic process of an ideal gas (a) P (b) T
(a) PV = constant (b) PV– = constant
(c) V (d) R
P 30. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is
(c) PV = constant (d) = constant
V (a) infinite (b) zero
22. For an ideal gas, the molar specific heat capacities at (c) negative (d) remains constant
constant pressure and volume satisfy the relation 31. The work done in an adiabatic change in a particular gas
(a) CP + CV = R (b) CP – CV = R
depends only upon
CP CV (a) change in volume
(c) =R (d) =R
CV CP (b) change in temperature
23. Which of the following formula is wrong? (c) change in pressure
(d) None of these
R R
(a) Cv (b) Cp 32. Which one of the following is an isoentropic process?
1 1
(a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic
(c) Cp / C v (d) Cp Cv 2R (c) Isochoric (d) Isobaric
THERMODYNAMICS 179
33. In all natural processes, the entropy of the universe 43. Choose the incorrect statement related to an isobaric
(a) remains constant process.
(b) always decreases
V
(c) always increases (a) constant
T
(d) may increase or decrease
(b) W = P V
34. During isothermal expansion, the slope of P-V graph
(c) Heat given to a system is used up in raising the
(a) decreases (b) increases
temperature only.
(c) remains same (d) may increase or decrease
(d) Q > W
35. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ?
44. In thermodynamic processes which of the following
(a) Melting of ice
statements is not true?
(b) Bursting of tyre
(a) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
(c) Motion of piston of an engine with constant speed
(b) In an isothermal process the temperature remains
(d) None of these constant
36. For adiabatic processes (Letters have usual meanings) (c) In an adiabatic process PV = constant
(a) P V = constant (b) T V = constant (d) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from
–1
(c) TV = constant (d) TV = constant the surroundings
37. We consider a thermodynamic system. If U represents the 45. When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the
increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the result will be
system, which of the following statements is true? (a) external work done
(a) U = – W in an adiabatic process (b) rise in temperature
(b) U = W in an isothermal process (c) increase in internal energy
(c) U = – W in an isothermal process (d) external work done and also rise in temperature
(d) U = W in an adiabatic process 46. Which of the following statements about a thermodynamic
38. Ice contained in a beaker starts melting when process is wrong ?
(a) the specific heat of the system is zero (a) For an adiabatic process Eint = – W
(b) internal energy of the system remains constant (b) For a constant volume process Eint = + Q
(c) temperature remains constant (c) For a cyclic process Eint = 0
(d) entropy remains constant (d) For free expansion of a gas Eint > 0
39. Which of the following parameters does not characterize 47. No heat flows between the system and surrounding. Then
the thermodynamic state of matter? the thermodynamic process is
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (a) isothermal (b) isochoric
(c) Work (d) Volume (c) adiabatic (d) isobaric
40. A point on P – V diagram represents 48. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given
(a) the condition of a system by
(b) work done on or by the system
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) work done in a cyclic process
1 2 1 2
(d) a thermodynamic process
1 2 1 2
41. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related (c) (d)
as 2 1
(a) isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope 49. A refrigerator is a

(b) isothermal curve slope = × adiabatic curve slope (a) heat engine
(c) adiabatic curve slope = × isothermal curve slope (b) an electric motor
(c) heat engine working in backward direction
1 (d) air cooler
(d) adiabatic curve slope isothermal curve slope
2 50. Air conditioner is based on the principle of
42. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount (a) Carnot cycle
of work done by the gas is greatest when the expansion is (b) refrigerator
(a) isothermal (b) isobaric (c) first law of thermodynamics
(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases (d) None of these
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180 THERMODYNAMICS
51. “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature
1 1
to a body at higher temperature” is a statement or (a) = (b) =
consequence of
(a) second law of thermodynamics (c) =1+ (d) None of these
(b) conservation of momentum 60. A Carnot engine works between a source and a sink
(c) conservation of mass maintained at constant temperatures T 1 and T 2 . For
(d) first law of thermodynamics efficiency to be the greatest
52. The second law of thermodynamics implies (a) T1 and T2 should be high
(a) whole of the heat can be converted into mechanical (b) T1 and T2 should be low
energy (c) T1 should be low and T2 should be high
(b) no heat engine can be 100% efficient (d) T1 should be high and T2 should be low
(c) every heat engine has an efficiency of 100% 61. Efficiency of carnot engine is 100% if
(d) a refrigerator can reduce the temperature to absolute (a) T2 = 273 k (b) T2 = 0 k
zero (c) T1 = 273 k (d) T1 = 0 k
53. In a cyclic process, work done by the system is 62. The first operation involved in a Carnot cycle is
(a) zero (a) isothermal expansion
(b) equal to heat given to the system (b) adiabatic expansion
(c) more than heat given to the system (c) isothermal compression
(d) independent of heat given to the system (d) adiabatic compression
54. Which of the following processes is reversible? 63. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Transfer of heat by conduction (a) All reversible cycles have same efficiency
(b) Transfer of heat by radiation (b) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an
(c) Isothermal compression irreversible one
(d) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire (c) Carnot cycle is a reversible one
55. Which of the following processes is irreversible? (d) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles
(a) Transfer of heat by radiation 64. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency because
(b) Adiabatic changes performed slowly we cannot
(c) Extremely slow extension of a spring (a) prevent radiation
(d) Isothermal changes performed slowly (b) find ideal sources
56. In a reversible cyclic process of a gaseous system (c) reach absolute zero temperature
(a) Q= U (b) U = W (d) eliminate friction
(c) W=0 (d) U = 0 65. Heat engine is a device by which a system is made to
undergo a ...X... process that result in conversion of ...Y...
57. Choose the correct relation between efficiency of a
into work.
Carnot engine and the heat absorbed ( 1) and released
by the working substance ( 2). Here, X and Y refer to
(a) isothermal and heat (b) cyclic and heat
(a) = 1 2 (b) = 1 1 (c) cyclic and work (d) adiabatic and heat
1 2 66. A thermodynamic process is reversible if the process can
be turned back such that both the system and the
1 2 surrounding return to their ...X... with no other ...Y... any
(c) = 1 (d) 1
2 1 where in the universe. Here, X and Y respectively refer to
58. Universal relation in a Carnot cycle is (a) normal states and change
(b) original states and change
1 T2 1 T1
(a) (b) (c) final states and change
2 T1 2 T2
(d) None of these
67. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by
1 P1
(c) (d) All of these means of several processes. Which of the process results
2 P2
in the maximum work done on the gas?
59. The correct relation between coefficient of performance (a) Isobaric (b) Isochoric
and efficiency of refrigerator is (c) Isothermal (d) Adiabatic
THERMODYNAMICS 181
68. A measure of the degree of disorder of a system of a system II. No process is possible whose sole result is the
is known as transfer of heat from a colder object to a hotter
(a) enthalpy (b) isotropy object.
(c) entropy (d) None of these (a) I only (b) II only
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 75. Consider the following statements and select the correct
69. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? option.
I. If Q > 0, heat is added to the system. I. A real engine has efficiency greater than that of
Carnot engine.
II. If W > 0, work is done by the system.
II. A real engine can’t have efficiency greater than that
III. If W = 0, work is done by the system.
of Carnot engine.
(a) II and III (b) I, II and III
III. Working substance in Carnot engine is an ideal gas.
(c) I and II (d) I and III
70. Choose the false statement(s) from the following.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
I. Specific heat of a substance depends on the mass
76. Choose the correct statements from the following.
of substance.
I. Efficeincy of Carnot engine cannot be 100%.
II. Specific heat of substance depends on the
II. Two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third
temperature of the substance.
system are in equiliburium with each other.
III. Specific heat depends on the nature of material.
III. Change in internal energy in the melting process is
(a) I only (b) II only due to change in internal potential energy.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) II and III
71. Which of the following statements is/are true about (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
internal energy ? 77. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
I. Internal energy of a gas does not change in an I. Carnot cycle consists of three isothermal process
isothermal process. connected by one adiabatic process.
II. Internal energy of a gas does not change in an II. Carnot engine is a reversible engine.
adiabatic process
III. Efficiency of Carnot engine is 100%.
III. Internal energy of a gas change in an isothermal
(a) II and III (b) I, II and III
process
(c) I and II (d) I and III
78. Internal energy
(c) III only (d) II and III
I. is microscopic state variable.
72. Select the false statement(s) from the following.
II. is microscopic state variable.
I. Two isothermal curves can never intersect each other.
III. depends on the state of the system, not how that state
II. When air rises up it cools. is achieved.
III. A gas gets cooled on compression. IV. is a thermodynamics state variable
(a) I only (b) II only Choose the correct option regarding above statements.
(c) III only (d) I and II (a) I and III (b) II, III and IV
73. Which of the following statements are correct about (c) I, III and IV (d) I and IV
isothermal and adiabatic changes ? 79. Choose the correct statements from the following.
I. Isothermal system is thermally conducting to the I. Free expansion of gas is an irreversible process.
surroundings.
II. The combustion reaction of a mixture of petrol and air
II. Adiabatic system is thermally insulated from the ignited by a spark is irreversible.
surroundings.
III. The leaking of a gas from the kitchen cylinder cannot
III. Internal energy changes in isothermal process. be reversed by itself.
(a) I and II (b) II and III IV. The transfer of heat from one heated part of a liquid to
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III the other colder part is a irreversible process.
74. Which of the following is/are the statements of Second (a) I, II and IV
law of thermodynamics ? (b) III and IV
I. No process is possible whose sole result is the (c) II, III and IV
absorption of heat from a reservoir and complete (d) I, II, III and IV
conversion of heat into work.
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182 THERMODYNAMICS
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS P

80. Match columns I and II.
C B
Column-I Column-II
(A) Isothermal (1) Q=0
(B) Isobaric (2) Volume constant
(C) Isochoric (3) Pressure constant
(D) Adiabatic (4) Temperature constant
(a) (A) – (4), (B) – (3), (C) – (2), D – (1) D A
(b) (A) – (1), (B) – (4), (C) – (3), D – (2) 1/V
(c) (A) – (2), (B) – (3), (C) – (1), (D) – (4) Column-I Column -II
(d) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), (D) – (4) (A) For process AB (1) U > 0, Q > 0
81. Column-I Column-II (B) For process BC (2) U < 0, Q < 0
(A) The coefficient of (1) decrease in pressure (C) For process CD (3) Q× U× W=0
volume expansion at (D) For process DA (4) Q× U<0
constant pressure (a) (A) – (1), (B) – (2), (C) – (4), D – (3)
(B) At constant temperature, (2) at all temperature (b) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), D – (2)
an increase in volume
(c) (A) – (2), (B) – (1), (C) – (4), (D) – (3)
results in
(d) (A) – (4), (B) – (3), (C) – (2), (D) – (1)
(C) An ideal gas obeys (3) same for all gases
Boyle’s and Charle’s law
(D) A real gas behaves as (4) at high temperature
an ideal gas at low pressure 84. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD
(a) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), D – (4) as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the
cycle is
(b) (A) – (4), (B) – (3), (C) – (2), D – (1)
(c) (A) – (1), (B) – (2), (C) – (3), (D) – (4)
(d) (A) – (2), (B) – (4), (C) – (3), (D) – (1) D C
2P
82. The P-V diagram of 0.2 mol of a diatomic ideal gas is shown
in figure. Process BC is adiabatic, = 1.4.
Pressure
P B
P A B
V 3V
Volume
1 atm
A 455K C
V
(a) 2 PV (b) 4 PV
1
Column I Column II (c) PV (d) P V
2
(A) QAB (J) (1) 602
85. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different
(B) WBC (J) (2) – 644 processes as indicated in the P-V diagram
(C) UCA (J) (3) 1246
(D) UBC (J) (4) – 602
(a) (A) – (1), (B) – (3), (C) – (4), D – (2) A 1
P 2
(b) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), D – (4) B
3
(c) (A) – (3, 4), (B) – (3), (C) – (2), (D) – (1)
(d) (A) – (1), (B) – (2), (C) – (3), (D) – (4)
83. A gas undergoes a process according to the graph. P is V
pressure, V is volume, W is work done by the gas, U is If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along
change in internal energy of the gas and Q is heat given to the three processes and U1, U2, U3 indicate the change
the system. Matchf the two columns.
THERMODYNAMICS 183
in internal energy along the three processes respectively, 89. An ideal gas goes through a reversible cycle a b c d
then has the V - T diagram shown below. Process d a and b c
(a) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3 are adiabatic.
(b) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1= U2 = U3 V
(c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3 c
b
(d) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1> U2 > U3
86. When a system is taken from state i to state f along the path
d
iaf, it is found that Q =50 cal and W = 20 cal. Along the path a
ibf Q = 36 cal. W along the path ibf is T
a The corresponding P - V diagram for the process is

f
P P
d c a b
i b (a) (b)
a b d c
(a) 14 cal (b) 6 cal
(c) 16 cal (d) 66 cal V V
87. The P-V diagram of a gas system undergoing cyclic process
is shown here. The work done during isobaric compression P P
d c a b
is
(c) a b (d) d c
A D
2 × 102 V V
–2
P(N m )
B C 90. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA
102
as shown in fig. The work done by the system in the cycle
is
(a) P0V0 P C B
3P0
(b) 2P0V0
0 1 2 3 2P0
–3
V(m ) P0 V0 P0
(c) A D
2
(a) 100 J (b) 200 J (d) Zero V0 2V0 V
(c) 600 J (d) 400 J 91. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas
to go from a state A to a state C.
88. Which of the following is the P-V curve for isothermal
and adiabatic process of an ideal gas ?
P B C
P P 6×104 Pa
Isothermal
Adiabatic
Isothermal
Isothermal
Adiabatic
2×104 Pa
Adiabatic
(a) (b) –
Isothermal 2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
V
V V In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in
process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat
P P absorbed by the system in the process AC will be
Adiabatic
(a) 500 J (b) 460 J
(c) 300 J (d) 380 J
Adiabatic
Isothermal
Adiabatic
Isothermal
92. One mole of a diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process

ABC as shown in figure. The process BC is adiabatic. The
(c) (d) temperatures at A, B and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K
Adiabatic respectively. Choose the correct statement:
V V
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184 THERMODYNAMICS
Reason: The internal energy of a body increases on
heating.
B 96. Assertion: Heat cannot be added to a system without
800 K increasing its temperature.
Reason: Adding heat will increase the temperature in
P every situation.
97. Assertion : The heat supplied to a system is always equal
600 k to the increase in its internal energy.
A C Reason : When a system changes from one thermal
400 K
equilibrium to another, some heat is absorbed by it.
V 98. Assertion : In isothermal process whole of the heat energy
(a) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic process supplied to the body is converted into internal energy.
is 250 R. Reason : According to the first law of thermodynamics
(b) The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 Q = U + W.
R. 99. Assertion : First law of thermodynamics is a restatement of
(c) The change in internal energy in the process AB is -350 the principle of conservation
R. Reason : Energy is fundamental quantity
(d) The change in internal energy in the process BC is
100. Assertion : At a given temperature the specific heat of a
– 500 R.
gas at constant volume is always greater than its specific
93. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible engine
heat at constant pressure.
cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is
Reason : When a gas is heated at constant volume some
T extra heat is needed compared to that at constant pressure
for doing work in expansion.
2T0 101. Statement-1 : The specific heat of a gas in an adiabatic
process is zero but it is infinite in an isothermal process.
T0
Statement-2 : Specific heat of a gas directly proportional to
heat exchanged with the system and inversely proportional
S to change in temperature.
S0 2S0
102. Assertion : Adiabatic expansion is always accompanied by
1 1 fall in temperature.
(a) (b) Reason : In adiabatic process, volume is inversely
4 2
proportional to temperature.
2 1 103. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is
(c) (d)
3 3 opened a slight fog forms around the opening.
Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS of temperature and condensation of water vapours.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, 104. Assertion : In an adiabatic process, change in internal
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four energy of a gas is equal to work done on or by the gas in the
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You process.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : Temperature of gas remains constant in an
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct adiabatic process.
explanation for assertion. 105. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect each other at a
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a certain point.
correct explanation for assertion Reason : The isothermal change takes place slowly, so the
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect isothermal curves have very little slope
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 106. Assertion : In an isolated system the entropy increases.
94. Assertion : Zeroth law of thermodynamics explain the Reason : The processes in an isolated system are adiabatic.
concept of energy. 107. Assertion: In an adiabatic process, change in internal
Reason : Energy depends on temperature. energy of a gas is equal to work done on/by the gas.
95. Assertion: Mass of a body will increase when it is Reason: Because adiabatic process is a variable process
heated. and so internal energy depends on the work done.
THERMODYNAMICS 185
108. Assertion: Two isothermal curves can never intersect (a) 6400 J (b) 5400 J
each other. (c) 7900 J (d) 8900 J
Reason: At the intersection point, at two different 119. The specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas,
temperatures, volume and pressures of gas will be same 5R
Cp . The gas is kept in a closed vessel of volume
which is not possible. 2
109. Assertion : The temperature of the surface of the sun is 0.0083 m3 at 300 K and a pressure of 1.6 × 106 N/m2. 2.49 ×
approximately 6000 K. If we take a bigh lens and focus the 104 J of heat energy is supplied to the gas. The final
sunrays, we can produce a temperature of 8000 K. temperature and the pressure respectively are
Reason : The highest temperature can be produced (a) 567.2 K and 6.3 × 106 N/m2
according to second law of thermodynamics (b) 675.2 K and 3.6 ×106 N/m2
110. Assertion : When a glass of hot milk is placed in a room (c) 275.2 K and 2.3 ×106 N/m2
and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases (d) 465.6 K and 4.2 × 106 N/m2
Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not violate the 120. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low temperature (T)
second law of thermodynamics.
3
111. Assertion: The efficiency of a reversible engine is –1 –1 T
is given as C p (kJK kg ) 32 . A 100 g vessel
maximum. 400
Reason: In such a device no dissipation of energy takes of this metal is to be cooled from 20 K to 4 K by a special
place. refrigerator operating at room temperature (27°C). The
112. Assertion : Reversible systems are difficult to find in real amount of work required to cool in vessel is
world. (a) equal to 0.002 kJ
Reason : Most processes are dissipative in nature. (b) greater than 0.148 kJ
113. Assertion : Thermodynamic processes in nature are (c) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ
irreversible (d) less than 0.028 kJ
Reason : Dissipative effects can not be eliminated. 121. The amount of heat supplied to 4 × 10–2 kg of nitorgen at
114. Assertion : In cyclic process, initial and final state are room temperature to rise its temperature by 50°C at constant
same. Therefore net work done is zero. pressure is (Molecular mass of nitrogen is 28 and R = 8.3 J
Reason : Initial and final temperature is equal, therefore mol–1K–1)
change in internal energy is zero. (a) 2.08 kJ (b) 3.08 kJ
115. Assertion : Efficiency of a Carnot engine increase on (c) 4.08 kJ (d) 5.08 kJ
reducing the temperature of sink. 122. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the
Reason : Efficiency of a Carnot engine is defined as the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to
ratio of net mechanical work done per cycle by the gas to be 80 cal/°C, is
the amount of heat energy absorbed per cycle from the (a) 273 cal/K (b) 8 × 104 cal/K
source. (c) 80 cal/K (d) 293 cal/K
116. Assertion : The Carnot cycle is useful in understandsing 123. A mass of diatomic gas ( = 1.4) at a pressure of 2
the performance of heat engines. atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
Reason : The Carnot cycle provides a way of determining temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the
the maximum possible efficiency achievable with reservoirs gas in final state is
of given temperatures. (a) 28 atm (b) 68.7 atm
(c) 256 atm (d) 8 atm
124. A diatomic gas initially at 18ºC is compressed adiabatically
117. When the state of a gas adiabatically changed from an to one eighth of its original volume. The temperature after
equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B an amount compression will be
of work done on the stystem is 35 J. If the gas is taken from (a) 18ºC (b) 668.4ºK
state A to B via process in which the net heat absorbed by (c) 395.4ºC (d) 144ºC
the system is 12 cal, then the net work done by the system
125. 2 k mol of hydrogen at NTP expands isobarically to twice its
is (1 cal = 4.19 J)
initial volume. The change in its internal energy is (Cv = 10
(a) 13.2 J (b) 15.4 J
kJ/kg.K and atm pressure = 1 × 105 N/m2)
(c) 12.6 J (d) 16.8 J
(a) 10.9 MJ (b) 9.10 MJ
118. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed
2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is (c) 109 MJ (d) 1.09 MJ
EBD_7208
186 THERMODYNAMICS
126. What will be the final pressure if an ideal gas in a cylinder (a) 64P (b) 32P
1 P
is compressed adiabatically to rd of its volume? (c) (d) 16P
3 64
(a) Final pressure will be three times less than initial 133. A spring stores l J of energy for a compression of l mm. The
pressure. additional work to be done to compress it further by l mm is
(b) Final pressure will be three times more than initial (a) l J (b) 2 J
pressure. (c) 3 J (d) 4 J
(c) Change in pressure will be more than three times the 134. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamical system
initial pressure. which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is
(d) Change in pressure will be less than three times the (1 cal = 4.2 J)
initial pressure. (a) 2 kJ (b) 8 kJ
127. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are (c) 3.5 kJ (d) 5.5 kJ
500 K and 375 K. If the engine consumes 25 × 105 J per 135. In an air condition room, the heat exchange between the
cycle, the work done per cycle is room and the space outside the room
(a) 6.25 × 105 J (b) 3 × 105 J (a) will be more when the air conditioner is off
(c) 2.19 × 105J (d) 4 × 104 J (b) will be more rapid when the air conditioner is on
1 (c) will not take place at all
128. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance releases (d) will depend upon the floor area of the room
3
136. If internal energy of a box is U and the box is moving with
200 J of heat to a hot reservoir. Then the work done on the
some velocity, then which of the following is not to be
working substance is
included in U
100 (a) Kinetic energy of the box
(a) J (b) 100 J
3 (b) Translational kinetic energy of molecules of the gas
(c) Rotational kinetic energy of molecules of the gas
200
(c) J (d) 150 J (d) Vibrational kinetic energy of the molecules of the
3
gas
129. If the co-efficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5 and 137. If the temperatures of source and sink of a Carnot engine
operates at the room temperature 27°C, the temperature having efficiency are each decreased by 100 K, then the
inside the refrigerator is efficiency
(a) 240 K (b) 250 K (a) remains constant (b) becomes 1
(c) 230 K (d) 260 K (c) decreases (d) increases
130. By running a refrigerator with open door in a room 138. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal. of heat from a reservoir
(a) the temperature of the room will reduce a little at 627°C, and gives it to a sink at 27°C. The work done by
(b) the room can be cooled considerably but this will the engine is
take a long time (a) 4.2 × 106 J (b) 8.4 × 106 J
(c) the room will get a little hotter (c) 16.8 × 10 J 6 (d) zero
(d) None of these 139. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of = 1/10 as heat
131. If an air conditioner is put in the middle of a room and engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the
started working system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the
(a) the room can be cooled slightly reservoir at lower temperature is
(b) the temperature of the room will not change (a) 100 J (b) 99 J
(c) the room will become slightly warmer (c) 90 J (d) 1 J
(d) the same temperature will be attained in the room as 140. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a car engine as the working
by putting it on the window in the standard position substance. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the
132. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V cycle, volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V, the
expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically efficiency of the engine is
to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is : (a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
5 (c) 0.99 (d) 0.25
(take = )
3
THERMODYNAMICS 187
141. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T1 and 1

144. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of = as heat
1 10
T2 has efficiency .When T2 is lowered by 62 K its engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the
6 system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the
1 reservoir at lower temperature is
efficiency increases to . Then T1 and T2 are, respectively (a) 99 J (b) 90 J
3
(c) 1 J (d) 100 J
(a) 372 K and 330 K (b) 330 K and 268 K
145. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T 1 and
(c) 310 K and 248 K (d) 372 K and 310 K
T2 has efficiency 0.2. When T2 is reduced by 50 K, its
142. In a Carnot engine, the temperature of reservoir is 927°C efficiency increases to 0.4. Then T1 and T2 are respectively
and that of sink is 27°C. If the work done by the engine
(a) 200 K, 150 K (b) 250 K, 200 K
when it transfers heat from reservoir to sink is
(c) 300 K, 250 K (d) 300 K, 200 K
12.6 × 106J, the quantity of heat absorbed by the engine
from the reservoir is 146. If the energy input to a Carnot engine is thrice the work it
performs then, the fraction of energy rejected to the sink is
(a) 16.8 × 106 J (b) 4 × 106 J
6
(c) 7.6 × 10 J (d) 4.2 × 106 J 1 1
(a) (b)
143. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the 3 4
inside temperature of freezer is -20°C, then the temperature
of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is 2 2
(c) (d)
(a) 41°C (b) 11°C 5 3
(c) 21°C (d) 31°C
EBD_7208
188 THERMODYNAMICS
= 1.33 polyatomic gas

25. (a) Cp – Cv = work done
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 26. (c) In an isochoric process, no work is done on or by
5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) the gas. V is constant
8. (a) Work is energy transfer brought about by moving 27. (a) 28. (c)
piston of a cylinder containing the gas, by raising or 29. (d) R is the universal gas constant.
lowering some weight connected to it. 30. (a) In isothermal process temperature remains constnat.
9. (d) Pressure, volume, temperature and mass are all i.e., T = 0. Hence according to
macroscopic variables which can be measured.
10. (c) Heat and work are not state variables. They are Q
C Ciso
energy, transfer to a system which change the m T
internal energy of a system, which is a state variable. 31. (b) In adiabatic process, no heat is taken or given by the
11. (c) Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on the Q 0
system i.e., U W
temperature.
If W is negative (work done on system), then U
12. (c) 13. (b)
increases & temperature increases and vice-versa. So
14. (a) Zeroth law defines temperature and first law defines work done in adiabatic change in particular gas (ideal
internal energy. gas) depends on change in temperature.
15. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
16. (b) From FLOT Q U W 37. (a) From first law of thermodynamics,
Heat supplied to the system so H= u+ w
Q Positive In adiabatic process H = 0
and work is done on the system so u=–w
W Negative 38. (c) During melting temperature remains constant
Hence Q U W 39. (c)
40. (a) Every point on this isothermal curve represents the
17. (c)
condition of a system.
18. (d) Heat always refers to energy transmitted from one body
to another because of temperature difference. Slope of adiabatic curve (dP / dV )adi
41. (c)
19. (b) Internal energy and entropy are state function, they Slope of isothermal curve (dP / dV )iso
do not depend upon path but on the state.
20. (b) For one mole of a solid, the total energy. CP
So slope to adiabatic curve is times of
U = 3KBT × NA = 3RT CV
At constant pressure, Q = U + P V U since isothermal curve, as clear also from figure.
for a solid V is negligible
P
Q U
C= = 3R Isothermal
T T
curve
21. (c) For an adiabatic process of an ideal gas.
CP
PV = const where
CV
V
22. (b) 23. (d) Adiabatic curve
CP 42. (a) 43. (c)
24. (d) & it is always larger than unity, even if gas is
CV 44. (a) In an isochoric process volume remains constant
whereas pressure remains constant in isobaric
mono, dia or polyatomic. process.
= 1.67 monatomic gas 45. (a)
= 1.40 dia-atomic gas
THERMODYNAMICS 189
46. (a) For adiabatic process Q = 0. 67. (d) Since area under the curve is maximum for adiabatic
By first law of thermodynamics, process so, work done (W = PdV) on the gas will be
Q= E+ W maximum for adiabatic process
Eint = – W. P
47. (c) In an adiabatic process Q = 0.
48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (a) External amount of work must be done in order to flow Isothermal Adiabatic
heat from lower temperature to higher temperature. This
is according to second law of thermodynamics.
Isobaric
52. (b)
53. (b)
54. (c) For process to be reversible it must be quasi-static. V
For quasi static process all changes take place 68. (c)
infinitely slowly. Isothermal process occur very slowly
so it is quasi-static and hence it is reversible. STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
55. (a) Slow isothermal expansion or compression of an ideal
69. (a)
gas is reversible process, while the other given
processes are irreversible in nature. 70. (a) Specific heat of a substance does not depend on
mass. It depends only on temperature and nature of
56. (d) In reversible cyclic Process
the material.
U= 0
71. (a) In isothermal process, the temperature remains
W constant so the internal energy does not change but
57. (d) Efficiency and W = –
in adiabatic process, the temperature changes and
1
hence the internal energy also changes.
1 – 2 2 72. (c) Work done in compressing the gas increases the
= 1 internal energy of the gas.
1 1
73. (c)
58. (b)
74. (c) is Kelvin-Planck’s statement and (b) is clauss
59. (b) statement of second law of thermodynamics. Both
T2 the statements are completely equivalent.
60. (d) 1 So for be high T1 must be high and T2 75. (a) For a Carnot engine, (i) there is absolutely no
T1
friction between the walls of cylinder and the piston.
must be low. (ii) Woking substance is an ideal gas. In a real
61. (b) engine, these conditions cannot fullfilled and hence
62. (a) 63. (a) no heat engine working between the same two
64. (c) Absolute zero temperature is practically not reachable. temperatures can have efficiency greater than that of
65. (b) Heat engine is device by which a system is made to Carnot engine.
undergo cyclic process that result in conversion of 76. (d) 77. (c)
heat into work. 78. (c) Internal energy is a macroscopic state variable that
P depend on the state of the system not how that state
is achieved. It is thermodynamic state variable.
1 2 79. (d) All the five statements are correct and so that in nature
irreversibility is a rule.
3
4 MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
V 80. (a) Type of processes Feature
When gas (system) in heat engine undergoes process Isothermal Temperature constant
1 2 3 4 1, then work done by gas = area Isobaric Pressure constant
enclosed by figure formed by joining 1, 2 , 3 , 4. Isochoric Volume constant
Work is positive if arrows move clockwise. Adiabatic Q=0
66. (b) A thermodynamic process is reversible process can
1
be turned back such that both the system and the 81. (a) (A) 3 Cv = / °C same for all gases
273
surroundings return to their original states, with no
other change anywhere in the universe. 1
(B) 1 PV = cos A P
V
EBD_7208
190 THERMODYNAMICS
(C) 2 Ideal gas obey gas law at each range of da process : Adiabatic, pressure increases.
temperature. The above processes correctly represented in P-V
(D) 4 At high temperature, intermolecular forces diagram (b).
become zero and so real gas behaves like 90. (d) Work done by the system in the cycle
ideal gas.
= Area under P-V curve and V-axis
82. (b) A r; B p; C q; D s
83. () A (3); B (1); C (2); D (2) 1
= (2P0 P0 )(2V0 V0 )
2
1
84. (a) Internal energy is the state function. (3P0 2P0 )(2V0 V0 )
2
In cyclie process; U = 0
According to 1st law of thermodynamics P0 V0 P0 V0
= 0
Q U W 2 2
So heat absorbed 91. (b) In cyclic process ABCA
Q = W = Area under the curve Qcycle = Wcycle
= – (2V) (P) = – 2PV QAB + QBC + QCA = ar. of ABC
So heat rejected = 2PV
1
85. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all process + 400 + 100 + QC A= (2 × 10–3) (4 × 104)
2
U1 = U2 = U3
from first law of thermodynamics QC A = – 460 J
Q= U+ W QA C = + 460 J
Work done 92. (d) In cyclic process, change in total internal energy is
W1 > W2 > W3 (Area of P.V. graph) zero.
So Q1 > Q2 > Q3 Ucyclic = 0
86. (b) For path iaf, 5R
Q = 50 cal UBC = nCv T 1 T
2
W = 20 cal
Where, Cv = molar specific heat at constant volume.
a f For BC, T = –200 K
UBC = –500R
i b 93. (d) T
By first law of thermodynamics,
U Q W = 50 – 20 = 30 cal.
2T0
For path ibf Q1
Q' = 36 cal Q3
W' = ? T0
Q2
or, W' = Q' – U' S
Since, the change in internal energy does not depend S0 2S0
on the path, therefore
U ' = 30 cal
W' = Q' – U ' = 36 – 30 = 6 cal. 1 3
Q1 T0S0 T0S0 T0S0
87. (d) Isobaric compression is represented by curve AO 2 2
Work done = area under AD Q2 = T0(2S0 – S0) = T0S0 and Q 3 0
= 2 × 102 × (3 – 1)
= 4 × 102 = 400 J. W Q1 Q 2
88. (c) Q1 Q1
89. (b) In VT graph
ab-process : Isobaric, temperature increases. Q2 T0S0 1
bc process : Adiabatic, pressure decreases. =1 1
Q1 3 3
cd process : Isobaric, volume decreases. T0S0
2
THERMODYNAMICS 191
U = 35 J
In the second case
94. (d) Zeroth law of thermodynamics tells about thermal Q = 12 cal = 12 × 4.2 J = 50.4 J
equilibrium.
W = Q – U = 50.4 – 35 = 15.4 J
95. (b) On heating a body it absorbs energy, so, its mass
118. (c) According to first law of thermodynamics
will increase accordingly as per the equation
Q= U+ W
E = mc2
96. (d) Heat can be added to a system without increasing U= Q – W
its temperature e.g. melting and boiling. = 2 × 4.2 × 1000 – 500
97. (d) According to first law of thermodynamics, Q = = 8400 –500
U + W = U +P V. If heat is supplied in such a = 7900 J
manner that volume does not change V = 0,i.e.,
PV
isochoric process, then whole of the heat energy 119. (b) n=
supplied to the system will increase internal energy RT
only. But, in any other process it is not possible.
1.6 106 0.0083
Also heat may be adsorbed or evolved when state of = = 5.33
8.31 300
thermal equilibrium changes.
98. (d) In isothermal process, T = 0 and so U = 0. Q = nCv T
Thus Q = 0 + W = W.
99. (c) First law of thermodynamics is restatement of the or 2.49 × 104 = 5.33 ×
3 8.31
× T
principal of conservation of energy as applied to heat 2
energy.
or T = 375 K
100. (a) 101. (b) 102. (d)
Tf = Ti + 375 = 675 K.
103. (a) The opening of bottle is the rapid or adiabatic process.
In the process temperature falls. 120. (c) Heat required to change the temperature of vessel by
104. (c) In adiabatic process, Q = 0 a small amount dT
0 = U + W or U = –W. – dQ = mCpdT
Temperature will change in adiabatic process. Total heat required
105. (e) As isothermal processes are very slow and so the 4
4 T
3
100 10 –3 32 T 4
different isothermal curves have different slopes so –Q m 32 dT
they cannot intersect each other. 20 400 (400)3 4 20
106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (a) Q = 0.001996 kJ

109. (d) According to second law of thermodynamics, this is Work done required to maintain the temperature of
not possible to transfer heat from a body at lower sink to T2
temperature to a body at higher temperature without
the aid of an external agent. Since, the given Q1 – Q2 T1
W = Q1 – Q2 Q2 – 1 Q2
information produces a contradiction in second law of Q2 T2
thermodynamics, therefore it is not possible to produce
temperature of 8000 K by collecting the sun rays with T1 – T2
W Q2
a lens. T2
110. (b) When milk cools, its energy content decreases. For T2 = 20 K
111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (a)
300 – 20
T W1 0.001996 = 0.028 kJ
115. (a) = 1 2 ; clearly when T2 is decreases will 20
T1
For T2 = 4 K
increase.
116. (a) Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency. W2 300 – 4
0.001996 = 0.148 kJ
4
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS As temperature is changing from 20k to 4 k, work done
required will be more than W1 but less than W2.
117. (b) In the first-case adiabatic change,
121. (a) Given, m = 4 × 10–2 kg = 40 g, T = 50°C
Q = 0, W = –35 J
From 1st law of thermodynamics, m 40
Q = U + W, Number of moles, n 1.43
M 28
or 0 = U – 35
EBD_7208
192 THERMODYNAMICS
As nitrogen is a diatomic gas, molar specific heat at 1
constant pressure is V
T2 293 1
V2
7 7
Cp R 8.3Jmol –1K –1 29.05J mol –1K –1
2 2 7
1
As Q = nCp T T2 293(8) 5 = 293 × 2.297 = 668.4K
Q = 1.43 × 29.05× 50
Cp 7
= 2.08 × 103 J = 2.08 kJ For diatomic gas
122. (d) Change in entropy is given by Cv 5
dQ Q mLf 125. (a) U = n Cv T

dS = or S
T T 273 = 2 × 103 × 20 × 273
= 10.9 MJ.
1000 80 126. (c) P1V1 = P2V2 (Adiabatic change)
S 293cal / K.
273
V1 V1
123. (c) T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K P2 P1 = P1 = P2(3)
V2 V1 / 3
T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
For adiabatic process, 127. (a) Here, T1 = 500 K, T2 = 375 K
P1– T = constant Q1 = 25 × 105 J
P11– T1 = P21– T2 T2 375
1 1 0.25
1
T1 500
P2 T1
= W = Q = 0.25 × 25 × 105 = 6.25 × 105 J
P1 T2 128. (d) The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given
by
1
P1 T2 Q2 Q2
=
T2 T1 W Q1 Q2
Substituting the given values, we get
1 1.4 1.4
P1 1200 1 Q2
P2 300 3 200 Q2
0.4 200 – Q2 = 3Q2 4Q2 = 200

P1 1.4
(4) 200
P2 or Q2 J 50J
4
0.4 W = Q1 – Q2 = 200 J – 50 J = 150 J
P2 1.4
4 129. (b) Here, Coefficient of performance ( ) = 5
P1
T1 = 27°C
= (27 + 273)K
1.4 7
0.4 2 = 300 K
P2 P1 4 P1 4
T2 T2
= P1 (27) = 2 × 128 = 256 atm As, 5
T1 T2 300 – T2
124. (b) Initial temperature (T1) = 18°C = 291 K
Let Initial volume (V1) = V or 1500 5T2 T2 or 6T2 1500
V 1500
Final volume (V2) = T2 250 K
8 6
According to adiabatic process, 130. (c) By running a refrigerator with open door in a room.
TV – 1 = constant The room will get a little hotter because now
compressor will do more work which in turn increases
1 1
According to question, T1V1 T2V2 the room's temperature.
THERMODYNAMICS 193
131. (c) The working of an air coditioner is similar to the
T2
working of a refrigerator. An air conditioner removes 137. (d) Efficiency, 1– 100
T1
heat from the room, does some work and rejects the
heat to the surroundings. As air conditioner is put (T2 – 100)
in the middle of the room then due to continuous, 1– 100
(T1 – 100)
external work the room will become slightly warmer.
132. (c) For isothermal process P1V1 = P2V2 (T1 –100 – T2 100)
100
P T1 –100
PV = P2(2V) P2 =
2
T1 – T2
For adiabatic process 100.
T1 –100
P2 V2 P3V3 Comparing with we get, the efficiency increases.
( 627 273 ) ( 273 27 )
P 138. (b)
(2v) P316v) 627 273
2
900 300 600 2
5/3 =
3 1 P 900 900 3
P3 =
2 8 64 2
work = ( ) × Heat = 3 10 6 4 .2 J
133. (c) As we know, energy stored in a spring 3
1 2 = 8.4 × 106 J
U kx
2 139. (c) The efficiency ( ) of a Carnot engine and the coefficient
of performance ( ) of a refrigerator are related as
x = extension (or compression) in the spring.
k = spring constant of the spring 1
As per question, for x = 1mm = 1 × 10–3m
1 1
U k (1 10 –3 m) 2 1J .......(i) Here,
2 10
If spring is further compressed by 1 mm then
1
1 1
U k (2 10 3 m) 2 .......(ii) 10 9.
2 1
Dividing eqn. (ii) by (i), we get 10
U Also, Coefficient of performance ( ) is given by
4 or U 4U
U
Q2
Work done , where Q2 is the energy absorbed from the
W
W = U – U = 4U – U reservoir.
= 3U = 3 × 1 J = 3J
Q2
134. (b) According to first law of thermodynamics or, 9
10
Q= U+ W
Given : Q = 2 kcal = 2000 × 4.2 = 8400 J Q2 = 90 J.
140. (b) The efficiency of cycle is
W = 400 J
U=Q–W T2
1–
= 8400 – 400 T1
= 8000 J For adiabatic process
135. (c) The heat exchange between the air conditioned T V –1 = constant
room and the space outside the room will not take 7
For diatomic gas
place at all. 5
–1 –1
136. (a) Kinetic energy of box is not included in the internal T1V1 = T2V2
energy of the gas.
EBD_7208
194 THERMODYNAMICS
–1 144. (b) Efficiency of carnot engine
V2
T1 T2
V1 T2 1 T2
n = 1 – T i.e., 10 1 – T
1 1
7
–1
T1 T2 (32) 5 T2 (25 ) 2 / 5 T2 4 T2 1 9 T1 10
=1–
T1 = 4T2 T1 10 10 T2 9
T1
1 3 w = Q2 . T – 1
1– 0.75 2
4 4
10 1
i.e., 10 = Q2 – 1 10 = Q
T 1 T T2 5 9 2 9
141. (d) 1 1– 2 1– 2 … (i)
T1 6 T1 T1 6 Q2 = 90J
So, 90 J heat is absorbed at lower temperature.
T2 – 62 1 T – 62 …(ii) 145. (b) When efficiency of carnot engine, = 0.2
2 1– 1– 2
T1 3 T1 Efficiency of a Carnot engine,
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii) T2 T
1– or, 0.2 1– 2
T1 = 372 K and T2 = 310 K T1 T1
W T2 T2
142. (a) As we know 1– or 0.8 ...(i)
Q1 T1 T1
300 K 3 When T2 is reduced by 50 K, its efficiency becomes 0.4

1–
1200K 4 T2 – 50
0.4 1 –
T1
3 W 4 4
Q1 W Q1 12.6 106
4 Q1 3 3 T2 – 50
or 0.6 ...(ii)
T1
Q1= 16.8 × 106J.
Dividing eqn. (i) by (ii)
143. (d) Coefficient of performance,
T2 0.8 4
T2
Cop = T2 – 50 0.6 3
T1 T2
3T2 = 4T2 – 200 or T2 = 200 K
273 20 253 T2 – 50 200 – 50
5= From eqn. (ii), T1 250K
T1 (273 20) T1 253 0.6 0.6
5T1 – (5 × 253) = 253 Woutput w 1
5T1 = 253 + (5 × 253) = 1518 146. (d) Efficiency
Heat input 3w 3
1518
T1 = = 303.6 Q2 1
5 1
or, T1 = 303.6 – 273 = 30.6 31°C Q1 3
Q2 2
Q1 3
13
KINETIC THEORY
7. The absolute temperature of a gas determines

(a) the average momentum of the molecule
1. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure (b) the velocity of sound in the gas
exerted by a gas on the wall of the container is measured as (c) the number of molecules in the gas
(a) rate of change of momentum imparted to the walls per (d) the mean square velocity of the molecules
second per unit area.
8. At a given temperature the force between molecules of a
(b) momentum imparted to the walls per unit area gas as a function of intermolecular distance is
(c) change of momentum imparted to the walls per unit (a) always constant
area.
(b) always decreases
(d) change in momentum per unit volume (c) always increases
2. According to kinetic theory of matter, a molecule is the
(d) first decreases and then increases
smallest particle of a substance and it possesses
9. The temperature of gas is produced by
(a) all the properties of the substance
(a) the potential energy of its molecules
(b) some of the properties of the substance
(b) the kinetic energy of its molecules
(c) none of the properties of the substance
(c) the attractive force between its molecules
(d) either (b) or (c)
(d) the repulsive force between its molecules
3. When a gas is in thermal equilibrium, its molecules
10. Kinetic theory of gases provide a base for
(a) have the same average kinetic energy of molecules
(a) Charle’s law
(b) have different energies which remain constant
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) have a certain constant energy
(c) Both Charle’s law and Boyle’s law
(d) do not collide with one another
(d) None of these
4. The pressure exerted on the walls of container by a gas is
11. In kinetic theory of gases, it is assumed that molecules
due to the fact that gas molecules are
(a) have same mass but can have different volume
(a) losing their kinetic energy
(b) have same volume but mass can be different
(b) sticking to the walls
(c) have different mass as well as volume
(c) changing their momenta due to collision with the walls
(d) have same mass but negligible volume.
(d) getting accelerated towards the wall
12. The internal energy of a gram-molecule of an ideal gas
5. According to kinetic theory of gases, at absolute zero
depends on
temperature
(a) pressure alone
(a) water freezes
(b) volume alone
(b) liquid helium freezes
(c) temperature alone
(c) molecular motion stops
(d) both on pressure as well as temperature
(d) liquid hydrogen freezes
13. The phenomenon of Browninan movement may be taken
6. The temperature of a gas is a measure of
as evidence of
(a) the average kinetic energy of the gaseous molecules
(a) kinetic theory of matter
(b) the average potential energy of the gaseous molecules
(b) electromagnetic theory of radiation
(c) the average distance between the molecules of the
(c) corpuscular theory of light
gas
(d) photoelectric phenomenon
(d) the size of the molecules of the gas
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196 KINETIC THEORY
14. At 0K which of the following of a gas will be zero? 24. Molecules of a ideal gas behave like
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (a) inelastic rigid sphere
(c) Vibrational energy (d) Density (b) perfectly elastic non-rigid sphere
15. Which of the following molecular properties is the same for (c) perfectly elastic rigid sphere
all ideal gases at a given temperature (d) inelastic non-rigid sphere
(a) momentum (b) rms velocity 25. If the pressure and the volume of certain quantity of ideal
(c) mean kinetic energy (d) mean free path gas are halved, then its temperature
16. When do real gases approach the ideal gas behaviour ? (a) is doubled (b) becomes one-fourth
(a) At low pressure and low temperature (c) remains constant (d) is halved
(b) At low pressure and high temperature 26. In kinetic theory of gases, one assumes that the
(c) At high pressure and high temperature collisions between the molecules are
(d) At high pressure and low temperature (a) perfectly elastic
17. When temperature is constant, the pressure of a given (b) perfectly inelastic
mass of gas varies inversely with volume. This is the (c) partly inelastic
statement of (d) may be perfectly elastic or perfectly inelastic
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law depending on nature of gas
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) None of these 27. Pressure exerted by a gas is
18. The equation which should be satisfied exactly at all (a) independent of density of the gas
pressures and temperatures to be an ideal gas is (b) inversely proportional to the density of the gas
(a) PV = RT (b) PV = kBNT (c) directly proportional to the square of the density of
(c) P = kB nT. (d) All of these the gas
19. In a diatomic molecules, the rotational energy at a given (d) directly proportional to the density of the gas
temperature 28. The internal energy of a gram-molecule of an ideal gas
(a) obeys Maxwell’s distribution depends on
(b) have the same volue for all molecules (a) pressure alone
(c) equals the translational kinetic energy for each (b) volume alone
molecule. (c) temperature alone
(d) None of these (d) both on pressure as well as temperature
20. The average kinetic energy per molecule of any ideal gas 29. The relation PV = RT can describe the behaviour of a real
is always equal to gas at
(a) high temperature and high pressure
2 3
(a) k BT (b) kBT (b) high temperature and low pressure
3 4 (c) low temperature and low pressure
3 (d) low temperature and high pressure
(c) kBT (d) 3kBT
2 30. For Boyle’s law to hold, the gas should be
21. In a mixture of gases at a fixed temperature (a) perfect and of constant mass and temperature
(a) heavier molecule has higher average speed (b) real and of constant mass and temperature
(c) perfect and constant temperature but variable mass
(b) lighter molecule has lower average speed
(d) real and constant temperature but variable mass
(c) heavier molecule has lower average speed
31. Boyle' law is applicable for an
(d) None of these
(a) adiabatic process. (b) isothermal process.
22. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules depends
upon which of the following factor? (c) isobaric process. (d) isochoric process
(a) Nature of the gas (b) Temperature of the gas 32. The deviation of gases from the behaviour of ideal gas is
due to
(c) Volume of the gas (d) Both (b) & (c)
(a) colourless molecules
23. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with
(b) covalent bonding of molecules
uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules inside
will. (c) attraction of molecules
(a) increase (d) absolute scale of temp.
(b) decrease 33. In Boyle’s law what remains constant ?
(c) remains the same (a) PV (b) TV
(d) decrease for some and increase for others V P
(c) (d)
T T
KINETIC THEORY 197
34. At a given temperature which of the following gases 42. The ratio of the molar heat capacities of a diatomic gas at
possesses maximum r.m.s. velocity? constant pressure to that a constant volume is
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
7 3 3 7
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 5 5
35. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to
43. The specific heat of a gas
(a) mean kinetic energy per unit volume
(a) has only two values cp and cv
(b) half of mean kinetic energy per unti volume
(b) has a unique value at a given temperature
(c) two third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume
(c) can have any value between 0 and
(d) one third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume (d) depends upon the mass of the gas
36. The ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure CP, 44. The mean kinetic energy of a perfect monatomic gas
to molar specific heat at constant volume Cv for a molecule at the temperature TºK is
monoatomic gas is
1 3
CP 3 CP 5 (a) kT (b) k T (c) kT (d) 2 k T
(a) (b) 2 2
CV 5 CV 3 45. The total internal energy of one mole of rigid diatomic gas
CP 7 is
CP 9
(c) (d)
CV 9 CV 7 3 7
(a) RT (b) RT
37. The average velocity of the molecules in a gas in equilibrium 2 2
is proportional to 5 9
(c) RT (d) RT
(a) (b) T 2 2
T
46. The specific heats at constant pressure is greater than
1 that of the same gas at constant volume because
(c) T2 (d) (a) at constant pressure work is done in expanding the
T
gas
38. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the r.m.s. velocity
(b) at constant volume work is done in expanding the gas
of gas molecules is directly proportional to
(c) the molecular attraction increases more at constant
(a) T (b) T pressure
(d) the molecular vibration increases more at constant
(c) T 2 (d) 1/ T pressure
39. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of a perfect gas is 47. If E is the translational kinetie energy, then which of the
(a) (2/3) k T (b) 1.5 k T following relation holds good ?
(c) 2.5 k T (d) None of these 3
(a) PV = E (b) PV = E
40. The internal energy of an ideal gas is 2
(a) the sum of total kinetic and potential energies. 2
(b) the total translational kinetic energy. (c) PV = 3E (d) PV = E
3
(c) the total kinetic energy of randomly moving molecules. 48. Which of the following formula is wrong?
(d) the total kinetic energy of gas molecules.
R R
41. The root mean square speed of a group of n gas molecules, (a) CV (b) CP
–1 –1
having speed v1 , v 2 , v3 ,..., vn is
(c) Cp / CV = (d) Cp – CV = 2R
1 49. As per the law of equi-partition of energy each vibrational
(a) (v1 v 2 v 3 ... v n ) 2 mode gives how many degrees of freedom ?
n
(a) 1 (b) 2
1 (c) 3 (d) 0
(b) (v12 v 22 v 32 ... v n 2 )
n 50. A fly moving in a room has ...X... degree of freedom.
Here, X refers to
1
(c) (v12 v 22 v32 ... v n 2 ) (a) one (b) two
n (c) three (d) four
51. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom of a
(v1 v 2 v3 ... v n ) 2 monatomic gas is
(d) n (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 1
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198 KINETIC THEORY
52. The total number of degree of freedom of a CO2 gas molecule STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
is
(a) 3 (b) 6 60. In the kinetic theory of gases, which of these statements
is/are true ?
(c) 5 (d) 4
I. The pressure of a gas is proportional to the mean speed
53. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom has a mean
of the molecules.
energy per molecule given by
II. The root mean square speed of the molecules is
nkT nkT proportional to the pressure.
(a) (b) III. The rate of diffusion is proportional to the mean speed
N 2N
of the molecules.
nkT 3kT IV. The mean translational kinetic energy of a gas is
(c) (d)
2 2 proportional to its kelvin temperature.
54. The degree of freedom of a molecule of a triatomic gas (a) II and III only (b) I, II and IV
is (c) I and III only (d) III and IV only
(a) 2 (b) 4 61. From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any
(c) 6 (d) 8 given temperature T, select the correct one(s)
I. The coefficient of volume expansion at constant
55. If a gas has ‘n’ degrees of freedom, the ratio of the specific
pressure is same for all ideal gas
heats of the gas is
II. The average translational kinetic energy per molecule
1 n n 1 2 of oxygen gas is 3 KT (K being Boltzmann constant)
(a) (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 1
2 2 n n III. In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic
energy of the molecules of each component is same
56. How is the mean free path ( ) in a gas related to the
interatomic distance ? IV. The mean free path of molecules increases with
decrease in pressure
(a) is 10 times the interatomic distance
(a) I, II and III (b) III and IV only
(b) is 100 times the interatomic distance
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) is 1000 times the interatomic distance 62. Which of the given statement(s) is/are false ?
1 I. All molecules in a gas do not have same velocity.
(d) is times of the interatomic distance II. For a gas there is distribution of velocities of the
10
molecules.
57. Mean free path of a gas molecule is
III. There is no preferred direction of velocity of the
(a) inversely proportional to number of molecules per unit molecules.
volume (a) I and II (b) II and III
(b) inversely proportional to diameter of the molecule (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(c) directly proportional to the square root of the absolute 63. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
temperature I. Average kinetic energy of a molecule is independent
(d) directly proportional to the molecular mass of the pressure of the gas.
58. Maxwell's laws of distribution of velocities shows that II. Average kinetic energy of a molecule is independent
(a) the number of molecules with most probable velocity of the volume of the gas.
is very large III. Average kinetic energy of a molecule is independent
(b) the number of molecules with most probable velocity of the nature of the gas.
is very small (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) the number of molecules with most probable velocity
is zero 64. For mean kinetic energy per molecule, a vessel filled with
two different gases.
(d) the number of molecules with most probable velocity
I. Mean kinetic energy per molecule for both gases will
is exactly equal to 1
be equal
59. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by drawing II. Mean kinetic energy per molecule of gas with higher
out some gas, the mean-free path of the molecules mass will be more
(a) is decreased III. Mean kinetic energy per moleculers of gas with
(b) is increased lower mass will be more
(c) remains unchanged Select the correct statement(s).
(d) increases or decreases according to the nature of the (a) I only (b) II only
gas (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
KINETIC THEORY 199
65. Consider the following statements and select the correct (a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
option from the following. (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
I. At room temperature the specific heats are (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
independent of temperature. (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
II. At low temperature i.e. as T 0, specific heat
71. Match Column I (Physical Variables) with Column II
approach zero.
(Expressions) . (n = number of gas molecules present per
III. At low temp, the degrees of freedom get frozen
unit volume, k = Boltzmann constant, T = absolute
temperature, m = mass of the particle) :
Column I Column II
66. The root mean square value of the speed of the molecules
in a fixed mass of an ideal gas is increased by increasing (A) Most probable velocity (1) nkT
I. the temperature while keeping the volume constant (B) Energy per degree of (2) (3kT / m)
II. the pressure while keeping the volume constant freedom
III. the temperature while keeping the pressure constant (C) Pressure (3) (2kT / m)
IV. the pressure while keeping the temperature constant. (D) R.M.S. velocity (4) kT / 2
Select the correct statements. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(a) I and II (b) II and III (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) I and III (d) I, III and IV (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
67. Consider the following statements and select the correct (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
option.
I. The ratio of CP / CV for a diatomic gas is more than
that of a monoatomic gas.
(A) Average speed vav (1 ) 3RT
II. The ratio of CP / CV is more for helium gas than for
hydrogen M
(B) Root mean square (2 ) 8RT
68. Choose the false statement(s) from the following. M
I. CP – CV = R is true for monoatomic gases only. speed vrms
II. Specific heat of a gas at constant pressure is greater
than specific heat at constant volume. (C) Most probable (3 ) Rt
III. Mean free path of molecules of a gas decrease with M
increase in number density of the molecules. speed vmp
2RT
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (D) Speed of sound vsound (4 )
69. Which of the following is/are incorrect statement(s) M
regarding the law of equipartition of energy ? (a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
I. The gas possess equal energies in all the three (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
directions x,y and z-axis. (c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
II. The total energy of a gas is equally divided between (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
kinetic and potential energies.
III. The total kinetic energy of a gas molecules is equally
divided among translational and rotational kinetic (A) An ideal gas obeys gas (1) with decrease in
energies. equation pressure
(a) I only (b) II and III (B) A real gas behaves as (2) at all temperature
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III an ideal gas at low
pressure
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (C) Mean free path of (3) at high temperature
70. Match the Column I and II. molecules increases
Column I Column II (D) Charle’s law (4) pressure constant
(A) P T (1) Ideal gas equation (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(B) V T (2) Boyle’s law (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
(C) PV K B NT (3) Charle’s law
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
(D) P nRT / M (4) V - Constant
EBD_7208
200 KINETIC THEORY
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 76. The given P-V curve is predicted by
74. The density ( )versus pressuure (P) of a given mass of an

1.4
ideal gas is shown at two temperatures T1 and T2
1.2
1.0 T1 > T2 > T3
T1
P 0.8
T2 T1
0.6
0.4 T2
T3
0.2
0
P 20 60 100 140 160 200
V
Then relation between T1 and T2 may be
(a) T1 T2 (b) T2 T1 (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law
(c) T1 = T2 (d) All the three are possible (c) Avogadro’s law (d) Gaylussac’s law
75. Which of the following graphs represents the real gas 77. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition
approaching ideal gas behaviour ? from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure.
A
5
P(in kPa) 2 B
T1 T1 < T2 < T3
T2
PV
µT
4 6
(a) T3
V(in m3)
0 200 400 600 800 The change in internal energy of the gas during the
P (atm) transition is
(a) – 20 kJ (b) 20 J
(c) –12 kJ (d) 20 kJ
78. The figure shows the volume V versus temperature T graphs
for a certain mass of a perfect gas at two constant pressures
of P1 and P2. What inference can you draw from the
graphs?
T1 T1 > T2 > T3 V
(a) P1 > P2 P2
(b) T2
PV
µT
(b) P1 < P2 P1
T3 (c) P1 = P2 2
0 200 400 600 800 (d) No inferen ce can be

1 T
P (atm) drawn due to insufficient
information.

(c) T1 T1 > T2 > T3 alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
T2 have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
PV
µT

T3 explanation for assertion.
0 200 400 600 800 (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
P (atm) correct explanation for assertion
(d) None of these (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
KINETIC THEORY 201
79. Assertion: On reducing the volume of the gas at 91. Assertion : At low density, variable of gases P, V and T
constant temperature, the pressure of the gas increases. follows the equation PV = RT.
Reason: It happens because on reducing the volume, the Reason : At low density real gases are more closely to ideal
no. of molecules per unit volume increases and as a result gases.
more collisions with walls exert greater pressure on the 92. Assertion : A gas has unique value of specific heat.
walls. Reason : Specific heat is defined as the amount of heat
80. Assertion: Internal energy of an ideal gas does not required to raise the temperature of unit mass of the
depend upon the volume of the gas. substance through one degree centrigrade.
Reason: Internal inergy of an ideal gas depends on 93. Assertion : Specific heat of a gas at constant pressure (Cp)
temperature of the gas.
is greater than its specific heat at constant volume (Cv).
81. Assertion: At low temperature and high pressure, the real
Reason : At constnat pressure, some heat is spent in
gases obey more strictly the gas equation PV = RT
expansion of the gas.
Reason: At low temperature, the molecular motion ceases
C
and due to high pressure, volume decreases and PV 94. Assertion : The ratio V for a monatomic gas is less than
becomes constant. CP
for a diatomic gas.
82. Assertion: One mole of any substance at any temperature Reason : The molecules of a monatomic gas have more
or volume always contains 6.02 × 1023 molecules. degrees of freedom than those of a diatomic gas.
Reason: One mole of a substance always refers to S.T.P.
95. Assertion : For an atom the number of degrees of freedom
conditions.
is 3.
83. Assertion : The total translational kinetic energy of all the
Reason : The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure
molecules of a given mass of an ideal gas is 1.5 times the
product of its pressure and its volume. Cp
Reason : The molecules of a gas collide with each other and volume is a constant. i.e., C .
v
and the velocities of the molecules change due to the
96. Assertion : Maxwell speed distribution graph is symmetric
collision.
about most probable speed
84. Assertion : When we place a gas cylinder on a moving
train, its internal kinetic energy increases. Reason : rms speed of ideal gas, depends upon it’s type
(monoatomic, diatomic and polyatomic)
Reason : Its temperature remains constant.
97. Assertion : Mean free path of a gas molecules varies
85. Assertion : If a gas container in motion is suddenly stopped,
inversely as density of the gas.
the temperature of the gas rises.
Reason : The kinetic energy of ordered mechanical motion Reason : Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of
is converted in to the kinetic energy of random motion of the gas.
gas molecules.
86. Assertion : The internal energy of a real gas is function of
both, temperature and volume. 98. A gas is enclosed in a cube of side l. What will be the
Reason : Internal kinetic energy depends on temperature change in momentum of the molecule, if it suffers an
and internal potential energy depends on volume. elastic collision with the plane wall parallel to yz-plane
87. Assertion : Each vibrational mode gives two degrees of and rebounds with the same velocity ?
freedom [(Vx, Vy & Vz) initial velocities of the gas molecules]
Reason : By law of equipartition of energy, the energy for (a) mvx (b) zero
each degree of freedom in thermal equilibrium is 2kB T. (c) – mvx (d) – 2mvx.
88. Assertion : For an ideal gas, at constant temperature, the 99. A flask contains a monoatomic and a diatomic gas in the
product of pressure and volume is constant. ratio of 4 : 1 by mass at a temperature of 300 K. The ratio
Reason : The mean square velocity of the molecules is of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases
inversely proportional to mass. is
89. Assertion : Air pressure in a car tyre increases during (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
driving.
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
Reason : Absolute zero temperature is not zero energy
100. What will be the ratio of number of molecules of a
temperature.
monoatomic and a diatomic gas in a vessel, if the ratio of
90. Assertion : A gas can be liquified at any temperature by
their partial pressures is 5 : 3 ?
increase of pressure alone.
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
Reason : On increasing pressure the temperature of gas
decreases. (c) 5 : 3 (d) 3 : 5
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202 KINETIC THEORY
101. If two vessels A and B contain the same gas but the 109. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat
volume of vessel A is twice that of B and temperature and capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0JK-1. If the
pressure of gas A is twice that of gas in B, then the ratio speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat
of gas molecules in A and B is capacity at constant pressure is (Take gas constant R = 8.3
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 JK-1 mol-1)
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 (a) 7.5 JK-1 mol-1 (b) 7.0 JK-1 mol-1
102. At constant volume, temperature is increased then -1
(c) 8.5 JK mol -1 (d) 8.0 JK-1 mol-1
(a) collision on walls will be less 110. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at
(b) number of collisions per unit time will increase the same temperature. The pressure of A being twice that of
(c) collisions will be in straight lines B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be
(d) collisions will not change. 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of
103. If a gas is heated at constant pressure, its isothermal A and B is :
compressibility 3
(a) remains constant (a) (b) 2
4
(b) increases linearly with temperature 1 2
(c) decreases linearly with temperature (c) (d)
2 3
(d) decreases inversely with temperature
Cp
104. A gas in a container A is in thermal equilibrium with antoher 111. The ratio of the specific heats C in terms of degrees
v
gas of the same mass in container B. If we denote the
of freedom (n) is given by
corresponding pressures and volumes by the suffixes A
and B, then which of the following statement is most likely n 2
(a) 1 (b) 1
to be true? 3 n
(a) PA PB , VA VB (b) PA PB , VA VB n 1
(c) 1 (d) 1
2 n
(c) PA / VA PB / VB (d) PA VA PB VB
112. For hydrogen gas Cp – C v = a and for oxygen gas
105. In a cubical vessel are enclosed n molecules of a gas each
Cp – Cv = b. So, the relation between a and b is given by
having a mass m and an average speed v. If is the length
of each edge of the cube, the pressure exerted by the gas (a) a = 16 b (b) 16 a = b
will be (c) a = 4 b (d) a = b
113. The temperature at which protons in hydrogen gas would
n mv 2 n m2 v m n v2 nmv have enough energy to overcome Coulomb barrier of
(a) 3 (b) 3 (c) 3 (d)
2 3 2 4.14 × 10–14 J is
106. P, V, T respectively denote pressure, volume and temperature (Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
of two gases. On mixing, new temperature and volume are (a) 2 × 109 K (b) 109 K
respectively T and V. Final pressure of the mixture is (c) 6 × 109 K (d) 3 × 109 K
(a) P (b) 2P 114. The temperature at which oxygen molecules have the same
(c) zero (d) 3P root mean square speed as that of hydrogen molecules at
107. Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the 300 K is
masses of all the molecules are halved and their speeds (a) 600 K (b) 2400 K
are doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to
(c) 4800 K (d) 300 K
(a) 4P0 (b) 2P0
115. If the root mean square velocity of the molecules of
P0
(c) P 0 (d) hydrogen at NTP is 1.84 km/s. Calculate the root mean
2
108. The temperature at which the average transitional kinetic square velocity of oxygen molecule at NTP, molecular weight
energy of a gas molecule is equal to the energy gained by of hydrogen and oxygen are 2 and 32 respectively
an electron in accelerating from rest through a potential (a) 1.47 km/sec (b) 0.94 km/s
difference of 1 volt is (c) 1.84 km/s (d) 0.47 km/sec
(a) 4.6 × 103 K (b) 11.6 × 103 K 116. The average transitional energy and the rms speed of
(c) 23.2 × 103 K (d) 7.7 × 103 K molecules in a sample of oxygen gas at 300 K are 6.21 × 10–21 J
KINETIC THEORY 203
and 484 m/s respectively. The corresponding values at 600 Cp
K are nearly (assuming ideal gas behaviour) = and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is
Cv
(a) 12.42 × 10–21 J, 968 m/s (b) 8.78 × 10–21 J, 684 m/s equal to
(c) 6.21 × 10–21 J, 968 m/s (d) 12.42 × 10–21 J, 684 m/s 1
R
117. If R is universal gas constant, the amount of heat needed to (a) (b)
1 R
raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas
from 273 K to 373 K, when no work is done, is 1
(c) R (d)
(a) 100 R (b) 150 R 1
(c) 300 R (d) 500 R 123. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and 16 g of
118. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 × 104 N/m2. Cp
oxygen. The ratio of the mixture is
The density of the gas is 4 kg/m3. What is the energy of the Cv
gas due to its thermal motion? (a) 1.62 (b) 1.59
(a) 3 × 104 J (b) 5 × 104 J (c) 1.54 (d) 1.4
4 (d) 7 × 104 J
(c) 6 × 10 J 124. Half mole of helium gas is contained at STP. The heat energy
119. If CP and CV denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit needed to double the pressure of the gas keeping the
mass at constant pressure and constant volume volume constant (specific heat of the gas = 3J/g –K) is
respectively, then (a) 3276 J (b) 1638 J
(a) CP – CV = 28R (b) CP – CV = R/28 (c) 819 J (d) 409.5 J
(c) CP – CV = R/14 (d) CP – CV = R 125. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of
5 molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats . It is moving
120. If one mole of monoatomic gas is mixed with one with speed v and it suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no
3
7 heat is lost to the surroundings, its temperature increases
mole of diatomic gas , the value of for the mixture by
5
is ( –1)
Mv 2 K Mv 2
(a) 1.40 (b) 1.50 (a) (b) K
2 R 2R
(c) 1.53 (d) 3.07
121. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas ( –1) ( –1)
(c) Mv 2 K (d) Mv 2 K
is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to 2R 2( 1) R
that at constant volume is 126. A cylinder rolls without slipping down an inclined plane,
(a) 5/7 (b) 9/7 (c) 7/5 (d) 8/7 the number of degrees of freedom it has, is
122. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure (a) 2 (b) 3
and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv, respectively. If (c) 5 (d) 1
EBD_7208
204 KINETIC THEORY
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 27. (d) Pressure exerted by a gas is given by
1 mn 2
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) P v
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 3 V
10. (c) Boyle’s and Charle’s law follow kinetic theory of gases. 1 –2
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) or P v P
3
3 Therefore, pressure exerted by a gas is directly
15. (c) E RT , so it is same for all ideal gases at same
2 proportional to the density of the gas.
temperature. 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
16. (b) At low pressure and high temperature the molecules 31. (b) According to boyle's law, at constant temperature.
are far apart and molecular interactions are negligible.
Without interactions the gas behaves like an ideal 1
P or P1V1 P2 V2
one. V
17. (a) 32. (c)
18. (c) Perfect gas equation is PV = RT. 33. (a) According to Boyle’s law PV = constant.
is the number of moles, R = NAkB
3RT
M N 34. (a) Vrms M is least for hydrogen among the
M
M0 NA hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
PV = kBNT or P = kBnT 2E
19. (a) 35. (c) Pressure, P
3
20. (c) In equilibrium, the average kinetic energy of
molecules of different gases will be equal. That is 36. (b) For a monoatomic gas, the average energy of a
3
1 1 3 molecule at temperature T is k BT .
m1v1 2 m2 v2 2 k BT 2
2 2 2
3
21. (c) Lighter the molecule, higher the average speed. Internal energy U RT
22. (b) Average kinetic energy of gas molecues depends 2
on the temperature of the gas as dU 3
CV = R
1 2 3 dT 2
mv k BT For an ideal gas, CP – CV = R
2 2
23. (c) The centre of mass of the gas molecules moves with 5 CP 5
uniform speed along with lorry. As there is no change CP = R and
2 CV 3
in relative motion, the translational kinetic energy and
hence the temperature of the gas molecules will remain 8kT
same. 37. (a) Average velocity v avg.
m
24. (c) molecules of ideal gas behaves like perfectly elastic
rigid sphere. 3RT
25. (b) According to ideal gas law 38. (b) RMS velocity Vrms =
M
P1V1 P2 V2 P2 V2 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (c)
or T2 T1
T1 T2 P1V1 42. (d) For a diatomic gas,
Molar heat capacity at constant pressure,
P V 7
T T
2 2 T2 CP R
T2 4 2
PV Molar heat capacity at constant volume,
26. (a) According to kinetic theory of gases there is no loss
7
of energy during the collisions between the R
5 CP 2 7
molecules. Therefore, collision between the molecules CV R
2 CV 5 5
is perfectly elastic. R
2
KINETIC THEORY 205
Q STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS

43. (c) C ; If T 0, C and if Q 0 , then C = 0
m T
60. (d)
44. (c)
61. (c) Coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure
45. (c) A rigid diatomic molecule has 5 degrees of freedom
total internal energy of one mole of rigid diatomic gas 1
is for all gases. The average transnational K.E. is
is 273
same for molecules of all gases and for each molecules
5 5
U k BT N A RT ( R kBNA ) 3
2 2 it is kT
46. (a) Work done is to be done in expanding the gas at 2
constant pressure. kT
Mean free path (as P decreases,
3 2 d2P
47. (d) Translational kinetic enegy E = kBNT
2 increases)
2
62. (d) 63. (d)
PV = E [ k B NT PV] 64. (a) Mean kinetic energy per molecule will be equal for
3
both the gases because it depends only upon the
48. (d) The difference of CP and CV is equal to R, not 2R.
3
49. (b) Law of equipartition of energy states that the energy temperature. (E = k B T)
for each degree of freedom in thermal equilibrium is 2
65. (d) 66. ( c)
1
k T. Thus each vibrational mode gives 2 degrees 67. (b) Helium is monoatomic and hydrogen is diatomic.
2 B Helium has smaller number of degrees of freedom
of freedom (kinetic and potential energy modes) than hydrogen. So CP / CV for helium is more than
that for hydrogen.
1
corresponding to the energy 2 k T = kBT 68. (a) CP – CV = R is true for any gas.
2 B
69. (b) In all the three directions x, y and z gas possess equal
50. (c) A fly moving in a room has three degrees of freedom, energies.
because it is free to move in space.
51. (a) 52. (c) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
53. (c) According to law of equipartition of energy, the energy
70. (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
1 71. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
per degree of freedom is kT .
2 72. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
For a polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom, the 73. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
1
mean energy per molecule = nkT
2 DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
54. (c) No. of degree of freedom = 3 K – N 74. (b) According to ideal gas equation
where K is no. of atom and N is the number of relations PV = nRT
between atoms. For triatomic gas,
m M 1
K = 3, N = 3 C2 3 PV RT, P RT or or
M M P RT P T
No. of degree of freedom = 3 (3) – 3 = 6
55. (d) Here, represent the slope of graph
56. (b) Mean free path in a gas is 100 times the interatomic P
distance. Hence T2 T1
1 75. (c) 76. (a)
57. (a) Mean free path, 2 77. (a) Change in internal energy from A B
2 d n
where, f f
n = number of molecules per unit volume, U= nR T = nR (Tf – Ti)
2 2
d = diameter of the molecules
58. (a) Based on Maxwell's velocity distribution curve. 5
= {P V – P V }
59. (b) 2 f f i i
EBD_7208
206 KINETIC THEORY
(As gas is diatomic f = 5) i.e, kinetic and potential energy modes, corresponding
5 1
= {2 × 103 × 6 – 5 × 103 × 4} to the energy 2 kBT k BT .
2 2
5
= {12 – 20} × 103 J = 5 × (–4) × 103 J 3kT
2 88. (b) PV constant and vrms
U = –20 KJ m
V V 89. (b) When a person is driving a car then the temperature of
78. (a) 1 2 tan 1 tan 2 T 1 T air inside the tyre is increased because of motion. From
2
the Gay Lussac’s law,
V 1 P T
From PV RT ;
T P Hence, when temperature increases the pressure also
1 1 increase.
Hence P P1 P2 . 90. (d) A vapour above the critical temperature is a gas and
1 P 2
gas below the critical temperature for the substance is
a vapour. As gas cannot be liquidfied by the
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS application of pressure alone, how so ever large the
pressure may be while vapour can be liquified under
79. (a) 80. (d)
pressure alone. To liquify a gas it must be cooled upto
81. (d) The real gases obey the gas equation at low or below its critical temperature.
pressure and high temperature as, at high temperature 91. (a) At high temperature and low pressure (low density),
the intermolecular force is negligible due to increased real gas behaves like an ideal gas.
volume of the gas. 92. (d) The specific heat of a gas can be from 0 to .
82. (c) The number 6.02 × 1023 is Avogadro’s number and 93. (a) Cv is used in increasing the internal energy of the gas
one mole of a substance contains Avogadro’s while Cp is used in two ways (i) to change the internal
number of molecules. energy and (ii) to do expansion of gas. Hence Cp > Cv.
3 3 94. (c) For monatomic gas, f = 3,
83. (b) Total translational kinetic energy nRT PV 3R 5R Cv 3
2 2 Cv , Cp ;
In an ideal gas all molecules moving randomly in all 2 2 Cp 5
direction collide and their velocity changes after For diatomic gas, f = 5
collision. 5R 7R Cv 5
84. (c) Internal energy can be increased when molecules of Cv , Cp ; C 7
2 2 p
gas will get greater velocity w.r.t. container.
95. (b) An atom can have only translatory motion, so its
85. (a) The motion of the container is known as the ordered
1 2 1 2 1 2
motion of the gas and zigzag motion of gas molecules degrees of freedom can be mvx , mv y , mvz .
2 2 2
within the container is called disordered motion
96. (d) Maxwell speed distribution graph is asymmetric graph,
When the container suddenly stops, ordered kinetic
because it has a long ‘tail’ that extends to infinity.
energy gets converted into disordered kinetic energy Also Urms depends upon nature of gas and it’s
which is turn increases the temperature of the gas. temperature.
Ordered motion dN
Disordered motion dv
86. (a) In real gas, intermolecular force exist. Work has to be

done in changing the distance between the molecules. vmv vav vrms
Therefore, internal energy of real gas is sum of internal 97. (a) The mean free path of a gas molecule is the averge
kinetic and internal potential energy which are function distance between two successive collisions. It is
of temperature and volume respectively. Also change represented by .
in internal energy of a system depends only on initial 1 kT m
and final sates of the system. 2
and 2
2 P 2 d
87. (c) By law of equipartition of energy, the energy for each
Here, = 0 diameter of molecule and
1 k = Boltzmann’s constant.
degree of freedom in thermal equilibrium is k B T . Each
2 1 / d, T and 1 / P.
quadratic term form in the total energy expression of a Hence, mean free path varies inversely as density of
molecules is to be counted as a degree of freedom. the gas. It can easily proved that the mean free path
Thus each vibrational mode gives 2 degree of freedom varies directly as the temperature and inversely as the
pressure of the gas.
KINETIC THEORY 207
3
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 108. (d) 1 eV = kT
2
98. (d) Since it hits the plane wall parallel to y z – plane and 3 23
or 1.6 10 19 = 1.38 10 T
it rebounds with same velocity, its y and z 2
components of velocity do not change, but the x- T = 7.7 × 103 K.
component reverses the sign.
Velocity after collision is (–vx, vy and vz). 109. (d) Molar mass of the gas = 4g/mol
The change in momentum is Speed of sound
– mvx – mvx = – 2mvx 3.3 273
RT
99. (a) The average kinetic energy per molecule of any ideal V= 952 = 3
m 4 10
3
gas is always equal to kBT. It depends only on
2 6 8
= 1.6 =
the temperature and is independent of the mass and 10 5
nature of the gas. CP 8
100. (c) V and T will be same for both gases. Also, = C
V 5
P1V = 1RT and P2V = 2RT
5 5 8 5
(P1/P2) = 1 So, CP = = 8JK–1mol–1 [CV = 5.0 JK–1 given]
3 3 5
2
110. (a) From PV = nRT
N1 N2
By definition, 1= and 2=
NA NA A MA BMB
PA = and PB
RT RT
N1 1 5 From question,
N2 2 3 PA A MA 2 MA 3
101. (d) VA = 2VB ; TA = 2TB ; PA = 2PB PB B MB MB 2
PAVA PV MA 3
= B B = nAR = nBR So, M
TA TB 4
B
A PAV ATB 111. (b) Let ‘n’ be the degree of freedom

=
B
PBVB TA
n
(2 PB ) (2VB ) (TB ) 1 R
Cp 2 2
= =2 1
PB VB (2TB ) Cv n n
R
102. (b) As the temperature increases, the average velocity 2
increases. So, the collisions are faster.
103. (a) 112. (d) Both are diatomic gases and Cp – Cv = R for all gases.
104. (d) Apply Boyle’s law, at constant temperature 3
113. (a) k BT K av ...(i)
1 2
P
V where Kav is the average kinetic energy of the proton.
105. (c) 2K av
106. (b) Let n1 and n2 be the number of moles of each gas. T
Then 3k B
PV PV 2 4.14 10 –14 J
n1 =
RT
and n2 =
RT T= –23 –1
2 109 K.
3 1.38 10 JK
When the two gases are mixed, total number of moles,
n = n 1 + n2 114. (c) According to given problem
(v rms ) O 2 (v rms ) H 2
P 'V PV PV
=
RT RT RT
(where P is the pressure of the mixture.) 3RTO2 3R(300)
P = 2P M O2 M H2
107. (b) 1 mnc 2 and P ' 1 m

n (2c) 2 = 2 P0.
P0 M O2 32
3 V 3 2
TO2 300 300 4800 K
M H2 2
EBD_7208
208 KINETIC THEORY
115. (d) (crms )H 2 =1.84 km/s, (crms )O2 = ?

121. (c) Molar specific heat at constant pressure CP
7
R
2
M H2 = 2, M O2 = 32
7 5
Rms velocity, Since, CP – CV = R CV – CP – R R–R R
2 2
3RT CP (7 / 2) R 7
crms = .
M CV (5 / 2) R 5
cH 2 M O2 122. (a) Cp – Cv = R Cp = Cv + R
cO 2 M H2 Cp Cv R Cv R
= = = +
Cv Cv Cv Cv
1.84 32
=4
CO2 2 R R R
=1+ = –1 Cv =
1.84 Cv Cv 1
CO 2 = = 0.46 km/s 123. (a) For mixture of gas,
4
3 3 n1Cv1 n 2 Cv 2
116. (d) E 300 ; E ' R(600) = 2E = 2 × 6.21 × 10–21 Cv
2 2 n1 n 2
= 12.42 × 10–21 J.
31 5 5
3R 300 3R 600 4 R R 6R R
vrms ; v 'rms 2 vrms 22 2 4
M M
1 9
= 682.44 m/s 4
117. (c) If a gas is heated at constant volume then no work is 2 2
done. The heat supplied is given by 29R 23 29R
dQ nCv dT 9 4 18
f 5R 1 7R
But Cv R where f is the degree of freedom of the n1Cp1 n 2Cp2 4
2 and Cp 2 2 2
gas (n1 n 2 ) 1
4
nfRdT 2
dQ 7
2 10R R
4 47R
2 3 R (373 273) 9 18
= = 300 R
2 2
f Cp 47 R 18
118. (b) For 1kg gas energy, E rT 1.62
2 Cv 18 29 R
As P = rT therefore rT = P/ 124. (b) Cv Mcv 4 3 12 J/mol-K
5 8 10 4 To doubling the pressure, the temperature will be
E [ f = 5 for diatomic gas] doubled, so
2 4
E = 5 × 104 Joule. T = T2 T1 273 K
119. (b) According to Mayer's relationship
1
Cp – Cv = R Thus Q = nCv T 12 273 1638 J
2
Cp Cv R 125. (c) As no heat is lost,
M M M Loss of kinetic energy = gain of internal energy of gas
Here M = 28. 1 2 m R
1 2
n1 n2 n1 n2 mv nCV T mv T
120. (b) = 2 2 M –1
–1 1 1 2 –1
mv 2 ( –1)
2 1 1 T K
or –1
= 5 7 2R
3
–1
5
–1 126. (a) As degree of freedom is defined as the number of
independent variables required to define body’s motion
3 completely. Here f = 2(1 Translational + 1 Rotational).
= .
2
14
OSCILLATIONS
(a) simple harmonic

(b) on a straight line
1. A periodic to-and-fro motion is called (c) on a circle
(a) Periodic motion (b) orbital motion (d) with constant acceleration.
(c) oscillatory motion (d) rectilinear motion 10. The displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion
2. A particle moves in a circular path with a uniform speed. Its in one time period is
motion is (a) A (b) 2 A
(a) periodic (b) oscillatory (c) 4 A (d) Zero
(c) simple harmonic (d) angular simple harmonic 11. In a periodic motion, displacement is a periodic function of
3. Force acting in simple harmonic motion is always time given by
(a) directly proportional to the displacement (a) f (t) = A cos t
(b) inversely proportional to the displacement (b) f (t) = sin t
(c) directly proportional to the square of displacement (c) f (t) = A sin t + A cos t
(d) inversely proportional to the square of displacement (d) All of these
4. For which of the following conditions will there be an effect 12. Which of the following is a non-periodic motion as
on the periodic-time of the swing, if a girl is sitting on the represented by the equation? ( is any positive constant
swing ? and t is time)
(a) Another girl sits by her side (a) A sin ( t + ) (b) A cos ( t + )
(b) The girl sitting on the swing stands up (c) e –2 t (d) All of these
(c) Both (a) and (b) 13. The function sin 2 ( t ) represents
(d) None of these (a) a periodic, not simple harmonic motion with a period
5. A simple harmonic motion is represented by y (t) = 10 sin
(20t + 0.5). The frequency is
20 10 (b) a periodic, not simple harmonic motion with a period
(a) Hz (b) Hz
2 2 2
(c) Hz (d) 2 Hz
2 (c) a simple harmonic motion with a period
6. Which of the following expressions is that of a simple
harmonic progressive wave ? 2
(d) a simple harmonic motion with a period
(a) a sin t (b) a sin t) cox kx
(c) a sin t – kx) (d) a cos kx 14. A child swinging on swing in sitting position stands up.
7. Oscillation and vibration both are ...X... . The time period of the swing will
Here, X refers to (a) increase
(a) different concepts (b) same concepts (b) decrease
(c) straight line motions (d) None of these (c) remain same
8. Which of the following is a simple harmonic motion? (d) increase if the child is tall and decrease if the child is
(a) Particle moving through a string fixed at both ends. short.
(b) Wave moving through a string fixed at both ends. 15. A particle moves on the X-axis according to the equation
(c) Earth spinning about its axis. x = A + B sin t. The motion is simple harmonic with
(d) Ball bouncing between two rigid vertical walls. amplitude
9. The displacement of a particle is given by (a) A (b) B
r A( i cos t j sin t ) . The motion of the particle is (c) A + B (d) A2 B2
EBD_7208
210 OSCILLATIONS
16. The physical quantity which remains constant in simple 28. Acceleration of a particle executing SHM, at it’s mean
harmonic motion is position is
(a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy (a) infinity (b) variable
(c) restoring force (d) frequency (c) maximum (d) zero
17. In simple harmonic motion force is directly proportional to 29. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity
...X... of the body from the mean position. Here, A refers to and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic
(a) path length motion is
(b) displacement (a) (b) 0.707
(c) square of displacement (c) zero (d) 0.5
(d) None of the above 30. Which one of the following equations of motion represents
simple harmonic motion?
18. If in a motion F x it is known as ...X... motion. Here, X
(a) Acceleration = – k(x + a)
refers, to (with negative constant of proportionality)
(b) Acceleration = k(x + a)
(a) linear harmonic (b) non-linear harmonic
(c) Acceleration = kx
(c) cubic harmonic (d) projectile (d) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x2
19. Suppose a tunnel is dug along a diameter of the earth. A where k, k0, k1 and a are all postive.
particle is dropped from a point, a distance h directly above 31. Which of the following quantities are always negative in
the tunnel, the motion of the particle is a simple harmonic motion ?
(a) simple harmonic (b) parabolic
(c) oscillatory (d) non-periodic (a) F. r . (b) v. r .
20. A particle moves in a circular path with a continuously (c) a.r. (d) Both (a) & (c)
increasing speed. Its motion is 32. Which of the following is true about total mechanical energy
(a) periodic (b) oscillatory of SHM ?
(c) simple harmonic (d) None of these (a) It is zero at mean position.
21. The motion of a particle is given by x = A sin t + B cos t. (b) It is zero at extreme position.
The motion of the particle is (c) It is always zero.
(a) not simple harmonic (d) It is never zero.
(b) simple harmonic with amplitude (A–B)/2 33. If a is the amplitude of SHM, then K.E. is equal to the P.E. at
(c) simple harmonic with amplitude (A + B)/2 ............ distance from the mean position.
a a
(d) simple harmonic with amplitude A 2 B 2 (a) (b)
22. A system exhibiting SHM must possess 2 2
(a) inertia only a
(b) elasticity as well as inertia (c) (d) a
4
(c) elasticity, inertia and an external force 34. Energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion depends
(d) elasticity only
on
23. For a body executing simple harmonic motion, which (a) a 2 (b)
parameter comes out to be non-periodic ?
(a) Displacement (b) Velocity 1 1
(c) 2 (d) 2
(c) Acceleration (d) None of these a
24. In SHM, the acceleration is directly proportional to : 35. The total energy of a particle, executing simple harmonic
(a) time (b) linear velocity motion is
(a) independent of x (b) x2
(c) displacement (d) frequency (c) x (d) x1/2
25. Velocity of a body moving in SHM is 36. The potential energy of a particle (Ux) executing S.H.M. is
2 2 2 2 2 given by
(a) a y (b) a y
k
(a) Ux (x a) 2 (b) U x k1 x k2x2 k3 x 3
(c) a –y2 2 (d) 2
a 2
y 2 2
26. The average acceleration in one time period in a simple (c) U x A e bx (d) Ux = a constant
harmonic motion is 37. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential
(a) A 2 (b) A 2/2 energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (K.E.) and total energy (T.E.)
are measured as a function of displacement x. Which of the
(c) A 2 / 2 (d) zero following statement is true?
27. The graph plotted between the velocity and displacement (a) P.E. is maximum when x = 0.
from mean position of a particle executing SHM is (b) K.E. is maximum when x = 0.
(a) circle (b) ellipse (c) T.E. is zero when x = 0.
(c) parabola (d) straight line (d) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum.
OSCILLATIONS 211
38. If < E > and denote the average kinetic and the average 46. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum swinging
potential energies respectively of mass describing a simple through small angles is given by
harmonic motion, over one period, then the correct relation
is L L
(a) T = (b) T = 2
(a) < E > = (b) < E > = 2 g g
(c) < E > = –2 (d) < E > = – 
39. The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 2 L g
proportional to (c) T = (d) T = 2
g L
(a) Displacement from equilibrium position
(b) Frequency of oscillation 47. For an oscillating simple pendulum, the tension in the string
(c) Velocity in equilibrium position is
(d) Square of amplitude of motion (a) maximum at extreme position
40. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, which of (b) maximum at mean position
the following statement is not correct ? (c) constant throughout the motion
(a) The total energy of the particle always remains the (d) Cannot be predicted
same. 48. The ratio of energies of oscillations of two exactly identical
(b) The restoring force of always directed towards a fixed pendulums oscillating with amplitudes 5 cm and 10 cm is :
point. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) The restoring force is maximum at the extreme (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
positions.
49. The period of vibration for a simple pendulum of length
(d) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the
equilibrium position. I is
41. If a body is executing simple harmonic motion, then l l
(a) at extreme positions, the total energy is zero (a) T 2 (b) T 2
g g
(b) at equilibrium position, the total energy is in the form
of potential energy 1 l 1 l
(c) at equilibrium position, the total energy is in the form (c) T (d) T
2 g 2 g
of kinetic energy
50. The potential energy of a simple pendulum is maximum
(d) at extreme positions, the total energy is infinite
when it is
42. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position
(a) at the turning points of the oscillations
(a) kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy
(b) at the equilibrium
is maximum
(c) in between the above two cases
(b) both kinetic and potential energies are maximum
(d) at any position, it has always a fixed value
(c) kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy
51. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is
is minimum
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic
(d) both kinetic and potential energies are minimum
(b) non-periodic
43. A spring-mass system oscillates with a frequency . If it is
(c) simple harmonic and time period is independent of
taken in an elevator slowly accelerating upward, the
the density of the liquid.
frequency will
(d) simple harmonic and time-period is directly
(a) increase (b) decrease
proportional to the density of the liquid.
(c) remain same (d) become zero
52. The necessary condition for the bob of a pendulum to
44. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are joined in
execute SHM is
series. The effective spring constant of the combination is
(a) the length of pendulum should be small
given by
(b) the mass of bob should be small
(a) k1k2 /(k1 + k2) (b) k 1 k 2
(c) amplitude of oscillation should be small
(c) (k1 + k2) /2 (d) k1 + k2
(d) the velocity of bob should be small
45. Identify the wrong statement from the following
(a) If the length of a spring is halved, the time period of 53. The motion which is not simple harmonic is
1 (a) vertical oscillations of a spring
each part becomes times the original (b) motion of simple pendulum
2
(c) motion of a planet around the Sun
(b) The effective spring constant K of springs in parallel
(d) oscillation of liquid column in a U-tube
1 1
is given by 54. The tension in the string of a simple pendulum is
K K1 K 2 (a) constant
(c) The time period of a stiffer spring is less than that of a (b) maximum in the extreme position
soft spring (c) zero in the mean position
(d) The spring constant is inversely proportional to the (d) None of these
spring length
EBD_7208
212 OSCILLATIONS
55. The bob of a simple pendulum of mass m and total energy E
64. A particle oscillating under a force F kx b is a (k and
will have maximum linear momentum equal to
b are constants)
2E (a) simple harmonic oscillator
(a) (b) 2mE
m (b) non linear oscillator
(c) 2mE (d) mE2 (c) damped oscillator
56. How does the time period of pendulum vary with length (d) forced oscillator
L 65. The frequency of the simple harmonic motion attained in
(a) L (b) forced oscillations, after the forced oscillation die out, is
2
(a) the natural frequency of the particle
1
(c) (d) 2L (b) the frequency of the driving force
L (c) double the frequency of the driving force
57. The time period of a simple pendulum of infinite length is (d) double the natural frequency of the particle
(Re = radius of Earth) 66. If a body oscillates at the angular frequency d of the driving
force, then the oscillations are called
Re 2R e
(a) T 2 (b) T 2 (a) free oscillations (b) coupled oscillations
g g (c) forced oscillations (d) maintained oscillations
67. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave becomes
Re very sharp when the
(c) T 2 (d) T
2g (a) quality factor is small
58. A simple pendulum is set into vibrations. The bob of the (b) damping force is small
pendulum comes to rest after some time due to (c) restoring force is small
(a) Air friction (d) applied periodic force is small
(b) Moment of inertia 68. What is the amplitude of simple harmonic motion at
(c) Weight of the bob resonance in the ideal case of zero damping?
(d) Combination of all the above (a) Zero (b) – 1
59. A simple pendulum oscillates in air with time period T and (c) 1 (d) Infinite
amplitude A. As the time passes 69. Resonance is an example of
(a) T and A both decrease (a) tuning fork (b) forced vibration
(b) T increases and A is constant (c) free vibration (d) damped vibration
(c) T remains same and A decreases
(d) T decreases and A is constant
60. Choose the correct statement 70. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the following.
(a) Time period of a simple pendulum depends on I. A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic.
amplitude II. A simple harmonic motion may be oscillatory
(b) Time shown by a spring watch varies with acceleration III. An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
due to gravity g. (a) I only (b) II and III
(c) In a simple pendulum time period varies linearly with
(c) I and III (d) I and II
the length of the pendulum
71. Select the true statement(s) about SHM.
(d) The graph between length of the pendulum and time
period is a parabola. I. Acceleration displacement is a sufficient
61. Which of the following will change the time period as condition for SHM.
they are taken to moon? II. Restoring force displacement is a sufficient
(a) A simple pendulum (b) A physical pendulum condition for SHM.
(c) A torsional pendulum (d) A spring-mass system (a) I only (b) II only
62. The total mechanical energy of a harmonic oscillator is given (c) I and II (d) None of these
as 72. Select the false statement(s) from the following.
1 1 2 2 2 I. In SHM, the acceleration of the body is in the
(a) m 2 A2 (b) m A direction of velocity of the body.
4 4
II. In SHM, the velocity and displacement of particle
1 1 2 2 2
(c) m 2 A2 (d) m A are in same phase.
2 2
63. In case of sustained forced oscillations the amplitude of (a) I only (b) II only
oscillations (c) I and II (d) None of these
(a) decreases linearly 73. Consider the following statements and select the correct
(b) decreases sinusoidally option from the following.
(c) decreases exponentially I. PE becomes maximum twice and KE becomes maximum
(d) always remains constant once in one vibration.
OSCILLATIONS 213
II. KE becomes maximum twice and PE become maximum MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
once in one vibration.
III. Both KE and PE becomes maximum twice in one 80. Match the column I and column II.
vibration. Column I Column II
(a) I only (b) II only (A) Max. positive displacement (1) 0
(c) III only (d) I and II T
74. Select the correct statement(s) from the following (B) Max. positive velocity (2)
2
I. Motion of a satellite and a planet is periodic as well
as SHM. T
(C) Min. acceleration (3)
II. Mass suspended by a spring executes SHM. 4
III. Motion of a simple pendulum is always SHM. (D) Max. positive acceleration (4) T
3T
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (E) Min. displacement (5)
75. Choose the false statement(s) for a forced oscillation. 4
I. Displacement amplitude of an oscillator is (a) (A) - (2), (B) - (4), (C) - (3), (D) - (5), (E) - (1)
independent of the angular frequency of the driving (b) (A) - (1), (B) - (4), (C) - (5), (D) - (3), (E) - (2)
force. (c) (A) - (5), (B) - (1, 4), (C) - (3), (D) - (5), (E) - (1, 2, 4)
II. The amplitude tends to infinity when the driving (d) (A) - (1, 3), (B) - (3, 4), (C) - (5), (D) - (1, 2), (E) - (5, 4)
frequency equals the natural frequency. 81. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a straight line under
III. Maximum possible amplitude for a given driving the action of force F = (8 – 2x) N. The particle is released at
rest from x = 6m. For the subsequent motion match the
frequency is governed by the driving frequency and
following (All the values in the column II are in their S.I.
the damping.
units)
Column I Column II
(A) Equilibrium position at x (1) /4
76. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
(B) Amplitude of SHM is (2) /2
I. In sitar, guitar the strings vibrate and produce sound.
(C) Time taken to go directly (3) 4
II. Sound waves propagate due to vibration of air
from x = 2 to x = 4
molecules.
(D) Energy of SHM is (4) 2
III. In solids, atoms oscillate to produce the temperature
(a) (A) - (3), (B) - (4), (C) - (2), (D) - (3)
sensation. (b) (A) - (4), (B) - (3), (C) - (2), (D) - (1)
(a) I only (b) II only (c) (A) - (1), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (4)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (d) (A) - (2), (B) - (4), (C) - (1), (D) - (3)
77. Choose the false statement(s) from the following. 82. A block of mass m is projected towards a spring with velocity
I. Natural frequency of a body depends upon the v0. The force constant of the spring is k. The block is
elastic properties of material of the body. projected from a distance from the free end of the spring.
II. Natural frequency of a body depends on the The collision between block and the wall is completely
dimensions of the body. elastic. Match the following columns :
k
78. Consider the following statements v0
I. ( t + ) is known as phase constant.
II. is known as phase constant.
III. is the value of phase at t = 0
Column-I Column-II
Choose the correct statement(s)
kv 02
(a) I only (b) II only (A) Maximum compression of (1) –
the spring m
79. Consider the following statements
mv0 2
I. Time period of a spring mass system depends on its (B) Energy of oscillations of block (2)
k
amplitude. 1
II. Time period of a spring mass system depends on its (C) Time period of oscillations (3) mv 2
2 0
mass. 2 m
III. Time period of a spring mass system depends on (D) Maximum acceleration of the block (4) v0 k
spring constant.
(a) (A) - (2), (B) - (3), (C) - (1), (D) - (4)
Choose the correct statements. (b) (A) - (2), (B) - (3), (C) - (4), (D) - (1)
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) (A) - (1), (B) - (4), (C) - (3), (D) - (2)
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III (d) (A) - (1), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (4)
EBD_7208
214 OSCILLATIONS
83. Column I Column II (a) zero (b) negative
d y 2 d2y (c) positive (d) None of these
(A) = v2 dx2 (1) Resonant vibration
dt 2 Y
87. For the given figure,
d2y 2y = 0 (a) y = a sin t M
(B) + (2) Free vibration P
dt 2 (b) y = a sin ( t – 0) y a
d2y dy (c) y = a cos t t
(C) 2 + 2k + 2y = 0 (3) Damped vibration (d) y = a cos ( t – 0)
X O 0 N X
dt dt
d2y dy A
(D) 2 + 2k + 2y (4) Forced vibration
dt dt
Y
= F sin pt
(5) Progressive wave
(a) (A) - (1), (B) - (3), (C) - (2, 4), (D) - (5) 88. In the given displacement time curve for SHM at what value
(b) (A) - (1, 3), (B) - (2, 5), (C) - (3), (D) - (4, 5) of t is the amplitude negative?
(c) (A) - (5), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (1, 4)
(d) (A) - (1), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (4) y
(A) Motion of a satellite (1) Damped oscillations
a T
(B) Motion of a simple (2) Resonant oscillations t
pendulum O
(C) Oscillation of (3) Periodic motion
stretched string in air
(D) Flying off of a paper (4) Simple harmonic
rider placed on the motion T T
stretched string (a) (b)
2 4
(a) (A) - (2), (B) - (3), (C) - (4), (D) - (1)
(b) (A) - (3), (B) - (2), (C) - (4), (D) - (1) 3T 3T
(c) (A) - (1), (B) - (3), (C) - (2), (D) - (4) (c) (d)
4 2
(d) (A) - (3), (B) - (4), (C) - (1), (D) - (2)
89. The graph shown in figure represents
Velocity
85. The displacement vs time of a particle executing SHM is
shown in figure. The initial phase is
–a O +a Displacement
(a) S.H.M. (b) circular motion

3 (c) rectillinear motion (d) uniform circular motion
(a) (b) 90. For a particle executing SHM the displacement x is given
2 2
3 by x A cos t. Identify the graph which represents the
(c) – – (d)
2 2 variation of potential energy (P.E.) as a function of time t
86. The acceleration of a particle undergoing SHM is graphed and displacement x.
in figure. At point 2 the velocity of the particle is
(a) I, III (b) II, IV

(c) II, III (d) I, IV
OSCILLATIONS 215
91. What do you conclude from the graph about the frequency E PE
of KE, PE and SHM ? E
KE
Energy
Total energy PE KE
(c) d
(d) d
A B
KE ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
PE
0 t alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
T/4 2T/4 3T/4 4T/4 have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Frequency of KE and PE is double the frequency of (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
SHM explanation for assertion.
(b) Frequency of KE and PE is four times the frequency (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
SHM. correct explanation for assertion
(c) Frequency of PE is double the frequency of K.E. (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Frequency of KE and PE is equal to the frequency (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
of SHM. 95. Assertion : An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic.
92. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a hollow Reason : A simple harmonic motion is necessarily oscillatory.
sphere containing mercury suspended by means of a wire. 96. Assertion : All oscillatory motions are necessarily periodic
If a little mercury is drained off, the period of pendulum will motion but all periodic motion are not oscillatory
Reason : Simple pendulum is an example of oscillatory
motion.
97. Assertion : In oscillatory motion, displacement of a body
from equilibrium can be represented by sine or cosine
function.
Reason : The body oscillates to and fro about its mean
position.
98. Assertion : Sine and cosine functions are periodic functions.
(a) remain unchanged (b) increase Reason : Sinusoidal functions repeats it values after a
(c) decrease (d) become erratic difinite interval of time
93. A graph of the square of the velocity against the square of 99. Assertion : A S.H.M. may be assumed as composition of
the acceleration of a given simple harmonic motion is many S.H.M.'s.
Reason : Superposition of many S.H.M.'s (along same line)
v2 v2
of same frequency will be a S.H.M.
100. Assertion : In simple harmonic motion, the motion is to and
(a) (b) fro and periodic
a2 a2
Reason : Velocity of the particle ( v) k 2 x (where
2 2
v v x is the displacement).
101. Assertion : In SHM, the the velocity is maximum when
(c) (d) acceleration is minimum.
a2
a2 Reason : Displacement and velocity of SHM differ in phase
94. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic by rad.
energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) against its 2
displacement d. Which one of the following represents these 102. Assertion : The force acting on a particle moving along
correctly? (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale) x-axis is
F = – k(x + v0t), where k is a constant.
E
E
Reason : To an observer moving along x-axis with constant
KE PE velocity v0, it represents SHM.
103. Assertion : At extreme positions of a particle executing
(a) d (b) KE SHM, both velocity and acceleration are zero.
Reason : In SHM, acceleration always acts towards mean
PE
position.
EBD_7208
216 OSCILLATIONS
104. Assertion : A particle executing simple harmonic motion 116. Assertion: Amplitude of a forced vibration can never reach
comes to rest at the extreme positions . infinity.
Reason : The resultant force on the particle is zero at these Reason: The driving frequency cannot be increased beyond
positions. a certain limit.
105. Assertion : The graph of total energy of a particle in SHM 117. Assertion : Resonance is special case of forced vibration
w.r.t. position is a straight line with zero slope. in which the natural frequency of vibration of the body is
Reason : Total energy of particle in SHM remains constant the same as the impressed frequency of external periodic
throughout its motion. force and the amplitude of forced vibration is maximum
106. Assertion : In a S.H.M. kinetic and potential energies Reason : The amplitude of forced vibrations of a body
become equal when the displacement is 1/ 2 times the increases with an increase in the frequency of the externally
amplitude. impressed periodic force.
Reason : In SHM, kinetic energy is zero when potential
energy is maximum. CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
107. Assertion : If the amplitude of simple harmonic oscillator is 118. A particle executing simple harmonic motion covers a
doubled, its total energy becomes four times. distance equal to half of its amplitude in one second. Then
Reason : The total energy is directly proportional to the the time period of the simple harmonic motion is
square of amplitude of oscillations. (a) 4 s (b) 6 s (c) 8 s (d) 12 s
108. Assertion : The graph between velocity and displacement 119. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the
for a harmonic oscillator is an ellipse. same amplitude A and frequency along the x-axis. Their
mean position is separated by distance X0(X0 > A). If the
Reason : Velocity does not change uniformly with
maximum separation between them is (X0 + A), the phase
displacement in harmonic motion. difference between their motion is
109. Assertion : The periodic time of a hard spring is less as
compared to that of a soft spring. (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 6 2
Reason : The periodic time depends upon the spring
120. Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight
constant, and spring constant is large for hard spring. lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes.
110. Assertion: Time period of a loaded spring does not change They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when
when taken to moon. their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
Reason: Time period of a loaded spring depends upon the positions of the two particles lie on a straight line
mass attached and the spring constant and not on perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase
acceleration due to gravity g. difference is
(a) 0 (b) 2 /3 (c) (d) /6
111. Assertion: Pendulum clock will gain time on the mountain 121. The displacement of a particle in SHM is
top.
Reason: On the mountain top the length of the pendulum x 10sin 2t metre. When its displacement is 6 m,
6
will decrease and T l , so it will also decrease. the velocity of the particle (in m s–1) is
112. Assertion: If amplitude of simple pendulum increases then (a) 8 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 10
the motion of pendulum is oscillatory but not simple 122. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple
harmonic. harmonic motion with an amplitude 7 mm, is 4.4 m/s. The
Reason: For larger amplitude is large and then sin , period of oscillation is
so the motion is no longer SHM. (a) 0.01 s (b) 10 s (c) 0.1 s (d) 100 s
123. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the
113. Assertion : When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate
on the surface of moon, its time period increases. equations y1 = 0.1 sin 100 t and y 2 = 0.1 cos t .
Reason : Moon is much smaller as compared to earth. 3
114. Assertion : The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with
decreases gradually with time respect to the velocity of particle 2 is
Reason : The frequency of the pendulum decreases with
(a) (b) (c) (d)
time 3 6 6 3
115. Assertion : Damped oscillation indicates loss of energy. 124. A body is executing S.H.M. When its displacement from the
mean position are 4 cm and 5 cm, it has velocities 10 cm s–1
Reason : The energy loss in damped oscillation may be due
and 8 cm s–1 respectively. Its periodic time is
to friction, air resistance etc.
(a) /2 s (b) s (c) 3 /2 s (d) 2 s
OSCILLATIONS 217
125. A point mass oscillates along the x-axis according to the (a b)
(c) simple harmonic with amplitude
law x = x0 cos( t - / 4) . If the acceleration of the particle 2
is written as a = A cos( t + ) , then
(d) not a simple harmonic
134. For a particle moving according to the equation
(a) A = x0 2, = 3 / 4 (b) A = x0 , = – / 4 x = a cos t, the displacement in 3 s is
(c) A = x0 2, = / 4 (d) A = x0 2, = – / 4 (a) 0 (b) 0.5a
126. Starting from the origin a body oscillates simple harmonically (c) 1.5a (d) 2a
with a period of 2 s. After what time will its kinetic energy be 135. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its
75% of the total energy? velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position are
1 1 1 1 V1 and V2, respectively. Its time period is
(a) s (b) s (c) s (d) s
6 4 3 12
x 22 – x12 V12 V22
127. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with (a) 2 (b) 2
amplitude a and frequency . The average kinetic energy V12 – V22 x12 x 22
during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the
end is V12 – V22 x12 – x 22
(c) 2 (d) 2
2 2
ma 2 2 x12 – x 22 V12 – V22
(a) 2 ma 2 2 (b)
1 136. If the differential equation for a simple harmonic motion is
(c) ma 2 2 (d) 4 2 ma 2 2
4 d 2 y2
+ 2y = 0, the time-period of the motion is
128. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with dt 2
amplitude A. When the ratio of its kinetic energy to the
1 2s
potential energy is , its displacement from its mean (a) 2s (b) s
4
position is
(c) s (d) 2 s
2 3 3 1 2
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) A 137. The total energy of the particle executing simple harmonic
5 2 4 4
motion of amplitude A is 100 J. At a distance of 0.707 A from
129. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force constant
the mean position, its kinetic energy is
800 N m–1 executes simple harmonic oscillations. If the total
(a) 25 J (b) 50 J
energy of the oscillator is 4 J, the maximum acceleration
(c) 100 J (d) 12.5 J
(in m s–2) of the mass is
138. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight
(a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 45 (d) 20
130. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a line. In first s, after starting from rest it travels a distance
spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then:
M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be (a) amplitude of motion is 3a
(b) time period of oscillations is 8
(a) T (b) T / 2
(c) amplitude of motion is 4a
(c) 2T (d) 2T (d) time period of oscillations is 6
131. A particle at the end of a spring executes S.H.M with a 139. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its
period t1 , while the corresponding period for another spring maximum acceleration is and maximum velocity is .
is t2. If the period of oscillation with the two springs in Then its time period of vibration will be :
series is T then 2
1 1 1 2 (a) (b)
(a) T t1 t2 (b) T t12 t 22
(c) T = t1 + t2 T 2 t1 2 t 2 2
(d) 2
2
(c) (d)
132. The displacement of an object attached to a spring and 2
executing simple harmonic motion is given by x = 2 × 10–2 140. When the displacement of a particle executing simple
cos t metre.The time at which the maximum speed first harmonic motion is half of its amplitude, the ratio of its
occurs is kinetic energy to potential energy is `
(a) 0.25 s (b) 0.5 s (c) 0.75 s (d) 0.125 s (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
133. When two displacements represented by y1 = asin( t) and (c) 3 : l (d) l : 2
y2 = b cos( t) are superimposed the motion is: 141. A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation
a
(a) simple harmonic with amplitude
b
(in SI units), x = 5 cos 2 t .
2 2 4
(b) simple harmonic with amplitude a b
EBD_7208
218 OSCILLATIONS
Its instantaneous displacement at t = 1 second is 150. When two springs A and B with force constants kA and kB
are stretched by the same force, then the respective ratio of
2 1
(a) m (b) m the work done on them is
5 3 (a) kB : kA (b) kA : kB
5 1 (c) kAkB : 1 (d) kB : kA
(c) m (d) m
2 2 151. Two oscillating simple pendulums with time periods T and
142. The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic 5T
motion is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in the are in phase at a given time. They are again in phase
4
time period of the pendulum of increased length is after an elapse of time
(a) 11% (b) 21% (c) 42% (d) 10% (a) 4T (b) 3T (c) 6T (d) 5T
143. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic 152. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional area
motion in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation A has time period T. When an additional mass M is added
of the bob is t0 in air. Neglecting frictional force of water to its bob, the time period changes to TM. If the Young's
and given that the density of the bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg / m3.
1
What relationship between t and t0 is true modulus of the material of the wire is Y then is equal to:
(a) t = 2t0 (b) t = t0 / 2 Y
(g = gravitational acceleration)
(c) t = t0 (d) t = 4t0
144. If a simple pendulum has significant amplitude (upto a factor 2
T
2
A
TM A
of 1/e of original) only in the period between t = 0s to t = s, (a) 1 (b) 1
T Mg TM Mg
then may be called the average life of the pendulum. when
the spherical bob of the pendulum suffers a retardation
2 2
(due to viscous drag) proportional to its velocity with b as TM A TM Mg
(c) 1 (d) 1
the constant of proportionality, the average life time of the T Mg T A
pendulum is (assuming damping the small) in seconds
153. A pendulum of time period 2 s on earth is taken to another
0.693 1 2 planet whose mass and diameter are twice that of earth.
(a) (b) b (c) (d) Then its time period on the planet is (in second)
b b b
145. Two pendulums of lengths 1.44 m and 1 m start to swing 1 1
(a) (b) 2 2 (c) (d) 2
together. The number of vibrations after which they will 2 2
again start swinging together is 154. A simple harmonic oscillator of angular frequency 2 rad s–1
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 2 is acted upon by an external force F = sin t N. If the oscillator
146. A simple pendulum has a metal bob, which is negatively is at rest in its equilibrium position at t = 0, its position at
charged. If it is allowed to oscillate above a positively later times is proportional to
charged metallic plate, then its time period will
(a) increase (b) decrease 1 1
(a) sin t cos 2t (b) cos t sin 2t
(c) become zero (d) remain the same 2 2
147. A block connected to a spring oscillates vertically. 1 1
A damping force Fd , acts on the block by the surrounding (c) sin t sin 2t (d) sin t sin 2t
2 2
medium. Given as Fd = – bV b is a positive constant which
155. A pendulum with time period of 1s is losing energy due
depends on :
to damping. At certain time its energy is 45 J. If after
(a) viscosity of the medium
completing 15 oscillations, its energy has become 15 J, its
(b) size of the block
damping constant (in s–1) is :
(c) shape of the block
(d) All of these 1 1
(a) (b) ln3
148. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to 0.9 times 2 30
its original magnitude in 5s. In another 10s it will decrease
1
to times its original magnitude, where equals (c) 2 (d) ln3
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.81 (c) 0.729 (d) 0.6 15
rd 156. A cylindrical block of wood (density = 650 kg m–3), of
1 base area 30cm2 and height 54 cm, floats in a liquid of
149. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes in 2
3 density 900 kg m–3. The block is depressed slightly and
1 then released. The time period of the resulting oscillations
seconds. If its amplitude after 6 seconds is times the
n of the block would be equal to that of a simple pendulum
original amplitude, the value of n is of length (nearly)
(a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 33 (d) 23 (a) 52 cm (b) 65 cm
(c) 39 cm (d) 26 cm
OSCILLATIONS 219
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 12. (c) e–2 t is not periodic. It decreases with increasing t
and never repeats its value.
1. (c) 13. (c) Clearly sin2 t is a periodic function as sin t is periodic
2. (a) The motion of the particle is periodic, (not oscillatory),
beacuse it returns to its starting point after a fixed time with period
3. (a) F x in SHM.
4. (b) Since T is independent of mass, so a girl sitting 14. (b)
accompanied by another girl will not affect T but if the 15. (b) The motion is S.H.M. (as seen from fig.) with an
girl stands up then due to the shift in the location of amplitude B.
centre of mass upwards, the effective length decreases Displacement
and hence T decrease (T L) . ×

5. (a) y = 10 sin (20 t + 0.5) B
t
y (t) = a sin ( t + ) A B
20
Frequency, v =
2 2
6. (c) General equation of wave motion should be 16. (d) In simple harmonic motion, frequency remains constant
represented by and else changes with time.
y = f (ax bt) or f (at bx) 17. (b) The simplest type of oscillatory motion is SHM
when y is a sine or cosine function such as In SHM
y = a sin ( t – kx) F x
or y = a cos ( t – kx) Fs = –kx
is called simple harmonic progressive wave. FS =–kx
7. (b) There is no basic difference between oscillation and
vibration. For oscillation, frequency is small and for
vibration, frequency is high. e.g., oscillation of a m
pendulum and vibration of a string of a guitar.
8. (b) x=0 x
9. (c) The motion of particle is circular or elliptic, when two Simple harmonic motion arises when the force on the
S.H.M. which are perpendicular to each other oscillating body is directly proportional to its
superimpose on the particle. The particle moves on a displacement from the mean position, which is also
(i) Ellipse if amplitudes of two S.H.M. are different the equilibrium position.
(ii) Circle, if amplitudes of two S.H.M. are same. Further, at any point in its oscillation, this force is
10. (d) As seen from figure after one time period the bob return directed towards the mean position. Displacement and
to its equilibrium position, so diplacement of the force are in opposite directions.
particle is zero, but distance covered by the particle in 18. (a) If F x, this motion is known as linear harmonic
one time period is 4A (where A is amplitude of bob, motion.
when it does S.H.M.) Here, constant proportionality is negative.
If F is proportional to higher powers of x, this motion
is known as non-linear harmonic motion.
19. (c) When a particle is dropped from a height h above the
centre of tunnel.
A A
h
11. (d) A periodic motion is a periodic function of time.
f (t) = A cos t and f (t) = A sin t (i) It will oscillate, through the earth to a height h on both
A linear combination of the two is sides.
f (t) = A sin t + A cos t (ii) The motion of particle is periodic.
are all periodic motion equation. (iii) The motion of particle will not be S.H.M.
EBD_7208
220 OSCILLATIONS
20. (d) Its motion is complex, but not periodic, oscillatory or position. Also the acceleration is in the opposite
S.H.M. direction of displacement.
21. (d) The motion of particle is S.H.M. with 31. (d)
x = A sin t + B cos t 32. (d) Total mechanical energy is constant throughout the
= a sin ( t + )
1
motion and equals m 2 A2 .
2 2 2
Where a A B , A = a cos , B = a sin ,
–1
= tan B/A. 33. (a) If displacement of particle is y, then
22. (b) Elasticity brings the particle towards mean position 1 2
and inertia needed to cross mean position. KE = m (a 2 y2 )
2
23. (d) x (t) = A cos ( t + )
1 2 2
dx & P.E. = m y
V(t) = = – A sin ( t + ) 2
dt
If KE = PE
dv
a(f )= = – 2A cos ( t + ) 1 2 2 1
m 2 2
a
1
m 2 2
y
dt m y =
2 2 2
24. (c) Displacement, y = r sin t
a
dy 2y2 = a2 y=
V= =r cos t 2
dt
34. (a) Energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion is
dV given by
a= = – 2 r sin t
dt 1
a = – 2y E m 2a2 E a2
2
a y
Therefore, the energy in simple harmonic motion
25. (c) Displacement in simple harmonic motion is given by
depends on a2.
y = a sin t .... (i)
35. (a) At any instant the total energy is
Differentiating with respect to time t
1 2 1 1
dy d kx mv 2 kA 02 = constant
(a sin t ) 2 2 2
dt dt
A0 = amplitude
v = a (cos t)
hence U is independent of x.
= a (1 sin 2 t ) 36. (a) P.E. of body in S.H.M. at an instant,
Substituting value of sin t from Eq. (i), we get 1 1 2
U m 2 y2 ky
2 2
y2 If the displacement, y = (a – x) then
v a (1
a2 1 1
U k(a x)2 k(x a) 2
2 2
a2 y2
v a 1 2
a2 37. (b) K = m ( A2 x2 )
2
v a2 y2 1 2 2
K max = m A , at x = 0.
2
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d)
29. (d) Let y = A sin t 38. (a) Eav = U av
1
m 2 2
A
4
dy
vinst A cos t A sin( t / 2) 1
dt 39. (d) E m 2a 2 E a2
2
Acceleration A 2 sin t 40. (d) The acceleration of the particle at equilibrium position
= A 2sin( + t) is zero.
41. (c)
0.5 42. (c) In S.H.M., kinetic energy of particle at any point P is
2
30. (a) a = – kX, X = x + a. 1 2
In simple harmonic motion acceleration is directly Kinetic energy m (a 2 x2)
2
proportional to the displacement from the mean
OSCILLATIONS 221
50. (a) Potential energy of a simple pendulum is given by
1 2 2
Potential energy m x
2 1
U m 2 y2
Where a is amplitude of particle and x is the distance 2
from mean position. Potential energy is maximum when the displacement
So, at mean position, x = 0 of the pendulum is maximum, i.e., at the turning
points of the oscillations.
1 2 2
K.E. m a (maximum) 51. (c)
2 52. (c) Let a simple pendulum be taken as shown. The
P.E. = 0 restoring force on the bob is
43. (c) For spring mass m system, the time period of the F = – mg sin
oscillation of mas m is defined as
S
T 2 m/k 2 y/g
where m = mass of particle
k = spring constant l T
y = extension in spring A
L = natural length of spring O
If g is changed, then y also changes so that y/g is
constant, so the time period T of spring mass is mg sin mg cos
independent from the variation in g. Hence
(frequency) will also not change. where m is mass of bob, g the acceleration due to
gravity. When angular displacement of bob is small
sin and measured in radians, then
OA x
L + y0 sin
ky SA l
mg arc
F x angle =
l radius
mg Since, m,g and l are constant.
1 1 1 1 k1 k2 F x
44. (a) k k1 k2 keq k1k2 Therefore, the motion of bob is simple harmonic.
eq
53. (c) The motion of a planet around the sun is periodic
k1k2 motion but not a simple harmonic motions.
keq
k1 k 2 54. (d) Tension is maximum at the mean position.
45. (b) In parallel combination, the effective spring constant
55. (b) pmax = 2mE max
(K) of springs
K = K1 + K2 + ...
Hence, option (b) is wrong. L
56. (a) Time period T = 2
g
L
46. (b) Time period of a simple pendulum T = 2 57. (a) The both of the pendulum will more along a straight
g
line AB.
47. (b) T = mg cos
At the mean position, = 0° and cos ° = 1
So, the value of tension is greatest.
1
m 2 r12 2 2
E1 2 r1 5 x
48. (c) =1:4 A B
E2 1 r2 10
m 2 r22
2
49. (b) Time period of a simple pendulum of length l is mg
given by Re
l
T 2 where g is acceleration due to gravity..
g
EBD_7208
222 OSCILLATIONS
The direction of the Earth's gravitational field is radial 72. (c) In SHM, acceleration of particle is always directed
towards mean position but velocity is either towards
GM e m
Now, F mg or away from mean position. Similarly displacement is
R e2 always away from the position. So they can not be in
phase always.
x GM e m 73. (c) In one vibration the particle goes twice to extreme
Fx F cos F x = –kx
Re R 3e positions and twice crosses the mean position. So
does the PE and KE.
GM e m 74. (b)
where k 3 75. (a) Displacement amplitude of an oscillator depends on
Re
the angular frequency of the driving force.
Time period of a simple harmonic oscillator, 76. (d) Examples of oscillatory motion can be found around
m m us very easily.
T 2 2 In most of the musical instruments either string or some
k GM e m / R 3e memberane oscillates to produce pleasant sound. Due
to the oscillation of air molecules sound propagates in
Re a air.
GM e Re 77. (d)
or T 2 2 78. (b) ( t + ) represents the phase of the particle in SHM.
R e2 g
represents the phase constant and is the value of
58. (a) 59. (c) phase at t = 0
l
79. (c) Fs = –K x (spring force) ... (i)
l F = – m 2x (For SHM condition) ... (ii)
60. (d) T 2
g On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii),
T
g 2 k m 2
l T T 2 T
2 m k
4
l T2 1
T m T
61. (a) k
1 2 1
62. (c) Kinetic energy, K = mv = m 2 A2 sin 2 ( t ) So, T does not depends on the amplitude of the
2 2 oscillation T depend on m, k.
1 2 2 2
Potential energy, U = m A cos ( t ) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
2
1 2 2 80. (c)
Total mech. energy = m A
2 81. (a)
63. (a) In case of sustained force oscillations the amplitude (A) For equilibrium, F = 8 – 2x = 0
of oscillations decreases linearly. or x = 4m
64. (c) A particle oscillating under a force F kx b is Equilibrium
(B) From figure, position
a damped oscillator. the first term kx represents
the restoring force and second term b represents O 4 A
6
the damping force.
65. (b)
66. (c) In forced oscillations, the body oscillates at the angular A = 2m
frequency of the driving force. (C) Time taken from x = 2 to 4
67. (b) The resonance wave becomes very sharp when T
damping force is small. or A to O is , which differes in phase by .
4 2
68. (d) 69. (b)
6
(D) Energy of SHM,E = Fdx

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 4
6
70. (b) Every simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) is necessarily 6
periodic, but a periodic motion may or may not be = (8 2 x) dx 8x x2 4
simple harmonic motion. 4
71. (b) = 4 J.
OSCILLATIONS 223
1 2 1 2 mv02 ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

82. (b) kx0 mv0 or x0
2 2 k 95. (d) Damped oscillations are non-periodic.
T 96. (b) 97. (b)
Time period, T = 2
4
2t 98. (a) A periodic function is one whose value repeats after a
definite interval of time sin and cos are periodic
2 m functions because they repeat itself after 2 interval
2 0
= 2 k v0 of time
1 2
Energy of oscillation = mv0 . O O
2
83. (c) 84. (d)
sin curve cos curve
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 99. (b) So rod remains stationary after the release.
85. (a) For x = (– A), we have 100. (c) S.H.M. is to and fro motion of an object and it is periodic.
–A = A sin( 0 0) v k2 x2
If x = 0, v has maximum value. At x = k, v has minimum
or 0 = – . velocity. Similarly, when x = – k, v has zero value, all
2
these indicate to and from movement.
So for x ( A) , 0 (– / 2) .
101. (b) x A sin t
86. (a) At point 2, the acceleration of the particle is maximum,
which is at the extreme position. At extreme position, and v A cos t A sin( t / 2)
the velocity of the particle will be zero. 102. (a) With respect to an observer, the force on the particle
y F – k[ x (v0 v0 )t ] kx , so it represents SHM.
87. (b) = sin
a 103. (d) At extreme position, a 2
A and v = 0.
y = a sin
= XOP = t – 0 104. (c) The force at the extreme position is, F m 2 A .
y = a sin ( t – 0) 105. (a) The total energy of S.H.M = Kinetic energy of particle
88. (c) + potential energy of particle
89. (a) t = 0, v maximum. The motion begins from mean The variation of total energy of the particle in SHM
position. So it represents S.H.M. with time is shown in a graph
90. (a) In x A cos t , the particle starts oscillating from Energy
Zero slope
extreme position. So at t = 0, its potential energy is A Total energy
maximum. Kinetic energy
91. (a) KE and PE completes two vibration in a time during Potential energy
which SHM completes one vibration. Thus frequency T/4 2T/4 3T/4
of PE or KE is double than that of SHM.
92. (b) When some mercury is drained off, the centre of gravity 1 2 1
106. (b) In SHM. K.E.= m (a 2 y 2 ) and P.E. = m 2 2
y .
of the bob moves down and so length of the pendulum 2 2
increases, which result increase in time period. For K.E. = P.E. 2y2 = a2 y = a / 2 . Since total
93. (d) v 2 = 2
(A – x )2 2 … (i) energy remains constant through out the motion,
2 which is E = K.E. + P.E. So, when P.E. is maximum then
and a2 = ( x )2 4 2
x … (ii)
K.E. is zero and viceversa.
From above equations, we have
107. (a) As E A2 , E ' 4 E .
2
a 2 2
A y mx c 108. (c)
v2 = 2
109. (a) The time period of a oscillating spring is given by
It represents straight line with negative slope.
m 1
1 T 2 T , Since the spring constant is
2 2 k
94. (d) K.E = k ( A d ) k
2
large for hard spring, therefore hard spring has a less
1 2 periodic time as compared to soft spring.
and P.E. = kd
2 110. (a)
At mean position d = 0. At extrement positions d = A
EBD_7208
224 OSCILLATIONS
111. (d) Both assertion and reason are wrong. At the mountain The resultant motion can be treated as a simple harmonic
1 1
. 2
top g will decrease and T . motion with amplitude 2A sin
g 2
Given, maximum distance between the particles
It will increase. Thus the pendulum clock will become
Amplitude of resultant S.H.M.
slow. So, pendulum clock loses time.
= X0 + A – X0 = A
112. (a)
2 1
2A sin A.
113. (b) At moon T 2 , so time period increases. 2
( g / 6)
114. (c) The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum decreases 2 – 1 = /3.
120. (b) Equation of S.H.M. is given by
with time because of friction due to air. Frequency of
x = A sin ( t + )
1 g ( t + ) is called phase.
pendulum is independent T 2 l of amplitude. A
When x = , then
2
115. (b) Energy of damped oscillator at an any instant t is given
by 1
sin ( t + ) =
2
bt/m
1 2
E E0 e [ where E 0
kx = maximum energy] 1
2 t A
6
Due to damping forces the amplitude of oscillator will
go on decreasing with time whose energy is expressed or 1 A
6 2 x = A/2
by above equation.
For second particle, x=0
116. (c) Damping can never be zero in reality, so amplitude can
never be infinity. 5
2
117. (c) Amplitude of oscillation for a forced damped oscillatory 6 6
F0 / m 4 2
is A , where b is constant 2 1=
2 2
6 3
( 0 ) (b / m) 2
related to the strength of the resistive force, 121. (c) Given, x = 10 sin 2t –
6
0 k / m is natural frequency of undamped A = 10 and = 2 Hz
oscillator (b = 0)
A2 – d2 2 (10)2 – (6)2
When the frequency of driving force ( ) 0 , then
–1
amplitude A is very larger. 2 100 – 36 2 8 16m s
For 0 or 0 , the amplitude decreases. 122. (a) Maximum velocity,
v max a
2
v max a
118. (d) According to equation of SHM T
x = A sin t 3
2 a 2 3.14 7 10
A T 0.01 s
Here, x and t = 1 v max 4.4
2
A dy1
A sin 1 123. (b) v1 0.1 100 cos 100 t
2 dt 3
= A sin
dy 2
1 v2 0.1 sin t 0.1 cos t
or, sin , dt 2
2 6
2 2 3
or T = 12 s Phase diff. = 1 2 = = =–
T 6 3 2 6 6
119. (a) Let x1 = A sin( t + 1) and x2 = A sin ( t + 2) 124. (b) Using v 2 2
(a 2 2
y ) we have
x2 – x1 = A[sin ( t + 2) – sin( t – 1)]
2 t 10 2 2
(a 2 4 2 ) and 8 2 2
(a 2 5 2 ) ;
1 2 2 1
= 2A cos sin so 102 – 82 = 2 (52 – 42) = (3 2) or 6 = 3 or = 2
1 2
or T = 2 / = 2 /2 = s.
OSCILLATIONS 225
125. (a) Here, 128. (a) As we know,
x = x0 cos ( t – /4 ) 1 2
Velocity, kinetic energy m (A 2 – x 2 )
2
dx
v x 0 sin t 1 2 2
dt 4 Potential energy m x
2
Acceleration,
1
a
dv
x0 2
cos t m 2 (A 2 – x 2 ) A2 – x 2 1
2 1
dt 4 2
1 4 x 4
m 2x2
2 2
x0 cos t
4
4 2
= x0 2 4A2 – 4x2 = x2 x2 A
5
3
cos t ...(1) 2
4 x A.
Acceleration, a = A cos ( t + ) ...(2) 5
Comparing the two equations, we get 129. (d) Here, m = 4 kg; k = 800 Nm–1; E = 4 J
3 1 2
A = x0 2 and In SHM, E kA
4 2
126. (a) K.E. of a body undergoing S.H.M. is given by
1
1 4 800 A 2
K.E. ma 2 2 cos 2 t 2
2
1 8 1
T.E. ma 2 2 A2 , A = 0.1 m
2 800 100
Maximum acceleration, amax = 2A
Given K.E. = 0.75 T.E.
0.75 cos 2 t t k k
6 A
m m
2 1
t t t s
6 6 2 6 1
800 Nm 2
127. (b) The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 0.1 m 20ms
4 kg
given by
1 m T1 M1
K = ma2 2 sin2 t 130. (d) T = 2 =
2 K T2 M2
where, m = mass of particle
a = amplitude M2 2M
= angular frequency T2 = T1 M1 = T 1 M
t = time
Now, average K.E. = < K > T2 = T1 2 = 2 T (where T1 =T)
1 2 a2 sin 2
=< m t> m m
2 131. (b) t1 2 , t2 2
k1 k2
1 2a2 <sin 2
= m t> k1k 2
2 when springs are in series then, k eff
kl k 2
1 1 1
= m 2a2 sin 2
2 2 2 m( k l k 2 )
T 2
1 k1k 2
2 2
m a
4
m m t 22 t 12
1 T 2 2
= ma2 (2 )2 ( 2 ) k2 k1 (2 ) 2 (2 ) 2
4
or, <K>
2
ma 2 2 T2 t12 t 22
EBD_7208
226 OSCILLATIONS
132. (b) Here, x = 2 × 10–2 cos t 136. (a) The differential equation of simple harmonic motion is
Speed is given by
d2y d2y
dx 2y 0 or –2 y ...(i)
v = –2 × 10–2 sin t dt 2 dt 2
dt
Standard equation of simple harmonic motion is
For the first time, the speed to be maximum,
sin t = 1 d2y 2
2
– y ...(ii)
or, sin t = sin dt
2 Comparing eq. (i) and (ii),
2 = 2 or =
1 2
t = 0.5 sec.
or t =
2 2 2
133. (b) The two displacements equations As we know,
T
are y1 = a sin( t)
2 2
t Time period, T 2s
and y2 = b cos( t) = b sin 2
2
yeq = y1 + y2 1 2
137. (b) In SHM, Total energy, E total m A2
2
= a sin t + b cos t = a sin t + b sin t 1
2 and, Kinetic energy, E K m 2 ( A2 – x 2 )
2
Since the frequencies for both SHMs are same, where x is the distance from the mean position.
resultant motion will be SHM. At x = 0.707A
a2 b2 1 1
Now Aeq = 2ab cos EK m 2 ( A2 – (0.707 A2 ) m 2
(0.5 A2 )
2 2 2
As per question, Etotal = 100 J
b Aeq a2 b2
1
EK 0.5m 2A2 0.5 100J 50J
2
138. (d) In simple harmonic motion, starting from rest,
a At t = 0 , x = A
x = Acos t ..... (i)
134. (d) Initially t = 0 When t = , x = A – a
x = a cos t = – a cos 0° = a When t = 2 , x = A –3a
Finally at t = 3 From equation (i)
x = a cos 3 = – 3a A – a = Acos ......(ii)
Total displacement = 2a
A – 3a = A cos2 ......(iii)
135. (a) As we know, for particle undergoing SHM,
As cos2 = 2 cos2 – 1…(iv)
V A2 – X2 From equation (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2
V12 2
(A 2 – x12 ) A 3a
2
A a
1
A A
V22 (A – 2 2
x 22 )
Substructing we get, A 3a 2 A2 2a 2 4 Aa A2
V12 V22 A A2
2
x12 2
x 22
A2 – 3aA = A2 + 2a2 – 4Aa
V12 – V22 2a2 = aA
2
x 22 – x12 A = 2a
V12 – V22 a 1
w A 2
x 22 – x12
Now, A – a = A cos
x 22 – x12
T 2 A a
V12 – V22 cos
A
OSCILLATIONS 227
Bob in air
1 2
cos or
2 T 3
T= 6 1000 Vg
139. (c) As, we know, in SHM
Maximum acceleration of the particle, = A 2
4
Maximum velocity, = A 1000 Vg
3
Bob in water
2 4 1000
2 2 Net force 1 1000 Vg Vg
T= 3 3
T
A 1000Vg g 4
140. (c) Given, x = g eff Mass 1000 V
4 4 3
2 3 1000V
3
from x = A sin t
t = 30°
t 2
KE 2 2 g/4
And, cot t 3
PE
t 2t 0
=3
144. (d) For damped harmonic motion,
141. (c) Given t = 1s
ma = – kx – mbv
or ma + mbv + kx = 0
x = 5 cos 2
4 Solution to above equation is
bt
5 2
k b2 2=
= 5 cos m x A0 e sin t; with
4 2 m 4
where amplitude drops exponentially with time
5
i.e., displacement at t = 1s is m b
2 i.e., A A0 e 2
Average time is that duration when amplitude drops

142. (d) T 2 by 63%, i.e., becomes A0/e.
g
b
A0 2
1 Thus, A =A0e
log T log( 2 ) log e
2 g
b 2
or 1 or =
1 1 2 b
log T log(2 ) log( ) log(g)
2 2
145. (c) (n 1)TS nTL
T 1
Differentiating, 0 0 (n 1) 1 n 1.44
T 2
1
T 1 (n 1) 1.2n n 5
100 100 0.2
T 2
146. (b)
1
21 10.5 10% 147. (d) F = – bV, b depends on all the three i.e, shape and size
=
2 of he block and viscosity of the medium.
Note: In this method, the % error obtained is an bt
approximate value on the higher side. Exact value is 2m
148. (c) A A0 e (where, A0 = maximum amplitude)
less than the obtained one.
According to the questions, after 5 seconds,
143. (a) t 2 t0 2 b(5)
g eff ; g 2m … (i)
0.9A 0 A 0e
EBD_7208
228 OSCILLATIONS
After 10 more seconds, 2
b(15)
1 TM A
1
A A0 e 2m …(ii) y T Mg
From equations (i) and (ii) 153. (b) The time period of pendulam is given by
A = 0.729A0
l
= 0.729 T 2
149. (b) Amplitude of a damped oscillator at any instant t is g
given by Acceleration due to gravity of earth is
A = A0e–bt/2m
GM
where A0 is the original amplitude ge
From question, R e2
A0 Value of 'g' on planet is
When t = 2 s, A =
3 GM p G.2M ge
gp
A0 R 2p 4R 2 2
= A0e–2b/2m
3
l .2
1 Tp 2 2T
or, = e–b/m … (i) ge
3
A0 i.e. Tp 2 2
When t = 6 s, A =
n 154. (c) As we know,
F = ma a F
A0
= A0e–6b/2m or, a sin t
n
dv
1 sin t
or, = e–3b/m = (e–b/m)3 dt
n
0 t
3
1 1 dV sin t dt
or, = (Using eq. (i))
n 3 0 0
n = 33 V – cos t + 1
150. (a) Force on a spring F = k.x x t
1 2 F .x F F F2 dx ( cos t 1) dt
W= kx = . 0 0
2 2 2 k 2k
W1 k2 kB 1
x = sin t – sin 2t
Now, W2 = k1 kA 2
bt
5T –
151. (d) (n + 1)T = n 155. (d) As we know, E E0 e m
4
n =4 b15
–
Time t = (n + 1) T = 5T 15 45e m
[As no. of oscillations = 15 so t = 15sec]
152. (c) As we know, time period, T 2 b15
g 1 –
e m
When additional mass M is added then 3
Taking log on both sides
TM 2 b 1
g n3
m 15
TM
2 156. (c) h = Length of block immerged in water
TM or mg = FB
T T
Al g = B Ahg
TM
2
Mg Mg 650 × A × 54 × 10–2g = 900 × A × hg
or, 1 h = 0.39 m = 39 cm.
T Ay Ay
15
WAVES
(c) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal

(d) Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
1. Water waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are 10. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a
(a) only longitudinal material medium, the quantities transmitted in the
(b) only transverse propagation direction are
(c) both longitudinal and transverse (a) energy, momentum and mass
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse (b) energy
2. For which of the following do the longitudinal waves (c) energy and mass
exist? (d) energy and linear momentum
(a) Vacuum (b) Air 11. When a sound wave goes from one medium to another,
(c) Water (d) Both (b) and (c) the quantity that remains unchanged is
3. Which of the following is a transverse wave ? (a) frequency (b) amplitude
(a) Wave produced in a cylinder containing a liquid by (c) wavelength (d) speed
moving its position back and forth. 12. Speed of a progressive wave is given by
(b) Ultrasonic wave in air produced by a vibrating quartz (a) v = n (b) v = n/
crystal. (c) v = /n (d) T/
(c) Both (a) and (b) 13. Sound travels in rocks in the form of
(d) None of these (a) longitudinal elastic waves only
4. There is no transmission of energy in (b) transverse elastic waves only
(a) electromagnetic waves (c) both longitudinal and transverse elastic waves
(b) transverse progressive waves (d) non-elastic waves
(c) longitudinal progressive waves 14. Sound waves are not transmitted to long distances because,
(d) stationary waves (a) they are absorbed by the atmosphere
5. What type of vibrations are produced in a sitar wire ? (b) they have constant frequency
(a) Progressive transverse (c) the height of antenna required, should be very high
(b) Progressive longitudinal (d) velocity of sound waves is very less
(c) Stationary transverse 15. For a sinusoidal wave represented by y (x, t) = a sin
(d) Stationary longitudinal (kx – t + ), for a given a, the factor determines the
6. The waves associated with the moving particles are called displacement of the wave of any position and at any
(a) mechanical waves (b) ultrasonic waves instant is
(c) matter waves (d) shock waves (a) constant k (b) angular velocity
7. The property of a medium necessary for wave propagation is (c) time interval t (d) phase (kx – t +
(a) inertia (b) elasticity 16. Speed of mechanical wave is determined by
(c) low resistance (d) All of the above (a) inertial properties of the medium
8. Which of the following phenomenon cannot be observed (b) elastic properties of the medium
for sound waves? (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Refraction (b) interference (d) None of these
(c) diffraction (d) polarisation 17. Speed of sound is maximum in
9. Which one of the following statements is true? (a) solids
(a) Both light and sound waves in air are transverse (b) liquids
(b) The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light (c) gases
waves are transverse (d) depends on the temperature of the medium
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230 WAVES
18. Where will a person hear the maximum sound ? 27. In the experiment to determine the speed of sound using a
(a) At nodes resonance column,
(b) At antinodes (a) prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a vertical plane
(c) At harmonics (b) prongs of the tuning fork are kept in a horizontal plane
(d) Same at nodes and antinodes (c) in one of the two resonances observed, the length of
19. Which of the following is true about the velocity of the resonating air column is close to the wavelength
sound V in a gaseous medium ? of sound in air
(d) in one of the two resonances observed, the length of
1
(a) V density of gas (b) V the resonating air column is close to half of the
density of gas
wavelength of sound in air
1 28. The relation between velocity of sound in a gas (v) and
(c) V density of gas (d) V r.m.s. velocity of molecules of gas (vr.m.s.) is
density of gas
(a) v v r.m.s. ( / 3)1 / 2 (b) v r.m.s. v( 2 / 3)1 / 2
20. For which of the following waves, the speed depends on
temperature ? (c) v v r.m.s. (d) v v r.m.s. (3 / )1 / 2
(a) Light (b) Sound
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 29. What is the effect of humidity on sound waves when
21. The velocity of sound in a gas humidity increases?
(a) increases by 0.61 m/s when the temperature rises by (a) Speed of sound waves is more
1° C (b) Speed of sound waves is less
(b) decreases by 0.61 m/s when the temperature rises by (c) Speed of sound waves remains same
1° C (d) Speed of sound waves becomes zero
(c) depends upon the pressure of the gas 30. The bulk modulus of a liquid of density 8000 kg m–3 is
(d) depends upon the coefficient of the shearing of the 2 × 109 N m–2. The speed of sound in that liquid is (in m s–1)
gas (a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 100 (d) 500
22. Ultrasonic, infrasonic and audible waves travel through a 31. A wave travelling on a string is described by
medium with speeds vu, vi, va respectively, then y (x, t) = 0.005 sin (80.0x – 3.0t)
(a) vu, vi, va are nearly equal The period of the wave is
(b) vu > va > vi (a) 3.00 s (b) 2.09 s
(c) vu < va < vi (c) 0.48 s (d) 0.05 s
(d) va, < vu and vu vi 32. The frequency of fundamental note is given by
23. The differential equation of a wave is
1 T 1 2T
(a) v (b) v
(a) d 2 y / dt 2 v 2 d 2 y / dx 2 L m L m
(b) d 2 y / dx 2 v 2 d 2 y / dt 2 1 T T
(c) v (d) v 2L
1 2 2L m m
(c) d 2 y / dx 2 d y / dt 2
v 33. The SI unit of propagation constant k is
(a) rad m–1 (b) m rad–1
(d) d 2 y / dx 2 v d 2 y / dt 2 (c) rad m (d) unitless
24. Sound waves are travelling in a medium whose adiabatic 34. The intensity of harmonic wave
elasticity is E and isothermal elasticity E'. The velocity of (a) depends upon its frequency and not on its amplitude
sound waves is proportional to (b) depends upon its amplitude and not on its frequency
(a) E' (b) E (c) depends upon both, its frequency and not on
amplitude
E (d) depends neither on frequency nor on its amplitude
(c) E' (d)
E' 35. Standing waves in a string are due to
25. The speed of sound in a perfectly rigid rod is (a) beats (b) reflection of waves
(a) infinite (b) zero (c) interference of waves (d) Doppler's effect
(c) 332 m/s (d) 3 × 108 m/s 36. Of the following, the equation of plane progressive wave is
26. The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound is (a) y = r sin t (b) y = r sin ( t – kx)
called
a a
(a) Mach number (b) Doppler ratio (c) y sin ( t kx) (d) y sin ( t kr)
(c) sonic index (d) refractive index r r
WAVES 231
37. In ordinary talk, the amplitude of vibration is approximately
2
(a) 10–12 m (b) 10–11 m 47. The equation y a sin (vt x ) is expression for
(c) 10 m–8 (d) 10–7 m
38. Phon is unit of (a) stationary wave of single frequency along x-axis
(a) wavelength (b) loudness (b) a simple harmonic motion
(c) frequency (d) intensity (c) a progressive wave of single frequency along x-axis
39. The equation of plane progressive wave motion is (d) the resultant of two SHMs of slightly different
frequencies
y a sin vt x . Velocity of the particle is 48. Consider the three waves z 1, z2 and z3 as
z1 = A sin (kx – t)
dv dy dv dy z2 = A sin (kx + t)
(a) y (b) v (c) y (d) v z3 = A sin (ky – t)
dx dx dx dx
Which of the following represents a standing wave?
40. The rate of transfer of energy in a wave depends
(a) z1 + z2 (b) z2 + z3
(a) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and
(c) z3 + z1 (d) z1 + z2 + z3
square of the wave frequency
49. Shock waves are produced by objects
(b) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and root
(a) carrying electric charge and vibrating
of the wave frequency
(b) vibrating with frequency greater than 20000 Hz
(c) directly on the wave amplitude and square of the wave
(c) vibrating with very large amplitude
frequency
(d) moving with a speed greater than that of sound in the
(d) None of these
medium
41. Two waves are said to be coherent, if they have
50. A travelling wave reflected at an open boundary undergoes
(a) same phase but different amplitude
a phase change of
(b) same frequency but different amplitude
(a) (b) 0
(c) same frequency, phase & amplitude
(d) different frequency, phase and amplitude (c) (d)
42. If the intensities of two interfering waves be I1 and I2, the 2 3
contrast between maximum and minimum intensity is 51. Which of the following changes at an antinode in a
maximum, when stationary wave?
(a) I1 > > I2 (b) I1 << I2 (a) Density only
(c) I1 = I2 (d) either I1 or I2 is zero (b) Pressure only
43. When a wave is reflected from a denser medium, the change (c) Both pressure and density
in phase is (d) Neither pressure nor density
(a) 0 (b) 52. The notes of frequencies which are integral multiple of
(c) 2 (d) 3 the fundamental frequencies are called
44. On reflection of a wave from a rarer medium, change in (a) beats (b) harmonics
phase is (c) antinodes (d) tones
(a) zero (b) /2 53. Beats is a phenomenon which arises from ......... of waves
(c) (d) 3 /4 (a) reflection (b) diffraction
45. A progressive wave y = A sin(kx – t) is reflected by a rigid (c) superposition (d) interference
wall at x = 0. Then the reflected wave can be represented by 54. The essential condition for the formation of beats is
(a) y = A sin(kx + t) (b) y = A cos(kx + t) (a) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
(c) y = –A sin(kx – t) (d) y = –A sin(kx + t) 10
46. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fork (b) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
(a) increases < 10
(b) decreases (c) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
(c) remains same > 10
(d) increases or decreases depending on the material (d) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
10
EBD_7208
232 WAVES
55. Possible wavelength of stationary waves are constrained 65. When two sound waves are superimposed, beats are
by the relation produced when they have different
L 2L (a) amplitudes and phases
(A) (B)
n n (b) velocities
(c) phases
L L
(C) (D) (d) frequencies
2n 3n
66. Two sound waves of slightly different frequencies
56. The pipe open at both ends will produce
propagating in the same direction produce beats due to
(a) all the harmonics
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction
(b) all the odd harmonics
(c) Polarization (d) Refraction
(c) all the even harmonics
(d) None of the harmonics 67. For which of the following cases, there will be no Doppler
57. Reverberation time does not depend upon effect ?
(a) temperature (b) volume of room (a) If source and listener, both move in the same
(c) size of window (d) carpet and curtain direction with same speed.
58. The reason for introducing Laplace correction in the (b) If one of the source/listener is at the centre of a
expression for the velocity of sound in a gaseous medium circle, while the other is moving on it.
is (c) When both the source and listener are at rest.
(a) no change in the temperature of the medium during (d) All of these
the propagation of the sound through it 68. Doppler's effect in sound takes place when source and
(b) no change in the heat of the medium during the observer are
propagation of the sound through it
(a) stationary
(c) change in the pressure of the gas due to the
(b) moving with same velocity
compression and rarefaction
(c) in relative motion
(d) change in the volume of the gas
59. On account of damping, the frequency of a vibrating body (d) None of these
(a) remains unaffected (b) increases 69. Doppler’s effect is not applicable for
(c) decreases (d) changes erratically (a) audio waves (b) electromagnetic waves
60. Frequencies of sound produced from an organ pipe open (c) shock waves (d) None of these
at both ends are 70. A train moving at a speed vs towards a stationary observer
(a) only fundamental note on a platform emits sound of frequency f and velocity v.
(b) only even harmonics Then the apparent frequency heard by him is
(c) only odd harmonics
(d) even and odd harmonics v vs
(a) f 1 (b) f 1–
61. The tenth harmonic is set up in a pipe. The pipe is vs v
(a) open pipe (b) close pipe
(c) any of them (d) none v
vs
62. Beats are the result of (c) f 1 (d) f 1–
v vs
(a) diffraction
(b) destructive interference 71. Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon
(c) constructive and destructive interference (a) frequency of the wave produced
(d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal (b) velocity of the source
frequency
(c) velocity of the observer
63. Maximum number of beats frequency heard by a human
(d) distance from the source to the listener
being is
72. Doppler effect is applicable for
(a) 10 (b) 4
(c) 20 (d) 6 (a) moving bodies
64. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support (b) one is moving and other is stationary
the third overtone. It is found that air in the pipe has (c) for relative motion
(a) three nodes and three antinodes (d) None of these
(b) three nodes and four antinodes 73. Doppler phenomena is related with
(c) four nodes and three antinodes (a) Pitch (Frequency) (b) Loudness
(d) four nodes and four antinodes (c) Quality (d) Reflection
WAVES 233
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (a) I and III (b) II and III

(c) I, and II (d) I, II and III
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct about 79. Choose the false statement(s) about speed of transverse
waves ? waves on a stretched string.
I. Waves are patterns of disturbance which move without I. It depends on linear mass density of the string
the actual physical transfer of flow of matter as a whole. II. It depends on the tension in the string
II. Waves cannot transport energy. III. It depends on the frequency of the wave
III. The pattern of disturbance in the form of waves carry (a) I only (b) II only
information that propagate from one point to another. (c) III only (d) I, II and III
IV. All our communications essentially depend on 80. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the
transmission of signals through waves. standing wave?
(a) I and III (b) Only IV I. In a standing wave the disturbance produce is confined
(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV to the region where it is produced.
75. A pebble is dropped in a pond of a still in water disturb the II. In a standing wave, all the particles cross their mean
water surface. position together.
Which of the given statements are correct for the above III. In a standing wave, energy is transmitted from one
situation ? region of space to other.
I. The disturbance produced does not remain confined (a) I and II (b) Only II
to one place but propagates outward along a circle. (c) Only III (d) I, II and III
II. If a cork piece is put on the disturbed surface, it moves 81. Which of the following statements related to organ pipe is/
along with the disturbance in the same direction. are correct ?
III. The water mass does not flow outward with the circles I. In a closed organ pipe closed at one end longitudinal
formed but rather a moving disturbance is created. standing waves are present.
(a) I and III (b) II and III II. In a closed organ pipe only odd harmonics are present.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III III. The harmonics which are present in a pipe, open at
76. Consider the following statements and select the correct both ends are odd harmonics only.
option. (a) Only I (b) II and III
I. Mechanical wave can travel without a medium (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
II. When a wave motion passes through a medium 82. Choose the false statement(s) from the following.
particle of medium only vibrate simple harmonically I. Change in frequency due to Doppler effect will be
about their mean position positive if the distance between source and listener
III. There is no phase difference amongst successive increases.
particles of the medium. II. Change in frequency due to Doppler effect will be
(a) I only (b) II only negative if the distance between source and listener
(c) I and III (d) II and III (a) I only (b) II only
77. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect (c) I and II (d) None of these
statement(s) from the following.
I. Mechanical waves transfer energy and matter both MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
from one point to another.
II. Mechanical waves transfer only energy from one 83. Match the Columns I and II.
point to another. Column I Column II
III. Mechanical waves transfer only matter from one (A) A region of low pressure (1) Particles oscillate
point to another. and low density at right angle
(a) I only (b) II only (B) A region of high pressure (2) Particles oscillate
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III and high density in the same direction
78. Which of the following statements are correct ? (C) Longitudinal wave (3) Compression
I. A steel bar possesses both bulk and shear elastic
(D) Transverse wave (4) Rarefaction
moduli.
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
II. A steel bar propagate both longitudinal as well as
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
transverse waves having different speeds.
III. Air can propagate both longitudinal and transverse (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
wave. (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
EBD_7208
234 WAVES
84. Column I Column II (a) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(A) Mechanical waves (1) Disturbance for short (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (1)
time
(B) Pulse (2) Independent of (c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
amplitude of vibrations (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(C) Velocity of sound in air (3) SONAR
(D) Tracking of fish in ocean (4) Require a material 89. Source has frequency f. Source and observer both have
medium same speed. For the apparent frequency observed by
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) observer match the following.
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
Column-I Column-II
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2) (A) Observer is approaching (1) More than f
85. Column I Column II the source but source is
(A) y = 4 sin (5x – 4t) + (1) Particles at receding from the observer
3 cos (4t – 5x + /6) every position (B) Observer and source both (2) Less than f
are performing approaching towards
SHM each other
x x
(B) y 10 cos t sin (100) t (2) Equation of (C) Observer and source both (3) Equal to f
330 330
receding from each other
travelling wave
(D) Source is approaching but (4) Infinite
(C) y = 10 sin (2 x – 120t) (3) Equation of
+ 10 cos (120t + 2 x) standing wave observer is receding
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(D) y = 10 sin (2 x – 120t) (4) Equation of
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
+ 8 cos (118t – 59/30 x) Beats
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(d) (A) (1,2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1,3) ; (D) (4) DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
(A) Sound (1) Frequency 90. The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which
(B) SONAR (2) Mechanical wave points are in same phase ?
(C) Reflection of sound (3) Finding depth of the sea
(D) Pitch (4) Echo E
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) H
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
A
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) D
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (1) B
F G
87. Column I Column II C
(A) Pitch (1) Waveform
(B) Quality (2) Frequency (a) F and G (b) C and E
(C) Loudness (3) Intensity (c) B and G (d) B and F
(D) Nodes (4) Position of zero 91. If the source is moving towards right, wave front of sound
amplitude
waves get modified to
(a) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
88. Column I Column II (a) (b)
(A) Change in apparent (1) Beats
frequency due to the
relative motion between
source and listner
(B) Intensity of sound (2) Transverse Wave
varies with (c) (d) None of these
(C) Sound waves in air (3) Doppler’s effect
(D) Light waves (4) Longitudinal wave
WAVES 235
92. For the graph given, the resultant wave will be 95. The wave curves shown below represent:
(a) Progressive wave formed from superposition of two

harmonic waves travelling in same directions.
(b) Progressive waves formed from superposition of
two harmonic waves travelling in opposite directions.
(c) Stationary wave formed from superposition of two
(a) (b) harmonic waves travelling in same directions.
(d) Stationary wave formed from superposition of two
harmonic waves travelling in opposite directions
96. The fifth harmonic for vibrations of a stretched string is
shown in figure. How many nodes are present here?
(c) (d)
(a) 4 (b) 6
93. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres are initially (c) 5 (d) 10
8 cm apart are moving towards each other as shown in the 97. What will be the frequency of beats formed from the
figure. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 s, the total superposition of two harmonic waves shown below?
y
energy of the pulses will be
1.0
0
t(s)
8 cm
–1.0 (a)
y
(a) Zero
(b) Purely kinetic 1.0
(c) Purely potential 0
t(s)
(d) Partly kinetic and partly potential –1.0
94. For the graph given below for superposition of two (b)
waves, which of the following holds true ? (a) 20 Hz (b) 11 Hz
(c) 9 Hz (d) 2 Hz
y 98. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz
and an observor O are located at some distance from each
other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms-1 at an
angle of 60° with the source observer line as shown in the
figure. The observor is at rest. The apparent frequency
x observed by the observer is (velocity of sound in air
330 ms–1)
(a) Phase difference, =0
(b) Phase difference, = 60°

2
S O
(c) Phase difference, =
(d) Phase difference, =2 (a) 103 Hz (b) 106 Hz
(c) 97 Hz (d) 100 Hz
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236 WAVES
99. A man is standing on a railway platform listening to the string but strings have elasticity of shape, so waves on
whistle of an engine that passes the man at constant speed string are transverse.
without stopping. If the engine passes the man at time t0. 105. Assertion : The change in air pressure affect the speed of
How does the frequency f of the whistle as heard by the sound.
man changes with time ? Reason : The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the
square root of pressure.
f f 106. Assertion : Two waves moving in a uniform string having
uniform tension cannot have different velocities.
(a) (b)
Reason : Elastic and inertial properties of string are same
t0 t t0 for all waves in same string. Moreover speed of wave in a
t
string depends on its elastic and inertial properties only.
107. Assertion : A transverse waves are produced in a very long
f f string fixed at one end. Only progressive wave is observed
near the free end.
(c) (d) Reason : Energy of reflected wave does not reach the free
end.
t0 t t0 t 108. Assertion: Explosions on other planets are not heard on
Earth.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS Reason: Sound waves cannot travel to a far off distance
109. Assertion: Two astronauts can talk to each other on
moon through microphone.
Reason: Microphone can convert their sound signals
into transverse waves which can travel even in vacuum.
110. Assertion : The base of Laplace correction was that
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct exchange of heat between the region of compression and
rarefaction in air is negligible.
Reason : Air is bad conductor of heat and velocity of sound
in air is quite large.
111. Assertion : Two longitudinal waves given by equations –
yl (x, t) = 2a sin( t – kx) and y2 (x, t) = a sin(2 t – 2kx) will
100. Assertion : Compression and rarefaction involve changes have equal intensity.
in density and pressure. Reason : Intensity of waves of given frequency in same
Reason : When particles are compressed, density of medium medium is proportional to square of amplitude only.
increases and when they are rarefied, density of medium 112. Assertion : Principle of superposition can be used for any
decreases. physical quantity.
101. Assertion : Solids can support both longitudinal and
Reason : Principle of superposition can be used only when
transverse waves but only longitudinal waves can amplitude of quantity is small.
propagate in gases.
113. Assertion : It is not possible to have interference between
Reason : For the propagation of transverse waves, medium the waves produced by two independent sources of same
must also necessarily have the property of rigidity. frequency.
102. Assertion : Sound wave is an example of longitudinal Reason : For interference of two waves the phase difference
wave. between the waves remain constant.
Reason : In longitudinal waves, the constituents of the 114. Assertion : On reflection from a rigid boundary there takes
medium oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave place a complete reversal of phase.
propagation. Reason: On reflection from a denser medium, both the
103. Assertion : Particle velocity and wave velocity both are particle velocity and wave velocity are reversed in sign.
independent of time. 115. Assertion : Velocity of particles, while crossing mean
Reason : For the propagation of wave motion, the medium position in case of stationary waves varies from maximum
must have the properties of elasticity and inertia. at antinodes to zero at nodes.
104. Assertion : Waves on strings are always transverse. Reason : Amplitude of vibration at antinodes is maximum
Reason : It is because a string is non stretchable so and at nodes, the amplitude is zero, and all particles between
compressions and rarefaction cannot be produced in two successive nodes cross the mean position together.
WAVES 237
116. Assertion : To hear distinct beats, difference in frequencies (a) y = sin (2 x – 2 t) (b) y = sin (10 x – 20 t)
of two sources should not be greater than 10. (c) y = sin (2 x + 2 t) (d) y = sin (x – 2t)
Reason : Persistance of human ear is 10 per second. 127. The pressure variations in the propagation of sound
117. Assertion : In the case of a stationary wave, a person hear waves in gaseous medium are
a loud sound at the nodes as compared to the antinodes. (a) adiabatic (b) isothermal
Reason : In a stationary wave all the particles of the medium (c) isobaric (d) isochoric
vibrate in phase. 128. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be
118. Assertion : Sound produced by an open organ pipe is richer
6
than the sound produced by a closed organ pipe. expressed as, y 10 sin 100t 20 x m where t is
4
Reason : Outside air can enter the pipe from both ends, in
case of open organ pipe. in second and x in meter. The speed of the wave is
119. Assertion : The fundemental frequency of an open organ (a) 20 m/s (b) 5 m/s
pipe increases as the temperature is increased. (c) 2000 m/s (d) 5 m/s
Reason : As the temperature increses, the velocity of sound 129. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular
increases more rapidly than length of the pipe. sound wave in air, a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent
120. Assertion: Stringed instruments are provided with hollow to phase difference of 1.6 . The frequency of this wave is
boxes. (a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz
Reason: It increases the surface area of vibration which (c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz
in turn increases the loudness of the sound. 130. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density
121. Assertion : Speed of mechanical wave in the medium
0.04 kg m–1 is given by
depends on the velocity of source, relative to an observer
at rest. t x
y 0.02(m)sin 2 –
Reason : Speed of mechanical wave is independent of the 0.04( s) 0.50(m)
elastic and other properties such as mass density of the The tension in the string is
medium. (a) 4.0 N (b) 12.5 N
122. Assertion : Doppler formula for sound wave is symmetric (c) 0.5 N (d) 6.25 N
with respect to the speed of source and speed of observer. 131. A sinusoidal travelling wave described by the equation
Reason : Motion of source with respect to stationary y (x, t) = a sin (kx – t + ). The value of displacement
observer is not equivalent to the motion of an observer will
with respect to stationary source. (a) vary 0 to a (b) vary 0 to – a
(c) vary – a to a (d) None of these
132. The equation of a resultant wave obtained after
123. Two waves are represen ted by the equations superposition of two waves is given by y (x, t) = 2a sin
y1 = a sin ( t + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos ( t + kx) m, where kx cos t. The position of nodes will be given by
x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between (a) sin kx = – 1 (b) sin kx = 0
them is
(a) 1.0 radian (b) 1.25 radian n
(c) sin kx = 1 (d) sin kx =
(c) 1.57 radian (d) 0.57 radian 2
124. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin ( t – kx). For 133. A string is stretched between two fixed points separated by
what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to
75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of 420
the maximum particle velocity?
Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies
A between these two. The lowest resonant frequency for this
(a) (b) A
2 string is :
(c) 2 A (d) A (a) 205 Hz (b) 10.5 Hz
125. A balloon is filled with hydrogen. For sound waves, this (c) 105 Hz (d) 155 Hz
balloon behaves like 134. Which of the following represents the equation of a
(a) a converging lens (b) a diverging lens spherical progressive wave ?
(c) a concave mirror (d) Nothing can be said
126. A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement (a) y a sin t (b) y a sin ( t kr )
along y-direction as 1m, wavelength 2 m and frequency
a a
1 (c) y sin ( t kr ) (d) y sin ( t kr )
Hz is represented by 2 r
EBD_7208
238 WAVES
135. Two sound waves travel in the same direction in a medium. 143. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length
The amplitude of each wave is A and the phase difference 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe
between the two waves is 120°. The resultant amplitude will open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at
both the ends is
be
(a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm
(a) 2A (b) 2A (c) 140 cm (d) 80 cm
(c) 3A (d) A 144. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T
136. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and vibrates in have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional
fundamental mode with a tuning fork of frequency 416 Hz. increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to
The length of the wire between the bridges is now doubled. occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate
In order to maintain fundamental mode, the load should be together would be
changed to (a) 0.02 (b) 0.03
(a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01
(c) 4 kg (d) 16 kg 145. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves
137. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. given by Y1 = 4 sin 500 t and Y2 = 2 sin 506 t. Number of
The tension in it produces an elastic strain of 1%. What beats produced per minute is
is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and (a) 360 (b) 180
elasticity of steel are 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (c) 60 (d) 3
respectively ? 146. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second
(a) 188.5 Hz (b) 178.2 Hz with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency
(c) 200.5 Hz (d) 770 Hz decreases to 2 beats per sec when the tension in the piano
138. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano
segments into which a string is divided, then the original string before increasing the tension was
fundamental frequency n of the string is given by (a) 510 Hz (b) 514 Hz
1 1 1 1 (c) 516 Hz (d) 508 Hz
(a) 147. The velocity of a moving galaxy is 300 km s–1 and the
n n1 n2 n3
apparent change in wavelength of a spectral line emitted
1 1 1 1 from the galaxy is observed as 0.5 nm. Then, the actual
(b) wavelength of the spectral line is
n n1 n2 n3
(a) 3000 Å (b) 5000 Å
(c) n n1 n2 n3 (c) 6000 Å (d) 4500 Å
148. Two sources of sound placed close to each other are
(d) n = n1 + n2 + n3
emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4 sin 600 t and
139. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental
y2 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources
frequency, f, in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so
of sound will hear
that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the
(a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between
air-column is now
f waxing and waning.
(a) f (b) (b) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between
2
3f waxing and waning
(c) (d) 2 f (c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between
4
140. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, waxing and waning
otherwise they are identical. The ratio of fundamental (d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between
frequency of tube A and B is waxing and waning
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4 149. Length of a sonometer wire between two fixed ends is 110
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 cm. If the fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of
141. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first 1 : 2 : 3, then what is the ratio of lengths of these
overtone and another pipe P2 open at both ends vibrating segments of the wire ?
in third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. (a) 3 : 2 : 1 (b) 6 : 3 : 2
The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is (c) 6 : 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 : 6
(a) 8/3 (b) 3/8 150. A source of sound is moving with a uniform speed along a
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/3 circle. The frequency of sound as heard by listener stationed
142. The number of possible natural oscillation of air column in at the centre of the path
a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies (a) increases
lie below 1250 Hz are : (velocity of sound = 340 ms– 1) (b) decreases
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) remains the same
(c) 7 (d) 6 (d) may increase and decrease alternately
WAVES 239
151. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then (a) v /2 (b) v / 2
which of the following statements is not true ? (c) v /3 (d) v /4
(a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be 155. A speeding motorcyclist sees trafic jam ahead of him. He
generated slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased
(b) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at
generated a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speeds of sound is 343 m/s,
(c) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be
(d) Antinode will be at open end (a) 1332 Hz (b) 1372 Hz
152. If wind blows from a stationary sounding object to a (c) 1412 Hz (d) 1464 Hz
stationary listener, then the apparent frequency n' and actual 156. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a stationary
frequency n are related as object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the
(a) n n (b) n' < n sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train
(c) n' = n (d) n' > n as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the
153. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when driver of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)
sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The (a) 3500 Hz (b) 4000 Hz
second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives (c) 5000 Hz (d) 3000 Hz
five beats per second, when sounded with a source of 157. A whistle producing sound waves of frequencies 9500 HZ
frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is and above is approaching a stationary person with speed
(a) 246 Hz (b) 240 Hz vms–1. The velocity of sound in air is 300 ms–1. If the
(c) 260 Hz (d) 254 Hz person can hear frequencies upto a maximum of 10,000 HZ,
154. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driver sounds the maximum value of v upto which he can hear whistle is
a horn of frequency f. The reflected sound heard by the 15 1
driver has as frequency 2f. If v be the velocity of sound, (a) 15 2 ms 1 (b) ms
2
then the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units, will
be (c) 15 ms 1 (d) 30 ms 1
EBD_7208
240 WAVES
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS When temperature is increased by 1° C, then

vt – v0 = 0.61 m/s
1. (c) Water waves are both longitudinal and transverse. Therefore, velocity of sound in a gas increases by
2. (d) Longitudinal waves like sound require material 0.61 m/s when the temperature rises by 1°C.
medium. 22. (b) Speed of wave is given by
3. (d) Both are longitudinal waves not transverse waves. v n
4. (d) In a stationary wave, the wave only expand and
shrink at their position without any forward or v
Frequency of wave n
backward motion. Therefore, there is no transmission
of energy in stationary waves. Therefore, the frequency of wave varies directly
5. (c) When vibrations are produced in a sitar wire the with speed of wave.
superposition takes place between incident and Frequencies, nu > na > ni
reflected wave from the rigid ends and a new wave Therefore speeds of waves
is produced which appears stationary in the medium. vu > va > vi
This wave is called stationary wave and its nature 23. (a) The correct form of differential eqn. of a wave is
is transverse.
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) d2 y d2y
v2
9. (b) Sound waves in air are longitudinal while light waves dt 2 dx 2
are transverse. Sound waves require material medium
to propagate but transverse waves do not require any P E
material medium. 24. (b) v
10. (b) With the propagation of a longitudinal wave, energy
alone is propagated. 25. (a) For a perfectly rigid rod,
11. (a) Frequency of wave is a function of the source of waves.
v / infinite
Therefore, it remains unchanged.
speed of body
12. (a) speed, v = n = 26. (a) mach number
T speed of sound
13. (c) Sound can travel longitudinally as well as transversly 27. (a) As shown in the figure, the prongs of the tuning fork
in solids. are kept in a vertical plane.
14. (a) Because they are absorbed by the atmosphere.
15. (d) 16. (c)
17. (a) Speed of sound in decreasing order: Solids > liquid
> gases
18. (a) Perception of sound is due to pressure variations
which is maximum at nodes.
p
19. (d) Velocity of sound in gas Vg =
where is density of the gas. 28. (a) Velocity of sound in a gas is

20. (b) Sound waves are mechanical waves whose velocity
v P/ and from P 1 2
v= RT / M v r.m.s.
3
Light are non-mechanical or electromagnetic for
v
1 v r.m.s. 3P /
which speed c = = 3 × 108 m/s vr.m.s. 3
0 0
21. (a) Velocity of sound at t°C is given by RT
vt = v0 + 0.61t 29. (a) Velocity of sound =
M
where v0 is the velocity of sound at 0°C. When water vapour are present in air, average molecular
vt – v0 = 0.61t weight of air decreases and hence velocity increases.
WAVES 241
30. (d) The speed of sound in liquid, 47. (c) The equation of progressive wave propagating in the
positive direction of X-axis is
k 2 109 1
v 106 2
8000 4 y = a sin t x or
1
v 103 500m s –1 . y = a sin t kx
2
48. (a) Standing waves are produced when two waves
2 propagate in opposite direction
31. (b) Time period, T = ; from given eqn.
As z 1 & z 2 are propagating in +ve x-axis &
= 3.0 s–1 –ve x-axis
so, z1 + z2 will represent a standing wave.
2 49. (d)
or T = = 2.09 s
3 50. (b) In case of an open boundry :
32. (c) Incident wave is y1 = a sin (wt – kx)
2 2 (rad) and reflected wave is y2 = a sin (wt + kx)
33. (a) or k No phase change occurs,
k (m)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b)
34. (c) The intensity of wave
56. (a) A pipe open at both ends produce all odd and even
I = 2 2a2n2 v harmonics.
I a2 n2 57. (d) The time for which sound continues to be heard
Therefore the intensity of a wave depends upon after the source has stopped producing sound is
both, its frequency and amplitude. called reverberation time. Sabine formula for
reverberation time of a hall is
35. (c) When two waves, one incident and other reflected
wave, interfere with each other in the string than a 0.16V
T
new type of wave is produced, which appears as
stationary in the medium. This wave is called
where V is volume of the hall in m3 and as is total
stationary or standing wave. Therefore, standing
wave in a string are produced due to interference of absorption. In particular, reverberation time of a hall
waves. is adjusted by providing a few open windows,
36. (b) The position of such a wave changes in two covering the walls with absoring materials.
dimensional plane with time. 58. (b) According to Laplace when sound propagate in a
37. (c) In ordinary talk, the amplitude of vibration is about gaseous medium the compressions and rarefactions
10–8 m are formed periodically at a very high speed. Some
heat is produced at the places of compressions and
38. (b) Phon is the unit of loudness.
some heat is lost at the places of rarefactions, but
39. (d)
there is no transfer of heat between the compressions
2 2 2
40. (a) The intensity of wave, I = 2 f A v , so I f 2 and and rarefactions in the gaseous medium.
59. (c) Damping is caused by opposing force, which
I A2 .
decreases the frequency.
41. (c) The waves, whose frequencies, phases and amplitudes
60. (d)
are same at a given time or at a given place in space are
61. (a) The even number of harmonics possible in open pipe.
known as coherent waves.
62. (d)
42. (c) The contrast will be maximum, when I1 = I2 i.e.
a = b. In that event, Imin = (a – b)2 = 0, where a and b 1
are the amplitudes of interfering waves. 63. (a) Persistence of hearing is s.
10
43. (b) On reflection at a denser medium, change of
phase = (radian) 64. (d) Third overtone has a frequency 7 n, which means
44. (a) On reflection at a rarer medium, no change of phase 7
L = three full loops + one half loop, which would
occures 4
45. (d) yz A sin (kx – t) for the wave progressing along the x- make four nodes and four antinodes.
axis and for the reflected wave, 65. (d) For producing beats, their must be small difference in
y = A sin (kx + t). frequency.
But the position of the rigid wall is at x = 0. 66. (a) 67. (d)
For the given wave, its reflected wave 68. (c) These apparent change in frequency due to motion
y = – A sin (kx + t). of source and observer relative to the medium along
46. (b) the line of sight is called Doppler's effect.
EBD_7208
242 WAVES
69. (c) 81. (c) In a closed organ pipe, two waves travelling in opposite
70. (c) The apparent frequency heard by the stationary direction (one incident and other reflected wave from
observer boundary) superimpose with each other to develop a
wave pattern which is standing or stationary.
v 1 Harmonics in closed organ pipe :
f f f
v vs v v1 : v2 : v3 ....... = 1 : 3 : 5 : ......
1 s
v So, only odd harmonics are present. II correct
nv
vs
1 Natural frequencies = v ; n = 1, 2, 3, .....
f 1 2L
v Thus, even and odd i.e., all the harmonics are present.
82. (c) Change in frequency has nothing to do with
v distance between source and listener.
f 1 s (By expanding binomially)
v
71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (a) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
83. (c) A (4); B (3); C (2); D (1)
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 84. (c) A (4); B (1); C (2); D (3)
74. (d) Waves are kind of disturbances which moves from 85. (d) (A) (1, 2), (B) (4), (C) (1, 3), (D) (4)
one place to another without the actual physical
(A) y 4sin (5 x 4t ) 3cos 4t 5 x
transfer of matter of the medium as a whole. The 6
particles of the medium only oscillate but do not travel is super position of two coherent waves, so their
from one place to another. equivalent will be an another travelling wave
Waves transport energy and the pattern of disturbance x x
(B) y 10cos t sin(100) t
has information that propagate from one point to 330 330
another. Here, wave pattern propagates. Lets check at any point, say at x = 0, y = (10 cos t) sin
All our communication essentially depend on (100t) at any point amplitude is changing sinusoidally.
transmission of signals through the waves. so this is equation of beats.
75. (a) When a stone is dropped in a pond still water following (C) y 10sin (2 x 120t ) 10cos (120t 2 x)
observation/conclusion may deduced.
= superposition of two coherent waves travelling in
I. The disturbance produced propagates outwards from opposite direction.
the point of disturbance along a circle-observation. equation of standing waves
II. If a cork piece is put on the disturbed surface, it moves
(D) y 10sin (2 x 120t ) 8cos (118t 59 / 30 x)
up and down, but do not move away from the centre
of disturbance-observation. = superposition of two waves whose frequency are
III. Conclusion This shows that the water mass does not slightly different
flow outward with the circle, but rather a moving ( 1 120, 2 118) equation of beats
disturbance is created. 86. (d) A (2); B (3); C (4); D (1)
76. (b) 87. (b) A (2); B (1); C (3); D (4)
77. (b) Mechanical waves only transfer energy from one 88. (c) Change in apparent frequency due to relative motion
point to another. between source and listener is Doppler effect.
78. (c) A steel bar possessing both bulk and shear elastic A - (3)
moduli can propagate longitudinal as well as transverse Intensity of sound varies with time in case of beats.
waves. But air can propagate only longitudinal B - (1)
pressure waves (sound). Sound waves in air are longitudinal in nature.
Moreover, when a medium such as a steel bar C - (4)
propagates both longitudinal and transverse waves, Light waves are transverse in nature.
their speeds can be different, since they arise from D - (2)
different elastic moduli. 89. (d) A (3); B (1); C (2); D (3)
79. (c) Speed of a transverse wave in a stretched string,
T
90. (d) The displacement of the points B and F are equal in
m
Speed of transverse wave on a stretched string does magnitude and sign. So these points are in same phase.
not depend upon the frequency of the wave. 91. (b) For a moving source, < (normal wavelength).
80. (a) In a standing wave energy of one region is always 92. (c) As two waves meet a point with opposite phase
confined in that region. All particles cross their mean hence desctructive interference i.e., minimum sound
position together. at that point.
WAVES 243
93. (b) After 2 s, the each wave travels a distance = 2 × 2 = 4
m.
The wave shape is shown in figure. 100. (a)
Thus energy is purely kinetic. 101. (a) For the propagation of traverse
102. (c) In longitudinal waves, the constituents of the medium
94. (c) When the waves meet a point with opposite phase, oscillate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
destructive interference is obtained at that point. In So sound wave is an example of longitudinal wave.
this case phase difference, 103. (d) Particle velocity, vP = Acos( t – kx), which depends
180 or (2n –1) n 1, 2, 3,....... on time, v P/ .
95. (d) Two sinusoidal waves of same amplitude travel 104. (a)
along the string in opposite directions forms 105. (d) With change in pressure, density of medium also
stationary wave changes and so P / remains constant.
106. (d) Two waves moving in uniform string with uniform
tension shall have same speed and may be moving in
96. (a) opposite directions. Hence both waves may have
N N N N velocities in opposite direction. Hence statement-1 is
Total no. of nodes = 4 false.
107. (b)
97. (d) Figure(a) represents a harmonic wave of frequency
108. (c) There is no material medium over a long distance
7.0 Hz, figure (b) represents a harmonic wave of
between earth and other planets. So explosions on
frequency 5.0 Hz. Therefore beat frequency
other planets are not heard on Earth.
vs = 7 – 5 = 2.0 Hz.
109. (a) Two astronauts cannot talk to each other on moon
98. (a) Here, original frequency of sound, f0 = 100 Hz because moon has no atmosphere and hence there
Speed of source Vs = 19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 is no medium for propagation of sound.
110. (c) Laplace assumed adiabatic process during sound
19.4
propagation.
1 2 2
111. (b) intensity, I A v
2
Intensity depend upon amplitude, frequency as well
as velocity of wave.
60° Also I1 = I2
S O 112. (d) Principle of superposition can be used for vector
19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 quantity or tensor quantity.
113. (a) In case of independent sources, the phase difference
From Doppler's formula between them does not remain constant.
V V0 114. (a) Reflection from a rigid boundary is a case of reflection
f1 = f0 from a denser medium. In that case the particle
V Vs velocity and wave velocity are reversed in sign.
115. (a)
V 0 116. (a)
f1 = 100
V ( 9.7) 117. (c) At nodes pressure is maximum. Particles within a loop
vibrate in phase.
V 118. (b) Open pipe can produce more number of harmonics in
f1 = 100
9.7 comparison to close pipe.
V 1 v
V 119. (a) As f ; and so with increase in temperature v
2l
increases more than l.
9.7
f1 = 100 1 = 103Hz RT
330 Also v
M
Apparent frequency f1 = 103 Hz
120. (a)
121. (d) Relative to an observer at rest in a medium the speed
99. (a) f1 = f and f2 = f ; so the frequency of a mechanical wave in that medium depends only
vs vs
on elastic and other properties of the medium. It does
of not depend on the velocity of the source.
whistle suddenly changes from f1 to f2. 122. (d) In doppler effect for sound wave effect due to observer
and source motion are different.
EBD_7208
244 WAVES
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS x 2 (0.4)

129. (c) From x , 2 0. 5 m
2 1 .6
123. (a) Here, y1 = a sin ( t + kx + 0.57)
and y2 = a cos ( t + kx) v 330
660 Hz
0 .5
= a sin ( t kx)
2
2 (2 / 0.004) 2
130. (d) T v2 0.04 6.25 N
Phase difference, = 2– 1
k2 (2 / 0.50)2
131. (c) Since the sine function varies between – 1 and 1
= 0.57 so, the displacement varies – a and a.
2
132. (b) From the equation y (x, t) = 2a sin kx cos t the
position of nodes (where amplitude is zero) are
3.14
= 0.57 = 1.57 – 0.57 = 1 radian given by sin kx = 0 or kx = n where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,
2 ...
124. (c) y = A sin ( t–kx) 133. (c) In a stretched string all multiples of frequencies can
Particle velocity, be obtained i.e., if fundamental frequency is n then
higher frequencies will be 2n, 3n, 4n ...
dy 75 cm
vp = =A cos ( t – kx)
dt
vp max = A
So, the difference between any two successive

wave velocity = frequencies will be 'n'
k
According to question, n = 420 – 315
A = = 105 Hz
k So the lowest frequency of the string is
1 2 105 Hz.
i. e., A = But k = 134. (d) In the spherical source, the amplitude A of wave is
k
=2 A 1
inversely proportional to the distance r i.e., A
125. (b) As density of hydrogen is less than density of air, r
velocity of sound in hydrogen is greater than vel. of Where r is distance of source from the point of
consideration.
sound in air. Therefore hydrogen acts as a rarer medium
135. (d) Here, A1 = A, A2 = A, = 120°
and the balloon behaves as a diverging lens.
The amplitude of the resultant wave is
126. (d) As Y = A sin ( t – kx + )
AR A12 A 22 2A1A 2 cos
2 1
= 2 f= =2 [ f= ]
A2 A2 2AA cos 120
2 2 1
k= = =1 [ =2 ] = A2 A2 A2 cos120
2 2
Y = 1 sin (2t – x + )[ A = 1 m] = AR = A
127. (a) The pressure variations in the propagation of sound 136. (d) Load supported by sonometer wire = 4 kg
waves in gaseous medium are adiabatic. Tension in sonometer wire = 4 g
If = mass per unit length
128. (b) From equation, 100
1 T
2 100 then frequency
100 2l
T 2
1 4g
2 2 416
20 2l
20
When length is doubled, i.e., l = 2l
2 100 Let new load = L
v 5m / s
20 2 As,
WAVES 245
1 Lg 1 4g v v lc 3v 2 3
141. (b) 3 4 or
2l 2l 4l c 2l0 l0 4 4v 8
142. (d) In case of closed organ pipe frequency,
1 Lg 1 4g
v
4l 2l fn = (2n + 1)
4l
L 2 2 L = 16 kg for n = 0, f0 = 100 Hz
137. (b) Fundamental frequency, n = 1, f1 = 300 Hz
n = 2, f2 = 500 Hz
v 1 T 1 T T m n = 3, f3 = 700 Hz
f v and
2 2 2 A n = 4, f4 = 900 Hz
n = 5, f5 = 1100 Hz
T T Y 1
Also, Y f ....(i) n = 6, f6 = 1300 Hz
A A 2 Hence possible natural oscillation whose frequencies
= 1.5 m, = 0.01, = 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 (given) < 1250 Hz = 6(n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
143. (b) Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
= 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (given) V
Vc = 4l
Putting the value of , , and in eqn. (i) we get, c
Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
2 103
f V
7 3 V0 = 2l
or, f 178.2 Hz 0
138. (a) Total length of string = 1 + 2 + 3 Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe
(As string is divided into three segments)
3V
1 = 2l
But frequency 1 T 0
f
length 2 m From question,
V 3V
1 1 1 1
so 4lc 2l0
n n1 n2 n3
l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm
139. (a) Initially for open organ pipe, fundamental frequency, 144. (a) For fundamental mode,
v
v0 f (given) 1 T
2l f=
But when it is half dipped in water, then it becomes 2
closed organ pipe of length l . In this case, Taking logarithm on both sides, we get
2
fundamental frequency, 1 T
log f = log log
v v v 2
vc f
4l 4 l 2l
2 1 1 T
= log log
2 2
A 1 nA 2
140. (c) 2 nB 1 1 1
B
or log f = log [log T log ]
2 2
Differentiating both sides, we get
A A 2L df 1 dT
(as and are constants)
f 2 T
dT df
2
T f
Here df = 6
B
f = 600 Hz
B 4L
dT 2 6
= 0.02
T 600
EBD_7208
246 WAVES
145. (b) Equation of progressive wave is given by 153. (d) When sounded with a source of known frequency
Y = A sin2 f t fundamental frequency
Given Y1 = 4sin500 t and Y2 = 2sin506 t. = 250 ± 4 Hz = 254 Hz or 246 Hz
Comparing the given equations with equation of 2nd harmonic if unknown frequency (suppose) 254 Hz
progressive wave, we get = 2 × 254 = 508 Hz
2f1 = 500, f1 = 250 As it gives 5 beats
2f2 = 506 f2 = 253 508 + 5 = 513 Hz
Beats = f2– f1 = 253 – 250 = 3 beats/sec Hence, unknown frequency is 254 Hz
= 3 × 60 = 180 beats/minute. 154. (c) Let f ' be the frequency of sound heard by cliff.
146. (d) The frequency of the piano string = 512 + 4 = 516 or f
f ......(1)
508. When the tension is increased, beat frequency v vc
decreases to 2, it means that frequency of the string is
508 as frequency of string increases with tension. Now for the reflected wave cliff. acts as a source
147. (b) Here, = 0.5 nm = 0.5 × 10–9 m f (v v c )
2f ......(2)
= 300 km s–1 = 300 × 103 ms–1 v
c
As, (v v c ) f v
c 2f 2v – 2 vc = v + vc or vc
v vc 3
9 8 1
(0.5 10 m)(3 10 ms )
7 155. (c) According to Doppler's effect
(300 103 ms 1 ) 5 10 m
Apparent frequency
= 5000 × 10–10 m = 5000 Å v v0 343 10
148. (d) 2 f1 = 600 n = n 1392 .
v vs 343 5
f1 = 300 ... (1)
2 f2 = 608 1412 Hz
f2 = 304 ...(2) 156. (c) Frequency of the echo detected by the driver of the
|f1 – f2| = 4 beats train is
(According to Doppler effect in sound)
I max ( A1 A2 )2 (5 4)2 81
I m.n 2 2 1 v u
( A1 A2 ) (5 4) f' f
v u
where A1, A2 are amplitudes of given two sound wave.
where f = original frequency of source of sound
1 T 1 f = Apparent frequency of source because of the
149. (b) Frequency V
2L m l relative motion between source and observer.
1 1 1 330 220
l1 : l2 : l3 =
: : 6 : 3: 2 f' 1000 = 5000 Hz
1 2 3 330 220
150. (c) Pressure change will be minimum at both ends. In fact,
pressure variation is maximum at /2 because the v
157. (c) '
displacement node is pressure antinode. v vs
151. (c) The apparent frequency remains the same because
distance between the source and observer does not 300
10000 9500
change. 300 v
152. (c) Frequency is not affected by blowing of wind so
long as source and listener are stationary. 300 v 300 0.95
1
v 300 0.05 15 ms
16
ELECTRIC CHARGES
AND FIELDS
9. Quantisation of charge implies
(a) charge cannot be destroyed
1. Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it (b) charge exists on particles
produces and experiences (c) there is a minimum permissible charge on a particle
(a) electric effects only (d) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.
(b) magnetic effects only 10. If an object possesses an electric charge, it is said to be
(c) both electric and magnetic effects electrified or ... A ... When it has no charge, it is said to
(d) None of these be ... B ... Here, A and B refer to
2. Charge is (a) charged, neutral (b) neutral, charged
(a) transferable (b) associated with mass (c) discharged, charged (d) active, reactive
(c) conserved (d) All of these 11. A positively charged rod is brought near an uncharged
3. A body is positively charged, it implies that conductor. If the rod is then suddenly withdrawn, the charge
(a) there is only positive charge in the body. left on the conductor will be
(b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body (a) positive (b) negative
but the positive charge is more than negative charge (c) zero (d) cannot say
(c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body 12. Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal
but the positive charge lies in the outer regions positive and negative charges respectively. Their masses
(d) negative charge is displaced from its position after charging
4. On rubbing, when one body gets positively charged and (a) remains unaffected (b) mass of A > mass of B
other negatively charged, the electrons transferred from (c) mass of A < mass of B (d) Nothing can be said
positively charged body to negatively charged body are 13. When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper.
(a) valence electrons only This is because the
(b) electrons of inner shells (a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(c) both valence electrons and electrons of inner shell (b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the
(d) yet to be established direction of field
5. Which of the following is the best insulator? (c) electric field due to the comb is uniform
(a) Carbon (b) Paper (d) comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to
(c) Graphite (d) Ebonite the direction of field
6. If a body is negatively charged, then it has 14. When some charge is transferred to ...A... it readily gets
(a) excess of electrons (b) excess of protons distributed over the entire surface of ... A... If some charge
(c) deficiency of electrons (d) deficiency of neutrons is put on ... B..., it stays at the same place.
Here, A and B refer to
7. When a body is charged by induction, then the body
(a) becomes neutral (a) insulator, conductor (b) conductor, insulator
(b) does not lose any charge (c) insulator, insulator (d) conductor, conductor
(c) loses whole of the charge on it 15. Quantisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by
(d) loses part of the charge on it (a) Einstein’s photoelectric effect
8. On charging by conduction, mass of a body may (b) Frank-Hertz experiment
(a) increase (b) decreases (c) Davisson and Germer experiment
(c) increase or decrease (d) None of these (d) Millikan’s oil drop experiment
EBD_7208
248 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
16. In annihilation process, in which an electron and a positron 27. A point charge is kept at the centre of metallic insulated
transform into two gamma rays, which property of electric spherical shell. Then
charge is displayed? (a) electric field out side the sphere is zero
(a) Additivity of charge (b) electric field inside the sphere is zero
(b) Quantisation of charge (c) net induced charge on the sphere is zero
(c) Conservation of charge (d) electric potential inside the sphere is zero
(d) Attraction and repulsion 28. If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud,
17. The law, governing the force between electric charges is electric field strength
known as (a) decreases directly as the distance from the centre
(a) Ampere's law (b) Ohm's law (b) increases directly as the distance from the centre
(c) Faraday's law (d) Coulomb's law (c) remains constant
18. The value of electric permittivity of free space is (d) None of these
(a) 9 × 109 NC2/m2 (b) 8.85 × 10–12Nm2/C2 sec 29. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are
(c) 8.85 × 10 –12 C /Nm (d) 9 × 109C2/Nm2
2 2 (a) circular anticlockwise
19. Coulomb’s law is true for (b) circular clockwise
(a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m) (c) radial, inwards
(b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m) (d) radial, outwards
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles 30. Electric lines of force
(d) all the distances (a) exist everywhere
20. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap (b) exist only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges
bubble? (c) exist only when both positive and negative charges
(a) Its radius decreases (b) Its radius increases are near one another
(c) The bubble collapses (d) None of these (d) are imaginary
21. Two point charges + Q and + q are separated by a certain 31. Positive electric flux indicates that electric lines of force are
distance. If + Q > + q then in between the charges the electric directed
field is zero at a point (a) outwards (b) inwards
(a) closer to + Q (c) either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
(b) closer to + q 32. The S.I. unit of electric flux is
(c) exactly at the mid-point of line segment joining + Q and
(a) weber (b) newton per coulomb
+ q.
(c) volt × metre (d) joule per coulomb
(d) no where on the line segment joining + Q and + q.
33. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is
22. An electric field can deflect
zero, then
(a) neutrons (b) X-rays
(a) the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(c) -rays (d) -particles
(b) the electric field may not be zero everywhere on the
23. The unit of electric field is not equivalent to
surface
(a) N / C (b) J / C
(c) the charge inside the surface must be zero
(c) V / m (d) J / Cm
(d) the charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero
24. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction different
34. Electric flux over a surface in an electric field may be
from that of an electric field, the path of the electron is
(a) a straight line (b) a circle (a) positive (b) negative
(c) an ellipse (d) a parabola (c) zero (d) All of the above
25. A charged particle is free to move in an electric field. It will 35. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface
travel respectively is 1 and 2, the electric charge inside the surface
(a) always along a line of force will be
(b) along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero (a) ( 2 + 2) × o (b) ( 2 – 2) × o
(c) along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the (c) ( 1 + 2) × o (d) ( 2 – 1) × o
direction of an acute angle with the line of force 36. For distance far away from centre of dipole the change in
(d) none of the above magnitude of electric field with change in distance from the
26. If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric field of centre of dipole is
strength E, then the polarization P is (a) zero.
(b) same in equatorial plane as well as axis of dipole.
(a) independent of E
(c) more in case of equatorial plane of dipole as compared
(b) inversely proportional to E
to axis of dipole.
(c) directly proportional to E (d) more in case of axis of dipole as compared to equatorial
(d) directly proportional to E plane of dipole.
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS 249
37. A region surrounding a stationary electric dipoles has 47. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere
(a) magnetic field only then
(b) electric field only (a) the flux of the electric field through the sphere is not
(c) both electric and magnetic fields zero.
(d) no electric and magnetic fields (b) the electric field is zero at every point of the sphere.
(c) the electric field is not zero anywhere on the sphere.
38. The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole
(d) the electric field is zero on a circle on the sphere.
and direction of the dipole moment
(a) will be parallel 48. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric
(b) will be in opposite direction
field E , then torque acting on it is given by
(c) will be perpendicular
(d) are not related (a) p.E (b) p E
39. Debye is the unit of
(c) p E (d) p E
(a) electric flux (b) electric dipole moment
(c) electric potential (d) electric field intensity 49. An electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point
40. An electric dipole will experience a net force when it is placed charges q and –q separated by a distance 2x. The axis of
in the dipole is
(a) from positive charge to negative charge
(a) a uniform electric field
(b) from negative charge to positive charge
(b) a non-uniform electric field
(c) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges
drawn at the centre and pointing upward direction
(d) None of these
(d) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges
41. An electric dipole is kept in a non-uniform electric field. It drawn at the centre and pointing downward direction
experiences 50. Gauss’s law states that
(a) a force and a torque
(b) a force but not a torque 1
(a) the total electric flux through a closed surface is
(c) a torque but no force 0
times the total charge placed near the closed surface.
(d) neither a force nor a torque
42. The formation of a dipole is due to two equal and dissimilar 1
(b) the total electric flux through a closed surface is
point charges placed at a 0
(a) short distance (b) long distance times the total charge enclosed by the closed surface.
(c) above each other (d) none of these
(c) the total electric flux through an open surface is 1 times
43. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric 0
the total charge placed near the open surface.
field E , then torque acting on it is given by (d) the line integral of electric field around the boundary of
(a) p.E (b) p E 1
an open surface is times the total charge placed near
0
(c) p E (d) p E
the open surface.
44. If Ea be the electric field strength of a short dipole at a 51. The Gaussian surface
point on its axial line and Ee that on the equatorial line at (a) can pass through a continuous charge distribution.
the same distance, then (b) cannot pass through a continuous charge distribution.
(a) Ee= 2Ea (b) Ea = 2Ee (c) can pass through any system of discrete charges.
(c) Ea = Ee (d) None of the above (d) can pass through a continuous charge distribution as
45. When an electric dipole P is placed in a uniform electric well as any system of discrete charges.
52. Gauss's law is valid for
field E then at what angle between P and E the value
(a) any closed surface
of torque will be maximum?
(b) only regular close surfaces
(a) 90° (b) 0°
(c) any open surface
(c) 180° (d) 45°
(d) only irregular open surfaces
46. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° to a
53. The total electric flux emanating from a closed surface
non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience
enclosing an -particle is (e-electronic charge)
(a) a translational force only in the direction of the field
(b) a translational force only in the direction normal to the 2e e
(a) (b)
direction of the field 0 0
(c) a torque as well as a translational force 0e
(d) a torque only (c) e 0 (d)
4
EBD_7208
54. The electric field due to an infinitely long straight uniformly Which of the above statements is incorrect?
charged wire at a distance r is directly proportional to (a) Only I (b) Only II
(a) r (b) r2 (c) Only III (d) Only IV
63. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1 1
(c) (d) I. The charge q on a body is always given by q = ne,
r r2 where n is any integer, positive or negative.
55. For a given surface the Gauss's law is stated as E . dA 0 . II. By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to
From this we can conclude that be negative.
(a) E is necessarily zero on the surface III. The fact that electric charge is always an integral
(b) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point multiple of e is termed as quantisation of charge.
(c) the total flux through the surface is zero IV. The quatisation of charge was experimentally
(d) the flux is only going out of the surface demonstrated by Newton in 1912.
56. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface (a) Only I (b) Only II
charge density is (c) Only IV (d) Only III
(a) zero
64. Select the correct statements Coulomb's law correctly
(b) constant different from zero describes the electric force that
(c) proportional to the distance from the curve
I. binds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus
(d) None of the above
II. binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an
57. The electric field near a conducting surface having a
atom
uniform surface charge density is given by
III. binds atoms together to form molecules
(a) and is parallel to the surface (a) I and II (b) I and III
0 (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
2 65. Select the correct statements from the following
(b) and is parallel to the surface
0 I. Inside a charged or neutral conductor, electrostatic
field is zero
(c) and is normal to the surface
II. The electrostatic field at the surface of the charged
0
conductor must be tangential to the surface at any
2 point
(d) and is normal to the surface
0 III. There is no net charge at any point inside the
58. A hollow sphere of charge does not have electric field at conductor
(a) outer point (b) interior point (a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) beyond 2 m (d) beyond 100 m (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
59. Charge motion within the Gaussian surface gives changing
physical quantity 66. In a uniform electric field E a charge +q having negligible
(a) electric field (b) electric flux mass is released at a point. Which of the following statements
(c) charge (d) gaussian surface area are correct?
60. Gauss’s law is true only if force due to a charge varies as I. Velocity increases with time.
(a) r–1 (b) r–2 II. A force acts on it in the direction of electric field.
(c) r –3 (d) r–4 III. Its momentum changes with time.
61. What about Gauss’s theorem is not incorrect? (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) It can be derived by using Coulomb's Law (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(b) It is valid for conservative field obeys inverse square 67. Field due to multiple charges at a point is found by using
root law I. superposition principle.
(c) Gauss’s theorem is not applicable in gravitation II. Coulomb’s law.
(d) Both (a) & (b) III. law of conservation of charges.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
62. Study of charges, by scientists, concludes that 68. Select the incorrect statements about electric field lines.
I. there are two kinds of electric charges. I. Two electric field lines can never cross each other.
II. bodies like plastic, fur acquire elecrtic charge on II. They start from positive charge and end at negative
rubbing. charge.
III. like charges attract, unlike charges repel each other. III. Electric field lines form closed loops.
IV. the property which differentiates two kinds of (a) I and II (b) I and III
charges is called the polarity of the charge. (c) II and III (c) I, II and III
69. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform (a) (A) (3), (B) (2), (C) (4), (D) (1)
(b) (A) (1), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (2)
electric field E. Then (c) (A) (3), (B) (4), (C) (2), (D) (1)
I. the torque on the dipole is p E. (d) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
II. the potential energy of the system is p E.
Charge
III. the resultant force on the dipole is zero. (A) Linear charge density (1)
Volume
Which of the above statements is/are correct
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III Charge
(c) Only I (d) I and II (B) Surface charge density (2) Length
70. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
I. Polar molecules have permanent electric dipole moment. Charge
II. CO2 molecule is a polar molecule. (C) Volume charge density (3)
Area
III. H2O is a non-polar molecule.
(D) Discrete charge (4) System consisting of
(a) II and III (b) I and II
distribution ultimate individual
charges
71. Select the correct statements from the following.
(a) A (2), B (3), C (1), D (4)
I. The electric field due to a charge outside the Gaussian
(b) A (1), B (3), C (1), D (4)
surface contributes zero net flux through the surface.
(c) A (3), B (1), C (2), D (4)
II. Total flux linked with a closed body, not enclosing any
(d) A (3), B (2), C (1), D (4)
charge will be zero.
75. Column II describe graph for charge distribution given in
III. Total electric flux, if a dipole is enclosed by a surface is
column-I. Match the description.
zero.
Column I Column II
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III E
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (A) Uniformly charged ring (1) r

72. Match Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II
V
1 235 144
(A) Additivity of charge (1) 0 n 92 U 56 Ba +89
36 Kr (B) Infinitely large charge (2)
conducting sheet r
+ 310 n
(B) Conservation of charge (2) –5 C + 15 C = 10 C (C) Infinite non conducting (3) E
(C) Quantisation of charge (3) Gold nucleus repels
alpha particle.
(D) Attraction and (4) q = ne
repulsion r
(a) (A) (3), (B) (2), (C) (4), (D) (1)
(b) (A) (2), (B) (4), (C) (1), (D) (3)
V
(c) (A) (2), (B) (1), (C) (4), (D) (3)
(D) Hollow non conducting (4)
(d) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
73. Match the physical quantities in column I and the information sphere
related to them in Column II.
Column I Column II r
(A) Electric dipole moment (1) Vector product
(B) Electric field (2) Scalar product
(C) Electric flux (3) Points towards positive (a) A (1, 2), B (3), C (3), D (4)
charge (b) A (3, 4), B (2), C (3, 1), D (4)
(D) Torque (4) Points away from (c) A (1), B (2), C (3), D (4)
positive charge (d) A (2), B (3), C (4), D (1)
EBD_7208
76. Match the entries of column I with that of Column II. 78. Match the source of charge given in Column I with
Column I Column II expressions of electric field produced by them in Column II.
(A) Coulomb’s law (1) Total electric flux Column I Column II
through a closed
surface. (A) Point charge (1)
2 0 r
(B) Gauss’s law (2) Vector sum of forces.
(C) Principle of (3) Force is inversely
superposition proportional to square (B) Infinitely long straight (2)
2 0
of distance uniformly charged wire
(D) Quantisation of charge (4) Discrete nature of (C) Uniformly charged (3) 0
charge infinite plane sheet
(a) (A) (2), (B) (3), (C) (1), (D) (4)
q
(b) (A) (3), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (4) (D) At a point inside a (4)
4 0 r2
(c) (A) (1), (B) (4), (C) (3), (D) (2) uniformly charged thin
(d) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4) spherical shell.
77. The curves in the graph show the variation of electric field E
with distance r for various kinds of charge distributions given (a) (A) (1), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (2)
in Column I. Match them with their correct curves in Column II. (b) (A) (4), (B) (3), (C) (2), (D) (1)
(c) (A) (4), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (3)
(d) (A) (2), (B) (4), (C) (1), (D) (3)
Q
R DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
P 79. The figure shows a charge + q at point P held in equilibrium
E S in air with the help of four + q charges situated at the vertices
of a square. The net electrostatic force on q is given by
Electric field
+q
1 Distance r
+q +q
Column I Column II P
+q
(A) Electric field of a point (1) P +q
sized dipole.
(a) Gauss’s law
(B) Electric field due to an (2) Q
(b) Coulomb’s law
infinitely long straight (c) Principle of superposition
uniformly charged wire. (d) net electric flux out the position of +q.
(C) Electric field due to a (3) R 80. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation
of force when the distance r between two charges varies ?
uniformly charged
plane sheet. (a) (b)
(D) Electric field due to a (4) S F F
point charge.
Force
Force
(a) (A) (2), (B) (4), (C) - (3), (D) (1)

(b) (A) (4), (B) (3), (C) (2), (D) (1)
(c) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
Distance r Distance r
(d) (A) (3), (B) (1), (C) (4), (D) (2)
(a) y (b) y
(c) (d)
E E
F F
Force
Force
O x O x
a 2a a 2a
Distance r Distance r
81. A large nonconducting sheet M is given a uniform charge

density. Two uncharged small metal rods A and B are placed
y
near the sheet as shown in figure. Then (c) y (d)
M E
E
A B
O x O x
a 2a a 2a
(a) M attracts A (b) M attracts B

(c) A attracts B (d) All of the above
82. A metal sphere is being charged by induction using a 84. In the figure, charge q is placed at origin O. When the charge
q is displaced from its position the electric field at point P
charged rod, but the sequence of diagrams showing the
changes
process misplaced.
y
I. II.
Charged x
rod Ground O q
(a) at the same time when q is displaced.
OP
(b) at a time after where c is the speed of light.
c
III. IV. V.. OP cos
(c) at a time after .
c
Correct order of charging is OP sin
(d) at a time after
(a) I II III IV V c
(b) V II III I IV 85. Figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding
(c) V II I III IV to an electric field. The figure suggests that
(d) IV II III I V
83. Figure shows two charges of equal magnitude separated by
A B C
a distance 2a. As we move away from the charge situated at
x = 0 to the charge situated at x = 2a, which of the following
graphs shows the correct behaviour of electric field ?
+q +q (a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC
(c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
x=0 x=a x = 2a
EBD_7208
86. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges 89. Which of the following graphs correctly show the change of
(A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of the following electric flux with time t through the surface S when the
statements is correct ? charge +Q is moved away from the surface?
A B
+Q
(a) A is +ve and B –ve, |A| > |B|

(b) A is –ve and B +ve, |A| = |B|
(c) Both are +ve but A > B
(d) Both are –ve but A > B
87. In the figure the net electric flux through the area A is
E A S
when the system is in air. On immersing the system in water
the net electric flux through the area
(a) (b)
Electric flux
Electric flux
Q
Time t Time t
A
(c) (d)
(a) becomes zero (b) remains same
Electric flux
Electric flux
(c) increases (d) decreases

88. Which of the following graphs shows the correct behaviour
of electric flux through the surface S when it is rotated by an
angle 90° clockwise in a uniform electric field?
Time t Time t
S
90. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation in
45º E magnitude of torque on an electric dipole rotated in a uniform
S electric field from stable equillibrium to unstable equillibrium?
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
Electric flux
Electric flux
Torque
Torque
Angle rotated Angle rotated

Angle rotated ( ) Angle rotated ( )
(c) (d)
Electric flux
(c) (d)
Electric flux
Torque
Torque
Angle rotated ( ) Angle rotated ( )

Angle rotated Angle rotated
91. Figure shows the part of an infinite plane sheet of charge. 93. Assertion : When bodies are charged through friction,
there is a transfer of electric charge from one body to
+ another, but no creation or destruction of charge.
+ Reason : This follows from conservation of electric charges.
+ +
+ + 94. Assertion : The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
+
O + + A + Reason : If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra
+ charge induced on conductor will flow to ground.
+
+ +
+ 95. Assertion : Some charge is put at the centre of a conducting
+ + + sphere. It will move to the surface of the sphere.
+ Reason : Conducting sphere has no free electrons at the
+ centre.
96. Assertion : Coulomb force and gravitational force follow
the same inverse-square law.
Which of the following graphs correctly shows the behaviour
Reason : Both laws are same in all aspects.
of electric field intensity as we move from point O to A.
97. Assertion : The coulomb force is the dominating force in
the universe.
(a) (b) Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational
Electric field
Electric field
E force.
E
98. Assertion : If there exists coulomb attraction between two
bodies, both of them may not be charged.
O Distance A O Distance A Reason : In coulomb attraction two bodies are oppositely
charged.
99. Assertion : A deuteron and an -particle are placed in an
(c) (d) electric field. If F1 and F2 be the forces acting on them and
Electric field
Electric field
a1 and a2 be their accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2.

E E Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
100. Assertion : The property that the force with which two
charges attract or repel each other are not affected by the
O Distance A O Distance A presence of a third charge.
92. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a Reason : Force on any charge due to a number of other
cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field through the charge is the vector sum of all the forces on that charge
surface of the vessel is due to other charges, taken one at a time.
101. Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be
q built to block an electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside
it is zero at every point.
102. Assertion : A point charge is brought in an electric field, the
field at a nearby point will increase or decrease, depending
(a) zero (b) q/ o
on the nature of charge.
(c) q/2 o (d) 2q/ o
Reason : The electric field is independent of the nature of
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS charge.
103. Assertion : Consider two identical charges placed distance
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, 2d apart, along x-axis.
correct explanation for assertion The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed at the point
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect O midway between them is stable for displacements along
the x-axis.
Reason: Force on test charge is zero.
EBD_7208
104. Assertion : When a conductor is placed in an external CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
electrostatic field, the net electric field inside the conductor
becomes zero after a small instant of time. 113. The metal knob of a gold leaf electroscope is touched with a
Reason : It is not possible to set up an electric field inside a positively charged rod. When it is taken away the leaves
conductor. stay separated. Now the metal knob is touched by negatively
105. Assertion : A uniformly charged disc has a pin hole at its charged rod. The separation between the leaves
centre. The electric field at the centre of the disc is zero. (a) increases
(b) decreases
Reason : Disc can be supposed to be made up of many (c) remains same
rings. Also electric field at the centre of uniformly charged (d) first increases then decreases.
ring is zero. 114. Two identical metal spheres A and B are supported on
106. Assertion : Electric lines of field cross each other. insulating stands and placed in contact. What kind of charges
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one will A and B develop when a negatively charged ebonite rod
resultant electric field. is brought near A?
107. Assertion : On bringing a positively charged rod near the (a) A will have a positive charge and B will have a negative
uncharged conductor, the conductor gets attracted towards charge
the rod. (b) A will have a negative charge and B will have a positive
Reason : The electric field lines of the charged rod are charge
perpendicular to the surface of conductor. (c) Both A and B will have positive charges
108. Assertion : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as (d) Both A and B will have negative charges
shown in figure. The flux over the shown Gaussian surface 115. The force of repulsion between two electrons at a certain
depends only on charges q1 and q2. distance is F. The force between two protons separated by
the same distanceis (mp = 1836 me)
q4 (a) 2 F (b) F
F
q1 (c) 1836 F (d)
1836
q2 116. The force between two small charged spheres having
Gaussian charges of 1 × 10–7 C and 2 × 10–7 C placed 20 cm apart
surface in air is
q3 (a) 4.5 × 10–2 N (b) 4.5 × 10–3 N
(c) 5.4 × 10 N –2 (d) 5.4 × 10–3 N
Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface 117. Two charge q and –3q are placed fixed on x–axis separated
depends only on charges q1 and q2. by distance d. Where should a third charge 2q be placed
109. Assertion : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable such that it will not experience any force ?
equillibrium in an electric field, it returns back to its stable q –3q
equillibrium orientation.
Reason : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being A d B
disturbed from its stable equillibrium.
d 3d d 3d
110. Assertion : On going away from a point charge or a small (a) (b)
2 2
electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same rate in
both the cases. d 3d d 3d
Reason : Electric field is inversely proportional to square (c) (d)
2 2
of distance from the charge or an electric dipole. 118. Two insulated charged metalic sphere P and Q have their
111. Assertion : The electric flux of the electric field E dA is centres separated by a distance of 60 cm. The radii of P
and Q are negligible compared to the distance of
zero. The electric field is zero everywhere on the surface. separation. The mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if
Reason : The charge inside the surface is zero. the charge on each is 3.2 × 10–7 C is
112. Assertion : On moving a distance two times the initial (a) 5.2 × 10–4 N (b) 2.5 × 10–3 N
distance away from an infinitely long straight uniformly (c) 1.5 × 10 N–3 (d) 3.5 × 10–4 N
charged wire the electric field reduces to one third of the 119. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two
initial value. equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium then
Reason : The electric field is inversely proportional to the the value of q is
distance from an infinitely long straight uniformly charged (a) Q/2 (b) –Q/2
wire. (c) Q/4 (d) –Q/4
120. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated 125. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 4.4 m diameter
by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the has a surface charge density of 60 C m–2. The charge on
ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be the sphere is
(e being the charge of an electron) (a) 7.3 × 10–3C (b) 3.7 × 10–6 C
(c) 7.3 × 10–6 C (d) 3.7 × 10–3 C
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe 2
(a) (b) 126. A rod of length 2.4 m and radius 4.6 mm carries a negative
e2 d2 charge of 4.2 × 10–7 C spread uniformly over it surface.
The electric field near the mid–point of the rod, at a point
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2 on its surface is
(c) (d)
e2 q2 (a) –8.6 × 105 N C–1 (b) 8.6 × 104 N C–1
(c) –6.7 × 10 N C 5 –1 (d) 6.7 × 104 N C–1
121. Three charge q, Q and 4q are placed in a straight line of
127. If electric field in a region is radially outward with magnitude
1 E = Ar, the charge contained in a sphere of radius r centred at
length l at points distant 0, and l respectively from one
2 the origin is
end. In order to make the net froce on q zero, the charge Q
must be equal to 1
(a) A r3 (b) 4 oAr
3
(a) –q (b) – 2q 4 o
q
(c) (d) q 4
2 1 A oA
(c) (d)
122. Force between two identical charges placed at a distance of 4 o r 3
r3
r in vacuum is F. Now a slab of dielectric of dielectric contrant 128. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance the earth’s
4 is inserted between these two charges. If the thickness of gravitational attraction on an electron will be: (given mass
the slab is r/2, then the force between the charges will
31
become and charge of an electron respectively are 9.1 10 kg and
3
(a) F (b) F 1.6 10 19 C .)
5 (a) –5.6 × 10–11 N/C (b) –4.8 × 10–15 N / C
4 F (c) –1.6 × 10 N/C–19 (d) –3.2 × 10–19 N / C
(c) F (d)
9 2 129. The insulation property of air breaks down when the electric
123. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a field is 3 × 106 Vm–1. The maximum charge that can be given
distance of 16 cm. They do not experience any force. The to a sphere of diameter 5 m is approximately
q (a) 2 × 10–2 C (b) 2 × 10–3 C
value of is –4
m (c) 2 × 10 C (d) 2 × 10–5 C
130. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at
0 each corner as shown in fig. The electric intensity at centre
(a) l (b)
G O will be
G +q A
(c) 4 (d) 4 0G
0
124. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1 and outer r
radius R2. A charge is placed at the centre of the shperical
cavity. The surface charge density on the inner surface is O
r r
+q +q
R2 B C
R1
+q
1 q 1 q
(a) (b)
4 o r 4 o r2
1 3q
(c) (d) zero
q q 4 r2o
(a) (b)
4 R12 4 R12 131. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive
charge of 10 C. What will be the electric field at the centre
q2 q of the sphere if its radius is 2 m?
(c) (d) (b) 5 Cm–2
4 R22 4 R22 (a) Zero
(c) 20 Cm –2 (d) 8 Cm–2
EBD_7208
132. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards 140. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on distance r, due to
from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is a dipole, is related as
(a) 1.13 × 1011 (b) 1.13 × 1010 1 1
(c) 0.61 × 10 11 (d) 0.61 × 109 (a) E (b) E
r r2
133. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is
placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the 1 1
(c) E (d) E
same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the r3 r4
square as shown in Figure. The electric flux linked to the 141. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and
surface is its dipole moment is p. It is placed in uniform electric field E.
If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the
E force on it and its potential energy are respectively.
(a) q.E and max. (b) 2 q.E and min.
(c) q.E and min (d) zero and min.
142. An electric dipole of moment ´p´ is placed in an electric field
of intensity É´. The dipole acquires a position such that
the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of
the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to
be zero when = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of
(a) EL2 (b) EL2 cos
the dipole will respectively be
(c) EL2 sin (d) zero (a) p E sin , – p E cos (b) p E sin , –2 p E cos
134. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of cube of (c) p E sin , 2 p E cos (d) p E cos , – p E cos
length L (A B C D E F G H). Another same charge q is placed 143. If the dipole of moment 2.57 × 10–17 cm is placed into an
at a distance L from O. Then the electric flux through ABCD electric field of magnitude 3.0 × 104 N/C such that the fields
is lines are aligned at 30° with the line joining P to the dipole,
E F what torque acts on the dipole?
D
C (a) 7.7 × 10–13 Nm (b) 3.855 × 10–13 Nm
O (c) 3.855 × 10 Nm –15 (d) 7.7 × 10–15 Nm
q q
H 144. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric
G
field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It experiences a torque of 4
A
B Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is
L
(a) q /4 0L (b) zero 2 cm.
(c) q/2 0L (d) q/3 0L (a) 8 mC (b) 4 mC
135. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface (c) 8 C (d) 2 mC
respectively is 1 and 2, the electric charge inside the surface 145. On decreasing the distance between the two charges of a
will be dipole which is perpendicular to electric field and decreasing
(a) ( 2 + 2) × o (b) ( 2 – 2) × o the angle between the dipole and electric field, the torque on
(c) ( 1 + 2) × o (d) ( 2 – 1) × o the dipole
136. In a region of space having a uniform electric field E, a (a) increases (b) decreases
hemispherical bowl of radius r is placed. The electric flux (c) remains same (d) cannot be predicted.
through the bowl is 146. An electric dipole is put in north-south direction in a
(a) 2 RE (b) 4 R2E sphere filled with water. Which statement is correct?
(c) 2 R E 2 (d) R2E (a) Electric flux is coming towards sphere
137. A cylinder of radius R and length is placed in a uniform (b) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
electric field E parallel to the axis of the cylinder. The total (c) Electric flux entering into sphere and leaving the
flux over the curved surface of the cylinder is sphere are same
(a) zero (b) R2E (d) Water does not permit electric flux to enter into
(c) 2 R2E (d) E / R2 sphere
138. At the centre of a cubical box + Q charge is placed. The 147. The surface density on the copper sphere is . The electric
value of total flux that is coming out a wall is field strength on the surface of the sphere is
(a) Q / o (b) Q / 3 o (a) (b) /2
(c) Q / 4 o (d) Q / 6 o (c) Q / 2 o (d) Q / o
139. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length 10 cm and 148. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of
having a charge of 500 C, at a point on the axis at a distance radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric
20 cm from one of the charges in air, is flux will
(a) 6.25 × 107 N/C (b) 9.28 × 107 N/C (a) increase four times (b) be reduced to half
(c) 13.1 × 10 N/C11 (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C (c) remain the same (d) be doubled
33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d)

36. (d) For distances far away from centre of dipole
1. (c) 2. (d)
1 2p
3. (b) When we say that a body is charged, we always mean E axis Ea
that the body is having excess of electrons (negatively 4 0 r3
charged) or is of deficient of electrons (positively
1 p
charged). Eequa = E e
4. (a) Valence electrons are outermost electrons these can 4 0 r3
get transferred on rubbing.
5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) d 1 d 3
Ea 2p r
10. (a) A body with charge is called charged body. A body dr 4 0 dr
without charge is called neutral body.When we say
that a body is charged, either it has excess electrons 1 p
6 ... (i)
or it has lesser elctrons as compared to number of 4 0 r4
protons inside body.
11. (c) 12. (c) d 1 d 3
Ee p r
13. (a) Comb induces charge on paper due to which paper is dr 4 0 dr
attracted towards the comb.
14. (b) When some charge is given to conductor it spreads 1 p
3 ... (ii)
on its surface. When some charge is given to 4 0 r4
insulator, it remains there, it do not spread, Free From equation (i) and (ii) the magnitude of change in
charges in conductor interact with added charge, so electric field w.r.t. distance is more in case of axis of
added charge spreads on surface to be in equilibrium. dipole as compared to equatorial plane.
15. (d) 37. (b)
16. (c) Electron having a charge of –1.6 × 10–19C undergoes 38. (b) The direction of electric field at equatorial point A or
annihilation with it’s antiparticle positron having a B will be in opposite direction, as that of direction of
charge of +1.6 × 10–19C as dipole moment.
e e
Net charge before annihilation A
19 19
= 1.6 10 C 1.6 10 C 0
Net charge after annihilation = 0 + 0 = 0
i.e., net charge remains same.
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) Electric field is directly proportional to the magnitude B
of charge and inversely proportional to the square of
P
the distance from the charge. Therefore charge +Q
produce a comparatively stronger electric field than +q 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a)
which get at cancelled with each other at a point closer 42. (a) Dipole is formed when two equal and unlike charges
to +q. are placed at a short distance.
22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d)
43. (b) Given : Dipole moment of the dipole = p and uniform
25. (b) If charge particle is put at rest in electric field, then it
will move along line of force. electric field = E . We know that dipole moment (p) = q.a
26. (d) For linear isotropic dielectric, (where q is the charge and a is dipole length). And when
polarization P = eE,
a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in uniform electric
P E,
27. (c) By Gauss Law field E , then Torque ( ) = Either force × perpendicular
28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (a) distance between the two forces = qaEsin or
N m2 J m pE sin or p E (vector form)
32. (c) S.I. unit of electric flux is =
C C
2kp kp
= Volt × m. 44. (b) We have Ea = and Ee = 3 ; Ea = 2Ee
3 r
r
EBD_7208
45. (a) 57. (c) Electric field near the conductor surface is given by
46. (c) +q and it is perpendicular to surface.
F1 0
58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b) 61. (d)
E1
F2
E2 62. (c) Like charges repel
–q
The electric field will be different at the location of force Unlike charges attract
on the two charges. Therefore the two charges will be To specify particular charge on body, term used is
unequal. This will result in a force as well as torque. polarity.
47. (c) On rubbing, plastic rod acquires negative charge,
cat’s fur acquires positive charge. There are only two
48. (b) Given : Dipole moment of the dipole = p and uniform kinds of charges: +, –.
electric field = E . We know that dipole moment (p) = q.a 63. (c) Milikan demonstrated the quantisation of charge
experimentally. Charge on electron = – e = –1.6 × 100–
(where q is the charge and a is dipole length). And when 19C. Addition of charge can occur in integral
a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in uniform electric multiples of e.
64. (b) Nuclear force binds the protons and neutrons in the
field E , then Torque ( ) = Either force × perpendicular nucleus of an atom.
distance between the two forces = qaEsin or 65. (b) (i) Electrostatic field is zero inside a charged
pE sin or p E (vector form) conductor or neutral conductor.
49. (b) (ii) Electrostatic field at the surface of a charged
50. (b) Gauss’s law is applicable only for closed surface and conductor must be normal to the surface at every
for the charge placed inside it not near it. point.
1 (iii) There is no net charge at any point inside the
Total electric flux, Q conductor and any excess charge must reside at
0
the surface.
51. (a) Gaussian surface cannot pass through any discrete 66. (d)
charge because electric field due to a system of discrete 67. (a) Consider a system of charges q1,q2, ..., qn with
charges is not well defined at the location of the charges. position vectors r1,r2 ...,rn relative to some origin O.
But the Gaussian surface can pass through a Like the field due to a single charage, electric field at
continuous charge distribution. a point in space due to the system of charges is
52. (a) Gauss's law is valid for any closed surface, no matter defined to be the force experienced by a unit test
what its shape or size. charge placed at that point,, without disturbing the
53. (a) According to Gauss’s law total electric flux through a original position of charges q1, q2, ..., qn. We can use
1 Coulomb’s law and the superposition principale to
closed surface is times the total charge inside that determine this field.
surface.
0
68. (a) Electric field lines start from positive charge and end at
q negative charge so they do not form closed loops.
Electric flux, E= 69. (b) In a uniform electric field E, dipole experiences a torque
0
Charge on -particle = 2e given by
2e p E
E= And potential energy of the dipole is
0
54. (c) The electric field due to an infinitely straight uniformly U – p.E
charged wire at any distance r 70. (a) Polar molecules have permanent electric dipole moment.
71. (d)
E 1
2 E MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
0r r
55. (c) E .dA 0, represents charge inside close surface is 72. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1) because total charge on L.H.S. is
zero. Electric field as any point on the surface may be equal to total charge on R.H.S. (C) (4) charge q is
zero. integer times the charge on an electron (D) (3) because
56. (a) Electric charge resides only on the surface of a both are positively charged.
spherical shell. According to Gauss's theorem the 73. (a) Electric dipole moment points from negative charge to
total electric flux over a closed surface is equal to the positive charge. Electric field points away from positive
1 charge. Electric flux is the scalar product of electric
times the total charge enclosed by the closed field and area vector and torque is vector product of
0 electric dipole moment and electric field.
surface.
charge 88. (a) The flux through the surface S is given by = ES cos .
74. (a) Linear charge density, = When surface is rotated takes values 45° 0° – 45°
Length
cos has maximum value at 0° therefore. The flux first
charge
Surface charge density, = increases, attain a maximum value and then decreases.
Area
89. (c) Since electric field due to a point charge is inversely
charge proportional to the square of distance therefore the
Volume charge density, =
volume field decreases at the place of surface S as the charge
75. (a) 76. (b)
+ Q moves away. Therefore the flux given by E S
1
77. (d) For a point sized dipole E , for an infinitely long also decreases.
r3 90. (a) Torque is given by t = pE sin q. When the dipole is
straight uniformly charged wire E 1 and for a point rotated from stable equillibrium to unstable equillibrium,
r takes values as 0° 90° 180° and sin takes
1 corresponding values as 0 1 0. Therefore torque
charge E .
r2 increases from 0, attains maximum value and then again
Therefore as distance decreases the increase in electric decreases to zero.
field is maximum for dipole [curve(c)], then for point 91. (c) The electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite
charge [curve (b)] and then for charged wire (curve
(a)). The electric field is constant for a uniformly charged plane sheet is given by E nˆ which is
2 0
plane sheet.
78. (c) independent of distance from the sheet. Therefore field
remains constant.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 92. (a) The flux is zero according to Gauss’ Law because it is a
open surface which enclosed a charge q.
79. (c) The weight mg of the charge hold in air is in equillibrium
with net electrostatic force exerted by the four charges ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
situated at the corners. The net electrostatic force is
given by the vector sum of the individual forces exerted 93. (a) Conservation of electric charge states that the total
by the charges at the corners. This is principle of charge of an isolated system remains unchanged with
superposition. time
Kq1q 2 94. (b) Both the statements are independently correct.
80. (d) From Coulomb’s law F = i.e., F 1 which is 95. (a) Because of repulsion, the free electrons will mole to the
r2 r2
correctly shown by graph (d). outer surface.
81. (d) 96. (c) Coulomb force and gravitational force follow the
82. (c) When charged rod is brought near uncharged same inverse-square law. But gravitational force has
conductor near end of conductor has opposite only one sign which is always attractive, while
charge.When for end of this conductor is connected coulomb force can be of both signs which are
is ground (i.e., earthed), charge of far end flows down attractive and repulasive.
to ground when for end connection and rod are 97. (d) Gravitational force is the dominating force in nature
removed charge on conductor spreads uniformly on and not coulomb's force. Gravitational force is the
surface. weakest force. Also, Coulomb's force > > gravitational
83. (a) For the distances close to the charge at x = 0 the field is force.
very high and is in positive direction of x-axis. As we 98. (b) Coulomb attraction exists even when one body is
move towards the other charge the net electric field charged, and the other is uncharged.
becomes zero at x = a thereafter the influence of charge 99. (c) qd = e, md = 2mp = 2m
at x = 2a dominates and net field increases in negative q = 2e, m = 4mp = 4m
direction of x-axis and grows unboundedly as we come F1 = F = eE, F2 = F = 2eE F1
closer and closer to the charge at x = 2a.
84. (b) The electric field around a charge propagates with the F1 eE
Further, a1
speed of light away from the charge. Therefore the 2m 2m
distance OP F2 2eE eE
required time = .
speed c and a 2 a1 s
2m 4m 2m
85. (c)
86. (a) Since lines of force starts from A and ends at B, so A is 100. (b) Force on any charge due to a number of other
+ve and B is –ve. Lines of forces are more crowded charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that
near A, so A > B. charge due to the other charges, taken one at a time.
The individual force are unaffected due to the
87. (d) Since electric field E decreases inside water, therefore presence of other charges. This is the principle of
flux .A also decreases. superposition of charges.
EBD_7208
101. (a) The electrostatic shielding is possible by metallic 116. (b) Here, q1 = 1 × 10–7C,
q2 and 2 × 10–7 C,
conductor. –2
r = 20 cm = 20 × 10 m
102. (c) The electric field will increase if positive charge is
brought in an electric field.
q1 q2
As F = 2
103. (b) If +ve charge is displaced along x-axis, then net force 4 0r
will always act in a direction opposite to that of
displacement and the test charge will always come back 9 109 1 10 7
2 10 7
to its original position. = = 4.5 × 10–3 N

(20 10 2 )2
104. (c) Statement-1 is correct. The induced field cancels the
external field. Statement-2 is false. When a current is 117. (b)
set up in a conductor, there exists an electric field 2q q –3q
inside it. P A B
105. (a) The electric field due to disc is superposition of electric d
field due to its constituent ring as given in Reason. Let a charge 2q be placed at P, at a distance I from
106. (d) Two field lines never intersect. A where charge q is placed, as shown in figure.
107. (b) Though the net charge on the conductor is still zero The charge 2q will not experience any force, when
but due to induction negatively charged region is nearer force, when force of repulsion on it due to q is
to the rod as compared to the positively charged region. balanced by force of attraction on it due to –3q at B
That is why the conductor gets attracted towards the where AB = d
rod.
108. (d) Electric field at any point depends on presence of all (2q)(q ) (2q )( 3q)
or 2
charges. 4 0 4 0( d )2
109. (a) The restoring torque brings it back to its stable ( + d)2 = 3 2
equillibrium.
or 2 2 – 2 d – d2 = 0
110. (d) The rate of decrease of electric field is different in the
two cases. In case of a point charge, it decreases as
2d 4d 2 2d 2 d 3d
1/r2 but in the case of electric dipole it decreases =
more rapidly, as E 1/r3. 4 2 2
111. (d) E.A EA cos , this value can be zero, if either E is d 3d

=
zero or = 90°. But it must show that net charge inside 2
close surface is zero. 118. (b) Here q1 = q2 = 3.2 × 10–7 C, r = 60 cm = 0.6 m
112. (a) Since for an infinitely long straight uniformly charged 1 q1q2
Electrostatic force, F =
wire, E on moving a distance two times the 4 0 r2
2 0r
initial distance away from wire, the distance from wire 9 109 (3.2 10 7 ) 2
= = 2.56 × 10–3 N
becomes 3r. Therefore final value of electric field (0.6) 2
E 119. (d) Let q charge is situated at the mid position of the line
E . AB. The distance between AB is x. A and B be the
2 0 3r 3
positions of charges Q and Q respectively.
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS A C B
Q Q
x q x
113. (b) On touching the metal knob with a positively charged
2 2
rod some electrons from the gold leaves get transferred x
to the rod making gold leaves positively charged and
they get separated. When a negatively charged rod is x x
Let AC , BC
touched with metal knob some negative charge flows 2 2
to the gold leaves lessening the positive charge there The force on A due to charge q at C,
and the separation between the leaves decreases.
114. (a) 1 Q.q
F CA . along AC
115. (b) Electrostatic force is given by 4 0 ( x / 2) 2
1 q1q 2 The force on A due to charge Q at B
F
4 0 r2 1 Q2
F AB . 2 along BA
Here, charge and distance are same. So, force between 4 0 x
two protons will be same
The system is in equilibrium, then two oppositely 124. (b) When a charge + q is placed at the centre of spherical
directed force must be equal, i.e., total force on A is as shown in figure.
equal to zero. +q
R2
F CA F AB 0 F CA F AB
–q
1 4Q.q –1 Q2
. . +q R1
4 0 x2 4 0 x2
Q
q
4
Charge induced on the inner surface of shell
120. (c) Let n be the number of electrons missing.
=–q ... (i)
1 q2 Charge induced on the outer surface of shell
F q 4 2
4 d2 0d F ne =+q ... (ii)
0
q
2 Surface charge density on the inner surface = 4 R 2
4 0 Fd
n 1
e2
125. (d) Here, D = 2r = 4.4 m, or = r = 2.2 m
121. (a) (Fnet )q 0 = 60 C m–2
Charge on the sphere, q = × 4 r2
Qq 4q 2 22
k k 0
2 2 = 60 × 10–6 × 4 × × (2.2)2 = 3.7 × 10–3 C
7
2 126. (c) Here, = 2.4 m, r = 4.6 mm = 4.6 × 10–3 m
q = – 4.2 × 10–7 C
/2 /2
q
q Q 4q Linear charge density,
1 7
where k 4.2 10
4 = = –1.75 ×10–7 C m–1
0 2.4
4Qq + 4q2 = 0
Q=–q Electric field, E = 2
0r
7
1 q2 1.75 10
122. (c) In vacuum, F …(i) = 12 3
r2 4 0 2 3.14 8.854 10 4.6 10
Suppose, force between the chrages is same when = –6.7 × 105 N C–1
charges are r distance apart in dielectric. q q 3
127. (b) E Ar q 4 o Ar
2 2
4 r 4 r
1 q2 o 0
F' …(ii) 128. (a) – eE = mg
4 0 kr '2
31
9.1 10 10
From (i) and (ii), kr'2 = r2 or, r kr ' E = 5.6 10
11
N/C
19
In the given situation, force between the charges would 1.6 10
be
kQ E r2 3 106 (2.5)2
129. (b) E Q
1 q2 4 q2 4F r2 k 9 109
F'
4 2 9 4 0r2 9
0 r r 3
4 2 10 C
2 2
130. (d) Unit positive charge at O will be repelled equally by
123. (d) They will not experience any force if | FG | | Fe | three charges at the three corners of triangle. By
symmetry, resultant E at O would be zero.
m2 1 q2 q 131. (a) Charge resides on the outer surface of a conducting
G . 4 0G
(16 10 2 )2 4 0 (16 10 2 ) 2 m hollow sphere of radius R. We consider a spherical
surface of radius r < R.
EBD_7208
By Gauss theorem
140. (c) Intensity of electric field due to a Dipole
++ +++
++ +
+ +
+ + p 1
+
+ R + E
+ +
E=
4 0r
3 3cos 2 1 r3
O
+ S +
+ r + 141. (d) When the dipole is in the direction of field then net
+ E +
+ + force is qE + (–qE) = 0
+ +
++
+ + ++ E
–q a q
1 1
E.ds charge enclosed or E 4 r 2 0
s 0 0 and its potential energy is minimum = – p.E.
E 0 = – qaE
i.e electric field inside a hollow sphere is zero. 142. (a) The torque on the dipole is given as
132. (a) Here, q = 1 C, 8.85 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2 = PE sin
Number of lines of force = Electric force The potential energy of the dipole in the electric field is
given as
q 1 U = – PE cos
= 12
= 1.13 × 1011
0 8.85 10
17 N 1
143. (b) 2.57 10 Cm 3.0 104
133. (d) Electric flux, = EA cos , where C 2
= angle between E and normal to the surface.
13
3.855 10 Nm.
Here 144. (d) Torque, p E pE sin
2
0 4 = p × 2 × 105 × sin 30°
134. (b) The flux for both the charges exactly cancels the effect 4
or, p = 4 10 5 Cm
of each other. 2 10 sin 30 5
135. (d) Dipole moment, p = q × l
136. (c) E (ds) cos E (2 r 2 ) cos 0º 2 r 2 E .
p 4 10 5
137. (a) For the curved surface, = 90º q 2 10 3 C 2mC
l 0.02
E ds cos90º 0 . 145. (b) Since = pE sin on decreasing the distance between
138. (d) According to Gauss’ Law the two charges, and on decreasing angle between
Q enclosed by closed surface the dipole and electric field, sin decreases therefore
E.ds flux torque decreases.
o 146. (c) If electric dipole, the flux coming out from positive
so total flux = Q/ o charge is equal to the flux coming in at negative
Since cube has six face, so flux coming out through one charge i.e. total charge on sphere = 0. From Gauss
wall or one face is Q/6 o. law, total flux passing through the sphere = 0.
139. (a) Given : Length of the dipole (2l) = 10cm = 0.1m or l = 147. (d) According to Gauss's theorem,
0.05 m
q
Charge on the dipole (q) = 500 C = 500 × 10–6 C and E ds Here ds 4 R2
distance of the point on the axis from the mid-point of 0
the dipole (r) = 20 + 5 = 25 cm = 0.25 m.
q / 4 R2
We know that the electric field intensity due to dipole E [ q / 4 R2 ]
on the given point (E) 0
1 2(q.2l )r or E / o
= 2 2 2
4 0 (r l ) Q in
148. (c) By Gauss’s theorem, =
6 0
2(500 10 0.1) 0.25
9 109 Thus, the net flux depends only on the charge enclosed
[(0.25) 2 (0.05) 2 ]2 by the surface. Hence, there will be no effect on the net
flux if the radius of the surface is doubled.
225 10 3
= 6.25 10 7 N / C (k = 1 for air)
3
3.6 10
17
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL
AND CAPACITANCE
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 7. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a
point A to point B, then
1. In a region of constant potential (a) VA – VB = + ve (b) VA – VB = 0
(a) the electric field is uniform (c) VA – VB = – ve (d) it is stationary
(b) the electric field is zero 8. An equipotential surface is that surface
(c) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is (a) on which each and every point has the same potential
placed outside the region (b) which has negative potential
(d) None of these (c) which has positive potential
2. The electric potential inside a conducting sphere (d) which has zero potential
(a) increases from centre to surface 9. To obtain 3 F capacity from three capacitors of 2 F each,
(b) decreases from centre to surface they will be arranged.
(c) remains constant from centre to surface (a) all the three in series
(d) is zero at every point inside (b) all the three in parallel
3. It becomes possible to define potential at a point in an electric (c) two capacitors in series and the third in parallel with
field because electric field the combinatioin of first two
(a) is a conservative field (d) two capacitors in parallel and the third in series with
(b) is a non-conservative field the combinatioin of first two
(c) is a vector field 10. There are two metallic spheres of same radii but one is
(d) obeys principle of superposition solid and the other is hollow, then
4. Which of the following about potential at a point due to a (a) solid sphere can be given more charge
given point charge is true ? (b) hollow sphere can be given more charge
The potential at a point P due to a given point charge (c) they can be charged equally (maximum)
(a) is a function of distance from the point charge. (d) None of the above
(b) varies inversely as the square of distance from the point 11. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another
charge. over an equipotential surface, then
(c) is a vector quantity (a) work is done on the charge
(d) is directly proportional to the square of distance from (b) work is done by the charge
the point charge. (c) work done is constant
5. Which of the following quantities do not depend on the choice (d) no work is done
of zero potential or zero potential energy? 12. On moving a charge of Q coulomb by X cm, W J of work is
(a) Potential at a point done, then the potential difference between the points is
(b) Potential difference between two points W Q Q2
(c) Potential energy of a two-charge system (a) V (b) QW V (c) V (d) V
Q W W
(d) None of these
6. A cube of a metal is given a positive charge Q. For this 13. The positive terminal of 12 V battery is connected to the
system, which of the following statements is true? ground. Then the negative terminal will be at
(a) Electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero (a) – 6 V (b) + 12 V (c) zero (d) – 12 V
(b) Electric potential within the cube is zero 14. The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can
(c) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube withstand without break-down is called its
(d) Electric field varies within the cube (a) permittivity (b) dielectric constant
(c) electric susceptibility (d) dielectric strength
EBD_7208
266 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
15. The potential energy of a system of two charges is negative 24. Energy is stored in a capacitor in the form of
when (a) electrostatic energy (b) magnetic energy
(a) both the charges are positive (c) light energy (d) heat energy
(b) both the charges are negative 25. If in a parallel plate capacitor, which is connected to a battery,
(c) one charge is positive and other is negative we fill dielectrics in whole space of its plates, then which of
(d) both the charges are separated by infinite distance the following increases?
16. The electric potential at a point on the equatorial line of an (a) Q and V (b) V and E
electric dipole is
(c) E and C (d) Q and C
(a) directly proportional to distance
26. A capacitor works in
(b) inversely proportional to distance
(c) inversely proportional to square of the distance (a) A. C. circuits (b) D. C. circuits
(d) None of these (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
17. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform elecric field. it 27. In a charged capacitor, the energy is stored in
experiences (a) the negative charges
(a) a force and a torque (b) the positive charges
(b) a force but not a torque (c) the field between the plates
(c) a torque but not a force (d) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither a force nor a torque 28. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced
18. The value of electric potential at any point due to any electric between the plates of a capacitor. The capacitance of the
dipole is capacitor
p r p r (a) decreases (b) remains unchanged
(a) k. (b) k.
r 2
r3 (c) becomes infinite (d) increases
p.r
29. The potential gradient at which the dielectric of a
p.r
(c) k. (d) k. condenser just gets punctured is called
r2 r3
(a) dielectric constant (b) dielectric strength
19. An electric dipole of moment p is placed normal to the lines (c) dielectric resistance (d) dielectric number
of force of electric intensity E , then the work done in 30. When air in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of
deflecting it through an angle of 180° is dielectric constant K, the capacity
(a) pE (b) + 2pE (a) decreases K times (b) increases K times
(c) – 2pE (d) zero (c) increases K2 times (d) remains constant
20. The energy required to charge a parallel plate condenser 31. A parallel plate condenser is immersed in an oil of dielectric
of plate separation d and plate area of cross-section A constant 2. The field between the plates is
such that the uniform electric field between the plates is
(a) increased, proportional to 2
E, is
1 1
(a) E2Ad (b) 2 (b) decreased, proportional to
0 E Ad 2
2
1 (c) increased, proportional to – 2
(c) 2 E2/Ad
0 E /Ad (d)
2 1
21. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that (d) decreased, proportional to
2
the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance
of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is 32. A conductor carries a certain charge. When it is connected
(a) zero (b) 10 V (c) 4 V (d) 10/3 V to another uncharged conductor of finite capacity, then the
22. A charge is brought from a point on the equatorial plane of a energy of the combined system is
dipole to its mid-point. Which of the following quantities (a) more than that of the first conductor
remains constant ? (b) less than that of the first conductor
(a) Electric field (c) equal to that of the first conductor
(b) Force on the charge brought. (d) uncertain
(c) Torque exerted by the charge on dipole. 33. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity C which has
(d) Electric potential been raised to a potential V is given by
23. On decreasing the distance between the plates of a parallel
plate capacitor, its capacitance 1 1
(a) u = CV (b) u = CV2
(a) remains unaffected 2 2
(b) decreases 1
(c) first increases then decreases. (c) u = CV (d) u =
2VC
(d) increases
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 267
34. Capacitiors are used in electrical circuits where applicances 44. Which of the following is / are true about the principle of
need more Van de Graaff generator?
(a) voltage (b) current (a) The action of sharp points.
(c) resistance (d) power (b) The charge given to a hollow conductor is tranferred
35. The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10–18 coulomb on to outer surface and is distributed uniformly over it.
a condenser of capacity 100 micro-farad is (c) It is used for accelerating uncharged particle.
(a) 3.1 × 10–26 joule (b) 4 × 10–10 joule (d) Both (a) and (b)
–32
(c) 32 × 10 joule (d) 16 × 10–232 joule
36. An arrangement which consists of two conductors STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
separated by a dielectric medium is called 45. Which of the following about potential difference between
(a) resistor (b) inductor any two points is true?
(c) rectifier (d) capacitor
I. It depends only on the initial and final position.
37. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by
II. It is the work done per unit positive charge in moving
(a) increasing the distance between the plates
(b) increasing the thickness of the plates from one point to other.
(c) decreasing the thickness of the plates III. It is more for a positive charge of two units as compared
(d) decreasing the distance between the plates to a positive charge of one unit.
38. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides (a) I only (b) II only
(a) in the positive charges. (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(b) in both the positive and negative charges.
(c) in the field between the plates. 46. An electric dipole of moment P is placed in a uniform
(d) around the edges of the capacitor plates.
electric field E . Then which of the following is/are
39. The resultant capacitance of n condenser of capacitances
C1, C2 .... Cn connected in series is given by correct?
1 1 1 I. The torque on the dipole is p E .

(a) Cs ........
C1 C2 Cn
II. The potential energy of the system is p . E .
1 1 1
(b) ........ III. The resultant force on the dipole is zero.
Cs C1 Cn
(a) I, II and II (b) I and III
(c) Cs = C1 + C2 + ..... + Cn
(d) Cs = C1 – C2 + ..... – Cn
40. The resultant capacity of n condensers of capacitances C 1, 47. Consider the following statements and select the correct
C2 .... Cn connected in parallel is option
(a) Cp = Cl + C2 + ....... + Cn I. In an external electric field, the positive and negative
(b) Cp = Cl – C2 – C3 ....... – Cn charges of a non–polar molecule are displaced in
1 1 1 1 opposite directions.
(c) ......
Cp C1 C2 Cn II. In non –polar molecules displacement stops when
the external force on the constituent charges of the
1 1 1
(d) Cp ...... molecule is balanced by the restoring force.
C1 C2 Cn
III. The non–polar molecule develops an induced dipole
41. ...X... is a machine that can build up high voltages of the moment.
order of a few million volts. Here, A refers to
(a) Dynamo (b) Van De Graaff generator
(c) DC generator (d) AC generator
42. In case of a Van de Graaff generator, the breakdown field 48. Consider the following statements and select the correct
of air is statement(s).
(a) 2 × 108 V m–1 (b) 3 × 106 V m–1 I. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to
(c) 2 × 10 V m8 –1 (d) 3 × 104 V m–1 equipotential surface.
43. Van de Graaff generator is used to II. No two equipotential surfaces can intersect each other.
(a) store electrical energy III. Electric field lines are in the direction of tangent to an
(b) build up high voltage of few million volts
equipotential surface.
(c) decelerate charged particle like electrons
(d) both (a) and (b)
EBD_7208
49. The energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor is given by (C) Electric potential due (3) Varies inversly
2 to a charge at its own of radius
Q location is not defined
VE . Now which of the following statements is not
2C (D) Electric potential due (4) Infinite
true ? to uniformly charged
solid non-conducting
I. The work done in charging a capacitor is stored in the sphere
form of electrostatic potential energy given by (a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2)
Q2
expression VE = (c) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (4)
2C (d) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
II. The net charge on the capacitor is Q. 54. When a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of one
III. The magnitude of the net charge on one plate of a of the two identical capacitors shown in the figure then match
capacitor is Q. the following:
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III A
50. Which of the following statements is/are correct for V
equipotential surface ?
I. The potential at all the points on an equipotential B
surface is same.
II. Equipotential surfaces never intersect each other. Column-I Column -II
III. Work done in moving a charge from one point to other (A) Charge on A (1) Increases
on an equipotential surface is zero. (B) Potential difference (2) Decreases
(a) I only (b) II only across A
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (C) Potential difference (3) Remains constant
51. When a metal plate is introduced between the two plates of a across B
charged capacitor and insulated from them, then which (D) Charge on B (4) Cannot say
of following statement(s) is/are correct ? (a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (2); (D) (1)
I. The metal plate divides the capacitor into two
(b) (A) (1); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (2)
capacitors connected in parallel to each other
(c) (A) (2); (B) (2); (C) (2); (D) (4)
II. The metal plate divides the capacitors into two
(d) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (2); (D) (3)
capacitors connected in series with each other
III. The metal plate is equivalent to a dielectric of zero 55. Match the entries of Column I and Column II
dielectric constant Column I Column II
(a) I only (b) II only (A) Inside a conductor (1) Potential energy = 0
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III placed in an external
52. Consider the followoing statements regarding series grouping electric field.
of capacitors and select the correct statements. (B) At the centre of a dipole (2) Electric field = 0
I. Charge on each capacitor remains same and equals to (C) Dipole in stable (3) Electric potential = 0
the main charge supplied by the battery. equilibrium
II. Potential difference and energy distributes in the (D) Electric dipole (4) Torque = 0
reverse ratio of capacitance.
perpendicular to
III. Effective capacitance is even les than the least of teh
uniform electric field.
individual capacitances.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (a) (A) (2); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III (b) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2)
56. Match the types of capacitors in Column I and expressions
53. Match the Column I and Column II. of capacitances in Column II.
Column-I Column -II Column I Column II
(A) Electric potential near (1) Negative
an isolated positive 0 KA
(A) Spherical capacitor (1)
charge d
(B) Electric potential near (2) Positive
A
an isolated negative (B) Cylindrical capacitor (2)
0
charge d
2 0
(C) Parallel plate capacitor (3)
r (a) (b)
air filled ln 2
r1 V V
4 0 r1 r2
(D) Parallel plate capacitor (4)
r1 r2
with dielectric slab
P A O B Q P A O B Q
between the plates.
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (2)
(c) (d)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
V V
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
57. In the given circuit diagram, both capacitors are initially
uncharged. The capacitance C1 = 2F and C2 = 4F emf of
battery A and B are 2V and 4V respectively. P A O B Q P A O B Q
C2 59. In which of the following cases is the electric field zero but
C1
potential is not zero at a point on x-axis ?
S1 y y
(a) (b)
A
S2
+q –q –q +q
B x x
(– a, 0) (a, 0) (– a, 0) (a, 0)
Column - I Column - II
(Magnitude only)
64
(A) On closing switch S1 (1)
3
with S2 open work done
y y
by battery A is
(B) Switch S1 is open and (2) 4 (c) (d)
(0, a) + q (0, a) + q
S2 is closed, work done
by battery B is
x x
(C) Charge on capacitor (3) 8
C2 is (after S1 open
and S2 closed) (0, – a) – q
(0, – a) + q
16
(D) Charge on C1 when (4)
3
60. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body placed in an
both are closed
electric field. Which of the quantities are zero inside the body?
(5) zero
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (2)

58. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation
of electric potential due to uniformly charged thin spherical (a) Electric field and potential
shell with its centre at origin, as we move from point P to Q (b) Electric field and charge density
along x-axis? (c) Electric potential and charge density.
(d) Electric field, potential and charge density.
61. The following figures show an electric dipole in four
orientations in uniform electric field. Arrange them in
P A O B Q X increasing order of potential energy.
EBD_7208
(a) 100 Vm–1 along X-axis
(i) (ii) +Q
+Q –Q (b) 100 Vm–1 along Y-axis
(c) 200 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
(d) 50 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
–Q
66. Four points a, b, c and d are set at equal distance from the
(iii) (iv) centre of a dipole as shown in figure. The electrostatic
+Q +Q
potential Va, Vb, Vc, and Vd would satisfy the following
relation: a
–Q – Q (a) Va > Vb > Vc > Vd +q
(b) Va > Vb = Vd > Vc d b
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (c) Va > Vc = Vb = Vd
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (d) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) –q
(d) Vb = Vd > Va > Vc
62. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The c
67. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in
electric potential is the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a
circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the
A
B ® potential energy of the system is
q3
k , , where k is
E 4 0
C q3
C
(a) maximum at B
(b) maximum at C
(c) same at all the three points A, B and C 40 cm
(d) maximum at A
63. The figure shows the electric dipole placed along x-axis. As q2
q1
we move from point A to point B potential changes from
B +q –q A A 30 cm B D
x
(a) positive to negative (b) negative to positive (a) 8q1 (b) 6q1 (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2
(c) positive to zero (d) does not change 68. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect
64. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as shown. Let to distance (s) from centre as
E be the electric field and V the potential at the centre. If the (a) (b)
charges on A and B are interchanged with those on D and C
respectively, then V V
q q
A B S S
(c) (d)
V V
D C
q q
S S
(a) E changes, V remains unchanged 69. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain charge
is carried from point A to B, C, D and E. Then the work
(b) E remains unchanged, V changes
done is
(c) both E and V change A
(d) E and V remain unchanged
65. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then the
electric field strength will be
+q
Y B E
10V 20V 30V C D
O(cm)
30º (a) least along the path AB

X
10 20 30 (cm) (b) least along the path AD
(c) zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD and AE
(d) least along AE
70. Which of the following graphs show the correct variation of (a) The potential energy is positive in case I and negative
magnitude of potential energy of a dipole when rotated from in case II.
stable equillibrium to unstable equillibrium? (b) The potential energy is negative in case I and positive
in case II.
(a) (b) (c) The potential energy is same in both the cases and is
PE PE
negative.
U( ) U( ) (d) The potential energy is same in both the cases and is
positive.
O O 73. Figure shows a system of three positive charges placed at
/2 /2
the vertices of an equilateral triangle. To decrease the
potential energy of the system,
–PE
–PE
+q
(c) PE (d) PE
U( ) U( )
+q +q
O O
/2 /2
(a) a positive charge should be placed at centroid
(b) a negative charge should be placed at centroid.
–PE –PE (c) distance between the charges should be decreased.
71. Figure shows two hollow charged conductors A and B having
same positive surface charge densities. B is placed inside A (d) it should be rotated by an angle of radian.
2
and does not touches it. On connecting them with a conductor
74. Which of the following figure shows the correct equipotential
A surfaces of a system of two positive charges?
B
(a) (b)
+ + + +
(a) charge will flow from A to B

(b) charge will flow from B to A (c) (d)
(c) charge oscillates between A and B
(d) No charge will flow. + + + +
72. Figure shows a charge + Q placed at origin. Another charge
+ q is brought from infinity to (9, 0, 0) from positive direction
of x-axis in case I and from infinity to (–9, 0, 0) from negative
direction of x-axis in case II. Which one of the following is
true? 75. Two equipotential surfaces S1 and S2 are around a charge q.
z
A test charge is moved from S1 to S2 along the paths APB
and AEC as shown in figure. The work done is
(–9,0,0) A
(a) more in case of APB P
O y
+Q (b) more in case of AEC B
E
(c) same in both the cases q
(9,0,0)
(d) cannot say S C
x
S
EBD_7208
76. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b>a) are 79. A parallel plate capacitor
placed concentrically in air. The two are connected by a is located horizontally
copper wire as shown in figure. Then the equivalent such that one of the
capacitance of the system is
B plates is submerged in a
ab b liquid while the other is
(a) 4 0 A
b a above the liquid surface.
a When plates are charged
(b) 4 0 (a b) Liquid
the level of liquid Charged
(c) 4 0b (a) rises
(d) 4 0a (b) falls
(c) remains unchanged
77. A parallel plate capacitor is charged in air (dielectric constant
(d) may rise or fall depending on the of charge amount
= 1.0006). For time 0 to t1 only air is in between the plates of
capacitor. For time t1 to t2 only water (dielectric constant = 80. What is the effective capacitance between points X and Y?
81) and for time t2 to t3 only glycerine (dielectric constant = (a) 24 F C1 = 6 F
56) is there in between the plates of capacitor. Which of the (b) 18 F
following graphs shows the correct variation of capacitance C3 = 6 F C5 = 20 F C2 = 6 F
(c) 12 F X Y
C with time t qualitatively? A C B D
(d) 6 F C4 = 6 F
81. The capacitor, whose capacitance

C is 6, 6 and 3 F respectively are
C 6 F 6 F 3 F
connected in series with 20 volt
(a) (b) line. Find the charge on 3 F.
(a) 30 c
O t1 t2 t3 O t1 t2 t3 (b) 60 F
t t (c) 15 F
20 F
(d) 90 F
82. The effective capacitance of combination of equal capacitors
between points A and B shown in figure is
C C
C C
(c) (d)
C C C
O O
t1 t2 t3 t1 t2 t3
t C C
t A B
78. Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii r 1 and C C C

r2 (r2 > r1) are placed concentrically in air. A1 is given a
charge +Q while A2 is earthed. Then the equivalent
capacitance of the system is
C
(a) C (b) 2C (c) 3C (d)
2
A2
– –
83. In the circuit given below, the charge in C, on the capacitor
+ +
A1 r1 having capacitance 5 F is
+ + 3 F 2 F
– r2 – d
e
f 5 F
c
4 0 r1r2
4 F
a + b
(a) (b) 4 0 (r1 r2 )
r2 r1 6V
(c) 4 0 r2 (d) 4 0 r1 (a) 4.5 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 15
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 93. Assertion : Dielectric polarisation means formation of
positive and negative charges inside the dielectric.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Reason: Free electrons are formed in this process.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 94. Assertion : In the absence of an external electric field, the
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You dipole moment per unit volume of a polar dielectric is zero.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : The dipoles of a polar dielectric are randomly
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct oriented.
explanation for assertion. 95. Assertion : For a point charge, concentric spheres centered
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a at a location of the charge are equipotential surfaces.
correct explanation for assertion Reason : An equipotential surface is a surface over which
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect potential has zero value.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 96. Assertion : Electric energy resides out of the spherical
isolated conductor.
84. Assertion: The potential difference between any two points
Reason : The electric field at any point inside the conductor
in an electric field depends only on initial and final position.
is zero.
Reason: Electric field is a conservative field so the work done
97. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each
per unit positive charge does not depend on path followed.
other.
85. Assertion : Electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each
Reason: The potential at all the points inside a conductor is
same. other.
86. Assertion : Electric field is discontinuous across the surface 98. Assertion. Two equipotential surfaces can be orthogonal.
of a spherical charged shell. Reason: Electric field lines are normal to the equipotential
Reason : Electric potential is continuous across the surface surface.
of a spherical charged shell. 99. Assertion. The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential
87. Assertion : Work done in moving a charge between any two surface.
points in an electric field is independent of the path followed Reason: The electric potential at any point on equatorial
by the charge, between these points. plane is zero.
Reason: Electrostatic force is a non conservative force. 100. Assertion: The electric potential at any point on the equatorial
88. Assertion : Two adjacent conductors of unequal plane of a dipole is zero.
dimensions, carrying the same positive charge have a Reason: The work done in bringing a unit positive charge
potential difference between them. from infinity to a point in equatorial plane is equal for the two
Reason : The potential of a conductor depends upon the charges of the dipole.
charge given to it. 101. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across
89. Assertion : Electric potential and electric potential energy battery through a key. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant
are different quantities. k is introduced between the plates. The energy stored
Reason : For a system of positive test charge and point becomes k times.
charge electric potential energy = electric potential. Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains
90. Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring constant.
with net charge is zero, the electric field at any point on axis 102. Assertion : Two metal plates having charges Q, –Q face
of the ring is zero. each other at some separation and are dipped into an oil
tank. If the oil is pumped out, the electric field between the
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with
plates increases.
net charge zero, the electric potential at each point on axis of
Eair
the ring is zero. Reason : Electric field between the plates, Emed .
91. Assertion : For a charged particle moving from point P to
103. Assertion : When a dielectric slab is gradually inserted
point Q, the net work done by an electrostatic field on the
between the plates of an isolated parallel-plate capacitor,
particle is independent of the path connecting point P to
the energy of the system decreases.
point Q.
Reason : The force between the plates decreases.
Reason : The net work done by a conservative force on an
104. Assertion : A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a
object moving along a closed loop is zero.
battery connected capacitor. The energy of the capacitor
92. Assertion : Polar molecules have permanent dipole moment.
increases.
Reason : In polar molecules, the centres of positive and
negative charges coincide even when there is no external 1
Reason : Energy of the capacitor, U CV 2 .
field. 2
EBD_7208
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 112. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at
each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for
105. A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is
another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger radius.
1
Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral. Then (a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
(a) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders q
when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder.
1
(b) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders (c) Q = q (d) Q =
when a charge density is given to the outer cylinder. q
(c) no potential difference appears between the two 113. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The
cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept along the electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the
axis of the cylinders sphere respectively are:
(d) no potential difference appears between the two Q
(a) Zero and
cylinders when same charge density is given to both 4 0R 2
the cylinders. Q
106. Two equally charged spheres of radii a and b are connected (b) and Zero
4 0R
together. What will be the ratio of electric field intensity on
their surfaces? Q Q
(c) and 2
a a 2
b b 2 4 0R 4 0R
(a) (b) (c ) (d)
b b2 a a2 (d) Both are zero
107. A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an 114. In a region, the potential is represented by
electric dipole in the end-on position experiences a force V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z
F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the force acting are in metres. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2
on the change will be coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is
(a) 2F (b) F / 2 (a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N
(c) F / 4 (d) F / 8
108. An electric charge 10–3 m C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of (c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
X – Y co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are situated at 115. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 having
charges Q1 and Q2 respectively are connected to each
( )
2, 2 and (2, 0) respectively. The potential difference other. There is
(a) no change in the energy of the system
between the points A and B will be
(b) an increase in the energy of the system
(a) 4.5 volt (b) 9 volt
(c) always a decrease in the energy of the system
(c) zero (d) 2 volt
(d) a decrease in the energy of the system unless
109. The potential at a point x (measured in m) due to some
Q1R2 = Q2R1
charges situated on the x-axis is given by V(x) = 20/(x2 – 4) 116. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a
volt battery. Now the distance between the plates of the capacitor
The electric field E at x = 4 m is given by is increased. Which of the following remains constant ?
(a) (10/9) volt/ m and in the +ve x direction (a) Capacitance
(b) (5/3) volt/ m and in the –ve x direction (b) Charge on each plate of the capacitor.
(c) (5/3) volt/ m and in the +ve x direction (c) Potential difference between the plates of capacitor
(d) Energy stored in the capacitor.
(d) (10/9) volt/ m and in the –ve x direction
117. Two vertical metallic plates carrying equal and opposite
dv charges are kept parallel to each other like a parallel plate
110. The expression E implies, that electric field is in that
dr capacitor. A small spherical metallic ball is suspended by a
direction in which long insulated thread such that it hangs freely in the centre
(a) increase in potential is steepest. of the two metallic plates. The ball, which is uncharged, is
(b) decrease in potential is steepest. taken slowly towards the positively charged plate and is
(c) change in potential is minimum. made to touch that plate. Then the ball will
(d) None of these (a) stick to the positively charged plate
111. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q and – Q face (b) come back to its original position and will remain
each other ata certain distance between them. If the plates there
are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between (c) oscillate between the two plates touching each plate
the plates will in turn
(a) remain same (b) become zero (d) oscillate between the two plates without touch them
(c) increases (d) decrease
118. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of force constant 123. A capacitor of capacity C1 is charged upto V volt and
K, the maximum force of attraction between two charges, then connected to an uncharged capacitor of capacity C2.
separated by a distance Then final potential difference across each will be
(a) decreases K-times (b) increases K-times
C 2V C2
1 (a) (b) 1 V
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes times C1 C 2 C1
K2
119. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. What C1V C2
is the effect of increasing the plate separation on charge, (c) (d) 1 V
C1 C 2 C1
potential, capacitance, respectively?
(a) Constant, decreases, decreases 124. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates is
(b) Increases, decreases, decreases charged to a potential difference of 500V and then insulated.
(c) Constant, decreases, increases A plastic plate is inserted between the plates filling the whole
(d) Constant, increases, decreases gap. The potential difference between the plates now
120. A foil of aluminium of negligible thickness is inserted in becomes 75V. The dielectric constant of plastic is
between the space of a parallel plate condenser. If the foil is (a) 10/3 (b) 5 (c) 20/3 (d) 10
electrically insulated, the capacity of the condenser will 125. From a supply of identical capacitors rated 8 mF, 250V, the
minimum number of capacitors required to form a composite
16 mF, 1000V is
Foil (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 32
126. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected
to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric
slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of
(a) increase (b) decrease
the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is
(c) remain unchanged (d) become zero
incorrect ?
121. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal
(a) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
charges combine to form a big drop. Then the capacitance
of bigger drop compared to each individual small drop is 1 1
(b) The chance in energy stored is CV 2 –1
(a) 8 times (b) 4 times 2 K
(c) 2 times (d) 32 times
(c) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
122. A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as
(d) The potential difference between the plates decreases
shown. Area of each plate is A m2 and the separation is
K times.
t m. The dielectric constants are k1 and k2 respectively.
127. In a Van de Graaff generator, a spherical metal shell is to
Its capacitance in farad will be
be 15 × 106 V electrode. The dielectric strength of the gas
surrounding the electrode is 5 × 107V m–1. The minimum
k1 k2 radius of the spherical shell required is
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m
(c) 1.5 m (d) 3 m
A A k1 k 2
(a) (k1 + k2) (b) .
t t 2
2 A A k1 k2
(c) (k1 + k2) (d) .
t t 2
EBD_7208
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 18. (d) V k

p.r k pr cos
r3 r3
1. (b)
2. (c) Electric potential inside a conductor is constant and it k
p cos
.
is equal to that on the surface of the conductor. r2
3. (a) Potential energy is defined only in case of conservative 19. (d) W = PE(cos 90° – cos 270°) = 0.
forces like electrostatic force (and due to which 20. (a) Energy required to charge the capacitor is W = U =
electrostatic field is a conservative field). It is not defined QV
for non-conservative forces like friction.
0 A .V 2 0 Ad 2
U = CV2 = = 2
.V = E2Ad
1 q d d
4. (a) Since V , for a given point charge, q is
4 0 r V
. E
d
constant, therefore V depends only on r. Hence V is a
21. (b) Potential at any point inside the sphere = potential at
function of distance.
the surface of the sphere = 10V.
5. (b) 22. (d) The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential
6. (d) Surface of metallic cube is an equipotential surface. surface, therefore potential remains constant.
Therefore, electric field is normal to the surface of the
A
cube. 23. (d) Since capacitance C 0
, as d decreases capacitance
7. (b) 8. (a) d
increases.
2 2
9. (c) C= 2 3 F 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b)
2 2 30. (b) Cmedium = K × Cair
10. (c) Because in case of metallic spheres either solid or 31. (b) In oil, C becomes twice, V becomes half. Therefore,
hollow, the charge will reside on the surface of the E = V/d becomes half.
sphere. Since both spheres have same surface area, 32. (b) Energy will be lost during transfer of charge (heating
so they can hold equal maximum charge. effect).
11. (d) On the equipotential surface, electric field is normal
33. (b)
v 1 2
to the charged surface (where potential exists) so that U CV dV CV
0 2
no work will be done.
34. (b)
12. (a) Potential difference between two points in a electric
field is, 1 q2 (8 10 18 )2
35. (c) Work done = = = 32 × 10–32 J
W 2 C 2 100 10 6
VA VB
q0 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) Van De graff generator is a machine that can built up
13. (d) When negative terminal is grounded, positive terminal high voltages of the order of a few million volts. The
of battery is at +12 V. When positive terminal is resulting large electric fields are used to accelerate
grounded, the negative terminal will be at –12 V. charged particles (electrons, protons, ions) to high
14. (d) energies needed for experiments to probe the small
15. (c) The potential energy is negative whenever there is scale structure of matter.
attraction. Since a positive and negative charge attract 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d)
each other therefore their energy is negative. When
both the charges are separated by infinite distance, STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
they do not attract each other and their energy is zero.
W
16. (d) 45. (c) Since V , more work will be done for a positive
Q
17. (a) As the dipole will feel two forces, which are although charge of two units as compared to positive charge of
opposite but not equal.
W
A net force will be there and as these forces act one unit, but the ratio is same. Therefore potential
Q
at different points of a body, a torque is also present.
difference is same.
46. (b) In a uniform electric field E , dipole experiences a 1

W.d. by battery B, = 2 CV22
2
torque given by = p E but experiences no
force. The potential energy of the dipole in a uniform 1 4 2 64
2 42 = J
2 4 2 3
electric field E is U = – p . E
47. (d) In an external electric field, the positive and negative q2 CV
4 2
4
16
charges of a non-polar molecule are displaced in 4 2 3
opposite directions. The displacement stops when
q1 C1V1 2 2 4
the external force on the constituent charges of the
molecule is balanced by the restoring force (due to
internal fields in the molecule). The non-polar molecule
thus develops an induced dipole moment. The 58. (b) For regions outside the spherical shell potential is given
dielectric is said to be polarised by the external field.
48. (c) Electric field lines are always perpendicular to 1 Q 1 and it increases as we come
by V , i.e. V
equipotential surface so, they cannot be in a direction 4 0 r r
of tangent to an equipotential surface. closer to the spherical shell. Therefore potential
49. (b) There is equal and opposite charge on the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor. Therefore there is no net charge 1
increases as we move from P to A according to V .
on capacitor. r
50. (d) Since potential at every point on an equipotential surface For the regions inside the shell potential has a constant
is same therefore, for any two points on equipotential value at that on the surface, hence it remains constant
surface the potential difference is zero. for A to B. After B as we move away from the spherical
51. (b) 52. (d)
1
shell it decreases as V .
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS r
53 (a) A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3 59. (c) In this case electric fields due to the two charges at
54. (b) If V is the potential applied across the capacitor then origin are just equal and opposite and thus cancel each
other whereas potential due to the two charges add up
V
p.d. across each capacitor will be . When and is not zero.
2
60. (b) Electric field is always zero inside a conductor.
A- 1 : dielectric is inserted in capacitor B, then
If there is any excess of charge on a hollow conductor
B- 1 : V1 V2 V
it always resides on the outer surface of conductor.
C- 2 : and CV1 kCV2 Therefore inside a hollow conductor there is no charge
D-2 : On solving above equations, we get and hence charge density is zero.
61. (d) The potential energy of a dipole in uniform electric field
kV V
V1 and V2 . is given by
k 1 k 1
Clearly potential of A increases and that of B decreases. U p E pE cos .
Initial charges on the capacitors are : (i) For = 180°,
CV CV U = –pE cos 180° = pE. This is maximum value.
q1 , q2
2 2 (ii) For = 90°, U = – pE cos 90° = 0
charges : (iii) For 90° < < 180°,
kCV CV cos is negative and hence U is positive.
q1' CV1 and q2' .
k 1 k 1 (iv) For 0° < < 90°,
Charge on capacitor A will increase, and on B will decrease. cos is positive and hence U is negative.
55. (b) A (2); B (3); C (4); D (1) Therefore the correct increasing order is (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
56. (d) A (4); B (3); C (2); D (1) 62. (a) Potential at B, VB is maximum
57. (d) A (3); B (1); C (4); D (2) VB > VC > VA
As in the direction of electric field potential decreases.
1
W.d. by battery A, = 2 C1V12 2 22 8J 63. (b) The potential due to dipole at any arbitrary point P is
2
given by
EBD_7208
66. (b)
P 67. (c) We know that potential energy of discrete system of
charges is given by
r
q1q 2 q2 q3
1 q3q1
U
B +q –q A 4 0 r12 r23 r31
O According to question,
1 q1q 2 q 2q3 q3q1
1 P cos Uinitial =
V 4
4 r2 0 0.3 0.5 0.4
0
1 q1q 2 q 2q3 q3q1

For A, 180 Ufinal =
4 0 0.3 0.1 0.4
1 P cos180 1 P a negative
VA q 2q3 q 2 q3
4 r2 4 r2 1
0 0 Ufinal – Uinitial =
4 0 0.1 0.5
quantity.
For B, = 0°. 1 q3
= 10q 2q3 2q 2q3 = (8q 2 )
1 P cos 0 1 P 4 0 4 0
VB a positive quantity..
4 0 r2 4 0 r2 68. (b) In shell, q charge is uniformly distributed over its
Therefore as we move from A to B potential change surface, it behaves as a conductor.
from negative to positive. +
64. (a) As shown in the figure, the resultant electric fields +
+
q
before and after interchanging the charges will have
the same magnitude, but opposite directions. R +
+
Also, the potential will be same in both cases as it is a + +
scalar quantity. +
q q q q q
A B A
V= potential at surface and inside
B 4
E 0R
q
V
4 0R
E
D C D C Because of this it behaves as an equipotential surface.
q q q q 69. (c) ABCDE is an equipotential surface, on equipotential
surface no work is done in shifting a charge from one
65. (c) Using dV = – E. d r place to another.
10V 70. (d) The potential energy of a dipole placed in uniform
V=–E r cos 20V
4E electric field is given by
V 30º 30º
E= r U p E pE cos
r cos
pE cos .
(20 10) For stable equillibrium = 0° and for unstable
E= 2
10 10 cos120 equillibrium = 180°. Therefore the correct variation is
shown by graph of – cos from 0 to with maximum
10
= and minimum values pE and – pE respectively.
2
10 10 (– sin 30 ) 71. (b) Irrespective of the charges on the inner and outer
conductors, the inner conductor is always at a higher
102 potential as long as the charge on inner conductor is
= = 200 V / m
1/ 2 not zero. Therefore charge flows from B to A. When
Direction of E be perpendicular to the equipotential the whole charge of B flows to A and charge on B
surface i.e. at 120° with X-axis. becomes zero then A and B are at same potential.
72. (d) The potential energy of a system of two charges q1
and q2 is given by
6 F C2
1 q1 q 2 C1 6 F
U where r12 is the distance between the 6F
4 0 r12
X C5 6F F Y
charges. Here q1 = + Q and q2 = + q. Distance between C3 6 F
both the charges is same in both the cases which is 6 F C4
| a | = |–a| = a. Therefore potential energy is same in both
the cases and is positive.
73. (c) Potential energy decreases whenever there is attraction.
C1 C2
A negative charge placed at centroid causes attraction. As C C4
74. (c) Equipotential surfaces are normal to the electric field 3
lines. The following figure shows the equipotential Hence no charge will flow through 20 F
surfaces along with electric field lines for a system of
C1 C2 C'
two positive charges.
X Y X Y
C3 C4 C''
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series.

Hence C' = 3 F, C'' = 3 F
C' and C'' are in parallel hence net capacitance
= C' + C'' = 3 + 3 = 6 F
75. (c) B and C are at the same potential, therefore potential 1 1 1 1

81. (a) In series and charge on each
difference between A and B and that between A and C C C1 C2 C3
is same in both the cases. Hence work done is same in capacitor is same.
both the cases.
76. (c) All the charge given to inner sphere will pass on to the C C
outer one. So capacitance that of outer one is 4 0 b.
77. (d) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by 82. (b) A C C B
KA C C
C 0
where K is dielectric constant of the
d
dielectric. C C
Therefore more the dielectric constant, more will be the
The figure sh ows two independent balanced
capacitance.
wheatstone Brides connected in parallel each having a
78. (a)
capacitance C. So,
79. (a) The molecules of liquid will convert into induced
Cnet = CAB = 2C
dipole, get oriented along the electric field produced
83. (b) Potential difference across the branch de is 6 V. Net
between the plates and rise due to force of attraction.
capacitance of de branch is 2.1 µF
C1 = 6 F
So, q = CV
80. (d) q = 2.1 × 6 µC
C3 C5 6 F q = 12.6 µ C
X A Y Potential across 3 µF capacitance is
6 F 20 F C2
C4 12.6
V 4.2 volt
6 F 3
Potential across 2 and 5 combination in parallel is
Equivalent circuit
6 – 4.2 = 1.8 V
So, q' = (1.8) (5) = 9 µC
EBD_7208
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS Let charge on each sphere q

when they are connected together their potential will
84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) be equal .
89. (c) Potential and potential energy are different quantities Now let charge on a q1 and on b 2q q1
and cannot be equated.
1 q1 1 2q q1
90. (d) For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net Va Vb or
zero charge, electric potential at each point on its axis is 4 o a 4 o b
zero. Hence electric field at each point on its axis must be q1 a
perpendicular to the axis. Therefore Assertion is false 2q q1 b
and Reason is true.
1. q1
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (c)
96. (a) As these is no electric field inside the conductor, and
Ea 4 o a2 q1 b2
a b2 b
Eb 1 q2 2q q1 a 2 .
so no energy inside it. b a2 a
97. (c) Reason is false because the work done in bringing a 4 o b2
unit positive charge from infinity to a point in equatorial b:a
plane is equal and opposite for the two charges of the
k .2 p
dipole. 107. (d) Force on charge F = q (Ea) = q
98. (d) Two equipotential surfaces never intersect each other r3
so they cannot be orthogonal. 1
F
99. (b) r3
100. (d) Two equipotential surfaces are not necessarily parallel 1
When r doubled; F times
to each other. 8
1 108. (c) Y
101. (c) C = kC, and so, U ( kC )V 2 = kU. Also q = C V
2
= kCV = kq, and so charge density increases.
A( 2, 2)
102. (c) Reason is the correct explanation of statement-1.
r1
q2 q2
103. (c) C = kC, and U . With the introduction of
2C 2 kC O X
(0,0) r2 B (2,0)
dielectric, energy of the system decreases. As charge
on the capacitor remains same, and so force between
them remains same. The distance of point A 2, 2 from the origin,
1
104. (a) U CV 2 . In the battery connected capacitor V OA = | r1 | ( 2)2 ( 2)2
2
remains constant while C increases with the = 4 = 2 units.
introduction of dielectric and so U will increase. The distance of point B(2, 0) from the origin,
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS OB = | r2 | (2)2 (0)2 = 2 units.

105. (a) When a charge density is given to the inner cylinder, 1 Q
Now, potential at A, VA = .
the potential developed at its surface is different from 4 0 (OA)
that on the outer cylinder. This is because the potential
decreases with distance for a charged conducting Q 1
Potential at B, VB = .
cylinder when the point of consideration is outside the 4 0 (OB)
cylinder. But when a charge density is given to the
outer cylinder, it will charge its potential by the same Potential difference between the points A and B is
given by
amount as that of the inner cylinder. Therefore no
potential difference will be produced between the 1 Q 1 Q
VA – VB = . .
cylinders in this case. 4 0 OA 4 0 OB
Q 1 1 Q 1 1
a b
106. (c) 4 0 OA OB 4 0 2 2
3 6
10 10
0 = 0.
4 0
20 (E) 22 102 62 140 2 35

109. (a) Here, V(x) = 2 volt
x 4
F = qE 2 2 35 4 35
dV d 20
We know that E = Q1 Q2
dx 2
dx x 4 115. (d) When ; current will flow in connecting wire
R1 R2
40x so that energy decreases in the form of heat through
or, E = 2
(x 4) 2 the connecting wire.
116. (c) As the capacitor remains connected to the battery, the
At x = 4 m ,
potential difference provided by the battery remains
40 4 160 10 constant.
E= volt / m. 117. (c) The ball on touching plate A will
(42 4) 2 144 9
get positively charged. It will be B
A
Positive sign indicates that E is in +ve x-direction. repelled by A and get attracted
+ –
110. (b) As we move towards a positive charge distribution towards B. After touching B it will + +
+ + + –
get negatively charged. It will + + +
–
dV now be repelled by B and +
V increases i.e., is positive. The increase in –
dr get attracted towards A. + –
potential is steepest when we move exactly towards Thus it will remain oscillating + –
charge distribution. But E is in a direction exactly away and at the extreme position touch the plates.
from charge distribution, therefore E is in exactly
1 q1q 2
opposite direction in which increase in potential is 118. (a) In air Fair =
4 0 r2
dV
steepest. Hence E .
dr 1 q1q 2
In medium Fm = 4
Q 0 Kr 2
111. (d) Electric field E
A Fm 1 Fair
of kerosine oil is more than that of air.. Fm (decreases K-times)
Fair K K
As increases, E decreases.
119. (d)
112. (a) Let the side length of square be 'a' then potential at centre
O is 120. (c)
121. (c) Volume of 8 small drops = Volume of big drop
–Q –q
4 3 4
8 R = R3 R = 2r
O 3 3
As capacity is proportional to r, hence capacity
2Q 2q becomes 2 times.
122. (b) The two capacitors are in parallel so
k ( Q) k ( q) k (2q) k (2Q) A
V 0 (Given)
a a a a C= (k1 + k2)
t 2
2 2 2 2
C1V C2 0 C1
= – Q – q + 2q + 2Q = 0 = Q + q = 0 123. (c) Common potential V’ = = .V
C1 C2 C1 C2
=Q=–q
113. (b) Due to conducting sphere q
At centre, electric field E = 0 124. (c) V0
C0
Q
And electric potential V = q V C0
4 0 R V
C V0 C
V V V
114. (d) E i j k C0 500 20
x y z
C 75 3
= [(6 8y)iˆ ( 8x 8 6z)ˆj (6y)k]
ˆ
20
By definition, C = kC0 k
At (1, 1, 1), E 2i 10 j 6k 3
EBD_7208
125. (d) Let ‘n’ such capacitors are in series and such ‘m’ such
branch are in parallel. Q2 Q2 C2 V 2 ui
uf
250 × n = 1000 n=4 … (i) 2f 2kc 2KC k
8 1 2 1
Also m 16 u = uf – u i = cv –1
n 2 k
As the capacitor is isolated, so change will remain
16 n
m =8 … (ii) conserved p.d. between two plates of the capacitor
8 Q V
No. of capacitor = 8 4 L=
32 KC K
127. (d) : Here, V = 15 × 106 V dielectric strength
Q
126. (c) Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 5 × 107 V m–1
V Maximum electric field, E = 10% of dielectirc stength
After inserting the dielectric, new capacitance
C1 = K.C 10
E= 5 × 107 = 5 × 106 V m–1
New potential difference 100
V V
V1 = As E =
K r
1 2 Q2 V 15 106
ui cv ( Q = cv) r= = =3m
2 2C E 5 106
18
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS (a) zero (b) independent of T

(c) proportional to T (d) proportional to T 2
1. In a current carrying conductor the net charge is 9. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor
(a) 1.6 10–19 coulomb (b) 6.25 10–18 coulomb at a temperature T, the drift velocity of electrons is
(c) zero (d) infinite proportional to
2. The current which is assumed to be flowing in a circuit from (a) (b) V
V
positive terminal to negative, is called
(c) T (d) T
(a) direct current (b) pulsating current
(c) conventional current (d) alternating current 10. For which of the following dependence of drift velocity vd on
3. When no current is passed through a conductor, electric field E, is Ohm’s law obeyed?
(a) the free electrons do not move (a) vd E2 (b) vd = E1/2
(b) the average speed of a free electron over a large period (c) vd = constant (d) vd = E
of time is not zero 11. The current density (number of free electrons per m3) in
(c) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period metallic conductor is of the order of
of time is zero (a) 1022 (b) 1024
(c) 10 26 (d) 1028
(d) the average of the velocities of all the free electrons at
an instant is non zero 12. A current passes through a resistor. If K1 and K2 represent
4. A current passes through a wire of nonuniform cross- the average kinetic energy of the conduction electrons and
section. Which of the following quantities are independent the metal ions respectively then
of the cross-section? (a) K1 < K2
(a) The charge crossing (b) Drift velocity (b) K1 = K2
(c) Current density (d) Free-electron density (c) K1 > K2
5. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the (d) any of these three may occur
electric field, Then B is 13. A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference.
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity When the temperature of the metal wire increases, the drift
(c) potential difference (d) resistance velocity of the electron in it
6. Drift velocity of electrons is due to (a) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(a) motion of conduction electrons due to random (b) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
collisions. (c) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(d) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(b) motion of conduction electrons due to electric field E.
14. The electric field intensity E, current density J and specific
(c) repulsion to the conduction electrons due to inner
resistance k are related to each other through the relation
electrons of ions.
(a) E = J/k (b) E = J k
(d) collision of conduction electrons with each other.
(c) E = k/J (d) k = J E
7. The speed at which the current travels, in conductor, is
15. The relaxation time in conductors
nearly equal to
(a) increases with the increases of temperature
(a) 3 × 104 m/s (b) 3 × 105 m/s
6 (b) decreases with the increases of temperature
(c) 4 × 10 m/s (d) 3 × 108 m/s
8. In the absence of an electric field, the mean velocity of free (c) it does not depends on temperature
electrons in a conductor at absolute temperature (T) is (d) all of sudden changes at 400 K
EBD_7208
284 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
16. We are able to obtain fairly large currents in a conductor 25. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from
because room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of
(a) the electron drift speed is usually very large (a) each of these increases
(b) the number density of free electrons is very high and (b) each of these decreases
this can compensate for the low values of the (c) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
electron drift speed and the very small magnitude of (d) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
the electron charge 26. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its
(c) the number density of free electrons as well as the length and radius are both doubled, then
electron drift speeds are very large and these (a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both
compensate for the very small magnitude of the remain unchanged
electron charge (b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific
(d) the very small magnitude of the electron charge has resistance will be halved
to be divided by the still smaller product of the (c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance
number density and drift speed to get the electric will remain unchanged
current (d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance
17. In conductor when electrons move between two collisons, will be doubled
their paths are ... A... when external fields are absent and 27. Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound
... B...when external filed is present. Here, A and B refer to standard resistors because of their
(a) straight lines, straight lines (a) temperature independent resistivity
(b) straight lines, curved lines (b) very weak temperature dependent resistivity.
(c) curved lines, straight lines (c) strong dependence of resistivity with temperature.
(d) curved lines, curved lines (d) mechanical strength.
18. If N, e, and m are representing electron density, charge, 28. With increase in temperature the conductivity of
relaxation time and mass of an electron respectively, then (a) metals increases and of semiconductor decreases.
the resistance of wire of length and cross-sectional area A (b) semeconductors increases and metals decreases.
is given by (c) in both metals and semiconductors increases.
m 2m A (d) in both metal and semiconductor decreases.
(a) (b) 29. The resistance of a metal increases with increasing
Ne 2 A 2 Ne 2
temperature because
Ne 2 A Ne 2 A (a) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the
(c) (d)
2m 2m electrons increase
19. The unit of specific resistance is (b) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the
1 lattice consisting of the ions of the metal increase
(a) m 1 (b) m 1
(c) the number of conduction electrons decreases
(c) 1 (d) 2.5 m2
(d) the number of conduction electrons increases
20. The example of non-ohmic resistance is 30. To minimise the power loss in the transmission cables
(a) diode (b) copper wire connecting the power stations to homes and factories, the
(c) filament lamp (d) carbon resistor transmission cables carry current
21. Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance, (a) at a very low voltage.
because it has (b) at a very high voltage
(a) high melting point (c) at 220 volt
(b) low specific resistance (d) neither at a very high voltage nor at a very low voltage.
(c) high specific resistance 31. Appliances based on heating effect of current work on
(d) negligible temperature coefficient of resistance (a) only a.c. (b) only d.c.
22. At temperature 0K, the germanium behaves as a / an (c) both a.c. and d.c. (d) None of these
(a) conductor (b) insulator 32. In the series combination of two or more than two
(c) super-conductor (d) ferromagnetic resistances
23. Which of the following is used for the formation of (a) the current through each resistance is same
thermistor? (b) the voltage through each resistance is same
(a) Copper oxide (b) Nickel oxide (c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is
(c) Iron oxide (d) All of the above same
24. What is the suitable material for electric fuse? (d) both current and voltage through each resistance are
(a) Cu (b) Constantan same.
(c) Tin-lead alloy (d) Nichrome
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 285
33. Two or more resistors are said to be in ...A... if one end of 42. If n cells each of emf and internal resistance r are
all resistors is joined together and similarly the other ends connected in parallel, then the total emf and internal
joined together, Here, A refers to resistances will be
(a) series (b) parallel r
(a) (b) nr
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) None of these n
34. Emf of a cell is r
(c) n (d) n , nr
(a) the maximum potential difference between the terminals n
of a cell when no current is drawn from the cell. 43. The internal resistance of dry cell is ...A..., than the internal
(b) the force required to push the electrons in the circuit. resistance of common electrolytic cell. Here, A refers to
(c) the potential difference between the positive and (a) much lower (b) much higher
negative terminal of a cell in a closed circuit. (c) slightly lower (d) slightly higher
(d) less than terminal potential difference of the cell. 44. Kirchoff’s first law, i.e., S i = 0 at a junction, deals with the
35. When potential difference is applied across an electrolyte, conservation of
then Ohm’s law is obeyed at (a) charge (b) energy
(a) zero potential (b) very low potential
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
(c) negative potential (d) high potential
45. The Kirchhoff's second law ( iR = E), where the symbols
36. To draw a maximum current from a combination of cells, how
have their usual meanings, is based on
should the cells be grouped?
(a) conservation of momentum
(a) Parallel
(b) conservation of charge
(b) Series
(c) conservation of potential
(c) Mixed grouping
(d) conservation of energy
(d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and
46. Why is the Wheatstone bridge better than the other methods
external resistances.
of measuring resistances?
37. Under what condition will the strength of current in a wire of
(a) It does not involve Ohm’s law
resistance R be the same for connection is series and in
(b) It is based on Kirchoff’s law
parallel of n identical cells each of the internal resistance r?
(c) It has four resistor arms
When
(a) R = n r (b) R = r/n (d) It is a null method
47. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the positions of
(c) R = r (d) R ,r 0 cells and galvanometer are interchanged, then balance point
38. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external will
resistance R. The current will be maximum in R, if (a) change
(a) R = r (b) R < r (b) remain unchanged
(c) R > r (d) R = r/2 (c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance
39. An energy source will supply a constant current into the of galvanometer
load if its internal resistance is (d) None of these
(a) very large as compared to the load resistance 48. In a wheatstone bridge in the battery and galvanometer
(b) equal to the resistance of the load are interchanged then the deflection in galvanometer will
(c) non-zero but less than the resistance of the load (a) change in previous direction
(d) zero (b) not change
40. The resistance of the coil of an ammeter is R. The shunt (c) change in opposite direction
required to increase its range n-fold should have a resistance (d) none of these.
R R 49. In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement of
(a) (b)
n n 1 resistance, the known and the unknown resistance are
interchanged. The error so removed is
R
(c) (d) nR (a) end correction
n 1
(b) index error
41. A cell of internal resistance r is connected across an external (c) due to temperature effect
resistance nr. Then the ratio of the terminal voltage to the (d) random error
emf of the cell is 50. Potentiometer is based on
1 1 (a) deflection method
(a) (b)
n n 1 (b) zero deflection method
n n 1 (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) (d)
n 1 n (d) None of these
EBD_7208
51. In potentiometer a balance point is obtained, when 58. Ohm’s law fails in which of the following cases
(a) the e.m.f. of the battery becomes equal to the e.m.f of I. Potential V depends on I non-linearly.
the experimental cell II. The relation between V and I depends on the sign of V
(b) the p.d. of the wire between the +ve end of battery to for the same absolute value of V.
jockey becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the experimental III. V depends on I linearly.
cell (a) I only (b) II only
(c) the p.d. of the wire between +ve point of cell and jockey
(c) I and III (d) I and II
becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the battery
59. When no electric field is present.
(d) the p.d. across the potentiometer wire becomes equal
to the e.m.f. of the battery I. The electrons will be moving due to thermal motion
52. In the experiment of potentiometer, at balance point, there is during which they collide with the fixed ions.
no current in the II. An electron colliding with an ion emerges with the
(a) main circuit same speed as before the collision. However the
(b) galvanometer circuit direction of its velocity after the collision is completely
(c) potentiometer circuit random.
(d) both main and galvanometer circuits III. At a given time, there is no preferential direction for
53. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by the velocities of the electrons. Thus, on an average,
(a) increasing the e.m.f of the cell the number of electrons travelling in any direction
(b) increasing the length of the potentiometer will be equal to the number of electrons travelling in
(c) decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire the opposite direction. So, there will be no net electric
(d) None of these current.
54. Potentiometer measures potential more accurately because Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) it measures potential in open circuit (a) I and II (b) II and III
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null deflection (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire 60. What should be the characteristic of fuse wire?
(d) it measures potential in closed circuit I. High melting point, high specific resistance
55. For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is II. Low melting point, low specific resistance
preferred to voltmeter because III. Low melting point, high specific resistance
(a) the potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle. (a) I only (b) I and II
(b) calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong .
(c) I and III (d) III only
(c) the potentiometer almost draws no current during
61. In household electric circuit
measurement.
I. all electric appliances drawing power are joined in
(d) range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the
parallel
potentiometer.
II. a switch may be either in series or in parallel with the
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS appliance which it controls
III. if a switch is in parallel with an appliance, it will draw
power when the switch is in the ‘off’ position (open)
statement(s).
IV. if a switch is in parallel with an appliance, the fuse will
I. Current is the time rate of flow of charge through any
blow (burn out) when the switch is put ‘on’ closed.
cross-section
II. For a given conductor current does not change with Which of the above statements are correct?
change in cross-sectional area (a) I and IV (b) I, III and IV
III. The net charge in a current carrying conductor is infinite (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
(a) I and II (b) II and III 62. Consider the following statements and select the correct
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III option.
57. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? I. When resistances are connected in parallel the
I. The order of magnitude of current flowing in household equivalent resistance is less than the smallest resistance.
appliances is one ampere. II. When resistances are connected in parallel, current
II The order of magnitude of current in lightening is about distributes in the inverse ratio of resistances.
one ampere. III. When resistances are connected in series maximum
III. The order of magnitude of current in nerves in human current flows through the resistance having least value.
body is one ampere. (a) I only (b) II only
(a) II and III (b) I and II (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(a)(A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (4)
(b)(A) (1) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (4)
63. Match the Column I and Column II. (c)(A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
Column I Column II (d)(A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(A) Ohm’s law is (1) Metals
(A) Junction rule (1) Another statement of
applicable to Ohm’s law.
(B) Ohm’s law is not (2) Greater resistivity (B) Loop rule (2) Magnitude of drift
applicable to velocity per unit electric
(C) Alloys have (3) Diodes, electrolytes field.
semiconductors
(C) j E (3) Based on law of
(D) A heat sensitive (4) Thermistors
conservation of charge
resistor
(D) Mobility (4) Based on law of
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) conservation of energy.
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (4) (a) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (4)
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
64. Column I Column II (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
(A) Silver (1) Wire bound resistor 68. Column I gives certain situations in which a straight
(B) Semiconductor (2) Resistor of higher range metallic wire of resistance R is used and Column II gives
(C) Carbon resistor (3) Negative temperature some resulting effects.
coefficient of resistivity Column I Column II
(D) Manganin (4) Least resistivity (A) A charged capacitor (1) A constant current flows
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) is connected to the through the wire
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) ends of the wire
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (B) The wire is moved (2) Thermal energy is
perpendicular to its generated in the wire
(d) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
length with a constant
65. Match the physical quantities in Column I and their
velocity in a uniform
mathematical expressions in Column II. magnetic field
Column I Column II perpendicular to the
ne 2 plane of motion
(A) Current (1) (C) The wire is placed in (3) A constant potential
m a constant electric difference develops
1 dp field that has a between the ends of the
(B) Conductivity (2) direction along the wire
p dT length of the wire
(D) A battery of constant (4) charges of constant
(C) Current density (3) j S emf is connected to the magnitude appear at
(D) Temperature coefficient (4) nq vd ends of the wire. ends of the wire
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (1, 2, 3)
of resistivity (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2, 3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (c) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1, 3) ; (D) (4)
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) 69. Match the entries of Column I with their correct mathematical
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) expressions in Column II
66. Match the Column I and Column II. Column I Column II
Column I Column II
(A) Balanced condition (1) R1 R3
(A) Smaller the resistance (1) If the same voltager is R2 R4
greater the current applied and resistance of wheatstone bridge
R l1
are in series (B) Comparison of emf of (2)
(B) Greater or smaller the (2) If the same current is S 100 l1
two cells field.
resistance the current passed E1 l1
(C) Determination of (3)
is same internal resistance of E 2 l2
(C) Greater the resistance (3) When resistances are a cell
smaller the power connected in series
(D) Determination of (4) r R l1 1
(D) Greater the resistance (4) When resistances are l2
unknown resistance
greater the power connected in parallel
by meter bridge
EBD_7208
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) 72. Which of the following I-V graph represents ohmic
(b) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (2) conductors ?
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1) I I

(a) (b)
70. The figure (1) shows the experimental set up for verification
of Ohm’s law. Graph obtained for this set up is shown in O V O V
figure (2). If the resistance R is changed with a new reistance
of value 2R and the experiment is repeated again then which I I
of the following will be the correct V-I graph?
V (c) (d)
O V O V
V
R
73. The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents
Rh A
I
() I
(1) (2)
V
(a) ohmic conductors (b) non-ohmic conductors

(a) (b) (c) insulators (d) superconductors
74. The voltage V and current I graphs for a conductor at two
different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the figure.
The relation between T1 and T2 is
V
T1
T1
(c) (d)
O I
71. The figure shows three conductors I, II and III of same (a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2
material, different lengths l, 2l and 3l and of different areas of
cross-section 3A, A and 2A respectively. Arrange them in the 1
(c) T1 = T2 (d) T1 =
increasing order of current drawn from battery. T2
75. The graph shows the variation of resistivity with temperature
l
i1 3A i1 T. The graph can be of
I
i2 A 2l i2
II
2A 3l
III
i3 i3
( )
T
(a) i1 i2 i3 (b) i3 i2 i1
(c) i2 i1 i3 (d) i2 ` i3 i1 (a) copper (b) nichrome
(c) germanium (d) silver
76. Choose the correct circuit diagram which is equivalent to the R1
circuit diagram given in the figure.
R1 R2
R4 (d) R3
R2
R3 R4
78. A wire of length l is connected to a battery between point A
R1 and B as shown in fig (1). The same wire is bent in the form of
R4 a circle and then connected to the battery between the points
(a) A and B as shown in fig. (2). The current drawn from the battery
R2
A B
R3 A l B
() ()
R1 R4 (1) (2)
(b) (a) increases
(b) decreases
R2 R3 (c) remains same
(d) increases if upper part of wire between A and B is a
major arc and decreases if it is minor arc.
79. Figure shows a cell in which electrodes P and N are dipped in
R1 R4 electrolyte. Points A and B are just adjacent to the electrodes.
P is positive electrode and N is negative electrode. Which of
(c) the following is true?
R2 R3 R
+ –
P N
R1 R4
(d) A B
R2 R3
77. Four resistors R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in different Electrolyte
ways. Which of the following combinations will draw the (a) Inside the cell current flows from A to B.
maximum current when connected to a battery ? (b) Inside the cell current flows from B to A.
R1 R2 R3 R4 (c) Current does not flow inside the cell.
(a) (d) Inside the cell current flows in both the directions A to
R2 B and B to A.
R1 80. The figure shows the circuit diagram of five resistors, a battery
(b) and a switch. If the switch S is closed then current drawn
R4 from the battery
R3 R
R1 R4
2R 4R
(c)
S
R2 R3
3R 6R
EBD_7208
(a) increases 84. For the circuit diagram shown in the figure the value of I1
(b) decreases comes out to be negative. It implies that
(c) remains same B
(d) initially increases and when the resistance R gets heated I1
then decreases. R1 R2
I3
81. A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is I4
connected across a variable external resistance R. As the 2
resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference A C
1
V across R is given by
R5
R3
R4
I5
(a) (b) I2
V V D
0 0 (a) the actual current flows in opposite direction of arrow
R R (b) the actual current flows in the direction of arrow.
(c) Kirchhoff’s junction rule is wrongly applied to find
V current.
(d) Kirchhoff’s loop rule is wrongly applied to find the
V current.
(c) (D)
85. The figure shows a circuit diagram of a Wheatstone
0 0
R R Bridge’ to measure the resistance G of the galvanometer.
P R
82. A battery of e.m.f E and internal resistance r is connected The relation = will be satisfied only when
Q G
to a variable resistor R as shown. Which one of the following
is true ?
E r P
(a) Potential difference across the terminals of the

battery is maximum when R = r (a) the galvanometer shows a deflection when switch S
(b) Power delivered to resistor is maximum when is closed
R = 2r (b) the galvanometer show a deflection when switch S is
(c) Current in the circuit is maximum when R = r open
(d) Current in the circuit is maximum when R >> r (c) the galvanometer shows no change in deflection
whether S is open or closed
83. Which of the following is the correct equation when
kirchhoff’s loop rule is applied to the loop BCDEB in clockwise (d) the galvanometer shows no deflection
direction? 86. The bridge is at balanced condition in figure. Now the battery
and galvanometer are interchanged. Which of the following
R3 R4 figures show the correct direction of flow of current?
C D
i3 B
i2 R2
B E
R1 R2 R4
i1
A F A G C
R1 R3
(a) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 – i2 R2 = 0
(b) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
(c) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 D
(d) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
(b) to the right of D
(a) B (b) B
I1 I1 (c) at the same point D
I4 I4
R4 (d) to the left of D if S' has lesser value than S and to the
R1 R4 R1 right of D if S' has more value than S.
A C 89. AB is a wire of potentiometer with the increase in value of
I2 A
I2 I3 C
resistance R, the shift in the balance point J will be
R2 R3 R3
R2
R
I3 I5
D D
J B
G A
G
G
(c) I1
B (d) B
I1
I4 (a) towards B
R1 R4 R1 R4 (b) towards A
I4
(c) remains constant
A I3 C A C
I2 I2 (d) first towards B then back towards A
R2 R3 R3
R2
I3 I5 I3
D D Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
G G
87. In the figure in balanced condition of wheatstone bridge have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
B
R2 R4 correct explanation for assertion
A G C (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
R3 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
R1
90. Assertion: Current is a vector quantity.
Reason: Current has magnitude as well as direction.
D 91. Assertion : A stream of positively charged particle produces
an electric field E at a centrain distance from it.
Reason : A current currying conductor produces an electric
(a) B is at higher potential field 2E at the same distance.
(b) D is at higher potential 92. Assertion : Electric field outside the conducting wire which
(c) Any of the two B or D can be at higher potential than carries a constant current is zero.
other arbitrarily.
Reason : Net charge on conducting wire is zero.
(d) B and D are at same potential.
93. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V = IR.
88. The figure shows a meter bridge in which null point is obtained
at a length AD = l. When a resistance S' is connected in Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines resistance.
parallel with resistance S the new position of null point is 94. Assertion : A current flows in a conductor only when there
obtained is an electric field within the conductor.
Reason : The drift velocity of electron in presence of electric
R S' field decreases.
B S 95. Assertion : Drift speed vd is the average speed between two
G
successive collisions.
d
A C Reason : If is the average distance moved between two
D
collision and t is the corresponding time, then
vd lim .
( ) t 0 t
(a) to the left of D
EBD_7208
96. Assertion : When a current is established in a wire, the free 107. Assertion : In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance
electrons drift in the direction opposite to the current and so is always connected in series with a galvanometer.
the number of free electrons in the wire continuously Reason : As resistance increase current more accurately
decrease. then ammeter.
Reason : Charge is a conserved quantity. 108. Assertion : The e.m.f of the driver cell in the potentiometer
97. Assertion : The electric bulb glows immediately when switch experiment should be greater that the e.m.f of the cell to
is on. be determined.
Reason : The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire is Reason : The fall of potential across the potentiometer
very high. wire should not be less than the e.m.f of the cell to be
determined.
98. Assertion: E j is the statement of Ohm’s law..
109. Assertion : A potentiometer of longer length is used for
Reason: If the resistivity of the conducting material is accurate measurement.
independent of the direction and magnitude of applied field Reason : The potential gradient for a potentiometer of
then the material obeys Ohm’s law. longer length with a given source of e.m.f becomes small.
99. Assertion: For a conductor resistivity increases with increase
in temperature. CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
m 110. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-
Reason: Since , when temperature increases the
ne 2 section of awireis Q = 5 t2 + 3 t + 1. The value of current at
random motion of free electrons increases and vibration of time t = 5 s is
ions increases which decreases . (a) 9 A (b) 49 A
100. Assertion : The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic (c) 53 A (d) None of these
wire will decrease, if the temperature of the wire is 111. A conductor carries a current of 50 A. If the area of cross-
increased. section of the conductor is 50 mm2, then value of the current
Reason : On increasing temperature, conductivity of density in Am–2 is
metallic wire decreases. (a) 0.5 (b) 1
101. Assertion : Bending a wire does not effect electrical (c) 10–3 (d) 10–6
resistance. 112. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the
Reason: Resistance of wire is proportional ot resistivity of ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift
material. speed of electrons in A and B is
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16
102. Assertion : Two non ideal batteries are connected in parallel.
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
113. When a current is set up in a wire of radius r, the drift velocity
Reason : The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than
is vd. If the same current is set up through a wire of radius 2 r,
either of the two internal resistances.
the drift velocity will be
103. Assertion : Kirchoff’s juction rule can be applied to a
(a) 4 vd (b) 2 vd
junction of several lines or a point in a line.
(c) vd/2 (d) vd/4
Reason : When steady current is flowing, there is no
114. A straight conductor of uniform cross-section carries a
accumulation of charges at any junction or at any point
current I. If s is the specific charge of an electron, the
in a line. momentum of all the free electrons per unit length of the
104. Assertion : Kirchoff s junction rule follows from conductor, due to their drift velocity only is
conservation of charge.
Reason : Kirchoff s loop rule follows from conservation of (a) I s (b) I/s
momentum.
(c) I/s (d) (I / s)2
105. Assertion : In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance
is always connected in series with a galvanometer. 115. When the current i is flowing through a condutor, the drift
Reason : As resistance increases current through the velocity is v. If 2i current flows through the same metal but
circuit increases. having double the are of cross-section, then the drift
106. Assertion : In a meter bridge experiment, null point for an velocity will be
unknown resistance is measured. Now, the unknown (a) v \ 4 (b) v / 2
resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher (c) v (d) 4v
temperature. The null point can be obtained at the same 116. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 at 50º C & 7 at 100º C,
point as before by decreasing the value of the standard then mean temperature coefficient of resistance (of material)
resistance. is
Reason : Resistance of a metal increases with increase in (a) 0.013/ ºC (b) 0.004/ ºC
temperature. (c) 0.006/ ºC (d) 0.008/ ºC
117. If negligibly small current is passed though a wire of length 124. In the network shown below, the ring has zero resistance.
15 m and resistance of 5 , having uniform cross section of The equivalent resistance between the point A and B is
6 × 10–7 m2, then coefficient of resistivity of material is (a) 2R
(a) 1×10–7 –m (b) 2×10–7 –m 3R
(c) 3×10 –7 –m (d) 4×10–7 –m (b) 4R 3R A
B
118. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C is found (c) 7R R
to be 10 . Now to increase the resistance by 10%, the 3R
(d) 10R
temperature of the wire must be [ The temperature coefficient
of resistance of the material of the wire is 0.002 per °C] 125. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to R. The
(a) 36°C (b) 83°C equivalent resistance between adjacent corners A and D is
(c) 63°C (d) 33°C
119. A wire is connected to a battery between the point M and N (a) R
as shown in the figure (1). The same wire is bent in the form 2
of a square and then connected to the battery between the (b) R
3
points M and N as shown in the figure (2). Which of the
following quantities increases ? 3
(c) R
7
M N M N
8
(d) R
15
() ()
126. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is
(1) (2) connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The current I,
in the circuit will be
(a) Heat produced in the wire and resistance offered by
the wire.
(b) Resistance offered by the wire and current through the
wire. 3
(c) Heat produced in the wire, resistance offered by the 3
3V
wire and current through the wire.
(d) Heat produced in the wire and current through the wire.
120. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is drawn 3
through a series of dies to reduce its diameter to half its
original value, its resistance will become (a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A
(a) two times (b) four times (c) 2 A (d) 1/3 A
(c) eight times (d) sixteen times 127. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external
121. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y resistance R. The internal resistance of the two sources are
of similar material. The ratio of resistance of X to that of Y is R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the potential difference across the
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 source having internal resistance R2 is zero, then
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
(a) R= R 2 R1
122. Each of the resistance in the network shown in fig. is equal
to R. The resistance between the terminals A and B is (b) R= R 2 (R1 R 2 ) /(R 2 R1 )
L
(c) R= R 1R 2 /( R 2 R 1 )
(d) R= R 1R 2 /( R 1 R 2 )
R R R
A 128. In the series combination of n cells each cell having emf
R
R B and internal resistance r. If three cells are wrongly

K M connected, then total emf and internal resistance of this
(a) R (b) 5 R combination will be
(c) 3 R (d) 6 R (a) n (nr – 3r) (b) (n – 2 ) nr
123. A wire has a resistance 12 . It is bent in the form of a circle. (c) (n – 4 nr (d) (n – 6 ), nr
The effective resistance between two points on any diameter 129. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current
is of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 is
(a) 6 (b) 3
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.8
(c) 12 (d) 24
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.2
EBD_7208
130. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 volt. When short-circuited 135. The resistance of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a
it gives a current of 3 ampere. The internal resistance of the Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90
cell is ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the
(a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer
(c) 0.5 ohm (d) (1/4.5) ohm resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be
131. A torch bulb rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in (a) 0.2 A (b) 0.1 A
fig. The e.m.f. of the cell, needed to make the bulb glow at
(c) 2. 0 A (d) 1. 0 A
full intensity is
136. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R
connected in the three arms and the fourth arm is formed by
4.5 W, two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The
1.5V
2E/9 condition for the bridge to be balanced will be
P 2R P R (S1 S2 )
E/9 (a) (b)
Q S1 S2 Q S1S 2
0.33
E/3
P R (S1 S2 ) P R
E, r = 2.67 (c) (d)
Q 2S1S2 Q S1 S2
(a) 4.5 V (b) 1.5 V 137. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be
(c) 2.67 V (d) 13.5 V
132. A battery of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 is
10
connected across a variable resistance R. The value of R for
which the power delivered in it is maximum is given by 5 10 20
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) 2.0 (d) 0.25
I 10
133. Determine the current in 2 resistor.
+–
2 5 volt
3
1 (a) 0.33 A (b) 0.5 A

(c) 0.67 A (d) 0.17 A
6V 2.8
138. In a Wheatstone bridge all the four arms have equal
resistance R. If the resistance of galvanometer arm is also R,
the equivalent resistance of combination is
(a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A
(a) 2R (b) R/4
(c) 0.9 A (d) 0.6 A
(c) R/2 (d) R
134. In the circuit shown in figure, with steady current, the potential
139. A meter bridge is set up as shown, to determine an unknown
drop across the capacitor must be
resistance ‘X’ using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The
V
galvanometer shows null point when tapping-key is at
R 52 cm mark. The end-corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm
V
|| respectively for the ends A and B. The determined value of
C ‘X’ is
2V 2R
V
(a) V (b)
2
V 2V (a) 10.2 ohm (b) 10.6 ohm

(c) (d)
3 3 (c) 10.8 ohm (d) 11.1 ohm
140. In a metre bridge, the balancing length from the left end (standard 144. A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4m and resistance
resistance of one ohm is in the right gap) is found to be 20 cm. 10 . It is connected to a cell of e.m.f. 3V. The potential
The value of the unknown resistance is gradient of wire is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.5 (a) 5V/m (b) 2V/m
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.25 (c) 5V/m (d) 10V/m
141. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is 10–7 m 145. Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series with
current flowing through it, is 0.1 amp and cross sectional 490 resistance and 2 V battery. If 0.2 mV/cm is the potential
area of wire is 10–6 m2, then potential gradient will be gradient, then resistance of the potentiometer wire is
(a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m (a) 4.9 (b) 7.9
–6
(c) 10 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m (c) 5.9 (d) 6.9
142. The current in the primary circuit of a potentiometer wire is 146. A potentiometer wire, 10 m long, has a resistance of 40 . It
0.5 A, for the wire is 4 × 10–7 –m and area of cross- is connected in series with a resistance box and a 2 V storage
section of wire is 8 × 10–6 m2. The potential gradient in the cell. If the potential gradient along the wire is 0.1 m V/cm, the
wire would be resistance unplugged in the box is
(a) 25 mV/meter (b) 2.5 mV/meter (a) 260 (b) 760
(c) 25 V/meter (d) 10 V/meter (c) 960 (d) 1060
143. A cell when balanced with potentiometer gave a balance 147. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of a cell,
length of 50 cm. 4.5 external resistance is introduced in by a potentiometer, it is found that the balance point is at a
the circuit, now it is balanced on 45 cm. The internal length of 2 m, when the cell is shunted by a 5 resistance
resistance of cell is and is at a length of 3 m when the cell is shunted by a 10
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 resistance. The internal resistance of the cell is
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.5 (a) 1.5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 1
EBD_7208
cm)
1. (c) In a current carrying conductor, the net charge is zero.
Resistivity (
2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d)
5. (a) J E J E T
T (k)
J is current density, E is electric field
so B = = resistivity. 28. (b) Semiconductors having negative temperature
6. (b) Motion of conduction electrons due to random coefficient of resistivity whereas metals are having
collisions has no preffered direction and average to positive temperature coefficient of resistivity with
increase in temperature the resistivity of metal
zero. Drift velocity is caused due to motion of
increases where a resistivity of semiconductor
conduction electrons due to applied electric field E . decreases.
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 29. (a) The conduction electrons collides with each other
10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) more. the specific resistance of a conductor increases
13. (b) When the temperature increases, resistance increases. with temperature according to the reaction T =
eEg/kgT where
As the e.m.f. applied is the same, the current density 0 0 is the specific resistance at 0° C,
Eg = energy of the gap between the valence and the
decreases the drift velocity decreases. But the rms
conduction band, kB is the Boltzmann constant and
velocity of the electron due to thermal motion is T, the temperature of the resistor.
proportional to T . The Thermal velocity increases. 30. (b) The power dissipated in the transmission cables is
14. (b) inversely proportional to the square of voltage at which
current is transmitted through the cables. Therefore to
15. (b) Because as temperature increases, the resistivity
minimize the power loss the transmission cables carry
increases and hence the relaxation time decreases for current at a very high voltage.
1 31. (c)
conductors 32. (a) In series combination, current across its circuit
components is always constant and in parallel
16. (b) combination the voltage across the circuit components
17. (a) In conductor when electrons move between two in constant.
collisions, their paths are straight lines when external 33. (b) Two or more resistors are said to be in parallel, if one
fields are absent and paths are curved in general end of all resistors is joined together and similarly the
other ends joined together.
when external field is present.
18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (b) I1 R1
23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) I
26. (c) 1
, now A I B
R 2= 2 1
A1
I2 R2
A 2 = (r2)2 = (2r1)2 = 4 r12 = 4A1
Two resistors R1 and R2 connected in parallel.
(2 1 ) R 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a)
R2
4A1 2A 2 E
39. (d) I = , Internal resistance (r) is zero,
Resistance is halved, but specific resistance remains R r
the same. E
27. (b) These materials exhibit a very weak dependence of I= = constant.
R
resistivity on temperature. Their resistance values
would be changed very little with temperature as Ig R Ig
40. (b) S S R
shown in figure. Hence these materials are widely nIg Ig (n 1)I g
used as heating element.
41. (c) Internal resistance = r, External resistance = nr. electron colliding with an ion emerges with the same
Let terminal voltage = V speed as before the collision. However, the direction
of its velocity after the collision is completely
Er
then V E Ir V E random. At a given time, there is no preferential
(n 1)r direction for the velocities of the electrons. Thus, on
the average, the number of electrons travelling in any
nE V n
V direction will be equal to the number of electrons
n 1 E n 1 travelling in the opposite direction. So, there will be
42. (a) : In the parallel combination, no net electric current.
60. (d) 61. (b)
eq 1 2 n
.... 62. (c) When resistances are connected in series the same
req r1 r2 rn
current flows through each resistance.
1 1 1 1 MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
....
req r1 r2 rn
63. (b) (A) (1) if the temperature is not very high.
( n = and r1 = r2= r3 = ... r) (B) (3)
(C) (2)
eq
.... n .... (i) (D) (4)
req r r r r 64. (d) A - (4) as silver has least resistivity. B - (3) because the
resistivity of semiconductor decreases with temperature
1 1 1 n so they have negative temperature coefficient of
....
req r r r r req = r/n ...(ii) resistivity. C-(2) as carbon resistors have high range.
D-(1) because wires of alloys like managanin,
From (i) and (ii)
constantan, nichrome etc are used to make wire bound
resistors.
eq n req n
req r r 65. (c) 66. (c)
67. (d) A-(3) Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on law of
43. (b) The internal resistance of dry cells, is much higher conservation of charge. B-(4) Kirchhoff’s loop rule is
than the common electrolytic cells.
44. (a) based on law of conservation of energy. C-(1) j E
45. (d) Kirchhoff's first law is based on conservation of charge is also an equivalent form of Ohm’s law. D-(2) as mobility
and Kirchhoff's second law is based on conservation is defined as the magnitude of drift velocity per unit
of energy. electric field.
46. (d) 47. (b) 68. (a) A-2 : Energy stored in capacitor will convert into thermal
48. (b) The deflection in galvanometer will not be changed energy.
due to interchange of battery and the galvanometer. B-3 : Induced emf, e = B v .
49. (a) In meter bridge experiment, it is assumed that the C-4 : Because of electric force ends of wire will have
resistance of the L shaped plate is negligible, but opposite charges.
actually it is not so. The error created due to this is D-1, 2, 3 : When battery is connected to wire a constant
called end error. To remove this the resistance box current flows in the wire which produces heating effect.
and the unknown resistance must be interchanged 69. (b)
and then the mean reading must be taken.
50. (b) Potentiometer is based on zero deflection method. DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c)
70. (d) Even if resistance R is changed with 2R, according to
Ohm’s law V is still proportional to I i.e., the graph
between V and I is a straight line. Then why option (a)
56. (a) is not correct? Because the slope of V.I. graph gives the
57. (a) The order of magnitude of current in lightening is very value of resistance. As the value of resistance is
high approx 10,000 of amperes. The order of magnitude increased from R to 2R, the slope of given graph must
of current in human body and galvanometer is also not also increase which is shown in fig. (d).
one ampere. l
58. (d) According to Ohm’s law, the plot of I versus V is linear 71. (d) As we know, resistance R = . The resistance of
A
so how can it fail if V depends on I linearly.
59. (d) Consider the case when no electric field is present. conductor l is given by
The electrons will be moving due to thermal motion l R l
during which they collide with the fixed ions. An RI where R
3A 3 A
EBD_7208
2l E E
Similarly, RII 2R 82. (c) I
A R r ( R r )2 2 R r
3l 3 I is maximum when R = r
and RIII R
2A 2 P I 2 R , when I is max, P is also max.
From this we conclude that RII > RIII > RI. Since in
parallel combination of resistances current distributes Pmax I 2max R .
in inverse ratio of resistances, therefore i2 < i3 < i1 83. (b) If we apply Kirchhoff’s loop rule to the loop BCDEB in
72. (a) Ohm’s law V = IR is an equation of straight line clockwise direction the changes in potential across R3
Hence I - V characteristics for ohmic conductors is and R4 are negative. Therefore i3 R3 and i3 R4 should
also a straight line and its slope gives resistance of have negative sign. But for this clockwise direction we
the conductor. are moving in a direction opposite to i2 across R2.
73. (b) The figure is showing I – V characteristics of non Current flows from higher potential to lower potential
ohmic or non linear conductors. but we are moving from lower potential to higher
potential i.e., potential is increasing. So the change in
V potential is positive. Therefore i2 R2 has positive sign.
T1 84. (a) If the value of current comes out positive then actual
74. (a)
T1 current is in the direction of arrow and if it comes out
negative then actual current is in opposite direction of
I the arrow.
O
85. (c) In balances condition, no current will flow through
The slope of V – I graph gives the resistance of a the branch containing S.
conductor at a given temperature. 86. (b) In the balance condition if the battery and galvanometer
From the graph, it follows that resistance of a are interchanged even then no current flows through
conductor at temperature T1 is greater than at the galvanometer as A and C are at same potential.
temperature T1 As the resistance of a conductor is 87. (d) In balance condition, since no current flows through
more at higher temperature and less at lower the galvanometer therefore B and D are at the same
temperature, hence T1 > T2 potential.
75. (c) The resistivity of semiconductor decreases with 88. (b) The working principle of meter bridge is
increase in temperature.
76. (d) This is a balanced Wheatstone bridge condition. R l
… (i)
77. (d) When all the resistances are connected in parallel the S 100 l
equivalent resistance is minimum so, current drawn will When S' is connected in parallel with S we obtain
be maximum. equivalent resistance Seq of S and S' which is less than
78. (a) In figure (2) the upper and lower part of the wire between S. Thus if the value of denominator of L.H.S. of eq. (i)
A and B are in parallel. Therefore the equivalent decreases then value of denominator of R.H.S. of eq. (i)
resistance of these two parts is less than the resistance also decreases. For this to happen the null point shifts
of each of the upper and lower part. Since the resistance to the right of D.
between A and B decreases in fig. (2) therefore the 89. (a) Due to increases in resistance R the current through
current drawn from the battery increases. the wire will decrease and hence the potential
79. (b) Current does flow through the electrolyte inside the gradient also decreases, which results in increase in
cell and it flows from negative electrode to positive balancing length. So. J will shift towards B.
electrode.
80. (c) No current flows through the resistor R as A and C are ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
at same potential. Hence current drawn from battery
90. (d) We call those quantities as vector quantities which
will remain same on closing the switch.
have magnitude and direction and obey laws of vector
81. (b) Current in the circuit,
addition. Though current has magnitude as well as
direction but it does not obey laws of vector addition.
I= Hence it is not a vector quantity.
R r
Potential difference across R, 91. (c) The net charge on current carrying conductor is zero,
and so its electric field is also zero.
V = IR = R 92. (a)
R r 1
r 93. (d) A diode does not obey Ohm’s law while a resistor obeys.
R But the equation V = IR can be applied to both. In fact
When R = 0, V = 0 the equation V = IR can be applied to all the conducting
R= ,V= devices whether they obey Ohm’s law or not. So V = IR
is not a statement of Ohm’s law. Ohm’s law states that V 102. (d) The equivalent emf of the two batteries in parallel,
is directly proportional to I i.e.. V I. The proportionality
e1r2 r2 r1
sign is changed to equality sign in the equation V = IR e . e may be; e1 e e2.
r1 r2
with R as constant of proportionality know as resistance
of conductor. Thus the equation V = IR defines r1r2
resistance. Internal resistance, r . This value is smaller
r1 r2
94. (c) Before the presence of electric field, the free electrons
move randomly in the conductor, so their drift velocity than either of r1 and r2.
is zero and therefore there is no current in the conductor. 103. (a)
In the presence of electric field, each electron in the 104. (c) Kirchoff 's loop rule follows from conservation of
conductor experience a force in a direction opposite to energy.
the electric field. Now the free electrons are accelerated 105. (c) The resistance of the galvanometer is fixed. In meter
from negative and to the positive end of the conductor bride experiments, to protect the galvanometer from a
and hence a current starts to flow from the conductor. high current, high resistance is connected to the
95. (c) Drift speed is the average speed between two galvanometer.
successive collision. 106. (d) With increase in temperature, resistance of metal wire
96. (d) The free electron density in any part of the conductor increases, but balance conduction will not change.
remains constant. 107. (c) The resistance of the galvanometer is flexed. In meter
97. (c) The drift velocity of electrons in metals is order of bridge experiments, to protect the galvanometer from
10–4 m/s. a high current, high resistance is conneted to the
98. (a) We know that V = IR galvanometer in order to protect it from damage.
108. (a) If either e.m.f. of the driver cell or potential difference
l
Since R across the whole potentiometer wire is lesser than the
A e.m.f. of then experimental cell, then balance point will
l not obtained.
Therefore V I … (i)
A 1
I 109. (a) Sensitivity (Length of wire)
Now j is the current density.. Potential gradient
A
Therefore eq. (i) becomes
V
V j l or j
l dQ
110. (c) 10t 3
V dt
Now E , where E is magnitude of electric field.
l At t = 5s, = 10 × 5 + 3 = 53 A
Therefore E j … (ii) 111. (b) Current density J = /A
Current density j is also a vector which is directed 50 16 6 / 50 10 6 1 Am 2
along E . Therefore the relation (ii) can also be written 112. (a) Current flowing through the conductor,
in vector form E j. I = n e v A. Hence
99. (a) When temperature increases the random motion of
4 nevd1 (1)2 vd1 4 1 16
electrons and vibration of ions increases which results or .
in more frequent collisions of electrons with the ions. 1 2 vd 2 1 1
nevd 2 (2)
Due to this the average time between the successive
collisions, denoted by , decreases which increases . 113. (d) = n A e vd or vd 1/ r 2
100. (b) On increasing temperature of wire the kinetic energy
114. (c)
of free electrons increase and so they collide more
rapidly with each other and hence their drift velocity J
decreases. Also when temperature increases, 115. (c) vd = vd J [current density]
ne
resistivity increases and resistivity is inversely
proportional to conductivity of material. i 2i 1
J1 = and J2 = = J ;
A 2A A 1
I
101. (a) Resistance wire R = , where is resistivity of vd vd v
A
116. (a) [Hint Rt = Ro (1 + t)]
material which does not depend on the geometry of 5 = R0 (1 + × 50) and 7 = R0 (1 + × 100)
wire. Since when wire is bent resistivity, length and
area of cross-section do not change, therefore 5 1 50 2
or or 0.0133/ C
resistance of wire also remain same. 7 1 100 150
EBD_7208
If a wire of resistance R is bent in the form of a circle,
R .A
117. (b) (Hint = Coefficient of resistivity) the effective resistance between the ends of a diameter
= R/4.
118. (b) Rt = R0 (1 + t) 124. (a) As the ring has no resistance, the three resistances of
Initially, R0 (1 + 30 ) = 10 3R each are in parallel.
Finally, R0 (1 + t) = 11
1 1 1 1 1
11 1 t R R
R 3R 3R 3R R
10 1 30 between point A and B equivalent resistance
or, 10 + (10 × 0.002 × t) = 11 + 330 × 0.002 = R+ R = 2R
1.66 125. (d) The equivalent circuit is as shown in figure.
or, 0.02t = 1 + 0.66 = 1.066 or t 83 C. The resistance of arm AOD (= R + R) is in parallel to the
0.02
resistance R of arm AD.
119. (d) When the wire is bent in the form of a square and
connected between M and N as shown in fig. (2), the
effective resistance between M and N decreases to one
fourth of the value in fig. (1). The current increases four
times the initial value according to the relation
V = IR. Since H = I2 Rt, the decrease in the value of
resistance is more than compensated by the increases
in the value of current. Hence heat produced increases.
120. (d)
121. (c) R or R .
( D 2 / 4) D2 2R R 2
Their effective resistance R1 R
2R R 3
Rx x
D y2 y /2 D y2 2
The resistance of arms AB, BC and CD is
Ry Dx 2 y (D y / 2) 2
y 1
2 8
R2 R R R R
122. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in fig. Since the 3 3
Wheatstone’s bridge is balanced, therefore no current The resistance R1 and R2 are in parallel. The effective
will flow through the arm KL. Equivalent resistance resistance between A and D is
between
AKM = R + R = 2 R 2 8
R R
Equivalent resistance between ALM = R + R = 2 R R1 R 2 3 3 8
R3 R.
The two resistances are in parallel. Hence equivalent R1 R 2 2 8 15
R R
resistance between A and B is given by 3 3
K
126. (b)
3 3
R R 2
3 = 3 =
A R M B
3V 3V
3V
3
R R 1. 5 A
2
L 2
127. (c) I = R1 R2
R R1 R 2 I
1 1 1 2 1
R 2R 2R 2R R
i.e., R R
123. (b) Resistance of the wire of a semicircle = 12/2 = 6
For equivalent resistance between two points on any
R
diameter, 6 and 6 are in parallel.
or Pot. difference across second cell = V IR 2 0
2 Between A and B, voltage is same in both resistances,
= .R2 0
R R1 R 2 2I1 3I 2 where I1 I 2 I 1.5
R R1 R 2 2R 2 0
2I1 3(1.5 I1 ) I1 0.9A
R R1 R 2 = 0 R = R 2 R1
128. (d) Since due to wrong connection of each cell the total 134. (c) F
V R
E
emf reduced to 2 then for wrong connection of three I
cells the total emf will reduced to (n – 6 ) whereas

the total or equivalent resistance of cell combination V C
will be nr. A D
0V G
129. (a) Given : emf = 2.1 V
I = 0.2 A, R = 10 I
Internal resistance r = ? B C
2V 2R
From formula.
– Ir = V = IR
2.1 – 0.2r = 0.2 × 10 V
Applying Kirchhoff’s law in BCDEFAB we get, I
2.1 – 0.2 r = 2 or 0.2 r = 0.1 3R
Let A be at 0 V. Then potential at G is V.
0.1
r = 0.5 Applying Krichhoff’s law for AFED, we get
0.2
V 4V
130. (c) r = E / I = 1.5 / 3 = 0.5 ohm. 0 + V + IR = VD 0 V R VD VD
3R 3
(1.5) 2
131. (d) Resistance of bulb R b 0.5 4V
V
V
4.5 potential different across capacitor =
3 3
E E 135. (a) Given : V = 7 V
Current drawn from battery r=5
2.67 0.33 3
P Q
2 E 2E
Share of bulb =
3 3 9
2
2E 5
0.5 4.5 or E = 13.5 V..
9
7V
132. (a) According to maximum power theorem, the power in 40 120
the circuit is maximum if the value of external resistance Req =
40 120
is equal to the internal resistance of battery.
133. (c) At steady state the capacitor will be fully charged and V 7
I= =
thus there will be no current in the 1 resistance. So the R 40 120
5
effective circuit becomes 40 120
2
7 1
I1
= = = 0.2 A.
5 30 5
A B
I2 3 S1S 2
P R
136. (b) where S S1 S 2
Q S
I
137. (b) The network of resistors is a balanced wheatstone
bridge. The equivalent current is
6V 2.8 30
Net current from the 6V battery,
6 6 3 15
I 1.5A
2 3 2.8 1.2 2.8 2
2 3 1
5V
EBD_7208
143. (a)
15 30 V 5
Req = 10 I 0.5 A
15 30 R 10 Pot.Difference VA VB
144. (a) Hint : Potential gradient =
length of wire
138. (d)
139. (b) At Null point 145. (a) Pot. gradient = 0.2mV/cm
3
0.2 10 2
= 2 = 2 10 V/m
X 10 10
Emf of cell = 2×10–2×1m = 2 10 2 V = 0.02 V

As per the condition of potentiometer
0.02 (R + 490) = 2 (R) or 1.98 R = 9.8
A B
52 cm 48 cm 9.8
R= = 4.9
1.98
X 10 146. (b) Potential gradient along wire
1 2 potential difference along wire
Here = 52 + End correction = 52 + 1 = 53 cm length of wire
1
= 48 + End correction = 48 + 2 = 50 cm I 40
2
or, 0.1 10 3 V / cm
1000
X 10 53
53 50 X 10.6 1
5 or, Current in wire, I= A
400
P l l 20
140. (d) or P Q 1 0.25 .
Q 100 l 100 l 80 2 1
or, or R 800 40 760
40 R 400
7
VA VB i 0.1 10 147. (b) In case of internal resistance measurement by
141. (a) Potential gradient
A 10 6 potentiometer,
2 V1 1 {E R1 /(R1 r)} R 1 (R 2 r)
10 V/m
V2 2 {E R 2 /(R 2 r )} R 2 (R1 r)
V
142. (a) Potential gradient of wire I Here 1 2 m, 2 3 m, R1 5 and R 2 10
A
where & A are the length and cross-section of wire 2 5 (10 r )
or 20 + 4 r = 30 + 3 r or r = 10
7 3 10 (5 r )
so V 4 10
0.5 25mV / meter
6
8 10
19
MOVING CHARGES AND
MAGNETISM
6. Ampere’s circuital law is given by
(a) H . dI 0 I enc (b) B . dI 0 I enc
1. According to oersted, around a current carrying conductor,
magnetic field exists
(c) B . dI 0I (d) H . dI 0I
(a) as long as there is current in the wire
(b) even after removing the current in the wire 7. The magnetic field around a long straight current carrying
(c) only few seconds after removing the current wire is
(d) None of these (a) spherical symmetry (b) cylindrical symmetry
2. The magnetic field d B due to a small current element d (c) cubical symmetry (d) unsymmetrical
at a distance r and element carrying current i is, 8. A current is passed through a straight wire. The magnetic field
established around it has its lines of force
0 d r 0 2 d r (a) circular and endless
(a) dB = 4 i r
(b) dB = 4 i r (b) oval in shape and endless
(c) straight
0 2 d r 0 d r (d) All of the above
(c) dB = i (d) d B = i
4 r 2 4 r 3 9. If a copper rod carries a direct current, the magnetic field
associated with the current will be
3. Ampere’s circuital law states that
(a) only inside the rod
(a) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open
(b) only outside the rod
surface is equal to µ0 times the total current passing
through the surface. (c) both inside and outside the rod
(b) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open (d) neither inside nor outside the rod
surface is equal to µ0 times the total current passing 10. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r,
near the surface. through which a current I flows is
(c) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary (a) directly proportional to r
of the open surface is equal to µ0 times the total current (b) inverseley proportional to I
passing near the surface. (c) directly proportional to I
(d) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary (d) directly proprotional to I2
of the open surface is equal to µ0 times the total current 11. The magnetic field B at a point on one end of a solenoid
passing through the surface. having n turns per metre length and carrying a current of
4. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons velocity i ampere is given by
(V) produce a magnetic field B such that
0ni 1
(a) B V (a) (b) ni
e 2
(b) B V
(c) 4 ni (d) ni
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
12. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is
(d) it is along the line joining electron and point of
(a) directly proportional to its length
observation
5. Ampere’s circuital law is equivalent to (b) directly proportional to current
(a) Biot-Savart law (b) Coulomb’s law (c) inversely proportional to total number of turns
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Kirchhoff’s law (d) inversely porportional to current
EBD_7208
304 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
13. A long solenoid has a radius a and number of turns per 19. The work done by a magnetic field, on a moving charge is
unit length n. If it carries a current i, then the magnetic (a) zero because F acts parallel to v
field on its axis is directly proportional to
(a) ani (b) ni (b) positive because F acts perpendicular to v
(c) zero because F acts perpendicular to v
ni
(c)
a
(d) n2 i (d) negative because F acts parallel to v
20. An electron having a charge e moves with a velocity v in
14. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will
X-direction. An electric field acts on it in Y-direction? The
(a) expand (b) compress
force on the electron acts in
(c) remains same (d) None of these
(a) positive direction of Y-axis
15. Lorentz force is
(b) negative direction of Y-axis
(a) electrostatic force acting on a charged particle.
(c) positive direction of Z-axis
(b) magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
(d) negative direction of Z-axis
(c) the vector sum of electrostatic and magnetic force acting
21. An electric charge in uniform motion produces
on a moving charged particle.
(a) an electric field only
(d) the vector sum of gravitational and magnetic force acting
(b) a magnetic field only
on a moving charged particle.
(c) both electric and magnetic fields
16. Which one of the following is the correct expression for
(d) no such field at all
magnetic field on the axis of a circular current loop with x-
22. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the
axis as its axis ?
magnetic field associated with the current will be
IR 2 iˆ IR 2 (a) only inside the pipe
(a) B 0
(b) B 0
iˆ
2( x R 2 )2
2 32 (b) only outside the pipe
2 x2 R2
(c) neither inside nor outside the pipe
IR (d) both inside and outside the pipe
B 0
iˆ IR 3 2
(c) 2 2
32 (d) B 0
iˆ 23. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of
2 x R 2 2 2
2 x R (a) electric field (b) magnetic field
17. Which of the following is true ? (c) dielectric strength (d) heat
(a) Parallel currents repel, and antiparallel currents attract. 24. Lorentz force can be calculated by using the formula
(b) Parallel currents attract, and antiparallel currents repel.
(a) F q ( E v B) (b) F q( E v B )
(c) Both parallel and antiparallel currents attract.
(d) Both parallel and antiparallel currents repel. (c) F q ( E v . B) (d) F q( E B v )
18. Which of the following is the correct definition of ampere?
(a) The ampere is the value of that steady current which 25. Two free parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite
directions
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight,
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and (a) attract each other
placed one metre apart in vacuum, would produce on (b) repel each other
each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 107 N/m (c) do not attract each other
of length. (d) get rotated to be perpendicular to each other
(b) The ampere is the value of that steady current which 26. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, attract each other because of
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and (a) potential difference between them
placed one centimetre apart in vacuum, would produce (b) mutual inductance between them
on each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 (c) electric forces between them
N/m of length. (d) magnetic forces between them
(c) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, 27. A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, field and a current flows in the wire. Then
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and (a) the wire will experience a force in the direction of the
placed one metre apart in vacuum, would produce on magnetic field
each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m (b) the wire will not experience any force at all
of length. (c) the wire will experience a force in a direction opposite
(d) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, to the field
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, (d) it experiences a force in a direction perpendicular to
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and lines of force
placed ten metre apart in vacuum, would produce on 28. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic
each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m field. The torque acting on it does not depend upon
of length. (a) shape of the loop (b) area ot the loop
(c) value of the current (d) magnetic field
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 305
36. Two thin, long, parallel wires, separated by a distance ‘d’
29. The magnetic force F on a current carrying conductor of
carry a current of ‘i’ A in the same direction. They will
length I in an exteranal magnetic field B is given by
2
(a) repel each other with a force of 0i /(2 d)
I B I B 2
(a) (b) (b) attract each other with a force of 0i /(2 d)
I I
2
(c) repel each other with a force of 0i /(2 d 2 )
(c) I ( I B) (d) I2I B
30. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a (d) attract each other with a force of 0i
2
/(2 d 2 )
direction perpendicular to it. Then the
37. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic
(a) velocity remains unchanged field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged (a) q v B (b) q B/v
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged (c) zero (d) B v/q
(d) acceleration remains unchanged 38. A particle of mass m and charge q enters a magnetic field
31. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed B perpendicularly with a velocity v. The radius of the
v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circular path described by it will be
circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to (a) Bq / mv (b) mq / Bv
(c) mB / qv (d) mv / Bq
B B 39. Cyclotron is used to accelerate
(a) (b)
v v (a) electrons (b) neutrons
(c) positive ions (d) negative ions
v v 40. The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is
(c) (d)
B B independent of
32. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a (a) magnetic field in which it is lying
circular path of radius r that is perpendicular to a magnetic (b) number of turns
field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one (c) area of the loop
revolution is (d) current in the loop
41. Magnetic dipole moment of a rectangular loop is
2 q 2B 2 mq (a) inversely proportional to current in loop
(a) (b)
m B (b) inversely proportional to area of loop
(c) parallel to plane of loop and porportional to area of
2 m 2 qB
(c) (d) loop
qB m (d) perpendicular to plane of loop and porportional to
33. In cyclotron the gyro radius is area of loop
(a) proportional to momentum 42. If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic field, then
(b) proportional to energy the torque is given by
(c) inversely proportional to momentum
|m|
(d) inversely proportional to energy (a) m.B (b)
|B|
34. In cyclotron the resonance condition is
(a) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is (c) m B (d) | m | . | B |
equal to the frequency of A.C. voltage sources
43. The magnetic moment of a circular coil carrying current is
(b) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is
(a) directly proportional to the length of the wire in the
equal to the frequency of applied magnetic field
coil
(c) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is (b) inversely proportional to the length of the wire in the
equal to the frequency of rotation of earth coil
(d) the frequency of revolution of charged particle, (c) directly proportional to the square of the length of
frequency of A.C. source and frequency of magnetic the wire in the coil
field are equal (d) inversely proportional to the square of the length of
35. A long solenoid has n turns per meter and current I A the wire in the coil
is flowing through it. The magnetic field within the 44. To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer
solenoid is (a) the number of turns in the coil is increased
0 nI
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(a) (b) nI (c) poles are cylindrically cut
2
(d) coil is wounded on aluminium frame
(c) zero (d) nI
EBD_7208
45. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is III. If v has a component along B, then path of particle
(a) directly proportional to the torsional constant is helical.
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the IV. If v is along B, then path of particle is a circle.
coil (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil (c) III and IV (d) IV and I
(d) inversely proportional to the current flowing 53. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
46. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil statement(s).
is related to the elecrical current i by the relation I. The presence of a large magnetic flux through a coil
(a) i tan (b) i maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is
continuous
(c) i (d) i II. A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non–
47. A moving coil galvanometer has N number of turns in a uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in it
coil of effective area A, it carries a current I. The magnetic III. A charged particle enters a region of uniform
field B is radial. The torque acting on the coil is magnetic field at an angle of 85° to the magnetic lines
(a) NA2B2I (b) NABI2 of force, the path of the particle is a circle
2
(c) N ABI (d) NABI IV. There is no change in the energy of a charged
48. Two parallel circular coils of equal radii having equal number particle moving in a magnetic field although a
of turns placed coaxially and separated by a distance equal magnetic force is acting on it
to the radii of the coils carrying equal currents in same (a) I and II (b) II and III
direction are known as (c) II only (d) IV only
(a) Biot-savart’s coils (b) Ampere’s coils 54. When a positively charged particle enters a region of
(c) Helmholtz coils (d) Oersted’s coils. uniform magnetic field, its trajectory can be
49. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as I. a straight line. II. a circle.
(a) the current flowing through the galvanometer when a III. a helix. IV. a spiral
unit voltage is applied across its terminals. (a) Only I (b) II or III
(b) current per unit deflection. (c) I or II (d) Anyone of I, II or III
(c) deflection per unit current. 55. A velocity selector; (a region of perpendicular electric and
(d) dflection per unit current when a unit voltage is applied magnetic field)
across its terminals I. allows charged particles to pass straight when
v = E/B.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS II. deflects particles in the direction of electric field
when v < E/B.
50. Similarities of Biot–Savart’s law and Coulomb’s law for the III. deflects particles in a direction perpendicular to both
electrostatics are v and B, when v < E/B.
I. both are long range and inversely proportional to the IV. deflects all particles in a direction perpendicular to
square of distance from the source to the point of both E and B.
interest. Which of the above statements are correct?
II. both are linear in source. (a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV
III. both are produced by scalar sources. (c) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV
IV. both follow principle of superposition. 56. Select the correct statements about Lorentz Force.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV I. In presence of electric field E (r ) and magnetic field
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV
51. Direction of force due to magnetic field on a moving B(r ) the force on a moving electric charge is
charged particle is
F q [ E (r ) v B (r )]
I. perpendicular to direction of velocity of charged
particle. II. The force, due to magnetic field on a negative charge
II. perpendicular to direction of magnetic field. is opposite to that on a positive charge.
III. parallel to direction of velocity of charged particle. III. The force due to magnetic field are become zero if
IV. parallel to the direction of magnetic field. velocity and magnetic field are parallel or antiparallel.
IV. For a static charge the magnetic force is maximum.
Correct statements are
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(a) I and IV (b) I and II
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) I and III (d) III and IV
57. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
52. Consider a moving charged particle in a region of I. The magnetic field in the open space inside the toroid
magnetic field. Which of the following statements are is constant.
correct ?
II. The magnetic field in the open space exterior to the
I. If v is parallel to B, then path of particle is spiral. toroid is constant.
II. If v is perpendicular to B, then path of particle is a III. The magnetic field inside the core of toroid is
circle. constant.
(a) I and II (b) II and III Column-I Column -II
(c) III only (d) I only (A) The charged particle (1) It is possible that both B
58. A proton and a deuterium nucleus having certain kinetic
energy enter in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to it. moves without change and G are zero.
in its direction.
Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(B) The charged particle (2) It is possible that both
I. Proton has more frequency of revolution.
II. Deuterium nucleus has more frequency of revolution. moves without change B and G are non zero.
in its velocity.
III. The particle which has greater speed has more
frequency of revolution. (C) The charged particle (3) It is possible that B is
(a) I and II (b) II and III takes a circular path zero and G is not zero.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (D) The charged particle (4) It is possible that B is
59. The galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter
takes a parabolic path non zero and G is zero.
to measure the value of current in a given circuit. The
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
following reasons are
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
I. galvanometer gives full scale deflection for a small
current. (c) (A) (1,2,3,4) ; (B) (1,2,4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
II. galvanometer has a large resistance. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
III. a galvanometer can give inaccurate values. 63. A square loop of side a and carrying current i as shown in
The correct reasons are: the figure is placed in gravity free space having magnetic
(a) I and II (b) II and III field B = B 0 k . Now match following :
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III y
i
60. Match Column I and Column II.
Column I Column II x
(A) Biot-Savart’s law (1) B.dl 0 i
(B) Ampere’s circuital law (2) q[E (V B)]

(C) Force between two (3) B.dl i Column-I Column -II
0
(A) Torque on loop (1) is zero
parallel current
carrying conductors (B) Net force on loop (2) is in direction (– k )
(C) Potential energy of (3) has minimum magnitudes
B 0i dlsin n ˆ
(D) Lorentz force (4) loop
4 r2 (D) Magnetic moment of (4) has maximum
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) loop magnitudes
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1,2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
61. Match the entries given in Column I to their analogue entries (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
of electrostatics given in Column II. 64. Match the physical quantities of Column I with their
Column I Column II mathematical expressions in Column II.
(A) Ampere’s circuital law (1) Electric dipole Column I Column II
(B) Biot-Savart’s law (2) Gauss’s law in 0i
(A) Torque on a circular (1)
electrostatics 2R
(C) Planar current loop (3) Permitivity of free space current loop placed in
(D) Permeability of free (4) Coulomb’s law uniform magnetic field
(B) Force per unit length (2) iAB sin
space between parallel
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3) current carrying wires
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) mV
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (C) Magnetic field at the (3)
qB
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) centre of a circular
62. A charged particle having charge q and mass m is to be current carrying loop.
subjected to a combination of constant uniform magnetic
0 i1 i2
field ( B) and a constant uniform gravitational field (G). (D) Radius of circular path (4)
2 d
Apart from these field forces there exists no other force. Now of a charge particle
match the column. moving in uniform
magnetic field.
EBD_7208
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) × × × V ×
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) V + +
× × × ×
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3) V × × ×
(a) (b) V
65. A circular current carrying loop with magnetic moment parallel
+ ×
to the magnetic field is rotated by an angle of 90° slowly + +× × + ×
about one of its diameter in a uniform magnetic field. Match × × ×
V V
the quantities of Column I with Column II. × × × ×
Column I Column II
(A) Torque on the loop (1) Decreases from × × × × × V
V +
+
maximum to zero. × × × × ×
(B) Potential energy of the (2) Remains constant V
loop (c) × × × × (d)
(C) Magnetic moment of (3) Increases from zero to +
× +× × × ×
the loop maximum
(D) Magnetic flux through (4) Increases from × × V× × ×
the loop minimum to zero. × × × × ×
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) 69. The figure shows n (n being an even number) wires placed
(b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) along the surface of a cylinder of radius r. Each wire carries
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) current i in the same direction. The net magnetic field on the
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) axis of the cylinder is

66. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of
radius r metres subtending an angle at the centre as shown.
The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is
ni0
(a) µ0 ni (b)
2 r
I
0 ni
(c) zero (d)
4 r
70. The figure shows a system of infinite concentric circular
O current loops having radii R1, R2, R3 Rn. The loops carry
net current i alternately in clockwise and anticlockwise
direction. The magnitude of net magnetic field of the centre
of the loops is
0I 0I
(a) (b)
4 r 2 r
0I 0I
(c) (d)
R1
2r 4r R3
67. An element of 0.05 i m is placed at the origin as shown R4
in figure which carries a large current of 10 A. distance of
R5
1 m in perpendicular direction. The value of magnetic field
is
0 i 1 1 1 1
(a) 4.5 × 10–8 T P ` (a) ...
2 R1 R2 R3 R4
(b) 5.5 × 10–8 T i 1 1 1 1
0
(b) ...
(c) 5.0 × 10–8 T 2 R1 R2 R3 R4
(d) 7.5 × 10–8 T x 0.05 i m i 10 1 1 1

(c) ...
4 R1 R2 R3 R4
68. A positively charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic
field with velocity perpendicular to the magnetic field. Which i 10 1 1 1
(d) ...
of the following figures shows the correct motion of charged 4 R1 R2 R3 R4
particle?
71. The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B vs 74. The figure shows two long straight current carrying wire
separated by a fixed distance d. The magnitude of current,
distance r from centre of the wire is, if the radius of wire
flowing in each wire varies with time but the magnitude of
is R
current in each wire is equal at all times.
B
(a) (b)
r R r
0 R
B B
Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation

(c) (d) of force per unit length f between the two wires with
current i?
0 r 0 r
R R
72. The figure shows a closely wound coil on a square core of
f f
inside edge length l. The no. of turns per unit length of the
coil is n. Each turn carries current i into the plane of paper (a) (b)
and out of the plane of papers. ABCD is an Amperian loop
enclosing an open surface in the plane of the paper. The
i i
current enclosed by the loop is
A D
f f
(c) (d)
i i
75. A charged particle enters in a magnetic field in a direction
perpendicular to the magnetic field. Which of the following
B i i C graphs show the correct variation of kinetic energy of the
particle with time t ?
(a) (b)
(a) 4 ni (b) 4 nli
K.E. K.E.
(c) 8 nli (d) zero
73. The figure shows a thin metalic rod whose one end is pivoted
at point O. The rod rotates about the end O in a plane
perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field with angular t t
frequency w in clockwise direction. Which of the following
is correct ? (c) (d)
× × × × × × K.E. K.E.
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × O× × × t t
76. The figure shows a circular current loop placed in magnetic
× × × × × × fields. When current flows through the loop in clockwise
× × × × × × direction, which of the following figures shows the correct
shape of current loop ?
(a) The free electrons of the rod move towards the outer × × × ×
end × ×
× × × ×
(b) The free electrons of the rod move towards the pivoted × ×
end. × × × × × ×
(c) The free electrons of the rod move towards the × × × × × ×
mid-point of the rod. × × × × × ×
(d) The free electrons of the rod do not move towards any × × × ×
× ×
end of the rod as rotation of rod has no effect on motion × × × ×
× ×
of free electrons.
EBD_7208
×× × × × × ×× ×× × × (a) B (b) B
×× × × × × ×× ×× × ×
×× × × × × ×× ×× × ×
(a) × ×
(b) × ×
×× × × ×× ××
×× ×× × ×
×× × × × ×
×× ×× ×× × ×
× × × × r r
× × × ×
× ×
× ×
× × × × (c) B (d) B
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
(c) × × × × (d)
× × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × ×
× × × ×
× × r
× × × × × × × × × × r
77. The figure shows a thin rod pivoted at point O and rotating 80. A portion of a conductive wire is bent in the form of a
clockwise in the plane of paper with constant angular semicircle of radius r as shown below in fig. At the centre of
semicircle, the magnetic induction will be
velocity w. A bead having charge + q can slide freely on the
rod as the rod rotates.
i
r
× × × × i
O
× × +q × × (a) zero (b) infinite
× × 0 i 0 i
O × × (c) . gauss (d) . tesla
r r
× × × ×
81. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each other. Each
× × × × carries a current i in the same direction and the separation
between them is 2r. The intensity of the magnetic field midway
Which of the following statements is incorrect ? between them is
(a) Magnetic moment of current loop generated by the (a) 0i / r
bead increases.
(b) 4 0i / r
(b) Angular momentum of the bead increases.
(c) zero
(c) Torque on current loop generated is zero.
(d) Potentential energy of curr ent loop generated (d) 0i / 4 r
decreases. 82. Three wires are situated at the same distance. A current of
78. The figure shows a closed loop bent in the form of a semi- 1A, 2A, 3A flows through these wires in the same direction.
circle. One bead having charge +q slides from A to B along What is ratio of F1/F2, where F1 is force on 1 and F2 on 2?
the diameter in uniform motion and other bead having the (a) 7/8
same charge slides along the arc from A to B in uniform (b) 1
circular motion. Both take some time to travel from A to B. (c) 9/8
When both the beads are at the mid-point of their journey, (d) None of these 1A 2A 3A
then the forces exerted by lower bead and upper bead are
respectively 83. A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant
when a charge + Q at point P has velocity v , as shown,
A B the force on the charge is
y
(a) gravitational and magnetic Q

(b) magnetic and electric P v
(c) electric and gravitational I o x
(d) gravitational and electric.
79. The magnetic flux density B at a distance r from a long straight
(a) along oy (b) opposite to oy
wire carrying a steady current varies with r as
(c) along ox (d) opposite to ox
84. Figure shows a spiral coil of negligible mass lying in a plane 89. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is reversed in direction
perpendicular to uniform magnetic field. When the key is while keeping the same magnitude, the magnetic field energy
closed the spiral coil will stored in the solenoid decreases.
Reason : Magnetic field energy density is proportional to
× × × ×
A square of current.
× × × × 90. Assertion : If a charged particle is released from rest in a
region of uniform electric and magnetic fields parallel to each
× × × ×
other, it will move in a straight line.
× × × × Reason : The electric field exerts no force on the particle but
the magnetic field does.
× × × ×
91. Assertion : Figure shows a current carrying conductor and
× × × ×
() a close path. For the close path Bd 0.
B
(a) contract
(b) expand
(c) neither contract nor expand
(d) tend to rotate about an axis passing through A
and B.
Reason : For the close path, the magnetic field at each point
on the path is zero.
92. Assertion : A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, field. The velocity of the particle at same instant makes an
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four acute angle with the magnetic field. The path of the particle
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You is a helix with constant pitch.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct Reason : The force on the particle is given by F q v B .
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a 93. Assertion: The work done by magnetic force on a charged
correct explanation for assertion particle is zero.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason: The work done by magnetic force on a charged
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. particle is zero when the force is perpendicular to velocity of
85. Assertion : Ampere s law used for the closed loop shown in particle, in other cases it is not zero.
figure is written as B d 0 i1 i2 . Right side of it does 94. Assertion : Alternating current shows no magnetic effect.
not include i3, because it produces no magnetic field at the Reason : The magnetic field produced by alternating current
loop. in complete cycle is zero.
95. Assertion : A direct current flows through a thin conductor
produces magnetic field only outside the conductor.
Reason : There is no flow of charge carriers inside the
Reason : The line integral of magnetic field produced by i3 conductor.
over the close loop is zero. 96. Assertion : The force between two parallel current carrying
86. Assertion: Ampere’s circuital law is independent of conductors carrying currents in same direction is attractive
Biot-Savart’s law. because there is no electrical interaction between them.
Reason: Ampere’s circuital law can be derived from the Biot-
Reason : The force between two electrons streams moving
savart’s law.
87. Assertion : The magnetic field due to a very large current in the same direction repulsive because there is no magnetic
carrying loop is zero at its centre. interaction between them.
97. Assertion : The net charge in a current carrying wire is zero
Reason : Magnetic field at the centre of loop is, B 0i .
2R and so magnetic force on the wire in magnetic field is zero.
88. Assertion : Figure shows a current carrying circular loop. Reason :
The magnetic field at the centre of loop is zero. The force on a current carrying wire is given by F=Bi sin .
98. Assertion : A current carrying loop placed in a magnetic
field must experience a torque.
Reason : Torque on the loop is given by =MBsin .
99. Assertion: The frequency of circular motion of a charged
particle in cyclotron is independent of the mass of the
Reason : Magnetic field at the centre of loop is given by particle.
0 ni Reason: Greater the mass of the particle less will be the
B .
2R frequency of the particle.
EBD_7208
100. Assertion : The figure shows the circular paths of two (a) 10–5 (b) 12×10–5
particles : electron and proton that travel at the same speed (c) 7 × 10 –5 (d) 5 × 10–5
in a uniform magnetic field B, which is directed into the 108. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then
page. The electron follows the path of smaller radius. from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same
current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the
magnetic inductions at their centres will be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1.4
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
109. A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns each of
radius 9 cm carries a current of 0.4 A. The magnitude of
Reason : The radius of path in the perpendicular magnetic manetic field at the centre of the coil is
mv (a) 2.4 × 10–4 T (b) 3.5 × 10–4 T
field is given by r . (c) 2.79 × 10 T –4 (d) 3 × 10–4 T
qB
110. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current i.
101. Assertion : A cyclotron cannot accelerate neutrons.
Reason : Neutrons are neutral. The magnetic field at its centre is 6.28 × 10–2 Weber/m2.
102. Assertion: To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter a Another long solenoid has 100 turns per cm and it carries a
i
small resistance is connected in parallel with it. current . The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
Reason: The small resistance increases the combined 3
(a) 1.05 × 10–2 weber/m2 (b) 1.05 × 10–5 weber/m2
resistance of the combination.
(c) 1.05 × 10–3 weber/m2 (d) 1.05 × 10–4 weber/m2
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 111. A solenoid of length 1.5 m and 4 cm diameter possesses 10
turns per cm. A current of 5A is flowing through it, the
103. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, magnetic induction at axis inside the solenoid is
straight, thin walled pipe. Then
(a) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the ( 0 4 10 7 weber amp 1 m 1 )
same, but not zero 5 5
(b) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe (a) 4 10 gauss (b) 2 10 gauss
(c) the magnetic field is different at different points inside 5 5
(c) 4 10 tesla (d) 2 10 tesla
the pipe
(d) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero 112. A long solenoid is formed by winding 20 turns/cm. The
104. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of current necessary to produce a magnetic field of 20
radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from millitesla inside the solenoid will be approximately
the centre is 54 T. What will be its value at the centre of
loop ? 0
( = 10–7 tesla – metre / ampere)
(a) 125 T (b) 150 T 4
(c) 250 T (d) 75 T (a) 8.0 A (b) 4.0 A
105. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight (c) 2.0 A (d) 1.0 A
thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point 113. A solenoid of length 0.6 m has a radius of 2 cm and is
inside the tube is made up of 600 turns If it carries a current of 4 A, then the
2i magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is
0
(a) . tesla (b) zero (a) 6.024 × 10–3 T (b) 8.024 × 10–3 T
r –3
(c) 5.024 × 10 T (d) 7.024 × 10–3 T
2i 114. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform
(c) infinite (d) tesla
r magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on
106. long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a one arm of the loop is F , the net force on the remaining
current of 75 A in north of south direction, magnitude and
three arms of the loop is
direction of field B at a point 3 m east of the wire is
(a) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical up (a) 3 F (b) – F
(b) 5 × 10–6 T, vertical down
(c) 5 × 10–6 T, vertical up (c) – 3 F (d) F
(d) 4 × 10–6 T, vertical down 115. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field
107. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 cm are placed B along its axis. If the current is double and the number of
at right angles to each other. 3 ampere and 4 ampere are the turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is
currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic
induction in weber/m2 at the centre of the coils will be (a) 4 B (b) B/2
( 0 4 10 7 Wb / A.m) (c) B (d) 2 B
116. A current of I ampere flows along an infinitely long straight 124. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field with a
thin walled hollow metallic cylinder of radius r. The magnetic certain velocity. The power delivered to the particle by the
field at any point inside the cylinder at a distance x from the magnetic field depends on
axis of the cylinder is (a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity of the
particle.
0I
(a) infinite (b) (b) angular speed w and radius r of the circular path.
2 r (c) angular speed w and acceleration of the particle.
(d) None of these
I
0
(c) (d) zero 125. The figure shows a spring-block system executing SHM in a
2 x
uniform magnetic field. The block slides on the frictionless
117. If we double the radius of a coil keeping the current through surface of a weighing machine. The block is having charge
it unchanged, then the magnetic field at any point at a large +q on it. Assume that the block is so heavy that any force
distance from the centre becomes approximately exerted by magnetic field cannot lift it. Select the correct
(a) double (b) three times option from the following.
(c) four times (d) one-fourth
118. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The × × × × ×
ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The
magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is × × × × ×
× × × × ×
0 qf 0q × × × × ×
(a) (b)
2R 2f R
(a) When the block moves to right the machine shows
0q 0 qf more reading and when to left, less reading.
(c) 2 fR
(d)
2 R (b) When the block moves to right the machine shows less
119. A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of wire which reading and when to left, more reading.
subtends an angle (3 /2) radians at its centre, whose radius (c) The machine shows same reading which is less than
is R. The magnetic induction B at the centre is the actual weight of the block in both cases.
(a) 0 i/R (b) 0 i/2R (d) The machine shows same reading which is more than
(c) 2 0 i/R (d) 3 0 i/8R the actual weight of the block in both cases.
120. A steady current flows down a hollow cylindrical tube of 126. A proton and a deuterium nucleus having certain kinetic
radius a and is uniformly distributed around the tube. Let r energies enter in a uniform magnetic field with same
be the distance from the axis of symmetry of the tube to a component of velocity in the direction of magnetic field.
given point. What is the magnitiude of the magnetic field B Which of the following is correct ?
at a point inside the tube? (a) Proton has greater pitch of helical motion.
(a) 0 (b) 2 I/r c (b) Deuterium nucleus has greater pitch of helical motion.
(c) 2 I r/a2c (d) 4 (r – a) /r2 (c) Both particles have same pitch of helical motion.
121. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight (d) Which particle has greater pitch depends on the fact
thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point that which particle has greater component of velocity
inside the tube is perpendicular to magnetic field.
(a) infinite (b) zero 127. A charged particle goes undeflected in a region containing
electric and magnetic fields. It is possible that
0 2i 2i
(c) . tesla (d) tesla
4 r r (a) E ||B, v || E
122. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant (b)
current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B such that E is not parallel to B
B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic (c) v || B but E is not parallel to B
force acting on the loop is
(a) i r B (b) 2 r i B (d) E || B but v is not parallel to E
(c) zero (d) riB 128. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region
123. If a charged particle has a velocity component in a direction of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. This
parallel to magnetic field in addition to the component particle will
perpendicular to magnetic field then charged particle moves (a) get deflected in vertically upward direction
in magnetic field in a (b) move in circular path with an increased speed
(a) circular path (b) parabolic path (c) move in a circular path with decreased speed
(c) helical path (d) straight line (d) move in a circular path with uniform speed
EBD_7208
129. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a (a) helix (b) straight line
region of space without any change in its velocity. If E and (c) ellipse (d) circle
B represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, 137. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting
this region of space may not have along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is
(a) E = 0, B = 0 (b) E = 0, B 0 projected along the direction of the fields with a certain
(c) E 0, B = 0 (d) E 0, B 0 velocity then
130. A charged particle enters into a magnetic field with a velocity (a) its velocity will increase
vector making an angle of 30º with respect to the direction of (b) its velocity will decrease
magnetic field. The path of the particle is (c) it will turn towards left of direction of motion
(a) circular (b) helical (d) it will turn towards right of direction of motion
(c) elliptical (d) straight line 138. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged
131. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant
containing electric and magnetic fields, then speed v. The time period of the motion
(a) (a) depends on both R and v
E must be perpendicular to B
(b) is independent of both R and v
(b) v must be perpendicular to E (c) depends on R and not v
(c) E must be perpendicular to v B (d) depends on v and not on R
(d) None of these 139. If an electron describes half a revolution in a circle of radius
132. Two long wires are hanging freely. They are joined first in r in a magnetic field B, the energy acquired by it is
parallel and then in series and then are connected with a
1
battery. In both cases which type of force acts between the (a) zero (b) mv 2
two wires? 2
(a) Attraction force when in parallel and repulsion force 1
when in series (c) mv 2 (d) r Bev
4
(b) Repulsion force when in parallel and attraction force 140. A cell is connected between two points of a uniformly thick
when in series circular conductor and i1 and i2 are the currents flowing in
(c) Repulsion force in both cases two parts of the circular conductor of radius a. The magnetic
(d) Attraction force in both cases field at the centre of the loop will be
133. A charged particle with charge q enters a region of constant,
0
uniform and mutually orthogonal fields E and B with a (a) zero (b) ( I1 I 2 )
4
velocity v perpendicular to both E and B , and comes out
without any change in magnitude or direction of v . Then 0 0
(c) ( I1 I 2 ) (d) (I1 I2 )
2a a
(a) v B E / E2 (b) v E B / B2
141. Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are
2 2 perpendicular to each other and carry currents 1 and 2. The
(c) v B E / B (d) v E B / E
134. A uniform electric field and uniform magnetic field are acting magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P at a distance
along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane
projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along ABCD is
the direction of fields, then the electron 0 0
(a) will turn towards right of direction of motion (a) (I1 I 2 ) (b) (I1 I 2 )
2 a 2 a
(b) speed will decrease
(c) speed will increase 1
I1 I 2
0
(d) will turn towards left direction of motion (c)
0
(I12 I 22 ) 2 (d)
2 a 2 a I1 I 2
135. If an electron and a proton having same momenta enter
perpendicular to a magnetic field, then 142. A current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
(a) curved path of electron and proton will be same experiences maximum force when angle between current and
(ignoring the sense of revolution) magnetic field is
(b) they will move undeflected (a) 3 /4 (b) /2
(c) curved path of electron is more curved than that of the (c) /4 (d) zero
proton 143. A current of 3 A is flowing in a linear conductor having a
(d) path of proton is more curved length of 40 cm. The conductor is placed in a magnetic field
136. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields of strength 500 gauss and makes an angle of 30º with the
are present. These two fields are parallel to each other. A direction of the field. It experiences a force of magnitude
charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path (a) 3 × 10–4 N (b) 3 × 10–2 N
2
(c) 3 × 10 N (d) 3 × 104 N
of the particle will be a
144. A current of 10 A is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 m. A carry current of 2.5 amp. and 5 amp. respectively in the same
force of 15 N acts on it when it is placed in a uniform direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between
magnetic field of 2 T. The angle between the magnetic field the wires is
and the direction of the current is
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(a) 0 / 17 (b) 3 0 /2
(c) 60° (d) 90° (c) 0 /2 (d) 3 0 /2
145. An 8 cm long wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed
153. Through two parallel wires A and B, 10A and 2A of currents
inside a solenoid perpendicular to its axis. If the magnetic
are passed respectively in opposite directions. If the wire A
field inside the solenoid is 0.3 T, then magnetic force on
is infinitely long and the length of the wire B is 2m, then
the wire is
force on the conductor B, which is situated at 10 cm distance
(a) 0.14 N (b) 0.24 N
from A, will be
(c) 0.34 N (d) 0.44 N
(a) 8 × 10–7 N (b) 8 × 10–5 N
146. A 10eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a –7
uniform field at a magnetic induction 10–4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 (c) 4 × 10 N (d) 4 × 10–5 N
gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is 154. A circular loop of area 0.02 m2 carrying a current of 10A, is
(a) 12cm (b) 16cm held with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field induction
(c) 11 cm (d) 18 cm 0.2 T. The torque acting on the loop is
147. An electron (mass = 9 × 10 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
–31 (a) 0.01 Nm (b) 0.001 Nm
moving with a velocity of 106 m/s enters a magnetic field. If it (c) zero (d) 0.8 Nm
describes a circle of radius 0.1m, then strength of magnetic 155. A coil carrying a heavy current and having large number of
field must be turns is mounted in a N-S vertical plane. A current flows in
(a) 4.5 × 10–5 T (b) 1.4 × 10–5 T the clockwise direction. A small magnetic needle at its centre
(c) 5.5 × 10 T –5 (d) 2.6 × 10–5 T will have its north pole in
148. A charged particle with velocity 2 × 103 m/s passes (a) east-north direction (b) west-north direction
undeflected through electric and magnetic field. Magnetic (c) east-south direction (d) west-south direction
field is 1.5 tesla. The electric field intensity would be 156. A galvanometer having a resistance of 80 ohms is shunted
(a) 2 × 103 N/C (b) 1.5 × 103 N/C by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1amp.,
3 the part of it passing through the shunt will be
(c) 3 × 10 N/C (d) 4/3 × 10–3 N/C
(a) 0.25 amp (b) 0.8 amp
149. What is cyclotron frequency of an electron with an energy
(c) 0.02 amp (d) 0.5 amp
of 100 e V in the earth's magnetic field of 1 × 10–4 weber / m2 if
157. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 900 . In
its velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field?
order to send only 10% of the main current through this
(a) 0.7 MHz (b) 2.8 MHz galvanometer, the resistance of the required shunt is
(c) 1.4 MHz (d) 2.1 MHz (a) 0.9 (b) 100
150. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around a nucleus in a (c) 405 (d) 90
circular orbit of radius 50 pm is 2.2 × 106 ms–1. Then the 158. A galvanometer of resistance 5 ohms gives a full scale
magnetic dipole moment of an electron is deflection for a potential difference of 10 mV. To convert the
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 Am2 (b) 5.3 × 10–21 Am2 galvanometer into a voltmeter giving a full scale deflection
(c) 8.8 × 10 Am–24 2 (d) 8.8 × 10–26 Am2 for a potential difference of 1V, the size of the resistance that
151. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle of radius 0.8 must be attached to the voltmeter is
meter in 2 sec. The value of the magnetic field induction B in (a) 0.495 ohm (b) 49.5 ohm
tesla at the centre of circle will be (c) 495 ohm (d) 4950 ohm
19 19
159. A galvanometer of resistance 100 gives a full scale
(a) 2 10 0 (b) 10 / 0 deflection for a current of 10–5 A. To convert it into a ammeter
19 20 capable of measuring upto 1 A, we should connect a
(c) 10 0 (d) 2 10 / 0 resistance of
152. Two long parallel wires P and Q are held perpendicular to the (a) 1 in parallel (b) 10–3 in parallel
plane of paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q (c) 10 5 in series (d) 100 in series
EBD_7208
32. (c) Equating magnetic force to centripetal force,

1. (a) mv 2
qvB sin 90º
r
0 id sin 0 i(d r)
2. (d) dB = .
2 dB = 4 . 3 Time to complete one revolution,
4 r r
2 r 2 m
3. (d) According to Ampere’s circuital law B . dl o I T=
v qB
4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)
i 10 mv2 mv
7. (b) Magnetic field is given by B i.e., B which 33. (a) Bqv = r
2 r r r Bq
implies that field has cylindrical symmetry.
34. (a)
8. (a) 9. (c)
10. (c) Field at the center of a circular coil of radius r is 35. (b)
0I 36. (b)
B= i i
2r
F
11. (b) Magnetic field at a point on one end of a solenoid
1
B= ni
2
12. (b) B = ni
13. (b) Because B = ni B ni 2
F 0 i1 i 2 0i
14. (b) It will compress due to the force of attraction between =
2 d 2 d
two adjacent coils carrying current in the same direction.
15. (c) As Lorentz force is given by (attractive as current is in the same direction)
37. (c)
F q E V B qE q V B
mv 2 mv
F FE FB 38. (d) F qVB R
R Bq
16. (b)
17. (b) Parallel currents attract and anti-parallel currents repel 39. (c)
can be verified by the application of right hand thumb 40. (a) Current loop acts as a magnetic dipole. Its magnetic
rule. moment is given by
18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) M = NIA
23. (b) where N = number of turns, I = current in a loop,
24. (a) Lorentz force is given by
A = area of the loop
F Fe Fm From the above relation, we can conclude that
magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is
= qE q(v B) q[( E (v B)]
independent of magnetic field in which it is lying.
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (b)
41. (d) Mgnetic dipole moment, M = NiA
28. (a) Because = NiAB cos
42. (c)
29. (c)
30. (b) Magnetic force acts perpendicular to the velocity. 43. (c) M = NiA M A M r2
Hence speed remains constant. As = 2 r r
M 2
mv v
31. (d) r r 44. (c)
qB B
NiAB E
45. (b) N Number of turns Case I Fe = FB v=
C B
C E
46. (b) i i Case II Fe > FB vE/B
48. (c) 56. (c) If charge is not moving then the magnetic force is
49. (c) Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the amount of zero.
deflection produced in the galvanometer when unit
Since F m q (v B)
current flows through it.
As v = 0, for stationary charge
Fm = 0
50. (c) The Biot–Savart’s law for the magnetic field has
certain similarities as well as differences with the 57. (c)
Coulomb’s law for the electrostatic field. Some of 58. (b) The frequency of revolution is given by
these are :
qB
(i) Both are long range, since both depend inversly on .
2 m
the square of distance from the source to the point
of interest. The principle of superposition applies to 1
If charge is constant, then
both fields. In this connection, note that the magnetic m
field is linear in the source Idl just as the electrostatic 59. (a) The galvanometer cannot as such be used as an
field is linear in its source the electric charge. ammeter to measure the value of the current in a
(ii) The electrostatic field is produced by a scalar source, given circuit. This is for two reasons (i) Galvanometer
namely, the electric charge. The magnetic field is is a very sensitive device, it gives a full-scale
produced by a vector source Idl. deflection for a current of the order of A. (ii) For
51. (b) measuring currents, the galvanometer has to be
(i) Lorentz force depends on q, v and B (charge of the connected in series and as it has a large resistance,
particle, the velocity and the magnetic field). Force this will change the value of the current in the circuit.
on a negative charge is opposite to that on a positive
charge. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(ii) The magnetic force q [v × B] includes a vector
60. (a) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
product of velocity and magnetic field. The vector
product makes the force due to magnetic field vanish 61. (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3)
(become zero) if velocity and magnetic field are 62. (c) (A) (1, 2, 3, 4) ; (B) (1, 2, 4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
parallel or anti-parallel. The force acts in a (sideways) 63. (b) (A) (1,2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
direction perpendicular to both the velocity and the 64. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3)
magnetic field. Its direction is given by the screw 65. (b) A - (3) I = mB sin , as sin from 0 1.
rule. B - (4) U( )= –mB cos , as cos from 1 0, then U( )
52. (b) If v B, then path is circular and if v has a from U( )min = –mB 0.
component along B, then path will be helical.
53. (d) When charged particle enters perpendicularly in a C - (3) as m i A.
magnetic field, it moves in a circular path with a
D -(1) as B BA cos . As cos from 1 0, then B
constant speed. Hence its kinetic energy also remains
constant. from BA = ( B)max 0.
54. (d) When v | | B, F = 0, then path is a straight line.
If v B , F = Bqv, so path is a circle. while v makes
some angle with B, then F = Bqvsin so path is
µ0 I I
helical. 66. (a) B 0
2r 2 4 r
55. (c) In a velocity selector, where Fe and FB are electric
and magetic field, we get
EBD_7208
0 IdI sin 0i2

67. (c) dB = 74. (c) The force per unit length is given by f
4 r2 2 d
Here, dI = x = 0.05 m, I = 10 A, r = 1 m i.e., f i2
sin = sin 90° = 1, 75. (d) The change in K.E. is equal to work done by net force
which is zero because the magnetic force is
10 0.05 1
dB = 10–7 × perpendicular to velocity. K.E. remains constant.
(1) 2
76. (c) The equation dFB i dl B gives the direction of
= 0.50 × 10–7 = 5.0 × 10–8 T
force radially outward in those regions where the field
68. (c) Force, FB q V B is directed into the plane of paper and radially inward
which gives direction of force towards centre. on the section of loop where the field is pointing towards
69. (c) Since n is an even number, we can assume the wires in the reader.
pairs such that the two wires forming a pair is placed
77. (d) Since P.E. = – m B mB cos 0
diametrically opposite to each other on the surface of
P.E. = –mB
cylinder. The fields produced on the axis by them are
equal and opposite and can get cancelled with each Since m increases in magnitude, therefore P.E.
other. decreases.
70. (b) Field at the centre of a circular current loop is given by 78. (d) Obviously gravitational and electric force is there as
both the particle have mass and charge. Since both
i
B . Since the currents are alternately in opposite charges are in motion so they constitute currents which
2R
generate magnetic fields around them and thus exert
directions therefore the correct net field at centre is magnetic force on each other.
given by vector sum of field produced by each loop 79. (c)
which are alternately in opposite directions. 80. (d) The straight part will not contribute magnetic field at the
71. (b) The magnetic field from the centre of wire of radius centre of the semicircle because every element of the
R is given by straight part will be 0º or 180º with the line joining the
0I centre and the element
B= r (r < R) B r
2R 2
1 0i 0i
0I 1 Due to circular portion, the field is
2 2r 4r
and B = (r > R) B
2 r r
From the above descriptions, we can say that the 0 i
Hence total field at O tesla
graph (b) is a correct representation. 4r
72. (d) Since the total current going into the surface is equal
to total current coming out of the surface, therefore i i
81. (c) B 0
. 0
. 0
current enclosed is zero. 2 r 2 r
73. (b) The application of equation FB q V B on the 82. (a) Due to flow of current in same direction at adjacent
side, an attractive magnetic force will be produced.
element dl of the rod gives force on positive charge
towards the outer end. Therefore electrons will move 83. (a) The direction of B is along ( k )
towards pivoted end.
The magnetic force
× × F Q( v B) Q( v î ) B( k̂ ) QvBĵ
along OY..
× × ×
84. (b) As the current flows in the spiral in clockwise direction,
dl
× × V × the application of equation dFB i dl B given the

× × ×
O force on current element dl in radially outward direction
× × × hence expand.
× × ×
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS mv

100. (a) The radius of path, r . As mass of electron is
qB
85. (d) The magnetic field at any point on the closed loop is
due to all the three currents, but line integral of i3 over smaller than mass of proton, so radius of electron is
the closed loop will be zero. smaller.
86. (d) Ampere’s circuital law can be derived from Biot-Savart 101. (b) Neutrons are neutral.
law and is not independent of Biot-Savart law. 102. (c) An ammeter should have a low resistance which we
87. (a) Magnetic field at the centre of circular loop is given by get when we connect low resistance in parallel with
galvanometer.
0i
B , as R , and so B 0.
2R CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
88. (a) The magnetic field of two equal halfs of the loop is
103. (d) There is no current inside the pipe. Therefore
equal and opposite and so B 0 .
89. (a) Reversing the direction of the current reverses the B.dt µo I
direction of the magnetic field. However, it has no effect
I=0 B= 0
on the magnetic-field energy density, which is
proportional to the square of the magnitude of the a2
0i
magnetic field. B
104. (c) 3
2(x 2 a2) 2
90. (c) Due to electric field, the force is F qE in the direction
of E . Since E is parallel to B , the particle velocity v 3

0i 0i a2 (x 2 a2 ) 2
(acquired due to force F ) is parallel to B . Hence B B'
2a 3 a2
2a(x 2 a2 ) 2
will not exert any force since v B 0 and the motion
of the particle is not affected by B .
B.(x 2 a 2 )3/2
91. (c) We know that, B'
B.d 0iin . Since iin 0 and so
a3
B.d 0 . The magnetic field on any point on the
54(53 )
close loop is zero. Put x = 4 & a = 3 B' = 250 T
3 3 3
92. (b)
93. (c) Since the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the 105. (b) Using Ampere’s law at a distance r from axis, B is same
velocity of the charged particle so, work done is always from symmetry.
zero.
B.dl i
94. (d) Current shows magnetic effect, but in one cmplete cycle
the net magnetic field beocmes zero.
B 2 r 0 i
95. (c) The magnetic field inside conductor is given by
Here i is zero, for r < R, whereas R is radius
0 ir
B= 2 . 2 B 0
a
106. (c) From Ampere circuital law
For thin conductor, the point is on the axis of the
conductor and so r = 0, B = 0. B.dI 0 I enc
96. (c) In case of two electron streams the electric repulsion is
greater than magnetic attraction. B×2 R= 0Ienc
97. (d) The magnetic force acts only on moving electrons, and
0 I enc 75
so net force on the conductor is non-zero. B= = 2 × 10–7 × = 5 × 10–6 T
2 R 3
98. (d) The value of torque depends on . For = 0, = MBx
The direction of field at the given point will be
sin 0° = 0.
99. (d) The frequency of revolution is given by vertical up determined by the screw rule or right hand
rule.
qB
, hence Statement I is false and II is true.
2 m
EBD_7208
2
107. (d) 6.28 10 2
(1) B2 1.05 10 Wb / m 2
6
111. (d) B 0n 4 10 7
10 5 2 10 5 T.
(2)
B
112. (a) B = 0ni i=
0n
3
20 10
The magnetic field due to circular coil, = = 7.9 A = 8 A
7
4 10 20 100
µ0i1 0 i1 0 3 10 2
B1 600
2r 2 (2 10 2 ) 4 113. (c) Here, n = = 1000 turns / m I = A
0.6
1
0i2 0 4 102 I = 0.6 m, r = 0.02 m
r
= 30 i.e. I >> r
B2 Hence, we can use long solenoid formula, them
2(2 10 2 ) 4
B = 0nI = 4 × 10–7 × 103 × 4
= 50.24 × 10–4 = 5.024 × 10–3 T
B= B12 B 22 = 0
. 5 × 102
4 114. (b) The force on the two arms parallel to the field is zero.
B = 10 7 5 10 2 B = 5 × 10–5 Wb / m2 <
108. (b) Let be length of wire
<
<
F
Ist case : =2 r r B
2 –F
<
0I 0I
B
2 r Force on remaining arms = – F
2nd Case : 2( 2 r ) N0
r 115. (c) B 0 N0 i ; B1 ( 0) (2 i) 0 N 0i B
4 2
B1 = B
0 In 2 0I
B (where n = 2) 116. (d) Since no current is enclosed inside the hollow
2 conductor. Hence Binside = 0.
4 2
0 NI
117. (c) Baxis = R2
0I 3
on putting the value of B B = 4 4B 2x
l
109. (c) Here, N = 100 B R2
R = 9 cm = 9 × 10–2 m, and I = 0.4 A So, when radius is doubled, magnetic field becomes
four times.
7
0 NI 2 10 100 0.4 118. (a) Magnetic field at the centre of the ring is
Now, B = 2
2R 9 10 0 qf
2R
2 3.14 0.4 3
= 10 119. (d) 120. (a) 121. (b) 122. (c)
9
123. (c) With parallel component it will move in the direction of
= 0.279 × 10–3 T = 0.279 × 10–4 T magnetic field and with perpendicular component it will
trace circular path and the combination of both these
i
100 yield helical path.
B2 0 n 2i2 B2 3
110. (a)
B1 0 n1i1 6.28 10 2 200 i
139. (a) Since magnetic force is always perpendicular to the
work done
124. (d) Power = velocity of electron, so it can only change the direction
time
of velocity of electron, but it (the magnetic force) cannot
As no work is done by magnetic force on the charged accelerate or deaccelerate the electron.
particle because magnetic force is perpendicular to 140. (a) Let 1, 2 be the lengths of the two parts PRQ and PSQ of
velocity, hence power delivered is zero. the conductor and be the resistance per unit length of
125. (b) When the block moves to the right application of the conductor. The resistance of the portion PRQ will be
equation FB q V B gives magnetic force in R1 = 1
upward direction similarly when block moves left, FB I2

is in downward direction.
126. (b) Due to perpendicular component both will execute S O Q
2 m R
circular motion for which T . Since q is same,
qB P I1
therefore T m. Hence deuterium nucleus will travel
more distance.
127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (c) The resistance of the portion PSQ will be R2 = 2
130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (a) Pot. diff. across P and Q = I1 R1 = I2 R2
or I1 1 = I2 2 or I1 1 = I2 2 ...(1)
133. (b) Here, E and B are perpendicular to each other and the
Magnetic field induction at the centre O due to currents
velocity v does not change; therefore
through circular conductors PRQ and PSQ will be
E
qE = qvB v 0 1 1 sin 90º 0 2 2 sin 90º
B = B1 – B2 2 2
0.
4 r 4 r
r
If velocity v is to both E and B , 141. (c) The point P is lying symmetrically w.r.t. the two long
straight current carrying conductors. The magnetic
E B E Bsin E B sin 90 E
Also, 2 2 2
|v| v fields at P due to these current carrying conductors are
B B B B
mutually perpendicular.
142. (b) F = iB l sin . This is maximum when sin = 1
134. (b) v and B are in same direction so that magnetic force
or = /2.
on electron becomes zero, only electric force acts. But
143. (b) F = I B sin = 3 ×0.40 × (500 × 10–4) × sin 30º
force on electron due to electric field is opposite to the
direction of velocity. = 3 × 10–2 N.
135. (a) r = mv/Bq is same for both. F
136. (b) The charged particle will move along the lines of electric 144. (a) F = IIB sin or sin =
IIB
field (and magnetic field). Magnetic field will exert no
force. The force by electric field will be along the lines 15 1
sin = = or = 30°
of uniform electric field. Hence the particle will move in 10 1.5 2 2
a straight line. 145. (b) F = IIB
137. (b) Due to electric field, it experiences force and accelerates Here, = 90°, I = 10 A
i.e. its velocity decreases.
I = 8 cm = 8 ×10–2 m, B = 0.3 T
138. (b) In a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle is moving
F = 10 × 8 × 10–2 × 0.3 × sin
in a circle of radius R with constant speed v.
mv 2
mv2 mv 146. (b) [Hint qvB ].
Bqv or, R .....(1) r
R Bq
Time period, T
2 R 2 mv 2 m
.....(2) m v2 mv (9 10 31 ) 10 6
147. (c) Bqv or B
v Bqv Bq r rq 0.1 (1.6 10 19 )
Time period T does not depend on both R and v because
when v is changed, R is also changed proportionately 5.5 10 5 T
and for period, it is R/v that is taken.
EBD_7208
148. (c) E vB 2 103 1.5 3 103 V / m. 0 2i2 0 2 i1 0 4

152. (c) B (i 2 i1 )
4 (r / 2) 4 ( r / 2) 4 r
149. (b)
150. (c) Magnetic dipole moment 4
0 0
(5 2.5) .
e 2 e 2 erv 4 5 2
m iA r r .
T (2 r / v) 2
7
2I1I2
0 10 2 10 2 5
1.6 10 19
50 10 12
2.2 10 6 153. (b) F 2 8 10 N
4 r 0.1
2
154. (c)
8.8 10 24
Am . 2 155. (b)
156. (c) [Hint S × (I – Ig) = Rg × Ig ]
2 i0
151. (c) B where 157. (b) Ig 0.1I, Is 0.9 I ; S I g R g / Is
4 r
19 0.1 900 / 0.9 100 .

2e 2 1.6 10 19
i 1.6 10 A 158. (c) Ig = 10 × 10–3/5 = 2 × 10–3 A;
t 2
19
V 1
i 1.6 10 R Rg 5 495 .
B 0 0
0 10 19
T Ig 2 10 3
2r 2 0.8
159. (b) Here, Rg = 100 ; Ig = 10–5 A; I =1A; S = ?
5
gRg 10 100 3
S 10 in parallel
I - Ig 1 10 5
20
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
8. When a current in a circular loop is equivalently replaced

by a magnetic dipole
1. The magnetism of magnet is due to (a) the pole strength m of each pole is fixed
(a) pressure of big magnet inside the earth (b) the distance d between the poles is fixed
(b) earth (c) the product md is fixed
(c) cosmic rays (d) None of these
(d) the spin motion of electron 9. Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet do not intersect
2. The primary origin (s) of magnetism lies in because
(a) atomic currents (a) a point always has a single net magnetic field
(b) polar nature of molecules (b) the lines have similar charges and so repel each other
(c) extrinsic spin of electron (c) the lines always diverge from a single force
(d) None of these (d) the lines need magnetic lenses to be made to interest
3. For bar magnet effective length (Le) related with geometrical 10. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
length (Lg) as (a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
6 5 (b) do not exist
(a) Le = L g (b) Le = L g (c) depend upon the area of cross section of bar magnet
5 6
(d) are from S-pole of magnet
(c) Le = Lg (d) Le = 2 Lg
11. A circular loop carrying a current is replaced by an equivalent
4. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M, is placed in magnetic magnetic dipole. A point on the axis of the loop is in
field of induction B. The torque exerted on it is
(a) end-on position (b) broadside-on position
(a) M.B (b) M.B (c) both (d) None of these
12. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a smaller bar magnet in
(c) M B (d) B M
the end on position to broad side on position is
5. A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves by a plane parallel
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
to the magnetic axis. Of the following physical quantities
the one which remains unchanged is (c) 1 (d) 2
(a) pole strength 13. Let r be the distance of a point on the axis of a bar magnet
from its centre. The magentic field at such a point is
(b) magnetic moment
proportional to
(c) intensity of magnetisation
(d) None of these 1 1
(a) (b)
6. Current I is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns is r r2
N, then magnetic moment of the coil in M equal to
(a) NIA (b) NI/A 1
r3
(c) NI/ A (d) N2 AI
14. Magnetic field intensity is defined as
7. Magnetic dipole moment is a vector quantity directed from
(a) Magnetic moment per unit volume
(a) south pole to north pole (b) Magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic
(b) north pole to south pole pole
(c) east to west (c) Number of lines of force crossing per unit area
(d) west to east (d) Number of lines of force crossing per unit volume
EBD_7208
324 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
15. On cutting a solenoid in half, the field lines remain ...A..., 26. One can define ...A... of a place as the vertical plane which
emerging from one face of the solenoid and entering into passes through the imaginary line joining the magnetic
the other face. North and the South–poles.
Here, A refers to Here, A refers to
(a) irregular (b) discontinuous (a) geographic meridian (b) magnetic meridian
(c) continuous (d) alternate (c) magnetic declination (d) magnetic inclination
16. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is thus ...A... to the 27. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation and magnetising
magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid that produces field is called
the same magnetic field. (a) permeability (b) magnetic intensity
Here, A refers to (c) magnetic intensity (d) magnetic susceptibility
28. Susceptibility is positive and large for a
(a) unequal (b) different
(a) paramagnetic substance
(c) equal (d) same
(b) ferromagnetic substance
17. The lines of force due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field
(c) diamagnetic substance
are (d) non magnetic substance
(a) parallel and straight (b) concentric circles 29. The relation between B, H and in S. . units is
(c) elliptical (d) curved lines
18. The earth’s magnetic field always has a vertical component (a) B 0 (H ) (b) B H 4
except at the (c) H 0 (B ) (d) None of these
(a) magnetic equator (b) magnetic poles 30. If 0 is absolute permeability of vacuum and r is relative
(c) geographic north pole (d) latitude 45º magnetic permeability of another medium, then permeability
19. At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is of the medium is
(a) 45º (b) 30º (a) 0 r (b) 0/ r
(c) zero (d) 90º (c) r/ 0 (d) 1/ 0 r
20. The strength of the earth’s magnetic field is 31. Which of the following is not correct about relative
(a) constant everywhere magnetic permeability ( ,)?
(b) zero everywhere (a) It is a dimensionsless pure ratio.
(c) having very high value (b) For vacuum medium its value is one.
(d) vary from place to place on the earths surface (c) For ferromagnetic materials , > > 1
21. At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value of the (d) For paramagnetic materials , > 1.
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field and angle of 32. Hysterisis is the phenomenon of lagging of
dip are respectively (a) I behind B (b) B behind I
(a) zero, maximum (b) maximum, minimum (c) I and B behind H (d) H behind I
(c) maximum, maximum (d) minimum, minimum 33. Metals getting magnetised by orientation of atomic magnetic
moments in external magnetic field are called
22. The magnetic compass is not useful for navigation near the
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
magnetic poles, since
(c) ferromagnetic (d) antimagnetic
(a) R = 0 (b) V = 0
34. The magnetic susceptibility for diamagnetic materials is
(c) H = 0 (d) = 0º
(a) small and negative (b) small and positive
23. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal (c) large and positive (d) large and negative
plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It will 35. Which magnetic materials have negative susceptibility?
(a) stay in north-south direction only (a) diamagnetic materials
(b) stay in east-west direction only (b) paramagnetic materials
(c) become rigid showing no movement (c) ferromagnetic materials
(d) stay in any position (d) All the above
24. A dip circle is taken to geomagnetic equator. The needle is 36. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south
allowed to move in a vertical plane perpendicular to the pole of a bar magnet, it is
mangetic meridian. the needle will stay in (a) attracted by poles
(a) horizontal direction only (b) repelled by poles
(b) vertical direction only (c) replaced by north pole and attracted by south pole
(c) any direction except vertical and horizontal (d) attracted by north pole and repelled by south pole
(d) any direction it is released 37. Among which of the following the magnetic susceptibility
25. Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s does not depend on the temperature?
magnetic field? (a) Dia-magnetism (b) Para-magnetism
(a) Convective currents in earth’s core. (c) Ferro-magnetism (d) Ferrite
(b) Diversive current in earth’s core. 38. The narrowest hysterisis loop is for
(c) Rotational motion of earth. (a) cobalt steel (b) alnico
(d) Translational motion of earth. (c) perm alloy (d) stainless steel
MAGNETISM AND MATTER 325
39. The hysterisis curve is studied generally for (c) anti ferromagnetism at room temperature for a long
(a) ferromagnetic materials (b) paramagnetic materials period of time.
(c) diamagnetic materials (d) all of the above (d) diamagnetism at room temperature for a long period
40. Of dia, para and ferromagnetism, the universal property of of time.
all substances is 51. Identify the mismatched pair
(a) diamagnetism (b) paramagnetism (a) Hard magnet - Alnico
(c) ferromagnetism (d) all of the above (b) Soft magnet - Soft iron
41. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(c) Bar magnet - Equivalent solenoid
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagenetic
(d) Permanent magnet - Loud speaker
(b) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
52. When the temperature of a magnetic material decreases,
(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(d) a paramagnetic meterial becomes ferromagnetic the magnetization
42. A material is placed in a magnetic field and it is thrown out (a) decreases in a diamagnetic material
of it. Then the material is (b) decreases in a paramagnetic material
(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic (c) decreases in a ferromagnetic material
(c) ferromagnetic (d) non-magnetic (d) remains the same in a diamagnetic material
43. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves 53. Identify the correctly matched pair
(a) perpendicular to field (a) Diamagnetic - Gadolinium
(b) from stronger to weaker parts of field (b) Soft ferromagnetic - Alnico
(c) from weaker to stronger parts of the field (c) Hard ferromagnetic - Copper
(d) None of these (d) Paramagnetic - Sodium
44. A temporary magnet is made of 54. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field.
(a) cast iron (b) steel
It experiences
(c) soft iron (d) stainless steel
(a) neither a force nor a torque
45. The hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent magnet is
(b) a torque but not a force
(a) short and wide (b) tall and narrow
(c) a force but not a torque
(c) tall and wide (d) short and narrow
46. Materials suitable for permanent magnet, must have (d) a force and a torque
which of the following properties? 55. If 0 is absolute permeability of vacuum and r is relative
(a) High retentivity, low coercivity and high permeability. magnetic permeability of another medium, then permeability
(b) Low retentivity, low coercivity and low permeability. of the medium is
(c) Low retentivity, high coercivity and low permeability. (a) 0 r (b) 0/ r
(d) High retentivity, high coercivity and high permeability. (c) /
r 0 (d) 1/ 0 r
47. Which of the following is the most suitable material for 56. Susceptibility is positive and large for a
making permanent magnet ? (a) paramagnetic substance
(a) Steel (b) Soft iron (b) ferromagnetic substance
(c) Copper (d) Nickel (c) diamagnetic substance
48. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should (d) non magnetic substance
have 57. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are r and
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity µr, respectively. Which of the following values of these
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material ?
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity
(a) r 1.5, r 0.5 (b) r 0.5, r 0.5
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity
49. Core of elctromagnets are made of ferromagnetic materials (c) r1.5, r 1.5 (d) r 0.5, r 1.5
which have 58. Magnetic permeability is maximum for
(a) low permeability and low retentivity (a) diamagnetic substance
(b) high permeability and high retentivity (b) paramagnetic substance
(c) high permeability and high retentivity. (c) ferromagnetic substance
(d) low permeability and high retentivity.
(d) All of the above
50. Permanent magnets are the substances having the
59. When a piece of a ferromagnetic substance is put in a uniform
property of
magnetic field, the flux density inside it is four times the flux
(a) ferromagnetism at room temperature for a long
density away from the piece. The magnetic permeability of
period of time.
the material is
(b) paramagnetism at room temperature for a long period
(a) 1 (b) 2
of time.
(c) 3 (d) 4
EBD_7208
60. Demagnetisation of magnets can be done by 71. Magnetic field intensity due to a dipole varies as xn, where
(a) rough handling n is
(b) heating (a) 2 (b) – 2
(c) magnetising in the opposite direction (c) 3 (d) – 3
(d) All of the above 72. A susceptibility of a certain magnetic material is 400. What
61. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves is the class of the magnetic material?
(a) perpendicular to the field (a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic
(b) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ferroelectric
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field 73. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(d) None of these (a) Gold (b) Water
62. A ferromagnetic material is heated above its curie (c) Nickel (d) Aluminium
temperature. Which one is a correct statement? 74. On applying an external magnetic field, to a ferromagnetic
(a) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged substance domains
(b) Ferromagnetic domains become random (a) align in the direction of magnetic field
(c) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced (b) align in the opposite direction of magnetic field
(d) Ferromagnetic material changes into diamagnetic (c) remain undeflected
material (d) None of these
63. A substance which retains magnetic moment for a long 75. The magnetic moment of atoms of diamagnetic substances
time is is
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (a) equal to zero (b) less than zero
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) Non magnetic (c) greater than 1 (d) none of these
64. Ferromagnetism arises due to 76. If the susceptibility of dia, para and ferromagnetic materials
(a) vacant inner shells of an atom are d, p, f respectively, then
(b) filled inner sub shells of an atom (a) d < p < f (b) d < f < p
(c) partially filled inner sub shells
(c) f < d < p (d) f < p < d
(d) large number of electrons in valence orbit
77. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substances
65. Domain is a region where in all atoms have their magnetic
at –73°C is 0.0060, then its value at –173°C will be
momentum
(a) 0.0030 (b) 0.0120
(a) parallel
(c) 0.0180 (d) 0.0045
(b) antiparallel
78. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a
(c) randomly oriented
paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance respectively. A
(d) perpendicular to one another
magnet when brought close to them will
66. Domains are formed in
(a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
(a) non magnetic substance
(b) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
(b) paramagnetic substance
(c) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
(c) ferromagnetic substance (d) attract all three of them
(d) para and ferromagnet substance 79. If a paramagnetic liquid is placed in a watch glass, resting
67. The magnetic susceptibility is given by on the pole pieces, the liquid accumulates where the field is
1 B (a) zero (b) weak
(a) (b)
H H (c) strong (d) None of these
M net Mz
(c) (d) STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
V H
68. Iron is ferromagnetic 80. Which of the following statements is / are correct about
(a) above 770°C (b) below 770°C magnetism ?
(c) at all temperature (d) above 1100°C I. The Earth behaves as a magnet with the magnetic
field pointing approximately from the geographic
69. According to Curie’s law,
South to the North.
1 II. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points in
(a) T Tc (b) T Tc the North–South direction. The tip which points to
the geographic North is called the North –pole and
1
(c) (d) T the tip which points to georaphic South is called the
T South–pole of magnet.
70. Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is III. There is a repulsive force when North–poles (or
(a) > 1 (b) < 1 South–poles) of two magnets are brought close
(c) 0 (d) 1 together. Conversely, there is an attractive force
between the North–pole of one magnet and the 85. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect
South–pole of other. statement(s)
IV. We can isolate the North or South–pole of a magnet. I A paramagnetic material tends to move from a strong
(a) I and II magnetic field to weak magnetic field
(b) I, II and IV II A magnetic material is in the paramagnetic phase below
(c) III and IV its Curie temperature.
(d) I, II and III III The resultant magnetic moment in an atom of a
81. Consider the given statements with respect to the figure diamagnetic substance is zero
showing a bar of diamagnetic material placed in an (a) I only (b) II only
external magnetic field. (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
I. The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field
inside the material is reduced. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
II. When placed in a non–uniform magnetic field, the 86. Match the columns I and II.
bar will tend to move from high to low field. Column I Column II
III. Reduction in the field inside the material slight, (A) Axial field for a short (1) – M.B
being one part in 105 dipole
(B) Equatorial field for a (2) M × B
short dipole
(C) External field torque (3) 0 2M/4 r3
(D) External field energy (4) – 0 M/4 r3
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(a) I and II 87. Column I Column II
(b) I and III (A) Horizontal component (1) BE sin
(c) II and III BV
(d) I, II and III (B) Vertical component (2)
BH
82. A ferromagnetic material is heated above its curie
temperature. Which of the following are incorrect ? (C) tan (3) BE cos
I. Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged D Tangent law (4) B = BH tan
II. Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced (a) A (3); B (2); C (1); D (4)
III. Ferromagnetic material changes into diamagnetic (b) A (3); B (1); C (2); D (4)
(c) A (2); B (3); C (1); D (4)
material
(d) A (1); B (3); C (2); D (4)
(A) Negative susceptibility (1) Ferromagnetic
83. Consider the following statements and identify incorrect
(B) Positive and small (2) Diamagnetic
statement(s).
susceptibility
I Diamagnetism is temperature independent.
(C) Positive and large (3) Paramagnetic
II Paramagnetism is explained by domain theory.
susceptibility
III Above curie temperature a ferromagnetic material
(D) Loadstone (4) Magnetite
becomes paramagnetic. (a) A (3); B (2); C (4); D (1)
IV Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative for (b) A (1); B (2); C (3); D (4)
diamagnetic substance. (c) A (2); B (3); C (1); D (4)
(a) I only (b) II only (d) A (2); B (1); C (4); D (3)
(c) I, II and III (d) II and IV
84. Consider the following statements and select the correct DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
statement(s).
I Diamagnetic materials do not have permanent magnetic 89. A steel wire of length has a magnetic moment M. It is
moment bent in L-shape (Figure). The new magnetic moment is
II Diamagnetism is explained in terms of electromagnetic (a) M
induction M
(b)
III Diamagnetic materials have a small positive 2 2
susceptibility
(a) I only (b) II only M
(c)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III 2
2
(d) 2M
EBD_7208
90. Imagine rolling a sheet of paper into a cylinder and placing
a bar magnet near its end as shown in figure. What can you Y Y
say about the sign of B.dA for every area dA on the
surface?
(c) (d)
(a) Positive
X X
(b) Negative O 1/T O 1/T
(c) No sign
94. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig associated with
(d) Can be positive or negative
91. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in
different configurations. Each magnet has magnet ic dipole (i)
moment m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic (ii)
dipole moment ? H
N S (a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic substance

A. B. S N (b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic substance
S S N (c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
(d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
N 95. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (x) with temperature
N for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by
C. 30º D. (a) (b)
S 60º
N
S N
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D O T O T
92. A curve between magnetic moment and temperature of
magnet is
M M (c) (d)
(a) (b)
T T
O O T
O T O
M M
96. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are correctly
shown in
(c) (d)
T T N
O O N
(a) (b)
93. The graph between and 1/T for paramagnetic material
will be represented by S S
Y Y
N N
(a) (b) (c) (d)
X X S S
O 1/T O 1/T
97. The given figure represents a material which is 103. Assertion : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
is increased by placing a suitable magnetic material as a
core inside the coil.
Reason : Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and
cannot be easily magnetized or demagnetized.
104. Assertion : Magnetism is relativistic.
(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic Reason : When we move along with the charge so that
(c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these there is no motion relative to us, we find no magnetic field
98. The basic magnetization curve for a ferromagnetic material associated with the charge.
is shown in figure. Then, the value of relative permeability 105. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not obey
is highest for the point Curie’s law.
Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance start
behaving as a paramagnetic substance.
1.5 106. Assertion : A paramagnetic sample display greater
R S magnetisation (for the same magnetic field) when cooled.
Reason : The magnetisation does not depend on
1.0
temperature.
B(Tesla)
Q
107. Assertion : Electromagnets are made of soft iron.
0.5 Reason : Coercivity of soft iron is small.
P
108. A bar magnet has a length 8 cm. The magnetic field at a
O0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
3 point at a distance 3 cm from the centre in the broad side-on
H (× 10 A/m) position is found to be 4×10–6 T. The pole strength of the
magnet is.
(a) P (b) Q (a) 6 × 10–5 Am (b) 5 × 10–5 Am
(c) R (d) S –4
(c) 2 × 10 Am (d) 3 × 10–4 Am
109. Two bar magnets of the same mass, same length and breadth
but having magnetic moments M and 2M are joined together
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, pole for pole and suspended by a string. The time period of
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four assembly in a magnetic field of strength H is 3 seconds. If
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You now the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed and
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. combination is again made to oscillate in the same field, the
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct time of oscillation is
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a (a) 3 sec (b) 3 3 sec
correct explanation for assertion (c) 3 sec (d) 6 sec
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 110. A compass needle made of pure iron (with density 7900 kg/
m3) has a length L of 3.0 cm, a width of 1.00 mm, and a
99. Assertion : The poles of magnet can not be separated by thickness of 0.50 mm. The magnitude of the magnetic dipole
breaking into two pieces.
moment of an iron atom is M Fe 23
2.1 10 J / T . If the
Reason : The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when
a magnet is broken into two equal pieces. magnetisation of the needle is equivalent to the alignment
100. Assertion : We cannot think of magnetic field configuration of 10% of the atoms in the needle, what is the magnitude of
with three poles. the needle s magnetic dipole moment M ?
Reason : A bar magnet does not exert a torque on itself due (a) 2.7 × 10–1 J/T (b) 2.7 × 10–2 J/T
to its own field. (c) 2.7 × 10–3 J/T (d) 2.7 × 10–4 J/T
101. Assertion : The earth s magnetic field is due to iron present 111. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M
in its core. by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the
Reason : At a high temperature magnet losses its magnetism. corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of
102. Assertion : To protect any instrument from external magnetic 60°. The value of n is given by
field, it is put inside an iron body. (a) 2 (b) 1
Reason : Iron has high permeability. (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
EBD_7208
112. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J T–1 is placed in 120. Two short magnets with their axes horizontal and
a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is in stable perpendicular to the magnetic maridian are placed with
equilibrium when the potential energy is their centres 40 cm east and 50 cm west of magnetic
(a) – 0.64 J (b) zero needle. If the needle remains undeflected, the ratio of
(c) – 0.082 J (d) 0.064 J their magnetic moments M1 : M2 is
113. The magnetic moment of a magnet is 0.1 amp × m2. It is (a) 4 : 5 (b) 16 : 25
suspended in a magnetic field of intensity 3 × 10–4 weber/ (c) 64 : 125 (d) 2 : 5
m2. The couple acting upon it when deflected by 30º from
the magnetic field is 121. A bar magnet 8 cms long is placed in the magnetic merdian
(a) 1 × 10–5 N m (b) 1.5 × 10–5 N m with the N-pole pointing towards geographical north. Two
netural points separated by a distance of 6 cms are obtained
(c) 2 × 10–5 N m (d) 2.5 × 10–5 N m
on the equatorial axis of the magnet. If horizontal component
114. Time periods of vibation of two bar magnets in sum and of earth’s field = 3.2 × 10–5 T, then pole strength of magnet
difference positions are 4 sec and 6 sec respectively. The is
ratio of their magnetic moments M1 / M2 is
(a) 5 ab-amp × c (b) 10 ab-amp × cm
(a) 6 : 4 (b) 30 : 16
(c) 2.5 ab-amp × cm (d) 20 ab-amp × cm
(c) 2 . 6 : 1 (d) 1 . 5 : 1
115. A magnet of magnetic moment 20 C.G.S. units is freely 122. At a certain place, the angle of dip is 30º and the horizontal
suspended in a uniform magnetic field of intensity 0.3 component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.50 oerested. The
C.G.S. units. The amount of work done in deflecting it by earth’s total magnetic field (in oerested) is
an angle of 30° in C.G.S. units is
(a) 3 (b) 1
(a) 6 (b) 3 3
1 1
(c) 3(2 3) (d) 3 (c) (d)
3 2
116. A magnet of length 0.1 m and pole strength 10–4 A.m. 123. Two magnets are held together in a vibration magnetometer
is kept in a magnetic field of 30 Wb / m2 at an angle 30°. and are allowed to oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field
The couple acting on it is ........ × 10–4 Nm. with like poles together. 12 oscillations per minute are made
(a) 7.5 (b) 3.0 but for unlike poles together only 4 oscillations per minute
are executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is
(c) 1.5 (d) 6.0
117. A short bar magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian of (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
the earth with north pole pointing north. Neutral points (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
are found at a distance of 30 cm from the magnet on the 124. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is
East – West line, drawn through the middle point of the
magnet. The magnetic moment of the magnet in Am2 is 3.6 10 5 tesla where the dip angle is 60°. The magnitude
of the earth’s magnetic field is
0
close to: (Given = 10–7 in SI units and BH
4 (a) 2.8 10 4 tesla (b) 2.1 10 4 tesla
=Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field = 3.6 × 3.6 10 5 tesla
(c) 7.2 10 5 tesla (d)
10–5 tesla)
(a) 14.6 (b) 19.4 125. A torque of 10 5
Nm is required to hold a magnet at 90°
(c) 9.7 (d) 4.9 with the horizontal component H of the earth’s magnetic
118. A bar magnet of moment of inertia 9 × l0–5 kg m2 placed in field. The torque to hold it at 30° will be
a vibration magnetometer and oscillating in a uniform
(a) 5 × 10–6 Nm (b) data is insufficient
magnetic field l6 2 × l0–5T makes 20 oscillations in 15 s.
The magnetic moment of the bar magnet is 1 5
(c) 10 Nm (d) 5 3 10 6
Nm
(a) 3 Am2 (b) 2 Am2 3
(c) 5 Am2 (d) 4 Am2
126. A short magnet oscillates in an oscillation magnetometer
119. If a magnetic dipole of moment M situated in the direction
with a time period of 0.10s where the earth s horizontal
of a magnetic field B is rotated by 180°, then the amount of
magnetic field is 24 T. A downward current of 18 A is
work done is
established in a vertical wire placed 20 cm east of the magnet.
(a) MB (b) 2MB
Find the new time period.
MB (a) 0.076 s (b) 0.5 s
(c) (d) MB (c) 0.1 s (d) 0.2 s
2
127. The susceptibility of annealed iron at saturation is 5500. (a) (b) 0.5
Find the permeability of annealed iron at saturation.
(c) 2 (d) 11.1
(a) 6.9 × 10–3 (b) 5.1 × 10–2
2 134. Assume that each iron atom has a permanent magnetic
(c) 5 × 10 (d) 3.2 × 10–5 moment equal to 2 Bohr magnetons (1 Bohr magneton =
128. The moment of a magnet (15 cm × 2 cm × 1 cm) is 1.2 A-m2. 9.27×10–24 A-m 2 ). The density of atoms in iron is
What is its intensity of magnetisation?
(a) 4 × 104 A m–1 (b) 2 × 104 A m–1 8.52 10 28 atoms / m3. Find the maximum magnetisation I in
4
(c) 10 A m –1 (d) None of these a long cylinder of iron.
129. A magnetising field of 2 × 103 A m–1 produces a magnetic (a) 1.5 × 102 A|m (b) 1.58 × 106 A|m
flux density of 8 T in an iron rod. The relative (c) 1.2 × 105 A|m (d) 1.3 × 106 A|m
permeability of the rod will be 135. The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet
(a) 102 (b) 1 gets demagnetized is 3 103 Am 1. The current required to
(c) 104 (d) 103 be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of
130. A permanent magnet in the shape of a thin cylinder of turns 100, so that the magnet gets demagnetized when inside
length 10 cm has magnetisation (M) = 106 A m–1. Its the solenoid, is:
magnetization current IM is (a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA
(a) 105 A (b) 106 A (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
(c) 10 A7 (d) 108 A 136. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am–1. It is desired to
131. If relative permeability of iron is 2000. Its absolute demagnetise it by inserting it inside a solenoid 12 cm long
permeability in S. . units is and having 60 turns. The current that should be sent
(a) 8 × 10–4 (b) 8 × 10–3 through the solenoid is
(c) 800/ (d) 8 × 109/ (a) 2 A (b) 4 A
132. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. What is its (c) 6 A (d) 8 A
magnetic susceptibility? 137. A magnetising field of 2 × 103 amp/m produces a magnetic
(a) 0.925 (b) – 0.925 flux density of 8 tesla in an iron rod. The relative
(c) 1.075 (d) –1.075 permeability of the rod will be
133. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a ferromagnetic (a) 102 (b) 100
material is found to be . Its susceptibility at 333°C is (c) 10 3 (d) 104
EBD_7208
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 49. (c) Core of electromagnets are made of soft iron that is
a ferromagnetic material with high permeability and
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) low retentivity.
6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d) 50. (a) Permanent magnets are those substances that retain
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time
14. (b) Number of lines of force passing through per unit at room temperature.
area normally is intensity of magnetic field, hence 51. (d) Permanent magnet – Loud speaker
option (c) is incorrect. The correct option is (b). 52. (d) When the temperature of a magnetic material
15. (c) The field lines remain continuous, emerging from decreases, the magnetization remains the same in a
one face of the solenoid and entering into the other diamagnetic material.
face. 53. (d)
16. (c) The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is thus equal 54. (d) A magnetic needle kept in non uniform magnetic field
to the magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid experience a force and torque due to unequal forces
that produces the same magnetic field. acting on poles.
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 55. (a) r 0, as r / 0.
20. (d) The streangth of the earths magnetic field is not
56. (b) For ferromagnetic substances, m is large and
constant. It varies from one place to other place on
the surface of earth. Its value being of the order of positive.
10–5 T. 57. (a) r 1 and r 1.
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 58. (c)
25. (a) The earth,s core is hot and molten. Hence, 59. (d) The magnetic permeability of the material
convective current in earth’s core is responsibli for B 4H
it’s magnetic field. µ 4
H H
26. (b) Magnetic meridian of a place is defined as the 60. (d)
vertical plane which passes through the imaginary 61. (b) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves from
line joining the magnetic North and South-poles. stronger to the weaker parts of the field.
This pane would intersect the surface of the Earth 62. (b) Beyond curie temperature, ferormagnetic material turns
in a longitude like circle. into paramagnetic material, as if ferromagnetic domains
27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) become random.
63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (d)
30. (a) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (a)
31. (d) Relative magnetic permeability
0 M
magnetic permeability of material ( ) 71. (d) Magnetic field intensity =
4 x3
r= permeability of free space ( 0 )
Mx 3
It is a dimensionless pure ratio and for paramagnetic
n=–3
materials r > 1.
72. (c) 73. (d)
32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b)
74. (a) By the property of ferromagnetic substance.
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 41. (a) 41. (a)
75. (a)
42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (d) Materials suitable for permanent magnets should 76. (a) d p f
have high retentivity, high coercivity and high
For diamagnetic substance d is small negative (10–5)
permeability.
47. (a) For paramagnetic substances p is small and positive
48. (b) Electro magnet should be amenable to magnetisation (10–3 to 10–5)
and demagnetization
retentivity should be low and coercivity should be For ferromagnetic substanes f is very large
low. (103 to 105)
82. (b)
1
77. (b) As magnetic susceptibility m , therefore 83. (b) Domain theory is for ferromagnetic substance.
T
84. (c) Susceptibility of diamagnetic substance is negative
and it does not change with temperature.
2 T1 273 73 200
2 2 85. (c) Diamagnetic substances are those substances in
1 T2 0.0060 273 173 100 which resultant magnetic moment in an atom is zero.
A paramagnetic material tends to move from a weak
2=2×0.0060 = 0.0120
78. (b) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains magnetic field to strong magnetic field.
A magnetic material is in the paramagnetic phase above
whereas paramagnetic substances have magnetic
its Curie temperature.
dipoles which get attracted to a magnetic field.
Typical domain size of a ferromagnetic material in 1
Diamagnetic substances do not have magnetic dipole mm.
but in the presence of external magnetic field due to
their orbital motion of electrons these substances are
repelled. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
79. (c)
86. (a) (A) 3; (B) 4; (C) 2; (D) 1
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 87. (b) 88. (c)
80. (d) (i) The Earth behaves as a magnet with the DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
magnetic field pointing appoximately from the 89. (b) Magnetic moment, M = m
geographic South to the North.
(ii) When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it M
m , where m is the polestrength.
points in the North-South direction. The tip which
points to the geographic North is called the North Therefore distance between poles
pole and the tip which points to the geographic
South is called the South-pole of the magnet. 2 2
2 2 =
2
(iii) There is a repulsive force when North poles (or
South-poles) of two magnets are brought close m M
together. Conversely there is an attractive force So, M'
2 2
between the North-pole of one magnet and the
90. (b) The field is entering into the surface so flux is negative.
South-pole of the other.
(iv) We cannot isolate the North or South-pole of a 91. (c) Net magnetic dipole moment = 2 Mcos
2
magnet. If a bar magnet is broken into two halves,
we get two similar bar magnets with somewhat As value of cosis maximum in case (c) hence net
2
weaker properties. Unlike electric charges, isolated magnetic dipole moment is maximum for option (c).
magnetic North and South poles known as magnetic 92. (c) Magnetism of a magnet falls with rise of temperatue
monopoles do not exist. and becomes practically zero above curie temperature.
81. (d) Figure shows a bar of diamagnetic material placed in 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (b)
an external magnetic field. B
98. (b) B 0 rH = slope of B-H curve
r
H
According to the given graph, slope of the graph is
highest at point Q.

99. (b) When a magnet is cut into pieces, each piece becomes
m M
new magnet. M .
The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field 2 2
inside the material is reduced, this reduction is 100. (b)
101. (d) Magnetic field of earth is due to moving charged
slight, being one part in 105. When placed in a non-
particles in the atmosphere. With increase in
uniform magnetic field, the bar will tend to move temperature, the magnetic moment of magnet
from high to low field. decreases.
EBD_7208
102. (a) Because of high permeability of the iron, the entire The mass of the needle = V
magnetic field will pass through iron, and so rest space
becomes free from magnetic field. = 7900 1.5 10 8
103. (c) Sensitivity of galvanometer, = 1.183 × 10–4 kg

tan The number of atoms in the needle
s
i i
4
1.185 10
= 6.02 1023
0N 56 10 3
.
2 RBH
= 1.27 × 1021
If a magnetic material is placed inside coil of
The needle's dipole moment
galvanometer, then
1
r 0N M = (1.27 1021 ) (2.1 10 –23 )
s . 10
2 RBH
104. (b) A magnetic field is produced by the motion of electric = 2.7 × 10–3 J/T
charge. Since motion is relative, the magnetic field is 111. (a) Magnetic moment = M; Initial angle through which
also relative. magnet is turned ( 1) = 90º and final angle which
105. (c) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance magnet is turned ( 2)= 60º. Work done in turning the
decreases with the rise of temperature in a complicated magnet through
manner. After Curies point in the susceptibility of 90º(W1) = MB (cos 0º – cos 90º)= MB (1–0) = MB.
ferromagnetic substance varies inversely with its
Similarly, W2 = MB (cos 0º – cos 60º)
absolute tempearture. Ferromagnetic substance obey’s
Curie’s law only above its Curie point. 1 MB
106. (d) A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation
MB 1 .
2 2
when cooled, this is because at lower temperature, the
tendency to disrupt the alignment of dipoles (due to W1 = 2W2 or n = 2.
magnetising field) decreases on account of reduced 112. (a) For stable equilibrium
random thermal motion. U = –MB = – (0.4) (0.16) = – 0.064 J
107. (b) Electromagnets are magnets, which can be turnd on 113. (b) = MB sin = 0.1 × 3 × 10–4 sin 30º
and off by switching the current on and off. or = 1.5 × 10–5 N–m.
As the material in electromagnets is subjected to cyclic
changes (magnification and demangetisation), the M1 T22 T12 62 42 52
hysteresis loss of the material must be small. The 114. (c) 2.6 :1
material should attain high value of I and B with low
M2 T22 T12 6 2
4 2 20
value of magnetising field intensity H. As soft iron
115. (c) Work done W = MBH (1 – cos )
has small coercivity, so it is a best choice for this
purpose.
3
= 20 × 0.3(1 – cos 30°) = 6 1 2 = 3(2 3)
108. (a) Magnetic field due to a bar magnet in the broad-side 116. (c) = MB sin = m × (2 ) × B sin
on position is given by = 10–4 × 0.1 × 30 sin 30° = 1.5 × 10–4 Nm
µ0 M
117. (c) Here, r = 30cm = 0.3cm
B = 3/ 2
;M m .
4 2
2 0M
r
4 we know 3
BH 3.6 10 –5
4 r
After substituting the values and simplifying we get
B = 6 10 5 A -m 3.6 10–5
M (0.3)3
–7
T22 2M M
10
109. (b) 3 T2 T1 3 3 3 s.
T12 2M M Hence, M = 9.7 Am2
110. (c) The volume of the needle, 118. (d) Given, I = 9 × 10–5 kg m2, B = 16 2 × 10–5 T
V = (3 10 2 ) (1 10 3 ) (0.5 10 3 )
15 3
T= s
= 1.5 × 10–8 m3 20 4
In a vibration magnetometer 125. (a) The torque acting on the magnet of magnetic moment
4 2I M, when held at angle to magnetic field B,

I
Time period, T = 2 or M =
MB BT 2 MBsin
5
4 2 9 10 5 2 MB 10 Nm.
2
4Am
3 5
16 2 10 5 MB sin 30 0.5 10 Nm.
4
= 5 × 10–6 Nm
119. (b) Work done in rotating the magnetic dipole from
position 1= 0° to 2= 180° T
W = MB (cos 1– cos 2) 126. (a) We know that T1 = 2 MBH1 … (i)
W = MB (cos – cos 180°) = 2MB
Where BH1 = 24 10 6 T
3 3
M1 d1 40 64 The magnetic field produced by, wire
120. (c) For null deflection
M2 d2 50 125
µ0 i
B = .
2 r
6
121. (a) Here, 2 8 cm , 4 cm , d 3 cm .
2 –7 (18)
= (2 10 )
At neutral point, 0.20
0 M = 1.8 10 6
T
H B
4 2 2 3/2
(d )
Now BH 2 = BH1 B = 42 × 10–6 T
M M
10 7 2 3 I
(5 10 ) 1250 T2 = 2 … (ii)
MBH 2
5
M 1250 H 1250 3.2 10 Am 2 Using equations (i) and (ii) , and substituting the
values, we get
M 1250 3.2 10 5
m A m.
2 8 10 2 T2 = 0.076 s
1 127. (a) We know that µr = 1+ x

0.5 Am 0.5 ab amp 100 cm
10 = 1 + 5500 = 5501
= 5 ab-amp cm.
µ = µr µ0 (5501) (4 10 7 )
H 0.50 0.50 2
122. (c) B 1/ 3 = 6.9 × 10–3
cos cos 30º 3
128. (a) Intensity of magnetisation
60 60
123. (d) Here, T1 5 s, T2 15 s M 1.2
12 4 m 4 104 A m 1
V (15 2 1)10 6
M1 T22 T12 152 5 2 250 5
129. (c) Here, H = 2 × 103 A m–1, B = 8 T, = 4 × 107
M2 T22 T12 15 2
5 2 200 4
H B
Since = = =
124. (c) H r
0 0H 0H
8
= 7 = 104
B V 4 10 2 103
Horizontal component of earth’s field, H Bcos , 130. (a) As B = MIM = (I + IM)
since, 60 Here, I =
1 Then MI = (IM)
5
3.6 10 B B 7.2 10 5 Tesla
2 IM = MI = 106 × 0.13 10–5 A
EBD_7208
131. (a) 0 r (4 10 7 ) 2000 8 10 4

S.I. units B Ni
0 L
132. (b) From r 1 m;
100i
3 103
Magnetic suscaptibility, m r 1 10 10 2
i = 3A
0.075 1 0.925.
m 136. (d) The bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am–1 i.e., it
0C requires a magnetic intensity H = 4 × 103 Am–1 to get
133. (b) According to Curie's law, m
T demagnetised. Let i be the current carried by solenoid
where C is Curie constant, T = temperature
having n number of turns per metre length, then by
1 definition H = ni. Here, H = 4 × 103 Am–1
m
T
m1 T2 273 333 606 N 60
2 n = 500 turn metre–1
T1 273 30 303 l 0.12
m2
m2 m1 /2 0.5 m1 0.5 . m1 H 4 103

i 8A
134. (b) The total magnetic moment per unit volume. i.e., n 500
magnetisation
B
(8.52 1028 ) (2 9.27 10 24
) 137. (d) r
I= 0 0H
1
= 1.58 106 A/m 8

= 4 10 7
2 103
135. (c) Magnetic field in solenoid B = 0n i
B
ni r 104
0
(Where n = number of turns per unit length)
21
ELECTROMAGNETIC
INDUCTION
8. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in
the construction of a
1. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit (a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
changes, an emf is induced in the circuit. This is called (c) electric motor (d) generator
(a) electromagnetic induction 9. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each
(b) lenz’s law circulating in the same direction. If the loops approach each
(c) hysteresis loss other, you will observe that the current in
(d) kirchhoff’s laws (a) each increases
2. An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged (b) each decreases
into a coil. The strength of the induced e.m.f. is independent (c) each remains the same
of (d) one increases whereas that in the other decreases
(a) the strength of the magnet 10. Which of the following represents correct formula for
(b) number of turns of coil magnetic flux?
(c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
(a) d ds. B (b) d v.B
(d) speed with which the magnet is moved
3. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(c) d B . ds (d) d B . dl
(a) electric field is produced by time varying magnetic
flux. 11. Magnetic flux is
(b) magnetic field is produced by time varying electric (a) total charge per unit area.
flux. (b) total current through a surface.
(c) magnetic field is associated with a moving charge. (c) total number of magnetic field lines passing normally
(d) None of these through given area.
4. A moving conductor coil produces an induced e.m.f. This is (d) total e.m.f. in closed circuit.
in accordance with 12. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge is
(a) Lenz’s law (b) Faraday’s law independent of
(c) Coulomb’s law (d) Ampere’s law (a) change of flux
5. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is (b) time.
taken to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because (c) resistance of the coil
(a) the induced current is produced (d) None of these
(b) the coil acts like a magnet 13. The induced e.m.f. in a rod of length l translating at a speed
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are v making an angle with length l and perpendicular to
changed magnetic field B is
(d) None of these (a) Bl v (b) Bl v cos
6. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of (c) Bl v sin (d) Bl v tan
(a) charge (b) mass 14. Len’z law provides a relation between
(c) energy (d) momentum (a) current and magnetic field.
7. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then (b) induced e.m.f. and the magnetic flux.
the induced e.m.f. is (c) force on a conductor in magnetic field.
(a) larger in case (i) (d) current and induced e.m.f.
(b) smaller in case (i) 15. A conducting loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field
(c) equal to both the cases with its plane perpendicular to the field. An e.m.f. is induced
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil in the loop, if
EBD_7208
338 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
(a) it is translated. 24. If N is the number of turns in a coil, the value of self
(b) it is rotated about its axis. inductance varies as
(c) both (a) and (b). (a) N0 (b) N
(d) it is rotated about its diameter. (c) N2 (d) N–2
16. The expression for the induced e.m.f. contains a negative 25. Two coils of inductances L1 and L2 are linked such that
d their mutual inducatance is M. Then
sign e . What is the significance of the negative
(a) M = L1 + L2
dt
sign?
1
(a) The induced e.m.f. is produced only when the magnetic (b) M (L1 L 2 )
flux decreases. 2
(b) The induced e.m.f. opposes the change in the magnetic (c) the maximum value of M is (L1 + L2)
flux. (d) the minimum value of M is L1 L 2
(c) The induced e.m.f. is opposite to the direction of the
flux. 26. The S unit of inductance, the henry can be written as
(d) None of the above. (a) weber/ampere (b) volt second/ampere
17. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is (c) joule/ampere2 (d) all of the above
connected to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because 27. The mutual inductance between two coils depends on
(a) induced current is set up (a) medium between the coils
(b) no induced current is set up (b) separation between the two coils
(c) the coil behaves as a magnet (c) orientation of the two coils
(d) the number of turns is changed (d) All of the above
18. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular ML2
coil. On rotating the magnet about its axis, the coil will have 28. Which of the following units denotes the dimension ,
induced in it Q2
(a) a current (b) no current where Q denotes the electric charge?
(c) only an e.m.f. (d) both an e.m.f. and a current (a) Wb/m2 (b) henry (H)
19. Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a (c) H/m2 (d) weber (Wb)
magnetic field is found using 29. The emf is induced in a single, isolated coil due to ...A...
(a) Fleming’s left found rule of flux through the coil by means of varying the current
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule through the same coil. This phenomenon is called ...B...
(c) Ampere’s rule Here, A and B refer to
(d) Right hand clasp rule (a) constancy, mutual induction
20. A circular coil expands radially in a region of magnetic (b) change, self induction
field and no electromotive force is produced in the coil (c) constancy, self induction
This is because (d) changes, mutual induction
(a) the magnetic field is constant 30. Two coils, A and B, are lined such that emf is induced in B
(b) the magnetic field is in the same plane as the circular when the current in A is changing at the rate . If current i is
coil and it may or may not vary.
now made to flow in B, the flux linked with A will be
(c) the magnetic field has a perpendicular (to the plane
(a) ( I)i (b) iI
of the coil) component whose magnitude is
decreasing suitably. (c) ( I)i (d) i I/
(d) both (b) and (c). 31. The polarity of induced emf is given by
21. Whenever, current is changed in a coil, an induced e.m.f. is (a) Ampere's circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law
produced in the same coil. This property of the coil is due to (c) Lenz’s law (d) Fleming's right hand rule
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction 32. The self inductance of a coil is a measure of
(c) eddy currents (d) hysteresis (a) electrical inertia (b) electrical friction
22. When current i passes through an inductor of self (c) induced e.m.f. (d) induced current
inductance L, energy stored in it is 1/2. L i2. This is stored in 33. The coils in resistance boxes are made from doubled
the insulated wire to nullify the effect of
(a) current (b) voltage (a) heating (b) magnetism
(c) magnetic field (d) electric field (c) pressure (d) self induced e.m.f.
23. An inductor may store energy in 34. Two pure inductors each of self inductance L are connected
(a) its electric field in series, the net inductance is
(b) its coils (a) L (b) 2 L
(c) its magnetic field (c) L/2 (d) L/4
(d) both in electric and magnetic fields
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 339
35. The self inductance associated with a coil is independent 47. Which of the following is not the application of eddy
of currents?
(a) current (b) induced voltage (a) Induction furnace (b) Dead beat galvanometer
(c) time (d) resistance of a coil (c) speedometer (d) X-ray crystallography
36. Induction coil is an instrument based on the principle of 48. Eddy currents do not cause
(a) electromagnetic induction (a) damping (b) heating
(b) mutual induction (c) sparking (d) loss of energy
(c) self induction 49. For magnetic breaking in trains, strong electromagnets
(d) induction furnace. are situated above the rails in some electrically powered
37. If the magnetic flux linked with a coil through which a trains. When the electromagnets are activated, the ...A...
current of x A is set up is y Wb, then the coefficient of self induced in the rails oppose the motion of the train. As
inductance of the coil is there are no ... B... linkages, the ...C... effects is smooth.
x Here, A, B and C refer to
(a) (x – y) henry (b) henry
y (a) eddy currents, mechanical, breaking
y
(c) henry (d) x y henry (b) induced currents, thermal, accelerating
x (c) induced emf, mechanical, accelerating
38. Production of induced e.m.f. in a coil due to the changes of
(d) eddy currents, thermal, flying
current in the same coil is
50. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives a steady
(a) self induction (b) mutual induction
deflection because
(c) dynamo (d) none of these
(a) eddy currents are produced in the conducting frame
39. Henry is the S.I. unit of
over which the coil is wound.
(a) resistance (b) capacity
(b) its magnet is very strong.
(c) inductance (d) current
(c) its pointer is very light.
40. Mutual induction is the production of induced e.m.f. in a
(d) its frame is made of ebonite.
coil due to the changes of current in the
51. Eddy currents do not produce
(a) same coil (b) neighbouring coil
(a) heat (b) a loss of energy
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
(c) spark (d) damping of motion
41. The self inductance associated with a coil is independent
of 52. If in a galvanometer the coil is wound on a bad conductor,
the eddy current will be
(a) current (b) time
(c) induced voltage (d) resistance of coil (a) zero (b) maximum
42. Eddy currents are produced when (c) minimum (d) 50% of the actual value
(a) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field 53. Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made of non-
magnetic metallic material, when the coil oscillates, ...A...
(b) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field
generated in the core ...B... the motion and bring the coil
(c) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
to rest ...C...
(d) Through a circular coil, current is passed
Here, A, B and C refer to
43. Which of the following does not use the application of
(a) induced emf, support, long time
eddy current ?
(b) induced current, support, long time
(a) Electric power meters (b) Induction furnace
(c) mechanical energy, oppose, long time
(c) LED lights (d) Magnetic brakes in trains
(d) eddy currents, oppose, quickly
44. Induction furnace make use of
(a) self induction (b) mutual induction 54. When the plane of the armature of an a.c. generator is
parallel to the field. in which it is rotating
(c) eddy current (d) None of these
(a) both the flux linked and induced emf in the coil are
45. When strength of eddy currents is reduced, as dissipation
zero.
of electrical energy into heat depends on the ...A... of the
strength of electrical energy into heat depends on the (b) the flux linked with it is zero, while induced emf is
...A... of the strength of electric current heat loss is maximum.
substantially ...B ... . (c) flux linked is maximum while induced emf is zero.
Here, A and B refer to (d) both the flux and emf have their respective maximum
(a) cube, increase (b) inverse, increased values.
(c) inverse, decreased (d) square, reduced 55. A dynamo converts
46. The plane in which eddy currents are produced in a (a) mechanical energy into thermal energy
conductor is inclined to the plane of the magnetic field at (b) electrical energy into thermal energy
an angle equal to (c) thermal energy into electrical energy
(a) 45° (b) 0° (d) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) 180° (d) 90° (e) electrical energy into mechanical energy
EBD_7208
56. Choke coil works on the principle of I. number of turns in the coil is reduced
(a) transient current (b) self induction II. a capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in
(c) mutual induction (d) wattless current the same circuit
57. If a coil made of conducting wires is rotated between poles III. an iron rod is inserted in the coil
pieces of the permanent magnet. The motion will generate a Which of the above statements is/are correct?
current and this device is called (a) I only (b) II and III
(a) An electric motor (b) An electric generator (c) III only (d) I and II
(c) An electromagnet (d) All of the above
63. Match the column-I and column-II
58. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the Column I Column II
diameter of a circular wire loop, without touching it, the (A) AC generator (1) Eddy current
correct statement(s) is(are) (B) DC motor (2) Slip rings
I. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is (C) Dead beat galvanometer (3) Split ring
constant. (D) Solenoid (4) Insulated copper wire
II. The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is wound in the form of a
constant. cylindrical coil
III. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current (a) A 2 ; B 3 ; C 2 ; D 1
decreases at a steady rate. (b) A 4 ; B 2 ; C 1 ; D 3
(a) I only (b) II only (c) A 2 ; B 3 ; C 1 ; D 4
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (d) A 2 ; B 1 ; C 3 ; D 4
59. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil changes, an 64. Match the column-I and column-II
induced e.m.f.is produced in the circuit. The e.m.f. lasts Column I Column II
I. for a short time (A) Ring uniformly (1) Constant electrostatic
II. for a long time charged field out of system
III. so long as the change in flux takes place (B) Rotating ring (2) Magnetic field strength
The correct statement(s) is/are uniformly charged rotating with angular
(a) I and II (b) II and III velocity
(c) I and III (d) III only (C) Constant current (3) Electric field (induced)
60. Consider coil and magnet in ring i
(D) i = i0cos t (4) Magnetic dipole moment
Y (a) A 2 ; B 2, 3 ; C 1, 4, 3 ; D 3
(b) A 3, 4 ; B 1 ; C 2, 3 ; D 2
(c) A 1 ; B 1, 2, 4 ; C 2, 4 ; D 3
N S X (d) A 2 ; B 4, 2, 1 ; C 2, 1 ; D 4, 2
Current is induced in coil when
I. coil and magnet both are at rest. DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
II. coil is at rest and magnet moves along x. 65. In a coil of resistance 10 , the i(amp)
III. magnet is at rest and coil moves along x. induced current developed by
IV. both coil and magnet move along y with same changing magnetic flux through 4
speed. it, is shown in figure as a
The correct statements are function of time. The
(a) I and IV (b) I and II magnitude of change in flux
t(s)
(c) III and IV (d) II and III through the coil in weber is 0 0.1
61. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual (a) 8 (b) 2
inductance of the pair of coils depends upon (c) 6 (d) 4
I. relative position and orientation of the two coils 66. Fig shown below represents an area A = 0.5 m2 situated in a
II. the materials of the wires of the coils uniform magnetic field B = 2.0 weber/m2 and making an
III. the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils angle of 60º with respect to magnetic field.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
B
(c) I and III (d) II and III
62. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a 60
bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases

when
The value of the magnetic flux through the area would be induced in the loop at t = 2 s and the direction of induce
equal to current through R are
(a) 39 mV; right to left
(a) 2.0 weber (b) 3 weber (b) 39 mV; left to right
(c) (c) 31 mV; right to left
3 / 2 weber (d) 0.5 weber
(d) 31 mV; left to right
67. In the given situation, the bar magnet experinces a ...A... R
force due to the ... B ... in coil. 71. Consider the situation shown. The wire AB is sliding on
fixed rails with a constant velocity. If the wire AB is replaced
by semi-circular wire, the magnitude of induced e.m.f. will
A
v R
N
B
(a) increase
Here, A and B refer to
(b) decrease
(a) an attractive, air
(c) remain the same
(b) an attractive, induced current
(d) increase or decrease depending on whether the semi-
(c) repulsive, induced current circle buldges towards the resistance or away from it.
(d) attractive, vacuum 72. The figure shows a wire sliding on two parallel conducting
68. An electron moves along the line AB, which lies in the same rails placed at a separation I. A magnetic field B exists in
plane as a circular loop of conducting wires as shown in the a direction perpendicular to the plane of the rails. The
diagram. What will be the direction of current induced if force required to keep the wire moving at a constant
any, in the loop velocity v will be
(a) evB × × × × ×
× × × × ×
0 Bv
(b) × × ×I × ×
4 I V
× × × × ×
(c) BIv
(a) no current will be induced (d) zero × × × × ×
(b) the current will be clockwise 73. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown.
(c) the current will be anticlockwise The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of electron.
(d) the current will change direction as the electron What will be the direction of current if any, induced in the coil?
passes by a
69. As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial conducting
loops separated by some distance. When the switch S is
closed, a clockwise current IP flows in P (as seen by E) and b d
an induced current I Q1 flows in Q. The switch remains closed

for a long time. When S is opened, a current IQ2 flows in Q. c
Then the directions of I Q1 and IQ2 (as seen by E) are X electron Y

(a) adcb
(b) The current will reverse its direction as the electron
goes past the coil
(c) No current induced
(d) abcd
74. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius ‘r’ is
(a) respectively clockwise and anticlockwise falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field
(b) both clockwise B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed
(c) both anticlockwise across the ring when its speed is v, is :
(d) respectively anticlockwise and clockwise
70. In the figure the flux through the loop perpendicular to the Q B
plane of the coil and directed into the paper is varying
r
according to the relation 6t 2 7 t 1 where is in
P R
milliweber and t is in second. The magnitude of the emf
EBD_7208
(a) Zero 79. Assertion : Induced emf will always occur whenever there
(b) Bv r2 /2 and P is at higher potnetial is change in magnetic flux.
(c) rBv and R is at higher potnetial Reason : Current always induces whenever there is change
(d) 2rBv and R is at higher potential in magnetic flux.
75. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long staight 80. Assertion : Far aday s laws are consequen ce of
wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as conservation of energy.
shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a Reason : In a purely resistive ac circuit, the current legs
constant velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the frame will be behind the emf in phase.
proportional to 81. Assertion : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an
X
1 induced current in the coil.
(a)
(2x – a)2 Reason : The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil
1 maintain a current in the coil of the circuit is continuous.
l
(b) 2 82. Assertion : Lenz's law violates the principle of conservation
(2x a) V of energy.
1 Reason : Induced emf always opposes the change in
(c) (2x – a)(2x + a)
magnetic flux responsible for its production.
1 a 83. Assertion : An induced current has a direction such that
(d) 2 the magnetic field due to the current opposes the change in
x
76. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to X-axis in a uniform the magnetic flux that induces the current.
magnetic field, pointing in the positive X-direction. The Reason : Above statement is in accordance with
end A of the rod gets conservation of energy.
Y 84. Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long
solenoid decreases.
B Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always
flow in such direction that it opposes the change to the
cause that produced it.
V 85. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected
to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is placed on a
A smooth surface, the axis of the ring being horizontal. As the
O X switch is closed, the ring will move away from the solenoid.
(a) positively charged
(b) negatively charged
(c) neutral
(d) first positively charged and then negatively charged
77. Two different wire loops are concentric and lie in the same d
plane. The current in the outer loop (I) is clockwise and Reason : Induced emf in the ring, e .
dt
increases with time. The induced current in the inner loop 86. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a conductor
(a) is clockwise in a magnetic field.
(b) is zero Reason : An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic
(c) is counter clockwise I field.
(d) has a direction that depends on the 87. Assertion : Figure shows a metallic conductor moving in
ratio of the loop radii. magnetic field. The induced emf across its ends is zero.
78. The inductance between A and D is
(a) 3.66 H
(b) 9 H
(c) 0.66 H A 3H 3H 3H D Reason : The induced emf across the ends of a conductor
(d) 1 H is given by e = Bv sin .
88. Assertion : Eddy currents are produced in any metallic
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS conductor when magnetic flux is changed around it.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Reason : Electric potential determines the flow of charge.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 89. Assertion : An induced emf appears in any coil in which
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You the current is changing.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct Reason : Self induction phenomenon obeys Faraday's law
explanation for assertion. of induction.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a 90. Assertion : When number of turns in a coil is doubled,
correct explanation for assertion coefficient of self-inductance of the coil becomes 4 times.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason : This is because L N2.
91. Assertion : Figure shows an emf e induced in a coil. It 98. If a current increases from zero to one ampere in 0.1 second
happens due to rightward decreasing current. in a coil of 5 mH, then the magnitude of the induced e.m.f.
will be
(a) 0.005 volt (b) 0.5 volt
di (c) 0.05 volt (d) 5 volt
Reason : In the coil self induced emf e L . 99. A coil has 200 turns and area of 70 cm2. The magnetic field
dt
92. Assertion : In the phenomenon of mutual induction, self perpendicular to the plane of the coil is 0.3 Wb/m2 and take 0.1
induction of each of the coil persists. sec to rotate through 180º.The value of the induced e.m.f. will
be
Reason : Self induction arises due to change in current in
the coil itself. In mutual induction current changes in both (a) 8.4 V (b) 84 V
the individual coil. (c) 42 V (d) 4.2 V
100. A coil of resistance 400 is placed in a magnetic field. If
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS the magnetic flux (wb) linked with the coil varies with time
t (sec) as = 50t2 + 4. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is
93. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field which (a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A
changes from B0 to 4 B0 in time interval t. The e.m.f. induced (c) 2 A (d) 1 A
in the coil will be 101. A coil having n turns and resistance R is connected with
(a) 3 A 0 B0 / t (b) 4 A 0 B0 / t a galvanometer of resistance 4R . This combination is
moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to
(c) 3 B0 / A 0 t (d) 4A 0 / B0 t W2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
94. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform ( W1 W2 ) n ( W2 W1 )
magnetic field B directed along positive z axis. The direction (a) (b) 5 Rt
Rnt
of induced current as seen from the z axis will be
( W2 W1 ) n ( W2 W1 )
(a) zero (c) (d)
(b) anticlockwise of the +ve z axis 5 Rnt Rt
(c) clockwise of the +ve z axis 102. Magnetic flux in weber in a closed circuit of resistance
(d) along the magnetic field 10 varies with time (sec) as f = 6t2 – 5t + 1. The magnitude
95. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which of induced current at t = 0.25s is
is directed into the paper. The magnetic field is increasing (a) 0.2 A (b) 0.6 A
at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires (c) 1.2 A (d) 0.8 A
AB and CD are 103. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is given by
= 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is
(a) –190 V (b) –10 V
(c) 10 V (d) 190 V
104. A copper rod of length I rotates about its end with
angular velocity in uniform magnetic field B. The emf
developed between the ends of the rod if the field is
(a) B to A and D to C (b) A to B and C to D normal to the plane of rotation is
(c) A to B and D to C (d) B to A and C to D 1
96. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes (a) B I2 (b) B I2
2
by an amount in a time t. Then the total quantity of 1
electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during (c) 2 B I2 (d) B I2
the time t is represented by 4
105. A metallic rod of length ‘ ’ is tied to a string of length 2 and
1 made to rotate with angular speed on a horizontal table
(a) Q R . (b) Q .
t R t with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic
field ‘B’ in the region, the e.m.f. induced across the ends of
(c) Q (d) Q the rod is
R t
97. The north pole of a bar magnet is moved towards a coil 2B 2
along the axis passing through the centre of the coil and (a)
2
perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The direction of the 3B 2
induced current in the coil when viewed in the direction (b)
of the motion of the magnet is 2
2
(a) clockwise 4B
(c)
(b) anti-clockwise 2
2
(c) no current in the coil 5B
(d)
(d) either clockwise or anti-clockwise 2
EBD_7208
106. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form 113. Two pure inductors, each of self inductance L are connected
of a semicircle of radius r rotates about the diameter of the in parallel but are well separated from each other, then the
circle with an angular frequency . The axis of rotation is total inductance is
perpendicular to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit (a) L (b) 2 L
is R, the mean power generated per period of rotation is (c) L/2 (d) L/4
114. Two coils of self inductances L1 and L2 are placed so close
(B r ) (B r 2 ) together that effective flux in one coil is completely linked
(a) (b)
2R 2R with the other. If M is the mutual inductance between them,
then
B r2 (B r 2 ) 2 (a) M = L1L2 (b) M = L1/L2
(c) (d)
2R 8R
(c) M = (L1L2)2 (d) M = (L1 L 2 )
107. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane
with velocity v in a unifrom magnetic field perpendicular 115. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of N turns, is
to its plane as shown in figure. An electric field is induced M henry. If a current of I ampere in one of the coils is
brought to zero in t second, the emf induced per turn in the
A B other coil, in volt, will be
MI NMI
v (a) (b)
t t
D C MN MI
(c) (d)
(a) in AD, but not in BC It Nt
(b) in BC, but not in AD 116. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, current changes
(c) neither in AD nor in BC with time according to relation i = t2e–t. At what time emf is
zero?
(d) in both AD and BC
108. A conductor of length 0.4 m is moving with a speed of (a) 4s (b) 3s
7 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity (c) 2s (d) 1s
0.9 Wb/m2. The induced e.m.f. across the conductor is 117. When the current in a coil changes from 2 amp. to 4 amp. in
(a) 1.26 V (b) 2.52V 0.05 sec., an e.m.f. of 8 volt is induced in the coil. The
(c) 5.04 V (d) 25.2 V coefficient of self inductance of the coil is
109. A circular coil and a bar magnet placed nearby are made to (a) 0.1 henry (b) 0.2 henry
move in the same direction. If the coil covers a distance of (c) 0.4 henry (d) 0.8 henry
1 m in 0.5. sec and the magnet a distance of 2 m in 1 sec, the 118. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is being
induced e.m.f. produced in the coil is brought closer to a vertical conducting plane along the
(a) zero (b) 0.5 V perpendicular direction. The direction of the induced current
(c) 1 V (d) 2 V. in the conducting plane will be
110. A circular coil of radius 6 cm and 20 turns rotates about (a) horizontal (b) vertical
its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 40 rad s–1 (c) clockwise (d) anticlockwise
in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 2 × 119. Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so
10–2 T. If the coil form a closed loop of resistance 8 , close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely
then the average power loss due to joule heating is linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these
(a) 2.07 × 10–3 W (b) 1.23 × 10–3 W coils is
(c) 3.14 × 10 W –3 (d) 1.80 × 10–3 W (a) 6 mH (b) 4 mH
111. A boy peddles a stationary bicycle the pedals of bicycle. (c) 16 mH (d) 10 mH
are attached to a 200 turn coil of area 0.10 m2, The coil 120. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils is 0.75 H. If current
ratotes at half a revolution per second and it is placed in in the primary coil changes from 0.5 A to zero in 0.01 s, find
a uniform magnetic field of 0.02 T perpendicular to the average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil.
axis of rotation of the coil. The maximum voltage (a) 25.5 V (b) 12.5 V
generated in the coil is (c) 22.5 V (d) 37.5 V
(a) 1.26 V (b) 2.16 V 121. A coil of 50 turns is pulled in 0.02 s between the poles of a
(c) 3.24 V (d) 4.12 V magnet, where its area includes 31 × 10–6 Wb to 1 × 10–
6Wb. The average e.m.f. is
112. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic
field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. (a) 7.5 × 10–2 V (b) 7.5 × 10–3 V
The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of (c) zero (d) 7.5 × 10–4V
1 mm s–1. The induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, iss 122. A wire of length 50 cm moves with a velocity of 300 m/min,
perpendicular to a magnetic field. If the e.m.f. induced in
(a) 2 V (b) V the wire is 2 V, the magnitude of the field in tesla is
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) V (d) 2 V
2 (c) 0.8 (d) 2.5
123. A circular wire of radius r rotates about its own axis with system is proportional is
angular speed in a magnetic field B perpendicular to its 2
plane, then the induced e.m.f. is (a) (b)
L L
1
(a) Br 2 (b) Br 2 L L2
2 (c) (d)
(c) 2Br 2 (d) zero
124. The coefficient of self inductance of a solenoid is 0.18 mH. 133. A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of
If a core of soft iron of relative permeability 900 is inserted, 0.3 m. Its cross-sectional area is 1.2 × 10–3 m2. Around its
then the coefficient of self inductance will become nearly. central section a coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial
(a) 5.4 mH (b) 162 mH current of 2 A flowing in the solenoid is reversed in 0.25 s,
(c) 0.006 mH (d) 0.0002 mH the emf induced in the coil will be
125. The inductance of a closed-packed coil of 400 turns is 8 (a) 2.4 × 10–4 V (b) 2.4 × 10–2 V
(c) 4.8 × 10 V–4 (d) 4.8 × 10–2 V
mH. A current of 5 mA is passed through it. The magnetic
flux through each turn of the coil is 134. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated
1 1 wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A = 10 cm 2 and
(a) 0 Wb (b) 0 Wb length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoid has 300 turns and the
4 2
1 other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is
(c) 0 Wb (d) 0.4 µ0Wb ( 0 = 4 × 10 –7 Tm A–1)
3
126. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1 ampere. Energy (a) 2.4 × 10–5 H (b) 4.8 × 10–4 H
stored in its magnetic field is (c) 4.8 × 10–5 H (d) 2.4 × 10–4 H
(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 J 135. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area
(c) 0.05 J (d) 0.1 J A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency in a
127. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have their magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in
lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 : 2. The ratio of the coil is
self-inductance of two solenoids is (a) N.A.B.R. (b) N.A.B.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 136. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotated about its centre with
128. The self inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In 10 revolutions per second in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1
order to impart maximum power at 50 Hz, it should be tesla with its plane perpendicular to the field. The e.m.f.
connected to a capacitance of induced across the radius of disc is
(a) 8 F (b) 4 F
2
(c) 2 F (d) 1 F (a) volt (b) volt
10 10
129. A long solenoid having 200 turns per cm carries a current of
(c) 2 (d) 2
1.5 amp. At the centre of it is placed a coil of 100 turns of 10 volt 2 10 volt
cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10–4 m2 having its axis parallel to 137. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance
the field produced by the solenoid. When the direction of of 4000 hm. Its terminals are connected to a load of 4000
current in the solenoid is reversed within 0.05 sec, the induced ohm. The voltage across the load is
e.m.f. in the coil is (a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt
(a) 0.48 V (b) 0.048 V
(c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt
(c) 0.0048 V (d) 48 V
138. An AC generator of 220 V having internal resistance
130. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005H. The current
changes in first coil according to equation I = I0 sin t r = 10 and external resistance R = 100 . What is the power
where I0 = 10A and = 100 radian/sec. The max. value of developed in the external circuit?
e.m.f. in second coil is (a) 484 W (b) 400 W
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 441 W (d) 369 W
(c) (d) 4 139. A conducting ring of radius l m kept in a uniform magnetic
131. A coil is wound on a frame of rectangular cross-section. If field B of 0.01 T, rotates uniformly with an angular velocity
all the linear dimensions of the frame are increased by a 100 rad s–1 with its axis of rotation perpendicular to B. The
factor 2 and the number of turns per unit length of the coil maximum induced emf in it is
remains the same, self-inductance of the coil increases by (a) 1.5 V (b) V
a factor of (c) 2 V (d) 0.5 V
(a) 4 (b) 8 140. A six pole generator with fixed field excitation develops an
(c) 12 (d) 16 e.m.f. of 100 V when operating at 1500 r.p.m. At what speed
132. A small square loop of wire of side is placed inside a must it rotate to develop 120V?
large square loop of side L (L >> ). The loop are coplanar (a) 1200 r.p.m (b) 1800 r.p.m
and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the (c) 1500 r.p.m (d) 400 r.p.m
EBD_7208
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS y

37. (c) = LI L henry
I x
1. (a) 2. (c)
3. (a) Farady’s law states that time varying magnetic flux 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (d)
can induce an e.m.f. 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c)
4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 45. (d) P = I2R when I becomes half, then P becomes one-
8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) fourth, heat per unit time depends on square of I.
14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) When I is reduced P is substancially reduced.
19. (b) : Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c)
magnetic field is found by using Fleming’s right 49. (a) Magnetic braking in trans, Strong electromagnets
hand rule. are situated above the rails in some electrically
20. (d) When a circular coil expands radially in a region of powered trains. When the electromagnets are
magnetic field, induced emf developed is activated, the eddy currents induced in the rails
= BIv = B × rate of change of area oppose the motion of the train. As there are no
Here, magnetic field B is in a plane perpendicular to mechanical linkages, the braking effect is smooth.
the plane of the circular coil. 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a)
As = 0, magnetic field must be in the plane of 53. (d) Electromagnetic damping certain galvanometers have
circular coil so that its component perpendicular to a fixed core made of non-magnetic metallic material.
the plane of the coil, whose magnitude is decreasing When the coil oscillates, the eddy currents generated
suitably so that magnitic flux linked with the coil in the core oppose the motion and bring the coil to
d rest quickly.
stays constant then = =0
dt 54. (b) As = NAB cos 90° = 0
So both option (b) and (c) are correct. = sin 90° = = maximum
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) is the angle between the field and normal to the
27. (d) Mutual inductance between two coils depends on all plane of the coil.
the three factors given here. 55. (d) A dynamo is a device which converts mechanical
BA energy into electrical energy
28. (b) Mutual inductance = 56. (b) 57. (b)
I I
[MT 1Q 1L2 ] STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
[Henry] ML2 Q 2
[QT 1 ]
58. (a) Emf will be induced in the circular wire loop when flux
29. (b) Inductance it is also possible the emf is induced in
through it changes with time.
a single isolated coil due to change of flux through
the coil by means of varying the current through the e
same coil. This phenomenon is called self-induction. t
In this case, flux linkage through a coil of N turns when the current is constant, the flux changing
is proportional to the currente through the coil and through it will be zero.
is expressed as N B I N B LI ...(i) I
where, constant of proportionality L is called self-
inductance of the coil. It is also called the coefficient
of self-induction of the coil. When the current is B
varied, the flux linked with the coil also changes and
an emf is induced in the coil. Using Eq. (i) the B
induced emf is given by
Circular
d (N B ) dI loop
–L
dt dt
When the current is decreasing at a steady rate then
Thus, the self-induced emf always opposes any
the change in the flux (decreasing inwards) on
change (increase or decrease) of current in the coil.
the right half of the wire is equal to the change in flux
30. (a)
(decreasing outwards) on the left half of the wire such
31. (c) Lenz's law gives the polarity of induced emf.
that through the circular loop is zero.
32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b)
59. (d)
60. (d) Relative motion between the magnet and the coil
that is responsible for induction in the coil.
61. (a) e– e–
62. (c) By inserting iron rod in the coil,
74. (d) Rate of decreasing of area of semicircular ring =
L z I so brightness
dA
(2r)V
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS dt
From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
63. (c) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
d dA
64. (c) A - 1 ; A charged ring can produced electric field out e= B B(2rV)
of the centre. dt dt
B - 1, 2, 4 ; A charged rotating ring can produce electric
field out of centre, magnetic and dipole moment.
C- 2, 4 ; Current carrying produces magnetic field at
the centre.
D- 3 ; Alternating current can produce induced electric As induced current in ring produces magnetic field in
field . upward direction hence R is at higher potential.
75. (c) Emf induced in side 1 of frame e1 = B1V
oI
B1
65. (b) The charge through the coil = area of current-time 2 (x – a/ 2)
(i – t) graph Emf induced in side 2 of frame e2 = B2 V
1 oI
q 0.1 4 = 0.2 C B2
2 2 (x a/ 2)
q Change in flux ( )=q×R x
R
I
1 2
q 0.2
10 a v
= 2 weber x–
2
66. (d) BA cos 2.0 0.5 cos 60º a
a
2.0 0.5 x
0.5 weber. 2
2
67. (c) In this situation, the bar magent experiences a Emf induced in square frame
repulsive force due to the induced current. Therefore, e = B1V – B2V
a person has to do work in moving the magnet. 0I 0I
= v– v
68. (d) When electron approaches nearby the loop flux inside 2 (x – a / 2) 2 (x a/ 2)
loop will increase and when electron recedes from the 1
loop the flux inside loop decreases and so current or, e
(2x – a)(2 x a)
change in direction. 76. (a) According to right hand palm rule, the Lorentz force
69. (d) on free electrons in the conductor will be directed
d towards end B. Hence, the end A gets positively
70. (d) 6t 2 7t 1 12t 7
dt charged.
At time, t = 2 sec. 77. (c) As I increases, increases
d Ii is such that it opposes the increases in .
24 7 31 volt Hence, decreases (By Right Hand Rule). The induced
dt
Direction of current is from left to right according to current will be counterclockwise.
Flemmings right hand rule. 78. (d) The given circuit clearly shows that the inductors are
71. (c) E.m.f. will remain same because change in area per unit 1 1 1 1
in parallel we have, or L= 1H
time will be same in both cases. L 3 3 3
72. (d) No change in flux, hence no force required
73. (b) Current will be induced,
when e– comes closer the induced current will be 79. (c) Emf will always induces whenever, there is change in
anticlockwise magnetic flux. The current will induced only in closed
when e– comes farther induced current will be clockwise loop.
EBD_7208
80. (c) In purely resistive circuit, the current and emf are in 100. (a) According, to Faraday’s law of induction
the same phase. d
81. (c) Induced e.m.f. (100t )
dt
82. (a) Lenz's law (that the direction of induced emf is always Induced current i at t = 2 sec.
such as to oppose the change that cause it) is direct
100 2
consequence of the law of conservation of energy. = 0.5Amp
83. (b) 84. (a) R 400
85. (a) When switch is closed , the magnetic flux through the d (W2 W1 )
101. (b) R tot (R 4R) 5R
ring will increase and so ring will move away form the dt t
solenoil so as to compensate this flux. This is according nd n(W2 W1 )
to Lenz's law. i .
R tot dt 5Rt
86. (b) In both the cases, the magnetic flux will change, and
( W2 & W1 are magnetic flux)
so there is an induced current.
87. (a) In the given case, there is no component of velocity, d d 2
102. (a) e 6t 5t 1 12t 5
perpendicular to the magnetic field and so e = Bv sin dt dt
0°. e = – 12 (0.25) + 5 = 2 volt
88. (b) Both the statements are independently correct. e 2
i 0.2A.
89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (a) R 10
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 103. (b) 10t 2 50t 250

d
e (20 t 50)
d dB A dB dt
93. (a) Induced e.m.f. = = = A0
dt dt dt et 3 10 V
4 B0 B0 104. (b)
A0 3 A 0 B0 / t 105. (d) Here, induced e.m.f.
t 2
3
94. (a) For a current to induce in the cylindrical conducting dx
e ( x) Bdx x
rod.
2
(a) The cylindrical rod should cut B
magnetic lines of force which [(3 ) 2 – (2 )2 ] 5B 2
B
will happen only when the 2 2
cylindrical conducting rod is 106. (b) B.A BA cos t
moving. –
e v=0
Since conducting rod is at d BA
BA sin t ; i sin t
rest, no current will be dt R
induced. 2
BA
(b) The magnitude / direction of the magnetic field Pinst i2R R sin 2 t
changes. A changing magnetic field will create an R
electric field which can apply force on the free T T
electrons of the conducting rod and a current will Pinst dt sin 2 tdt
get induced. 0 ( BA) 2 0
Pavg
But since the magnetic field is constant, no current T R T
will be induced. dt dt
95. (a) As the magnetic field increases, its flux also increases 0 0
into the page and so induced current in bigger loop 2
will be anticlockwise. i.e., from D to C in bigger loop ( BA) T
.
and then from B to A in smaller loop. R 2.T
2 2
( r )
96. (c) iR (i t )R = QR Q Pavg =
t R 2R
97. (b) 107. (c) The electric field/emf is induced neither in sides AD
and nor in BC. Unless the metallic square loop is
98. (c) (5 10 3 ) (1 / 0.1) 0.05 V .
entering or leaving the magnetic field and the flux
99. (a) Change in flux = 2 B A N linked with it is changing.
2 0.3 200 70 10 4 108. (b) Length of conductor (l) = 0.4 m; Speed (v) = 7 m/s and
Induced e.m.f. magnetic field (B) = 0.9 Wb/ m2. Induced e.m.f.
0.1
( ) = Blv cos q = 0.9 × 0.4 × 7 × cos 0º = 2.52 V.
1 e e e 1 1 1
109. (a) Vel. of coil 2m / s or
0.5 L L1 L2 L L1 L2
2 L1 L 2
velocity of magnet 2m / s. L
1 L1 L 2
As they are made to move in the same direction, their
Here L1 = L2 = L
relative velocity is zero. Therefore, induced e.m.f. = 0.
110. (a) Here, r = 6 cm = 6 × 10–2 m, N = 20, = 40 rads–1 L L L
L
B = 2 × 10–2 T, R = 8 L L 2
Maximum emf induced, NAB 114. (d)
= N( r2)B
d dI NM I
= 20 × × (6 × 10–2) 2 × 10–2 × 40 = 0.18 V 115. (a) E ( NMI ) E NM E=
Average value of emf induced over a full cycle dt dt t
av = 0 E MI
Maximum value of current in the coil. emf induced per unit turn =
N t
I 0.18 116. (c) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t
I= = 0.023 A
R 8
di
Average power dissipated, E= L L[ t 2 e t 2 te t ]
dt
I 0.18 0.023 when E = 0
P= = = 2.07 × 10–3 W
2 2 –e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0
111. (a) Here = 0.5 Hz, N = 200, A = 0.1 m2 2t e–t = e–t t2
and B = 0.02 T t = 2 sec.
Maximum voltage generated is
di ( 4 2)
= NBA (2 ) 117. (b) M or 8 M
= 200 × 0.02 × 0.1 × (2 × 0.5) = 1.26 V dt 0.05
112. (b) Magnetic flux linked with the loop is B r2 M

8 0.05
0.2 henry
2
d dr 118. (d) According to Lenz’s law
|e| = B 2r
dt dt 119. (b) Mutual Inductance of two coils
dr M M1 M 2 2mH 8mH 4mH
When r = 2 cm, = 1 mm s–1
dt
dI 0.5 0
e = 0.025× ×2 ×2 ×10–2×10–3 120. (d) Given : M = 0.75 H and 50 A / s
= 0.100 × × 10–5 = × 10–6 V = V dt 0.01
113. (c) When the coils are connected in parallel, let the Average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil
currents in the two coils be i1 and i2 respectively. Total dI
induced current e M 0.75 50 37.5 V
dt
di di1 di 2
i i1 i 2 or …… (1) n 2 1
dt dt dt 121. (a) e
t
di1 di 2
Now e L1 L2 50 1 10 6 31 10 6
dt dt =
0.02
(Q In parallel, induced e.m.f. across each coil will be
same) = 7.5 × 10–2 V
122. (c) The magnitude of induced e.m.f. is given by
di1 e di e |e| = Blv
Hence and 2 …… (2)
dt L1 dt L2 v = 300 m/min = 5m/s
Let L' be the equivalent inductance. |e| 2
B = 0.8 tesla
di di e l v 0.5 5
Then e L or …… (3) 123 (d) The e.m.f. is induced when there is change of flux. As
dt dt L
in this case there is no change of flux, hence no e.m.f.
From eqs. (1), (2) and (3), we get
will be induced in the wire.
EBD_7208
124. (b) L = 0 nI So, when all linear dimensions are increased by a factor
of 2. The new self inductance becomes L' = 8L.
L2
----( n and I are same) 132. (b)
L1 0
N 2000 20000
L2 = rL1 = 900 × 0.18 = 162 mH 133. (b) n
0.3 3
125. (a) N = LI
d dB
LI 8 10 3 5 10 3 dt
NBA NA
dt
N 400 Since B = µ0nI
7 0 Wb dt
= 10 NAn
4 0.024V
dt
126. (c) Energy stored U is given by 0 N1 N 2 A 4 10 7 300 400 100 10 4
134. (d) M
1 2 1 3 0.2
U Li (100 10 ) (1) 2 0.05 J.
2 2 4
2.4 10 H
2 2
0N A N
127. (b) From L
l l
2 d d(NB.A)
L1 1/ 2 1 135. (d) e
we get, dt dt
L2 1/ 2 2
d
128. (d) For maximum power, X L X C , which yields N ( BA cos t ) NBA sin t
dt
1 1
C e max NBA
2 2
(2 n ) L 4 50 50 10
1 1
C = 0.1 10 5
F 1 F 136. (c) e.m.f. induced BR 2 B R 2 (2 n)
2 2
7 2
129. (b) B 0 ni (4 10 ) (200 10 ) 1.5 1
(0.1) (0.1)2 2 10 = (0.1)2 volts
= 3.8 × 10–2 Wb / m2 2
Magnetic flux through each turn of the coil 137. (d) Total resistance of the circuit = 4000 + 400 = 4400 W
= BA = (3.8 × 10–2) (3.14 × 10–4) = 1.2 × 10–5 weber V 440
When the current in the solenoid is reversed, the Current flowing i 0.1 amp.
R 4400
change in magnetic flux
Voltage across load = R i = 4000 × 0.1 = 400 volt.
2 (1.2 10 5 ) 2.4 10 5
weber 138. (b) V = 200V; r = 10
R = 10 + 100 = 110
5
d 2.4 10
Induced e.m.f. N 100 0.048 V. V 220
dt 0.05 I 2A
R 100
130. (b)
M P = I2R = 4 × 100 = 400 W
= dI=0.005×I 0 cos t×
dt 139. (b) Given, B = 0.01 T, A = R2 = × (1 m)2 = m2
and = 100 rads–1
max = 0.005 × I0 × =5
2 2
The maximum induced emf max= BA
131. (b) Self inductance = 0 n AL 0n ( b) L = 0.01× ×100 V = V
n = Total number of turns/length
L = Length of inductor 140. (b) The e.m.f. induced is directly proportional to rate at
l = Length of rectangular cross section which flux is intercepted which in turn varies directly
b = breadth of rectangular cross-section as the speed of rotation of the generator.
22
ALTERNATING CURRENT
8. The peak value of the a.c. current flowing throw a resistor

is given by
1. In general in an alternating current circuit (a) I0 = e0/R (b) I = e/R
(a) the average value of current is zero (c) I0 = e0 (d) I0 = R/e0
(b) the average value of square of the current is zero 9. The alternating current can be measured with the help of
(c) average power dissipation is zero (a) hot wire ammeter
(d) the phase difference between voltage and current is (b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) moving magnet galvanometer
zero
(d) suspended coil type galvanometer
2. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is
10. Alternating current can not be measured by D.C. ammeter,
(a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s
because
(c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s (a) A. C. is virtual
3. A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high (b) A. C. changes its direction
voltage as (c) A. C. can not pass through D.C. ammeter
(a) the rate of transmission is faster at high voltages (d) average value of A. C for complete cycle is zero
(b) it is more economical due to less power loss 11. The heat produced in a given resistance in a given time by
(c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages the sinusoidal current I0sin t will be the same as that of a
(d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines steady current of magnitude nearly
4. The electric mains supply in our homes and offices is a (a) 0.71 I0 (b) 1.412 I0
voltage that varies like a sine function with time such a (c) I0 (d) 0
voltage is called ... A... and the current driven by it in a
12. In an a.c. circuit, the r.m.s. value of current, Irms is related to
circuit is called the ... B... Here, A and B refer to
the peak current, I0 by the relation
(a) DC voltage, AC current
(b) AC voltage, DC current (a) I rms 2 I0 (b) I rms I0
(c) AC voltage, DC voltage 1 1
(d) AC voltage, AC current (c) I rms I0 (d) I rms I0
2
5. Alternating currents can be produced by a 13. The ratio of mean value over half cycle to r.m.s. value of
(a) dynamo (b) choke coil A.C. is
(c) transformer (d) electric motor
(a) 2 : (b) 2 2:
I0
6. The alternating current of equivalent value of is (c) 2: (d) 2 :1
2
14. An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of
(a) peak current (b) r.m.s. current
the following is true?
(c) D.C. current (d) all of these
(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
7. The alternating e.m.f. of e = e0 sin t is applied across (b) Current lags behind voltage in phase
capacitor C. The current through the circuit is given by (c) Current and voltage are in same phase
(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the
(a) I = I0 sin t (b) I I 0 sin t value of resistance.
2
15. In which of the following circuits the maximum power
dissipation is observed?
(c) I I 0 sin t (d) I = I0 sin ( t – ) (a) Pure capacitive circuit (b) Pure inductive circuit
2
(c) Pure resistive circuit (d) None of these
EBD_7208
352 ALTERNATING CURRENT
16. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive 25. Phase difference between voltage and current in a
reactance capacitor in an ac circuit is
(a) decreases (a) (b)
(b) increases directly with frequency (c) 0 (d)
(c) increases as square of frequency 26. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X, if
(d) decreases inversely with frequency capacitance and frequency become double, then reactance
17. The average power dissipated in a pure inductance is will be
1 2 2
(a) 4X (b) X/2
(a) L (b) L
2 (c) X/4 (d) 2X
27. When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor
(c) L 2 /4 (d) zero C, then
18. If a current I given by I = I0 sin ( t – /2) flows in inductance (a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.
in an A.C. circuit across which an A.C. potential E = E0 sin (b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
t has been applied, then power consumption P in the circuit (c) the charge on the plate is not in phase with the
will be applied votage.
(a) P E0 / 2 (b) P E / 2 (d) power delivered to the capacitor per cycle is zero.
0
28. In LCR circuit if resistance increases quality factor
(c) P E 0 0 / 2 (d) zero (a) increases finitely (b) decreases finitely
19. In the case of an inductor (c) remains constant (d) None of these
29. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in series
(a) voltage lags the current by with an AC source. As the frequency of the source is slightly
2
increased from a very low value, the reactance of the
(b) voltage leads the current by (a) inductor increases (b) resistor increases
2 (c) capacitor increases (d) circuit increases
30. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the impedance
(c) voltage leads the current by of an L-C-R series circuit
3
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(d) voltage leads the current by
4 (c) decreases
20. If the frequency of an A.C. is made 4 times of its initial (d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then
value, the inductive reactance will increases.
(a) be 4 times (b) be 2 times 31. If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac source, then at
(c) be half (d) remain the same resonance the voltage across
21. An inductance L having a resistance R is connected to an (a) R is zero
alternating source of angular frequency The Quality factor (b) R equals the applied voltage
Q of inductance is (c) C is zero
(a) R/ L (b) ( L/R)2 (d) L equals the applied voltage
(c) (R / L) ½ (d) L/R
32. The current leads the voltage by an angle which is given
22. A capacitor acts as an infinite resistance for
by
(a) DC (b) AC
(c) DC as well as AC (d) neither AC nor DC 1
(a) tan 1 (b) tan–1 ( CR)
23. The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is CR
(a) effective resistance due to capacity
(b) effective wattage C R
(c) tan 1 (d) tan 1
(c) effective voltage R C
(d) None of these
33. In an L.C.R. series a.c. circuit, the current
24. Of the following about capacitive reactance which is
(a) is always in phase with the voltage
correct?
(b) always lags the generator voltage
(a) The reactance of the capacitor is directly proportional
to its ability to store charge (c) always leads the generator voltage
(b) Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the (d) None of these
frequency of the current 34. An LCR series circuit, connected to a source E, is at
(c) Capacitive reactance is measured in farad resonance. Then the voltage across
(d) The reactance of a capacitor in an A.C. circuit is similar (a) R is zero (b) R equals applied voltage
to the resistance of a capacitor in a D.C. circuit (c) C is zero (d) L equals applied voltage
ALTERNATING CURRENT 353
35. In a series resonant circuit, having L,C and R as its elements, 44. Power factor of the A. C. circuit varies between
the resonant current is i. The power dissipated in circuit at (a) 0 to 0.5 (b) 0.5 to 1
resonance is (c) 0 to 1 (d) 1 to 2
45. The graph between inductive reactance and frequency is
i2R
(a) (b) zero (a) parabola (b) straight line
( L 1/ C) (c) hyperbola (d) an arc of a circle
(c) i2 L (d) i2 R. 46. For minimum dissipation of energy in the circuit the power
Whereas is angular resonant frequency factor should be
36. At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR (a) large (b) small
circuit is (c) moderate (d) can not say
(a) maximum (b) minimum 47. The inductive reactance of an inductor of inductance L is
(c) zero (d) infinity
1 1
37. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series (a) (b)
LCR circuit is 2 fC 2 fL
(a) maximum (b) minimum (c) 2 fC (d) 2 fL
(c) zero (d) infinity 48. Th e opposition offered by ohmic and non ohmic
38. In tuning, we vary the capacitance of a capacitor in the components is
tunning circuit such that the resonant frequency of the (a) inductive reactance (b) capacitive reactance
circuit becomes nearly equal to the frequency of the radio (c) impedance (d) all of these
signal received. When this happens, the ...A... with the 49. The average power dissipated in an A.C. circuit containing
frequency of the signal of the particular radio station in a resistance alone is
the circuit is maximum. Here A refers to (a) erms Irms (b) erms Irms cos
(a) resonant frequency (d) 0 (d) none of these
(b) impedance 50. The product erms Irms is called as
(c) amplitude of the current (a) true power (b) apparent power
(d) reactance (c) power factor (d) Q factor
39. The power factor in a circuit connected to an A.C. The
51. Power in an A.C. circuit is rated per second at which
value of power factor is
(a) charge flows (b) work is done
(a) unity when the circuit contains an ideal inductance
(c) energy is spent (d) current alternates
only
(b) unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only 52. In an a.c. circuit with phase voltage V and current I, the
(c) zero when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only power dissipated is
(d) unity when the circuit contains an ideal capacitance V V
only (a) (b)
2 2
40. Current in a circuit is wattless if
(a) inductance in the circuit is zero (c) V (d) VI cos
(b) resistance in the circuit is zero 53. The sinusoidal A.C. current flows through a resistor of
(c) current is alternating resistance R. If the peak current is Ip, then power dissipated
(d) resistance and inductance both are zero
is
41. Power factor is one for
(a) pure inductor 2 1 2
(a) p R cos (b) p R
(b) pure capacitor 2
(c) pure resistor
(d) either an inductor or a capacitor. 4 2 1 2
(c) p R (d) p R
42. The impedance of a LCR series circuit is 2
2 2 54. The power factor of an AC circuit having resistance (R)

(a) R2 XL XC (b) R2 XL XC and inductance (L) connected in series and an angular
velocity is
2
(c) R XL XC (d) XL XC R (a) R/ L (b) R/(R2 2L2)
43. An A. C. of frequency f is flowing in a circuit containing a (c) L/R (d) R/(R2 2L2)½
resistance R and capacitance C in series. The impedance 55. The transformer voltage induced in the secondary coil of a
of the circuit is equal to transformer is mainly due to
(a) R + f (b) R + 2 fC (a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
1
(c) R (d) R 2 X 2C (c) the vibrations of the primary coil
2 fC (d) the iron core of the transformer
EBD_7208
56. A transformer is employed to 66. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(a) convert A.C. into D.C. I. In LCR series ac circuit, as the frequency of the source
(b) convert D.C. into A.C. increases, the impedence of the circuit first decreases
(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage and then increases.
(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage II. If the net reactance of an LCR series ac circuit is same
57. Transformers are used as its resistance, then the current lags behind the
voltage by 45°.
(a) in DC circuit only
III. Below resonance, voltage leads the current while above
(b) in AC circuits only
it, current leads the voltage.
(c) in both DC and AC circuits (a) I only (b) II only
(d) neither in DC nor in AC circuits (c) I and III (d) I and II
58. The loss of energy in the form of heat in the iron core of 67. An alternating voltage of frequency is induced in electric
a transformer is circuit consisting of an inductance L and capacitance C,
(a) iron loss (b) copper loss connected in parallel. Then across the inductance coil the
(c) mechanical loss (d) None of these I. current is maximum when 2 = 1/(L C)
59. Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is II. current is minimum when 2 = 1/(L C)
(a) voltage (b) current III. voltage is minimum when 2 = 1/(L C)
(c) frequency (d) None of these IV. voltage is maximum when 2 = 1/(L C)
60. Eddy currents in the core of transformer can't be developed Which of the above statements are correct?
by (a) I and III (b) I and IV
(a) increasing the number of turns in secondary coil (c) II and III (d) II and IV
(b) taking laminated transformer 68. Which of the following statements are correct ?
I. If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the
(c) making step down transformer
maximum current less, the circuit is close to resonance
(d) using a weak a.c. at high potential
for a larger range of frequencies and the tuning
61. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce of the circuit will not be good.
(a) flux leakage (b) hysteresis II. Less sharp the resonance less is the selectivity of
(c) copper loss (d) eddy current the circuit or vice–versa.
62. A transformer is based on the principle of III. If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or L is large,
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction the circuit is more selective.
(c) Ampere’s law (d) X-ray crystallography (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
63. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
(a) one
(b) greater than one MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) less than one 69. Match Columns I and II.
(d) the ratio greater or less than one depends on the other Column I Column II
factor (A) RL circuit (1) Leading quantity -
64. The parallel combination of inductor and capacitor is called current
as (B) RC circuit (2) Leading quantity -
(a) rectifier circuit (b) tank circuit voltage
(c) acceptor circuit (d) filter circuit (C) Inductive circuit (3) Phase difference
between voltage and
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS current 0°
(D) Resistive circuit (4) Phase difference
65. Consider the following statements and then select the between voltage and
correct statements. current 90°
I. Most of the electrical device we use require AC (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
voltage. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
II. Most of the electrical energy sold by power (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
companies is transmitted and distributed as (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
alternating current. 70. In an LCR series circuit connected to an ac source, the
III. AC voltage can be easily and efficiently converted
from one to the other by means of transformers. supply voltage is V V0 sin 100 t . V L = 40 V,
(a) I is correct, II and III are incorrect 6
(b) I III are correct, II is incorrect VR = 40V, Z = 5 and R = 4 Then match the column I
(c) I II are correct, III is incorrect and II.
(d) I, II and III are correct
VL VC VR V.I
V
Vm
L R Im I
C
0 2 t
(b)
Column I Column II
(A) Peak current (in A) (1) 10 2
V.I
(B) V0 (in volts) (2) V
50 2
Vm I
(C) Effective value of (3) 50
Im
applied voltage (in volts)
(D) XC (in ) (4) 1 0 t
(c) 2
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (2) V.I
V
71. In a series LCR circuit, the e.m.f. leads current. Now the
driving frequency is decreased slightly. Match columns I Vm I
and II. Im
Column I Column II 0 t
(d) 2
(A) Current amplitude (1) Increases
(B) Phase constant (2) Decreases
(C) Power developed (3) Remains same
in resistor 74. Which of the following graphs represents the correct
(D) Impedance (4) May increase or variation of inductive reactance XL with frequency ?
decrease
(a) (A) (1, 2); (B) (2); (C) (3, 4); (D) (1) XL XL
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (1, 2)
(a) (b)
(d) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)

72. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure XL XL
is
V (c) (d)
V0
O t 75. Which of the following graphs represents the correct

T/2 T variation of capacitive reactance XC with frequency ?
(a) V0 (b) V0 / 2 XC XC
(c) V0/2 (d)
V0 / 3
73. The phase relationship between current and voltage in a
(a) (b)
pure resistive circuit is best represented by
V.I
V
I
Vm XC XC
Im
0 2 t
(a)
(c) (d)
EBD_7208
76. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current through the
inductor is 0.9 A while the current through the condenser is q q
0.4 A. Then
(a) qo (b)
(a) current drawn from source I = 1.13 A
C
(b) = 1/(1.5 L C)
O t O t
L
(c) I = 0.5 A
(d) I = 0.6 A
~ q q
V = V0 sin t
77. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter qo
V1 and V2 are 300 volt each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 (c) qo (d)
and ammeter A are respectively
L C R 100
t O t
O
V1 V2 V3 81. The current in resistance R at resonance is
A
R
~
220 V, 50 Hz
(a) 150 V and 2.2 A (b) 220 V and 2.0 A C

L
(c) 220 V and 2.0 A (d) 100 V and 2.0 A
78. In the given circuit, the current drawn from the source is ~
V = V0 sin t
V 100 x sin(100 t )
(a) zero (b) minimum but finite

(c) maximum but finite (d) infinite
20
10
20
~
XL
XC
R

(a) 20 A (b) 10 A alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(c) 5 A (d) 5 2 A have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
79. Which one of the following curves represents the variation
of impedance (Z) with frequency f in series LCR circuit? (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
Z correct explanation for assertion
Z
(a) (b) (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
82. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete cycle is
always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined over half
f f cycle.
83. Assertion : The voltage and current in a series AC circuit
Z Z are given by V = V0 sin t and i = i0cos t. The power
(c) (d) dissipated in the circuit is zero.
V0i0
Reason : Power in AC circuit is given by P cos .
2
84. Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the emf by
f f
a phase angle of , when AC flows through an inductor..
80. In LCR series circuit fed by a DC source, how does the 2
amplitude of charge oscillations vary with time during Reason : The inductive reactance increases as the
discharge ? frequency of AC source increases.
85. Assertion : The inductive reactance limits amplitude of the 97. The r.m.s value of an a.c. of 50 Hz is 10 amp. The time taken
current in a purely inductive circuit. by the alternating current in reaching from zero to maximum
Reason: The inductive reactance is independent of the value and the peak value of current will be
frequency of the current. (a) 2 × 10–2 sec and 14.14 amp
85. Assertion : A capacitor blocks direct current in the steady (b) 1 × 10–2 sec and 7.07 amp
state. (c) 5 × 10–3 sec and 7.07 amp
Reason : The capacitive reactance of the capacitor is (d) 5 × 10–3 sec and 14.14 amp
inversely proportional to frequency f of the source of emf. 98. The instantaneous voltage through a device of impedance
87. Assertion : A capacitor is connected to a direct current 20 is e = 80 sin 100 t. The effective value of the current is
source. Its reactance is infinite. (a) 3 A (b) 2.828 A
Reason : Reactance of a capacitor is given by X c 1 . (c) 1.732 A (d) 4 A
C 99. The impedance in a circuit containing a resistance of 1
88. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the and an inductance of 0.1 H in series, for AC of 50 Hz, is
current is referred to as wattless current.
(a) 100 10 (b) 10 10
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or
capacitive circuit even though a current is flowing in the (c) 100 (d) 10
circuit. 100. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L
89. Assertion : The power in an ac circuit is minimum if the in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to
circuit has only a resistor. 3 , the phase difference between the applied voltage and
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of the phase the current in the circuit is
angle. (a) /6 (b) /4
90. Assertion : In the purely resistive element of a series LCR, (c) /2 (d) zero
AC circuit the maximum value of rms current increases with 101. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm
increase in the angular frequency of the applied emf.
at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is
2 connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
1
Reason : Imax max
,z R2 L , (a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A
z C
20
where Imax is the peak current in a cycle. (c) A (d) 2.0 A
13
91. Assertion : When the frequency of the AC source in an
LCR circuit equals the resonant frequency, the reactance of 102. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 is
the circuit is zero, and so there is no current through the connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches
inductor or the capacitor. half of its steady state value in
Reason : The net current in the inductor and capacitor is (a) 0.1 s (b) 0.05 s
zero. (c) 0.3 s (d) 0.15 s
92. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance 103. An inductance of negligible resistance whose reactance is
is equal to the ohmic resistance. 22 at 200 Hz is connected to 200 volts, 50 Hz power line.
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the The value of inductance is
capacitive reactance. (a) 0.0175 henry (b) 0.175 henry
93. Assertion : Choke coil is preferred over a resistor to control (c) 1.75 henry (d) 17.5 henry
the current in an AC circuit. 104. An inductive circuit contains resistance of 10 ohms and an
Reason : Power factor of an ideal inductor is zero. inductance of 2 henry. If an A.C. voltage of 120 Volts and
94. Assertion : The power is produced when a transformer frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current would
steps up the voltage. be nearly
Reason : In an ideal transformer VI = constant. (a) 0.32 A (b) 0.16 A
95. Assertion : A laminated core is used in transformers to (c) 0.48 A (d) 0.80 A
increase eddy currents. 105. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 . When an a.c.
Reason: The efficiency of a transformer increases with signal of requency 1000 Hz is fed to the coil, the applied
increase in eddy currents. voltage leads the current by 45°. What is the inductance of
the coil ?
(a) 10 mH (b) 12 mH
96. Determine the rms value of the emf given by (c) 16 mH (d) 20mH.
E (in volt) = 8 sin ( t) + 6sin (2 t) 106. In an LR circuit f = 50 Hz, L = 2H, E = 5 volts, R = 1 then
(a) 5 2V (b) 7 2 V energy stored in inductor is
(a) 50 J (b) 25 J
(c) 10 V (d) 10 2 V (c) 100 J (d) None of these
EBD_7208
107. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200 2 sin 100 t 0.03 H 0.15 k

volts is connected to a capacitor of capacity 1 F. The r.m.s.
value of the current in the circuit is K2
(a) 10 mA (b) 100 mA
(c) 200 mA (d) 20 mA
108. An alternating voltage E (in volts) = 200 2 sin 100 t is 15V K1
connected to one micro farad capacitor through an a.c. (a) 6.7 mA (b) 0.67 mA
ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be (c) 100 mA (d) 67 mA
(a) 100 mA (b) 20 mA 116. In the circuit shown here, the point ‘C’ is kept connected to
(c) 40 mA (d) 80 mA
point ‘A’ till the current flowing through the circuit becomes
109. An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz frequency is applied
across a capacitor of capacitance 2 µF. The impedence of constant. Afterward, suddenly, point ‘C’ is disconnected
the circuit is from point ‘A’ and connected to point ‘B’ at time t = 0. Ratio
of the voltage across resistance and the inductor at t = L/R
1000
(a) (b) will be equal to
5000
A C R
5000
(c) 500 (d)
110. In an experiment, 200 V A.C. is applied at the ends of an L
LCR circuit. The circuit consists of an inductive reactance
(XL ) = 50 , capacitive reactance (XC ) = 50 and ohmic B
resistance (R) = 10 . The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
111. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are e
(a) (b) 1
all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, 1 e
the phase difference between the voltage the current in the
circuit is /3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the 1 e
(c) –1 (d)
phase difference is again /3. The power factor of the circuit e
is 117. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/ 2 source. Consider two situations:
(a) When capacitor is air filled.
(c) 1 (d) 3/2 (b) When capacitor is mica filled.
112. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the Current through resistor is i and voltage across capacitor is
components, L, C and R is 50V. The voltage across the LC V then :
combination will be (a) Va > Vb (b) ia > ib
(a) 100 V (b) 50 2 V (c) Va = Vb (d) Va < Vb
(c) 50 V (d) 0 V 118. A resistance 'R' draws power 'P' when connected to an AC
113. If resistance of 100 , and inductance of 0.5 henry and source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the
capacitance of 10 × 106 farad are connected in series through resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes
50 Hz A.C. supply, then impedance is 'Z', the power drawn will be
(a) 1.8765 (b) 18.76 R
R
(c) 187.6 (d) 101.3 (a) P (b) P
Z Z
114. In an LCR series resonant circuit, the capacitance is changed
from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the 2
inductance should be changed from L to R
(c) P (d) P
L Z
(a) 2 L (b)
2 119. In series L-C-R circuit, the voltages across R, L and C are
L VR, VL and VC respectively. Then the voltage of applied a.c.
(c) 4 L (d) source must be
4
115. An inductor (L = 0.03 H) and a resistor (R = 0.15 k ) are (a) VR VL VC
connected in series to a battery of 15V EMF in a circuit
shown below. The key K1 has been kept closed for a long (b) [( VR ) 2 ( VL VC ) 2 ]
time. Then at t = 0, K1 is opened and key K2 is closed
simultaneously. (c) VR VC VL
At t = l ms, the current in the circuit will be : e5 150 (d) [(VR VL ) 2 (VC ) 2 ]1 / 2
120. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 1 3
volts and R = 1 k with C = 2 F. The resonant frequency (a) (b)
4 4
is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is
1 1
(c) (d)
(a) 2.5 × 10–2 V (b) 40 V 2 8
(c) 250 V (d) 4 × 10–3 V 128. In a series LCR circuit R = 200 and the voltage and the
121. In series combination of R, L and C with an A.C. source at frequency of the main supply is 220V and 50 Hz respectively.
resonance, if R = 20 ohm, then impedence Z of the On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current
combination is lags behind the voltage by 30°. On taking out the inductor
(a) 20 ohm (b) zero from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30°. The
(c) 10 ohm (d) 400 ohm power dissipated in the LCR circuit is
(a) 305 W (b) 210 W
122. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a resistance of
(c) Zero W (d) 242 W
50 , an inductor of 10 mH and a variable capacitor. A 129. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in inductance is
1 MHz radio wave produces a potential difference of I = 5 sin (100 t – /2) amperes and the potential difference is
0.1 mV. The values of the capacitor to produce resonance is V = 200 sin (100 t) volts. The power consumption is equal to
(Take 2 = 10) (a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt
(a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF (c) 20 watt (d) Zero
(c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF 130. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by
123. Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is f0. Now V = 100 sin (100 t) volts
the capacitance is made 4 times, then the new resonance I = 100 sin (100 t + /3) mA
frequency will become the power dissipated in the circuit is
(a) f0/4 (b) 2f0 (a) 104 watt (b) 10 watt
(c) f0 (d) f0/2. (c) 2.5 watt (d) 5.0 watt
124. In a RLC circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2 C. For 131. An alternating voltage V = V0 sin t is applied across a
the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the circuit. As a result, a current I = I0 sin ( t – /2) flows in it.
inductance should be changed from L to The power consumed per cycle is
(a) 4 L (b) 2 L (a) zero (b) 0.5 V0I0
(c) L/2 (d) L/4 (c) 0.707 V0I0 (d) 1.414 V0I0
125. Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is f0. Now 132. Two coils A and B are connected in series across a 240 V, 50
the capacitance is made 4 times, then the new resonance Hz supply. The resistance of A is 5 and the inductance of
frequency will become B is 0.02 H. The power consumed is 3 kW and the power
(a) f0/4 (b) 2f0 factor is 0.75. The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 0.144 (b) 1.44
(c) f0 (d) f0/2.
(c) 14.4 (d) 144
126. In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E0 sin t.
133. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge Q0 is
æ ö
The resulting current in the circuit is I = I0 sin çç t - ÷÷÷ .
connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The time
çè 2ø at which the energy is stored equally between the electric
and the magnetic field is
The power consumption in the circuit is given by
E 0 I0 (a) LC (b) 2 LC
(a) P 2E0 I0 (b) P= 4
2
(c) LC (d) LC
E 0 I0 134. A charged 30 F capacitor is connected to a 27 mH
(c) P = zero (d) P=
2 inductor. The angular frequency of free oscillations of the
127. The instantaneous values of alternating current and circuit is
voltages in a circuit are given as (a) 1.1 × 103 rad s–1 (b) 2.1 × 103 rad s–1
(c) 3.1 × 103 rad s–1 (d) 4.1 × 103 rad s–1
1 135. The primary winding of transformers has 500 turns whereas
i sin(100 t ) A
2 its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to
1 an A.C. supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an
e sin(100 t / 3) Volt output of
2
(a) 2V, 5Hz (b) 200 V, 500 Hz
The average power in Watt consumed in the circuit is (c) 2V, 50 Hz (d) 200 V, 50Hz
EBD_7208
136. A step up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies 141. A step down transformer reduces 220 V to 110 V. The primary
a current of 2 ampere. The ratio of primary and secondary draws 5 ampere of current and secondary supplies 9 ampere.
winding is 1:25 . The current in primary is The efficiency of transformer is
(a) 25 A (b) 50 A (a) 20% (b) 44%
(c) 15 A (d) 12.5 A (c) 90% (d) 100%
137. A 220 volts input is supplied to a transformer. The output 142. A transformer is used to light a 140 W, 24 V bulb from a
circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the 240 V a.c. mains. The current in the main cable is 0.7 A. The
efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by efficiency of the transformer is
the primary windings of the transformer is (a) 63.8 % (b) 83.3 %
(a) 3.6 ampere (b) 2.8 ampere (c) 16.7 % (d) 36.2 %
(c) 2.5 ampere (d) 5.0 ampere 143. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It works at 4 kW
138. In a transformers, number of turns in primary coil are 140 and 100 V. If secondary voltage is 240 V, the current in
and that in secondary coil are 280. If current in primary coil primary coil is
is 4A, then that in secondary coil is (a) 0.4 A (b) 4 A
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (c) 10 A (d) 40 A
(c) 6 A (d) 10 A 144. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while the
139. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 turns and its secondary has 2000 turns. If the power output from the
secondary winding has 200 turns. The primary is connected secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW, what is the primary voltage?
to an A.C. supply of 120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 (a) 200 V (b) 300 V
A. The voltage and the current in the secondary are (c) 400 V (d) 500 V
(a) 240 V, 5 A (b) 240 V, 10 A 145. A transformer connected to 220 V mains is used to light a
(c) 60 V, 20 A (d) 120 V, 20 A lamp of rating 100 W and 110 V. If the primary current is
140. A step down transformer is connected to 2400 volts line 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is (approximately)
and 80 amperes of current is found to flow in output load. (a) 60% (b) 35%
The ratio of the turns in primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. (c) 50% (d) 90%
If transformer efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing 146. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200V
in the primary coil will be and 3kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil
(a) 1600 amp (b) 20 amp is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current
(c) 4 amp (d) 1.5 amp in the primary coil respectively are :
(a) 300 V, 15A (b) 450 V, 15A
(c) 450V, 13.5A (d) 600V, 15A
25. (b) In a capacitive ac circuits, the voltage lags behind

the current in phase by radian.
1. (a)
1
2. (b) In India the frequency of A.C. current is 50 Hz. 26. (c) The reactance of capacitor X = where is
C
3. (b)
4. (d) The electric mains supply in our homes and offices frequency and C is the capacitance of capacitor.
is a voltage that varies like a sine function with time. 27. (d) When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to a
Such a voltage is called alternating voltage and the capacitor C, the charge on the plates is in phase
current driven by it in a circuit is called the with the applied voltage.
alternating current. As the circuit is pure capacitive so, the current
5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) developed leads the applied voltage by a phase
9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) angle of 90° Hence, power delivered to the capacitor
per cycle is
13. (b) We know that r ms 0 / 2 and m 2 0/ P = Vrms Irms cos 90° = 0.
28. (b)
m 2 2 29. (a) The reactance of inductor, XL = L
rms 1
The reactance of capacitor, X C
14. (c) When resistance is connected to A.C source, then C
current & voltage are in same phase. where = 2 n & n is the frequency of A.C source.
15. (c)
16. (b) XL L XL 30. (d) Z
17. (d) In case of pure inductance cos = 0, so no power
dissipates.
Zmin = R
1
18. (d) P Vr.m.s. r.m.s. cos E 0 0 cos / 2 0
2
o
19. (b) In an inductor voltage leads the current by or
2
31. (b) In series RLC circuit,
current lags the voltage by .
2
20. (a) Voltage, V = VR2 (VL VC )2
And, at resonance, VL = VC
Potential drop across capacitor or inductor
21. (d) Q Hence, V = VR
Potential drop across R.
32. (a)
L
R 33. (d) VL
VR
VC – VL
1 I
22. (a) XC(reactance of capacitor) for D.C.,
I
C E
E(applied
= 0 XC = voltage)
23. (a) Capacitive reactance in an A.C circuit is
1 VC VL (if V > V )
XC ohm , where C is the capacitance of tan C L
C VR
capacitor & = 2 n (n is the frequency of A.C source).
VL VC
1 1 (if VL> VC)
24. (b) XC XC for given C. R
C where is angle between current & applied voltage.
EBD_7208
for preferring use of AC voltage over DC voltage is
R 12 4
34. (b) Power factor cos 0.8 that Ac voltage can be easily and efficiently
Z 15 5
converted from one voltage to the other by means
35. (d) At resonance wL= 1/wC
of transformers.
and i = E/R , So power dissipated in circuit is P = i 2R.
66. (d) Option (d) is false because the reason why the voltage
36. (b) At resonance frequency, the inductive and capacitive
1
reactance are equal. leads the current is because L and if the
C
i.e. XL = XC
voltage lags, the inductive reactance is greater than
Impedance, Z = R2 (X L X C )2 the capacitive reactance.
67. (d)
= R 2
0 2 =R 68. (d) If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the
37. (a) maximum current less, the circuit is close to resonance
38. (c) When this happens the amplitude of the current for larger range of frequencies and the tuning of
with the frequency of the signal of the particular the circuit will not be good. So, less sharp the
radio station in the circuit is maximum. resonance, less is the selectivity of the circuit or
vice-versa. If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or
R
39. (b) cos , where Z is the impedance & L is large, the circuit is more selective.
Z
Z R 2 (XL XC )2 , if there is only resistance
69. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
then Z = R cos = 1
VR 40
40. (b) If R = 0 cos = 0 = 90º so P =0, in this case 70. (a) A-1 : irms 10 A; i0 2 irms 2 2 A
R 4
power loss is zero & current flowing in the circuit is
called wattless current. B-2; Vrms iZ 10 5 50V ; V0 2 Vrms 50 2 V
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c)
45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) C-1 :
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (b) D-4 : Now V 2 VR2 (VL VC ) 2
52. (d) P = V I cos So, power dissipation depends upon V
and I. or 502 402 (40 – VC ) 2
IP
53. (b) The value of r.m.s current is I rms VC 10V ,
2
VC 10
1 2 and X C 1
so power dissipated is P I 2rms R IPR i 10
2
54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 71. (b)
58. (a) : Iron loss is the energy loss in the form of heat due
to the formation of eddy currents in the iron core of
the transformer.
59. (c) A transformer does not change the frequency of ac. (T / 2)V0 2 0 V0
72. (b) Vrms = = .
60. (b) T 2
61. (d) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce
eddy current. 73. (c) In the pure resistive circuit current and voltage both
62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) are in phase. Hence graph (c) is correct.
74. (b) Inductive reactance,
XL = L = 2 L
65. (d) Most of the electrical devices we use require AC
XL
voltage. This is mainly because most of the electrical
Hence, inductive reactance increases linearly with
energy sold by power companies is transmitted and
distributed as alternating current. The main reason frequency.
86. (b)
1 1
75. (c) Capacitive reactance, XC = 1
C 2 C 87. (a) As X C , so for = 0, X C .
C
1 88. (a) In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, power factor,
XL
cos = 0 and no power is dissipated even though a
With increases in frequency, XC decreases. current is flowing in the circuit. In such cases, current
Hence, option (c) represents the corrent graph. is referred to as wattless current.
76. (c) The current drawn by inductor and capacitor will be in 89. (d) Power in a series ac circuit consisting of L, C and R is
opposite phase. Hence net current drawn from given by
generator
= IL – IC = 0.9 – 0.4 = 0.5 amp. X L – XC
P = IrmsVrms cos where tan –1
77. (b) As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take place R
VR = 220 V
For a purely resistive circuit XL = 0 and XC = 0
220 Therefore, tan = 0 or = 0 and thereby cos = 1 and
Current, I = 2.2 A
100 P = IV.
reading of V3 = 220 V The power is maximum as cos is maximum. Power
and reading of A = 2.2 A depends on the phase angle through the power factor
78. (d) cos .
79. (c) Impedance at resonant frequency is minimum in series 90. (c)
LCR circuit. 91. (d) The currents in capacitor and in inductor are opposite
2
and so net current is zero.
1 92. (c) In series resonance circuit,
So, Z R2 2 fL
2 fC inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance.
1
When frequency is increased or decreased, Z increases. i.e. L
80. (c) C
81. (c) At resonance X L XC Z R & current is 1

2
Z R2 L R
E C
maximum but finite, which is I max , where E is
R 93. (a)
applied voltage. 94. (a) Transformer cannot produce power, but it transfer from
primary to secondary.
95. (d) Large eddy currents are produced in non-laminated
82. (b) The means or average value of alternating current or iron core of the transformer by the induced emf, as the
e.m.f during a half cycle is given by resistance of bulk iron core is very small. By using
Im = 0.636I0 or Em = 0.636E0 thin iron sheets as core the resistance is increased.
During the next half cycle, the mean value of ac will be Laminating the core substantially reduces the eddy
equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. For this currents. Eddy current heats up the core of the
reason the average value of ac over a complete cycle transformer. More the eddy currents greater is the loss
is always zero. So the average value is always defined
of energy and the efficiency goes down.
over a half cycle of ac.
83. (a) V = V0 sin t i = i0 cos t = i0 sin( t / 2) CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
, and cos 0. 96. (a) E 8 sin t 6 sin 2 t

2
84. (b) In case of inductive circuit emf leads current by /2 E peak 82 6 2 10 V
rad
85. (c) The inductive reactance limits the amplitude of current
in a purely inductive circuit in the same way as the 10
E rms 5 2V
resistance limits the current in a purely resistive circuit. 2
0
i.e. I 0 97. (d)
XL
EBD_7208
98. (b) Given equation, e = 80 sin 100 t …(i) 106. (d) L 2H , E 5 volts, R 1
Standard equation of instantaneous voltage is given
by e = em sin t …(ii) Z
Compare (i) and (ii), we get em = 80 V
where em is the voltage amplitude. R L
em E
Current amplitude Im where Z = impendence
Z
1 2 E
= 80/20 = 4 A. Energy in inductor LI I
2 Z
4 4 2 5 5
I r.m.s 2 2 2.828 A. I
2 2 2
R2 L
2
1 4 50 2 4
99. (b)
100. (b) The phase difference is given by 5 5
1 200
2 200
XL 3
tan = = 1
R 3 1 5 5
Energy 2 2
= 6.33 × 10–5 joules
2 200 200
.
4 200 2
107. (d) Vrms = 200V
101. (a) If = 50 × 2 then L = 20 2
If = 100 × 2 then L = 40 200
Current flowing in the coil is V 1
Irms = rms
200 200 200
XC 100 10 6
I
Z R ( L) 2
(30)2 (40) 2
= 2 × 10–2 = 20mA
I = 4A. E E0
108. (b) E C C
102. (a) The charging of inductance given by, XC 2
Rt 200 3
I 120 240V 20 10 amp.
i i0 1 e L 100
109. (d) Impedence of a capacitor is XC = 1/ C
Rt Rt 1 1 5000
i0 1 XC 6
.
i 0 (1 e L ) e L 2 fC 2 50 2 10
2 2
110. (a) Given : Supply voltage (Vac) = 200 V
Taking log on both the sides, Inductive reactance (XL) = 50 W
Capacitive reactance (XC) = 50 W
Rt
log 1 log 2 Ohmic resistance (R) = 10 W.
L
We know that impedance of the LCR circuit
( Z )
3
L 300 10
t = log 2 0.69 t = 0.1 sec.
R 2 = {(X L X C ) 2 R 2 } {(50 50) 2 (10) 2 } 10
103. (a) XL L 2 nL 111. (c)

when L is removed from the circuit
XL 22 7 R
L H 0.0175H XC
2 n 2 22 200 tan /3
R 3
104. (b) 105. (c) Z1
XC
117. (a) For series R – C circuit, capacitive reactance,
XC R tan ....(1)
3 2
1
when C is remove from the circuit Zc = R2
C
XL Z2
tan
R 3 XL Xc = 1/c
/3
XC R tan ...(2) R
3 R
C
net impedence Z = R 2 (X L X C )2 R
~
R AC Source
power factor cos = 1
Z
112. (d) Since the phase difference between L & C is V V
net voltage difference across LC 50 50 Current i = =
0 Zc 2
1
R2
2 C
2 1
113. (c) Z R L
C
V 1
Vc = iXc =
Here R = 100 W, L = 0.5 henry, C = 10 × 106 farad 1
2 C
= 2 p = 100 . R2
C
114. (d) For resonant frequency to remain same
LC constant V
Vc =
LC = constant (RC )2 1
As, C 4C
If we fill a di-electric material like mica instead of air
L then capacitance C Vc
L
4 So, Va > Vb
118. (d)
15 100
115. (b) I(0) 0.1A
0.15 103 Pure resistor L-R series circuit
I( )=0 R R L
–t
I (t) = [I (0) – I ( )] e L / R i( ) V V
Vs V
–t R
I(t) = 0.1 e L / R Phasor diagram
0.1 e L
R
0.15 1000
I(t) = 0.1 e 0.03 0.67mA
R
116. (c) Applying Kirchhoff's law of voltage in closed loop XL cos
Z Z
VR
–VR –VC = 0 1
VC
Z = impedance
VR
For pure resistor circuit, power
A C R
V2
P V 2 PR
R
L VL
For L-R series circuit, power
B 2
V2 V2 R PR R
P1 cos . .R P
Z Z Z Z2 Z
EBD_7208
119. (b)
1 1
f0 or f0
V 100 2 LC C
120. (c) Across resistor, I = 0.1 A
R 1000
When the capacitance of the circuit is made 4 times,
At resonance,
its resonant frequency become f 0'
1 1
XL XC 2500
C 200 2 10 6
f0' C f0
Voltage across L is or f 0'
f0 4C 2
I XL 0.1 2500 250 V
126. (c) We know that power consumed in a.c. circuit is given
121. (a) by, P= Erms . Irms cos
122. (a) L = 10 mHz = 10–2 Hz Here, E = E0 sin t
f = 1MHz = 106 Hz
1
f I = I0 sin t
2 LC 2
1
f2 2
which implies that the phase difference,
4 LC
2
12
1 1 10
C 2.5 pF
2 2 2 12 4
4 f L 4 10 10 10 P E rms .Irms .cos =0 cos 0
2 2
123. (d) In LCR series circuit, resonance frequency f0 is given
by 127. (d) The average power in the circuit where cos = power
factory
1 2 1 1 = Vrms × Irms cos
L 2 f0
C LC LC
180
= /3 = phase difference = 60
1 1 3
f0 or f0
2 LC C
1
When the capacitance of the circuit is made 4 times,
2 1
Vrms = volt
its resonant frequency become f 0' 2 2
f0' C f0 1
or f 0'
f0 4C 2 2 1
Irms = A
2 2
1
124. (c) We know that f ,
2 (LC) 1
cos = cos
3 2
when C is doubled, L should be halved so that resonant
frequency remains unchanged. 1 1 1 1
125. (d) In LCR series circuit, resonance frequency f0 is given = W
2 2 2 8
by
128. (d) When capacitance is taken out, the circuit is LR.
1 2 1 1
L 2 f0 L
C LC LC tan
R
1 200 Q02 Q0
L = R tan 200
3 3 or Q2 = or Q =
2 2
Again , when inductor is taken out, the circuit is CR.
Q0
1
Q0 cos t =
tan 2
CR
or t= or t= =
1 1 200 4 4 4 (1/ LC )
R tan 200
c 3 3
LC
=
2 4
1
Now, Z R2 L
C 134. (a) : Here, C 30 F = 30 × 10–6 F,
L = 27 mH = 27 × 10–3 H
129. (d) Power, P r.m.s Vr.m.s cos
1 1 1
In the given problem, the phase difference between = =
LC 3 6 8
27 10 30 10 81 10
voltage and current is p/2. Hence
P r.m.s Vr.m.s cos( / 2) 0. 104
= = 1.1 × 103 rad s–1
9
1
130. (c) P Vr.m.s r.m.s cos V0 0 cos 135. (d)
2
np Ep 1
1 3 136. (b)
100 (100 10 ) cos /3 2.5 W ns Es 25
2
131. (a) The phase angle between voltage V and current I is Es 25E p
/2. Therefore, power factor cos = cos ( /2) = 0. Hence
E S IS
the power consumed is zero. But Es Is E p Ip Ip Ip 50A
Ep
E 2v cos
132. (c) P
Z V2 I1 V2 I 2
137. (d) 0.8 0.8
V1 I2 V1 I1
(240) 2 (0.75) V1 = 220 V, I2 = 2.0 A, V2 = 440 V
P 3000 d Z 14.4
Z
V2 I 2 10 440 2 10
I1 = =5A
1 1 V1 8 220 8
133. (a) As = = or
LC LC 138. (b)
1 Q02 Es ns ns
Maximum energy stored in capacitor = 139. (a) or E s Ep
2 C Ep np np
Let at any instant t, the energy be stored equally

200
between electric and magnetic field. Then energy Es 120 240 V
100
stored in electric field at instant t is
2 ns np 100
1 Q2 1 1 Q0 p
or Is = 10 = 5 amp
s p
2 C 2 2 C s np ns 200
EBD_7208
145. (d) Power in primary of transformer is

s
np 80 20
140. (c) ; or p 4 amp. PP = Vp.IP = 220 × 0.5
p ns p 1
= 110 W
But power in secondary of transformer is
Es s 110 9 Ps = 100 W
141. (c) 0.9 100% 90%
Ep p 220 5
100
= 0.9 = 90%
142. (b) Power of source = EI = 240 × 0.7 = 166 110
140 Vs Is Vs (6)
Efficiency 83.3% 0.9
166 146. (b) Efficiency =
Vp Ip 3 103
Pi 4000 Vs = 450 V
143. (d) As E p p Pi p 40 A.
Ep 100 As VpIp = 3000 so
144. (a) NP = 400, NS = 2000 and VS = 1000 V. 3000 3000

Ip = A 15A
Vp 200
VP NP VS N P 1000 400
of, VP 200V.
VS NS NS 2000
23
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. The displacement current is

o
1. The current in the electric circuit which arises due to flow (a) od E / dt (b) d E / dt
R
of electrons in the connecting wires of the circuit in a
(c) o E/R (d) o q C / R
defined closed path is called
(a) alternating current 10. Maxwell’s equation describe the fundamental law of
(b) direct current (a) electricity (b) magnetism
(c) conduction current (c) mechanics (d) both (a) and (b)
(d) displacement current
2. The conduction current is same as displacement current 11. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic field vectors
when source is of an electromagnetic wave, then the direction of
(a) ac only (b) dc only propagation of the electromagnetic wave, is along
(c) either ac or dc (d) neither dc nor ac
(a) E (b) B
3. If a variable frequency ac source connected to a capacitor
then with decrease in frequency, the displacement current (c) B E (d) E B
will 12. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric
(a) increase field gives rise to
(b) decrease (a) an e.m.f
(c) remain constant (b) electric displacement current
(d) first decrease then increase (c) magnetic field
4. Displacement current goes through the gap between the (d) pressure gradient
plates of a capacitor when the charge on the capacitor 13. Electromagnetic wave consists of periodically oscillating
(a) is changing with time (b) decreases electric and magnetic vectors
(c) does not change (d) decreases to zero (a) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a
5 The displacement current was first postulated by phase difference of
(a) Maxwell (b) Marconi (b) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a
(c) Ampere (d) Hertz
6. Ampere’s circuital law holds good for
phase difference of
(a) conduction current (b) displacement current 2
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) in randomly oriented planes but vibrating in phase
7. When radio waves passes through ionosphere, phase (d) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating in
difference between space current and capacitive phase
displacement current is 14. An electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its
(a) 0 rad (b) (3 /2) rad electric field vector upwards. Its magnetic field vector
(c) ( / 2) rad (d) rad point towards
8. Displacement current is (a) north (b) east
(a) continuous when electric field is changing in the (c) west (d) downwards
circuit 15. The electromagnetic waves
(b) continuous when magnetic field is changing in the (a) travel with the speed of sound
circuit (b) travel with the same speed in all media
(c) continuous in both types of fields (c) travel in free space with the speed of light
(d) continuous through wires and resistance only (d) do not travel through a medium
EBD_7208
370 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
16. Which of the following type of radiations are radiated by 26. X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travelling in vaccum
an oscillating electric charge? have
(a) Electric (b) Magnetic (a) same wavelength but different velocities
(c) Thermoelectric (d) Electromagnetic (b) same frequency but different velocities
17. If E and B are the electirc and magnetic field vectors of (c) same velocity but different wavelength
e.m. waves then the direction of propagation of e.m. wave (d) same velocity and same frequency
is along the direction of 27. Radio waves diffract around building, although light
waves do not. The reason is that radio waves
(a) E (b) B (a) travel with speed larger than c
(c) E B (d) None of these (b) have much larger wavelength than light
18. According to Maxwell’s equation the velocity of light in (c) are not electromagnetic waves
any medium is expressed as (d) None of these
28. Microwaves are detected by
1 1 0 (a) bolometer (b) point contact diodes
(a) (b) (c) / (d)
0 o (c) thermopiles (d) the eye
19. The electromagnetic waves do not transport 29. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the
(a) energy (b) charge longest wavelength?
(c) momentum (d) information (a) uv-rays
20. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields related to (b) Visible light
each other are (b) Radio waves
(d) Microwaves
(a) E0 B0 (b) E 0 c B0 30. Which of the following is of shortest wavelength?
c
(a) X-rays (b) -rays
B0
(c) E0 (d) E 0 (c) Microwaves (d) Radio waves
c B0
31. The range of wavelength of visible light is
21. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the magnetic (a) 10 Å to 100 Å (b) 4000 Å to 8000 Å
induction B is (c) 8000 Å to 10,000 Å (d) 10,000 Å to 15,000 Å
32. Which of the following is not electromagnetic waves?
(a) parallel to the electric field E (a) Cosmic rays (b) Gamma rays
(b) perpendicular to the electric field E (c) -rays (d) X-rays
33. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have
(c) antiparallel to the Poynting vector S the smallest wavelength?
(d) random (a) Ultraviolet waves (b) X-rays
22. The speed of electromagnetic wave is same for (c) -rays (d) Microwaves
(a) odd frequencies (b) even frequencies 34. Which of the following rays has minimum frequency?
(c) all frequencies (d) all intensities (a) U.V. ways (b) X-rays
23. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material (c) -rays (d) Infra-red rays
surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and energy E, 35. An accelerated electron would produce
then (a) -rays (b) -rays
(a) p = 0, E = 0 (b) p 0, E 0 (c) -rays (d) e.m. waves
(c) p 0, E = 0 (d) p = 0, E 0 36. Which of the following is the infrared wavelength?
24. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. (a) 10–4 cm (b) 10–5 cm
Which one of the following statements is true? –6
(c) 10 cm (d) 10–7 cm
(a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region. 37. The wavelength of X-ray is of the order of
(b) The radiation is emitted only during the day. (a) 1 metre (b) 1 cm
(c) The radiation is emitted during the summers and (c) 1 micron (d) 1 angstrom
absorbed during winters. 38. Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with
(d) The radiation is emitted lies in the ultraviolet region (a) rectifier (b) filter
and hence is not visible. (c) F.E.T. (d) oscillator
25. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, 39. Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of
microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is (a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere
(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays (c) troposphere (d) stratosphere
(b) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
40. What is the cause of “Green house effect”?
(c) gama rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays
(d) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(c) X-rays (d) Radio waves
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 371
41. If vs, vx and vm are the speed of soft gamma rays, X-rays 53. The polarisation of electromagnetic wave is in
and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then (a) the directions of electric and magnetic field
(a) vs > vx > vm (b) vs < vx < vm (b) the directions of electric field
(c) vs > vx < vm (d) vs = vx = vm (c) the direction of magnetic field
42. The waves which are electromagnetic in nature are (d) can not be polarized
(a) sound waves and light waves 54. If the frequency of EM radiations is halved then the energy
(b) water waves and radio waves of EM radiation will become
(c) light waves and X-rays (a) double (b) remains unchanged
(c) becomes half (d) becomes one fourth
(d) sound waves and water waves
55. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequency in
43. In electromagnetic spectrum, the frequencies -rays, X-rays
the range of
and ultraviolet rays are denoted by n 1, n2 and n3 respectively
(a) Micro hertz (b) Giga hertz
then
(c) Mega hertz (d) Hertz
(a) n1 > n2 > n3 (b) n1 < n2 < n3
56. For television broadcasting the frequency employed is
(c) n1 > n2 < n3 (d) n1 < n2 > n3
normally
44. Ultraviolet spectrum can be studied by using a
(a) 30-300 MHz (b) 30-300 GHz
(a) flint glass prism (b) direct vision prism
(c) nicol prism (d) quartz prism (c) 30-300 kHz (d) 30-300 Hz
45. The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs 57. Electromagnetic waves of frequency .... are reflected from
(a) only the radiowaves ionosphere.
(b) only the visible light (a) 100 MHz (b) 2 MHz to 80 MHz
(c) only the -rays (c) upto 1.5 MHz (d) less than 1.5 MHz
(d) X-rays and ultraviolet rays 58. When an electromagnetic wave enters an ionised layer of
46. Which one of the following has the maximum energy? earth’s atmosphere present in ionosphere
(a) Radio waves (b) Infrared rays (a) the electron cloud will not oscillate in the electric field
(c) Ultraviolet rays (d) Micro waves of the wave
47. Which one of the following has the shortest wavelength? (b) the electron cloud will oscillate in the electric field of
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays wave in the phase of sinusoidal electromagnetic wave
(c) Microwaves (d) Gamma rays (c) the electron cloud will oscillate in the electric field of
48. When electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of wave in the opposite phase of sinusoidal
ionosphere, then the relative permittivity i.e. dielectric electromagnetic wave
constant of the ionised layer (d) the electron cloud will oscillate in the electric field of
(a) does not change wave with a phase retardation of 90° for a sinusoidal
(b) appears to increase electromagnetic wave.
(c) appears to decrease 59. An electron oscillating with a frequency of 3 × 106 Hz, would
(d) sometimes appears to increase and sometimes to generate
decrease (a) X-rays (b) ultraviolet rays
49. Ultraviolet rays coming from sun are absorbed by (c) radio waves (d) microwaves
(a) troposphere (b) ionosphere 60. The cellular mobile radio frequency band is
(c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere (a) 88 – 108 MHz (b) 54 – 72 MHz
50. The EM waves when travel into different media gets (c) 540 – 1600 KHz (d) 840 – 935 MHz
(a) refracted (b) transmitted 61. Select the wrong statement. EM waves
(c) reflected (d) emitted (a) are transverse in nature.
51. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends (b) travel in free space at a speed of light.
upon (c) are produced by accelerating charges.
(a) their velocities (d) travel in all media with same speed.
(b) their frequencies 62. Ozone layer above earth’s atmosphere will not
(c) their distance from the transmitter (a) prevent infrared radiations from sun reaching earth.
(d) None of these (b) prevent infra red radiations originated from earth from
52. The velocity of all radio waves in free space is 3 × 10 8 m/s. escaping earth’s atmosphere.
The frequency of a radio wave of wavelength 150m is (c) prevent ultraviolet rays from sun.
(a) 20 kHz (b) 2 kHz (c) 2 MHz (d) 1 MHz (d) reflect back radio waves.
EBD_7208
63. Intensity of electromagnetic wave will be 73. The ozone layer absorbs radiation of wavelengths
2 (a) less than 3 × 10–7 m (b) more than 3 × 10–7 m
(a) I c 0 B0 /2 (b) I c 0 B20 / 2
(c) less than 3 × 10–5 m (d) more than 3 × 10–5 m
(c) I B02 / c 0 (d) I E 02 / 2c 0 74. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends
64. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited upon the source of radiation. It
to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of (a) increases as we move from -rays to radio waves
(a) 1015 (b) 1014 (b) decreases as we move from -rays to radio waves
(c) 10 13 (d) 1012
(c) is same for all of them
65. If 10 Å then it corresponds to (d) None of these
(a) infrared (b) microwaves 75. In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic
(c) ultraviolet (d) X-rays spectrum will the vibrational motion of molecules give rise
66. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the spectrum of to absorption ?
(a) infrared rays (b) ultra-violet rays (a) Ultraviolet (b) Microwaves
(c) microwaves (d) -rays (c) Infrared (d) Radio waves
67. In an electromagnetic wave 76. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field electromagnetic wave are oriented along
(b) power is transmitted along the electric field
(a) the same direction but differ in phase by 90°
(c) power is equally transferred along the electric and
(b) the same direction and are in phase
magnetic fields
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to (c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
both the fields (d) mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase
68. The electric and the magnetic field associated with an E.M. by 90°
wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by 77. Biological importance of ozone layer is
(a) E ˆB
E 0 i, B0 ˆj (b) E E 0 k, B B0î (a) it stops ultraviolet rays
(b) ozone layer reduce green house effect
(c) E E 0 ˆj, B B0 iˆ (d) E E 0 ˆj,B B0 kˆ (c) ozone layer reflects radio waves
69. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a (d) ozone layer controls O2 / H2 radio in atmosphere
food item containing water molecules most efficiently is 78. It is possible to take pictures of those objects which are not
(a) the frequency of the microwaves has no relation with fully visible to the eye using camera films sensitive to
natural frequency of water molecules. (a) ultraviolet rays (b) infrared rays
(b) microwaves are heat waves, so always produce
(c) microwaves (d) radiowaves
heating.
79. The waves used in telecommunication are
(c) infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven.
(d) the frequency of the microwaves must match the (a) IR (b) UV
resonant frequency of the water molecules. (c) Microwave (d) Cosmic rays
70. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength ? 80. The electromagnetic radiation used in food processing
(a) -rays (b) -rays sterilizing agent is
(c) -rays (d) X -rays (a) microwaves (b) UV rays
71. Which of the following has/have zero average value in a (c) gamma rays (d) radio waves
plane electromagnetic wave ?
(a) Both magnetic and electric field STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(b) Electric field only
(c) Magnetic energy 81. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
(d) Electric energy I. Displacement current comes into play in a region
72. The ratio of electric field vector E and magnetic field vector where electric field is changing with time.
E E
H i.e., H
has the dimensions of II. Displacement current ID = 0 t
(a) resistance III. In case of a steady electric flux linked with a region
(b) inductance the displacement current is minimum.
(c) capacitance (a) I only (b) II only
(d) product of inductance and capacitance (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III
82. An electromagnetic wave of intensity I falls on a surface (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
kept in vacuum and exerts radiation pressure P on it. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
Which of the following statements are true? (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
I. Radiation pressure is I/c if the wave is totally (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
absorbed. 87. Various electromagnetic waves are given in column I and
II. Radiation pressure is I/c if the wave is totally various frequency ranges in column II. Match the two
reflected. columns.
III. Radiation pressure is 2 I/c if the wave is totally Column I Column II
reflected. (A) Radio waves (1) 1 × 1016 to 3 × 1021 Hz
(a) I and II (b) I and III (B) rays (2) 1 × 109 to 3 × 1011 HZ
(c) III only (d) I, II and III (C) Microwaves (3) 3 × 1018 to 5 × 1022 Hz
83. Which of the following is/are true for electromagnetic (D) X-rays (4) 5 × 105 to 109 Hz.
waves? (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
I. They transport energy. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
II. They have momentum. (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
III. They travel at different speeds in air depending on (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
their frequency. 88. Match the Column I and Column II.
(a) I and III (b) II only Column I Column II
(c) I, II and III (d) I and II Electromagnetic wave Use
84. The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is (A) ultraviolet rays (1) In satellite for army
doubled with no other changes made to the wave. As a purpose
result of this doubling of the amplitude, which of the (B) Infrared rays (2) Aircraft navigation in’
following statements are incorrect? RADAR
I. The speed of wave propagation chages only (C) Microwave (3) Television and cellular
II. The frequency of the wave changes only phones
III. The wavelength of the wave changes only (D) Radio wave (4) Checking mineral
(a) I and II (b) II and III sample
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (a) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
85. Select the correct statement(s) from the following. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
I. Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that of (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
ultraviolet rays. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
II. The wavelength of infrared rays is lesser than that
of ultraviolet rays. DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
III. The wavelength of microwaves is lesser than that of
infrared rays 89. Light wave is travelling along y-direction. If the
IV. Gamma ray has shortest wavelength in the corresponding E vector at any time is along the x-axis, the
y
electromagnetic spectrum direction of B vector at that time is along :
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV (a) y-axis (b) x-axis x
(c) + z-axis (d) – z-axis
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS z
90. The figure here gives the electric field of an electromagnetic
Column I Column II wave at a certain point and a certain instant. The wave is
transporting energy in the negative z-direction. The
1
(A) Energy associated with 1. direction of the magnetic field of the wave at that point and
instant is
an electromagnetic wave
u
(B) Radiation pressure 2.
c
1 2 1 B2
(C) Speed of EM wave in 3. 0E
2 2 0
a medium
d E (a) + ve x-direction (b) –ve x-direction
(D) Displacement current 4. ID = 0 (c) +ve z-direction (d) –ve y-direction
dt
EBD_7208
91. The figure shows graphs of the electric field magnitude E 96. Assertion : Electromagnetic wave are transverse in
versus time t for four uniform electric fields, all contained nature.
within identical circular regions. Which of them is according Reason : The electric and magnetic fields in
to the magnitudes of the magnetic field? electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each other
(a) A and the direction of propagation.
97. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with matter
(b) B and set up oscillations.
(c) C Reason : Interaction is independent of the wavelength
of the electromagnetic wave.
(d) D
98. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy and
92. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor and the current in momentum.
the connecting wires that is discharging the capacitor. Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.
99. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves exert radiation
pressure.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
100. Assertion : The electromagnetic wave is transverse in
nature.
Reason : Electromanetic wave propagates parallel to the
direction of electric and magnetic fields.
101. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic waves
(a) The displacement current is leftward. depends on electric and magnetic properties of the
(b) The displacement current is rightward medium.
Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free
(c) The electric field E is rightward space is constant.
(d) The magnetic field at point P is out the page. 102. Assertion : The basic difference between various types
of electromagnetic waves lies in their wavelength or
frequencies.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIO Reason : Electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum
Directions : Each of these questions contains two statements, with the same speed.
103. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of signals than
optical waves.
Reason : Microwaves move faster than optical waves.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. 104. Assertion : Infrared radiation plays an important role in
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct maintaining the average temperature of earth.
explanation for assertion. Reason : Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a as heat waves.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
105. The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as q = q0
93. Assertion : Displacement current goes through the gap
cos 2 t. The plates are very large and close together
between the plates of a capacitor when the charge of the
(area = A, separation = d). The displacement current
capacitor does not change.
through the capacitor is
Reason : The displacement current arises in the region
(a) q0 2 sin t (b) – q0 2 sin2 t
in which the electric field is constant with time.
(c) q0 2 sin t (d) q0 sin2 t
94. Assertion : When variable frequency a.c. source is
connected to a capacitor, displacement current increases 106. When an electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of
with increase in frequency. ionosphere, the motion of electron cloud produces a space
Reason : As frequency increases conduction current also current and the electric field has its own capacitative
increases. displacement current, then
95. Assertion : The displacement current in a parallel-plate (a) the space current is in phase of displacement current
dV (b) the space current lags behind the displacement current
capacitor of capacitance C can be written as id C ,
dt by a phase 180°.
where V is the potential difference between the plates. (c) the space current lags behind the displacement
Reason : The displacement current in free space is given by current by a phase 90°.
d e (d) the space current leads the displacement current by a
id 0 .
dt phase 90°.
107. In order to establish an instantaneous displacemet 113. In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has
current of 1 mA in the space between the plates of 2 F an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103 V/m, then the amplitude
parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference need to of the magnetic field is
apply is (a) 2.7 × 1012 T (b) 9.0 × 10–3 T
(a) 100 Vs–1 (b) 200 Vs–1 (c) 3.0 × 10 T –4 (d) 3.0 × 10–5 T
–1
(c) 300 Vs (d) 500 Vs–1 114. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields
108. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave travelling through are 100 V m–1 and 0.265 A m–1. The maximum energy flow is
vaccum is given by the equation E = E0 sin (kx – t). The (a) 26.5 W/m2 (b) 36.5 W/m2
quantity that is independent of wavelength is (c) 46.7 W/m 2 (d) 765 W/m2
115. The transmitting antenna of a radiostation is mounted
k
(a) k (b) vertically. At a point 10 km due north of the transmitter the
peak electric field is 10–3 Vm–1. The magnitude of the
(c) k2 (d) radiated magnetic field is .
109. An electromagnetic wave of frequency = 3 MHz passes (a) 3.33 × 10–10 T (b) 3.33 × 10–12 T
from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permittivity (c) 10 T –3 (d) 3 × 105 T
= 4. Then 116. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along
(a) wavelength and frequency both become half. x-axis. At a particular point in space, the electric field along
(b) wavelength is doubled and frequency remains y-axis is 9.3V m–1. The magnetic induction (B) along z-axis is
unchanged. (a) 3.1 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–5 T
(c) wavelength and frequncy both remain unchanged. (c) 3 × 10 T –6 (d) 9.3 × 10–6 T
(d) wavelength is halved and frequency remains 117. A new system of unit is evolved in which the values of µ0
unchanged.
and 0 are 2 and 8 respectively. Then the speed of light in
110. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is
this system will be
given by E iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 × 108t), where E, z and t are in (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave (c) 0.75 (d) 1
vector k is 118. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 the Sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1 electromagnetic wave is
111. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has (a) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3 (b) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3
a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of electric field strength (c) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3 (d) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3
is 119. The transmitting antenna of a radiostation is mounted
(a) 3 V/m (b) 6 V/m (c) 9 V/m (d) 12 V/m vertically. At a point 10 km due north of the transmitter the
112. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave of frequency peak electric field is 10–3 Vm–1. The magnitude of the
8.2 × 106 Hz, then wavelength of the electromagnetic waves radiated magnetic field is
transmitted from the source will be
(a) 3.33 × 10–10 T (b) 3.33 × 10–12 T
(a) 36.6 m (b) 40.5 m
(c) 42.3 m (d) 50.9 m (c) 10–3 T (d) 3 × 105 T
EBD_7208
24. (a) Every body at all time, at all temperature emit radiation
(except at T = 0), which fall in the infrared region.
1. (c) 2. (c) 25. (a)
3. (b) Current through capacitor, 26. (c) In vacuum X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travel
with same velocity, i.e., with the velocity of light c (=3
E E × 108 m s–1) but have different wavelengths.
I= = CE = 2 CE or I
XC 1 27. (b) The wavelength of radiowaves being much larger than
C light, has a size comparable to those of buildings, hense
decrease in frequency of ac source decreases the diffract from them.
conduction current. As displacement current is 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
equal to conduction current, decrease in decreases 31. (b) The range of visible radiations is 4000Å to 8000 Å
displacement current in circuit. 32. (a) Cosmic rays are coming from outer space, having high
4. (a) Displacement current arises when electric field in a energy charged particles, like a-particle, proton etc. b-
region is changing with time. It will be so if the rays are stream of high energy electrons, coming from
charge on a capacitor is changing with time. the nucleus of radioactive atoms.
5. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d)
36. (a) The wavelength of infrared region is 8 × 10–5 cm to
6. (c) In the steady state B.dl o (I) , where I is
3 × 10–3 cm. So maximum wavelength of infrared region
conduction current. = 8 × 10–5 cm 10–4 cm.
[In non steady state B.d (I I d ) , where I is 37. (d) 38. (d)
d
39. (a) Radiowaves are reflected by ionosphere.
displacement current.] 40. (a) 41. (d)
7. (a)
42. (c) Light waves and X-rays are electromagnetic waves.
8. (a) Displacement current is set up in a region where the
43. (a) From electromagnetic spectrum, frequencies of -rays
electric field is changing with time.
is greater than frequency of X-rays. Frequency of X-
9. (a) D o d E / dt . rays is greater than frequency of ultraviolet rays.
10. (d) Maxwell’s equations describe the fundamental laws 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d)
of electricity and magnetism.
48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (a)
11. (d)
52. (c) Here : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space
12. (c) According to Maxwell, a changing electric field is a
source of magnetic field. and wavelength
13. (d) Electromagnetic wave consists of periodically v = 3 × 108 m/s and = 150 m
oscillating electric and magnetic vectors in mutually The frequency of radio waves is given by
perpendicular planes but vibrating in phase.
14. (b) v 3 108
2 106 Hz = 2 MHz.
15. (c) The electromagnetic waves of all wavelengths travel 150
with the same speed in space which is equal to 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b)
velocity of light. 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (d)
16. (d)
62. (d) Ozone layer will absorb ultraviolet rays; reflect the
17. (c) The direction of propagation of electromagnetic
infrared radiation and does not reflect back
wave is perpendicular to the variation of electric
radiowaves.
field E as well as to the magnetic field B 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (d)
18. (b) Velocity of light in a medium, 68. (a) E.M. wave always propagates in a direction
1 1
c perpendicular to both electric and magnetic fields. So,
0 o r r electric and magnetic fields should be along + X and +
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) Y- directions respectively. Therefore, option (a) is the
22. (d) The speed of electromagnetic wave in a region is same correct option.
for all intensities but different for different frequencies.
69. (d) Required condition : Frequency of microwaves =
23. (b) An electromagnetic wave has both energy and
Resonant frequency of water molecules.
momentum.
decreasin g The frequency ranges of various waves are as under :

71. (a) Radiowaves ; 5 × 105 to 109 Hz; -rays ; 3 × 1018 to 5 ×
RMIVUXGC
1022 Hz Microwaves; 1 × 109 to 3 × 1011 Hz; X-rays ; 1
R Radio waves M Micro waves × 1016 to 3 × 1021 Hz.
I Infra red rays V Visible rays 88. (a) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
U Ultraviolet rays X x rays
G rays C Cosmic rays DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
rays has least wavelength
71. (a) Both magnetic and electric fields have zero average 89. (c) Light wave is an electromagnetic wave in which E
value in a plane e.m. wave. and B are at right angles to each other as well as at
72. (a) 73. (a) right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
1 90. (a) Direction of energy progration of EM-waves is given
74. (c) Speed of EM waves in vacuum constant by
0 0
75. (b) Molecular spectra due to vibrational motion lie in the D = K (E B) or –kˆ = K ( E ˆj B )
microwave region of EM-spectrum. Due to Kirchhoff’s Clearly direction of magnetic field is along positive x-
law in spectroscopy the same will be absorbed. axis.
76. (c) E and B are mutually perpendicular to each other
and are in phase i.e., they become a zero and minimum d
at the same place and at the same time. 91. (c) B.d b2 4 ac = 0 0
dt
77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
dE dE
or B 2 r = 0 0 A B
dt dt
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 92. (a) Accor ding to conservation of charge, th e
81. (c) displacement current must be leftward.
82. (b) Momentum per unit time per unit area
id
intensity I i
= speed =
of wave c
Change in momentum per unit time per unit area
= I/c = radiation pressure (P), i.e. P = I/c.
Momentum of incident wave per unit time per unit area ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIO
= I/c 93. (d) Displacement current arises when electric field in a
When wave is fully absorbed by the surface, the
region is changing with time, which is given by
momentum
of the reflected wave per unit time per unit area = 0 d E
ID 0 dt
Radiation pressure (P) = change in momentum per unit
I I I It will be so if the charge on a capacitor is not
time per unit area = = –0= constant but changing with time.
c c c 94. (a) 95. (a)
When wave is totally reflected, then mommentum of the 96. (a) Transverse waves are those waves in which the
reflected wave per unit time per unit area = – I/c. particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the
I I 2I direction of wave propagation.
Radiation pressure (P) = – = 97. (c) Electrormagnetic waves interact with matter via their
c c c electric and magnetic field which in oscillation of
I 2I charges present in all matter. The detailed interaction
Here, P lies between and . and so the mechanism of absorption, scattering, etc.
c c depend of the wavelength of the electromagnetic
83. (c) wave, and the nature of the atoms and molecules in
84. (d) : Velocity of electromagnetic wave the medium.
1 98. (b) Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction of
propagation of the electromagnetic wave. If electric
c= = 3 × 108 m s–1 charges are present in this plane, they will be set
0 0
It is independent of amplitude, frequency and and sustained in motion by the electric and magnetic
wavelength of electromagnetic wave. fields of the electromagnetic wave. The charge thus
85. (d) : micro > infrared > ultraviolet > gamma acquired energy and momentum from the wave. This
illustrate the fact that an electromanetic wave like
other waves carries energy and momentum.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 99. (a) Electromagnetic waves have linear momentum as
well as energy. This concludes that they can exert
86. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4) radiation pressure by falling beam of electromagnetic
87. (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) radiation on an object.
EBD_7208
100. (c) This electromagnetic wave contains sinusoidally
time varying electric and magnetic field which act c 4
perperndicular to each other as well as at right angle v 0 1 =2
to the direction of propagation of waves, so
electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. c
Electromagnetic wave propagate in the perpendicular = 2 or '
v ' ' 2
direction to both fields.
110. (a) On comparing the given equation to
1 c
101. (b) v= E = a0iˆ cos ( t – kz)
r r = 6 × 108z,
102. (a) The basic difference between various types of 2
electromagnetic waves lies in their wavelengths or k=
frequencies since all of them travel through vacuum r c
with the same speed. Consequently, the waves differ 6 108
considerably in their mode of interaction with matter. k= 2m 1
103. (d) The optical waves used in optical fibre c 3 108
communication are better carrier of signals than 111. (b) From question,
microwaves. The speed of microwave and optical B0 = 20 nT = 20 × 10–9T
wave is the same in vacuum.
104. (b) Infrared radiation help to maintain the earth warmth E0 B0 C
through the greenhouse effect. Incoming visible
light which passes relatively easily through the | E 0 | | B0 | . | C | 20 10 9 3 108 = 6 V/m.
atmosphere is absorbed by the earth’s surface and ( velocity of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
re-radiated as infrared radiation. The radiation is
trapped by greenhouse gases such as carbon c 3 108
dioxide and water vapour and they heat up and heat 112. (a) Here, 36.6 m.
their surrondings. 8.2 106
E 0 9 103
113. (d) B0 3 10 5 T.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS c 3 108
114. (a) Here, amplitude of electric field, E0 = 100 V/m; amplitude
105. (b) Displacement current, ID = conduction current, IC of magnetic field, H0 = 0.265 A/m. We know that the
dq d maximum rate of energy flow,
[q0 cos2 t] = – q0 2 sin2 t S = E0 × H0 = 100 × 0.265 = 26.5 W/m2.
dt dt
106. (b) E0
115. (b) B0
107. (d) Id = 1 mA = 10–3 A c
C = 2 F = 2 × 10–6 F E0 - Electric field, c - speed of light, B0 - Magnetic
Field.
d dV
ID = IC = (CV) = C 3
dt dt 10 12
B0 3.33 10 T
3 3 108
dV I D 10 116. (a) Velocity of light
Therefore, = = 500 Vs–1
dt C 2 10 6 E E 9.3
Therefore, applying a varying potential difference of C B 8
3.1 10 8 T
500 V s–1 would produce a displacement current of B C 3 10
desired value. 1 1 1
117. (a) The speed of light C 0.25
2 0 0 2 8 4
108. (b) Here, k =
118. (a) Erms = 720
The average total energy density
k 2 / 1 1
c= 1 1
E 20 [ 2E rms ]2 2
2 c 0 0 0 E rms
2 2
where c is the speed of electromagnetic wave in
vacuum. It is a constant whose value is 3 × 106 m s–1 8.85 10 12
(720)2
109. (d) The frequency of electromagnetic wave remains 6
unchanged but the wavelength of electromagnetic 4.58 10 J / m3
wave changes when it passes from one medium to E0
another. 119. (b) B0
c
1 E0 - Electric field, c - speed of light, B0 - Magnetic
c=
0 0 Field.
1 3
1 10 12
c and v B0 3.33 10 T
8
0 3 10
24
RAY OPTICS AND
OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
9. The image formed by a concave mirror is
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) always real
1. Electromagnetic radiation belonging to _________ region (b) always virtual
of spectrum is called light. (c) certainly real if the object is virtual
(a) 100 nm to 400 nm (b) 400 nm to 750 nm (d) certainly virtual if the object is real
(c) 750 nm to 10 nm (d) 1000 nm to 1400 nm 10. In image formation from spherical mirrors, only paraxial rays
are considered because they
2. The turning back of light into the same medium after incident
(a) are easy to handle geometrically
on a boundary separating two media is called
(b) contain most of the intensity of the incident light
(a) reflection of light (b) refraction of light (c) form nearly a point image of a point source
(c) dispersion of light (d) interference of light (d) show minimum dispersion effect
3. A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror. Then 11. For reflection through spherical surfaces, the normal at
(a) all the reflected rays meet at a point when produced the point of incidence is
backward (a) perpendicular to the principle axis and passes through
(b) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a the centre of curvature
point when produced backward. (b) perpendicular to the focal plane and passes through
(c) only the reflected rays making a small angle with the the pole.
mirror, meet at a point when produced backward. (c) perpendicular to the tangent plane at pole and passes
(d) light of different colours make different images. through the focus.
4. The field of view is maximum for (d) perpendicular to the tangent plane at the point of
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror incidence and passes through the centre of curvature.
(c) convex mirror (d) cylindrical mirror n2 n1 n2 n1
5. A virtual image larger than the object can be obtained by 12. The equation holds true for
v u R
(a) concave mirror (b) convex mirror (a) only concave mirror
(c) plane mirror (d) concave lens (b) only convex mirror
6. An object is placed 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal (c) both concave and convex mirror
length 20 cm. The image formed is (d) any type of reflecting surface
(a) real, inverted and same in size 13. Which of the following (referred to a spherical mirror)
(b) real, inverted and smaller depends on whether the rays are paraxial or not?
(c) virtual, erect and larger (a) Pole (b) Focus
(d) virtual, erect and smaller (c) Radius of curvature (d) Principal axis
7. All of the following statements are correct except 14. Which of the following is correct for the beam which
(a) the magnification produced by a convex mirror is enters the medium?
(a) Travel as a cylindrical beam
always less than one
(b) Diverge
(b) a virtual, erect, same-sized image can be obtained using
(c) Converge
a plane mirror (d) Diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery
(c) a virtual, erect, magnifield image can be formed using 15. When light is refracted into a medium,
a concave mirror (a) its wavelength and frequency both increase
(d) a real, inverted, same-sized image can be formed using (b) its wavelength increases but frequency remains
a convex mirror. unchanged
8. A person is six feet tall. How tall must a plane mirror be if he (c) its wavelength decreases but frequency remains
is able to see his entire length? unchanged
(a) 3 ft (b) 4.5 ft (c) 7.5 ft (d) 6 ft (d) its wavelength and frequency both decrease
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380 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
16. When light is refracted, which of the following does not (c) The height measured normal to the principal axis
change ? upwards is positive
(a) Wavelength (b) Frequency (d) The magnification for virtual image formed by a
(c) Velocity (d) Amplitude concave lens is negative
17. If the light moving in a straight line bends by a small but
25. The apparent flattening of the sun at sunset and sunrise
fixed angle, it may be a case of
is due to
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) diffraction (d) both (a) & (b) (a) refraction
18. Total internal reflection can take place only if (b) diffraction
(a) light goes from optically rarer medium (smaller (c) total internal reflection
refractive index) to optically denser medium (d) interference
(b) light goes from optically denser medium to rarer 26. The speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on
medium (a) the nature of the source
(c) the refractive indices of the two media are close to (b) its wavelength
different (c) its direction of propagation
(d) the refractive indices of the two media are widely (d) its intensity
different 27. A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens
19. The difference between reflection and total internal parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from the
reflection is that lens on the other side on its principal axis, the intensity
(a) the laws of reflection hold true for reflection but not of light
for total internal reflection. (a) remains constant
(b) total internal reflection can take place only when light (b) continuously increases
travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium while (c) continuously decreases
reflection can take place vice-versa also. (d) first increases then decreases
(c) reflection can take place when light travels from a 28. The rays of different colours fail to converge at a point
rarer medium to denser medium and vice-versa but after going through a converging lens. This defect is called
total internal reflection can take place only when it (a) spherical aberration (b) distortion
travels from an optically denser to an optically rarer (c) coma (d) chromatic aberration
medium. 29. What causes chromatic aberration?
(d) reflection is a natural phenomena while total internal (a) Marginal rays
reflection is man-made. (b) Central rays
20. When the angle of incidence of a light ray is greater than (c) Difference in radii of curvature of its surfaces
the critical angle it gets
(d) Variation of focal length of lens with colour
(a) critically refracted
30. The focal length of a converging lens are fV and fR for
(b) totally reflected
(c) total internally reflected violet and red light respectively. Then
(d) totally refracted (a) fV > fR
21. Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibres ? (b) fV = fR
(a) Total internal reflection (c) fV < fR
(b) Scattering (d) any of the three is possible depending on the value of
(c) Diffraction the average refractive index m
(d) Refraction 31. A narrow beam of white light goes through a slab having
22. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum parallel faces
for (a) the light never splits in different colours
(a) red colour (b) green colour
(b) the emergent beam is white
(c) yellow colour (d) violet colour
(c) the light inside the slab is split into different colours
23. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
(a) Working of optical fibre (d) the light inside the slab is white
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of pond 32. Chromatic aberration in a lens is caused by
(c) Mirage on hot summer days (a) reflection (b) interference
(d) Brilliance of diamond (c) diffraction (d) dispersion
24. Identify the wrong sign convention 33. Which of the following is Lens maker’s formula?
(a) The magnification for virtual image formed by a convex 2 1 2 1 1 1 1
(a) (b)
lens is positive v u R v u R
(b) The magnification for real image formed by a convex 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) (d) f 1
lens is negative f v u R1 R2
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 381
34. The angular dispersion produced by a prism (c) Random.
(a) increases if the average refractive index increases (d) White and dark alternatively
(b) increases if the average refractive index decreases 44. Which light rays undergoes two internal reflection inside
(c) remains constant whether the average refractive index a raindrop, which of the rainbow is formed?
increases or decreases (a) Primary rainbow (b) Secondary rainbow
(d) has no relation with average refractive index. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Can’t say
35. If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power 45. In secondary rainbow what is the order of colours observed
(a) increases from earth?
(b) decreases (a) Violet innermost, red outermost.
(c) does not change (b) Red innermost, violet outer most.
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the (c) Random.
angle of the prism is less than or greater than 60º (d) White and dark alternatively.
36. If D is the deviation of a normally falling light beam on a 46. Identify the mismatch in the following
thin prism of angle A and is the dispersive power of the (a) Myopia - Concave lens
same prism then (b) For rear view - Concave mirror
(a) D is independent of A. (c) Hypermetropia - Convex lens
(b) D is independent of refractive Index. (d) Astigmatism - Cylindrical lens
(c) is independent of refractive index. 47. Astigmatism is corrected using
(d) is independent of A. (a) cylindrical lens (b) plano-convex lens
37. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its (c) plano-concave lens (d) convex lens
constituent colours. This is due to 48. The focal length of a normal eye-lens is about
(a) high density of prism material (a) 1 mm (b) 2 cm
(b) because is different for different wavelength (c) 25 cm (d) 1 m
(c) diffraction of light 49. A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm
(d) velocity changes for different frequency because
38. Yellow light is refracted through a prism producing minimum (a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm
deviation. If i1 and i2 denote the angle of incidence and (b) the distance of the retina from the eye-lens is 25 cm
emergence for this prism, then
(c) the eye is not able to decrease the distance between
(a) i1 = i2 (b) i1 > i2
the eye-lens and the retina beyond a limit
(c) i1 < i2 (d) i1 + i2 = 90º
(d) the eye is not able to decrease the focal length beyond
39. By properly combining two prisms made of different
materials, it is not possible to have a limit
(a) dispersion without average deviation 50. The image formed by an objective of a compound
(b) deviation without dispersion microscope is
(c) both dispersion and average deviation (a) real and diminished (b) real and enlarged
(d) neither dispersion nor average deviation (c) virtual and enlarged (d) virtual and diminished
40. When the incidence angle is equal to the angle of 51. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
emergence of light from the prism the refracted ray inside (a) reduce spherical aberration
the prism (b) have high resolution
(a) becomes parallel to the right face of prism (c) increases span of observation
(b) becomes perpendicular to the base of prism (d) have low dispersion
(c) becomes parallel to the base of prism 52. To increase the angular magnification of a simple
(d) becomes perpendicular to the left face of prism microscope, one should increase
41. The dispersive power of a prism depends on its (a) the focal length of the lens
(a) shape (b) the power of the lens
(b) size (c) the aperture of the lens
(c) angle of prism (d) the object size
(d) refractive index of the monitorial of the prism 53. In which of the following the final image is erect ?
42. The angle of prism is 60° and angle of deviation is 30°. (a) Simple microscope
In the position of minimum deviation, the values of angle (b) Compound microscope
of incidence and angle of emergence are: (c) Astronomical telescope
(a) i = 45°; e = 50° (b) i = 30°; e = 45° (d) None of these
(c) i = 45°; e = 45° (d) i = 30°; e = 30° 54. Resolving power of a telescope increases with
43. In primary rainbow what is the order of colours observed (a) increase in focal length of eye-piece
from earth ? (b) increase in focal length of objective
(a) Violet innermost, red outermost. (c) increase in aperture of eye piece
(b) Red innermost, violet outermost. (d) increase in apeture of objective
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55. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of 62. If i = angle of incidence and r = angle of refraction, then
glass using a travelling microscope. In this experiment sin i
the ratio
distances are measured by sin r
(a) a vernier scale provided on the microscope I. is a constant for a pair of media.
(b) a standard laboratory scale II. is called refractive index of medium 2 with respect to
(c) a meter scale provided on the microscope medium 1.
(d) a screw gauge provided on the microscope III. is called absolute refractive index of medium 2.
56. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then IV. varies with temperature.
magnifying power of : (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope (c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV
decrease. 63. Which of the following is/are correct relations?
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase. 1
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease I. n21 = II. n32 = n31 × n12
n12
(d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope
n 1a n 2a
increase. III. n21 = n IV. n21 = n
57. The light gathering power of an astronomical telescope 2a 1a
depends upon (a) I, II and IV (b) I, III and IV
(a) length of tube (b) focal length of objective (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) area of eye-piece (d) area of objective 64. Which of the following statements is/are correct about a
58. The objective of a telescope must be of large diameter in convex lens?
order to I. Convex lens is converging for light for all wavelengths.
(a) remove chromatic aberration II. For virtual object, the image is also virtual.
(b) remove spherical aberration and high magnification III. For real object, the image is always real.
(c) gather more light and for high resolution (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) Only I
(d) increase its range of observation 65. Sunlight reaches to us in composite form and not in its
constituent colours because
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS I. vacuum is non–dispersive.
II. speed of all colours is same in vacuum.
59. Which of the following statements about laws of III. light behaves like a particle in vacuum.
reflection is/are correct? IV. light travels in a straght line in vacuum.
I. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal all (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV(d) I and IV
66. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
lie in the same plane.
I. At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass
II. Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. through a small distance in the atmosphere.
III. After reflection, velocity, wavelength and frequency II. At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass
of light remains same but intensity decreases. through a larger distance in the atmosphere.
(a) I only (b) II only III. Rayleigh scattering which is proportional to (1/ )2.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) I and III
60. A convex mirror is used to form the image of an object. (b) II and III (d) I, II and III
Then which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The image lies between the pole and the focus MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
II. The image is diminished in size 67. Match the Column-I and Column-II
III. The image is real Column – I Column – II
(a) I only (b) II only (A) An object is placed at focus (1) Magnification is –
(c) I and III (d) I and II before aconvex mirror
61. In case of reflection over spherical surface, which of (B) An object is placed at centre (2) Magnification is 0.5
these are correct ? of curvature before a concave
I. Normal is taken as perpendicular of tangent at point mirror
of incidence. (C) An object is placed at focus (3) Magnification is +1
before a concave mirror
II. Perpendicular to incident ray which is perpendicular
(D) An object is placed at centre (4) Magnification is –1
to plane of incident ray.
of curvature before a convex
III. Line joining centre of curvature of mirror with point mirror
of incidence. (5) Magnification is 0.33
IV. Line joining centre of curvature and pole of curved (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (5)
surface. (b) (A) (5); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) (A) (2); (B) (4); (C) (1); (D) (5)
(c) II and III (d) II and IV (d) (A) (3); (B) (5); (C) (2); (D) (4)
68. Match the columns I and II 71. For an object placed in front of a mirror, magnification (m)
Column – I Column – II is given in Column I, Column II gives the possible nature
of the mirror or that of image. Match appropriately.
Column – I Column – II
1
(A) (1) Planoconvex (A) m (1) Concave mirror
4
(B) m = –1 (2) Convex mirror
(C) m = 2 (3) Plane mirror
(D) m = 1 (4) Real
(a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (4); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(B) (2) Biconcave
(d) (A) (1); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (2)
72. Match the following Column II gives nature of image formed
in various cases given in Column I
f
(C) (3) Convexoconcave

(A) f O f/2 (1) Real
(D) (4) Biconvex (B) O (2) Inverted

f
(a) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)

(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4) (C) O (3) Virtual
69. Match the columns I and II
Column I Column II
(A) Mirage (1) Refraction of light by
(B) Apparent depth of object (2) Scattering of sunlight
is lesser than the actual
depth in water (D) f (4) Upright
(C) Blue colour of sky (3) Total internal reflection
(D) The formation of rainbow (4) Dispersion of sunlight
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1) (5) Magnified
(b) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (1); (D) (2)
(a) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (4, 5); (C) (2); (D) (1, 5)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (3, 4, 5); (B) (1, 2, 5); (C) (3, 4); (D) (3, 4, 5)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (1); (B) (2, 3); (C) (4, 5); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3, 4); (C) (2, 3); (D) (1)
(A) Lens of power + 2.0 D (1) Convex lens of focal
length 200 cm.
(B) Lenses of combination (2) Concave lens of focal
(A) Hypermetropia (1)
of power +0.25 D and length 40 cm
+0.25 D
(C) Lens of power –2.0 D (3) Convex lens of focal (B) Myopia (2)
length 50 cm
(D) Lenses combination of (4) Concave lens of focal
power –60 D and +3.5 D length 50 cm (C) Astigmatism (3)
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (2) (D) Presbyopia (4)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
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(a) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4) I F
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (1); (D) (2) (b) O C
74. Match the columns I and II
Column I Column II
(i) Terrestrial telescope (1) Final image is inverted
w.r.t. the object.
(ii) Galileo’s telescope (2) No chromatic aberration
(iii) Reflecting telescope (3) Final image is erected. (c) O C I F
(iv) Astronomical (4) Uses concave lens for
telescope the eyepiece to obtain
an erected image.
(a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1) I
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3) O C F
(d)
75. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected by a mirror 78. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air to water
and going as A' and B'. The mirror are shown in figure (i) and figure (ii) below. The value of
the angle in the case of refraction as shown in figure
A
(iii) will be
35°
A 60°
B Glass Air
(i) (ii)
Air 60° Water
41°
B
(a) is plane
(b) is convex
(c) is concave Glass
(d) may be any spherical mirror (iii)
Water
76. The correct sign convention for the following figure 41°
where the object is at ‘c’ will be (a) 30° (b) 35° (c) 60° (d) 41°
M 79. The following figure shows refraction of light at the
interface of three media
A
H Medium 1 Medium 2
r2 Medium 3
B P r1
B C h F
r1
i1
A
N Correct the order of optical density (d) of the media is

(a) u = –ve; v = +ve; H = +ve; h = –ve (a) d1 > d2 > d3 (b) d2 > d1 > d3
(b) u = +ve; v = –ve; H= –ve; h = +ve (c) d3 > d3 > d2 (d) d2 > d3 > d1
(c) u = –ve; v = –ve; H = +ve; h = –ve 80. A rays of light is incident on a t
(d) u = +ve; v = +ve; H = –ve; h = +ve thick slab of glass of thickness t as
77. The correct image formation by a concave mirror is shown in the figure. The emergent I
depicted in ray is parallel to the incident ray
but distance d. If the angles are d
small then d is
I i i
(a) O C
(a) t 1 (b) rt 1
F r r
r r
(c) it 1 (d) t 1
i i
81. A ray of light passes µ1 µ2 µ3 D 1
through four transparent (a) n (b) n 2
µ4 2
media with refractive
indices µ1, µ2, µ3 and µ4 1
C (c) n (d) n 2
as shown in the figure. The B 2
surfaces of all media are 87. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water
parallel. If the emergent ray A (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident normally on the
CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have face AB is totally reflected to reach on the face BC if
(a) µ1 = µ2 (b) µ2 = µ3 (c) µ3 = µ4 (d) µ4 = µ1 8 A B
82. A ray of light from a (a) sin
9
denser medium strike
a rarer medium at an i r 2 8
(b) sin
angle of incidence i 3 9
(see Fig). The reflected 2
and refracted rays r' (c) sin
3
make an angle of 90° (d) None of these
with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are
r and r’. The critical angle is ASSERTION - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) sin–1(tan r) (b) sin–1(tan i)
–1 Directions : Each of these questions contains two statements,
(c) sin (tan r) (d) tan–1(tan i)
83. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as 45º alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
face, is
3 1 Glass
(a) 3/ 2 (b)
2 correct explanation for assertion
2 1 (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(c) (d) 5 / 2 (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
2 88. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
84. The graph between angle of deviation ( ) and angle of
Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented by
89. Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror will
(a) (b) increase, if the mirror is placed in water.
Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is
equal to , f = R/2.
90. Assertion : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly
o o real if the object is virtual.
i i Reason : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly
(c) (d) virtual if the object is real.
91. Assertion : The image of an extended object placed
perpendicular to the principal axis of a mirror, will be erect if
the object is real but the image is virtual.
o Reason : The image of an extended object, placed
o
i i perpendicular to the principal axis of a mirror, will be erect if
85. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A the object is virtual but the image is real.
ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation 92. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of f from a
(a) PQ is horizontal R convex mirror of focal length f its image will form at infinity.
(b) QR is horizontal Q S Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror can never
P
(c) RS is horizontal be infinity.
(d) Any one will be horizontal 93. Assertion : Critical angle is minimum for violet colour.
86. A light ray is incident
1 1 1
perpendicularly to one face of Reason : Because critical angle c sin and .
a 90° prism and is totally
internally reflected at the 94. Assertion : Two convex lenses joined together cannot
glass-air interface. If the produce an achromatic combination.
angle of reflection is 45°, we 1 2
Reason : The condition for achromatism is f 0
conclude that the refractive 1 f2
index where symbols have their usual meaning.
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95. Assertion : The image of a point object situated at the 106. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of
centre of hemispherical lens is also at the centre. waves as 5 cm of water when both are traversed by the
Reason : For hemisphere Snell's law is not valid. same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is
96. Assertion : When a convex lens (µg= 3/2) of focal length f is 4/3, what is that of glass?
4 (a) 5/3 (b) 5/4 (c) 16/15 (d) 1.5
dipped in water, its focal length becomes f .
3 107. The index of refraction of diamond is 2.0. The velocity of
Reason : The focal length of convex lens in water becomes 4f. light in diamond is approximately
97. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius (a) 1.5 × 1010 cm/sec (b) 2 × 1010 cm/sec
of curvature R made of material of refractive index µ = 1.5, is R. (c) 3.0 × 1010 cm/sec (d) 6 × 1010 cm/sec
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2. 108. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and
98. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after emerging from a refractive index . If c is the speed of light in vacuum, the
lens; the lens must be concave. time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is
Reason : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
99. Assertion : A lens, whose radii of curvature are different, is (a) mtc (b) tc
t t
(c) (d)
forming the image of an object placed on its axis. If the lens c c
is reversed, the position of the image will not change.
Reason : Th e focal length of a lens is given by 109. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick is silvered.
An object held 8 cm in front of the first face, forms an image
1 1 1 12 cm behind the silvered face. The refractive index of the
( 1)
f R1 R2 , and so focal length in both the cases glass is
is same. (a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.6
100. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is more if 110. A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 420 nm
the diameter of the objective lens is more. in air travels in water ( = 4/3). Its wavelength in water will
Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light. be
101. Assertion : The optical instruments are used to increase (a) 280 nm (b) 560 nm (c) 315 nm (d) 400 nm
the size of the image of the object. 111. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 1014 Hz
Reason : The optical instruments are used to increase the
and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material
visual angle.
will be
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (a) 1.50 (b) 3.00 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.40
112. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of
102. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a refractive index , falls on a surface separating the
concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For which
end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The of the following value of the ray can undergo total
length of the image is internal reflection?
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm (a) m = 1.33 (b) m = 1.40 (c) m = 1.50 (d) m = 1.25
1 113. Light travels in two media A and B with speeds 1.8 ×
103. A ray of light travelling in the direction (iˆ 3 ˆj ) is
2 108 m s–1 and 2.4 × 108 m s–1 respectively. Then the
incident on a plane mirror. After reflection, it travels along critical angle between them is
1
the direction (iˆ 3 ˆj ) . The angle of incidence is 1 2 1 3
2 (a) sin (b) tan
3 4
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°
104. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index 1 2 1 3
(c) tan (d) sin
and the other half is filled with water of refractive index 3 4
The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from 114. The critical angle for light going from medium X into medium
above is Y is . The speed of light in medium X is v, then speed of
x( 1 2)
light in medium Y is
x 1 2
(a) (b) (a) v(1 – cos ) (b) v/sin
2 1 2 2( 1 2) (c) v/cos (d) v cos
x 1 2 2 x( 1 2) 115. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive
(c) (d)
( 1 2) 1 2 index , falls on a surface separating the medium from air at
105. A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass block of an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following
refractive index 2 is incident on the glass-air surface at value of the ray can undergo total internal reflection?
an angle of incidence of 45º. The refractive index of air is (a) = 1.33 (b) = 1.40 (c) = 1.50 (d) = 1.25
one. Under these conditions the ray will 116. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the
(a) emerge into the air without any deviation convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the
(b) be reflected back into the glass lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius
(c) be absorbed of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright
(d) emerge into the air with an angle of refraction equal image of the object coincident with it?
to 90º
(a) 12 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 60 cm
117. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of 126. The dispersive power of material of a lens of focal length 20
– 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive cm is 0.08. What is the longitudinal chromatic aberration of
index 1.6 will be the lens ?
(a) – 1D (b) 1 D (c) – 25 D (d) 25 D (a) 0.08 cm (b) 0.08/20 cm (c) 1.6 cm (d) 0.16 cm
118. A plano-convex lens is made of material of refractive index 127. A planoconvex lens of focal length 16 cm, is to be made of
1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved surface is 60 cm. glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of the
The focal length of the lens is curved surface should be
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm (c) 200 cm (d) 400 cm (a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 24 cm
119. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm 128. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m. Power of
(of curved surface) and the refractive index is 1.5. If the spectacle lenses required for (i) reading purposes, (ii) seeing
plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave distant objects, respectively, are
mirror of focal length (a) –2 D and + 3 D (b) +2 D and –3 D
120. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive (c) +2 D and –0.33 D (d) –2 D and + 0.33 D
index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are 129. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the
placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20
The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index cm, then the power of the other lens will be
1.7. The focal length of the combination is (a) 1.66 D (b) 4.00 D (c) – 100 D (d) – 3.75 D
(a) –25 cm (b) –50 cm (c) 50 cm (d) –20 cm 130. A thin convergent glass lens ( g = 1.5) has a power of
3 + 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive
121. A thin convex lens made from crown glass has index , it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm.
2
The value of must be
focal length f. When it is measured in two different liquids (a) 4/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 5/4 (d) 6/5
4 5 131. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to
having refractive indices and , it has the focal lengths its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material
3 3
whose refractive index
f1 and f2 respectively. The correct relation between the focal
lengths is: (a) lies between 2 and 1
(a) f1 = f2 < f
(b) lies between 2 and 2
(b) f1 > f and f2 becomes negative
(c) f2 > f and f1 becomes negative (c) is less than 1
(d) f1 and f2 both become negative (d) is greater than 2
122. A green light is incident from the water to the air - water 132. The refractive index of a glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525
interface at the critical angle ( ). Select the correct statement. for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of minimum deviation
(a) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass.
the water at an angle of 90º to the normal. Then,
(a) D1 < D2
(b) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less
(b) D1 = D2
than that of green light will come out to the air medium.
(c) D1 can be less than or greater than D2 depending
(c) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more
upon the angle of prism
than that of green light will come out to the air medium.
(d) D1 > D2
(d) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of
133. A right prism is made by
the water at various angles to the normal.
selecting a proper material
123. A plano convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of
and the angle A and B (B <<
curvature 30 cm. Is silvered at the curved surface. Now this
A) as shown in fig. It is desired
lens has been used to form the image of an object. At what
that a ray of light incident on
distance from this lens an object be placed in order to have
the face AB emerges parallel
a real image of size of the object
to the incident direction after
(a) 60 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 80 cm
two internal reflections.
124. A double convex lens of focal length 6 cm is made of glass
What should be the minimum refractive index for this to
of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of one surface
be possible ?
is double that of other surface. The value of small radius of
curvature is (a) 3 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 1.8
(a) 6 cm (b) 4.5 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 4 cm 134. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and its
125. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact refracting angle is 30º. One of the refracting surfaces of the
has a power of + 2D. The convex lens has power + 5D. prism is made a mirror inwards. A beam of monochromatic
What is the ratio of dispersive powers of convergent and light enters the prism from the mirrored surface if its angle
divergent lenses ? of incidence of the prism is
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 5 : 2 (d) 5 : 3 (a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 60º (d) 0º
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135. The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting surfaces is and the latter is equal to 3/4th of the angle of prism. The
silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on angle of deviation is
the first surface returns back through the same path after (a) 45º (b) 39º (c) 20º (d) 30º
suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive 141. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is
index , of the prism is : situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects.
(a) 2 sin A (b) 2 cos A The minimum distance between these two objects, which
1 can be resolved by the telescope, when the mean
(c) cos A (d) tan A wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of
2
(a) 5 cm (b) 0.5 m (c) 5 m (d) 5mm
136. The refracting angle of a prism is ‘A’, and refractive index of 142. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are
the material of the prism is cot(A/2). The angle of minimum
deviation is : 1 4000 A and 2 5000 A , then ratio of their
(a) 180° – 2A (b) 90° – A respective resolving powers (corresponding to l and 2) is
(c) 180° + 2A (d) 180° – 3A
137. A ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface (a) 16 : 25 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4.
of an equilateral prism. If the refractive index of the material 143. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is
of the prism is 1.5, then adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective
(a) the emergent ray is deviated by 30° and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of
(b) the emergent ray is deviated by 60° lenses are
(c) the emergent ray just graces the second reflecting (a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm
surface (c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm
(d) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at second 144. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To
refracting surface obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length of the eye
(e) the ray emerges normally from the second refracting piece should be
surface (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm
138. A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of refractive index 145. The focal lengths of objective and eye lens of an
µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive astronomical telelscope are respectively 2 meter and 5 cm.
index µ2 = 1.75. The combination of the prism produces Final image is formed at (i) least distance of distinct vision
dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism (ii) infinity Magnifying power in two cases will be
should be (a) – 48, – 40 (b) – 40, – 48
(a) 7° (b) 10° (c) 12° (d) 5° (c) – 40, + 48 (d) – 48, + 40
139. A prism has a refracting angle of 60º. When placed in the 146. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length
position of minimum deviation, it produces a deviation of 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5 cm is focussed on
30º. The angle of incidence is a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from
(a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 15º (d) 60º the eye lens. If the object subtends an angle of 2º at the
140. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that objective, the angular width of the image is
the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence (a) 10º (b) 24º (c) 50º (d) (1/6)º
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS place when ray of light travels from optically denser
medium ( 1 > 2) to optically rarer medium.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 19. (c) For total internal reflection light ray must travel from
5. (a) Virtual image formed is larger in size in case of optically denser to an optically rarer medium.
concave mirror. 20. (c) As i > ic
6. (a) Real, inverted and same in size because object is at At i = ic angle of refraction
the centre of curvature of the mirror.
‘r’ = 90°
7. (d) Convex mirror always forms, virtual, erect and
smaller image. sin ic
=µ=1
8. (a) To see his full image in a plane mirror a person requires sin 90
a mirror of at least half of his height. 21. (a) The basic principle of communication in fibre optics is
H based on the phenomenon of total internal reflection.
M
22. (d)
E H 23. (b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
H 2 is due to the refraction of light, not due to the total
internal reflection. Other three phenomena are due to
M' the total internal reflection.
L 24. (d) The magnification for vertual image formed by
9. (c) concave lens is positive.
10. (c) Because they form nearly point image of point source. 25. (a) The apparent flattening (oval shape) of the sun at
11. (d) sunset and sunrise is due to refraction.
n 2 n1 n 2 n1 26. (b) In an isotropic medium, speed of light depends on
12. (c) Relation true for both concave its wavelength.
v u R
and convex mirror. 27. (a)
13. (b) 28. (d) Since refractive index for different wave length of
14. (c) Since the refractive index is less at beam boundary, light is different. Hence the different colours of light
the ray at the edges of the beam move faster forms images at different position. This phenomenon
compared to the axis of beam. Hence the beam is called chromatic aberration.
converges. 29. (d) The cause of chromatic aberration is that lens
sin i v1 2 focusses different colours at different points.
15. (b) According to Snell’s law 30. (c) Since lR > lV mR< mV
sin r v 2 1
From fig. we see that 1 1
f V fR ( 1)
f
i medium 1 (m1) 31. (b,c) If faces of prism on which light is incident & from
denser
which it emerge are parallel, then angle of prism will
rare 90 – r be zero & so deviation will also be zero i.e., the prism
r
will act as a transparent prism.
medium 2 (m2) 32. (d) 33. (d)
r > i v2 > v1 from Snell’s Law 34. (a) The angular dispersion i.e., the angle between the
So v2 = n 2 > v1 = n 1 2> 1 extreme rays of light,
(Frequency of wave does not change on refraction) = ( V – R) where V = ( V–1)A, R = ( V–1)A & A is
16. (b) Frequency does not change on refraction. angle of prism.
17. (d) It occurs in both reflection & refraction & the angle of So if refractive index increases, then increases &
bending rays is constant. hence increases.
sin i V R d
18. (b) According to Snell’s Law,
2 35. (b) Dispersive power of a prism ,
sin r 1 y 1 1
where r = 90º for particular incidence angle called critical V R
angle. When the incidence angle is equal to or greater where y
2
than ic, then total internal reflection occurs. It takes 36. (d)
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37. (b) Refractive index of medium is given by by increasing the aperture of objective resolving power
B can be increased.
A 2
where A and Bare constant . 55. (a) To find the refractive index of glass using a travelling
Light has seven different colour, so its each colour microscope, a vernier scale is provided on the
has different wavelength and so different refractive microscope.
index. 56. (d) Magnifying power of microscope
Due to difference in refractive index different refractive LD 1
sin i =
angle . f 0f e f0
sin r
Hence with increase f0 magnifyig power of microscope
So this is due to dependence on wavelength of
decreases.
refractive index.
38. (a) In the position of minimum deviation, i1 = i2. f0
Magnifying power of telescope = f0
39. (d) We can combine two prisms in such a way fe
(i) deviation is zero but dispersion not Hence with increase f0 magnifying power of telescope
(ii) dispersion is zero but deviation is not. increases.
But in any situation both deviation & dispersion 57. (d) Because of large objective area more light is gathered.
can not be zero simultaneously.
40. (c) At the minimum deviation, A As magnification m =
f = Dm angle of incidence
i = angle of emergence = angle subtended at the eye by the final image
e and inside the prism i e = angle subtended by the object at the lens or eye
refracted ray parallel to the O 58. (c) With large diameters of objective, the ability to
base of the prism observe two objects distinctly, increases as more
B C
41. (d) light is gathered.
42. (c) In the position of minimum deviation
A m 60 30
i=e= 45
2 2 59. (d)
43. (a) 60. (d) The image formed by a convex mirror is always
44. (b) Secondary rainbow is formed by rays undergoing virtual.
interanal reflection twice inside the drop. 61. (b) Normal is perpendicular to the tangent to surface at
45. (b) the point of incidence i.e., the normal is along the
46. (b) For rear view, Convex mirror is used in vehicle radius, the line joining the centre of curvature of the
47. (a) Cylindrical lens is used to rectify eye defect astigmatism mirror to the point of incidence.
48. (b) So, geometric centre of a spherical mirror is called its
49. (d) Because, the focal length of eye lens can not pole while that of a spherical lens is called its optical
decrease beyond a certain limit. centre. The line joining the pole and the centre of
50. (b) The image formed by objective lens of compound curvature of the spherical mirror is known as the
microscope is real and enlarged, while final image formed principal axis. In the case of spherical lenses, the
by compound microscope is inverted, virtual, enlarged pricipal axis is the line joining the optical centre with
and at a distance D to infinite or from an eye, on same its principal focus.
side of eye piece. 62. (c) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the
51. (b) The aperture of objective lens of Astronomical sine of angle of refraction is constant. Remember
telescope is large to get better resolution. Since that the angles of incidence (i) and refraction (r) are
D the angles that the incident and its refracted ray
resolution of telescope power is R , where D make with the normal, respectively. We have,
1.22
is the diameter of the objective lens of Telescope. sin i
52. (b) One should increase the power of lens i.e., decrease n21 ...(i)
sin r
the focal length of a lens.
where, n21 is a constant, called the refractive index
53. (a) In simple microscope the final image is erect.
of the medium 2 w.r.t. the medium 1. Eq. (i) is the well
54. (d) Resolving power plane transmission grating known Snell’s law of refraction. We note that n21 is
d
a characteristic of the pair of media (and also
Resolving power for telescope
1 d d0 depends on the wavelength of light) but is
independent of the angle of incidence
limit of resolution 1.22 dl
63. (a) If n21 is the refractive index of medium 2 with respect 1
to medium 1 and n12 the refractive index of medium 70. (b) (i) P = +2.0 f=
× 100 cm = + 50 cm
2.0
1 with respect to medium 2, then it should be clear that (Positive power convex lens)
1
n12 (ii) P = P1 + P2 = (+0.25) + (+0.25) = +0.50 D
n21
It also follows that if n32 is the refractive index of 1 1
f= = × 100 cm = 200 cm
medium 3 with respect to medium 2, then n32 = P 0.5
n31 × n12, where n31 is the refractive index of medium 1
III with respect to medium I. (iii) P = –2.0 f=
× 100 cm = –50 cm
2.0
64. (a) Convex lens is a converging lens provided refractive
(–ve power concave lens)
index of the material of the lens is greater than the
surrounding medium in which the lens is kept. (iv) P = P1 + P2 = (–6.0) + (+3.5) = –2.5 Da
From lens maker’s formula, 1 1
1 1 1 f= = × 100 cm = –40 cm
( 2 1) p –2.5
f R1 R2 1
Refracting index of lens varies inversely with the 71. (a) A - (2) : M = is for erect or virtrual image and so it
4
wavelength of light used. is possible for convex mirror.
II. For virtual object, image is real for convex lens. B - (1): m = –1, negative magnification is possible
in concave mirror.
C - (1) : m = 2, is possible for concave mirror when
O I O object is put between focal point and pole
(Virtual object)
Real image
of the mirror.
D - (3) : m = 1 is possible for plane mirror.
65. (a) The variation of refractive index with wavelength
72. (b)
may be more pronounced in some media than the
other. In vacuum, of course, the speed of light is 73. (d) 74. (c)
independent of wavelength. Thus, vacuum (or air
approximately) is a non-dispersive medium in which DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
all colours travel with the same speed. 75. (a)
This also follows from the fact that sunlight reaches 76. (c) According to sign-convention, distance left or
us in the form of white light and not as its components.
below pole is – (ve) and right or above pole is +(ve).
On the other hand, glass is a dispersive medium.
66. (b) At sunset or sunrise the sun’s rays have to pass 77. (d) The ray parallel to principle axis after reflection through
through a larger distance in the atmosphere and mirror passes through the focus and the ray passing
most of the blue or other shorter wavelengths are through the centre of curvature set retr its path.
removed by scattering. sin 60
78. (b) a g = ... (i)
sin 35
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS sin 60
a
= ... (ii)
67. (c) A-2 : For u = –f, w sin 41°
1 1 1 sin 41
w
v f = f g = sin ... (iii)
f a w a
v= w × g = g
2
v f /2 sin 60 sin 41 sin 60
and M = 0.5 . (Using (i), (ii) and (iii))
u ( f) sin 41 sin sin 35°
= sin = sin35° = 35°
B-4 : u = –2f, so v = –2f
79. (d) As r1 < i1 i.e., the incident ray bends towards the
v 2f normal medium 2 is denser than medium 1.
M= – 1
u 2f Or r2 < i1 medium 3 is denser than medium 1.
C-1 : In concave mirror, u = –2f, v = – Also, r2 > r1 medium 2 is denser than medium 3.
v
M= =– . 80. (c) t
u
D-5 : In convex mirror u = – 2f A B
I
2f r N
1 1 1
so = v= .
v 2f f 3 d
v 1
Now M = – . From figure, in right angled CDB
u 3
68. (b) 69. (d) CBD = (i – r)
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CD d 87. (a) The phenomenon of total internal reflection takes
sin(i – r) = place during reflection at P.
BC BC
or d = BC sin(i – r) .... (i) 1
Also, in right angled CNB sin … (i)
BN t g
cos r = When is the angle of incidence at P
BC BC
l
t B A
or BC = .... (ii)
cos r
Substitute equation (ii) in equation (i), we get R P
t
d= sin(i – r)
cos r C
For small angles sin(i – r) sin i – r cosr 1 a
r gh 1. 5
d = t (i – r), d = it 1 Now, g 1.125
i g
4/3
81. (d) 1 8
Putting in (i), sin
1 sin 90 1 1.125 9
82. (a) 2 [For critical angle] 8
sin C sin C
sin should be greater than or equal to .
9
1
C sin 1 … (i)
1
2 ASSERTION - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Applying Snell’s law at P, we get
88. (b) Plane mirror may form real image, if object is virtual.
1 sin r sin(90 r)
2 [ i r; r ' r 90 ]
sin i sin r
1 cos r ... (ii) (Real) I O (virtual)
2 sin r
From (i) and (ii) 89. (d) Focal length of the spherical mirror does not depend
C = sin–1 (tan r)
on the medium in which it placed.
sin 45 1 90. (c) The image of real object may be real in case of concave
83. (a) For point A, a g sin r
sin r 2a g mirror.
for point B, sin (90 – r) = g a 91. (b)
45º Air 92. (d) The distance of image in convex mirror is always v f .
(90 – r) is critical angle.
90 – r r A 93. (a) 94. (a)
1 95. (c) The rays from centre of hemisphere cut at the centre after
cos r g a
a g 90 – r refraction - Snell's law is valid in each case of refraction.
B 3
1 1
a g 1
= f 2
a g
cos r
Glass
96. (d) fw = f =4f
1 1 a g 3/ 2
1 1
= 2 4/3
1 sin r 1 a w
1
2 a g2 1
( 1)
1 1 1 1
97. (c) f = R1 R2 = (1.5 – 1)
2 1 2 a 2g R R
a g or f = R.
1
1 2 a 2g 1 98. (d) If the rays cross focal point of convex lens, they
2 a g2 become diverging.
3 99. (a)
2 a 2g 1 2 a g
2 100. (a) RP diameter of objective.
84. (c) For the prism as the angle of incidence (i) increases, 101. (d)
the angle of deviation ( ) first decreases goes to
minimum value and then increases. CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
85. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is equal to
emerging angle. 102. (d) f = 10 cm
QR is horizontal.
86. (b) The incident angle is 45° incident angle > critical angle,
i > ic B A
sin i sin i c or sin 45 sin i c –10 cm –20 cm
1 1 1 1
sin i c sin 45 or n 2
n n 2 n
The focal length of the mirror 5 4
106. (a) Given that w g and a w
1 1 1 4 3
– 5 4 5
f v u a g w g a w
For A end of the rod the image distance 4 3 3
When u1 = – 20 cm 107. (a)
108. (d) Total thickness = t; Refrative index =
1 1 1 c
10 v1 20 Speed of light in Glass plate =
1 1 1 2 1 Speed of light in vacuum
v
v1 10 20 = 20 R.I. of Medium
v1 = – 20 cm t t
Time taken = c c
For when u2 = – 30 cm
1 1
(where t = thickness of glass plate)
f v2 30
109. (c) Thickness of glass plate (t) = 6 cm;
1 1 1 30 10 20 Distance of the object (u) = 8 cm. and
v2 10 30 = 300 300 distance of the image (v) = 12 cm.
v2 = – 15 cm Let x = Apparent position of the silvered surface in cm.
L = v2 – v1 = – 15 – (– 20) Since the image is formed due to relfection at the silvered
L = 5 cm face and by the property of mirror image distance of object
î 3 ˆ î 3ˆ from the mirror = Distance of image from the mirror
j . j or x + 8 = 12 + 6 – x or x = 5 cm.
2 2 2 2
103. (a) cos(180 2 ) Therefore refractive index of glass
2 2 2 Re al depth 6
1 3 1 3 = Apparent depth 1.2 .
5
2 2 2 2
c 0 420
1 110. (c) v or m m 315 nm
cos(180 2 ) ( 4 / 3)
2
velocity of light in vacuum (c)
111. (b)
velocity of light in medium (v)
But v = = 2 × 1014 × 5000 × 10–10
In the medium, v = 108 m/s.
v vac 3 108
3.
180° – 2 = 120° = 30° vmed 108
Option (a) is correct. 112. (c) : For total internal reflection
sin i > sin C
Oil 1 where,
104. (a) i = angle of incidence, C = critical angle
Water 2 1 1 1
But, sinC = sini > or >
sin i
Real depth 1
As refractive index, = > (i = 45° (Given))
Apparent depth sin 45
Apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from > 2
above is Hence, option (c) is correct.
x x x 1 1 113. (d) Here, vA = 1.8 × 108 m s–1
dapparent = = vB = 2.4 × 108 m s–1
2 1 2 2 2 1 2
Light travels slower in denser medium. Hence
x 2 1 x( 1 2) medium A is a denser medium and medium B is a
= =
2 1 2 2 1 2
rarer medium. Here, Light travels from medium A to
medium B. Let C be the critical angle between them.
1 1 1 1
105. (d) sin C C sin 45 º 1
2 2 sinC = A B = B
A
sin C 1 sin 45º 1 Refractive index of medium B w.r.t. to medium A is
Now or
sin r sin r 2 Velocity of light in medium A vA
A
sin r = 1 or r = 90º B = Velocity of light in medium B = v
B
EBD_7208
8 1
2( – 1) 1 2( – 1)
vA 1.8 10 3 3
sin C = = or C = sin–1 F R R
vB 2.4 108 4 4
R
114. (b) F
115. (c) For total internal reflection, 2( – 1)
1 Here R = 20 cm,
sin C 2 >1.414 µ = 1.50 20
F 20cm
f = 20 cm 2(1.5 – 1)
116. (c)
120. (b) Using lens maker’s formula,
l
O 1 1 1
( – 1) –
f R1 R 2
30 cm 10 cm
60 cm 1 1.5 1 1
–1 –
1 1 1 1 1 1 f1 1 –20
; v = 60 cm f1 = 40cm
v u f v 30 20 n = 1.5 n = 1.5
Coincidence is possible when the image is formed at n = 1.7
1 1.7 1 1
–1 –
the centre of curvature of the mirror. Only then the f2 1 –20 20
rays refracting through the lens will fall normally on
100
the convex mirror and retrace their path to form the f2 – cm
7
image at O. So the distance between lens and mirror =
60 – 10 = 50 cm. 1 1.5 1 1
and –1 – f3 = 40 cm
1 1. 5 1 1 f3 1 –20
117. (b) 1 … (i) 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
fa 1 R1 R 2
f eqf1 f 2 f3 f eq 40 –100 / 7 40
1 g 1 1
1 feq = –50 cm
fm m R1 R2
Therefore, the focal length of the combination is
1 1.5 1 1 … (ii)
1 – 50 cm.
fm 1. 6 R1 R2 121. (b) By Lens maker's formula for convex lens
fm 1.5 1 1 2
Dividing (i) by (ii), =–8 1
fa 1.5 f L R
1
1.6 4
1 for, L1, f1 4 R
1 3
Pa 5 fa
fa 5 5
1 8 for L 2 , f2 5R f2 = (–) ve
fm = 8 fa 8 3
5 5 122. (b) For critical angle c,
1.6
Pm = 5 1D 1
fm 8 sin air
c
118. (b) R1 = 60 cm, R2 = , = 1.6
Water
1 1 1 For greater wavelength or
( 1) lesser frequency is less. So,
f R1 R 2
critical angle would be more. So, they will not suffer
1 1
(1.6 1) f = 100 cm. reflection and come out at angles less then 90°.
f 60
123. (c)
119. (c) The silvered plano convex lens behaves as a concave
mirror; whose focal length is given by
1 2 1 C O
X
F f1 f m µx
If plane surface is silvered
R2 For the image to be real and of same size as object,
fm final image should be formed at the position of object
2 2
1 1 1 itself.
( – 1) – Let x be the distance of object from plane surface.
f1 R1 R 2
Apparent distance from surface = x
1 1 –1 This should be centre of curve
( – 1) –
R R x 30 1.5x 30 x 20
124. (b) If R1 = R, R2 = –2 R 2A = i + e
1 1 1 in case of min i=e
( 1)
f R1 R 2 A
2A = 2i r1 = r2 =
1 1 1 0 .5 3 2
(1.5 1) i = A = 90°
6 R 2R 2R
from smell’s law
R = 4.5 cm
1 sin i = n sin r1
125. (b) Here, P1 = 5 D
A
P2 = P – P1 = 2 – 5 = –3 D sin A = n sin
f1 P2 3 2
1
A A A
2 f2 P1 5 2 sin cos = n sin
2 2 2
126. (c) Longitudinal chromatic aberration = f
A
= 0.08 × 20 = 1.6 cm 2 cos = n
2
1 1 1 when A = 90° = imin
127. (a) ( 1)
f R1 R2 then nmin = 2
1 1 1 i = A = 0 nmax = 2
(1.5 1) 132. (a) For a thin prism, D = ( – 1) A
16 R
1 1 Since b < r r< b D1 < D2
0. 5 R 8 cm 133. (c) The ray is incident on face AC at an angle A, after
16 R
reflection, it incident of face BC at an angle B. Thus
128. (c) For reading purposes :
u = – 25 cm, v = – 50 cm, f = ? A B = 90°.
1 1 1 1 1 1 As B < A, so the ray if totally reflected from face BC, it
; must be reflected from AC also. For this angle B should
f v u 50 25 50
be greater than critical angle C. For minimum value of
100
P 2D , B can be infinitesimally than C, so B = C (critical
f angle).We know that
For distant vision, f' = distance of far point = –3 m
1 1 1 1
P D 0.33 D = =
f 3 sin C sin B
100 100 For A = B, B = 45°
129. (d) P2 P P1 3 .75 D 1
80 20 = 2
min sin 45
g
1 134. (b) The angle must be equal to the critical angle,
Pa a 5
130. (b) 5 1 1 1 1
P1 g 100 / 100 C sin sin 45º
1 2
1 135. (b)
g g
5 1 1
1 a
1 .5 1 1 .5 5
1 (1 .5 1) 0 .1 ; 1
1 5 0.9 3
131. (b) A Prism angle
A sin i
Angle of According to Snell’s law =
Smin sin r
minimum
deviation (1) sin 2A = ( ) sin A = 2 cos A
Incident C
r1 r2
e Angle of 136. (a) As we know, the refractive index of the material of the
angle emergence prism
A
sin m
2
B C sin (A/ 2)
The angle of minimum deviation is given as
A m
min = i + e–A sin
2 cos (A/ 2)
for minimum deviation cot A/2 =
sin A / 2 sin (A / 2)
min = A then [ µ = cot (A/2)]
EBD_7208
m A 3
Sin = sin(90° + A/2) 140. (d) i1 i2 A
2 4
dmin = 180° – 2A As A i1 i 2
1
137. (d) As we know = 3 3 A 60 º
sin C i1 i 2 A A A A = 30 º
4 4 2 2
1 2
= sin 60º x 1.22 1.22 5 103 10 10 10 3
3 141. (d) Here or x
1000 D 10 10 2
For total internal reflection to take place
or x = 1.22 × 5 × 10–3 m = 6.1 m
1 2 x is of the order of 5 mm.
sinC =
3 142. (d) Resolving power (1/ ).
2 (R.P)1 2 5
C = sin–1 42º Hence,
3 (R.P) 2 1 4
< 45º
f0
Angle of incidence > critical angle, hence TIR takes 143. (a) 9, f0 9 fe
fe
place
138. (b) Deviation = zero Also f0 + fe = 20 ( final image is at infinity)
So, = 1 + 2 = 0 9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, f0 = 18 cm
( 1 – 1)A1 + ( 2 – 1) A2 = 0 144. (b) In normal adjustment,
A2 (1.75 – 1) = – (1.5 – 1) 15° f0 f0 60
M 20 , f e 3 cm
0.5 fe 20 20
A2 = 15
0.75 f0 f 200 5
or A2 = – 10°. 145. (a) (i) M 1 e = 1 48
fe d 5 25
Negative sign shows that the second prism is inverted (since least distance d = 25cm)
with respect to the first. f0 200
(ii) M 40
A m 60 30 fe 5
139. (b) i 45 º
2 2 f0
146. (b) M
fe
f0 60
2 24
fe 5
25
WAVE OPTICS
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. When light suffers reflection at the interface between water
and glass, the change of phase in the reflected wave is
1. The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating in the (a) zero (b)
same phase is called (c) /2 (d) 2
(a) wavelet
9. Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin
(b) fringe
convex lens and another on the refracting face of a thin
(c) wave front
(d) None of these prism. After refraction at them, the emerging wavefronts
2. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from respectively become
a point source? (a) plane wavefront and plane wavefront
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion for the distance (b) plane wavefront and spherical wavefront
squared. (c) spherical wavefront and plane wavefront
(b) The wavefront is parabolic. (d) spherical wavefront and spherical wavefront
(c) The intensity at the wavelingth does depend of the (e) elliptical wavefront and spherical wavefront
distance. 10. When a film is illuminated by white light, its upper portion
(d) None of these. appears dark. Path difference between two reflected beams
3. Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles at the spot must be
of the medium vibrate with the same (a) zero (b) /2
(a) phase (b) amplitude (c) 2 /2 (d)
(c) frequency (d) period
11. If two coherent sources are vibrating in phase then we
4. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s
have constructive interference at any point P whenever
construction of wavefront
the path difference is
(a) reflection (b) diffraction
(c) refraction (d) origin of spectra 1 n
5. Huygen’s concept of secondary wave (a) n+ (b)
2 2
(a) allows us to find the focal length of a thick lens
(b) is a geometrical method to find a wavefront 1
(c) is used to determine the velocity of light (c) n (d) n
2
(d) is used to explain polarisation
6. A plane wave passes through a convex lens. The 12. If two sources are coherent, then the phase difference ( )
geometrical shape of the wavefront that emerges is between the waves produced by them at any point
(a) plane (b) diverging spherical (a) will change with time and we will have stable
(c) converging spherical (d) None of these positions of maxima and minima.
7. Spherical wavefronts, emanating from a point source, (b) will not change with time and we have unstable
strike a plane reflecting surface. What will happen to positions of maxima and minima.
these wave fronts, immediately after reflection? (c) Positions of will not change with time and we will
(a) They will remain spherical with the same curvature, have stable positions of maxima and minima.
both in magnitude and sign.
(d) will change with time and we will have unstable
(b) They will become plane wave fronts.
positions of maxima and minima.
(c) They will remain spherical, with the same curvature,
13. The device which produces highly coherent sources is
but sign of curvature reversed.
(d) They will remain spherical, but with different (a) Fresnel biprism (b) Young’s double slit
curvature, both in magnitude and sign. (c) Laser (d) Lloyd’s mirror
EBD_7208
398 WAVE OPTICS
14. Which of the following, cannot produce two coherent (c) introduces an extra phase difference in the parallel
sources? beam.
(a) Lloyd’s mirror (b) Fresnel biprism (d) introduces an extra fringe in the diffraction pattern.
(c) Young’s double slit (d) Prism 25. The fringe width for red colours as compared to that for
15. Coherence is a measure of violet colour is approximately
(a) capability of producing interference by wave (a) 3 times (b) 2 times
(b) waves being diffracted (c) 4 times (d) 8 times
(c) waves being reflected 26. In Young’s double slit experiment, the minimum amplitude
(d) waves being refracted is obtained when the phase difference of super-imposing
16. Two sources of light are said to be coherent, when they waves is (where n = 1, 2, 3, ...)
give light waves of same (a) zero (b) (2 n – 1)
(a) amplitude and phase (c) n (d) (n + 1)
(b) wavelength and constant phase difference 27. The fringe width in a Young’s double slit experiment can
(c) intensity and wavelength be increased if we decrease
(d) phase and speed (a) width of slits
17. Intensity of light depends on (b) separation of slits
(a) amplitude (b) frequency (c) wavelength of light used
(c) wavelength (d) velocity (d) distance between slits and screen
18. The colour of bright fringe nearest to central achromatic 28. In Young’s double slit experiment, one slit is covered with
fringe in the interference pattern with white light will be red filter and another slit is covered by green filter, then
(a) violet (b) red interference pattern will be
(c) green (d) yellow (a) red (b) green
19. The correct formula for fringe visibility is (c) yellow (d) invisible
max min max min
29. Instead of using two slits, if we use two separate identical
(a) V (b) V sodium lamps in Young’s experiment, which of the
max min max min
following will occur?
min (a) General illumination
(c) max (d) V
V (b) Widely separate interference
min max
(c) Very bright maxima
20. Laser light is considered to be coherent because it consists of
(d) Very dark minima
(a) many wavelengths
30. Which of the following is not essential for two sources of
(b) uncoordinated wavelengths
light in Young’s double slit experiment to produce a
(c) coordinated waves of exactly the same wavelength
sustained interference?
(d) divergent beam
(a) Equal wavelength
21. The interfering fringes formed by a thin oil film on water
(b) Equal intensity
are seen in yellow light of sodium lamp. We find the fringes
(c) Constant phase relationship
(a) coloured
(d) Equal frequency
(b) black and white
31. In Young's double slit experiment, the locus of the point P
(c) yellow and black
lying in a plane with a constant path difference between
(d) coloured without yellow
the two interfering waves is
22. In Young’s Double slit experiment, if the distance
between the slit and screen (D) is comparable with fringe (a) a hyperbola (b) a straight line
width (B), the fringe pattern on screen will (c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
(a) strictly be a parabola (b) strictly be a hyperbola 32. If the width of the slit in single slit diffrection experiment
(c) be a elliptical (d) be a straight line is doubled, then the central maximum of diffraction
23. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water pattern becomes
keeping the rest of the set-up same, the fringes will (a) broader and brighter (b) sharper and brighter
(a) increase in width (b) decrease in width (c) sharper and fainter (d) broader adn fainter.
(c) remain unchanged (d) not be formed 33. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using beam of red. light
24. In the Young’s Double slit experiment, when we place a what will happen, if red light is replced by the blue light?
converging lens after the slits and place the screen at the (a) Bands disappear.
focus of the lens, it (b) Bands become broader and farther apart.
(a) introduces an extra path difference in the parallel (c) No change will take place.
beam. (d) Diffraction bands become narrow and crowded
(b) introduces no path difference in the parallel beam. together.
WAVE OPTICS 399
34. When monochromatic light is replaced by white light in 45. Optically active substances are those substances which
Fresnel’s biprism arrangement, the central fringe is (a) produces polarised light
(a) coloured (b) white (b) produces double refraction
(c) dark (d) None of these (c) rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised light
35. The condition for observing Fraunhoffer diffraction from
(d) converts a plane polarised light into circularly
a single slit is that the light wavefront incident on the slit
polarised light.
should be
46. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(c) plane (d) elliptical (a) it reduces the light intensity to half on account of
36. The phenomenon of diffraction can be treated as polarisation
interference phenomenon if the number of coherent (b) it is fashionable
sources is (c) it has good colour
(a) one (b) two (d) it is cheaper.
(c) zero (d) infinity 47. In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the
37. The diffraction effects in a microscopic specimen become plane of vibration and plane of polarisaiton is
important when the separation between two points is (a) 0º (b) 90º (c) 45º (d) 80º
(a) much greater than the wavelength of light used. 48. In the propagation of electromagnetic waves, the angle
(b) much less than the wavelength of light used.
between the direction of propagation and plane of
(c) comparable to the wavelength of light used.
polarisation is
(d) independent of the wavelength of light used.
(a) 0º (b) 45º (c) 90º (d) 180º
38. What is the Brewester angle for air to glass transition?
49. When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate
a
( g = 1.5) at Brewster’s angle, then which of the following statements
(a) tan (1.5) (b) sin (1.5) is correct?
(c) sin–1 (1.5) (d) tan–1 (1.5) (a) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised
39. When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter wave with their planes of polarization parallel to each other
plate, the emergent light is (b) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised
(a) linearly polarised (b) circulary polarised with their planes of polarization perpendicular to each
(c) unpolarised (d) elliptically polarised other
40. Transverse nature of light was confirmed by the (c) Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light
phenomenon of is partially polarised
(a) refreaction of light (b) diffraction of light
(d) Reflected light is partially polarised but refracted light
(c) dispersion of light (d) polarization of light
is plane polarised
41. In the case of linearly polarized light, the magnitude of
the electric field vector 50. From Brewster’s law of polarisation, it follows that the
(a) is parallel to the direction of propagation anlge of polarisaiton depends upon
(b) does not changes with time (a) the wavelength of light
(c) increases linearly with time (b) plane of polarisation’s orientation
(d) varies periodically with time (c) plane of vibration’s orientation
42. Unpolarized light is incident on a plane glass surface The (d) None of these
angle of incidence so that reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other, them STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) tan i = (b) tan i = 51. Shape of wavefront in case of

2 I. light diverging from a point source is spherical
(c) sin i = (d) cos i = II. light emerging out of a convex lens when a point
43. Light waves can be polarised because they source is placed at its focus is plane
(a) have high frequencies (b) have short wavelength III. the portion of the wavefront of light from a distant
(c) are transverse (d) can be reflected star intercepted by the Earth is plane.
44. Light transmitted by nicol prism is Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) unpolarised (b) plane polarised (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) circularly polarised (d) elliptically polarised (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
EBD_7208
400 WAVE OPTICS
52. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 57. In the double-slit experiment, the pattern on the screen is
I. A point source emitting waves uniformly in all actually a superposition of ____ and ____.
directions. I. single-slit diffraction from each slit
II. In spherical wave, the locus of point which have the II. double-slit interference pattern
some amplitude and vibrate in same phase are III. double-slit diffraction from each slit
spheres. IV. single-slit interference pattern
III. At a small distance from the source, a small portion (a) I and II (b) I and III
of sphere can be considered as plane wave. (c) II and IV (d) II and III
(a) Only I (b) I and II 58. Which of the following statements are true about the
(c) Only III (d) I, II and III diffraction pattern?
53. Figure shows behavior of a wavefront when it passes I. It has a central bright maxima of twice the width of
through a prism. other maxima.
II. The first null occurs at an angle /2a.
A A’ III. The intensity of maxima falls as we move away from
Incident Refracted the central maxima.
wavefront wavefront IV. The bands are of decreasing width.
B B’ (a) II and III (b) I and II
(c) I, III and IV (d) I and III
Which of the following statements are correct ?
59. Diffraction is a characteristic which is exhibited by
I. Lower portion of wavefront (B’) is delayed resulting
I. matter waves II. water waves
in a tilt.
III. sound waves IV. light waves
II. Time taken by light to reach A’ is equal to the time (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
taken to reach B’ from B. (c) III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
III. Speed of wavefront is same everywhere. 60. We can listen to the sound on the other side of the wall
IV. A particle on wavefront A’ B’ is in phase with a but cannot see through it because
particle on wavefront AB. I. wavelength of light is greater than sound
(a) I and II (b) II and III II. wavelength of light is smaller than sound
(c) III and IV (d) I and III III. wavelength of light is much smaller than the
54. Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis dimensions of most obstacles
of wave nature of light? IV. wavelength of sound is greater than the dimensions
I Polarization II Total internal reflection of most obstacles
III Photoelectric effect IV Crompton effect (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(a) II and III (b) III and IV (c) II and III (d) I, III and IV
(c) IV and I (d) III only 61. In order to observe good interference and diffraction
55. The conditions for producing sustained interference are pattern, the necessary and sufficient conditions are
I. phase difference between interfering waves remains I. the distance between the slits should be very small
constant with time. (~ mm)
II. interfering waves have nearly same amplitude levels. II. the slit width should be very small (~ mm)
III. interfering waves are of same frequency. III. the distance between the slits and the screen should
IV. interfering waves are moving in opposite directions. be large (~ cm)
(a) I, II and III (b) II and III IV. the distance between slits and the screen should be
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV small (~ mm)
56. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true about (a) I and II (b) I and III
interference pattern due to double slits?
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III
I. The interference pattern has equal number of bright
62. The resolving power of a telescope is limited by
and dark band width .
II. The pattern is obtained by superposition of two I. the focal length of objective lens
waves originating from the two narrow slits. II. the diameter of objective lens
III. We get a minima at an angle of /a where ‘a’ is the III. the wavelength of the light used
distance between two slits IV. the thickness of the objective lens
(a) I only (b) II only (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(c) I and II only (d) I, II and III (c) II and III (d) I, III and IV
WAVE OPTICS 401
63. The magnification by objective lens of a microscope does MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
not depend upon
I. the focal length of objective 67. Match Plane wave incident on different surfaces. In
II. the diameter of objective column I with the emergent wavefront in Column II.
III. the angle subtended by the diameter of the objective Column I Column II.
lens at the focus of the microscope
IV. the angle subtended by the eyepiece on the eye
Spherical
(c) III only (d) IV only wavefront
64. Diffraction at single slit, the figure shows (A) (1) of radius R
Spherical wave
(B) (2) front of
radius R/2
Slit
Incoming
wave Viewing screen
Tilted
(C) (3) wavefront
I. wavelength distribution
II. intensity distribution
III. diffraction
IV. fringe pattern
(a) I and II (b) II, III and IV
(c) II and IV (d) I III and IV
Spherical
65. Which of the given statements is/are correct for wavefront
(D) (4) of radius of R
phenomenon of diffraction ?
I. For diffraction through a single–slit, the wavelength
of wave must be comparable to the size of the slit.
II. The diffraction is very common in sound waves but
not so common in light waves. (a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4)
III. Diffraction is only observed in electromagnetic (b) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
waves. (c) (A) (2); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(a) Only I (b) II and III (d) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III 68. Column I Column II.
(A) Interference of light (1) I = I0 cos2
66. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(B) Brewster’s Law (2) Obstacle/aperture of size
I. A polaroid consist of long chain molecules aligned
in a particular direction. =l
(C) Diffraction of light (3) = tan ip
II. Electric vectors along the direction of the aligned
molecule in a polaroid gets absorbed. (D) Law of Malus (4) Coherent sources
III. An unpolarised light wave is incident on polaroid, (a) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
then it will get linearly polarised. (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(a) Only I (b) II and III (c) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(c) Only III (d) I, II and III (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
EBD_7208
402 WAVE OPTICS
69. Column I Column II. 73. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white light is incident
(A) Reflection (1) Used for reducing glare on the plane of the slits then the distance of the
(B) Refraction (2) Change in path of light nearest white spot on the screen from O is d/A. Find the
without change in medium value of A. (assume d << D, << d]
(C) Interference (3) = sin i/sin r (a) 3
(D) Polarization (4) Light added to light
d 2d/3
produces darkness (b) 5 O
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(c) 6
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4) D
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1) (d) 4
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1) 74. For the given arrangement, the screen will have
Sodium lamp
70. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a S1
small distance 'd' as shown in figure. The fringes obtained
on the screen will be
S2
d
S1 S2 Screen
D Screen
(a) interference pattern with central maxima
(b) interference pattern with central minima
(a) points (b) straight lines (c) two separate interference patterns with central
(c) semi-circles (d) concentric circles maxima
71. Figure shows two coherent sources S1 and S2 vibrating in (d) doubly illuminated screen with no interference
same phase. AB is an irregular wire lying at a far distance pattern at all
3 75. In the double slit experiment, the monochromatic source
from the sources S 1 and S 2 . Let 10 and
d is shifted to a position S at an angle above SQ. The
BOA 0.12 . How many bright spots will be seen on position of central bright fringe will be
Screen
the wire, including points A and B?
A
S1 S1
S O
d O S O
S2 Q
B
S2 O
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 7
72. In Young's double slit experiment shown in figure S1 and S2
are coherent sources and S is the screen having a hole at a P
point 1.0mm away from the central line. White light (400 to
700nm) is sent through the slits. Which wavelength passing (a) at O (b) at O
through the hole has strong intensity? (c) at O (d) at P
76. A single-slit-diffraction pattern, through following
Centre of arrangement using an electric bulb as the source of light
S1 only will be
screen
0.5mm
S2 Screen
1.0mm
hole
50cm S
(a) 400 nm (b) 700 nm
(c) 500 nm (d) 667 nm
WAVE OPTICS 403
(a) central dark fringe followed by bright fringe of red 80. Assertion : Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of
colour oil on water show beautiful colours when illuminated by
(b) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe than white light.
bands of varying intensity Reason : It happens due to the interference of light reflected
(c) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe then from upper and lower face of the thin film.
wider red fringes and narrower blue fringes. 81. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two
(d) central bright fringe followed by dark fringe then coherent sources are infinitely close to each other.
wider blue fringes followed by narrower red fringes. Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the
77. The figure shows Fraunhoffer’s diffraction due to a single distance between the two sources.
slit. If first minimum is obtained in the direction shown, then 82. Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of equal
the path difference between rays 1 and 3 is intensity to study interference pattern.
Reason : There will be an effect on clarity if the waves are of
(a) 0
1 unequal intensity.
(b) 2 83. Assertion : White light falls on a double slit with one slit is
/4
3 covered by a green filter. The bright fringes observed are of
(c) /2 green colour.
Reason : The fringes observed are coloured.
(d) 84. Assertion : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced in front of
78. The position of the direct image obtained at O, when a the upper slit, then the fringe pattern shifts in the downward
monochromatic beam of light is passed through a plane direction.
transmission grating at normal incidence as shown in Fig. Reason : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal, the minima
The diffracted images A, B and C correspond to the first, will be completely dark.
second and third order diffraction. When the source is Imax
replaced by another source of shorter wave-length 85. Assertion : In YDSE, if I1 = 9I0 and I2 = 4I0 then 25.
I min
Reason : In YDSE Imax ( I1 I2 )2 and
I min ( I1 I2 )2 .
86. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment if wavelength

O A B C
of incident monochromatic light is just doubled, number of
(a) all the four will shift in the direction C to O bright fringe on the screen will increase.
(b) all the four will shift in the direction O to C Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is
(c) the images C, B and A will shift towards O inversely proportional to the wavelength of light used
(d) the images C, B and A will shift away from O
87. Assertion : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe
can not be unlimited
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS Reason : In YDSE path difference between the superposing
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, waves can not be more than the distance between the slits.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 88. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using yellow
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You light instead of red light, the fringes becomes narrower.
D
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by .
explanation for assertion. d
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a 89. Assertion : Coloured spectrum is seen when we look
correct explanation for assertion through a muslin cloth.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason : It is due the diffraction of white light on passing
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. through fine slits.
79. Assertion : According to Huygen’s principle, no backward 90. Assertion : Diffraction takes place for all types of waves
wave-front is possible. mechanical or non-mechanical, transverse or longitudinal.
Reason : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional Reason : Diffraction's effect are perceptible only if
to (1 + cos ) where is the angle between the ray at the
wavelength of wave is comparable to dimensions of
point of consideration and the direction of secondary
diffracting device.
wavelet.
EBD_7208
404 WAVE OPTICS
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 99. In Young’s double slit experiment, the source S and two
slits A and B are lying in a horizontal plane. The slit A is
91. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest above slit B. the fringes are obtained on a vertical screen K.
near the ground and increases with height from the ground. The optical path from S to B is increased by putting a
When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' transparent material of higher refractive index. The path
principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light from S to A remains unchanged. As a result of this the
beam : fringe pattern moves somewhat
(a) bends downwards (a) upwards
(b) bends upwards (b) downwards
(c) becomes narrower (c) towards left horizontally
(d) goes horizontally without any deflection (d) towards right horizontally
92. Light from two coherent sources of the same amplitude 100. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, let be the fringe
A and wavelength illuminates the screen. The intensity width, and let 0 be the intensity at the central bright fringe.
of the central maximum is I0. If the sources were At a distance x from the central bright fringe, the intensity
incoherent, the intensity at the same point will be will be
(a) 4I0 (b) 2I0 x
x 2
(a) 0 cos (b) 0 cos
I0
(c) I0 (d)
2
93. x x
Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point of the (c) 0 cos
2
(d) 0
cos 2
screen are coming from coherent sources of light with 4
phase difference 3 rad. Their amplitudes are 1 cm each. 101. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and
The resultant amplitude at the given point will be. are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths 1 = 12000Å
(a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm and 2 = 10000Å. At what minimum distance from the
(c) 2 cm (d) zero common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit
94. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce an will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide
interference pattern. The fringe visibility will be with a bright fringe from the other ?
(a) 1 (b) 0.8 (a) 6 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 8mm
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.6 102. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for
95. Two beams of light of intensity I1 and I2 interfere to give slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s
an interference pattern. If the ratio of maximum intensity to double-slit experiment is
that of minimum intensity is 25/9, then I1/I2 is (a) three (b) five (c) infinite (d) zero
(a) 5/3 (b) 4 103. In a Young’s double slit experiment the intensity at a point
(c) 81/625 (d) 16
96. In Young's double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp where the path difference is ( being the wavelength of
6
of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half
angular width of the central maximum is I
light used) is I. If I0 denotes the maximum intensity, is
(a) sin–1 (0.01) (b) sin –1 (0.0001) I0
–1
(c) sin (0.001) (d) sin–1 (0.1)
equal to
97. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on a screen
in young’s double slit experiment when waves from 3 1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
sources S1 and S2 have phase difference of (a) 0° and 4 2 2 2
(b) /2 respectively, is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 104. In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 than other, so that amplitude of the light from one slit is
98. Laser light of wavelength 540 nm incident on a pair of slit double of that from other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity,
produces interference pattern in which the bright fringes the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase
are separated by 9.00 mm. A second light on the same difference is given by
setup produces an interference pattern in which the
Im Im
fringes are separated by 8.1 mm. The wavelength of the (a) (4 5 cos ) (b) 1 2 cos 2
9 3 2
second light is
(a) 720 nm (b) 486 nm Im Im
(c) 1 4 cos 2 (d) 1 8 cos2
(c) 630 nm (d) 450 nm 5 2 9 2
WAVE OPTICS 405
105. Monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm and 560 nm 112. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 10 fringes in the
are incident simultaneously and normally on double slits field of view of monochromatic light of wavelength 4000Å.
apparatus whose slits separation is 0.1 mm and screen If we use monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å, then
distance is 1m. Distance between areas of total darkness the number of fringes obtained in the same field of view is
will be (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 40 (d) 50
(a) 4mm (b) 5.6 mm (c) 14mm (d) 28mm 113. With a monochromatic light, the fringe-width obtained in a
106. In Young’s double slit experiment intensity at a point is Young’s double slit experiment is 0.133 cm. The whole set-
(1/4) of the maximum intensity. Angular position of this point up is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, then the
is new fringe-width is
(a) sin-1( /d) (b) sin -1( /2d) (a) 0.133 cm (b) 0.1 cm
-1
(c) sin ( /3d) (d) sin -1( /4d)
107. In the Young’s double slit experiment using a monochromatic 1.33
(c) 1.33 × 1.33 cm (d) cm
light of wavelength , the path difference (in terms of an 2
integer n) corresponding to any point having half the peak 114. A beam of light of = 600 nm from a distant source falls on
intensity is a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern
is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between
(a) (2n 1) (b) (2n 1) first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is
2 4
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm
(2 n 1) (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
(c) 8 (d) (2 n 1)
16 115. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light
108. Light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 m is made incident on two at a point on the screen where the path difference is is K,
slits 1 mm apart. The distance between third dark fringe and ( being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a
fifth bright fringe on a screen distant 1 m from the slits will point where the path difference is /4, will be
be (a) K (b) K/4
(a) 0.325 mm (b) 0.65 mm (c) K/2 (d) Zero
(c) 1.625 mm (d) 3.25 mm 116. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and
d the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light
109. In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits is and
3 wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each
the distance between the screen and the slits is 3 D. The slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central
maxima of single slit pattern ?
1
number of fringes in m on the screen, formed by (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.5 mm
3
(c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.2 mm
monochromatic light of wavelength 3 , will be
117. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength
d d ' ', diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width 'a' is
(a) (b)
9D 27 D of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance of the
screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be
d d
(c) (d) D Da
81 D D
(a) (b)
a
110. In Young’s double slit expt. the distance between two
sources is 0.1 mm. The distance of the screen from the source
2Da 2D
is 20 cm. Wavelength of light used is 5460 Å. The angular (c) (d)
a
position of the first dark fringe is
(a) 0.08º (b) 0.16º 118. Light of wavelength 5000 A° is incident normally on a slit of
(c) 0.20º (d) 0.32º width 2.5 × l0–4 cm. The angular position of second minimum
111. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit from the central maximum is
arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under 1 1 2
1
water what will be the new fringe separation? [The (a) sin (b) sin
5 5
wavelenght of light being used is 5000 Å]
(a) 1.5 x (b) x
(c) (d)
(c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x 3 6
EBD_7208
406 WAVE OPTICS
119. In young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a 127. A slit of width a is illuminated by red light of wavelength
point on the screen where the path difference is is I, 6500 Å. If the first minimum falls at = 30°, the value of a is
being the wavelength of light used. The intensity at a point (a) 6.5 × 10–4 mm (b) 1.3 micron
(c) 3250 Å (d) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
where the path difference is will be
4 128. A parallel beam of light is incident on a convex lens which
I I has been corrected for aberrations, then the image will be
(a) (b) (c) I (d) zero
4 2 (a) focused to a line because of refraction.
120. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced (b) focused to a spot of finite area because of diffraction.
by a distance x when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is
0.16 f
introduced in the path of one of the beams. When this (c) focused to a spot of radius because of
a
plate is replaced by another plate of the same thickness,
the shift of fringes is (3/2) x. The refractive index of the diffraction (f = focal length, a = radius of lens)
second plate is 1.22 f
(a) 1.75 (b) 1.50 (d) focused to a band pattern of radius
2a
(c) 1.25 (d) 1.00
121. In a two-slit experiment, with monochromatic light, fringes 129. The Fraunhoffer ‘diffraction’ pattern of a single slit is formed
are obtained on a screen placed at some distance from the in the focal plane of a lens of focal length 1 m. The width of
slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits, slit is 0.3 mm. If third minimum is formed at a distance of 5
the change in fringe width is 10–3 m. Then the wavelength mm from central maximum, then wavelength of light will be
of light used is (given that distance between the slits is (a) 5000 Å (b) 2500 Å
0.03 mm) (c) 7500 Å (d) 8500 Å
(a) 4500 Å (b) 5000 Å 130. A single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern is formed with
(c) 5500 Å (d) 6000 Å. white light. For what wavelength of light the third
122. In Fresnel’s biprism expt., a mica sheet of refractive index secondary maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides
1.5 and thickness 6 × 10–6 m is placed in the path of one of with the second secondary maximum in the pattern for red
interfering beams as a result of which the central fringe gets light of wavelength 6500 Å?
shifted through 5 fringe widths. The wavelength of light (a) 4400 Å (b) 4100 Å
used is (c) 4642.8 Å (d) 9100 Å
(a) 6000 Å (b) 8000 Å 131. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally
(c) 4000 Å (d) 2000 Å polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n), is
123. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distance source
falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and a resulting diffraction (a) tan–1(1/n) (b) sin–1(1/n)
pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance (c) sin–1(n) (d) tan–1(n)
between the first dark fringes on either side of central bright 132. When an unpolarized light of intensity I 0 is incident on a
fringe is
polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which does not
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
get transmitted is
124. The width of a slit is 0.012 mm. Monochromatic light is
incident on it. The angular position of first bright line is 1 1
(a) I0 (b) I0 (c) I 0 (d) zero
5.2º. The wavelength of incident light is 4 2
[sin 5.2º = 0.0906]. 133. Abeam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through
(a) 6040 Å (b) 4026 Å a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B which is
(c) 5890 Å (d) 7248 Å oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45°
125. Light of wavelength 6328 Å is incident normally on a slit relative to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is
having a width of 0.2 mm. The angular width of the central (a) I0 (b) I0/2
maximum measured from minimum to minimum of diffraction (c) I0/4 (d) I0/8
pattern on a screen 9.0 metres away will be about 134. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at an
(a) 0.36 degree (b) 0.18 degree angle of incidence equal to Brewster’s angel . If represents
(c) 0.72 degree (d) 0.09 degree the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then the angle
126. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident normally on between the reflected and the refracted rays is
a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width of the principal maximum (a) 90° + (b) sin–1( cos )
on a screen distant 50 cm will be
(a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m 1 sin
(c) 90º (d) 90 º sin
(c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312 m
WAVE OPTICS 407
135. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 W m–2 passes through 139. If the polarizing angle of a piece of glass for green light is
three polarizers such that the transmission axis of the last 54.74°, then the angle of minimum deviation for an
polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of equilateral prism made of same glass is
final emerging light is 3 W m–2. The intensity of light [Given, tan 54.74° = 1.414]
transmitted by first polarizer will be (a) 45° (b) 54.74°
(a) 32 W m–2 (b) 16 W m–2 (c) 60° (d) 30°
(c) 8 W m–2 (d) 4 W m–2 140. When the angle of incidence is 60° on the surface of a
136. A parallel beam of monochromatic unpolarised light is glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is completely
incident on a transparent dielectric plate of refractive index polarised. The velocity of light in glass is
1
(a) 2 108 ms 1 (b) 3 108 ms 1
. The reflected beam is completely polarised. Then the
3 (c) 2 108 ms 1 (d) 3 108 ms 1
angle of incidence is 141. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually
(a) 30º (b) 60º perpendicular planes of polarization are seen through a
(c) 45º (d) 75º polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum
137. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes making intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a rotation of
an angle of 60º. Then the percentage of incident unpolarised polaroid through 30 makes the two beams appear equally
light which passes through the system is bright. If the initial intensities of the two beams are IA and
(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 12.5 (d) 37.5
138. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline IA
IB respectively, then equals:
crystal A and then through another such crystal B oriented IB
so that the principal plane is parallel to A. The intensity of
3
emergent light is 0. Now B is rotated by 45º about the ray. (a) 3 (b)
2
The emergent light will have intensity
1
(a) /2 (b) / 2 (c) 2 (d) 2 0 (c) 1 (d)
0 0 0 3
EBD_7208
408 WAVE OPTICS
Keeping the distance between the slits as constant,

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS the locus of point P in the xy plane is a hyperbola
1. (c) Light is an electromagnetic wave of wavelength
a
range 4000A° to 7800 A° 23. (b) The wavelength of light in water w is less
2. (a)
than that in air. When the set-up is immersed in
3. (a) Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the
water, fringe width ( ) will decrease.
particles of the medium vibrate with the same phase.
4. (d) The Huygen’s construction of wavefront does not 24. (b) Introducing a converging lens in the path of parallel
explain the phenomena of origin of spectra. beam does not introduce any extra path differences
in a parallel beam. Rather it gives a more intense
5. (b) Huyghen’s principle gives us a geometrical method of
pattern on the screen.
tracing a wavefront.
6. (c) Converging spherical D
25. (b) As 8000A º and 4000 Å and i.e.
7. (c) r v
d
8. (b) Phase reversal occurs i.e. phase change = takes place
on reflection, because glass is much denser than water. , therefore red is roughly double of violet .
9. (c) Emerging wavefront will be spherical from convex
lens and plane wavefront from the prism. 26. (b) For minima, phase diff. = odd integral multiple of
10. (b) = (2 n – 1) .
11. (d) When path difference = n (n = 0, 1, 2...) the
D
resultant intensity is 4I0. 27. (a)
d
12. (c)
28. (d) Interference pattern will be invisible, because red and
13. (c) Highly coherent sources are produced using laser. green are complimentary colours.
14. (d) A prism cannot produce coherent sources. 29. (a) There will be general illumination as super imposing
15. (a) Coherence is a measure of capability of producing waves do not have constant phase difference.
interference by waves.
16. (b) For coherent sources is same and phase is also same 30. (b) Wavelength/frequency must be same and phase
or phase diff. is constant. difference must be constant for producing sustained
17. (a) According to wave theory, intensity of light is directly interference.
proportional to square of amplitude. 31. (a)
32. (b) Width of central maximum in diffraction pattern due
D
18. (a) As .
d 2 D
to single slit = where is the wavelength, D
As for violet is least, therefore, fringe nearest to d
central achromatic fringe will be violet. is the distance between screen and slit and a is the
slit width.
max min
19. (a) Fringe visibility (V) is given by V . As the slit width a increases, width of central
max min maximum becomes sharper or narrower. As same
20. (c) Laser light is coherent, because it consists of energy is distributed over a smaller area. therefore
coordinated (parallel) waves of exactly same central maximum becomes brigther.
wavelength (i.e monochromatic wave). 33. (d) When red light is replaced by blue light the
21. (a) Bright fringes are yellow and dark fringes are black. diffraction bands become narrow and crowded.
22. (b) This time he saw a number of dark lines, regularly 34. (b) At the centre, all colours meet in phase, hence central
spaced; the first clear proof that light added to light fringe is white.
can produce darkness.
WAVE OPTICS 409
35. (c) Because both source & screen are effectively at infinite Case II. A light ray emerging out of convex lens
distance from the diffractive device when a point source is placed at its focus.
36. (d) Diffraction on a single slit is equivalent to interference
of light from infinite number of coherent sources
contained in the slit.
37. (c) When the wavelength of light used is comparable
Point Light rays
with the separation between two points, the image source
of the object will be a diffraction pattern whose at focus Incident Refracted
size will be
wavefronts wavefronts
1.22
= Case III A portion of the wavefront of light from a
D
distant star intercepted by the Earth.
where = wavelength of light used
D = diameter of the objective
Two objects whose images are closer than this Light
distance, will not be resolved. from
distant
38. (d) As we know Bresster angle tan iB = 4 tan iB = 1.5 star
i B = tan–1(1.5)
39. (d) Wavefronts
40. (d) : The phenomenon of polarization confirmed that 52. (b) For a point emitting waves uniformly in all direction,
light is a transverse wave. the locus of points which have the same amplitude
41. (d) In the case of linearly polarised light the magnitued
and vibrate in the same phase are spheres. But at a
of th electric field vector varies periodically with
large distance from the source, the small portion of
time.
the sphere can be considered as plane wave as
shown in Figure
42. (b) Brewster’s law is given by tan i
43. (c) Light waves can be polarized because they are
transverse in nature.
44. (b) Light transmitted by nicol prism is plane polarised.
45. (c) Such substances rotate the plane of polarised light.
46. (a) Polaroid glass polarises light reducing the light
intensity to half its original value.
47. (b) Angle between plane of vibration and plane of
polarisation is 90º.
53. (a) When incident wavefronts passes through a prism,
48. (a) Plane of vibration is r to direction of propagation then lower portion of wavefront (B) is delayed
and also r to plane of polarisation. Therefore, angle resulting in a tilt. So, time taken by light to reach A’
between plane of polarisation and direction of from A is equal to the time taken to reach B’ from B.
propagation is 0º. 54. (b)
49. (c) At Brewster’s angle, only the reflected light is plane 55. (a) When interfering sources have same frequency and
polarised, but transmitted light is partially polarised. their phase difference remains constant with time,
50. (a) interference is sustained (stayed for a finite time
interval).
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS If amplitudes are of nearby values then contrast will
be more pronounced.
51. (b) Case I A light rays diverging from a point source.
56. (c) The double slit interference pattern has a central

maxima followed by minima. The dark and bright
Spherical
fringes are of equal width and intensity.
Point source wavefronts
57. (a) 58. (d)
59. (d) Diffraction is a general characteristics exhibited by
all types of waves.
EBD_7208
410 WAVE OPTICS
60. (c) The wavelength of sound is comparable to the size MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
of the obstacles so the effects of diffraction can be
observed and hence we can listen to the sound on 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (a)
the other side of the wall, while wavelength of light
is much smaller (visible light 4000A° to 7800A°) than DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
the obstacle size so the diffraction effects cannot be
70. (d) It will be concentric circles.
observed and we cannot see through the wall.
3
61. (c) As is clear from the relation. 71. (c) Angular width = 10 (given)
d
D No. of fringes within 0.12° will be
Fringe with =
d 0.12 2
n [2.09]
D = distance between the slit and screen 360 10 3
The number of bright spots will be three.
d = distance between the slits.
72. (c) Wavelength for which maximum obtained at the hole
Smaller the ‘d’ higher will be the value of fringe has the maximum intensity on passing. So,
width. n D
x
0.61 d
62. (c) Since,
a xd 1 10 3 0.5 10 3 1 10 6 1000nm
=
where = angle subtended by the image of the nD n 50 10 2 n n
object on focus of the length. n = 1, = 1000 nm Not in the given range
= wavelength of light used n = 2, = 500nm
73. (c) The nearest white spot will be at P, the central maxima.
a = aperture of the objective lens
2d d d
For ‘ ’ to be small, ‘a’ must be large y
3 2 6
63. (d) The magnification produced by a microscope
v D
m= = 2 tan 2d/3 d/2
f f P
y O
64. (c)
65. (c)
I. For diffraction pattern, the size of slit should be
74. (d) Light waves coming out of two independent sources
comparable to the wavelength of wave used.
do not have any fixed phase difference as they
II. Diffraction phenomenon is commonly observed in
undergo phase changes in time of the order of 10–10s.
our daily routine in case of sound waves (Which is Hence, the sources are incoherent and the intensities
a longitudinal wave) because wavelength of sound on the screen just add up. Hence no interference
waves is large (0.1 – 1m). However, as wavelength fringer will be observed on the screen.
of light waves is extremely small (10–6 – 10–7 m), we 75. (c) When the source of light shifts by angle then
do not observe diffraction of light in daily routine. central fringe appears at angle – as source S , the
III. Diffraction is a wave phenomenon. It is observed in mid point Q, and the central fringe are in a straight
electromagnetic and longitudinal waves as well. line.
66. (d) A polaroid consists of long chain molecules aligned 76. (c) The position of all the bands depends on the
in a particular direction. The electric vectors wavelength, higher the wavelength, wider is the
(associated with the propagating light wave) along band.
the direction of the aligned molecules get obsorbed. 77. (c) In Fraunhoffer diffraction, for minimum intensity,
Thus, if an unpolarised light wave is incident on
x m
such a polaroid then the light wave will get linearly 2
polarised with the electric vector oscillating along a For first minimum, m = 1
direction perpendicular to the aligned molecules;
this direction is known as the pass-axis of the x
2
polaroid. 78. (c)
WAVE OPTICS 411
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS or, 5a1 – 5a2 = 3a1 + 3a2 or 2a1 = 8a2
2
79. (b) 80. (a) a a1 I1
or, 1 4 or 16 .
a2 a2 I2
D
81. (a) . When d 0, , and so fringes will not
d
9
589 10 3 1
be seen over the screen. 96. (c) sin 3
10 0.0001
82. (d) For interference, the waves may be of unequal d 0.589 10 1000
intensities.
83. (c) Interference will take place in green light only. 97. (d) Intensity I 1 + cos where = phase difference
84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b)
IP 1 cos 0 1 1 2
D = =
88. (a) As and wavelength of yellow light is shorter IQ 1 0 1
d 1 cos
2
than red, so fringe width is narrower for yellow light.
89. (a) 90. (b) 98. (b) Here 1 = 540 nm; 1 = 9.0 mm; 2 = 8.1 mm, 2 =?
For constant D and d,
2 2 2 1 8.1
= = 540 = 486 nm
2 9.0
1 1 1
Plane WF
91. (b) µ increases 99. (b) As optical path SB of lower slit is increased, therefore,
(Light bends Vel decreases
upwards) fringe pattern shifts somewhat downwards.
Refracted
WF d
100. (c) x , where is path difference between two
D
92. (d) : If source are coherent IR = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos waves.
I0 = I + I + 2I cos 0° = 4I 2
If source are incoherent, phase difference .
4I I0
IR = I1 + I2 + 2I = Let a = amplitude at the screen due to each slit.
2 2
I0 = k (2a)2 = 4ka2, where k is a constant.
93. (d) : Resultant amplitude, For phase difference ,
A= A 21 A 22 2 A1 A2 cos amplitude = A = 2acos( /2).
Here, A1 = A2 1 cm, = 3 rad [Since, a 2 a 12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos , here a1 = a2]

A= 12 12 2 1 1 cos 3 Intensity I,
= 2 2 ( 1) = 0 x
kA 2 k(4a 2 ) cos 2 ( / 2) 0 cos
2
I1 1
94. (b) I2
I1 = k and I2 = 4k
4 xd x
2 2
0 cos . 0 cos
D
2 I1I 2 2 k 4k
Fringe visibility V = = 0.8
( I1 I 2 ) (4 4k ) n D
101. (a) y=
d
2
Imax 25 a1 a 2 25 n1 1 = n2 2
95. (d) or
Imin 9 a1 a 2 9 n1 × 12000 × 10–10 = n2 × 10000 × 10–10
where a denotes amplitude. or, n (12000 × 10–10) = (n + 1) (10000 × 10–10)
n=5
a1 a 2 5
or 5a1 5a 2 3a1 3a 2
a1 a 2 3 12000 10 10
m; 10000 10 10
m
1 2
EBD_7208
412 WAVE OPTICS
NOTE : This formula is applicable when I1= I2.
Here 3
2
I 2 3 3
cos
I0 6 2 4
104. (d) Let a1 = a, I1 = a12 = a2

a2 = 2a, I2 = a22 = 4a2
n 1D
Hence, ycommon I2 = 4I1
d
Ir = a12 + a22 + 2a1a2 cos
5 12000 10 10 2 = I1 I2 2 I1I2 cos

d 2 mm and D 2m
3
2 10 Ir = I1 4I1 2 4I12 cos
= 5 × 12 × 10–4 m
Ir 5I1 4I1 cos … (1)
= 60 × 10–4 m
= 6 × 10–3m = 6 mm Now, Imax (a1 a 2 ) 2 (a 2a)2 9a 2
102. (b) For constructive interference d sin n Imax
Imax 9I1 I1
9
n
given d 2 sin Substituting in equation (1)
2
5Imax 4Imax
n 0,1, 1,2, 2 hence five maxima are possible Ir cos
9 9
103. (a) For path difference of , the phase difference is 2
Imax
Ir 5 4 cos
, the phase difference is 9
For path difference of
6
Imax
Ir 5 8cos 2 4
2 /6 9 2
3
Imax
Ir 1 8cos 2
9 2
Intensity I I1 I 2 2 I1 I 2 cos
3 105. (d) At the area of total darkness minima will occur for
both the wavelength.
I I1 I2 I1 I2
(2n 1) (2m 1)
when I1= I2 = I' (say) then I = 3I' 1 2
2 2
2 (2n 1) 1 2(m 1) 2
Imax I1 I2
( 2n 1) 560 7
2 2 or
I' I' 2 I' 4I' (2m 1) 400 5
or 10 n = 14 m + 2
T 3 byinspection for m = 2, n = 3
I max 4 for m =7, n = 10
the distance between them will be the distance
ALTERNATIVELY : The intensity of light at any point between such points
of the screen where the phase different due to light
D 1 ( 2 n 2 1) – ( 2 n1 – 1)
coming from the two slits is is given by i.e., s
d 2
put n2 = 10, n1 = 3
I Io cos2 where to is the maximum intensity..
2 on solving we get, s = 28 mm
WAVE OPTICS 413
106. (c) Let P be the point on the central maxima whose 7
intensity is one fourth of the maximum intensity. 108. (c) D 5 6.5 10 1 4
x5 n 32.5 10 m
d 3
For interference we know that 10
I I1 I 2 2 I1I 2 cos 1D 5 6.5 10 7 1

x3 (2 n 1)
Where I is the intensity at P and I1, I2 are the intensity 2 d 2 10 3
of light originating from A and B respectively and is 4
16.25 10 m
the phase difference at P.
x5 x3 16.25 10 4 m 1.625 mm.
D 3 3D D
109. (c) 27 .
P d d/3 d
No. of fringes 1/ 3 d
A .
81 D
d
s in 110. (b) The position of nth dark fringe. So position of first
B d
dark fringe in x1 D / 2d .
d = 20 cm, D = 0.1mm, = 5460 Å, x1 = 0.16
In YDSE, I1 = I2 = I and Imax = 4 I 111. (c) When the arrangement is dipped in water;
We are concentrating at a point where the intensity
x 3
is one fourth of the max intensity. / x 0.75x
I = I + I +2 I cos 4/3 4
1 2 112. (a) As
cos
2 3 5
fringe width becomes times,
[P1 note that we take the least value of the angle as the 4
point is in central maxima]
For a phase difference of 2 , the path difference 4
No, of fringes 10 8
is 5
2 0.133
For a phase difference of , the path difference is 113. (b) 0.1 cm
3 1.33
2 114. (d) Given: D = 2m; d = 1 mm = 1 × 10– 3 m

= 600 nm = 600 × 10– 6 m
2 3 3
Width of central bright fringe (= 2 )
But the path difference (in terms of P and Q) is d sin
as shown in fig. 2 D 2 600 10 6 2
= m
d 3
1 10
d sin sin
3 3d = 2.4 × 10– 3 m = 2.4 mm
115. (c) For path difference , phase difference
1 = 2 rad.
sin
3d
For path difference , phase difference
107. (b) The intensity I is given as 4
I Io cos 2 where Io is the peak intensity = rad.

2 2
As K = 4I0 so intensity at given point where path
Io Io
Here I , I o cos 2 (2n 1)
2 2 2 2 difference is
4
For a phase difference of 2 the path difference is
2
For a phase difference of (2n+1) the path K = 4I0 cos cos cos 45º
2 4 4
K
difference is (2n 1) . option (b) is correct. = 2I0
4 2
EBD_7208
414 WAVE OPTICS
116. (d) Here, distance between two slits, 120. (a)
d = 1mm = 10–3m
distance of screen from slits, D = 1 m D
121. (d) Fringe width
wavelength of monochromatic light used, d
= 500nm = 500 × 10–9m
Where D is the distance between slit and the screen,
width of each slit a = ?
d is the distance between two slits, is the wavelength
2 D
Width of central maxima in single slit pattern = of light.
a
D D
Fringe width in double slit experiment
d d
10 D 2 D
So, required condition 3 3 3 5
d a d 10 0.03 10 10 3 10
or,
D 2 2
d 1 5 10 5 10
a 10–3 m = 0.2 mm
5D 5 = 6 × 10–7 m = 6000 Å.
117. (d) Linear width of central maxima
122. (a) Where n is equivalent number of fringe by which the
2D centre fringe is shifted due to mica sheet
= D(2q) = 2Dq
a
6
( 1) t (1.5 1) 6 10
n 5
7
q
6 10 m 6000 Å
q
123. (d) The distance between the first dark fringe on either
side of the central bright fringe
D
= width of central maximum
118. (d) Let the two positive numbers be ‘a’ and ‘b’. 2D 2 2 600 10 9
Therefore, = 3
a 10
a : b = 3+ 2 2 :3 2 2
= 2.4 × 10–3 m = 2.4 mm
a b 6
A. M. = 3 124. (d) It is a one of Fraunhoffer diffraction from single slit. so
2 2
for bright fringe where a is the width of slit.
G. M. = ab 1 1
A.M 3 a sin (2 n 1)
= A.M : G.M = 3 : 1. 2
G.M 1
119. (b) For path difference , phase
2 a sin 2 1.2 10 5 0.0906
2 2 2n 1 2 1 1
difference = 2 Q x . 2
I = I0 + I0 + 2I0 cos 2 10
7248 10 m 7248Å.
= 4I0 ( cos 2 1)
125. (a) The angular width of central maxi. is
For x , phase difference = 2 6328 10 10

4 2 2 2 radian .
a 4
2 10
I' I1 I 2 2 I1 I 2 cos
2
6 180
6328 10 degree 0.36º
I I
If I1 = I2 = I0 then I ' 2I0 2.
4 2
WAVE OPTICS 415
126. (a) Width of central maximum

132. (b) I = I 0 cos 2
10
2 D 2 6250 10 0.5
4
I0
a 2 10 Intensity of polarized light =
2
3125 10 6 m 312.5 10 3 cm. Intensity of untransmitted light
I0 I0
= I0
2 2
y2sin =2
a
y1sin = /a 45° B
a o sin I0
=0 133. (c) (I0/2)
Intensity y1sin = – /a
IR
(unpolarised)
D y2sin =–2
a
A
Screen position of various minima for Fraunhoffer Relation between intensities
diffraction pattern of a single slit of width a.
127. (b) According to principle of diffraction, a sin = n I0
IR cos 2 (45 )
where, n = order of secondary minimum 2
or, a sin 30° = 1 × (6500 × 10–-10)
or, a = 1.3 × 10–6 m, or, a = 1.3 micron. I0 1 I0
128. (b) According to geometrical optics, a beam of parallel 2 2 4
light falling on convex lens will get focused to a 134. (c) i p = , therefore, angle between reflected and
point. However because of diffraction the beam gets refracted rays is 90º.
r0 – 0.61 f 135. (b) Intensity of polarised light transmitted from 1st
focused to a spot of radius
a polariser,
I1 = I0 cos2
129. (a) a sin n
1
ax but (cos2 )av
3 2
f
1 32 2
(since is very small so sin tan x/f ) So I1 I0 16Wm
2 2
3 3
or
ax 0.3 10 5 10 136. (a) When angle of incidence i is equal to angle of
3f 3 1 polarisation i.e, then reflected light is completely plane-
polarised whose vibration is perpendicular to plane of
7
5 10 m 5000 Å. incidence.
137. (c) Suppose intensity of unpolarised light = 100.
2n 1 D
130. (c) x Intensity of polarised light from first nicol prism
2a
0 1
4 1D 100 50
For red light, x 6500Å 2 2
2a
According to law of Malus,
6 1D
For other light, x Å 2
2a 1
0 cos 2 50 (cos 60 º )2 50 12.5
x is same for each. 2
5 138. (a) According to law of Malus

5 6500 7 6500 4642.8 Å.
7 2
2 2 1 0
0 cos 0 (cos 45º ) 0
131. (d) The angle of incidence for total polarization is given 2 2
1
by tan n tan n
EBD_7208
416 WAVE OPTICS
139. (d) By principle of polarization, µ = tan p

140. (b) aµ = tan
g P where P = polarising angle.
or µ = tan 54.74° or µ = 1.414 or, aµg = tan 60°
For an equilateral prism, A = 60° c
or, 3
vg
A 60
sin sin c 3 108
2 2 or, vg 3 108 ms 1
sin A / 2 sin 60 / 2 3 3
141. (d) According to malus law, intensity of emerging beam is
given by,
1.141 1 60 I = I0cos2
or, sin 1.414 2
2 2 Now, IA' = I A cos230º
IB ' I B cos 2 60º
2 60 1 60
or, sin or sin As I A ' IB '
2 2 2 2
3 1
IA IB
60 60 4 4
or, sin 45° = sin or 45
2 2 IA 1
IB 3
26
DUAL NATURE OF
RADIATION AND MATTER
(a) frequency, energy
(b) shape, volume
1. Cathode ray consists of (c) energy, frequency
(a) photons (b) electrons (d) energy, momentum
8. The wave nature of light was established by
(c) protons (d) -particles
(i) Maxwell’s equations (ii) Fraunhoffer’s lines
2. A discharge takes place between the two electrodes on
applying the electric field to the gas in the discharge (iii) Hertz experiment (iv) Einstein’s theory
tube. The cause of this fluorescence was attributed (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only
to (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (iii) and (iv) only
(a) the radiations which appeared to be coming from the 9. The work-function of a metal is
anode (a) the minimum current required to take out electron
(b) the radiation which appeared to be coming from the from the metal surface
cathode (b) the maximum frequency required to take out electron
(c) the protons coming from the cathode from the metal surface
(d) the protons coming from the anode (c) the minimum amount of energy required to take out
the electron from the metal surface
e (d) None of these
3. The presently accepted value of charge/mass is
m 10. The work function of a metal is independent of
(a) 1.66 10–19 c/kg (b) 9.1 1011 c/kg (i) nature of the surface of the metal
(c) 1.76 1011 c/kg (d) 9.1 1019 c/kg (ii) dimensions of the metal
4. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not (iii) properties of the metal
take place? (iv) abundance of the metal
(a) Thermionic emission (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(b) X-rays emission (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
(c) Photoelectric emission 11. The theory of quantisation of electric charge was given
(d) Secondary emission by
5. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the incident light (a) William Crookes (b) J. J. Thomson
has more than a certain minimum (c) R.A. Millikan (d) Wilhelm Hallwachs
(a) power (b) wavelength
12. In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals,
(c) intensity (d) frequency if the incident light has a certain minimum
6. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit
(a) wavelength (b) frequency
photoelectrons ?
(c) amplitude (d) angle of incidence
(a) UV radiations (b) Infrared radiation
(c ) Radio waves (d) Microwaves 13. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible
7. Particle like behavior of light arises from the fact that each light?
quanta of light has definite ...X... and a fixed value of ...Y.. (a) Caesium (b) Sodium
just like a particle, Here, X and Y refer to (c) Rubidium (d) Cadmium
EBD_7208
418 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
14. A photosensitive substance emits _____when illuminated 23. In a photon-particle collision, the quantity that does not
by light. remain conserved is
(a) only protons (b) only neutrons (a) total energy (b) total momentum
(c) electrons and protons (d) only electrons (c) number of photons (d) None of these
15. The photoelectric current does not depend upon the 24. Of the following properties, the photon does not possess
(a) rest mass (b) momentum
(i) frequency of incident light
(c) energy (d) frequency
(ii) work function of the metal 25. It is essential to consider light as a stream of photons to
(iii) stopping potential explain
(iv) intensity of incident light (a) diffraction of light (b) refraction of light
(c) photoelectric effect (d) reflection of light
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
26. Photoelectric effect was discovered by
(c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only (a) Hertz (b) Hallwachs
16. The stopping potential is directly related to (c) Lenard (d) Millikan
(a) the work function of the metal 27. The momentum of a photon of wavelength is
(b) intensity of incident radiation (a) h (b) h/ (c) /h (d) h/c
28. The photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface are such
(c) the saturation current for the given frequency
that their velocity
(d) the kinetic energy gained by the photoelectrons (a) is zero for all
17. The wave theory of light does not explain (b) is same for all
(a) polarisation (b) diffraction (c) lies between zero and infinity
(d) lies between zero and a finite maximum
(c) photocurrent (d) interference
29. Photoelectric effect shows
18. Photoelectric effect can be explained by (a) wave like behaviour of light
(a) wave theory of light (b) paritcle like behaviour of light
(b) Bohr’s theory (c) both wavelike and paticle like behaviour
(c) quantum theory of light (d) neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light
30. A photoelectric cell converts
(d) corpuscular theory of light (a) light energy into heat energy
19. In Einstein’s picture of Photoelectric emission, the (b) light energy to sound energy
photoelectric emission does not take place by (c) light energy into electric energy
(a) continuous emission of energy from radiation (d) electric energy into light energy
(b) continuous absorption of energy from radiation 31. Light of a particular frequency is incident on a metal
surface. When the intensity of incident radiation is
(c) discrete absorption of energy from radiation
increased, the photoelectric current
(d) discrete emission of energy from radiation (a) decreases
20. The particle nature of light is not confirmed by (b) increases
(a) photoelectric effect (c) remains unchanged
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
(b) scattering of X-rays by electrons
32. The photoelectric effect is based on the law of conservation
(c) diffraction of electrons of
(d) compton effect (a) momentum (b) energy
21. Photons are deflected by (c) angular momentum (d) mass
(a) electric field only 33. The photoelectric effect can be understood on the basis of
(a) wave theroy of light only
(b) magnetic field only (b) electromagnetic theory of light only
(c) electromagnetic field (c) quantum theory of light only
(d) None of these (d) None of these
22. Electrically, photons are 34. When light is incident on a metal surface the maximum
kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(a) positively charged
(a) vary with intensity of light
(b) negatively charged (b) vary with frequency of light
(c) neutral (c) vary with speed of light
(d) strongly charged, may be positive or negative (d) vary irregularly
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER 419
35. The maximum energy of electrons released in a photocell is 44. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is E k h . In this
independent of
(a) the frequency of the incident light equation Ek refers to
(b) the intensity of the incident light (a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(c) the nature of the cathode (b) mean kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(d) All of the above (c) maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
36. Einstein’s photoelectric equation states that (d) minimum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
h = W0 + Ek. 45. A photon will have less energy, if its
In this equatin, Ek refers to the (a) amplitude is higher
(a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons (b) frequency is higher
(b) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons (c) wavelength is longer
(c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(d) wavelength is shorter
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
46. The energy of photon of wavelength is
37. In the photoeletric effect, electrons are emitted
(a) c /h (b) h /c
(a) at a rate that is proportional to the amplitude of the
(c) hc/ (d) c/h
incident radiation
47. A photo sensitive metal is not emitting photo-electrons
(b) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency
of the incident radiation when irradiated. It will do so when threshold is crossed. To
(c) at a rate that is independent of the emitter cross the threshold we need to increase
(d) only if the frequency of the incident radiations is above (a) intensity (b) frequency
a certain threshold value (c) wavelength (d) None of these
38. The minimum energy required to eject an electron, from the 48. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of
metal surface is called the kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons from a
(a) atomic energy (b) mechanical energy metal Vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives as
(c) electrical energy (d) workfunction straight the whose slope
39. The work function for photoelectric effect (a) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the
(a) is different for different metals metal used
(b) is same for all metals (b) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(c) depends upon the intensity of incident light
(c) depends on the nature of the metal used
(d) depends upon the frequency of incident light
(d) is the same for the all metals and independent of the
40. Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which
intensity of the radiation
(a) photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of
49. ____ and _____ led to understanding of atomic structures.
electrons.
(b) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the (i) Fresnel diffraction
action of an electric field. (ii) cathode rays
(c) electrons come out of a metal with a constant velocity (iii) X-rays
(d) which depends on the frequency and intensity of (iv) electrons
incident light wave. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
41. A photoelectric cell is a device which
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(a) converts light into electricity
(b) converts electricity into light 50. A steel ball of mass m is moving with a kinetic energy K.
(c) stores light The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the ball is
(d) stores electricity
42. Einstein’s work on photoelectric effect provided support h h
(a) (b)
for the equation 2mK 2mK
(a) E = h (b) E = mc2
h
Rhc 1 (c) (d) None of these
(c) E (d) K.E. mv 2 2mK
n2 2
51. Electron volt (ev) is the unit of
43. Which of the following shows particle nature of light? (a) energy (b) potential
(a) Refraction (b) Interference (c) current (d) charge
(c) Polarization (d) Photoelectric effect
EBD_7208
52. In Heinrich Hertz’s experiment on the production of 59. In Davison-Germer experiment, an electron beam is incident
electromagnetic waves by means of spark discharge, it on a crystal. The reflected beam consists of
was observed that high voltage sparks across the (a) photons (b) protons
detector loop were _____ when the emitter plate was (c) x-rays (d) electrons
illuminated by _____ light
60. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of
(a) degraded, infra-red (b) degraded, ultraviolet
electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased
(c) enhanced, ultraviolet (d) enhanced, infra-red
53. The de Broglie wavelength corresponding to a particle of by
mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ accelerated from rest to a (a) increasing the potential difference between the anode
potential V is given by and filament
(b) increasing the filament current
h h
(a) (b) (c) decreasing the filament current
mqV 2mqV
(d) decreasing the potential difference between the anode
h h and filament
(c) (d)
2mqV 2mqV 2
54. For an electron accelerated from rest through a potential STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
V, the de Broglie wavelength associated will be 61. Which of the following is/are false regarding cathode
1.772 1.227 rays?
(a) nm (b) m
V V I. They produce heating effect
II. They don’t deflect in electric field
1.227 1.772 III. They cast shadow
(c) nm (d) µm
V V IV. They produce fluorescence
55. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, it is true (a) I only (b) II only
that (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) we can precisely specify the momentum and energy 62. Energy required by an electron for electron emission can
of an electron
be supplied to a free electron by
(b) we cannot precisely specify the momentum and
wavelength associated with an electron. I. hammering the metal surface
(c) we cannot precisely specify the momentum and II. heating the metal surface
position of electron at the same time. III. applying electric field
(d) we can precisely specify the momentum and position IV. applying magnetic field
of electron at the same time. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
56. If a photon and an electron have same de-Broglie (a) Only I (b) I, II and IV
wavelength, then (c) II, III and IV (d) II and III
(a) both have same kinetic energy 63. Experimental study of photoelectric effect shows that
(b) proton has more K.E. than electron
(c) electron has more K.E. than proton I. Photocurrent intensity of light.
(d) both have same velocity II. saturation current intensity of light.
57. The graph of V0 (stopping potential) vs (frequency) is III. photoemission occurs only at frequency greater
than threshold frequency.
(a) a straight line with slope
0 IV. photoemission is an instantaneous process.
e The correct statements are
h (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(b) a straight line with slope
0 64. According to photoelectric equation Kmax = h – 0,
The photoelectric emission will not be possible if
h I. Kmax is negative II.
(c) a straight line with slope 0 >
e III. Kmax is positive IV. 0 <
h (a) I and II (b) I and IV
(d) a straight line with slope (c) III and II (d) III and IV
e
65. Electromagnetic radiations with high intensity have
58. Which of the following experiment confirms the wave
nature of electron? I. high amplitude II. high frequency
(a) Millikan’s oil drop experiment III. high wavelength IV. high speed
(b) Davisson and Germer experiment Which of the above is/are correct?
(c) Young’s double slit experiment (a) I only (b) II and III
(d) Geiger-Marsden experiment (c) I and II (d) IV only
66. Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis From graph we conclude that
of photoelectric theory? I. maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons varies
I. Instantaneous emission of photoelectrons linearly with frequency.
II. Existence of threshold frequency II. a frequency lower than a certain frequency
III. Sufficiently intense beam of radiation can emit photoemission is not possible.
photoelectrons III. density of metal A is more than that of B.
IV. Existence of stopping potential
IV. metal A contains more electrons than that of B.
(a) III and IV (b) II, III and IV
(a) I and II (b) I and IV
(c) III only (d) II only
(c) III and IV (d) II and III
67. To observe the effect of intensity of light on photocurrent,
I. collector is maintained at positive potential with 71. Which of the following statements are true?
respect to emitter. I. In the interaction with matter, radiation behaves as
II. frequency of incident light is kept fixed. if it is made up of particle called photons.
III. accelerating potential is fixed. II. Each photon has energy E = hv and momentum
IV. distance of surce from emitter is kept constant. P = hv/c.
Which of the above statements are correct ? III. photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected
(a) I and II (b) II and III by electric and magnetic field.
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and III
IV. In a photon particle collision, photon number is
68. From the graph it is clear that
conserved.
Stopping (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
Metal A
potential
(V0) Metal B MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
v > v0
v0 v’0 v > v’0
0 Frequency of incident radiation (v) 72. Match the Columns I and II.
Column I Column II
I. the stopping potential varies linearly with the (A) Field emission (1) Heat is supplied to the
frequency of incident radiation for the given metal. metal surface
II. the work function of metal A is greater than that for
metal B. (B) Photoelectric (2) Electric field is applied
III. the stopping potential is zero below the minimum cut emission to the metal surface
off frequency. (C) Thermionic emission (3) Light of suitable
IV. the stopping potential is independent of the intensity frequency illuminates
of incident radiation. the metal surface
(a) I and III only (b) I, III and IV
(c) II and IV only (d) I, II and IV (D) Secondary emission (4) Striking fast moving
69. Consider the following statements and select the correct electrons on the metal
Statement(s). surface.
I. The stopping potential depends on the nature of (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
emitter material (b) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (4)
II. The stopping potential depends on the frequency of (c) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (2)
incident light. (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
III. The stopping potential depends on the intensity of 73. Column I Column II
incident radiation.
(A) Electromagnetism (1) Hertz
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (B) Detection of (2) Roentgen
70. Variation of stopping potential V0 with frequency v of electromagnetic waves
incident radiation for photosensitive materials A and B are (C) X-rays (3) J.J. Thomson
shown.
(D) Electron (4) Maxwell
(a) (A) 1; (B) 4; (C) 3; (D) 2
Stopping
potential
A
B
(b) (A) 2; (B) 3; (C) 1; (D) 4

tal
tal
Me
Me
(c) (A) 3; (B) 2; (C) 4; (D) 1

v0 (d) (A) 4; (B) 1; (C) 2; (D) 3
v10 Frequency of
incident radiation
EBD_7208
74. Column I Column II 77. In Hallwach’s experiment on photoelectric emission with
h following setup, it was observed that
(A) Einstein Photoelectric (1) = p UV light Zinc plate
equation
(B) de-Broglie relation (2) Kmax = hv – 0
(C) Threshold frequency (3) x p h
Photoelectrons
0
(D) Heisenberg’s (4) v =
h
uncertainty principle
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) Electroscope
(c) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (2) The zinc plate became _____ if initially negatively
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1) charged.
75. Match the quantities given in column I with their (a) positively charged (b) negatively charged
definitions in column II. (c) uncharged (d) more positively charged
Column I Column II 78. The zinc plate became _____ if initially positively
(A) Photocurrent (1) The minimum energy required charged (see fig. above).
by electron to escape from (a) positively charged (b) more positively charged
the metal surface (c) negatively charged (d) uncharged
(B) Saturation (2) The minimum retarding 79. In the given graph of photoelectric current versus
current potential collector plate potential the quantities (A), (B), and (C)
(C) Stopping (3) The number of photoelectric represent
potential emitted per second
Photocurrent
(D) Work function (4) The maximum number of
photoelectrons emitted per
second
B
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (2)
C A o
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS Collector plate potential
(i) A (1) Retarding potential
76. In the given set-up, the photoelectric current cannot be (ii) B (2) Stopping potential
varied by varying the (iii) C (3) Saturation current
Quartz (a) (i) – 2; (ii) – 1; (iii) – 3
window (b) (i) – 2; (ii) – 3; (iii) – 1
S (c) (i) – 3; (ii) – 2; (iii) – 1
(d) (i) – 1; (ii) – 2; (iii) – 3
Evacuated 80. In a photoelectric experiment, anode potential (v) is plotted
glass tube against plate current (I)
Photosensitive
plate
Electrons I
C B
A
Commutator
V
V
(a) A and B will have different intensities while B and C
will have different frequencies
+– (b) B and C will have different intensities while A and C
(a) potential of plate A w.r.t. the plate C will have different frequencies
(b) intensity of incident light (c) A and B will have different intensities while A and C
(c) material of plate A will have equal frequencies
(d) material of plate C (d) A and B will have equal intensities while B and C will
have different frequencies
81. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation I I
of maximum kinetic energy (EK) of the emitted electrons
with frequency in photoelectric effect correctly ?
EK EK (c) (d)
O O
(a) (b)

EK EK
(c) (d) have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
82. For a given photosensitive material and frequency (>
threshold frequency) of incident radiation, the
photoelectric current varies with the intensity of incident
light as
Current Current 85. Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted
electrons do not have same kinetic energy.
Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive surface of a
metal consists of different wavelength then energy acquired
(a) (b) by electrons absorbing photons of different wavelengths
shall be different.
Intensity Intensity 86. Assertion : Th ough light of a sin gle frequency
Current (monochromatic) is incident on a metal, the energies of
Current emitted photoelectrons are different.
Reason : The energy of electrons emitted from inside the
metal surface, is lost in collision with the other atoms in the
(c) (d) metal.
87. Assertion : Th e phtoelectr ons produced by a
Intensity monochromatic light beam incident on a metal surface have
Intensity
83. The maximum kinetic energy (Emax) of photoelectrons a spread in their kinetic energies.
emitted in a photoelectric cell varies with frequency ( ) as Reason : The work function of the metal is its characteristics
shown in the graph. The slope of the graph is equal to property.
(a) charge of the electron E max 88. Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current increases with
the increase in frequency of incident light.
e Reason : Energy of incident photons increases with increase
(b) of the electron
m in frequency and as a result photoelectric current increases.
89. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work
(c) work function of the emitter
function is small.
(d) Plank’s constant 0 Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold
84. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The frequency.
wavelength of the light falling on the cathode is gradually 90. Assertion : The photon behaves like a particle.
changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as Reason : If E and P are the energy and momentum of the
follows
photon, then p E /c .
I I 91. Assertion : In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a
photon is incident on an electron from one direction and
(a) (b) the phtoelectron is emitted almost in the opposite direction.
It violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
O O Reason :It does not violate the principle of conservation of
linear momentum.
EBD_7208
92. Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity always emit 102. A photon of 1.7 × 10–13 joule is absorbed by a material
equal number of photons in any time interval. under special circumstances. The correct statement is
Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal (a) Electrons of the atom of absorbed material will go the
number of photons in any time interval. higher energy states
(b) Electron and positron pair will be created
93. Assertion : Two photons of equal wavelength must have
(c) Only positron will be produced
equal linear momentum.
(d) Photoelectric effect will occur and electron will be
Reason : Two photons of equal linear momentum will have produced
equal wavelength. 103. The frequency and work function of an incident photon are
94. Assertion : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted v and 0. If v0 is the threshold frequency then necessary
from metal surface does not depend on the intensity of condition for the emission of photoelectron is
incident photon. v0
(a) v < v0 (b) v
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is 2
not possible with frequency of incident photons below the (c) v v0 (d) None of these
threshold frequency. 104. If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron,
an alpha-particle and a proton, each having the same
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS de-Broglie wavelength, then
(a) E1 > E3 > E2 (b) E2 > E3 > E1
95. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential for the (c) E1 > E2 > E3 (d) E1 = E2 = E3
incident light of wavelength 4000Å is 2 volt. If the 105. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons,
wavelength be changed to 3000 Å, the stopping potential each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron of aluminium, then
will be emission of electrons
(a) 2 V (b) zero (a) will be possible
(c) less than 2 V (d) more than 2 V (b) will not be possible
96. 4eV is the energy of incident photon and the work function (c) Data is incomplete
is 2eV. The stopping potential will be (d) Depends upon the density of the surface
(a) 2V (b) 4V (c ) 6 V (d) 2 2 V 106. The magnitude of the de-Broglie wavelength ( ) of electron
(e), proton (p), neutron (n) and -particle ( ) all having the
97. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is
4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface is same energy of 1 MeV, in the increasing order will follow
the sequence
(a) 4125 Å (b) 3000 Å (c) 6000 Å (d) 2062 Å
98. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m (a) e, p, n, (b) e, n, p,
away. When the same source of light is placed 2 m away, the (c) , n, p, e (d) p, e, , n
number of electrons emitted by photocathode are reduced by 107. The potential difference that must be applied to stop the
a factor of fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4 work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls
99. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of on it, must be
wavelength 200nm can be stopped before travelling 1m in (a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V
the direction of uniform electric field of 4N/C. The work (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V
function of the surface is 108. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work
(a) 4 eV (b) 6.2 eV (c) 2 eV (d) 2.2 eV function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic
100. For intensity I of a light of wavelenght 5000Å the electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
photoelectron saturation current is 0.40 µA and stopping (a) 1.8 V (b) 1.2 V
potential is 1.36 V, the work function of metal is (c) 0.5 V (d) 2.3 V
(a) 2.47 eV (b) 1.36 eV 109. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is
(c) 1.10 eV (d) 0.43 eV 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident
101. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric
wavelength incident on the surface of a metal of work- emission is nearly
function is (a) 2 V (b) 3 V
(c) 5 V (d) 1 V
2( hc ) 2(hc ) 110. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV,
(a) (b)
m m successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface
of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of
2( hc ) 2( h ) the emitted electrons is
(c) (d)
m m (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 5
111. A source S1 is producing, 1015photons per second of 122. If the momentum of electron is changed by P, then the de
wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S2 is producing Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%.
1.02×1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100Å Then, The initial momentum of electron will be
(power of S2) to the (power of S1) is equal to : (a) 200 P (b) 400 P
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.04 (d) 0.98
112. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength P
(c) (d) 100 P
0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting 200
electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow
123. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it’s de-Broglie
light it emits per second is
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 wavelength changes by the factor
(c) 62 × 10 20 (d) 3 × 1019 1
113. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on (a) 2 (b)
2
hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state
1
irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential (c) 2 (d)
is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the 2
materials is 124. The energy of a photon of green light of wavelength 5000Å
(a) 4 × 1015 Hz (b) 5 × 1015 Hz is
(c) 1.6 × 10 Hz15 (d) 2.5 × 1015 Hz (a) 3.459 × 10–19 joule (b) 3.973 × 10–19 joule
114. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off (c) 4.132 × 10–19 joule (d) 8453 × 10–19 joule
frequency is . If radiation of frequency 2 impinges on the
metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted 125. If the energy of a photon is 10 eV, then its momentum is
electron will be (m is the electron mass) (a) 5.33 × 10–23 kg m/s (b) 5.33 × 10–25 kg m/s
–29
(c) 5.33 × 10 kg m/s (d) 5.33 × 10–27 kg m/s
(a) h /m (b) 2h / m
126. A proton and -particle are accelerated through the same
(c) 2 h /m (d) h / 2m potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength
115. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV will be
respectively. Then the ratio of the wavelengths is nearest
to (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 2 : 1
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 127. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and
116. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest
-particle having same kinetic energy is
wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission
from this substance is approximately (a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
(a) 310 nm (b) 400 nm
(c) 540 nm (d) 220 nm 128. A monochromatic source of light operating at 200 W emits
117. The work functions of Silver and Sodium are 4.6 and 2.3 eV, 4 × 1020 photons per second. Find the wavelength of light.
respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential (a) 400 mm (b) 200 nm
versus frequency plot for Silver to that of Sodium is (c) 4 × 10–10 Å (d) None of these
(a) 1 (b) 2 129. The wavelength e of an electron and p of a photon are of
(c) 4 (d) zero same energy E are related by
118. The photoelectric threshold of Tungsten is 2300Å. The
energy of the electrons ejected from the surface by ultraviolet (a) p e (b) p e
light of wavelength 1800Å is
(a) 0.15 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV 1 2
119. Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (c) p (d) p e
e
(workfunction 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in joule of the
faster electron emitted is approximately 130. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving with speed
(a) 3 × 10–21 (b) 3 × 10–19 of light c. The de-Broglie wavelength associated is given
(c) 3 × 10 –17 (d) 3 × 10–15 by
120. Radiations of intensity 0.5 W/m2 are striking a metal plate.
The pressure on the plate is h m0c
(a) 0.166 × 10–8 N/m2 (b) 0.332 × 10–8 N/m2 (a) (b) (c) zero (d)
m0c h
(c) 0.111 × 10–8 N/m2 (d) 0.083 × 10–8 N/m2
121. Radiations of two photon’s energy, twice and ten times the 131. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV which is equal to
work function of metal are incident on the metal surface that of a photon. The wavelength of photon is 2 and that
successsively. The ratio of maximum velocities of of proton is 1. The ratio of 2/ 1 is proportional to
photoelectrons emitted in two cases is (a) E2 (b) E1/2 (c) E–1 (d) E–1/2
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
EBD_7208
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 17. (c) Photocurrent can be explained with particle nature of
light.
1. (b) Cathode ray consists of electrons 18. (d)
2. (b) The fluorescence was caused due to the radiations 19. (b) The photoelectric emission takes place by discrete
appeared to be coming from the cathode called absorption of energy from radiation.
cathode rays. 20. (c) The diffraction of electrons show wave nature of
3. (c) 4. (b) electrons.
5. (d) For occurence of photoelectric effect, the incident light 21. (d) Photons are not deflected by electric and magnetic
should have frequency more than a certain minimum fields as they are electrically neutral.
which is called the threshold frequency (v0). 22. (c) Photons are quantum of light which are electrically
neutral.
1 23. (c) In a photon – particle collision, the number of
We have, mv 2 h v hv0
2 photons may not be conserved. The photon may be
For photoelectric effect emission > 0 absorbed or a new photon may be created.
where is the frequency of the incident light. 24. (a) Photon has no rest mass
6. (a) Emission of electron from a substance under the action 25. (c) Photoelectric effect can be explained by quantum
of light is photoelectric effect. Light must be at a nature of light i.e. light as a stream of photons.
sufficiently high frequency. It may be visible light, U.V, 26. (a) Hertz discovered first the photoelectric effect in 1887.
X-rays. So U.V. cause electron emission. 27. (b) 28. (d)
7. (d) Einstein arrived at the important result that the light 29. (b) Photoelectric effect is accounted by particle like
quantum can also be associated with momentum bahaviour of light (i.e. by quantum theory of light)
hv/c A definite value of energy as well as momentum 30. (c) Photoelectric cell converts light energy into electric
is a strong sign that the light quantum can be energy.
associated with a particle. This particle was later 31. (b) The photoelectric current Intensity of light.
named photon. 32. (b) Photoelectric effect is based on law of conservation
8. (c) The Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetism and of energy.
Hertz experiment on the generation and detection of 33. (c)
electromagnetic waves in 1887, strongly established 34. (b) Max. K.E. = h – W0 ; so Max. K.E.
the wave nature of light. 35. (c) Max. K.E. of phtoelectrons emitted is independent of
9. (c) A certain minimum amount of energy is required to intensity of incident light.
pull the electron out from the surface of the metal. 36. (c) In the given relation Ek stands for maximum K.E. of
This minimum energy required by an electron to emitted photoelectron.
escape from the metal surface is called the work 37. (d) Photoelectrons are emitted if the frequency of incident
function of the metal. light is greater than the threshold frequency.
10. (d) The work function of a metal depends upon the 38. (d) The minimum energy required for the emission of
properties of the metal and the nature of its surface. electrons is called work function.
11. (c) R.A. Millikan’s famous oil-drop experiment led him to 39. (a) The work function of different metals is different.
propose the theory of quantisation of electric 40. (d) 41. (a)
charge. 42. (a) Einstein’s photo electric effect & compton effect
12. (b) The minimum frequency above which the electrons established particle nature of light. These effects can
are ejected from the metal surface, is called the be explained only, when we assume that the light has
threshold frequency for that metal. No electrons are particle nature (To explain, Interference & Diffraction
emitted if the frequency of the incident light is less the light must have wave nature. It means that light
than the threshold frequency. has both particle and wave nature, so it is called dual
nature of light)
13. (d) Cadmium is sensitive to ultraviolet light while the
43. (d) 44. (c)
rest are sensitive even to visible light.
14. (d) All photosensitive substances emit electrons when 45. (c) Energy of a photon E hc ; E is less if is longer
illuminated by light.
15. (c) Beyond the threshold frequency the photoelectric 46. (c) Energy of a photon E = hc/
current increases with increase in intensity. 47. (b)
16. (d) For the given frequency of incident light
48. (d) From Eqn K.E h
Kmax = eV0
where Kmax is the maximum kinetic energy gained by slope of graph of K.E & is h,
photoelectron and V0 is the minimum retarding which is same for all metals.
potential for which the photocurrent stops. 49. (d) The discovery of X-rays by Roentgen in 1895 and
e = charge of electron. of electrons by J.J Thomson in 1897, were important
milestones in the understanding of atomic structure.
h can be pulled out of the metal, as in a spark plug.

50. (c) de-Broglie’s relation, 63. (a) The greater the intensity of radiation the greater the
p
amplitude of electric and magnetic field.
momentum p 2mE 64. (d)
h h (i) For a given photosensitive material and frequency
= E=K of incident radiation (above the threshold frequency),
2mE 2mK the photoelectric current is directly proportional to
51. (a) 1 electron volt (ev) = 1.6 × 10–19 joule the intensity of incident light.
52. (c) The ultraviolet light provided sufficient energy for (ii) For a given photosensitive material and frequency
the electrons to escape from the surface of detector of incident radiation, saturation current is found to
(metal) loop and hence the current increased. be proportional to the intensity of incident radiation
53. (c) The kinetic energy of the particle whereas the stopping potential is independent of its
1 2 p2 intensity.
K= mv = qV = (iii) For a given photosensitive material, there exists a
2 2m
certain minimum cut-off frequency of the incident
p= 2mK = 2mqV radiation, called the threshold frequency, below
which no emission of photoelectrons takes place, no
h h matter how intense the incident light is. Above the
=
p 2mqV threshold frequency, the stopping potential or
equivalently the maximum kinetic energy of the
1.227 h h emitted photoelectrons increases linearly with the
54. (c) = nm , as
= p
V 2meV frequency of the incident radiation but is
Substituting the numerical values of h, m and e we independent of its intensity.
get the result. (iv) The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous
55. (c) process without any apparent time lag (~ 10–9 or
less), even when the incident radiations is made
h h vp me exceedingly dim.
56. (c) ; then mp vp = me ve or
mpvp me v e ve mp 65. (a) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation kmax
= hv – hv0 if v0 > v kmax –(ve)
1
m p v 2p m 2 66. (c) The photoelectric equation
Ep me me
2 p 1 Kmax = h – 0
= m
Ee 1 me mp p Explains that the intensity of incident radiation will
m e v e2 increase photocurrent only beyond the threshold
2
Ep < Ee frequency.
57. (d) Since eV0 = h – 0 67. (d) To study effect of intensity, the collector A is
where V0 = max. potential maintained at a positive potential with respect to
emitter C so that electrons ejected from C are
h attracted towards collector A. Keeping the frequency
or V0 =
ee of the incident radiation and the accelerating potential
58. (b) fixed, the intensity of light is varied and the resulting
59. (d) The order of time is nano second. phtoelectric current is measured each time. It is
60. (a) In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity found that the photocurrrent increases linearly with
of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be intensity of incident light.
increased by increasing the potential difference 68. (b)
between the anode and filament. 69. (c) The stopping potential is independent of intensity
of incident radiation.
70. (a)
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (i) The graph shows that the stopping potential V0
varies linearly with the frequency of incident radiation
61. (b) Cathode rays get deflected in the electric field. for a given photosensitive material.
62. (d) The minimum energy required for the electron
emission from the metal surface can be supplied to Y
the free electrons by anyone of the following Metal A
physical processes. Metal B
(i) Thermionic emission By suitably heating, sufficient Stopping
thermal energy can be imparted to the free electrons potential v > v0'
to enable them to come out of the metal. v > v0'
(V0)
(ii) Photoelectric emission When light of suitable v v0'
frequency illuminates a metal surface, electrons are 0 Frequency of incident radiation
emitted from the metal surface. These photo (light)- (v)
generated electrons are called photoelectrons. Variation of stopping potential V0 with frequency v
(iii) Field emission By applying a very strong electric of incident radiation for a given photosensitive
field (of the order of 108 V m–1) to a metal, electrons material.
EBD_7208
(ii) There exists a certain minimum cut-off frequency v0 83. (d) Intensity 1/ (distance)2 ; No. of photoelectrons
for which the stopping potential is zero.
These observations have two implications. emitted is proportional to intensity of incident light.
(iii) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons 84. (d) As is increased, there will be a value of above
which photoelectrons will be cease to come out so
varies linearly with the frequency of incident radiation,
photocurrent will become zero. Hence (d) is correct
but is independent of its intensity. answer.
(iv) For a frequency v of incident radiation lower than
the cut-off frequency v0, no photoelectric emission
is possible even if the intensity is large. ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
This minimum, cut-off frequency v0, is called the
threshold frequency. It is different for different 85. (b) Both statement I and II are true; but even it radiation
metals. of single wavelength is incident on photosensitive
71. (b) surface, electrons of different KE will be emitted.
(i) In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation 86. (a) When a light of single frequency falls on the electrons
behaves as if it is made up of particles called of inner layer of metal, then this electron comes out of
photons. the metal surface after a large number of collisions
(ii) Each photon has energy E (= hv) and momentum p with atom of it's upper layer.
(= h v/c) and speed c, the speed of light. 87. (b) The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons varies
(iii) All photons of light of a particular frequency v, or from zero to a maximum value. Work function depends
wavelength have the same energy, E (= hv = hc/ ) on metal used.
and momentum P(= hv/c = h/ ), whatever the
88. (d) Photoelectric saturation current is independent of
intensity of radiation may be. By increasing the
frequency. It only depends on intensity of light.
intensity of light of given wavelength, there is only
an increase in the number of photons per second 89. (b) Less work function means less energy is required for
crossing a given area, with each photon having the ejecting out the electrons.
same energy. 90. (a) 91. (d)
Thus, photon energy is independent of intensity of 92. (d) Total number of emitted photons depends on energy
radiation. of each photon. The energy of photons of two sources
(iv) Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected may be different.
by electric and magnetic fields. 93. (d) To photons of equal wavelength will have equal
(v) In photon-particle collision (such as photoelectron momentum (magnitude), but direction of momentum
collision), the total energy and total momentum are may be different.
conserved. 94. (b)
however, the number of photons may not be
conserved in a collision. The photon may be CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
absorbed or a new photon may be created.
hc
95. (d) eVs W0 . If decreases, V increases
s
96. (a) Einstein equation E h o K.E
72. (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4) where E = energy of incident photon.
73. (a) (A) (1); (B) 4; (C) (3); (D) (2)
74. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) h o = work function of metal
75. (b) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1) K.E = max. kinetic energy of e–
4 eV 2 eV K.E or K.E 2 eV
DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS Stopping potential is the potential difference which
may stop this e–.
76. (c) Changing the material of plate A will not affect the Let it be V, then eV 2e V 2 volt.
no. of photoelectrons emitted for the given material
of plate C and intensity & frequency of light used. hc
97. (b) Since work function for a metal surface is W
77. (c) 0
78. (b) From his experiment hallwachs concluded that where 0 is threshold wavelength or cut-off
negatively charged particles were emitted from zinc wavelength for a metal surface.
plate under the action of ultraviolet light. here W = 4.125 eV = 4.125 × 1.6 × 10–19 Joule
79. (b)
80. (a) From the graph it is clear that A and B have the same 6.6 10 34 3 108
so 0 3000Å
stopping potential and therefore the same frequency. 4.125 1.6 10 19
Also B and C have the same intensity.
81. (d) h – h 0 = EK, according to photoelectric equation, 98. (d) Intensity 1/ (distance)2 ; No. of photoelectrons
when = 0, EK = 0. emitted is proportional to intensity of incident light.
Graph (d) represents EK – relationship. 99. (d) The electron ejected with maximum speed vmax are
82. (a) For a given photosensitive material and frequency stopped by electric field E =4N/C after travelling a
> threshold frequency photoelectric current distance d =1m
intensity.
1 110. (b) According to Einsten’s photoelectric effect, the K.E.

mv2max eEd 4eV of the radiated electrons
2 K.Emax = E – W
1240 1
The energy of incident photon = 6.2 eV mv 2 = (1 – 0.5) eV = 0.5 eV
200 2 1
From equation of photo electric effect
1
1 2 mv 2 = (2.5 – 0.5) eV = 2 eV
mv max h 0 2 2
2
v1 0.5 1 1
0 6.2 4 2.2 eV
100. (c) By using E = W0 + Kmax v2 2 4 2
12375 hc
E =2.475 eV and Kmax = eV0 = 1.36 eV 111. (a) Energy emitted/sec by S1 , P1 n1
5000 1
So 2.475 = W0 + 1.36 W0 = 1.1 eV. hc
1 hc 2( hc ) Energy emitted/sec by S2 , P2 n2
101. (c) mv 2 v P2 n2 1 2
2 m
102. (b) For electron and positron pair production, minimum P1 n1 2
energy is 1.02 MeV. 1.02 1015 5000
13 1.0
1.7 10 1015 5100
Energy of photon is given 1.7 10 3 J
1.6 10 19 112. (a) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter electrical energy
= 1.06 MeV. into light of yellow colour
Since energy of photon is greater than 1.02 MeV. hc 25
so electron positron pair will be created. N 200
100
103. (c)
Where N is the No. of photons emitted per second,
1 h = plank’s constant, c, speed of light.
104. (a) According to relation, E = mv 2
2 200 25
N
2E 100 hc
v
m 200 25 0.6 10 6
h 100 6.2 10 34 3 108
= 1.5 × 1020
2mE 113. (c) n 2 – 1
Because m1 < m3 < m2 E = 10.2 eV
kE = E –
So for same , E1 E 3 E 2 .
Q = 10.20 – 3.57
105. (b) For emission of electrons incident energy of each h 0 = 6.63 eV
photon must be greater than work function (threshold
19
energy). 6.63 1.6 10
0 = 1.6 × 1015 Hz
6.67 10 34
h 1 114. (b) From photoelectric equation,
106. (c) So h
2mE m h ' = h + Kmax ...(i)
since m > mn > mp > me 1
so de-Broglie wave length in increasing order will be d, h.2 = h + mV2max [ =2 ]
2
, ,
m p e
1
hc hc 12375 h = mV2max
107. (d) Kmax = W 5.01 = 5.01 2
(in Å)
2h
12375 Vmax =
–5.01 = 6.1875 – 5.01 = 1.17775 1.2 V m
2000
108. (c) The stopping potential is equal to maximum kinetic ( 0 )1 (W0 ) 2 4.5
115. (c) hc/ = W ; 2 : 1.
energy. 0 0 ( 0 )2 ( W0 )1 2.3
109. (a) K.E. = h – h th = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage) 116. (a) For the longest wavelength to emit photo electron
h
V0 (8.2 1014 3.3 1014 ) hc hc
e
6.6 10 34 4.9 1014
= 2V. 6.63 10 34
3 108
1.6 10 19 = 310 nm
19
4 1.6 10
EBD_7208
117. (a) For photoelectric effect 1
Vo
h 126. (d) qV m v 2 or m v 2q Vm ;
o
Vo 2
e e h h 1
The slope is So i.e. ;
mv 2q V m qm
h
tan constant
e p q m
The ratio will be 1. so 2 4 2 2
q pm p
hc 1 1
118. (a) Ek (in eV) h
c 0
127. (c) de-Broglie wavelength, =
2mEK.E
34
6.6 10 3 108 1010 1010
0.15eV p m 4m p
1.6 10 19 1800 2300 [ E K.E ( ) E K.E ( p) ]
mp mp
119. (b) Ek = E – W0 = 6.2 – 4.2 = 2.0 eV
= 2.0 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.2 × 10–19 J p 2
=
1
120. (a) We know that P = Fv or F = P/v
200
0.5 8 2 128. (a) The energy of each photon = = 5 × 10–19 J
F 0.166 10 N/m 4 1020
3 108
hc
1 2
Wavelength = =
121. (b) m 1 2 W0 W0 W0 and E
2 34
(6.63 10 ) (3 108 )
1 2 =
m 2 10 W0 W0 9W0 5 10 19
2
= 4.0 × 10–7 = 400 nm
1 W0 1 E
9 W0 3 129. (d) As P =
2 C
C
122. (a) The de-Broglie’s wavelength associated with the p= E
...(i)
h h
moving electron 2
P e = 2mE
...(ii)
Now, according to problem From equations (i) and (ii)
d dp 2
p e
P h m0
130. (c) ,v , v c, m
0.5 P mv v
2
100 P ' 1
c
P = 200 P
123. (d) de-Broglie wavelength, hence, 0.
131. (d) For photon E = h
h h
hc hc
p 2.m.(K.E) E 2 ...(i)
E
1 1
for proton E m p v p2
K. E 2
2 2
1 mp vp
If K.E is doubled, becomes E p 2mE
2 2 m
124. (b) E = hc/ = 6.6 × 10–34 × 3 × 108/5000 × 10–10 From De Broglie Eqn.
= 3.973 × 10–19 J h h h
p 1 ...(ii)
19 1 p 2mE
E 10 1.6 10
125. (d) Momentum of a photon =
c 3 10 8 2 =
hc
E –1/2
27 1 1 h
5.33 10 kg ms E×
2mE
27
ATOMS
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS it give about the structure of the atom?
(a) Atom is hollow.
1. The first model of atom was proposed by (b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small
(a) Hans Geiger (b) Ernst Rutherford centre called nucleus
(c) J.J. Thomson (b) N.H.D Bohr (c) Nucleus is positively charged
2. The empirical atom model was given by (d) All of the above
(a) J. J. Thomson (b) Rutherford 10. In Rutherford's -particle scattering experiment, what will be
(c) Niels Bohr (d) Sommerfeld correct angle for scattering for an impact parameter b = 0 ?
3. Which of the following statements is correct in case of (a) 90º (b) 270º (c) 0º (d) 180º
Thomson’s atomic model? 11. In the ground state in ...A... electrons are in stable
(a) It explains the phenomenon of thermionic emission, equilibrium while in ...B... electrons always experiences a
photoelectric emission and ionisation. net force. Here, A and B refer to
(b) It could not explain emission of line spectra by elements. (a) Dalton’s theory, Rutherford model
(c) It could not explain scattering of -particles (b) Rutherford’s model, Bohr’s model
(d) All of the above (c) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
4. Which one did Rutherford consider to be supported by the (d) Rutherford’s model, Thomson’s model
results of experiments in which -particles were scattered 12. The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's
by gold foil? scattering experiment is that
(a) The nucleus of an atom is held together by forces which (a) whole of the positive charge is concentrated at the
are much stronger than electrical or gravitational forces. centre of atom
(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic nucleus and (b) there are neutrons inside the nucleus
an -particle varies with distance according to inverse (c) -particles are helium nuclei
square law. (d) electrons are embedded in the atom
(c) -particles are nuclei of Helium atoms. (e) electrons are revolving around the nucleus
(d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete energy levels 13. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
5. According to the Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons (a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force
inside the atom are (c) vander waal’s force (d) gravitational force
(a) stationary (b) not stationary 14. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of
(c) centralized (d) None of these charge Z1 and mass M1approaches a target nucleus of
6. According to classical theory, the circular path of an electron charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach
in Rutherford atom model is is r0. The energy of the projectile is
(a) spiral (b) circular (a) directly proportional to Z1 Z2
(c) parabolic (d) straight line (b) inversely proportional to Z1
7. Rutherford’s -particle experiment showed that the atoms (c) directly proportional to mass M1
have (d) directly proportional to M1 × M2
(a) Proton (b) Nucleus 15. According to classical theory, Rutherford’s atomic model is
(c) Neutron (d) Electrons (a) stable (b) unstable
8. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by (c) meta stable (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force 16. Rutherford’s atomic model was unstable because
(c) vander waal’s force (d) gravitational force (a) nuclei will break down
9. The Rutherford -particle experiment shows that most of (b) electrons do not remain in orbit
the -particles pass through almost unscattered while some (c) orbiting electrons radiate energy
are scattered through large angles. What information does (d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus
EBD_7208
432 ATOMS
17. The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to 28. When an atomic gas or vapour is excited at low pressure,
lose energy because, they by passing an electric current through it then
(a) move randomly (a) emission spectrum is observed
(b) jump on nucleus (b) absorption spectrucm is observed
(c) radiate electromagnetic waves (c) band spectrum is observed
(d) escape from the atom (d) both (b) and (c)
18. As one considers orbits with higher values of n in a 29. The first spectral series was disscovered by
hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy of the atom (a) Balmer (b) Lyman (c) Paschen (d) Pfund
(a) decreases (b) increases 30. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the
(c) remains the same (d) does not increase second orbit, one gets the
19. Which of the following parameters is the same for all (a) second line of Paschen series
hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their ground states? (b) second line of Balmer series
(a) Radius of the orbit (c) first line of Pfund series
(b) Speed of the electron (d) second line of Lyman series
(c) Energy of the atom 31. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed
(d) Orbital angular momentum of the electron (a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when
20. The angular speed of the electron in the n th orbit of Bohr an excited atom falls to the ground state
hydrogen atom is (b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due
(a) directly proportional to n to transitions between excited states and the first
(b) inversely proportional to n excited state
(c) inversely proportional to n 2 (c) in any transition in a H-atom
(d) inversely proportional to n3 (d) None of these
21. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom 32. In Balmer series of emission spectrum of hydrogen, first
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised. four lines with different wavelength H H H and H are
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised. obtained. Which line has maximum frequency out of these?
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised. (a) H (b) H (c) H (d) H
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised. 33. In which of the following series, does the 121.5 nm line of
22. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy the spectrum of the hydrogen atom lie ?
between consecutive energy levels (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(a) remain the same (c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series.
(b) increases 34. Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen
(c) decreases atom lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases. (a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
23. Which of the following in a hydrogen atom is independent (c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
of the principal quantum number n? (The symbols have their 35. The shortest wavelength in Balmer’s series for Hydrogen
usual meanings). atom is ...A... and this is obtained by substituting ...B ...
(a) n (b) Er (c) En (d) r in Balmer’s formula. Here, A and B refer to
24. According to the Bohr theory of H-atom, the speed of the (a) 656.3 nm, n = 3 (b) 486.1 nm, n = 4
electron, its energy and the radius of its orbit varies with (c) 410.2 nm, n = 5 (d) 364.6 nm, n =
the principal quantum number n, respectively, as 36. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the
1 2 1 1 2 ground state of a hydrogen - like atom/ion
(a) ,n , (b) n, 2 , n (a) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but
n 2
n n
1 1 1 1 2 total energy remains same
(c) n, 2 , 2 (d) , ,n (b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential
n n n n2
energy increases
25. In terms of Bohr radius r0, the radius of the second Bohr orbit
of a hydrogen atom is given by (c) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and
total energy decrease
(a) 4 r0 (b) 8 r0 (c) 2 r0 (d) 2 r0 (d) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
26. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, it’s radius is 37. Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen
(a) four times, it ground state radius atom lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic
(b) twice times, it ground state radius spectrum?
(c) same times, it ground state radius (a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
(d) half times, it ground state radius. (c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
27. The angular momentum of the electron in hydrogen atom in 38. In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic
the ground state is transitions would involve the maximum energy change
h h h (a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 1
(a) 2h (b) (c) (d)
2 2 4 (c) n = 4 to n = 2 (d) n = 3 to n = 2
ATOMS 433
th
39. Hydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state 52. Frequency of revolution of electron in the n Bohr’s orbit
to n = 3. Number of spectral lines according to Bohr, is is given by
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2 me4
40. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like (a) f (b) f 4 02 n 3h 3
4 20 n 3 h 3
atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will
be obtained in the transition from me4 me4
(c) f (d) f
(a) 2 1 (b) 3 2 (c) 4 2 (d) 5 4 4 20 h 2 0 n
41. For a given value of n, the number of electrons in an orbit is
53. The total energy of the electron in the Bohr’s orbit is given
(a) n (b) n 2 (c) 2n2 (d) 2n
by
42. Bohr’s atom model is the modification of Rutherford’s atom
model by the application of me 4 1 e2
(a) E (b) E
(a) newton's theory (b) huygen’s theory 8 2 n 2h2
0
8 0 r
(c) maxwell’s theory (d) planck’s quantum theory (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
43. In Bohr’s model electrons are revolving in a circular orbits 54. If ‘r’ is the radius of the lowest orbit of Bohr’s model of
around the nucleus called as H-atom, then the radius of nth orbit is
(a) stationary orbits (b) non radiating orbits (a) r n2 (b) 2r
(c) Bohr’s orbits (d) all of these (c) n2/r (d) r n
44. According to Bohr’s theory of H atom, an electron can 55. The ratio of radii of the first three Bohr orbits is
revolve around a proton indefinitely, if its path is 1 1
(a) a perfect circle of any radius (a) 1: : (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 8 : 27
(b) a circle of an allowed radius 2 3
56. The speed of an electron, in the orbit of a H-atom, in the
(c) a circle of constantly decreasing radius
ground state is
(d) an ellipse with fixed focus
45. According to Bohr the difference between the energies of c c c
(a) c (b) (c) (d)
the electron in the two orbits is equal to 2 10 137
(a) h (b) hc/ 57. The speed of electron in first Bohr orbit is c/137. The speed
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b) of electron in second Bohr orbit will be
46. The angular momentum of electrons in an atom produces 2c 4c c c
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) magnetic moment (b) ZEEMAN effect 137 137 274 548
(c) light (d) nuclear fission 58. If the angular momentum of an electron in an orbit is J then
47. According to Planck’s quantum theory any electromagnetic the K.E. of the electron in that orbit is
radiation is J2 Jv J2 J2
(a) continuously emitted (a) 2 (b) (c) (d)
2mr r 2m 2
(b) continuously absorbed 59. If the frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit in H
(c) emitted or absorbed in discrete units atom is n then the equivalent current is
(d) None of these en
2 re
48. The radius of ‘n’th Bohr’s orbit of H atom is given by (a) (b) 2 r (c) e2 n (d) en
n
0 n2h 2 n2h 2 me2 60. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let P.E. represents
(a) (b) (c) 2 2
2 2 2 2 (d) n h potential energy and T.E. represents the total energy. In
me 0 me 0n h
49. The linear speed of an electron, in Bohr’s orbit is given by going to a higher level.
(a) P. E. decreases, T.E. increases
e2 e2 2 0 nh (b) P. E. increases, T.E. decreases
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2Î0 h
h 2 0 nh e (c) P. E. decreases, T.E. decreases
50. Angular speed of an electron in a Bohr’s orbit is given by (d) P. E. increases, T.E. increases
61. The wavelength of a spectral line emitted due to the
me 4 4 20 n 3h 3 transition of electron from outer stationary orbit to inner
(a) = (b) =
2 20 n 3h 3 me4 stationary orbit is given by
1 1 1 1 1
me4 (a) R (b) R
2
(c) (d) all of these P 2 n 2 P n2
4 02 n 3 h 3 1 1 1
(c) R (d) R
51. Period of revolution of electron in the n th Bohr’s orbit is P 2 n2
given by 62. An electron makes a transition from outer orbit (n = 4) to the
4 02 n 3h 3 inner orbit (p = 2) of a hydrogen atom. The wave number of
(a) T
4
(b) T 4 02 n 3 h 3 the emitted radiations is
me 2R 3R 4R 5R
4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) T = me n (d) T = 2 16 16 16 16
EBD_7208
434 ATOMS
63. Rydberg constant R is equal to 73. The observations of Geiger–Marsden experiment are
me 2
me 4 I. many of particles pass straight through the gold foil.
(a) (b) II. only about 0.14% of -particles scatter by more than 1°
8 02 ch 3 8 02 ch 3 III. about 1 in 8000 of -particles is deflected more than
2 4 m4e4 90°.
m e
(c) (d) IV. very few particles are reflected back.
8 02 ch 3 8 02 ch 3 (a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
64. Which of the following are in the ascending order of (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II III and IV
wavelength? 74. Trajectroy of an –particle in Geiger–Marsden experiment
(a) H , H and H lines of Balmer series is explained by using
(b) Lyman limit, Balmer limit I. Coulomb’s law II. Newton’s law
(c) Violet, blue, yellow, red colours in solar spectrum III. Gauss’s law IV. Faraday’s law.
(d) both (b) and (c) (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I and IV (d) I, II and IV
65. Rydberg’s constant is 75. Bohr’s atomic model assume that
(a) same for all elements I. the nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest.
(b) different for different elements II. electrons in a quantised orbit will not radiate the energy.
(c) a universal constants III. mass of electrons remains constant during revolution.
(d) is different for lighter elements but same for heavier IV. emission or absorption of energy results to transition
elements of electron from one orbit to another. Choose the
66. The Lyman transitions involve correct option from the codes given below.
(a) largest changes of energy (a) Only I (b) I and II
(b) smallest changes of energy (c) I, III and II (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) largest changes of potential energy 76. Which of the following statements are true regarding Bohr’s
(d) smallest changes of potential energy model of hydrogen atom?
67. The series limit wavelength of the Balmer series for the I. Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shifts to
hydrogen atom is discrete orbits away from the nucleus
II. Radii of allowed orbits of electron are proportional to
1 4 9 16
(a) (b) (c) (d) the principal quantum number
R R R R III. Frequency with which electrons orbit around the
68. If R is the Rydberg’s constant, the energy of an electron in nucleus in discrete orbits is inversely proportional to
the ground state H atom is the cube of principal quantum number
Rc 1 vc IV. Binding force with which the electron is bound to the
(a) (b) (c) – Rhc (d)
h Rhc R nucleus increases as it shifts to outer orbits
69. Balmer series lies in which spectrum? (a) I and II (b) II and IV
(a) visible (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
(b) ultraviolet
(c) infrared MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(d) partially visible, partially infrared
70. Maximum energy evolved during which of the following 77. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
transition?
(A) J.J. Thomson (1) Nuclear model of the atom
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 1 (B) E. Rutherford (2) Plum pudding model of the atom
(c) n = 2 to n = 6 (d) n = 6 to n = 2 (C) Franck-Hertz (3) Explanation of the hydrogen
spectrom
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (D) Nills Bohr (4) Existence of discrete energy
71. Rutherford’s nuclear model could not explain levels in an atom
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (2)
I. Why atoms emit light of only discrete wavelengths
(b) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3)
II. How could an atom as simple as hydrogen consisting (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
of a single electron and a single proton, emit a complex (d) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (3)
spectrum of specific wavelengths. 78. Consider Bohr's model to be valid for a hydrogen like atom
(a) I only (b) II only with atomic number Z. Match quantities given in Column -I
(c) I and II (d) None of these to those given in Column II.
72. Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment concludes Column – I Column – II
that Z3
(A) (1) Angular speed
I. there is a heavy mass at centre n5
II. electrons are revolving around the nucleus Z2
(a) I only (b) II only (B) (2) Magnetic field at the centre due to
n2
(c) I and II (d) None of these revolution of electron
ATOMS 435
Z2 (a) first member of Lyman series, third spectral line of
(C) (3) Potential energy of an electron
n3 Balmer series and the second spectral line of Paschen
in nth orbit series
Z (b) ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line
(D) (4) Frequency of revolution of electron of Balmer series, third spectral line of Paschen series
n
(a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) (c) series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3) series and second spectral line of Paschen series
(c) (A) (3,4); (B) (2,3); (C) (1,2); (D) (1) (d) series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of
(d) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4) Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series
79. Match the following Column II gives nature of image formed 83. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is r n, frequency
in various cases given in column I of revolution of electron in n th orbit is fn, choose the correct
Column – I Column – II option.
(A) n = 5 to n = 2 (1) Lyman series rn rn
(B) n = 8 to n = 4 (2) Brackett series lo g
r1
(C) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) Paschen
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) Balmer (a) (b)
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
O n O log n
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (1,4) log
fn
(d) (A) (1,3); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1) f1
80. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
Column – I Column – II (c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
2 kze2 O log n
(A) Radius of n th orbit (1) 84. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a
nh
2 certain atom. Which transition shown represents the
kze emission of a photon with the most energy?
(B) Velocity of electron in n th orbit (2)
rh n 4
2 n 3
kze
(C) Potential energy in n th orbit (3)
2rh n 2
th
n 2 h2
(D) Kinetic energy in n orbit (4)
4 kze2 m n 1
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3) I II III IV
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (2) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) 85. Four lowest energy levels of H-atom are shown in the figure.
(d) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3) The number of possible emission lines would be
n 4
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS n 3
81. The diagram shows the path of four -particles of the same n 2
energy being scattered by the nucleus of an atom
simulateneously which of those is not physically possible? n 1
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
1.
2. ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
3. Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
4. Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
82. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown in (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
figure. There are some transitions A, B, C, D and E. Transition explanation for assertion.
A, B and C respectively represent (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
n= – 0.00 eV correct explanation for assertion
n=6 – 0.36 eV (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
n=5 – 0.54 eV
n=4 – 0.85 eV
C
n=3
B D
– 1.51 eV 86. Assertion : The force of repulsion between atomic
n=2 – 3.39 eV nucleus and -particle varies with distance according to
A E inverse square law.
n=1 – 13.5 eV Reason : Rutherford did -particle scattering experiment.
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436 ATOMS
87. Assertion : According to classical theory the proposed 96. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr’s postulates the
path of an electron in Rutherford atom model will be product of linear momentum and angular momentum is
parabolic. proportional to (n)x where ‘n’ is the orbit number. Then ‘x’ is
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) –2 (d) 1
accelerated particle continuously emits radiation. 97. Doubly ionised helium atom and hydrogen ions are
88. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in accelerated, from rest, through the same potential difference.
stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate. The ratio of final velocities of helium and hydrogen is
Reason: According to classical physics all moving
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
electrons radiate.
89. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb 98. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is
forces. – 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state
Reason : The atom is stable only because the centripetal will be
force due to Coulomb's law is balanced by the centrifugal (a) –13.6 eV (b) – 27.2 eV (c) – 54.4 eV (d) – 6.8 eV
force. 99. Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for
90. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to
but its emission spectrum has many lines. Bohr’s atomic model?
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption (a) 1.9 eV (b) 11.1 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 0.65 eV
sepectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission 100. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited
spectrum, all the series are found. state to second excited state and then from second excited
91. Assertion : Balmer series lies in the visible region of to the first excited state. Theratio of thewavelength 1 : 2
electromagnetic spectrum. emitted in the two cases is
(a) 7/5 (b) 27/20 (c) 27/5 (d) 20/7
1 1 1
Reason : R where n = 3, 4, 5. 101. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the
2
2 n2 fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the
92. Statement 1 : Between any two given energy levels, the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be
number of absorption transitions is always less than the
24hR 25hR 25m 24m
number of emission transitions. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Statement 2 : Absorption transitions start from the lowest 25m 24m 24hR 25hR
energy level only and may end at any higher energy level. 102. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom,
But emission transitions may start from any higher energy then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is
level and end at any energy level below it. (a) 10.2 eV (b) 0 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV.
93. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and 103. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li++ from the
first to the third Bohr orbit is
3
maximum wavelength is . (a) 36.3 eV (b) 108.8 eV (c) 122.4 eV (d) 12.1 eV
4 104. K wavelength emitted by an atom is given by an atom of
Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines
atomic number Z = 11 is . Find the atomic number for an
corresponding to transition from higher energy to ground
atom that emits K radiation with wavelength 4
state of hydrogen atom.
(a) Z = 6 (b) Z = 4 (c) Z = 11 (d) Z = 44
105. In an atom, the two electrons move round the nucleus in
circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the time taken
94. Ionization energy of a hydrogen-like ion A is greater than by them to complete one revolution is
that of another hydrogen-like ion B. If r, u, E and L represent (a) 1/4 (b) 4/1 (c) 8/1 (d) 1/8
the radius of the orbit, speed of the electron, energy of the 106. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to
atom and orbital angular momentum of the electron second excited states is
respectively then in ground state (a) 1/4 (b) 4/9 (c) 9/4 (d) 4
(a) rA > rB (b) uA > uB 107. In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen atom, the mass of the electron
(c) EA > EB (d) LA > LB is doubled. The energy E 0 and radius r 0 of the first orbit will
95. In the Bohr 's model of a hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is be (r0 is the Bohr radius)
furnished by the coulomb attraction between the proton and (a) –11.2 eV (b) –6.8 eV (c) –13.6 eV (d) –27.2 eV
the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the 108. A 15.0 eV photon collides with and ionizes a hydrogen atom.
mass and e is charge on the electron and 0 is the vacuum If the atom was originally in the ground state (ionization
potential =13.6 eV), what is the kinetic energy of the ejected
permittivity, the speed of the electron is
electron?
e (a) 1.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 15.0 eV (d) 28.6 eV
(a) Zero (b) 109. If the k radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a wavelength of
0 a 0m
0.71Å. Calculate the wavelength of the corresponding
e 4 a0 m radiation of Cu (Z = 29).
0
(c) 4 a0 m (d) (a) 1.52Å (b) 2.52Å (c) 0.52Å (d) 4.52Å
0 e
ATOMS 437
110. Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its excitation 123. According to Bohr’s theory, the wave number of last line
state is 40.8 eV. Energy needed to remove the electron from of Balmer series is (Given R = 1.1 × 107 m–1)
the ion in ground state is (a) 5.5 × 105 m–1 (b) 4.4 × 107 m–1
6 –1
(a) 54.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 40.8 eV (d) 27.2 eV (c) 2.75 × 10 m (d) 2.75 × 108 m–1
111. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of 124. The first line of the Lyman series in a hydrogen spectrum
energy. The orbital angular momentum is increased by has a wavelength of 1210 Å. The corresponding line of
(a) 1.05 × 10–34 J-s (b) 3.16 × 10–34 J-s a hydrogen-like atom of Z = 11 is equal to
(c) 2.11 × 10 J-s–34 (d) 4.22 × 10–34 J-s (a) 4000 Å (b) 100 Å (c) 40 Å (d) 10 Å
112. If the atom 100Fm follows the Bohr model and the radius
257 125. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the
of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr radius, then find n. Balmer series to the shortest wavelength to the Lyman
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 4 (d) 1/4 series ?
113. The ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman (a) 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 4 : 9 (d) 5 : 9
and Blamer series in hydrogen spectrum is 126. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
3 7 9 5 hydrogen is 6561 Å, the wavelength of the second line
(a) (b) (c) (d) of the series should be
23 29 31 27
114. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state (a) 13122 Å (b) 3280 Å (c) 4860 Å (d) 2187 Å
with principal quantum number equal to 4. Then the number 127. The radiation corresponding to 3 2 transition of
of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to produce
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a
115. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If the radius of the largest
of hydrogen atom is 6561 A°. The wavelength of the second circular path followed by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the
spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionized helium work function of the metal is close to:
atom is (a) 1.8 eV (b) 1.1 eV (c) 0.8 eV (d) 1.6 eV
(a) 1215 A° (b) 1640 A° (c) 2430 A° (d) 4687 A°
128. Hydrogen H1 , Deuterium H 2 , singly ionised Helium
116. The extreme wavelengths of Paschen series are 1 1
(a) 0.365 m and 0.565 m (b) 0.818 m and 1.89 m

(c) 1.45 m and 4.04 m (d) 2.27 m and 7.43 m 2 He4 and doubly ionised lithium 3 Li 6 all have one
117. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet to electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron transition
hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted radiation
state energy of an electron of this ion will be
are 1, 2 , 3 and 4 respectively then approximately
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 54.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV
118. The first line of Balmer series has wavelength 6563 Å. What which one of the following is correct?
will be the wavelength of the first member of Lyman series (a) 4 1 2 2 2 3 4
(a) 1215.4 Å (b) 2500 Å (c) 7500 Å (d) 600 Å (b) 2 2
119. The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3 9 4
13.6
expressed as E n eV. The shortest and longest (d) 1 2 2 3 3 4 4
n2
129. The energy of an excited state of H atom is –0.85 eV. What
wavelength of Lyman series will be will be the quantum number of the orbit, if the ground state
(a) 910 Å, 1213 Å (b) 5463 Å, 7858 Å
energy for hydrogen is –13.6 eV?
(c) 1315 Å, 1530 Å (d) None of these
120. Taking Rydberg’s constant RH = 1.097 × 107m, first and (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
second wavelength of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum 130. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of
is hydrogen atom. Given the Rydberg’s constant R = 105cm–1.
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å The frequency in Hz of the emitted radiation is
(c) 6529 Å, 4280 Å (d) 6563 Å, 4861 Å 3 3
121. If is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, (a) 105 (b) 1015
16 16
is the frequency of the first line of Lyman series and 9 3
is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series (c) 1015 (d) 1015
then 16 4
(a) (b) 131. The longest wavelength of the Balmer series is 6563 Å. The
Rydberg’s constant is
1 1 1 1 1 1 (a) 1.09 × 105 m–1 (b) 1.09 × 106 m–1
(c) (d) 7 –1
2 1 3 1 2 3 (c) 1.09 × 10 m (d) 1.09 × 108 m–1
122. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for 132. If the radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is
hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of 5.3 × 10–11 m. After collision with an electron it is found to
Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number have a radius of 21.2 × 10–11 m. The principle quantum
Z of hydrogen like ion is number of the final orbit is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2 (a) n = 4 (b) n = 3 (c) n = 2 (d) n = 16
EBD_7208
438 ATOMS
These wavelengths fall in the visible region and

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS constitute the Balmer series.
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 35. (d) The shortest wavelength occurs when an electron
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) makes a transitions from n = to n = 2 state.
10. (d) When b = 0, scattering angle, = 180º 1 1 1 R
11. (c) In Thomson’s modle, electrons are in stable R –
2 4
min 2
equilibrium i.e., no force or no net force, while, in
Rutherford’s model, there is always a centripetal force
ze 2 k ze 2
acting on electron towards nucleus. 36. (c) U = –K ; T.E = –
12. (a) The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's r 2 r
scattering is that whole of the positive charge is
k ze 2
concentrated at the centre of atom i.e. nucleus. K.E = . Here r decreases
13. (a) 2 r
14. (a) The kinetic energy of the projectile is given by 37. (b) Transition from higher states to n = 2 lead to emission
of radiation with wavelengths 656.3 nm and 365.0 nm.
1 Ze (2e) Z1 Z2
mv2 = = These wavelengths fall in the visible region and
2 4 0 r0 4 0 r0 constitute the Balmer series.
Thus energy of the projectile is directly proportional 38. (b)
to Z1, Z2 n(n 1) 3(3 1)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 39. (b) No. of lines N E 3
2 2
19. (d) The orbital angular momentum of electron is
independent of mass of orbiting particle & mass of 40. (d) IR UV also wavelength of emitted radiation
nuclei. 1
.
20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) E
ke2 n2h 2 1 v me4 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a)
23. (b) v ,r , ,E
nh mke2 T 2 r 8 o n 2h 2 47. (c) 48 (a) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (a)
24. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (d)
25. (a) As r n 2 , therefore, radius of 2nd Bohr’s orbit = 4 r 0 v1
57. (c) vn
26. (a) rn= ro.n2, where r o is radius of ground-state & rn is n
radius of nth state. (For first excited state n = 2). c c
27. (c) According to Bohr's theory, v2
137 2 274
nh 58. (a) Angular momentum = mrv = J
Angular momentum, mvr
2 J
h v
So in ground state, angular momentum = . mr
2
28. (a) 1 2 1 J
2 J2
K. E. of electron = mv m =
29. (a) In 1885, the first spectral series were observed by a 2 2 mr 2mr 2
Swedish school teacher Johann Jakob Balmer, This 1
q
series is called the Balmer series. 59. (d) I qn en n&q e
t t
30. (b) Jump to second orbit leads to Balmer series. When an
electron Jumps from 4th orbit to 2nd orbit shall give rise 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b)
to second line of Balmer series. 66. (a)
31. (b) 67. (b) For series limit of Balmer series,
32. (d) Since out of the given four lines H line has smallest p = 2 and n = .
wavelength. Hence the frequency of this line will be 1 1 1 1 1
R R
maximum. p 2
n 2 4
33. (a) Since 121.5 nm line of spectrum of hydrogen atom lies
in ultraviolet region, therefore it is Lyman series. 4
34. (b) Transition from higher states to n = 2 lead to emission R
of radiation with wavelengths 656.3 nm and 365.0 nm. 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (b)
ATOMS 439
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 84. (b)

n n 1
71. (c) 85. (d) Number of possible emission lines =
2
72. (a) Heavy mass at the centre of atom is responsible for
large angle scattering of alpha particles ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
73. (d) Many of the -particles pass through the foil. It 86. (b) Rutherford confirmed that the repulsive force of
means that they do not suffer any collisions. particle due to nucleus varies with distance according
to inverse square law and that the positive charges
Vacuum Gold foil target
–8
about 10 m thick are concentrated at the centre and not distributed
Lead brick
throughout the atom.
Most pass 87. (d) According to classical electromagnetic theory, an ac-
Beam of through
-particles celerated charged particle continuously emits radia-
Source of tion. As electrons revolving in circular paths are con-
-particles stantly experiencing centripetal acceleration, hence
ZnS Screen they will be losing their energy continuously and the
Some are orbital radius will go on decreasing, form spiral and
deviated through
About 1 in 8000 a large angle finally the electron will fall in the nucleus.
is reflected back Detector
(microscope) 88. (b) Bohr postulated that electrons in stationary orbits
Schematic arrangement of the Geiger-Marsden experiment around the nucleus do not radiate.
Only about 0.14% of the incident -particles scatter This is the one of Bohr's postulate, According to this
by more than 1° and about 1 in 8000 deflected by the moving electrons radiates only when they go from
more than 90°.32. one orbit to the next lower orbit.
89. (c) According to postulates of Bohr's atom model the elec-
74. (a) Trajectory of -particle can be experienced by using
tron revolves around the nucleus in fixed orbit of defi-
Coulomb’s law and Newton’s IInd law of motion.
nite radii. As long as the electron is in a certain orbit it
75. (d) All assumptions are necessary for Bohr’s model.
does not radiate any energy.
76. (a) Orbital speed varies inversely as the radius of the 90. (b) When the atom gets appropriate energy from outside,
orbit. then this electron rises to some higher energy level.
1 Now it can return either directly to the lower energy
v
n level or come to the lowest energy level after passing
through other lower energy levels hence all possible
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS transitions take place in the source and many lines are
seen in the spectrum.
77. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) 91. (a) The wavelength in Balmer series is given by
78. (a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) 1 1 1
79. (b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3) R
2 , n = 3, 4, 5,.....
80. (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3) 2 n2
1 1 1
R
2
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS max 2 32
36 36
81. (d) -particle cannot be attracted by the nucleus. max = 6563 Å
82. (c) Transition A (n = to 1) : Series lime of Lyman series 5R 5 1.097 107
Transition B (n = 5 to n = 2) : Third spectral lien of 1 1 1
and R
2 2
Balmer series min 2
Transition C (n = 5 to n = 3) : Second spectral line of 4 36
Paschen series min = 3646 Å
R 1.097 107
83. (d) Radius of nth orbit r n n2, graph between rn and n is The wavelength 6563 Å and 3646 Å lie in visible
2 region. Therefore, Balmer series lies in visible region.
rn n r
a parabola. Also, r log e n 2log e (n) 92. (a) Absorption transition
1 1 r1
C
Comparing this equation with y = mx + c,
r B
Graph between log e n and loge (n) will be a straight
r1 A
line, passing from origin.
Similarly it can be proved that graph between Two possibilities in absorption transition.
fn
log e
f1 and loge n is a straight line. But with
negative slops.
EBD_7208
440 ATOMS
Three possibilities in emission transition.
1 1 1
Therefore, absorption transition < emission. Rz 2
93. (b) n22n12
R = Rydberg constant, Z = atomic number
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 1 1 1 24 1
= R 2 2
= R 1 R
94. (b) 1 5 25 25
95. (c) Centripetal force = force of attraction of nucleus on linear momentum
electron h 24
P= h × R× (de-Broglie hypothesis)
mv 2 1 e2 e 25
v
a0 4 o a0 2 4 o ma0 24hR 24hR
mv = V =
96. (a) 25 25m
1
m v 2 or v
2q V q 13.6 13.6
97. (a) q V i.e. v 102. (c) En = – 2 E2 = – 2 = –3.4 eV..
2 m m n 2
v He q He m H 2e m 1 103. (b) Energy of excitation,
vH q H m He = e 4m 1 1
2 E = 13.6 2 eV
98. (a) Energy of a H-like atom in it's nth state is given by 1 2
2 13.6 1 1
En = Z eV E = 13.6 (3)2 2 = 108.8 eV
n2 1 32
For, first excited state of He+, n = 2, Z = 2 104. (a) According the Moseley’s law
E
4
13.6 13.6 eV f a ( z b) f a 2 (z b) 2
He
22 c
99. (b) Obviously, difference of 11.1eV is not possible. a 2 (z b)2 … (i)
–0.58eV for k line, b = 1
–0.85eV (z1 1) 2 4 (11 1) 2
2
–1.51eV From (i) ,
12.09eV n=2 (z 2 1) 2 1 (z 2 1) 2
–3.4eV 10.2eV 10
–13.6eV n=1 z2 1 z2 6
100. (c) 2
n=3 2 n1 1
R 1 n1 1
Case (I) 105. (d) 2
R2 n2 4 n2 2
Energy states
3 3
T1 n1 1 1
n=2
Case (II) T2 n2 2 8
II 106. (c) Ist excited state corresponds to n = 2
n=1
2nd excited state corresponds to n = 3
1 E1 n 22 32 9
The wave number ( ) of the radiation =
E 2 n12 2 2 4
1 1
=R
1 1 107. (d) As r r0 r0
m 2
n12 n22
As E m E '0 = 2(–13.6) = –27.2 eV
Now for case (I) n1 = 3, n2 = 2
108. (a) Conservation of energy requires that the 15.0 eV
1 1 1 photon energy first provides the ionization energy to
R
1 9 4 , R = Rydberg constant unbind the electron, and then allows any excess energy
1 4 9 5R 36 to become the electron’s kinetic energy. The kinetic
R 1 energy in this case is 15.0 eV – 13.6 eV = 1.4 eV.
1 36 36 5R
109. (a) From Mosley's law, we have,
1 1 1 3R c
R
2 4 1 4 (Z – 1)2 (Z – 1)2 = A
k
4 1 36 3R
2 where A is some constant,
3R 5R 4 2
2 (ZMO 1)2 Cu 41 Cu
1 27 or
(ZCu 1)2 MO 28 0.71
2 5 2
41
101. (a) For emission, the wave number of the radiation is given Cu = 0.71 × 28 = 1.52Å
as
ATOMS 441
1 1 For the second spectral line in the Balmer series of
110. (a) Excitation energy E = E2 –E1 = 13.6 Z2 2 2 singly ionised helium ion n2 = 4 and n1 = 2 ; Z = 2
1 2
3 2 1 2 1 1 3R
40.8 13.6 Z Z 2. = R (2) ...(ii)
4 4 16 4
Now required energy to remove the electron from Dividing equation (i) and equation (ii) we get
13.6Z2 5R 4 5
ground state 13.6(Z) 2 54.4 eV.
(1)2 6561 36 3 R 27
1215 Å
111. (a) Electron after absorbing 10.2 eV energy goes to its
first excited state (n = 2) from ground state (n = 1). 1 1 1
116. (b) In Paschen series R 2
h max (3) (4)2
Increase in momentum
2 144 144 6
max 1.89 10 m = 1.89 m
6.6 10 34 7R 7 1.1 107
1.05 10 34 J-s. 9 9
6.28 0.818 m
112. (d) For an atom following Bohr’s model, the radius is given Similarly min
R 1.1 107
r0 m 2 117. (c) For third line of Balmer series n 1 = 2, n2 = 5
by rm where r0 = Bohr’s radius and m = orbit
Z 1 1 1 n12 n 22
number. RZ2 gives Z2
For Fm, m = 5 (Fifth orbit in which the outermost n12 n 22 (n 22 n12 ) R
electron is present) On putting values Z = 2
r0 52 1 13.6Z2 13.6(2) 2
rm
nr0 (given) n = 4 From E 54.4 eV
100 n2 (1) 2
113. (d) For Lyman series (2 1)
1 1 1 5R 1 1 1 3R
1 1 3R 118. (a) R , R
=R 1 2 = Balmer 2 2
3 2 36 Lyman 12 22 4
L 2 4
For Balmer series (3 2) 5
Lyman Balmer 1215.4Å
1 1 1 5R 27
=R = 1 1 1 4
B 4 9 36 R 1213Å
4 119. (a) (1) 2
(2) 2 max
3R
max
L 3R 4 5 5
= = = 1 1 1 1
B 36 36 3 27 and R min 910Å.
2 R
5R min (1)
114. (d) For ground state, the prin cipal quantum no 1 1 1
(n) = 1. There is a 3rd excited state for principal quantum 120. (d) R . For first wavelength, n = 2, n = 3
n 22 n12 1 2
number.
1 = 6563 Å. For second wavelength, n 1 = 2, n 2 = 4
4 3rd excited state 2 = 4861 Å

121. (a) For Lyman series
Pincipal quantum no. (n)
1 1
Energy states
3
= RC 2
2nd excited state 1 n2
where n = 2, 3, 4, .......
2 1st excited state For the series limit of Lyman series, n =
1
1 1
ground state RC = RC ...(i)
2 2
Possible number of spectral lines 1
For the first line of Lyman series, n = 2
The possible number of the spectral lines is given
n(n 1) 4(4 1) = RC
1 1 3
...(ii)
= = 6 2 2
RC
2 2 1 2 4
For Balmer series
1 1 1
115. (a) We know that RZ 2 2 1 1
n1 n22 = RC 2
The wave length of first spectral line in the 2 n2
Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561Å . Here n2 = 3 where n = 3, 4, 5 .....
and n1 = 2 For the series limit of Balmer series, n =
1 1 1 5R 1 1 RC
R(1) 2 ...(i) = RC ...(iii)
6561 4 9 36 2 2 2 4
EBD_7208
442 ATOMS
From equation (i), (ii) and (iii), we get wavelength of the Lyman series.
or 1
122. (d) The wavelength of the first line of lyman series for or L= R ... (iv)
hydrogen atom is Dividing (ii) by (iv), we get
1 1 1 4 B
R
1 22 2 =
L 1
The wevelength of the second line of Balmer series 126. (c) For Balmer series, n1 = 2, n2 = 3 for 1st line and n2
for like ion is = 4 for second line.
1 1 1 1 1
Z 2R
' 22 42 1 2 2
42
According to question = ' 3 /16 3 36 27
2 1 1 =
5 / 36 16 5 20
1 1 1 1 22 32
R Z 2R
2 2 2 2
1 2 2 4 20 20
2 = 1 6561 = 4860 Å
3 3Z 27 27
or or Z2 = 4 or Z = 2 127. (b) Radius of circular path followed by electron is given
4 16
123. (c) For last line Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = by,
m 2meV 1 2m
1
R
1 1 1.1 107 –1
r V
= m qB eB B e
n 12 n 22 4
= 2.75 × 106 m–1 B2 r 2 e
V 0.8V
124. (d) : By Bohr’s formula 2m
For transition between 3 to 2.
1 1 1
Z 2R 1 1 13.6 5
n 12 n 22 E 13.6 1.88eV
4 9 36
For first line of Lyman series n1 = 1, n2 = 2 Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV = 1.08 eV 1.1eV
1 3
Z2R 1 1 1 1
4 128. (c) Wave number RZ 2
In the case of hydrogen atom, Z = 1 n12 n 2
Z2
1 3 By question n = 1 and n 1 = 2
R Then, 1
4 2 4 3 9 4
For hydrogen like atom, Z = 11 E1
129. (a) En
1
121R
3 3R 4 1 n2
' 4 ' 4 121R 3 121 E1 13.6
1210 n2 16
'= = 10 Å En 0.85
121 121
125. (a) : For a Balmer series c 1 1 1 1
130. (c) cR
2 2 = cR
p n 4 16
1 1 1
R ... (i)
22 n2 3 108 107 12 9
B
= = 1015 Hz
where n = 3, 4, ....... 64 16
By putting n = in eauaton (i), we obtain the series 131. (c) For longest wavelength of Balmer series,
limit of the Balmer series. This is the shortest p = 2 and n = 3
wavelength of the Balmer series. 1 1 1 1 1
R R 5R
4 2 4 9 =
or = ... (ii) p n 36
R
For a Lyman series 36 36
R = 1.09 × 107 m–1
5 5 6.563 10 7
1 1 1
R ... (iii) 132. (c) rn = r1 n2
2
L 1 n2
rn 21.2 10 11
where n = 2, 3, 4, ..... n2 4
By putting n = in equation (iii), we obtain the r1 5.3 10 11
series limit of the Balmer series. This is the shortest n=2
28
NUCLEI
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS (a) primary loop, secondary loop

(b) reactor core, turbine
1. Chadwick was awarded the 1935 nobel prize in physics for (c) secondary loop, primary loop
his discovery of the (d) turbine, reactor core
(a) electron (b) proton 9. A nuclei having same number of neutron but different
(c) neutron (d) positron number of protons / atomic number are called
2. The element gold has (a) isobars (b) isomers
(a) 16 isotopes (b) 32 isotopes (c) isotones (d) isotopes
(c) 96 isotopes (d) 173 isotopes 10. Which one of the following has the identical property for
3. The nuclear radius is of the order of isotopes?
(a) Physical property (b) Chemical property
(a) 10–10 m (b) 10–6 m
–15 (c) Nuclear property (d) Thermal property
(c) 10 m (d) 10–14 m
11. The number of protons in an atom of atomic number Z
4. Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom
and mass number A is
without changing its chemical properties are called (a) zero (b) Z
(a) neutrons (b) electrons (c) A – Z (d) A
(c) protons (d) alpha particles 12. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the
5. The radius of a nucleus is binding energy per nucleon
(a) directly proportional to its mass number (a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight (b) decreases continuously with mass number
(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number (c) remains constant with mass number
(d) None of these (d) first increases and then decreases with increase of
6. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of mass number
(a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons 13. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron.
(b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons A given nucleus, of binding energy B, contains Z protons
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given
(d) 11 protons and 13 electrons by (c is the velocity of light)
7. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because (a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in (b) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2
(c) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
-decay is much less than the size of nucleus
(d) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in 14. Mass energy equation was propounded by
-decay is much greater than the size of nucleus (a) Newton (b) Madam Curie
(c) C. V. Raman (d) Einstein
(c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in
15. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of
-decay is equal to the size of nucleus the masses of its constituents. This mass defect is
(d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus converted into
8. In ...X... water is circulated though the reactor vessel and (a) heat energy
transfers energy to steam generator in the ...Y... Here, X (b) light energy
and Y refer to (c) electrical energy
(d) energy which binds nucleons together
EBD_7208
444 NUCLEI
16. Which of the following statement is not true regarding 27. In ray emission from a nucleus
Einsteins mass energy relation? (a) only the proton number changes
(a) Mass disappears to reappear as energy. (b) both the neutron number and the proton number
(b) Energy disappears to reappear as mass. change
(c) Mass and energy are two different forms of the same (c) there is no change in the proton number and the
entity. neutron number
(d) Mass and energy can never be related to each other. (d) only the neutron number changes
17. The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of 28. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by
atomic mass number has a sharp peak for helium nucleus. (a) Klaproth (b) Rontgen
This implies that helium (c) Irene Curie and Joliot (d) P. Curie and M. Curie
(a) can easily be broken up 29. Radioactive samples are stored in lead boxes because it
(b) is very stable is
(a) heavy (b) strong
(c) can be used as fissionable meterial
(c) good absorber (d) bad conductor
(d) is radioactive
30. The process of radioactive radiations remains unaffected
18. Nuclear forces are due to
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part (a) physical changes
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part (b) chemical changes
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part (c) electric or magnetic fields
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part (d) all of the above
19. Nuclear forces exists between 31. A radioactive material undergoes decay by ejecting
(a) neutron - neutron (b) proton - proton electrons. The electron ejected in this process is
(c) neutron - proton (d) all of these (a) the electron from the decay of a neutron
20. The antiparticle of electron is (b) the electron present in the nucleus
(c) the resulting from the conversion of photon
(a) positron (b) -particle
(d) an orbital electron
(c) proton (d) -particle
32. The same radioactive nucleus may emit
21. Neutron decay in free space is given as follows (a) all the three , and one after another
1
0n 1 H1 1e
0
[] (b) all the three , and radiations simultaneously
(c) only and simultaneously
Then the parenthesis [ ] represents a (d) only one , and at a time
(a) neutrino (b) photon 33. Which of the following of a radioactive material is a
(c) antineutrino (d) graviton measure of its instability?
22. Radioactivity is (a) Full life (b) Mean life
(a) irreversible process (c) Half life (d) None of these
(b) self disintegration process 34. The rate of disintegration at a given instant, is directly
(c) spontaneous proportional to the number of atoms present at that
(d) all of the above instant. This is the statement of
(a) law of radioactive decay
23. -rays are deflected by
(b) half life
(a) an electric field but not by a magnetic field
(c) law of radioactive transformation
(b) a magnetic field but not by an electric field (d) group displacement law
(c) both electric and magnetic field 35. N atoms of a radioactive substance emit na-particles per
(d) neither by electric field nor by magnetic field second. The half life of the radioactive substance is
24. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are
n N
(a) electromagnetic radiations (a) sec (b) sec
N n
(b) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(c) charged particles emitted by nucleus 0.693N 0.693n
(c) sec (d) sec
(d) neutral particles n N
25. Which of the following is not a mode of radioactive decay ? 36. Three specimens A, B, C of same radioactive element has
(a) Positron emission (b) Electron capture activities 1 microcurie, 1 rutherford and 1 becquerel
(c) Fusion (d) Alpha decay respectively. Which specimen has maximum mass?
26. The half-life period and the mean life period of a radioactive (a) A (b) B
element are denoted respectively by Th and Tm. Then (c) C (d) all have equal masses
37. Charge on an -particle is
(a) Th = Tm (b) Th > T m
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 C (b) 3.2 × 10–19 C
–20
(c) Th < Tm (d) Th Tm (c) 1.6 × 10 C (d) 4.8 × 10–19 C
NUCLEI 445
38. If a radioactive element is placed in an evacuated 50. For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are
chamber, then the rate of radioactive decay will (a) any nuclei
(a) decrease (b) remains unchanged (b) heavy nuclei
(c) increase (d) none of these (c) lighter nuclei
39. The radiations are (d) nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table
(a) electromagnetic radiation with high energy
(b) electromagnetic radiation with low energy STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) charged particles emitted by the nucleus
(d) electrons orbiting the nucleus 51. Consider the following statements and select the correct
40. Radioactive substance emits statement(s).
(a) -rays (b) -rays I. The relative abundance of different isotopes differs
(c) -rays (d) All of the above from element to element.
II. Atomic species of the same element differing in
41. The 'rad' is the correct unit used to report the measurement
mass are called isotopes.
of
III. Hydrogen has two isotopes.
(a) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce
ions in a target
(b) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
52. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) the biological effect of radiation
I. Atoms of isotopes have same electronic structure.
(d) the rate of decay of a radioactive source
II. Atoms of isotopes occupies same place in periodic
42. One curie is equal to table.
(a) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/sec III. Atoms of isotopes have same number of protons.
(b) 3.2 × 108 disintegration/sec IV. Atoms of isotopes have same number of neutrons.
(c) 2.8 × 1010 disintegration/sec (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(d) None of these (c) I, II III and IV (d) II and IV
43. Half life of radioactive element depends upon 53. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) amount of element present I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter.
(b) temperature II. Nuclear density is around 2.3 × 1017 kg/m3.
(c) pressure II. Nuclear density is very large compared to ordinary
(d) nature of element matter.
44. A nuclear reaction is given by IV. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus.
A A 0 , represents (a) I, II and III (b) II and III
ZX Z 1Y 1e
(c) I and II (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) fission (b) -decay 54. For binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
(c) -decay (d) fusion curve, which of the following are correct ?
45. Fusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the order of I. Binding energy per nucleon Ebn is independent of
(a) 103 K (b) 107 K (c) 10 K (d) 104 K mass number range 30 < A < 170.
46. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of II. Binding energy is lower for both light nucei (A < 30)
(a) stainless steel (b) graphite and heavy nuclei (A < 170).
(c) cadmium (d) plutonium III. Binding energy is maximum of about 8.75 MeV for A
47. Boron rods in a nuclear reactor are used to = 56.
(a) absorb excess neutrons IV. In region 0 < A < 80, binding energy increases with
(b) absorb alpha particle mass number.
(c) slow down the reaction (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(d) speed up the reaction (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
48. A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to 55. In one half-life time duration
(a) slow down the speed of the nuetrons I. activity of a sample reduced to half of its initial
(b) acceleerate the neutrons value.
(c) increase the number of neutrons II. total number of nuclei present are reduced to half of
(d) decrease the number of neutrons its initial value.
49. Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because III. number of radio active nuclei present is reduced to
(a) atoms are ionised at high temperature half of its initial value.
(b) molecules break up at high temperature IV. mass of sample is reduced to half of its initial value.
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature Out of these, correct statements are
(d) kinetic enrgy is high enough to overcome repulsion (a) I and II (b) I and II
between nuclei (c) II and IV (d) II and III
EBD_7208
446 NUCLEI
56. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit (b) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
I electrons II protons (c) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4)
III He 2+
IV neutrons (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
The emission at instant can be 60. Column – I Column – II
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV (A) Hydrogen bomb (1) Fission
(c) IV only (d) II and III (B) Atom bomb (2) Fusion
(C) Binding energy (3) Critical mass
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (D) Nuclear reactor (4) Mass defect
(a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
57. Match the Column I and Column II.
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(A)Isotopes (1) Mass number same but (d) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (1)
different atomic number
(B) Isobars (2) Atomic number same but
different mass number.
(C) Isotones (3) Number of nentrons 61. There is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against
plus number of protons the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different
(D) Nucleons (4) Number of nentrons nuclei.
same but different
atomic number
(a) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4)
58. Match Column I of the nuclear processes with Column II
containing parent nucleus and one of the end products of
each process. Consider four reactions
Column I Column II (i) A + B C + (ii) C A + B +
15 15 (iii) D + E F + and (iv) F D + E + ,
(A) Alpha decay (1) 8 O 7 N ...
where is the energy released? In which reactions is
+ 238 234 positive?
(B) decay (2) 92 U 90 Th ...
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(C) Fission (3) 185 184 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
83 Bi 82 Pb ...
62. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number
(D) Proton emission (4) 239 140 for stable nuclei is shown in the figure. Which curve is
94 Pu 57 La ...
correct?
(a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) (a) A
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(b) B
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
(c) C
(d) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(d) D
59. Column I
Column – I Column – II 63. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve for
(A) Nuclear fusion (1) E = mc2 nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z are four nuclei
indicated on the curve. The process that would release
(B) Nuclear fission (2) Generally possible for
energy is
nuclei with low atomic
number (a) Y 2Z
(C) -decay (3) Generally possible for (b) W X Z
nuclei with higher atomic (c) W 2Y
number (d) X Y Z
(D) Mass-energy (4) Essentially proceeds by
equivalence weak reaction nuclear forces
NUCLEI 447
64. The energy spectrum of -particles [number N(E) as a 70. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108
undecayed radioactive
function of -energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal to that of 1.2 × 108
number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with
half life of 60 days.
Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-life.
(a) N(E) (b) N(E)
71. Assertion : The ionising power of -particle is less compared
E E to -particles but their penetrating power is more.
E0 E0 Reason : The mass of -particle is less than the mass of -
particle.
72. Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit –1 particles.
Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
(c) N(E) (d) N(E)
73. Assertion : ZXA undergoes 2 , 2 - particles and 2 -rays,
E E the daughter product is Z-2YA – 8.
E0 E0 Reason : In - decay the mass number decreases by 4 and
atomic number decreases by 2. In -decay the mass number
remains unchanged, but atomic number increases by 1.
65. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then
74. Assertion : The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio
the rate of decay of reactant is
because neutron does not exert electric force.
N N Reason : Coulomb forces have longer range compared to
the nuclear force.
(a) (b) 75. Assertion : A free neutron decays to a proton but a free
proton does not decay to a neutron. This is because neutron
t t
is an uncharged particle and proton is a charged particle.
Reason : Neutron has larger rest mass than the proton.
N N
76. Assertion : Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer therapy.
Reason : Cobalt -60 is source of - radiations capable of
(c) (d) killing cancerous cells.
t t 77. Assertion : It is not possible to use 35Cl as the fuel for
fusion energy.
Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is to small.
78. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, fission or light nuclei undergo fusion and
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei it decreases
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. with increasing Z.
explanation for assertion. CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
correct explanation for assertion 79. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than that of helium by
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (a) (b) 4
8
66. Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same.
(c) 2 (d) 8
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube
80. A nucleus splits into two nuclear parts which have their
root of mass number.
velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their
67. Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared
to protons.
nuclear radius?
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons. (a) 21/3 : 1 (b) 1 : 21/3
1/2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 31/2
68. Assertion : The mass number of a nucleus is always less
than its atomic number. 81. If radius of the 27 nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi
13 Al
Reason : Mass number of a nucleus may be equal to its
then the radius of 125 nucleus be nearly
atomic number. 52 Te
69. Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei with (a) 8 fermi (b) 6 fermi
atomic mass number A > 100, decrease with A. (c) 5 fermi (d) 4 fermi
Reason : The forces are weak for heavier nuclei.
EBD_7208
448 NUCLEI
90. If 1 mg of U235 is completely annihilated, the energy liberated
82. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8 O17 ,MP and MN
is
are the masses of a proton and a neutron respectively, the (a) 9 × 1010 J (b) 9 × 1019 J
nuclear binding energy of the isotope is 18
(c) 9 × 10 J (d) 9 × 1017 J
(a) (MO –17MN)c2 (b) (MO – 8MP)c2
91. A radioactive substance has a half life of four months. Three
(c) (MO– 8MP –9MN)c (d) MOc2
2
fourth of the substance will decay in
83. In the options given below, let E denote the rest mass en-
(a) three months (b) four months
ergy of a nucleus and n neutron. Then the correct option is
( ) ( ) ( )
(c) eight months (d) twelve months
(a) E 236 U > E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n) 92. In the uranium radioactive series, the initial nucleus is 92U238
92 53 39 and that the final nucleus is 82Pb206. When uranium nucleus
( ) ( ) ( )
decays to lead, the number of particles and particles
(b) E 236 U < E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n) emitted are
92 53 39
(a) 8 , 6 (b) 6 , 7
(c) (92 ) ( 56 ) (
36 )
E 236 U < E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n)
93.
(c) 6 , 8 (d) 4 , 3
A radioactive nucleus undergoes -emission to form a
( ) ( ) ( )
stable element. What will be the recoil velocity of the
(d) E 236 U = E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n)
92 56 36 daughter nucleus if v is the velocity of emission?
84. If the total binding energies of 2 4 56 235 4v 2v

1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U (a) (b)
A 4 A 4
nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 MeV respectively, identify
the most stable nucleus of the following. 4v 2v
56 2 235 4
(c ) (d)
(a) 26 Fe (b) 1H (c) 92 U (d) 2 He
A 4 A 4
94. A radioactive element forms its own isotope after three
85. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of consecutive disintegrations. The particles emitted are
the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per (a) 3 –particles
nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly (b) 2 –particles and 1 –particle
(c) 3 –particles and 1 –particle
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV
(d) 2 –particles and 1 –particle.
(c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV
86. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. TA
The amount of energy liberated in kilowatt hour is 95. The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is T .
B
(Velocity of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
(a) 1.5 × 106 (b) 2.5 × 106 A
(c) 3 × 106 (d) 7.5 × 106 The ratio of respective decay constant , is
B
87. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an
-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What will be the energy (a) TB / TA (b) TA / TB
Q released in the reaction 1H2 + 1H2 2He4 + Q TA TB TA TB
(a) 4(x1 + x2) (b) 4(x2 – x1) (c) (d)
TA TA
(c) 2(x1 + x2) (d) 2(x2 – x1)
88. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated 96. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay
into two small fragments of mass number 80 and 120. If according to the scheme
binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV and a
A A1 A2 A3 A4
for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively, then
the energy released in the decay is If the mass number and atomic number of ‘A’ are 180 and 72
X × 110 MeV. Find the value of X respectively, then what are these numbers for A4
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1 (a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70
89. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and (c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70
1.0073 a.m.u. respectively. If the neutrons and protons 97. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and R2 at a
combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha particles) of mass time T2. If the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of
4.0015 a.m.u the binding energy of the helium nucleus will atoms that have disintegrated in the time (T1 – T2) is
be (1 a.m.u. = 931 MeV) proportional to
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV (a) (R1T1 – R2T2) (b) (R1 – R2)
(c) 27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV (c) (R1 – R2)/T (d) (R1 – R2) T
NUCLEI 449
98. Actinium 231, 231 AC89, emit in succession two particles, (a) 60 s (b) 80 s
four -particles, one and one plus several rays. What (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
is the resultant isotope? 106. The half life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays
(a) 221 Au79 (b) 211 Au 79 to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements
(c) 221 Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb 82 ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 7 in a sample
99. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750 of a the given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be
counts per minute at t = 0 & 975 counts per minute at T = 5 (a) 60 years (b) 80 years
minutes. The decay constant is approximately. (c) 100 years (d) 40 years
(a) 0.922 per minutes (b) 0.691 per minutes 107. If N0 is the original mass of the substance of half-life period
(c) 0.461 per minutes (d) 0.230 per minutes t1/2 = 5 years, then the amount of substance left after 15
100. Half lives of two radio active substance A & B are respectively years is
20 minutes & 40 minutes. Initially the samples of A & B (a) N0/8 (b) N0/16
have equal numbers of nulcei. After 80 minutes the ratio of (c) N0/2 (d) N0/4
remaining numbers of A & B nuclei is
108. When a U 238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1
an alpha particle having a speed ‘u’, the recoil speed of the
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
residual nucleus is
101. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as
N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per minute at 4u 4u
(a) (b)
t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity 238 234
reduces to half its value is
4u 4u
5 (c) (d)
(a) log e 2 / 5 (b) log 2 234 238
e
109. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration
(c) 5 log 102 (d) 5 loge 2 rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. After 5 minutes, the rate
102. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay constant
frequency and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will (per minute) is
be (a) 0.4 ln 2 (b) 0.2 ln 2
(a) Mc2 – h (b) h2 2 / 2Mc2 (c) 0.1 ln 2 (d) 0.8 ln 2
(c) zero (d) h
103. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay 110. 221
87 Ra is a radioactive substance having half life of 4 days.
into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0, number of P species Find the probability that a nucleus undergoes decay after
are 4 N0 and that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion two half lives
to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number 1
(a) 1 (b)
of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R 2
present in the sample would be 3 1
9N 0 (c) (d)
(a) 3N0 (b) 4 4
2 111. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 1010
5N0 disintegrations per second, whose mean life is 109 s. The
(c) (d) 2N0
2 mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10–25 kg. The mass
104. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time (in mg) of the radioactive sample is
(a) 1 (b) 3
2
interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2when of it has decayed (c) 5 (d) 6
3
112. The half life of the radioactive substance is 40 days. The
1 substance will disintegrate completely in
and the time t1 when of it had decayed is (a) 40 days (b) 400 days
3
(a) 30 days (b) 50 days (c) 4000 days (d) infinite time
(c) 60 days (d) 15 days 113. A radioactive substance contains 10000 nuclei and its half-
105. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 life period is 20 days. The number of nuclei present at the
with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the end of 10 days is
mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the (a) 7070 (b) 9000
two in the mixture will become equal after (c) 8000 (d) 7500
EBD_7208
450 NUCLEI
114. The half-life of radioactive Radon is 3.8 days. The time at (a) 2 (b) 4
the end of which (1/20)th of the Radon sample will remain (c) between 4 and 6 (d) 6
undecayed is (given log10e = 0.4343) 122. After 150 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000
(a) 13.8 days (b) 16.5 days dps. The activity becomes 2500 dps after another 75 days.
(c) 33 days (d) 76 days The initial activity of the sample is
115. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr emits (a) 20000 dps (b) 40000 dps
radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe (c) 7500 dps (d) 10000 dps
level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to 123. At any instant, the ratio of the amount of radioactive
work safely with this source is substances is 2 : 1. If their half lives be respectively 12 and
(a) 6 hr (b) 12 hr 16 hours, then after two days, what will be the ratio of the
(c) 24 hr (d) 128 hr substances ?
116. At time t = 0, N1 nuclei of decay constant 1 and N2 nuclei (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
124. Half lives for and emission of a radioactive material are
of decay constant 2 are mixed. The decay rate of mixture
16 years and 48 years respectively. When material decays
is giving and emission simultaneously, time in which 3/
(a) N1 N 2 e ( 1 2)t 4th material decays is
(a) 29 years (b) 24 years
N1 ( 1 2 )t
(c) 64 years (d) 12 years
(b) e
N2 125. In a given reaction
A
t t zA z 1 YA z 1 KA 4
z 1 KA 4
(c) ( N1 1e 1 N1 2
2e )
Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence of
N1 1N 2 ( 1 2)t (a) , , (b) , ,
(d) 2e
(c) , , (d) , ,
117. Radium 226Ra, spontaneously decays to radon with the
126. An element A decays into an element C by a two step process
emission of an -particle and a ray. If the speed of the
particle upon emission from an initially stationary radium A B 2He4 and B C 2e . Then,
nucleus is 1.5 ×107 m/s, what is the recoil speed of the (a) A and C are isotopes (b) A and C are isobars
resultant radon nucleus? Assume the momentum of ray is (c) B and C are isotopes (d) A and B are isobars
negligible compared to that of particle. 127. In which sequence the radioactive radiations are emitted in
(a) 2..0 × 105 m/s (b) 2.7 × 105 m/s the following nuclear reaction?
5
(c) 3.5 × 10 m/s (d) 1.5 × 107 m/s
A A A–4
1 ZX Z + 1Y Z–1 K
118. The fossil bone has a 14C : 12C ratio, which is of that (a) and (b) and
16
(c) and (d) and
in a living animal bone. If the half-life of 14C is 5730 years, 128. Half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minute. Difference
then the age of the fossil bone is between points of time when it is 33% disintegrated and
(a) 11460 years (b) 17190 years 67% disintegrated is approximately
(c) 22920 years (d) 45840 years (a) 40 minute (b) 10 minute
119. An archaeologist analyses the wood in a prehistoric (c) 15 minute (d) 20 minute
structure and finds that C14 (Half life = 5700 years) to C12 is
129. A nucleus m emits one -particle and two -particles.
only one-fourth of that found in the cells of buried plants. n X
The age of the wood is about The resulting nucleus is
(a) 5700 years (b) 2850 years m 6 m 6
(a) n 4 Z (b) n Z
(c) 11,400 years (d) 22,800 years
120. Atomic weight of boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes (c) m 4 (d) m 4
10 11 10 11 n X n 2Y
5B and 5B . Then ratio of 5B : 5B in nature would be
(a) 19 : 81 (b) 10 : 11 130. A nucleus with Z= 92 emits the following in a sequence:
(c) 15 : 16 (d) 81 : 19 , , , , , , , , , , , ,
121. A radioactive element X converts into another stable element
Then Z of the resulting nucleus is
Y. Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially only X is present. After time
(a) 76 (b) 78
t, the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be 1 : 4, then t in
hours is (c) 82 (d) 74
NUCLEI 451
131. The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as 136. The energy released per fission of a 92 U235 nucleus is nearly
the mean life time of another radio-active element Y. Initially (a) 200 eV (b) 20 eV
they have the same number of atoms. Then (c) 200 MeV (d) 2000 eV
(a) X and Y decay at same rate always 137. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single U235
(b) X will decay faster than Y nucleus, the number of fissions required per second to
(c) Y will decay faster than X produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)
(d) X and Y have same decay rate initially (a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 3.125 × 1014
132. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic (c) 3.125 × 1015 (d) 3.125 × 1016
number Z emits 3 - particles and 2 positrons. The ratio of 138. A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the
number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is
will be 0.02866 a.m.u. The energy liberated per a.m.u. is
A Z 8 A Z 4 (Given : 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV)
(a) (b) (a) 26.7 MeV (b) 6.675 MeV
Z 4 Z 8
(c) 13.35 MeV (d) 2.67 MeV
A Z 12 A Z 4 2
(c) (d) 139. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron 1H and
Z 4 Z 2
helium nucleus 4 is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively..
133. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X (n, ) 73 Li . Which 2 He
If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus,
of the following is the nucleus of element X ?
then the energy released is
(a) 10 (b) 12
5 Be C6 (a) 23.6 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV
(c) 13.9 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
(c) 11 (d) 9
4 Be 5B
140. If the binding energy per nucleon in 73 Li and 42 He nuclei
134. In a fission reaction
are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively, then in the reaction
236 117 117
92 U X Y n n
7
p 3 Li 2 42 He
the binding energy per nucleon of X & Y is 8.5 MeV. Whereas
of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about energy of proton must be
(a) 2000 MeV (b) 200 MeV (a) 28.24 MeV (b) 17.28 MeV
(c) 2 MwV (d) 200 KeV (c) 1.46 MeV (d) 39.2 MeV
135. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen 141. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron.
nuclei. The energy released per oxygen nuclei is [Mass of The energy released during this process is : (mass of neutron
He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of Oxygen nucleus is = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg,
15.9994 amu] mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg).
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV (a) 0.511 MeV (b) 7.10 MeV
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV (c) 6.30 MeV (d) 5.4 MeV
EBD_7208
452 NUCLEI
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 0.693

T
1. (c)
2. (b) Gold has 32 isotopes ranging from A = 173 to A = 204
0.693N
3. (d) Nuclear radius = 10–14 m. =
n
4. (a) Chemical properties are unaffected with addition of
36. (b) Activity is proportional to mass. Activity of specimen
neutrons to the nucleus.
B is maximum. Thus, mass of specimen B is also
5. (c) Radius of nucleus R = R0 A1/3 where A is the mass
maximum.
number of nucleus.
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)
4 3 4 41. (c) The risk posed to a human being by any radiation
Volume of nucleus R R 30 A
3 3 exposure depends partly upon the absorbed dose, the
amount of energy absorbed per gram of tissue.
Volume is proportional to A.
Absorbed dose is expressed in rad. A rad is equal to
6. (c) Nucleus does not contain electron.
100 ergs of energy absorbed by 1 gram of tissue. The
7. (b)
more modern, internationally adopted unit is the gray
8. (a) In pressurised-water, nuclear reactor, in primary loop
(named after the English medical physicist L. H. Gray);
water is circulated through the reactor vessel and
one gray equals 100 rad.
transfers energy to steam generator in secondary
42. (a)
loop.
43. (d) Half life of a substance doesn’t depends upon amount,
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) temperature and pressure. It depends upon the nature
12. (d) Average BE/nucleon increases first, and then of the substance.
decreases, as is clear from BE curve.
44. (b) 0 is known as – particle & is known as
1e
B.E
13. (d) Mass defect antineutrino. Since in this reaction is emitted with
c2
0 ( – particle or electron), so it is known as -decay..
Mass of nucleus = Mass of proton 1e
+ mass of neutron – mass defect 45. (b)
14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 46. (c) Control rods are made of cadmium.
18. (b) 19. (d) 47. (a) Boron rods absorb excess neutrons.
20. (a) Antiparticle of electron ( –1e0) is positron ( +1e0) 48. (c) Moderator slows down neutrons.
21. (c) An electron is accompanied by an antineutrino. 49. (d) Extremely high temps needed for fusion make K.E. large
22. (d) All the characteristics given are true for enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.
radioactivity. 50. (c)
23. (d) -rays carry no charge. They are neither deflected by
an electric field nor by a magnetic field. STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
24. c -rays are charged particles emitted by nucleus.
25. (c) Fusion is not a mode of decay. 51. (c) Hydrogen has three isotopes Hydrogen
1
0.693 1 1H , Denterium 12 H , and Tritium 13 H .
26. (c) Half life Th , Tm Clearly,, Th Tm .
52. (b) The chemical properties of elements depend on their
27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (a) electronic structure. As the atoms of isotopes have
32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) identical electronic structure they have identical
35. (c) Number of a-particles emitting chemical behaviour and are placed in the same
dN location in the periodic table.
per second =
dt 53. (d) As R A1/ 3 and volume of nucleus is proportional
= N=n to R3 is proportional to A. Thus, the density of
n nucleus is a constant, independent of A, for all
nuclei. Different nuclei are likes drop of liquid of
N
NUCLEI 453
constant density. The density of nuclear matter is
approximately 2.3 × 1017 kg m–3. N
This density is very large compared to ordinary
matter, say water which is 1023 kg m–3. This is
understandable, as we have already seen that most
of the atom is empty. Ordinary matter consisting of
atoms has a large amount of empty space. t
54. (d) For 0 < A < 80, Ebn first increases then decreases.
55. (b) The common time measure of how long any given
type of radionuclide lasts is the half-life T1/2 of a
radionuclide, Which is the time at which both N and M A
R have been reduced to one-half their initial values. 66. (a) = 4 3
V r
A sample may have nuclei which are not radioactive. 3
56. (a) Neutrons can’t be deflected by a magnetic field.
A 1
= constant
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 4
( r0 A1/ 3 )3
4 3
r0
3 3
57. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
58. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) 67. (b) Both statements are separately correct.
68. (d) In case of hydrogen atom mass number and atomic
15 15 0
8 O 7 N 1 number are equal.
particle 69. (c) Nuclear force is nearly same for all nucleus.
238 234 4 dN 0.693N

92 U 90 Th 2 He 70. (c) Radioactivity N
particle
dt T1/ 2
0.693 108 0.693 1.2 108
185 184 1 0.693 2 106.
83 Bi 82 Pb 1H 50 60
proton Radioactivity is proportional to 1/T1/2, and not to T1/2.
71. (b) -particles, being emitted with very high speed
239 140 99
94 Pu 57 La 37 X compared to -particles, pass for very little time near
(c) is the correct option. the atoms of the medium. So the probability of the
59. (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1) atoms being ionised is comparatively less. But due to
60. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) this reason, their loss of energy is very slow and they
can penetrate the medium through a sufficient depth.
72. (c) Electrons are not inside nucleus.
73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (c)
61. (d) For A + B C + , is the positive. This is because Eb 78. (d) We know that energy is released when heavy nuclei
for D and E is greater then Eb for F. undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion.
62. (c) Therefore statement (1) is correct.
63. (c) Energy is released in a process when total binding energy The second statement is false because for heavy nuclei
(BE) of products is more than the reactants. By calculations the binding energy per nucleon decreases with
we can see that this happens in option (c). increasing Z and for light nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases
Given W = 2Y with increasing Z.
BE of reactants = 120 × 7.5 = 900 MeV
BE of products = 2 × (60 × 8.5) = 1020 MeV. CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
64. (c) The range of energy of -particles is from zero to some
1/ 3 1/ 3
maximum value. Rs As 32
79. (c) 2
65. (c) No. of nuclide at time t is given by N Noe t R He A He 4
Where N o initial nuclide 80. (b) As momentum is conserved, therefore,
thus this equation is equivalent to y ae kx m1 A1 v2 1

m2 A2 v1 2
thus correct graph is
EBD_7208
454 NUCLEI
88. (c) Energy released = (80 × 7 + 120 × 8 – 200 × 6.5)

1/ 3 1/ 3
R1 A1 1 89. (a) B.E. = mc2 = × 931 MeV
1 : 21 / 3
R2 A2 2 = [2(1.0087 + 1.0073) – 4.0015] × 931 = 28.4 MeV
90. (a) E = mc2 = 10–6 × (3 × 108)2 = 10–6 × 9 × 1016 = 9 × 1010 J
81. (b) R R 0 (A)1/ 3 3 1
91. (c) Substance left undecayed, N 0 N0 N0
1/ 3 4 4
R1 A1 1/3
27 3
R2 A2 125 5 N 1 1
n
N0 4 2
R2 3.6 6 fermi Number of atoms left undecayed,
3
n = 2 i.e. in two half lives
82. (c) Binding energy t = nT = 2 × 4 = 8 months
= [ZMP + (A – Z)MN – M]c2 92. (a) Let no. of -particles emitted be x and no. of particles
= [8MP + (17 – 8)MN – M]c2 emitted be y.
= [8MP + 9MN – M]c2 Diff. in mass no. 4x = 238 – 206 = 32 x = 8
= [8MP + 9MN – Mo]c2 Diff. in charge no. 2x – 1y = 92 – 82 = 10
83. (a) Iodine and Yttrium are medium sized nuclei and 16 – y = 10, y = 6
therefore have more binding energy per nucleon as 93. (a) We assume that mass number of nucleus when it was
compared to Uranium which has a big nucleus and at rest = A
less B.E. / nucleon. In other words, Iodine and Yttrium mass number of -particle = 4
are more stable and therefore, possess less energy mass number of remaining nucleus = A - 4
and less rest mass. Also, when Uranium nuclei As there is no external force, so momentum of the
explodes, it will convert into I and Y nuclei having system will remain conserved
kinetic energies.
4v
2.22 0 A 4v 4v v'
84. (a) B.E H 1.11 A 4
2
negative sign represents that direction is opposite
28.3 to the direction of motion of -particle.
B.E He 7.08
4 94. (b) A nucleus is denoted by ZXA
492 An isotope should have same Z.
B.E Fe 8.78 = maximum –particle = 2He4; –particle = –1 0
56
The emission of one particle and the emission of
1786 two particles maintain the Z same.
B.E U 7.6
235 Hence, for isotope formation 2 particles and one
56 particle are emitted.
26 Fe is most stable as it has maximum binding energy
per nucleon. ln 2 ln 2
95. (a) T1/ 2
85. (b) B.E. = 0.042 × 931 42 MeV T1/ 2
Number of nucleons in 37 Li is 7. In2 ln 2 TB

, A .
A B
TA TB B TA
42
B.E./ nucleon = = 6 MeV 5.6 MeV
7
96. (a) 72 A
180
70 A1
176
71 A 2
176
0.3
86. (d) E m.c2 E (3 108 ) 2 2.7 1013 J
1000 69 A3172 69 A 4172
97. (d) Radioactivity at T1 , R1 = N1
2.7 1013 6
7.5 10 kWh. Radioactivity at T2, R2 = N2
3.6 106 Number of atoms decayed in time
87. (b) Q = 4 (x2 – x1) (T1 – T2) = (N1 –N2)
NUCLEI 455
(R 1 R 2 ) (R1 R 2 ) T (4N 0 ) N0
= (R1 R 2 ) T NP
0.693 4 /1 4
2
98. (d) at t = 4 min.
dN N0 N0
99. (c) N activity R N0
dt 4 4
R0 = N0 at t = 0, R1 = N1 at t = 5 minutes or population of R
2.303 N N0 N0 9N 0
where log 0 4N0 N0 =
t N1 4 4 2
NA (1 / 2) n A (1 / 2) 4 1 1
100. (c) , where n A & nB are 104. (b) N1 = N0 e– t N1 N0
3
NB (1 / 2) n B (1 / 2) 2 4
number of half lives of samples A & B respectively. NA N0 t2

N0e
& NB are the remaining numbers of A & B after 80 3
minutes in this case.
1 t
t e ...(i)
101. (d) N = N 0 e 3
Here, t = 5 minutes 2
N2 N0
N0 3
N0 e 5
e
2 t1
N0 N0e
1 3
5 1 , or ,
5
2 t1
e ...(ii)
3
n2
Now, T1/2 = = 5 n2 Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii)
102. (b) Momentum 1 (t2 t1 )

e
E h 2
Mu =
c c (t2 t1 ) ln2
Recoil energy
2
ln 2
1 1 M2u 2 1 h h2 2 t 2 t1 = T1/2 = 50 days
Mu 2 = 2
2 2 M 2M c 2Mc
105. (d) Let, the amount of the two in the mixture will become
103. (b) Initially P 4N0 equal after t years.
Q N0 The amount of A1, which remains after t years
Half life TP = 1 min.
N 01
TQ = 2 min. N1
Let after time t number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, (2)t/20
that is The amount of A2, which remains, after t years
4N0 N0 4N 1 N 02
t /1 t/2 t /1 t/2 2t/1 = 4.2t/2 N2
2 2 2 2 (2)t/10
22.2t/2 = 2(2 + t/2) According to the problem
t t t N1 = N2
2 2 t = 4 min
1 2 2 40 160
t/20
(2) (2)t/10
EBD_7208
456 NUCLEI
t
i.e. 1019
radioactive atoms are present in the freshly
2
prepared sample.
2t/20 2 10
The mass of the sample
t t = 1019 × 10–25 kg = 10–6kg = 1 mg
2
20 10 112. (d) Time taken to disintegrate completely by a substance
N0
t t is infinity as log t
2 N
20 10
N0
t log t
2 0
20
t = 40 s log t
1 hence when N 0, t .
106. (a) The value of x is
8 t 10
N 1 T N 1 20
x0 x 113. (a) or
= = 30 t = 3T = 3 × 20 = 60 years N0 2 10000 2
8 2
Hence the estimated age of the rock is 60 years 10000 1 10000
or N 7070.
ALTERNATE : X Y0 2 1.414
at t = 0 N0 0
n
at t = t N N0 – N 1 N 1
114. (b) gives n = 4.32
2 N0 20
N 1 N 1
= = = t = nT = 4.3 × 3.8 = 16.5 days
N0 N 7 N0 8
115. (b) To work safely, intensity must reduce by 1/64
t = 3T
= 3 × 20 = 60 years t /T 6 t/T
N 1 1 1 1
107. (a) Amount left = N0/2n = N0/8 (Here n=15/5=3) N0 64 2
i.e.
2 2
108. (a) Applying the principle of conservation of linear
momentum t
or 6 or t = 6 T = 12 hrs
4u T
(4) (u) = (v) (238) v
238 116. (d)
117. (b) Conservation of linear momentum requires:
1 N0 1 5000
109. (a) K n K n mradonvradon= mheliumvhelium with helium identified as the
t N 5 1250
alpha particle. The nuclear masses can be approximated
by their mass numbers (222 and 4). Thus, the recoil
1 2
n ( 4) n2 0. 4 n 2 speed of the radon is (4/222) × 1.5 × 107 m/s = 2.7 x 105
5 5
m/s.
110. (b) Radioactive decay is a random process. Each decay is a
completely independent event. Therefore, which 14
C 1 N
particular nucleus will decay at a given instant of time 118. (c) 12 = 16 N0
cannot be predicted. In other words when a particular C
nucleus will decay cannot be predicted. Each nucleus N 1
n
has same probability of disintegration. N0 = 2
dN 1 1 1
n
1
4
1
n
111. (a) We know that , N N
dt Tmean = =
16 2 2 2
1 or, n=4
1010 N
109 t
or =4
N = 1019 T
or t = 4 × T = 4 × 5730 = 22920 years
NUCLEI 457
119. (c) m 4 . But as it

Therefore, the new nucleus becomes n 2Y
t / 5700 – particles, its atomic number
C14 1 1 t emits two increases by
2 t 11400 years
C12 4 2 5700 m 4
2. Thus the resulting nucleus is n X.
120. (a) Let the percentage of B10 atoms be x, then average
130. (b) No. of particles emitted = 8
atomic weight
No. of – particles emitted = 4
10x 11(100 x) No. of + particles emitted = 2
10.81 x 19
100 Z = 92 – 2 × 8 + 4 – 2 = 78
131. (c) According to question,
N 19
B10 Half life of X, T1/2 = av , mean life of Y
N 11 81
B 0.693 1
121. (c) Let N0 be the number of atoms of X at time t = 0. X Y
Then at t = 4 hrs (two half lives)
X (0.693). Y
N0 3N0
Nx and N y
4 4 X Y.
Nx/Ny = 1/3 Now, the rate of decay is given by

and at t = 6 hrs (three half lives) dN
X N0
N0 7N 0 dt
Nx and N y
8 8
dN
Nx 1 4 N0
or dt
Ny 7 4
1 1 1 Y will decay faster than X.

The given ratio lies between and .
4 3 7 132. (b) As a result of emission of 1 -particle, the mass number
Therefore, t lies between 4 hrs and 6 hrs. decreases by 4 units and atomic number decreases by 2
122. (a) Activity of sample becomes 2500 from 5000 in 75 days units. And by the emission of 1 positron the atomic number
therefore its half life is 75 days, so decreases by 1 unit but mass number remains constant.
R0 Mass number of final nucleus = A – 12
R 5000 R 0 5000 4 20, 000
150 Atomic number of final nucleus = Z – 8
2 75 Number of neutrons = (A – 12) – (Z – 8)
123. (a) For substance A :
48/12 =A–Z –4
1 N0 N0
2N0 NA 2N 0 Number of protons = Z – 8
2 23 8
For substance B : A Z 4
48/16
Required ratio =
1 N0 N0 Z 8
N0 NB N0
2 3 8
2 133. (a) A 1 7 4
NA : NB = 1 : 1 ZX 0n 3 Li 2 He
124. (b) Effective half life is calculated as On comparison,

1 1 1 A = 7 + 4 – 1 = 10, z = 3 + 2 – 0 = 5
T T1 T2 It is boron 5B10
1 1 1
T 12 years
T 16 48 134. (b) Liberated energy Q = 117 × 8.5 + 117 × 8.5 – 236 × 7.6 =
3 200 MeV. Thus, in fission of one Uranium nuclei nearly
Time in which will decay is 2 half lives = 24 years
4 200 MeV energy is liberated.
125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (d)
16
135. (c) 4 42 He 8O
129. (c) When m emits one -particle then its atomic mass
n X
B.E = M × 931.5 MeV
decreases by 4 units and atomic number by 2. = (4 × 4.0026 – 15.9994) × 931.5 = 10.24 MeV
EBD_7208
458 NUCLEI
136. (c) Energy released per fission is 200 MeV 140. (b) Let E be the energy of proton, then
E 7 5.6 2 [4 7.06]
E n 200 106 1.6 10 19
137. (a) P n 1000 E 56.48 39.2 17.28MeV
t t
141. (a) 1 1 0
0n 1H 1e Q
n 13
3.125 10 . The mass defect during the process
t
m mn mH me
138. (b) Mass defect m = 0.02866 a.m.u.
Energy = 0.02866 × 931 = 26.7 MeV = 1.6725 × 10 – (1.6725 × 10–27+ 9 × 10–31kg)
–27
As 1H2 + 1H2 4 = – 9 × 10–31 kg

2He
Energy liberated per a.m.u = 13.35/2 MeV The energy released during the process
= 6.675 MeV E = mc2
E = 9 × 10–31× 9 × 1016 = 81 × 10–15 Joules
139. (a) The chemical reaction of process is 212 H 4
2 He
15
81 10
Energy released 4 (7 ) 4(1.1) = 23.6 eV E= 0.511MeV
1.6 10 –19
29
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS :
MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
11. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the
FACT /DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
valence band and conduction band is of the order of
1. In a semiconductor (a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K (c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature 12. What is the resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute
(c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure zero ?
(d) the number of fre electrons is more than that in a (a) Zero
conductor
(b) Infinity
2. Let nh and n e be the number of holes and conduction
(c) Same as that of conductors at room temperature
electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor. Then
(a) nh > ne (b) nh = ne (c) nh < ne (d) nh ne (d) Same as that of insulators at room temperature
3. A p-type semiconductor is 13. Temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is
(a) positively charged (a) zero (b) constant
(b) negatively charged (c) positive (d) negative
(c) uncharged 14. In a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor valence band is
(d) uncharged at 0K but charged at higher temperatures (a) close to the valence band of the host crystal
4. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to (b) close to conduction band of the host crystal
(a) electrons only (c) below the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) holes only (d) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(c) both electrons and holes 15. In an n-type semiconductor, donor valence band is
(d) neither electrons nor holes
(a) above the conduction band of the host crystal
5. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped
to make it a p-type semiconductor are those of (b) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(a) phosphorus (b) boron (c) close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(c) antimony (d) nitrogen (d) below the valence band of the host crystal
6. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be 16. The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free
increased by holes because
(a) increasing the temperature (a) they are light
(b) doping acceptor impurities (b) they carry negative charge
(c) doping donor impurities (c) they mutually colllide less
(d) All of the above (d) they require low energy to continue their motion
7. The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in 17. The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a
between semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by
(a) 10–2 to 10–5 cm (b) 10–3 to 106 cm
6 8 (a) n T (b) n T2
(c) 10 to 10 cm (d) 1010 to 1012 cm
8. Number of electrons in the valence shell of a pure (c) n T (d) n T3/2
semiconductor is 18. In semiconductors, at room temperature
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) the conduction band is completely empty
9. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the
valence band and the conduction band is of the order is (b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 Mev band is partially filled
(c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV (c) the valence band is completely filled and the
10. The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is conduction band is partially filled
(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.71 eV (d) the valence band is completely filled
(c) 2.57 eV (d) 6.57 eV
EBD_7208
460 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
19. At absolute zero, Si acts as 29. The drift current in a p-n junction is from the
(a) non-metal (b) metal (a) n-side to the p-side
(c) insulator (d) None of these (b) p-side to the n-side
20. One serious drawback of semi-conductor devices is (c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased
(a) they do not last for long time. and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(b) they are costly (d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased
(c) they cannot be used with high voltage. and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
(d) they pollute the environment. 30. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the
21. When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, (a) n-side to the p-side
the conductivity of the semiconductor (b) p-side to the n-side
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased
(c) remains the same (d) becomes zero and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
22. An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the (d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased
number of charge carriers be n and the average drift speed and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
be v. If the temperature is increased 31. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift
(a) both n and v will increase current in magnitude
(b) n will increase but v will decrease (a) if the junction is forward-biased
(c) v will increase but n will decrease (b) if the junction is reverse-biased
(d) both n and v will decrease
(c) if the junction is unbiased
23. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(d) in no case
(a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
32. Forward biasing is that in which applied voltage
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(a) increases potential barrier
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the
(b) cancels the potential barrier
semiconductor
(c) is equal to 1.5 volt
(d) its resistance is increased
(d) None of these
24. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a
33. In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction, reverse biasing results in
conductor and a semiconductor
(a) leakage current
(a) increases for both (b) decreases for both
(b) the current barrier across junction increases
(c) increases, decreases (d) decreases, increases
(c) no flow of current
25. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from
(d) large current
room temperature to 80K. The resistance of
34. In reverse biasing
(a) each of these decreases
(a) large amount of current flows
(b) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(b) potential barrier across junction increases
(c) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
(c) depletion layer resistance increases
(d) each of these increases
(d) no current flows
26. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence
35. Zener diode is used for
electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are
(a) amplification (b) rectification
separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si
(c) stabilisation (d) all of the above
and (E g)Ge respectively. Which one of the following
36. Filter circuit
relationship is true in their case? (a) eliminates a.c. component
(a) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si (b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si (b) eliminates d.c. component
(c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge (c) does not eliminate a.c. component
27. A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit (d) None of these
with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to pass 37. For a junction diode the ratio of forward current (If) and
through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, reverse current (Ir) is
the current drops to almost zero. The device may be a/an [e = electronic charge,
(a) intrinsic semiconductor
V = voltage applied across junction,
(b) p-type semiconductor
k = Boltzmann constant,
(c) n-type semiconductor
T = temperature in kelvin]
(d) p-n junction diode
(a) e –V/kT (b) eV/kT
28. If the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire –eV/kT
(c) (e + 1) (d) (eeV/kT – 1)
(a) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
(b) there will be a steady current from the n-side to the p- 38. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers
side opposition to
(c) there will be a steady current from the p-side to the n- (a) holes in P-region only
side (b) free electrons in N-region only
(d) there may or may not be a current depending upon the (c) majority carriers in both regions
resistance of the connecting wire
(d) majority as well as minority carriers in both regions
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS 461
39. In a P -N junction 50. In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c. component
(a) the potential of P & N sides becomes higher alternately of the wave is
(b) the P side is at higher electrical potential than N side. (a) equal to d.c. value (b) more than d.c. value
(c) the N side is at higher electric potential than P side. (c) less than d.c. value (d) zero
(d) both P & N sides are at same potential. 51. In a transistor
40. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend (a) the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
on (b) the collector has the least concentration of impurity
(a) doping density (b) diode design (c) the base has the least concentration of impurity
(c) temperature (d) forward bias (d) all the three regions have equal concentrations of
41. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode impurity
(a) increases the minority carrier current 52. Current gain in common emitter configuration is more than
1 because
(b) lowers the potential barrier
(a) Ic < Ib (b) Ic < Ie (c) Ic > Ie (d) Ic > Ib
(c) raises the potential barrier
53. Current gain in common base configuration is less than 1
(d) increases the majority carrier current
because
42. In forward biasing of the p–n junction
(a) Ie < Ib (b) Ib < Ie (c) Ic < Ie (d) Ie < Ic
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
54. Operating point of a transistor is
p–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(a) zero signal value of VCC and Ib
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
n–side and the depletion region becomes thin (b) zero signal value of Ic
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (c) zero signal value of Vcc
n–side and the depletion region becomes thick (d) zero signal value of Ic and VCE
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to 55. A transistor is essentially
p–side and the depletion region becomes thin (a) a current operated device
43. When p-n junction diode is forward biased then (b) power driven device
(a) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced (c) a voltage operated device
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is (d) resistance operated device
reduced 56. Amplifier may be
(c) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is (a) multi stage (b) single stage
increased (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(d) Both the depletion region and barrier height are increased 57. In common emitter circuit, current gain is
44. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is (a) zero
(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction (b) same as in other configuration
(b) concentration of positive charges near the junction (c) lowest (d) highest
(c) depletion of negative charges near the junction 58. In common base circuit, output resistance is
(a) very high (b) low
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges near
(c) very low (d) moderate
the junction
59. In common collector circuit, voltage gain is
45. The ratio of forward biased to reverse biased resistance
(a) very high (b) moderate
for pn junction diode is
(c) low (d) very low
(a) 10–1 : 1 (b) 10–2 : 1
60. In a transistor
(c) 104 : 1 (d) 10–4 : 1
(a) both emitter and collector have same length
46. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse- biased p-
n junction, the (b) length of emitter is greater than that of collector
(a) electric field is zero (b) potential is maximum (c) length of collector is greater than that of emitter
(c) electric field is maximum (d) potential is zero (d) any one of emitter and collector can have greater
47. Bridge type rectifier uses length
(a) four diodes (b) six diodes 61. In a transistor, the base is
(c) two diodes (d) one diode
48. The average value of output direct current in a half wave (a) a conductor of low resistance
rectifier is (b) a conductor of high resistance
(a) I0/ (b) I0/2 (c) an insulator
(c) I0/2 (d) 2 I0/ (d) an extrinsic semiconductor
49. The average value of output direct current in a full wave
62. Negative feed back
rectifier is
(a) increases stability (b) decreases stability
(a) I0/ (b) I0/2
(c) produces oscillation (d) stops current in the tube
(c) I0/2 (d) 2 I0/
EBD_7208
63. The part of a transistor which is most heavily doped to 70. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
produce large number of majority carriers is (a) positive feedback
(a) emmiter (b) large gain
(b) base (c) negative feedback
(c) collector (d) no feedback
(d) can be any of the above three.
64. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference between 71. What is the value of A.C + A.B.C where A, B and C are
the input signal voltage and output voltage is inputs ?
(a) (b) (a) A.C (b) A.B

4
(c) A (d) B
(c) (d) 0
2 72. In Boolean algebra, Y = A + B implies that
65. The current gain may be defined as (a) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exist
(a) the ratio of change in collector current to the change (b) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B
in emitter current for a constant collector voltage in a exists or both inputs A and B exist
common base arrangement. (c) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B
(b) the ratio of change in collector current to the change exists but not when both inputs A and B exist
in the base current at constant collector voltage in a (d) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exists but
common emitter circuit not when either input A or B exist
(c) the ratio of change in emitter current to the change in 73. The gate for which output is high if atleast one input is
base current for constant emitter voltage in common low?
emitter circuit. (a) NAND (b) NOR
(d) the ratio of change in base current to the change in (c) AND (d) OR
collector current at constant collector voltage in 74. The truth-table given below is for which gate?
common emitter circuit.
66. The transistor are usually made of A B C
(a) metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of 0 0 1
resistivity 0 1 1
(b) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity 1 0 1
(c) metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity 1 1 0
(d) semiconducting materials having low temperature
(a) XOR (b) OR
coefficient of resistivity
(c) AND (d) NAND
67. A transistor has three impurity regions. All the three regions
75. NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates primarily
have different doping levels. In order of increasing doping
because they
level, the regions are (a) are available universally
(a) emitter, base and collector (b) can be combined to produce OR, AND and NOT gates
(b) collector, base and emitter (c) are widely used in Integrated circuit packages
(c) base, emitter and collector (d) are easiest to manufacture
(d) base, collector and emitter
68. To use a transistor as an amplifier, emitter-base junction STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
is kept in ...X... and base-collector junction is kept in ...Y...
Here, X and Y refer to 76. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
(a) forward bias, forward bias I. In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may
(b) reverse bias, reverse bias overlap.
(c) reverse bias, forward bias II. Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are
(d) forward bias, reverse bias insulators.
III. The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with
69. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier
(a) electrons move from collector to base
IV. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with
(b) holes move from emitter to base
(c) electrons move from base to collector (a) I and II only (b) I and III only
(d) holes move from base to emitter (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
77. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? II. The base must be very thin and lightly doped.
I. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type III. The emitter junction is forward biased and collector
semiconductor junction is reverse biased.
II. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes IV. Both emitter and collector junctions are forward
III. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are biased.
electrons (a) I and II (b) II and III
IV. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
with increase of temperature
(a) I only (b) I, III and IV MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) I and IV (d) II only
78. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following 84. Match the column I and Column II
statements are incorrect? Column I Column II
I. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms (Rnge of resistivity, )
are dopants. (A) Metals (1) 1011 – 1019 m
II. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are (B) Semiconductors (2) 10–5 –106 m
dopants. (C) Insulators (3) 10–2 –10–8 m
III. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are (4) 10–20 – 1025 m
dopants. (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1)
IV Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are (b) (A) (1,4); (B) (2); (C) (3)
dopants. (c) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3,4)
(a) I and II (b) I, III and IV (d) (A) (1); (B) (2,4); (C) (3)
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and III 85. Match the elements in column I, with their respective
79. In a solid-state semiconductor, the number of mobile energy gaps in column II.
charge carriers can be changed by Column I Column II
I. using light for excitation. (A) Diamond (1) 1.1 ev
(B) Aluminium (2) 0.71 ev
II. using heat for excitation.
(C) Germatium (3) 0.03 ev
III. using sound for excitation.
(D) Silicon (4) 6 ev
IV. using applied voltage for excitation.
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (2); (D) (3)
(c) I, II and III (d) I and II only (c) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (1)
80. Which of these are used for doping? (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
I. A trivalent impurity. 86. Column I Column II
II. A tetravalent impurity.
(A) Moderate size and (1) Base
III. A pentavalent impurity.
heavily doped
IV. A monovalent impurity.
(B) Very thin and lightly (2) Collector
(a) I and II (b) II and IV
doped
81. Due to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side (C) Moderately doped (3) Emitter
I. electron hole combination across p-n junction occurs. and of large size
II. an ionised acceptor is left in the p-region. (D) Dopped with penta (4) N-type semmiconductor
III. an ionised donor is left in the n-region. valent impurity
IV. electrons of n-sdie comes to p-side and electron- (a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
hole combination takes place in p-side (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (3)
Select the correct option from the following. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(a) I and II (b) II and III (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(c) II and IV (d) I, III and IV 87. Column I Column II
82. Which of these are correct ? (A) OR gate (1) A Y
I. In forward biasing holes from p-sdie crosses junction
and reach n-side.
II. In forward biasing electrons from n-sdie crosses (B) AND gate (2) A
B Y
junction and reach p-side.
III. In n-side holes are minority carriers. (C) NOT gate (3) A Y
B
IV. In p-side electrons are minority carriers.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV (D) NAND gate (4) A
B Y
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
83. For transistor action, which of the following statements (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
are correct ? (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (3)
I. Base emitter and collector region have similar size (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
and doping concentrations. (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (4)
EBD_7208
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 92. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series combination
of a resistor R and an ideal diode D as shown in the figure
88. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which below. The potential difference across R will be
one is reverse biased ?
+10 V
R D
R
(a) (b)
+5 V –12 V R
+5 V
–5 V
R
(c) R
(d)
–10 V
V
89. Two identical pn junctions may be connected in series,
(a) 2V when diode is forward biased
with a battery in three ways as shown in figure. The
potential drops across the two pn junctions are equal in (b) zero when diode is forward biased
(c) V when diode is reverse biased
PN NP PN PN NP NP
(d) V when diode is forward biased
93. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is
used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The
Circuit 1 Circuit 2 Circuit 3
current through the diode is
(a) circuit 1 and circuit 2
(b) circuit 2 and circuit 3
250
(c) circuit 3 and circuit 1
(d) circuit 1 only 20V 15V 1k
90. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of 10 V is
applied as shown
(a) 10 mA (b) 15 mA
5V
(c) 20 mA (d) 5 mA
RL 94. Which of the following gates will have an output of 1?
5V 1 0
Then the output signal across RL will be 1 1
10 V (A) (B)
+5V 0 0
(a) (b) 1 0
(C) (D)
(a) D (b) A
(c) (d) (c) B (d) C
5V
10 V 95. Following diagram performs the logic function of
91. In bridge rectifier circuit, (see fig.), the input signal should
be connected between A
Y
B
A
(a) XOR gate (b) AND gate
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
D B
96. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two
inputs A and B and the output Y. The voltage waveforms of
A, B and Y are given. The logic gate is
C
A Logic gate
(a) A and D (b) B and C
circuit Y
(c) A and C (d) B and D B
100. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible
inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table.
1 A
A A
0 Y
B
B
B 1
(a) A B Y (b) A B Y
0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1
1 0 1 1 0 0
Y 0 1 1 0 1 1 0
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 (c) A B Y (d) A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
(a) NAND (b) NOR 0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) XOR (d) OR 1 0 1 1 0 0
97. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B
1 1 1 1 1 1
and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and
C are as given. The logic gate circuit is: 101. The real time variation of input signals A and B are as shown
below. If the inputs are fed into NAND gate, then select the
output signal from the following.
A
A
A
B Y
B
B t (s)
C Y Y
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
(a) (b)
(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate t (s) t (s)
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate 0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8
98. The following circut represents
Y (c) Y (d) Y
t (s) t (s)
0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8
B
102. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C
(a) OR gate (b) XOR gate represents the output.
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate
99. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to A
A OR C
B
Y B
AND
NAND
The circuit represents
(a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate (a) NOR gate (b) AND gate
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate (c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
EBD_7208
103. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’
A B Y A B Y
and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output waveform.
0 0 0 0 0 0
A
Y 0 1 1 0 1 0
(a) (b)
B 1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
Input A
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
Input B
0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) (d)
1 0 0 1 0 1
Output is 1 1 0 1 1 1
(a)
(b) Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
(c) alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(d) explanation for assertion.
104. The combination of gates shown below yields (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
A
X 107. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature
coefficient of resistance.
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the temperature,
B more charge carriers are released, conductance increases
and resistance decreases.
(a) OR gate (b) NOT gate 108. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor is
(c) XOR gate (d) NAND gate increased then its resistance decreases.
105. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F Reason : The energy gap between conduction band and
of the circuit is represented by valence band is very small.
109. Assertion : In semiconductors, thermal collisions are
W respossible for taking a valence electron to the conduction
band.
X Reason : The number of conduction electrons go on
F increasing with time as thermal collisions continuously take
W place.
110. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a positive type
Y crystal.
Reason : A p- type semiconductor is an uncharged crystal.
(a) W . (X + Y) (b) W . (X . Y)
111. Assertion : Silicon is preferred over germanium for making
(c) W + (X . Y) (d) W + (X + Y)
semiconductor devices.
106. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in
Reason : The energy gap in germanium is more than the
figure is
energy gap in silicon.
A 112. Assertion : Electron has higher mobility than hole in a
semiconductor.
Reason : The mass of electron is less than the mass of the
Y hole.
113. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon
semiconductor is less than the number of electrons in a
pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
B Reason : It is due to law of mass action.
114. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and n type are (a) 2.37 × 1019 m–3 (b) 3.28 × 1019 m–3
brought in contact, they form p-n junction which act like a (c) 7.83 × 1019 m–3 (d) 8.47 × 1019 m–3
rectifier. 126. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor if electron
Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating current density = 5 × 1012/cm3 and hole density = 8 × 1013/cm3
into direct current. (µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1, µh = 0.01 m2V–1 s–1)
115. Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical
(a) 5.634 –1 m–1 (b) 1.968 –1 m–1
communication.
(c) 3.421 –1 m–1 (d) 8.964 –1 m–1
Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.
116. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from 127. In a p-type semiconductor the acceptor level is situated 60
the p-side to the n-side. meV above the valence band. The maximum wavelength of
Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater light required to produce a hole will be
than the drift current when the junction is in forward biased. (a) 0.207 × 10–5 m (b) 2.07 × 10–5 m
117. Assertion : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the n- –5
(c) 20.7 × 10 m (d) 2075 × 10–5 m
side to the p-side.
Reason : It is due to free electrons only. 128. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to that of holes
118. Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as 7 7
a photo-diode to measure light intensity. in a semiconductor is and the ratio of currents is ,
5 4
Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but
it is more sensitive to changes in incident light intensity. then what is the ratio of their drift velocities?
119. Assertion : A transistor amplifier in common emitter 5 4
configuration has a low input impedence. (a) (b)
8 5
Reason : The base to emitter region is forward biased. 4
5
120. Assertion : NOT gate is also called invertor circuit. (c) (d)
4 7
Reason : NOT gate inverts the input order.
129. In a p-n junction having depletion layer of thickness
121. Assertion : NAND or NOR gates are called digital building
10–6 m the potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is
blocks.
Reason : The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can (a) 107 V/m (b) 10–6 V/m
5
(c) 10 V/m (d) 10–5 V/m
produce all the basis or complicated gates.
130. In a reverse biased diode when the applied voltage changes
by 1 V, the current is found to change by 0.5 µA. The reverse
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS bias resistance of the diode is
122. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (a) 2 × 105 (b) 2 × 106
(nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium (c) 200 (d) 2 .
increases n h to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is 131. When the forward bias voltage of a diode is changed from
of 0.6 V to 0.7 V, the current changes from 5 mA to 15 mA. Then
(a) n–type with electron concentration its forward bias resistance is
ne = 5 × 1022 m–3 (a) 0.01 (b) 0.1
(b) p–type with electron concentration (c) 10 (d) 100
ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3 132. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across its junction
(c) n–type with electron concentration which does not depend on current, is connected in series
ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
(d) p–type having electron concentration with resistance of 20 across source. If 0.1 A current
ne = 5 × 109 m–3 passes through resistance then what is the voltage of the
123. On doping germanium with donor atoms of density source?
1017 cm–3 its conductivity in mho/cm will be (a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V
[Given e = 3800 cm2/V–s and ni = 2.5 × 1013 cm–13] (c) 2.5 V (d) 5 V
(a) 30.4 (b) 60.8 133. If the forward bias on p-n junction is increased from zero to
(c) 91.2 (d) 121.6 0.045 V, then no current flows in the circuit. The contact
124. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor
potential of junction i.e. VB is
is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes
(a) zero (b) 0.045 V
is 5/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and
holes will be (c) more than 0.045 V (d) less than 0.045 V
(a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 134. The peak voltage in the output of a half-wave diode rectifier
(c) 25/49 (d) 49/25 fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10V. The d.c.
125. The intrinsic conductivity of germanium at 27° is 2.13 mho component of the output voltage is
m–1 and mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.38 and 0.18 (a) 20/ V (b) 10/ 2 V
m2V–1s–1 respectively. The density of charge carriers is (c) 10/ V (d) 10V
EBD_7208
135. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in (a) 197 (b) 201
the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is (c) 198 (d) 199
146. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in
D1 10
A B 10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in the base. The current
transfer ratio will be
D2 20 (a) 0.98 (b) 0.97
C D
(c) 0.96 (d) 0.94
5V 147. The transfer ratio of transistor is 50. The input resistance
E F of a transistor when used in C.E. (Common Emitter)
(a) 0.75 A (b) zero configuration is 1k . The peak value of the collector A.C
(c) 0.25 A (d) 0.5 A current for an A.C input voltage of 0.01V peak is
(a) 100 A (b) .01 mA
136. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains
(c) .25 mA (d) 500 A
frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would
148. In a transistor, the change in base current from 100 µA to
be
125 µA causes a change in collector current from 5 mA to
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
7.5 mA, keeping collector-to-emitter voltage constant at 10
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz
V. What is the current gain of the transistor?
137. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains
(a) 200 (b) 100
frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would
(c) 50 (d) 25
be
149. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
collector resistance and input resistance are 5 k an 500
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz respectively. If the input voltage is 0.01 V, the output voltage
138. A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an alternating is
voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The number of pulses of rectified (a) 0.62 V (b) 6.2 V
current obtained in one second is (c) 62 V (d) 620 V
(a) 50 (b) 25 150. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an
(c) 100 (d) 2000 input impedance of 100 and an output impedance of 200 .
139. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration The power gain of the amplifier is
for load impedance of 1k (hfe 50 and h oe 25 s) the (a) 500 (b) 1000
current gain is (c) 1250 (d) 50
(a) – 24.8 (b) – 15.7 151. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at
(c) – 5.2 (d) – 48.78 VC = 2V such that a change in the base current from 100 A
140. In a common base mode of a transistor, the collector current to 300 A produces a change in the collector current from
is 5.488 mA for an emitter current of 5.60 mA. The value of 10mA to 20 mA. The current gain is
the base current amplification factor ( ) will be (a) 50 (b) 75
(a) 49 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 25
(c) 51 (d) 48 152. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across
141. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and emitter current the collector resistance of 2k is 2V. If the base resistance
90 mA. The collector current will be is 1k and the current amplification of the transistor is
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA 100, the input signal voltage is
(c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA (a) 0.1 V (b) 1.0 V
142. In a common emitter transistor amplifier = 60, Ro = 5000 (c) 1 mV (d) 10 mV
and internal resistance of a transistor is 500 . The voltage 153. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is
amplification of amplifier will be 100 W. Base current is changed by 40 A which results in a
(a) 500 (b) 460 change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used
(c) 600 (d) 560 as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4
143. For a common base amplifier, the values of resistance gain K . The voltage gain of the amplifier is
and voltage gain are 3000 and 2800 respectively. The current (a) 2000 (b) 3000
gain will be (c) 4000 (d) 1000
(a) 1.1 (b) 0.98 154. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain
(c) 0.93 (d) 0.83 G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 mho and
144. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier, current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with
where input resistance is 3 and load resistance 24 , another one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current
= 0.6 ? gain 20, the voltage gain will be
(a) 8 . 4 (b) 4 . 8 1
(c) 2 . 4 (d) 480 (a) 1.5 G (b) G
3
145. The current gain of a transistor in common base mode is
0.995. The current gain of the same transistor in common 5 2
(c) G (d) G
emitter mode is 4 3
25. (c) Copper is a conductor so its resistance decreases on

decreasing temperature as thermal agitation decreases
1. (a) whereas germanium is semiconductor therefore on
2. (d) In extrinsic semi conductor the number of holes are not decreasing temperature resistance increases.
equal to number of electrons i.e., 26. (a) Due to strong electronegativity of carbon.
27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (a)
nh ne
32. (b) Forward bias opposes the potential barrier and if the
In p - type nh ne applied voltage is more than knee voltage it cancels the
potential barrier.
In n - type ne nh 33. (a) Leakage current is the name given to the reverse current.
3. (c) By doping, the band gap reduce from 1eV to 0.3 to 0.7 34. (b) In the reverse biasing of p-n junction, the voltage
eV & electron can achieve this energy (0.3eV to 0.7eV) applied supports the barrier voltage across junction,
at room temperature & reach in C.B (conduction band). which increases the width of depletion layer and hence
4. (c) Electric conduction, in a semi conductors occurs due to increases its resistance.
both electrons & holes. 35. (c) Zener diode is used as a voltage regulator i.e. for
5. (b) 6. (d) stabilization purposes.
7. (b) Resistivity of a semiconductor at room temp. is in 36. (a) filter circuit eliminates a.c. component of rectified voltage
between 10–5 m to 104 m i.e. 10–3 to 106 cm obtained from p-n junction as a rectifier.
8. (d) The valency of semiconductor (Ge or Si) is four, hence 37. (d) Current in junction diode, I I 0 (e eV / kT 1)
it has 4 valence electrons in the outermost orbit of the
Ge or Si-atom In forward biasing, V is positive ; In reverse bias V
9. (c) is negative. Then Ir = I0
10. (b) The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal is 0.71 eV. IF I 0 (e eV / kT 1)
(e eV / kT 1)
11. (d) Ir I0
12. (b) The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor at 0 K is 38. (c)
zero. Hence resistivity (= 1/electrical conductivity) is 39. (b) For easy flow of current the P side must be connected
infinity. to +ive terminal of battery i.e., it is connected to higher
13. (d) The temperature coefficient of resistance of a potential in comparison to N. This connection is called
semiconductor is negative. It means that resistance forward biased. In this case the input resistance is very
decrease with increase of temperature. low.
14. (a) The acceptor valence band is close to the valence band In reverse-biased, the P-side is connected to –ive
of host crystal terminal & N side to (+ive) terminal to battery. In this
15. (c) The donor valence band lies little below the conduction case input resistance is very high.
band of the host crystal
16. (a) wn I
kdo e
ea ag forward
Eg
Br volt biased
17. (d) For semiconductor, n AT 3/ 2
e 2KT ; VB
V
VT
so n T3/ 2 reverse
18. (c) biased
19. (c) Semiconductors are insulators at low temperature 40. (b) Barrier potential depends on, doping density,
20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a)
temperature, forward/reverse bias but does not depend
23. (c) When small amount of antimony (pentavalent) is added
on diode design.
to germanium crystal then crystal becomes n-type semi
41. (c) In reverse biasing, the conduction across the p-n junction
conductor. Therefore, there will be more free electrons
than holes in the semiconductor. does not take place due to majority carriers, but takes place
24. (c) The resistivity of conductor increases with increase in due to minority carriers if the voltage of external battery is
temperature. The resistivity of semiconductor decreases large. The size of the depletion region increases thereby
as the temperature increases. increasing the potential barrier.
EBD_7208
42. (d) In forward biasing of the p-n junction, the positive 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a)
terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the
73. (d) Relation between A, B and C shows that C AB
negative terminal of the battery is connected to n-side.
The depletion region becomes thin. So NAND Gate
43. (a) Both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced. 74. (d) The given truth table is for NAND gate.
44. (d) During the formation of a junction diode, holes from p- 75. (b) Combination of NAND & NOR gates can produce OR,
region diffuse into n-region and electrons from n-region AND & NOT gates
diffuse into p-region. In both cases, when an electrons
meets a hole, they cancel the effect at each other and as
a result, a thin layer at the junction becomes free from STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
any of charges carriers. This is called depletion layer.
76. (c)
There is a potential gradient in the depletion layer,
negative on the p-side, and positive on the n-side. The 77. (b) Majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are
potential difference thus developed across the junction electrons.
is called potential barrier. 78. (b) In a n-type semiconductor holes are minority carriers
45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
48. (a) The average value of output direct current in a half wave 79. (b) Simple excitations like light, heat or small applied
rectifier is = (average value of current over a cycle)/2 = voltage can change the number of mobile charges in
(2 I0/ )/2 = I0/ a semiconductor. In general energy of sound is not
49. (d) The average value of output direct current in a full wave sufficient to excite electrons.
rectifier = average value of current over a cycle = 2 I 0/ 80. (d) A necessary condition to attain this is that the sizes
50. (b) The r.m.s. value of a.c. component of wave is more than of the dopant and the semiconductor atoms should
d.c. value due to barrier voltage of p-n junction used as be nearly the same.
rectifier. There are two types of dopants used in doping the
51. (c) In transistor base is least doped, so that most of electrons tetravalent Si or Ge :
emitted (in case of npn) from emitter reach to collector & (i) Pentavalent (valency 5) like Arsenic (As), Antimony
less n umber of electrons are destr oyed due to (Sb), Phosphorous (P), etc.
recombination with holes in base. (iii) Trivalent (valency 3) like Indium (In), Boron (B) ,
Aluminium (Al), etc.
Ic
52. (d) 1 or Ic > Ib 81. (d) When an electlron diffuses from n P, it leaves
Ib behind an ionised donor (species which has becomes
Ic ion by donating electron) on n-side. This ionised
53. (c) 1 or I < I
c e
donor (positive charge) is immobile as it is bonded
Ie to the surrounding atoms. As the electrons continue
54. (d) Operating point of a transistor is zero signal value of Ic to diffuse from n-P, a layer of positive charge (or
and VCE. positive space-charge region) on n-side of the
55. (d) A transistor is a current operating device in which the juction is developed. On P-side atom receiving
emitter current controls the collector current electrons is ionised acceptor.
56. (c) An amplifier can be both a single stage and multistage 82. (d) In forward biasing due to the applied voltage,
57. (d) In common emitter circuit, the current gain is highest electrons from n-sdie cross the depletion region and
58. (d) 59. (a) reach P-side (where they are minority carriers).
60. (c) The size (or length) of collector is large in comparison 83. (b) Base of a transistor is thin and lightly doped, base-
to emitter (base is very small in comarison to both emitter region is in forward biased whereas collector
collector & emitter) to dissipate the heat. is in reverse biased.
61. (d)
62. (a) Negative feed back to a transistor increases stability in
the working of transistor. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
63. (a) 84. (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1)
64. (d) Zero; In common base amplifier circuit, input and output 85. (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
voltage are in the same phase. 86. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
65. (b) 87. (b) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
66. (a) Metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of
resistivity.
67. (d) DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
68. (d) The biasing of the transistor is done differently for 88. (d) Positive terminal is at lower potential (0V) and negative
different uses. The transistor works as an amplifier with terminal is at higher potential 5V.
its emitter-base junction forward biased and the base-
collector junction reverse biased. 89. (b) In circuit 2, each p-n junction is forward biased, hence
same current flows giving same potential difference
69. (d) Holes move from base to emmitter.
across p-n junction.
In circuit 3, each p-n junction is reverse biased, and
X AB
due to the flow of same leakage current, giving equal
potential difference across p-n junction.
Y X AB
90. (a) The current will flow through RL when the diode is
forward biased. Y = AB by Demorgan theorem
91. (d) The input signal should be connected between two This diagram performs the function of AND gate.
points of bridge rectifier such that in positive half wave
96. (a) From the given waveforms, the truth table is as
of input signal, one p-n junction should be forward
biased and other should be reverse biased and in follows.
negative half wave of input signal, the reverse should
take place. It will be so when input is connected between
A B Y
B and D.
92. (d) In forward biasing, the diode conducts. For ideal 1 1 0
junction diode, the forward resistance is zero; therefore, 0 0 1
entire applied voltage occurs across external resistance 0 1 1
R i.e., there occur no potential drop, but potential across
R is V in forward biased. 1 0 1
93. (d) Voltage across zener diode is constant.
The above truth table is for NAND gate.
250 i i1k
Therefore, the logic gate is NAND gate.
5V i–i1k
1k A 0 1 1 0
20v
15V 97. (a) B 0 0 1 1
15V C 1 1 1 1
OR gate
Current in 1k resistor,
98. (b) Output of upper AND gate = AB
15volt
(i)1k = = 15 mA Output of lower AND gate = AB
1k
Current in 250 resistor, Output of OR gate, Y A B BA
(20 15)V 5V This is boolean expression for XOR gate.
(i)250 =
250 250
Y1
99. (b) A
20
A 20 mA B
1000
Y
(i) zener diode (20 15) 5mA.
Y2
94. (d) (A) is a NAND gate so output is 1 1 1 0
(B) is a NOR gate so output is 0 1 1 0

Y1 A B, Y2 A.B
(C) is a NAND gate so output is 0 1 0 1
Y (A B) AB AA AB BA BB
(D) is a XOR gate so output is 0 0 0
0 AB BA 0 AB BA
0 This expression is for XOR
1
1 100. (c)
A
A Y'
Following is NAND Gate Y AB Y
B
95. (b) A B
Y
B X
Y' A B. Y A B A B.
EBD_7208
Truth table of the given circuit is given by 106. (a)
A
A B Y' Y
Y2 = A.AB
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1 Y = A.AB B.AB
1 0 0 1 Y1 = AB
1 1 0 1 B
101. (b) From input signals, we have, Y3 = B.AB
A B Output NAND gate By expanding this Boolen expression

0 0 1 Y A.B B.A
1 0 1 Thus the truth table for this expression should be (a).
0 0 1
1 1 0 ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
0 0 1
107. (a) In semiconductors, by increasing temperature,
The output signal is shown at B. covalent bond breaks and conduction hole and
electrons increase.
102. (d) 108. (a) In semiconductors the energy gap between conduction
A
band and valence band is small ( 1 eV). Due to
temperature rise, electron in the valence band gain
C thermal energy and may jumpy across the small energy
gap, (to the conduction band). Thus conductivity
B increases and hence resistance decreases.
109. (c)
The truth table for the above logic gate is : 110. (d) There is no charge on P-type semiconductor, because
each atom of semiconductor is itself neutral.
111. (c) Silicon is cheaper than germanium, so it is preferred
A B C over germanium. But energy gap in germanium is
1 1 1 smaller than silicon.
112. (a) 113. (a)
1 0 1
114. (b) Study of junction diode characteristics shows that the
0 1 1 junction diode offers a low resistance path, when
0 0 0 forward biased and high resistance path when reverse
biased. This feature of the junction diode enables it to
be used as a rectifier.
This truth table follows the boolean algebra
115. (c) Statement - 1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
C = A + B which is for OR gate 116. (b) Diffusion current is due to the migration of holes and
electrons into opposite regions, so it will be from p-
103. (d) Here Y ( A B ) A.B A B . Thus it is an AND side to n-side. Also in forward bias it will increases.
gate for which truth table is 117. (a) 118. (a)
119. (a) Input impedance of common emitter configuration.
A B Y VBE
0 0 0 iB V
CE constant
0 1 0
where VBE = voltage across base and emitter (base
1 0 0
emitter region is forward biased)
1 1 1
iB = base current which is order of few microampere.
104. (a) The final boolean expression is, 120. (a) A NOT gate puts the input condition in the opposite
order, means for high input it give low output and for
low input it give high output. For this reason NOT
X A.B = A B = A + B OR gate
gate is known as invertor circuit.
121. (a) These gates are called digital building blocks because
105. (c) (W + X) . (W + Y) = W + (X . Y)
using these gates only (either NAND or NOR) we can
compile all other gates also (like OR, AND, NOT, XOR)
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (0.7 0.6)V 0.1

10 .
15 5 mA 3
10 10
122. (d) ni2 = nenh
(1.5 × 1016)2 = ne (4.5 × 1022) 132. (c) V' = V + IR = 0.5 + 0.1 × 20 = 2.5 V
ne = 0.5 × 1010
0.5V 20
or ne = 5 × 109
0.1A
Given nh = 4.5 × 1022
nh >> ne
Semiconductor is p-type and
V
ne = 5 × 109 m–3.
123. (b) Conductivity nie 1017 (1.6 10 19
) 3800 133. (c) When no current flows at the junction plane, then
e
contact potential of junction plane is equal to the
= 60.8 mho/cm forward voltage applied = 0.045 V
124. (b) I nA evd or I nvd
134. (c) Vo 10
V V
Ie n e ve ne Ie vh 7 4 7
Ih n h vh or 135. (d) Here D1 is in forward bias and D2 is in reverse bias so,
nh Ih ve 4 5 5
D1 will conduct and D2 will not conduct. Thus, no
1 current will flow through DC.
125. (a) Conductivity, = = e(n e e + nh h )
V 5 1
I Amp.
ie, 2.13 = 1.6 × 10–19(0.38 + 0.18) n R 10 2
i
(Since in intrinsic semi-conductor, ne = nh= ni) 136. (b) In half wave rectifier, we get the output only in one
half cycle of input a.c. therefore, the frequency of the
density of charge carriers, n i ripple of the output is same as that of input a.c. i.e. 50
Hz
2.13 137. (d) In full wave rectifier, we get the output for the positive
2.37 1019 m 3
1.6 10 19 0.56 and negative cycle of input a.c. Hence the frequency
126. (b) Given : µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1 of the ripple of the output is twice than that of input
µh = 0.01 m2 V–1 s–1, ne = 5 × 1012 / cm3 a.c. i.e. 100 Hz
= 5 × 1018/m3 nh = 8 × 1013/cm3 = 8 × 1019/m3. 138. (b) In half wave rectifier only half of the wave is rectified
Conductivity = e[neµe + nhµh] 139. (d) In common emitter configuration current gain
= 1.6 × 10–19 [5 × 1018 × 2.3 + 8 × 1019 × 0.01] hf e 50
= 1.6 × 10–1 [11.5 + 0.8] Ai = – 48.78
6
1 h oe R L 1 25 10 1 103
= 1.6 × 10–1 × 12.3 = 1.968 –1 m–1.
Where hfe= forward current ratio
34
hc 6.62 10 3 108 5 hoe= output admittance.
127. (b) = 2.07 10 m
3 19
E (60 10 1.6 10 ) 140. (a) IC = 5.488 mA, Ie = 5.6 mA
5.488
Ie n e eAv e 7 7 ve , 49
128. (c) 5. 6 1
Ih n h eAv h 4 5 vh
141. (c) IC = IE –IB = 90 – 1 = 89 m A
ve 5
Ro 5000
vh 4 142. (c) Voltage amplification A v 60 600
Ri 500
V 0.1 AV
129. (c) E 6
105 V / m 143. (c) Current gain,
2800
0.93
d 10 AR 3000
130. (b) Reverse resistance
RL 24
V 1 6
144. (b) Voltage gain, A v Ri
0.6
3
4.8
6
2 10
I 0.5 10 145. (d) Current gain in common emitter mode
V 0.995 0.995
131. (c) Forward bias resistance 199.
I 1 1 0.995 0.005
EBD_7208
146. (c) No. of electrons reaching the collector,
152. (d) IC
96
nC 1010 0.96 1010
100 RC O/P = 2 Volt
nE e
Emitter current, IE Input RB
t
nC e
Collector current, IC
t
The output voltage, across the load RC
Current transfer ratio, V0 = IC RC = 2
The collector current (IC)
IC nC 0.96 1010
= 0.96 2 3
IE nE 1010 IC 3
10 Amp
2 10
Vs 0.01 Current gain ( )
147. (d) iB 1 10 5 A
R in 103 IC
100
( ) current gain =
IB
ic
Now of transistor is defined as ac
ib IC 10 3
IB 10 5 Amp
100 100
or i c 5
50 10 500 A ] Input voltage (Vi)
Vi = RB IB = 1 × 103 × 10–5 = 10–2 Volt
IC Vi = 10 mV
148. (b) Current gain when VCE is constant.
IB Vout I out Rout
153. (a) Voltage gain (AV) = V = I × R
3 in in in
2.5 10
0.1 103
100
25 10 6 2 10 –3 4 103
AV 6 = 2 × 100 = 2000
[ IB = 125 µA – 100 µA = 25 µA 40 10 100
IC = 7.5 mA – 5 mA = 2.5 mA] R out
154. (d) Voltage gain =
R in
Vo Ro 5 103 62
149. (b) 10 62 620
Vin R in 500 R out
G = 25 R ...(i)
Vo = 620 × Vin= 620 × 0.01 = 6.2 V in
Vo = 6.2 volt. Transconductance gm =

R in
150. (c) Power gain = voltage gain × current gain
25
Rin = =
V0 I0 gm 0.03
= VG IG
Vi Ii Putting this value of Rin in eqn. (i)
V02 Ri 100 G = 25
R out
= = 50 50 × 0.03 ...(ii)
Vi 2 R 200 25
0
2500 R out
= 1250 G' = 20 × 0.02 ...(iii)
2 20
From eqs. (ii) and (iii)
151. (a) The current gain
2
IC 10mA 10 103 Voltage gain of new transistor G' = G
3
= 50
IB 200 A 200
30
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. The purpose of a detector at the receiving end is
(a) to amplify signal
1. Communication is the process of (b) to reduce its frequency level
(a) keeping in touch (c) to modulate signal
(b) exchange information (d) to demodulate signal
(c) broad casting 10. The phenomenon by which light travels in an optical fibres is
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(d) entertainment by electronics
(c) rotal internal reflection (d) transmission
2. Which of the following is the element of a communication 11. The purpose of ...A... is to convert the message signal
system? produced by the source of information into a form
(a) Transmitter (b) channel suitable for transmission through the ...B... Here, A and B
(c) Receiver (d) All of the above refer to
3. Telephony is an example of ________ mode of (a) channel, transmitter (b) transmitter, channel
communication (c) receiver, transmitter (d) receiver, channel
(a) point-to-point (b) broadcast 12. Range of communication is extended by using
(a) transmitter (b) transducer
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) processor (d) repeater
4. A transducer used at the transmitting end, serves the purpose
13. Modem is a short form of
of converting
(a) modulator-demodulator
(a) electrical signal to sound form
(b) multiplexer-demultiplexer
(b) sound signal to electrical form
(c) multivibrator-degenerator
(c) electrical signal to magnetic form
(d) None of these
(d) sound signal to magnetic form
14. Optical fibre are used for long distance communication
5. During the process of transmission and reception the signal
because
gets deteriorated due to
(a) it amplifies signals to be transmitted
(a) noise introduced in the system
(b) it transfer signals faster than electrical cables
(b) distortion in the system
(c) it pre-emphasise weak signals
(d) it provide little attenuation as compared to electrical
(d) neigher (a) nor (b)
cable for light propagation
6. Reception of information involves
15. If the output of the information source is a non-electrical
(a) decoding of signal (b) storage of signal signal like a voice signal, a ...A... converts it to ...B.. form
(c) interpretation of signal (d) All of the above before giving it as an input to the ...C... . Here, A, B and
7. The term channel is used to indicate C refer to
(a) the amplitude range allocated to a given source (a) receiver, electrical, channel
(b) the frequency range allocated to a given source (b) channel, magnetic, transducer
(c) the voltage-range allocated to a given source (c) transducer, electrical, channel
(d) All of the above (d) transducer, electrical, transmitter
8. Buffer amplifier is used at the transmitting end to 16. For transmission of speeches, talks, music, dramas etc------
(a) feed carrier frequency to master oscillator -- is used
(b) amplify carrier frequency (a) radio broadcast transmitter
(b) radio telegraph transmitter
(c) mix modulating signal with carrier frequency
(c) navigation transmitter
(d) isolate master oscillator from other stages of transmitter. (d) None of these
EBD_7208
476 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
17. Electromagnetic waves of audible frequency ranges from 30. In sky-wave propagation, skip-distance depends on
(a) 10 Hz to 10,000 Hz (b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (a) frequency of e.m. waves transmitted
(c) 30 Hz to 30,000 Hz (d) None of these. (b) critical frequency of the layer
18. E.m.wave of audible frequency cannot be directly (c) height of layer above earth’s surface
propagated over a long distance because (d) all of the above
31. Ionosphere as a whole is
(a) they have vary small energy content
(a) +vely charges (b) –vely charges
(b) the length of antenna required for transmission of these
(c) electrically neutral (d) can't say
wave is too large
32. During ground wave propagation the transmitted waves
(c) both ( a) and (b) gets attenuated because
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (a) earth surface absorbs the waves
19. There is a need of translating the information contained (b) frequency of the waves are too low
in our original low frequency baseband signal into ...X... (c) energy content of these waves are high
or ...X... frequencies before transmission . Here, X and Y (d) earth surface offers resistance.
refere to 33. Long range propagation is not possible by space wave
(a) low, radio (b) high, radio propagation because
(c) low, audio (d) high, video (a) height of troposhere is quite small
20. Bandwidth of optical fibre communication is (b) height of troposhere is large
(a) 106 to 109 Hz (b) 1013 to 1015 Hz (c) troposphere absorbs transmitted wave
9
(c) 10 to 10 Hz 11 (d) none of these (d) None of these.
21. Ground wave propagation is possible for 34. Sky wave propagation is not possible for waves of
(a) low radio frequency over a short range frequency > 30 MHz because
(b) high radio frequency over a short range (a) these waves do not have much energy to reach
(c) high radio frequency over a long range ionosphere
(d) low radio frequency over a short range. (b) they are not reflected by ionosphere
(c) they get absorbed by troposphere
22. Long range transmission of TV-signal is done by
(d) they get reflected by stratosphere
(a) space-wave (b) sky waves
35. Intensity of electric field obtained at receiver antenna for a
(c) ground wave (d) artificial satellite. space wave propagation is
23. Which mode of communication is most suitable for carrier (a) directly proportional to the perpendicular-distance
wave of frequencies around 100 MHz? from transmitter to antenna
(a) Satellite (b) Ground wave (b) inversely proportional to the perpendicular-distance
(c) Line of sight (d) Ionospheric from transmitter to antenna
24. Communication on ground is through electromagnetic (c) directly proportional to the square perpendicular-
waves of wavelength distance from transmitter to antenna
(a) larger than 600 m (d) inversely proportional to the square perpendicular-
(b) between 200 and 600 m distance from transmitter to antenna
(c) between 1 and 5 m 36. Critical frequency that gets reflected back from ionosphere is
(d) between 10 – 3 and 0.1 (a) same for all layers of the ionosphere
25. Ground waves are polarised (b) different for different layers of the ionosphere
(a) parallel to the earth's surface (c) not dependent on layers of the ionosphere
(b) normal to the earth's surface (d) None of these
(c) at an angle 45° from earth's surface 37. The electron density in all the layers of ionosphere
(d) in any direction. (a) is the same
26. Field strength of tropospheric TV signal is proportional to (b) decreases with altitude
1 1 (c) increases with altitude
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
2 (d) sometimes decreases sometimes increases
27. Long distance short-wave radio broadcasting uses 38. Encoding of signal is required for
(a) ground wave (b) ionospheric wave (a) modulation at transmitting end
(c) direct wave (d) sky wave (b) modulation at receiving end
28. Space wave communication is limited (c) demodulation at receiving end
(a) to the line of sight distance (d) demodulation at transmitting end
(b) by earth’s curvature 39. For transmission of e.m.wave of audible frequency, these
(c) either (a) or (b) waves are superimposed with waves of
(d) both (a) and (b) (a) frequency less than 20 Hz
29. Sky wave propagation is not possible for frequencies (b) frequency less than 10 KHz.
(a) equal to 30 MHz (b) less than 30 MHz (c) frequency in the audible range.
(c) greater than 30 MHz (d) None of these (d) radio-frequency.
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS 477
40. Broadcasting antennas are generally 51. In space communication, the sound waves can be sent from
(a) omnidirectional type (b) vertical type one place to another
(c) horizontal type (d) None of these (a) through space
41. In which of the following remote sensing technique is not (b) through wires
used? (c) by superimposing it on undamped electromagnetic
(a) Forest density (b) Pollution waves
(c) Wetland mapping (d) Medical treatment (d) by superimposing it on damped electromagnetic
42. For transmission of TV- signal, sound-part is waves
(a) amplitude modulated (b) frequency modulated 52. As the height of satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the
satellite
(c) phase modulated (d) pulse modulated
(a) increases (b) decreases
43. Picture signal of TV-signal is
(c) remain same (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) amplitude modulated
53. Which of the following is drawback of amplitude
(b) frequency modulated
modulation?
(c) phase modulated
(a) low efficiency (b) noise reception
(d) pulse modulated
(c) operating range is small (d) all of these
44. Wave obtained on superimposition of audible frequency
54. Basic components of transmitter are
e.m. wave is known as
(a) message signal generator and antenna
(a) carrier wave (b) high frequency wave
(b) modulator and antenna
(c) modulating wave (d) modulated wave
(c) signal generator and modulator and antenna
45. An antenna behaves as resonant circuit only when its length (d) message signal generator, modulator and antenna
is 55. Which of the following device is fully duplex?
(a) Mobile phone (b) Walky-talky
(a) (b)
2 4 (c) Loud speaker (d) Radio
(c) 56. A radio station has two channels. One is AM at 1020 kHz and
the other FM at 89.5 MHz. For good results you will use
(d) or integral multiple of (a) longer antenna for the AM channel and shorter for
2 2
the FM
46. A geosynchronous satellite is
(b) shorter antenna for the AM channel and longer for the
(a) located at a height of 34860 km to ensure global coverage
FM
(b) appears stationary over a place on earth’s magnetic
(c) same length antenna will work for both
pole
(d) information given is not enough to say which one to
(c) not really stationary at all, but orbits the earth within
use for which
24 hours.
57. In Laser communication there is
(d) always at fixed location in space and simply spins
(a) low loss of signal (b) loss of signal
about its own axis
(c) no signal security (d) low band width
47. Global communication is achieved by using
58. In optical fibre refractive index of core is
(a) single geostationary satellite
(a) less than R.I of cladding
(b) minimum two geostationary satellite 180° apart
(b) more than R.I of cladding
(c) minimum three geostationary satellite 120° apart (c) equal to R.I of cladding
(d) minimum four geostationary satellite 90° apart (d) halfed to R.I of cladding
48. The layer of atmosphere which contains water vapour is 59. The cellular mobile radio frequency band is
(a) stratosphere (b) mesospshere (a) 88 – 108 MHz (b) 54 – 72 MHz
(c) troposphere (d) ionosphere (c) 540 – 1600 KHz (d) 840 – 935 MHz
49. The waves used in telecommunication are 60. The AM wave is equivalent to the summation of
(a) IR (b) UV (a) two sinusoidal waves
(c) Microwave (d) Cosmic rays (b) three sinusoidal waves
50. The losses in transmission lines are (c) four sinusoidal waves
(a) radiation losses only (d) None of these
(b) conductor heating only 61. Citizen’s band ratio is the application of
(c) dielectric heating only (a) amplitude modulation (b) frequency modulation
(d) all of these (c) phase modulation (d) None of these
EBD_7208
62. Frequency of carrier signal is 73. Television signals are
(a) 5 × 106Hz (b) 1000 Hz (a) frequency modulated
(c) 2.50× 103 Hz (d) 2.5 × 106 Hz (b) amplitude modulated
63. Frequencies of sideband is (c) both frequency and amplitude modulated
(a) 2.50005 × 106 Hz, 2.49995 × 106 Hz (d) phase modulated
(b) 2.505× 106 Hz, 2.495 × 106 Hz 74. For a single side band transmission a balanced modulator
(c) 2.505× 106 kHz, 2.495 × 106 kHz is used to
(d) 2.505 MHz, 2.495 kHz (a) increase power of carrier wave
64. The picture signal in TV-broadcast is modulated in (b) increase amplitude of carrier wave
(a) SSB (b) VSB (c) FM (d) DSB (c) suppress audio signal
65. The process of superimposing signal frequency (i.e., audio (d) suppress carrier component
wave) on the carrier wave is known as 75. Which of the following AM-scheme requires the minimum
transmitted power & minimum channel bandwidth?
(a) Transmission (b) Reception
(a) VSB (b) DSB-SC (c) AM (d) SSB
(c) Modulation (d) Detection
76. In FM, when frequency deviation is doubled, then
66. In frequency modulation
(a) modulation is halved
(a) the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency
(b) carrier swing is halved
of carrier wave (c) modulation is doubled
(b) the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude (d) modulation index is decreased
of modulating wave 77. In PCM if the transmission path is very long
(c) the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency (a) pulse spacing is reduced
of modulating wave (b) pulse amplitude is increased
(d) the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency (c) pulse width is increased
of carrier wave (d) repeater stations are used.
67. Of the following which is preferred modulation scheme for 78. The function of an amplitude limitter in an FM-receiver is
digital communication? (a) to reduce the amplitude of the signal to suit IF amplifier
(a) Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) (b) to amplify low frequency signal
(b) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM) (c) to eliminate any change in amplitude of receiver FM
(c) Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) signal
(d) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) (d) None of these
68. What is the modulation index of an over modulated wave 79. Which of the following pair is correctly matched
(a) 1 (b) Zero (a) Radio telegraph-VSB (b) Television-SSB
(c) < 1 (d) > 1 (c) Radio broadcast-AM (d) Radar-AM
69. The maximum line-of-sight distance dM between two 80. Depth of modulation in terms of Emax and Emin is
antennas having heights hT and hR above the earth is (a) ma = Emax + Emin/Emin
(b) ma = Emax – Emin/Emax
(a) R(h T hR ) (b) 2R /(h T hR ) (c) ma = Emax – Emin/Emax + Emin
(d) ma = Emax + Emin/Emax – Emin
(c) Rh T 2Rh R (d) 2Rh T 2Rh R 81. In an ionized medium, the phase velocity vp, group velocity
vg and the speed of light are related as
70. In AM waves, the amplitude of each side band frequency is (a) vp > vg > c (b) vp = vg = c
(a) Ec (b) mEc (c) vp < vg < c (d) vp > c, vg< c .
82. For a radio wave reaching the ionised medium
mE c
(c) (d) 2mE (a) will bend away from normal
2 (b) will bend towards normal
71. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier frequency f, (c) will bend follow a straight-path
the value of RC should be (d) None of these.
1 1 83. The tank circuit used in a radio transmitter should have
(a) RC (b) RC (a) high effective Q
f f (b) low effective Q
1 1 (c) loosely coupled load
(c) RC (d) RC
f f (d) Both (a) and (c)
84. Audio signal cannot be transmitted because
72. If a number of sine waves with modulation indices n 1, n2,
(a) the signal has more noise
n3..... modulate a carrier wave, then the total modulation (b) the signal cannot be amplified for distance
index (n) of the wave is communication
(a) n1 + n2 ... + 2(n1 + n2....) (b) n1 n 2 n 3 ...... (c) the transmitting antenna length is very small to design
(d) the transmitting antenna length is very large and
(c) n12 n 22 n 32 ...... (d) n1 n 2 ...... impracticable
85. The fundamental radio antenna is a metal rod which has a 92. Digital signals
length equal to I. represent values as discrete values.
(a) in free space at the frequency of operation II. can utilise binary system
(b) /2 in free space at the frequency of operation III. can utilise decimal as well as binary systems.
(c) /4 in free space at the frequency of operation
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(d) 3 /4 in free space at the frequency of operation
86. The service area of space wave communication increases by
(a) increasing the height of transmitting antenna (c) I, II and III (d) I and III
(b) decreasing the height of receiving antenna 93. In statellite communication
(c) increasing the height of both transmitting and receiving I. the frequency used lies between 5 MHz and 1 MHz.
antenna II. the uplink and downlink frequencies are different.
(d) decreasing the distance between transmitting and III. the orbit of geostationary satellite lies in the
receiving antenna equatorial plane at inclination of 0.
87. 100% modulation in FM means Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) actual frequency deviation > maximum allowed (a) II and III (b) I and II
frequency deviation
(c) Only I (d) I, II, III and IV
(b) actual frequency deviation = maximum allowed
94. Which of the following statements are correct ?
frequency deviation
(c) actual frequency deviation maximum allowed I. At longer wavelength (i.e., at lower frequencies) the
frequency deviation antennas have large physical size.
(d) actual frequency deviation < maximum allowed II. They are located on or very near to the ground.
frequency deviation III. In standard AM broadcast, ground based vertical
88. Pre-emphasis in FM system is done to towers are generally used as transmitting antennas.
(a) compress modulating signal (a) I and II (b) I, II, and III
(b) expand modulating signal (c) II and III (d) I and III
(c) amplify lower frequency component of the modulating 95. Amplitude modulated waves
signal I. contain frequencies (wc –wm), wc and (wc + wm)
(d) amplify higher frequency component of the modulating
II. can be produced by application of the message
signal
signal and the carrier wave to a non-linear device
89. The ratio of Emax – Emin to Emax + Emin is known as
followed by a band pass filter.
(a) range of modulating signal
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) amplitude variation of modulating signal
(c) depth of modulation
(d) None of these. (c) I and II (d) None of these
90. In an AM wave, the information is contained within
(a) r.f. carrier wave MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(b) only lower and upper side frequencies 96. Match the Columns I and II.
(c) both r.f. carrier and side frequencies Column I Column II
(d) None of these (A) Attenuation (1) The process of increasing
the amplitude
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (B) Amplification (2) The loss of strength of
a signal
91. Consider telcommunication through optical fibres. Which
(C) Bandwidth (3) The process of retrieval
of the following statements is/are correct?
of information from the
I. Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a carrier wave
suitable cladding
(D) Demodulation (4) The frequency range
II. Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index over which an equipment
III. Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic operates
interference from outside (a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
IV. Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss (b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (2)
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV (d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2)
EBD_7208
D
(Name of the stratum) (Frequencies most affected)
(A) Troposphere (1) Efficiently reflects HF
waves Signal C R
(B) Stratosphere (2) Partially absorbs HF waves
(C) Mesosphere (3) V H F upto several GHZ (a) 10.62 MHz (b) 10.62 kHz
(D) Thermosphere (4) Reflects LF absorbs MF (c) 5.31 MHz (d) 5.31 kHz
and HF to some degree
(a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2) alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
98. Which one of the following represents rectified wave? (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
a (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
100. Assertion : Amplification is necessary to compensate for
t the attenuation of the signal in communication system.
(a) Reason : Amplification is the process of increasing the
amplitude and consequntly the strength of signal using
an electronic circuit.
101. Assertion : The loss of strength of a signal while
propagating through a medium is known as attenuation.
a Reason : Transmitter helps to avoid attenuation.
102. Assertion : Telephony is an example of point-to-point
communication mode.
t Reason : In point-to-point communication modes,
(b) communication takes places over a link between a single
transmitter and a receiver.
103. Assertion : The information contained in our original low
frequency baseband signal is to be translated into high
a or radio frequencies before transmission.
Reason : For transmitting a signal, the antenna should
have a size comparable to the wavelength of the signal.
104. Assertion : When the height of a TV transmission tower
t is increased by three times, the range covered is doubled.
(c)
Reason : The range covered is proportional to the
height of the TV transmission tower.
105. Assertion : Microwave communication is preferred over
optical communication.
a Reason : Information carrying capacity is directly
proportional to bandwidth.
106. Assertion : Long distance communication between two
t points on the earth is achieved by using sky waves.
(d) Reason : Sky wave propagation takes place above the
frequency of 30 MHz.
107. Assertion : The television signals are propagated through
sky waves.
99. A diode detector is used to detect an amplitude modulated Reason : Television signals have frequency in the
wave of 60% modulation by using a condenser of capacity range of 1000 MHz to 2000 MHz range.
250 picofarad in parallel with a load resistance 100 kilo ohm. 108. Assertion : Space waves are used for line-of-sight
Find the maximum modulated frequency which could be communication.
detected by it. Reason : Space wave travels in a straight line from
transmitting anttena to receiving antenna.
109. Assertion : The ionosphere layer acts as a reflector for 121. An audio frequency of 10 kHz is transmitted by SSB after
all range of frequencies. AM with carrier waves of frequency 1MHz. The frequency
Reason : Ionosphere does not allow electromagnetic of current in output load is
wave to penetrate and escape. (a) 1010 kHz or 990 kHz (b) 1010 MHz or1010 MHz
110. Assertion : The process of retrival of information from (c) 110 kHz or 990 kHz (d) 110 MHz or 990 MHz
the carrier wave at the receiver is termed as modulation. 122. An AM wave is expressed as e = 10 (1 + 0.6 cos 2000 t) cos
Reason : Repeater helps to modulate the signals. 2 × 108 t volts, the minimum and maximum value of
111. Assertion : AM detection is the process of recovering modulated carrier wave are respectively.
the modulating signal from amplitude modulated (a) 10 V and 20 V (b) 4V and 8V
waveform, which is carried out using a rectifier and an (c) 16 V and 4V (d) 8 V and 20 V
envelope detector. 123. An AM wave varies from 10V to 4V. Its percentage
Reason : Amplitude modulated waves can be produced modulation is
by application of the message signal and the carrier wave (a) 36% (b) 42.8% (c) 54% (d) 68 %
to a non-linear device followed by band pass filter. 124. An audio signal represented as 25 sin 2 (2000 t) amplitude
modulated by a carrier wave : 60 sin 2 (100, 000)t. The
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS modulation index of the modulated signal is
112. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 12 kW when (a) 25% (b) 41.6 % (c) 50 % (d) 75 %
percentage of modulation is 50%, then the unmodulated 125. For an AM wave, the maximum voltage was found to be 10
carrier power is V and minimum voltage was 4 V. The modulation index of
(a) 5.67 kW (b) 7.15 kW the wave is
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.43 (c) 0.56 (d) 0.64
(c) 9.6 kW (d) 12 kW
126. For an AM-system the total power of modulated signal is
113. A transmitter radiates 10 kW of power with the carrier
600 W and that of carrier is 400 W, the modulation index is
unmodulated and 11.8 kW with the carrier sinusoidally
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.36 (c) 0.54 (d) 1
modulated. The modulation factor is
127. The rms value of a carrier voltage is 100 volts. Compute its
(a) 56% (b) 60 % (c) 72 % (d) 84%
rms value when it has been amplitude modulated by a
114. What will be the image frequency of an FM radio receiver
sinusoidal audio voltage to a depth of 30%.
that is tuned to 98.6 MHz broadcast station?
(a) 94 V (b) 104 .5V (c) 114.4 V (d) 124 V
(a) 111.8 MHz (b) 108 MHz
128. Calculate the power developed by an amplitude modulated
(c) 121.6 MHz (d) 132 MHz wave in a load resistance of 100 , if the peak voltage of
115. A 1 kW carrier is modulated to a depth of 80%. The total carrier wave is 100 V and modulation index is 0.4.
power in the modulated wave is (a) 50 watt (b) 54 watt
(a) 1.32 (b) 1.56 (c) 1.84 (d) 1.96 (c) 104 watt (d) 4 watt
116. The frequency deviation in a FM transmission is 18.75 KHz. 129. The maximum and minimum amplitude of an AM wave are
If it broadcasts in 88-108 MHz band, then the percent 90 mV and 30 mV respectively. The depth of modulation is
modulation is (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.3
(a) 10 % (b) 25 % (c) 50 % (d) 75 % 130. For 100% modulation (AM), the useful part of the total
117. A 10 kW carrier is sinusoidally modulated by two carriers power radiated is
corresponding to a modulation index of 30% and 40% 1 1
respectively then total power radiated by the modulator is (a) of the total power (b) of the total power
2 3
(a) 10.25 kW (b) 11.25 kW 1 2
(c) 12.75 kW (d) 17 kW (c) of the total power (d) of the total power
4 3
118. An FM signal has a resting frequency of 105 MHz and
highest frequency of 105.03 MHz when modulated by a 131. Consider the following amplitude modulated (AM) signal ,
where fm < B xAM (t) = 10 (1 + 0.5 sin 2 fmt) cos 2 fct
signal of frequency 5 kHz. The carrier swing is
The average side-band power for the AM signal given above is
(a) 25 kHz (b) 54 kHz (c) 60 kHz (d) 75 kHz
(a) 25 (b) 12.5 (c) 6.25 (d) 3.125
119. 12 signals each band limited to 5 kHz are to be transmitted
132. An AM- signal is given as
by frequency-division multiplexer. If AM-SSB modulation
xAM (t) = 100 [p(t) + 0.5g(t)] cos ct
guard band of 1 kHz is used then the bandwidth of in interval 0 t 1. One set of possible values of the
multiplexed signal is modulating signal and modulation index would be
(a) 101 kHz (b) 99 kHz (c) 84 kHz (d) 71 kHz (a) t, 0.5 (b) t, 1.0 (c) t, 1.5 (d) t2, 2.0
120. A device with input x(t) and outputy(t) is characterized by: 133. A sinusoidal carrier voltage of frequency 10 MHz and
y(t) = x2 (t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 amplitude 200 volts is amplitude modulated by a sinusoidal
kHz and modulating signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applid to voltage of frequency 10 kHz producing 40% modulation.
this device. The bandwidth of the output signal is Calculate the frequency of upper and lower sidebands.
(a) 370 kHz (b) 190 kHz (a) 10010 kHz, 9990 kHz (b) 1010 kHz, 990 kHz
(c) 380 kHz (d) 95 kHz. (c) 10100 Hz,9990 Hz (d) 1010 MHz, 990 MHz
EBD_7208
i.e. length of antenna = c/ (m) = 1.5 × 107m

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS for in the range 20 to 20 kHz
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) and c = 3 × 108 m/s.
4. (b) The message from the information source may not be An antenna of length 1.5 × 104 m is not practically
possible.
in electrical form so to convert these information i.e. in
19. (b) There is a need of translating the information
form of sound to electrical form a transducer like a
contained in our original low frequency baseband
microphone is used.
signal into high or radio frequencies before
5. (c) Noise the unwanted energy and distortion both
transmission.
occuring at various stage of a system leads to
20. (b)
deterioration of signal as signal to noise ratio becomes 21. (a) Since the attenuation of ground waves increases with
so poor that signal becomes unintelligble and useless. increase in frequencies so only low frequency- radio
6. (d) The received signals is either AM or FM so it needs to waves uses this mode of propagation for short
be demodulated ie. decoded to get back original signal. distances.
It also needs to be stored and interpreted at receiving 22. (d) TV-signal ( 30 MHz -300 MHz) are not reflected by
end. ionosphere. Therefore, sky-wave propagation is not
7. (b) Channel indicate frequency range at which different possible and similarly ground & space wave is also
R.F. signals all transmitted. not feasible hence they are transmitted to artificial
8. (d) Buffer amplifier isolate master oscillator from the satellite from where they are transmitted back to the
influence of modulation done at a later stage. earth.
9. (d) The RF-signal coming from the transmitter needs to 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b)
be demodulated by a detector inorder to remove the 26. (a) 27. (c)
carrier frequency and receive back the low-frequency 28. (d) The space wave propagation is limited due to the line
original signal. of sight distance and by the curvature of the earth.
10. (c) In optical fibre, light travels inside it, due to total 29. (c) Sky wave propagation is not possible for frequency >
internal reflection. 30 MHz because they are not reflected by ionosphere.
11. (b) The purpose of transmitter is to convert the 30. (d) Skip distance is the minimum distance on earth’s
message signal produced by source of information surface from the transmitter where e.m. wave of a
into a form suitable for transmission through the definite frequency can reach after reflection from the
channel. ionosphere
12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d)
f2
15. (d) If the output of information source is non-electrical It is given by Dskip 2h 1
signal like a voice signal, a transducer converts it to f c2
electrical form before giving it as an input to the Dskip is dependent on h, f and fc.
transmitter. 31. (c) Ionsphere contain free electron & + ve ions. In
16. (a) Radio broadcast transmitter are used for above equillibrium, the no. of free electron is equal to the
purpose. AM transmitter operating on long wave, number of positive ions. So as a whole it is elecrically
medium & short wave are used. neutral.
17. (b) Sound waves such as speech or song etc. that a human 32. (d) During ground wave propagation of radio waves, a
being can hear ranges from 20 Hz to 20 kHz frequencies charge induced on the earth's surface which takes the
above 20 kHz can not be heard by human ear. form of current as the wave propagate. The earth offers
resistance in the flow of induced current due to which
18. (c) Electromagnetic wave of audible frequency have vary
the waves are attenuated.
small energy content 10–12 eV and their amplitude
33. (a) space wave propagation takes place in such a way
is greatly reduced due to dissipations of ennergy in
that the radio waves transmitted at an angle from
travelling a long distance.
earth's surface gets reflected by the troposphere and
Secondly for frequency range 20 Hz to 20kHz the length then reaches the receiving antenna since the height of
of antenna required is of the order of wavelength of troposphere is quite small, long-range propagation by
wave to be transmited this mode is not possible.
34. (b) Stratosphere and troposphere allows the radio waves 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b) 61. (a)
to pass through it but they are not reflected back to
earth's surface by ionosphere. 5 106
62. (d) c 2.5 106 Hz
Only frequency 1500 kHz to 30 MHz can be propagated 2
by this mode. 63. (a) c+ m
35. (d)
= 2.5 × 106 + 0.0005 × 106Hz
36. (b) Critical frequency fc 9 Nm c– m
= 2.5 × 106 – 0.0005 × 106 Hz
where N m represents election density of layers
= 2.4995 × 106 Hz
fc Nm 64. (b)
fc is different for different layers. 65. (c) Carrier + signal modulation.
37. (c) Electron density of each layer of ionosphere is different 66. (b) In frequecy modulation the frequency of the
from the other. i.e. they are stratified. As we move modulated wave is the linear function of the amplitude
upward density increases. of the modulating wave.
38. (a) Encoding modulation of signal i.e. to be transmitted is 67. (a)
done with carrier frequency at transmitting end to avoid
68. (d) When ma > 1 then carrier is said to be over modulated.
interference with other signals that are also transmitted.
39. (d) Since radio frequency waves can travel long distances 69. (d) The maximum line-of-sight distance dM is given by
because these waves are of wave length of the order dM 2Rh T 2Rh R
of 100 m and their energy content is quite large
ther efore e.m.wave of audible frequen cy are 70. (c)
superimposed with radio frequency waves. 71. (d) For good demodulation,
40. (b)
1 1
41. (d) Remote sensing is the technique to collect information RC or, RC
about an object in respect of its size, colour, nature, f f
location, temperature etc. without physically touching 72. (c)
it. There are some areas or locations which are 73. (c) TV signal comprises of video and audio signals.
inaccessible. So to explore these areas or locations, a Video signal is AM and sound signal is FM.
technique known as remote sensing is used. Remote 74. (d) Since maximum part of the power of modulated wave
sensing is done through a satellite. is contained with the carrier wave which does not
42. (b) Due to several advantage of FM over AM, to get better transmit any desired information, hence to avoid
quality signal the sound part of TV-signal is frequency wastage of power to suppress carrier balanced
modulated. modulator is used.
43. (a) Picture signal in amplitude modulated to avoid 75. (d) Since in SSB transmision only one side band is
complication in development of transmitter & receiver transmitted while in other 3-cases more than a side
structure.
band is transmitted, so minimum power is transmitted
44. (d) On superimposition of two waves the audible
for SSB. Similarly SSB bandwidth is minimum BW= m.
frequency wave is the modulating wave and radio-
wave is the carrier wave, thus the resultant wave f actual
obtained is known as modulated wave as it is obtained 76. (c) m 100 m f actual
f max
by the process of modulation.
45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) i.e. if frequency deviation is doubled then modulation
48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (c) is doubled.
52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 77. (d) When transmission path is long more repeater stations
55. (a) Duplex or full duplex refers to the simultaneous are needed at intermediate points as repeater receives
transmission of data in two directions. A mobile phone signal, remove the noise, amplify it and retransmit it
is a full duplex device because both people can talk at along the channel.
once and hear each at the same time. Walky-talky is a 78. (c) The limitter removes from the carrier all amplitude
half duplex device because only one person can talk variations which may caused by changes in the
at a time. transmission path, by man-made static or natural static.
56. (b) The frequency of AM channel is 1020 kHz whereas for This suppression of amplitude variation is necessary
the FM it is 89.5 MHz (given). For higher frequencies because FM-receives, a vary large improvement in S/
(MHz), space wave communication is needed. Very N results from this.
tall towers are used as antennas.
EBD_7208
79. (c) Radio telegraph–AM and FM is used In the reproduced program at the o/p, these high
Television–VSB is used frequency terms have poor S/N ratio and at time noise
Radar–PM or FM is used may completely mask the signal at these high
frequencies, so it is necessary to provide pre-emphasis
and Radio broadcast–AM and FM is used
of high frequencies.
So correct pair is (c).
E max – E min
80. (c) 89. (c) m a -Depth of modulation.
E max E min
1
81. (d) Phase velocity of e.m.wave in free space c 90. (b) The modulated voltage comprises of
0 0
(i) Carrier wave of frequency c
Phase velocity of e.m.wave in ionised medium
(ii) Lower side frequency c m wave
1
vp
(iii) Upper side frequency wave
Ne 2 c m
0 0 1 2 Thus in an AM wave information is contained in lower
0m
c m and upper c m side frequencies.
vp >c but vg < c in ionised medium.
82. (a) Radio wave enters from an un-ionised medium to an
ionised medium, the wave incident on the boundary STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
of the medium deviates from its straight path i.e. will
bend away from normal because ionised medium 91. (c) Optical fibres are not subjected to electromagnetic
behaves as a rarer medium w.r.t. to unionised medium. interference from outside.
83. (d) 92. (a) Digital signals are the values in the form of 0 or 1.
84. (d) Following are the problems which are faced while It represents discrete values in the binary bits which
transmitting audio signals directly, are non-continuous set of values.
(i) These signals are relatively of short range. 93. (a) In statellite communication, the frequency used is
(ii) If every body started transmitting these low more than 40 MHz. The uplink and downlink
frequency signals directly, mutual interference will frequencies are different to avoid distortion of signal
render all of them ineffective. and the orbit of geostationary satellite lies in the
(iii) Size of antenna required for their efficient radiation equatorial plane at an inclination of 0°.
would be larger, i.e., about 75 km. 94. (b) At longer wavelengths (i.e., at lower frequencies),
85. (c) the antennas have large physical size and they are
located on or very near to the ground. In standard
86. (c) Maximum range of space wave propagation
AM broadcast, ground based vertical towers are
4 generally used as transmitting antennas. For such
d 1.23 Ht Hr
3 antennas ground has a strong influence on the
propagation of the signal.
d Ht
95. (c)
d Hr
d increases if H t and H r i.e. height of transmitting
and receiving antenna increases. 96. (a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
97. (c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
actual frequency deviation
87. (b) m 100%
max.allowed frequency deviation DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS
( f )actual 98. (b)
100%
( f )max 99. (b) Given : Resistance R = 100 kilo ohm
if ( f) actual = ( f ) max = 100 × 103
m = 100 % Capacitance C = 250 picofarad
88. (d) Pre-emphasis of higher frequency component is = 250 × 10–12F
required in FM-system because high frequency terms = RC = 100 × 103 × 250 × 10–12 sec
of modulating signal have small amplitude and = 2.5 × 107 × 10–12 sec
therefore small power relative to those of low frequency = 2.5 × 10–5 sec
term.
The higher frequency whcih can be detected with 107. (d) : As television signals being of frequency 100 MHz
tolerable distortion is to 200 MHz cannot be reflected by ionosphere but
they penetrate it, so they are not propagated
1 1 through sky waves. In fact, television signals are
f Hz
2 ma RC 5 propagated through space wave propagation.
2 0.6 2.5 10
108. (a) : A space wave travels in a straight line from
100 104 4 transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna. Space
Hz 10 4 Hz waves are used for line-of-sight communication as
25 1.2 1.2
well as satellite communication. At frequencies
= 10.61 KHz
above 40 MHz communication is essentially limited
This condition is obtained by applying the condition to line of sight paths.
that rate of decay of capacitor voltage must be equal 109. (d) : The ionosphere layer acts as a reflector for a
or less than the rate of decay modulated singnal certain range of frequencies i.e. 3 to 30
voltage for proper detection of mdoulated signal. MHz.Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher
than 30 MHz penetrate the ionosphere and escape.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 110. (d) : The process of retrieval of information from the
carrier wave at the receiver is termed as demodulation.
100. (a) : Amplification is necessary to compensate for the Repeater is a combination of a receiver and a
attenuation of the signal in communication systems. transmitter, a repeater picks up the signal from the
101. (c) : A transmitter processes the incoming message transmitter, amplifies and retransmist it to the receiver
signal, so as make it suitable for transmission sometimes with a change in carrier frequency.
through a channel and subseqeuent reception. 111. (b)
102. (a)
103. (a) : For transmitting a signal, we need an antenna or an
aerial. This antenna should have a size comparable
to the wavelength of the signal so that the antenna
properly senses the time variation of the signal. For Pt 12 12
an electromagnetic wave frequency 20 kHz, the 112. (c) Pc 9.6 kW
m a2 0.5
2 1.25
wavelength is 15 km. Obviously such a long antenna 1 1
is not possible to cosntruct and operate. Hence 2 2
direct transmission of such baseband signals is not
practical. Therefore there is a need of translating the
m2
information constained in our original low frequency 113. (b) Pc Pt 1
baseband signal into high or radio frequencies 2
before trasnsmission.
104. (c) : The range covered is not proportional to the height
of the TV transmission tower. The range depends m2
11.8 10 1
directly on square root of the height of the antenna 2
i.e.
m 0.6 % modulation = 60%.
S h .
Let the height of the TV transmission tower be h and 114. (c) FM (I.F)=11.5MHz
h' which covers the range S and S' respectively. F(image) = fs+2 fIF 98.6 2 11.5 121.6 MHz
S= 2hR and S' = 2h ' R
2
For S' = 2S i.e. 2h ' R = 2 2h ' R ma 2 0.8
115. (a) P Pc 1 11 1.32kW.
105. (a) : Microwave communication is preferred over optical 2 2
communication because microwave provide large
116. (b) For given tran smission ban d 88-108 MHz
number of channels and wide badwidth compared to
optical signals as infromation carrying capacity is f max 75 kHz
directly proportional to bandwidth. So wider the
bandwidth greater the information carrying capacity. given f actual 18.75 kHz
106. (c) : Long distance communication between two points
on the earth is achieved through reflection of
electromagnetic waves by ionosphere. Such waves f actual 18.75
% modulation m 100 25%
are called sky waves Sky wave propagation takes f max 75
place up to frequency of about 30 MHz.
EBD_7208
E c2 ma 2 V 2rms V 2c ma 2
117. (b) Pc 10 kW 127. (b) Pt Pc 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
ma m12 m 22 0.30 2 0.402 0.50
ma2
V 2 rms V 2c 1
m 2 2
a2 0.5
Pt Pc 1 10 1 11.25 kW
2 2
ma 2 (0.3)2
Vrms Vc 1 Vrms 100 1
2 2
118. (c) Carrier Swing 2 f
= 104.5 volts.
2 105.03 105 2 0.03 MHz
0.06 MHz 60 kHz 128. (b) Ec = 100 V, ma = 0.4, R = 100 ,
119. (d) Total signal B.W= 12 5 60 kHz E c2 (100) 2
11 guard band are required between 12 signal Pc 50 watt
2R 2 100
guard bandwidth 11 1kHz 11kHz
total bandwidth = 60 11 71kHz ma 2 (0.4) 2
P 1 Pc 1 50 54 watt
120. (c) For x(t), BW = 2( + ) 2 2
is deviation and is the band width of modulating
signal. E max E min 90 30 60 6
129. (b) ma 0.5
BW = 2(90 + 5) = 190 E max E min 90 30 120 12
2
For x (t), BW = 2 × 190 = 380
121. (a) SSB transmission to signal are possible at load 130. (b) 100% modulation ma 1
c + m or c – m
(1000 + 10) kHz or (100 – 10) kHz. useful power ma 2 1 1
1010 kHz or 990 kHz total power radiated 2 m 2 2 1 3
a
122. (c) E max = ( 1+ ma) Ec = ( 1+ 0.6) × 10 = 16 V
Emin = ( 1– ma) Ec = ( 1– 0.6) × 10 = 4V. 1
Useful power total power radiated
3
E max – E min 10 – 4 6
123. (b) ma = 0.428 = 42.8%
E max E min 10 4 14
ma 2
B 131. (c) Average side-band power Pav Pc
124. (b) Modulation index 4
A
Here ma = 0.5
B = 25, A = 60 Pc = 10
25
M.I. 0.416 m% 41.6% 0.5 10 10
60 Pav 6.25
4
ma
Vmax Vmin 10 4 6
0.43
132. (a) Comparing (x AM)t = 100 [1 + 0.5 t] cos ct for 0<t<1
125. (b) Vmax Vmin 10 4 14 with standard AM signal x AM = Ec [1+ma cos mt] cos
ct
ma 2 We have modulating signal t and ma = 0.5.
126. (d) PT PC 1
2 133. (a) Modulating signal frequency 10kHz
ma 2 Carrier signal frequency 10 MHz
ma 2 3
600 400 1 1 Side band frequency are
2 2 2
USB = 10 MHz + 10 kHz = 10010 kHz
ma 2 1 LSB = 10MHz – 10 kHz = 9990 kHz
or ma 1
2 2
Mock Test-1
Time : 1 hr Max. Marks -180
1. The physical quantity that does not have the dimensional (a) 6 (b) 9
formula [ML–1T–2] is (c) 8 (d) 10
(a) force 8. A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by using
(b) pressure (a) low resistance shunt in series
(c) stress (b) low resistance shunt in parallel
(d) modulus of elasticity. (c) high resistance shunt in series
2 Figure shows the v-t graph for two particles P and Q. Which (d) high resistance shunt in parallel
of the following statements regarding their relative motion 9. Which of the following statements is false for a particle
is true? moving in a circle with a constant angular speed ?
Their relative velocity (a) The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle
V (b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle
P (c) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
(d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular
Q to each other.
10. A mass is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical circle, the
minimum velocity of the body at the top is
(a) gr (b) g/r
T
O 3/ 2
(a) is zero g
(c) (d) gr
(b) is non-zero but constant r
(c) continuously decreases 11. Each of the resistance in the network shown is equal to R.
(d) continuously increases The resistance between the terminals A and B is
3. Time required to boil 2 litres of water initially at 20°C by a
heater coil which works at 80% efficiency spending 500 joule/ L
s is
(a) 82 minutes (b) 50 minutes R R R
(c) 28 minutes (d) 37 minutes A
R
4. A monoatomic gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to

R B
8 K M
of its original volume. The rise in temperature will be
27 (a) R (b) 5 R
(a) 300°C (b) 350°C (c) 3 R (d) 6 R
(c) 375°C (d) 400°C 12. The energy of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is En, then the
5. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of a uniformly energy in the n th orbit of single ionised helium atom is
moving train. The path of coin for the man will be En
(a) parabolic (a) (b) 2E n
2
(b) inclined straight line
(c) vertical straight line En
(c) 4En (d)
(d) horizontal straight line 4
6. What is the disintegration constant of radon, if the number 13. Two identical particles move towards each other with
of its atoms diminishes by 18% in 24 h? velocity 2v and v respectively. The velocity of centre of
(a) 2.1 × 10–3 s–1 (b) 2.1 × 10–4 s–1 mass is
(c) 2.1 × 10–5 s–1 (d) 2.1 × 10–6 s–1 (a) v (b) v/3
(c) v/2 (d) zero.
7. The resistance R of a wire is given by the relation R = . 14. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The
r2
Percentage error in the measurement of r, and r is 1%, 2% radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than that of helium by
and 3% respectively. Then the percentage error in the (a) 8 (b) 4
measurement of R is (c) 2 (d) 8
EBD_7208
MT-2 PHYSICS
15. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling 24. The weight of a body will be the least at
n, (a) poles
of a body is proportional to ( ) where is the
(b) equator
difference of the temperature of the body and the (c) at height equal to R
surroundings, then n is equal to (d) centre of the earth
(a) two (b) three 25. When a tuning fork produces sound waves in air, which
(c) four (d) one one of the following is same in the material of tuning fork as
16. A body having initial velocity of 10 m/s moving on a rough well as in air?
surface comes to rest after moving 50 m. What is coefficient (a) Wavelength (b) Frequency
of friction between the body and surface? (g = 10 m/s2) (c) Velocity (d) Amplitude
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.2 26. The fermi energy for a substance is
(c) 0.3 (d) 0.1 (a) independent of T
17. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit (b) directly proportional to T
arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under (c) directly proportional to T
water what will be the new fringe separation? [The (d) directly proportional to T2
wavelenght of light being used is 5000 Å]
27. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform A
(a) 1.5 x (b) x thickness. The sides are in the ratio
(c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x shown in the figure. IAB, IBC and ICA
18. A thin, metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on it. A are the moments of inertia of the plate 3 5
point charge q is placed at the cente of the shell and another about AB, BC and CA as axes
charge q1 is placed outside it as shown in figure. All the respectively. Which one of the 90°
three charges are positive. The force on the charge at the B 3 C
following relations is correct?
centre is
(a) I AB I BC (b) I BC I AB
Q
(c) I AB I BC I CA (d) ICA is maximum
28. Consider the following statement:
q q When jumping from some height, you should bend your
knees as you come to rest, instead of keeping your legs
(a) towards left (b) towards right
stiff. Which of the following relations can be useful in
(c) upward (d) zero explaining the statement? Where symbols have their usual
19. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic meanings.
field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is
(a) q v B (b) q B/v (a) p1 p2 (b) E = (PE + KE) = 0
(c) zero (d) B v/q (c) F t m v (d) x F
20. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 29. The amplitude of magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
75ºC to 70ºC in T1 minutes, from 70ºC to 65ºC in T2 minutes is 2 × 10–7T. It's electric field amplitude if the wave is travelling
and from 65ºC to 60ºC in T3 minutes. Then in free space is
(a) T1 = T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3 (a) 6 Vm–1 (b) 60 Vm–1
(c) T1 > T2 > T3 (d) T1 < T2 > T3 (c) 10/6 Vm–1 (d) None of these
21. In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector and 30. The magnetic flux density B at a distance r from a long
acceleration vector are straight wire carrying a steady current varies with distance
(a) perpendicular to each other r as
(b) in same direction
(c) in opposite direction
(d) not related to each other B B
22. The current in a coil of L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly (a) (b)
from 1A to 11A in 4 milli sec. The induced e.m.f. will be
(a) 100 V (b) 0.4 V r r
(c) 440 V (d) 40 V
23. Two capacitors when connected in series have a capacitance
of 3 F, and when connected in parallel have a capacitance
B B
of 16 F. Their individual capacities are
(a) 1 F, 2 F (b) 6 F, 2 F (c) (d)
(c) 12 F, 4 F (d) 3 F, 16 F
r r
MOCK TEST 1 MT-3
31. A metal piece is heated upto Tº abs. The temperature of medium with the velocity of light at an angle 45° and is
the surrounding is tº abs.The heat in the surrounding due refracted in the medium at an angle 30°. Velocity of light in
to radiation is proportional to
(a) (T – T)4 (b) T4 – t4 the medium will be (velocity of light in air = 3 10 8 m/s)
(c) (T – t) 1/4 (d) T2 – t2
(a) 3.8 108 m/s (b) 3.38 108 m/s
3 4
32. Given, aµg = , a w , if a convex lens of focal length
2 3 (c) 2.12 108 m/s (d) 1.56 108 m/s
10 cm is placed in water, then its focal length in water is 40. The rain drops are in spherical shape due to
(a) equal to 40 cm (b) equal to 20 cm
(a) residual pressure (b) thrust on drop
(c) equal to 10 cm (d) None of these
33. If an alternating current is flowing in a spring, then the (c) surface tension (d) viscosity
spring will be changing 41. A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely in the
(a) in a straight line (b) periodically magnetic meridian. In this position, the angle of dip is 40º.
(c) elliptically (d) first (c) then (a) Now the dip circle is rotated so that the plane in which the
34. The unit vector along 2i – 3j + k is
needle moves makes an angle of 30º with the magnetic
2i 3j k 2i 3 j k meridian. In this position, the needle will dip by an angle
(a) (b)
14 5 (a) 40º (b) 30º
2i 3 j k (c) more than 40º (d) less than 40º
(c) (d) None of these 42. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium
15
35. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 to vacuum is 30°. Then velocity of light in the medium is
mm2 is stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung
(a) 1.5 108 m / s (b) 2 108 m / s
from its lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is
18 2
(a) 19.6 10 20 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 10 N / m (c) 3 108 m / s (d) 0.75 108 m / s
(c) 19.6 1010 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 1015 N / m 2 43. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
36. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in S.H.M. with an (a) positive feedback (b) large gain
amplitude 0.02 and a frequency of 60 Hz. The maximum (c) no feedback (d) negative feedback
force acting on the particle is
(a) 144 2 (b) 188 2 44. For an AM-system the total power of modulated signal is
(c) 288 2 (d) None of these 600 W and that of carrier is 400 W, the modulation index is
37. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electirc (a) 0.25 (b) 0.36
field gives rise to (c) 0.54 (d) 1
(a) an e.m.f (b) magnetic field
(c) electric current (d) pressure gradient. 45. The drift current in a p-n junction is
38. The load versus elongation graph for four wires has been (a) from the n-side to the p-side
shown in the figure. The thinest wire is (b) from the p-side to the n-side
Load (c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-
a
b baised and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-
c
baised and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-
baised
d
O
Elongation
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
39. A ray of light is incident on the surface of separation of a
EBD_7208
MT-4 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Force = mass × acceleration = 1% + 2% + 2 × 3% = 9%
= [MLT–2] 8. (b) A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by
the use of low resistance in parallel. So that ammeter
The dimension of force are [MLT–2] does not draw much current which may change the
2. (d) The difference in velocities is increasing with time as magnitude of main current.
both of them have more constant but different 9. (b) Acceleration vector is always radial (i.e . towards the
acceleration. center) for uniform circular motion.
3. (c) Heat required to boil water = mc
10. (a) Let velocity at A v A and velocity at B v B
= 2 × 4200 × (100 – 20)
A
= 6.72 × 103 J vA
r T
If t be the time of boil then
× 500 × t = 6.72 × 103
6.72 103 vB
or t= = 28 minutes. B
0.8 500 Applying conservation of energy at A & B
4. (c) T1= 27ºC = 300 K
1 1
8V mv 2A 2gmr mv 2B
V1 = V and V2 = 2 2
27
v 2B v 2A 4gr..........(i )
5
Ratio of specific heats for monoatomic gas, Now as it is moving in circular path it has centripetal
3 force.
In an adiabatic process,
T1V1 –1 = T2V2 –1 mv 2A
At point A T mg
1 r
V1
or T2 = V for minimum velocity T 0
× T,,
2
mv 2A
(5/3) 1 or mg v 2A gr vA gr
1 r
T2 = 300 × 11. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in fig. Since the
8 / 27
Wheatstone’s bridge is balanced, therefore no current
27 9
= 300 × = 300 × = 675 K will flow through the arm KL. Equivalent resistance
8 4 between
= 402ºC AKM = R + R = 2 R
Hence, rise in temperature Equivalent resistance between ALM = R + R = 2 R
= T2 – T1 = 402 – 27 = 375ºC The two resistances are in parallel. Hence equivalent
6. (d) For nuclear disintegration resistance between A and B is given by
2.303 No K
log
t No N
R R
2.303 100
log = 2.1 × 10–6sec–1
24 60 60 82 A R M B
7. (b) Given = R , then

r2
R R
R r
×100 = 100 100 2 100
R r L
MOCK TEST 1 MT-5
1 1 1 2 1 Cp = C1 + C2 = 16 C1 C2 =48
R 2R 2R 2R R
i.e., R R C1 – C2 = (C1 +C 2 ) 2 – 4 C1 C 2
2
2 em 4 z 2 162 4 48 64 8
12. (c) For nth orbit, energy, E n
2 2
n h C1 12 F and C2 4 F
2
2 em 4 24. (d) At the centre of the earth gravity is zero.
For hydrogen (z = 1), E n
n2 h2 25. (b) Frequency does not depend upon the medium, so, it
For helium (z = 2), will remain same in the material of the tuning fork and
2 2
em 4 4 in air.
So, E = 26. (a) The highest energy level occupied by an electron in
n 2h2 the energy band at zero kelvin is called Fermi level and
E 4 the energy associated is known as Fermi energy. So, it
E 4E n
En 1 is independent of T.
13. (c) Conserving Linear Momentum 27. (b) The intersection of medians is the centre of mass of
2Mvc = 2Mv – Mv vc = v/2. the triangle. Since distances of centre of mass from
the sides are related as : xBC < xAB < xAC therefore IBC
1/ 3 1/ 3
Rs As 32 > IAB > IAC or IBC > IAB.
14. (c) 2
R A 4 28. (c) If F force acts for short interval t, then
dH n F T=m v.
15. (d) ( 2 1) ( ) n=1
dt 29. (b) For electromagnetic wave,
16. (d) Use a = µg and v2 = u2 + 2as FE FM eE BeC E B.C
17. (c) When the arrangement is dipped in water;
2 10 7 3 108 60 V / m
x 3
/ x 0.75x 30. (a) According to Biot Savart’s law
4/3 4
18. (d) The charge q, which is kept at the centre of metallic 0 Id sin
dB = .
spherical shell transfered to the outer surface of shell 4 r2
& inside the shell the electric field is zero & hence 1
force is also zero. dB
r2
19. (c) Fn q(v B) So, graph (a) is correct.
= qvB sin = 0 (because = 0º ) 31. (b) According to Stefan’ law heat emitted per second per
20. (b) The time of cooling increases as the difference between unit area (T14 T24 ) where T1 is the temperature of
the temperature of body & surrounding is reduced. So body & T2 is the temperature of surrounding (T1 & T2
T1<T2<T3 (according to Newton’s law of cooling). are on Kelvin scale).
21. (a) In uniform circular motion speed is constant. So, no 1 1 1
tangential acceleration. 32. (a) µg 1
f r1 r2
It has only radial acceleration
v2 [ f is focal length of lens in water]
aR [directed towards center]
R 1 1 1
(a µg 1)
f r1 r2
vR2 [f is focal length of lens in air]

Dividing,
a
f ( µg 1) µg
; µg
f a a
( µg 1) µw
and its velocity is always in tangential direction. So these
two are perpendicular to each other. 3/ 2 3 3 9
=
3 4/3 2 4 8
LdI 40 10 11 1
22. (a) e 100V f 9 / 8 1 1/ 8 1
dt 3
4 10 3
fw 1/ 2 4
C C 1
23. (c) Cs = 1 2 =3 2
C1 + C2 fw 4 f 4 10 40 cm.
EBD_7208
MT-6 PHYSICS
33. (b) If current passes through a spring, it shrinks as in two 1
2 2
adjacent wire, current is flowing in the same direction. 2
Even if direction of current is reversed still the spring Velocity of light in air
will shrink. As AC current is a periodically changing Now, 2
Velocity of light in medium
current, the process of shrinking will also be periodic
Velocity of light in medium
in nature.
8 1
250 10 = 3 10 = 2.12 108 m / sec
2
F / A 50 10 6 40. (c) Rain drops are in spherical shape due to surface
35. (c) Y
/ 0.5 10 3 tension.
2 41. (d) 1 40º , 2 30º , ?
250 9.8 2 cot 2 cot 2
cot 1 2 cot 2 40º cot 2 30º
6 3
50 10 0.5 10
cot 1.192 3 2.1
19.6 1010 N / m 2
25º i.e. 40 º.
36. (c) Max. force = mass × max. acceleration
= m 4 2 2 a = 1 × 4 × 2 × (60)2 × 0.02 = 288 2 1 1 1
42. (a) 2
37. (b) Changing electric field gives rise to displacement sin C sin 30 1/ 2
current which creates magnetic field around it. Velocity of light in the medium
39. (c) 3 108 8
= = 1.5 10 m / sec
2
45° ma 2
44. (d) PT PC 1
2
30°
ma2 3 ma 2
600 400 1 1
2 2 2
Refractive index,
sin 45º ma 2 1
or ma 1
sin 30º 2 2
Mock Test-2
1. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of water in 5 minutes time. x x
A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of water in
(a) 5 minutes (b) 8 minutes
(a) t (b)
(c) 10 minutes (d) 20 minutes t
2. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. Then
error in the measurement of volume is speed
(a) 1% (b) 5%
(c) 3% (d) 8%
3. In the fig. S1 and S2 are identical springs. The oscillation (c) (d) All of the above
t
frequency of the mass m is f. If one spring is removed, the
frequency will become
10. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen
m atom will be
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 3.6 eV
S1 S2
(c) 10.2 eV (d) 13.6 eV
(a) f (b) f × 2
11. In the given figure, the capacitors C1 , C3 , C4 and C5 have a
(c) f 2 (d) f / 2 capacitance of 4µF each. If the capacitor C2 has a capacitance
4. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular path of radius of 10µF, then effective capacitance between A and B is
0.8 m with an angular velocity 44 rad/sec. If radius of path C4
becomes 1 m then value of angular velocity will be
(a) 35.28 rad/sec (b) 14.08 rad/sec a b C d
A B
(c) 28.16 rad/sec (d) 24.08 rad/sec
5. The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a + C1 C2 C3
bt2, where a = 15 cm and b = 3 cm/sec2. Its instant velocity C5
at time 3 sec will be
(a) 8 F (b) 6 F
(a) 36 cm/sec (b) 9 cm/sec
(c) 4.5 cm/sec (d) 18 cm/sec (c) 4 F (d) 2 F
6. The perfect gas equation for 4 gram of hydrogen gas is 12. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of
(a) PV=RT (b) PV = 2RT the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal
vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight
1 line whose slope
(c) PV= RT
T (d) PV = 4RT
2 (a) depends on the intensity of the radiation
7. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is (b) depends of the mature of the metal used
taken to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because (c) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the
(a) induced current is produced metal used
(b) the coil acts like a magnet (d) is the same for all metals and independent of the
intensity of the radiation
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are
13. The moment of inertia of a rigid body, depends upon
changed
(a) distribution of mass from axis of rotation
(d) None of these
(b) angular velocity of the body
8. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb) (c) angular acceleration of the body
is given as (d) mass of the body.
(a) [MLT–1 C–1] (b) [MT2 C–2] 14. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted into energy.
(c) [MT–1 C–1] (d) [MT–2 C–1] The energy released by the fission of 1 kg mass will be
9. Which of the following graph cannot possibly represent (a) 9 × 1019 J (b) 9 × 1017 J
(c) 9 × 10 J 16 (d) 9 × 1013 J
one dimensional motion of a particle?
EBD_7208
MT-8 PHYSICS
15. If the coefficient of cubical expansion is x times of the 24. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its inital
coefficient of superficial expansion, then value of x is value. The new momentum will be
(a) 3 (b) 2.5 (a) same as initial value
(c) 1.5 (d) 2 (b) twice the initial value
16. When a bus suddenly takes a turn, the passengers are (c) thrice the initial value
thrown outwards because of (d) four times the initial value
(a) speed of motion 25. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound
(b) inertia of motion with a speed 1/5th ofthe speed of sound. The wavelength
(c) acceleration of motion and frequency of the source emitted any and f respectively.
(d) None of these The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the
17. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A observer are respectively
ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation (a) 0.8f, 0.8 (b) 1.2f, 1.2
(c) 1.2f, (d) f, 1.2
R 26. The photoelectric effect is based upon the law of
Q S
P conservation of
(a) momentum
(b) energy
(a) PQ is horizontal
(c) angular momentum
(b) QR is horizontal (d) mass
(c) RS is horizontal 27. A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in
(d) any one will be horizontal AC circuit because
18. A tin nucleus (atomic number Z = 50) has a radius of 6.6 × (a) choke is cheap
10–15 m. The potential on its surface will be (the charge on (b) there is no wastage of power
the proton = 1.6 × 10–19 C) (c) choke is compact in size
(a) 1.1 × 107 V (b) 2.1 × 107 V (d) choke is a good absorber of heat
(c) 3.1 × 107 V (d) 0.15 × 107 V 28. If a body of mass 3 kg is dropped from the top of a tower of
19. A relation between Faraday’s constant F, chemical height 25m. Then its kinetic energy after 3 sec is
equivalent E and electrochemical equivalent Z is (a) 557 J
E (b) 748 J
(a) F EZ 2 (b) F
Z2 (c) 1050 J
2 (d) 1296 J
E E
(c) F (d) F 29. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs stretched. When
Z Z
20. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross-section A1 she pulls her arms & legs in
and A2 have their ends at the same temperature K1 and K2 (a) the angular velocity decreases
are the thremal conductivities of the two rods. The rate of (b) the moment of inertia decreases
flow of heat is same in both rods if (c) the angular velocity stays constant
A 1 K1 (d) the angular momentum increases
(a) 30. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of
A2 K 2
radius r metres subtending an angle at the centre as shown.
A1 K2 The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is
(b)
A 2 K1 0I
(c) A1A2 = K1K2 (a)
4 r I
(d) A1 K12 = A2 K22
0I
21. A stone is just released from the window of a train moving (b)
2 r
along a horizontal straight track. The stone will hit the O
ground following a 0I
(c)
(a) straight line path 2r
(b) circular path 0I
(d)
(c) parabolic path 4r
(d) hyperbolic path 31. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom of a
22. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of monoatomic gas is
(a) charge (b) mass (a) 3 (b) 5
(c) energy (d) momentum (c) 6 (d) 1
23. An equipotential surface is that surface 32. Ability of the eye to see objects at all distances is called
(a) on which each and every point has the same potential (a) binocular vision
(b) which has negative potential (b) myopia
(c) which has positive potential (c) hypermetropia
(d) which has zero potential (d) accommodation
MOCK TEST 2 MT-9
33. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of 40. Surface tension of a solution is 30×10–2 N/m. The radius of
permittivity 0 and permeability 0 is given by the soap bubble is 5 cm. The surface energy of soap bubble
is
0
(a) (b) 0 0 2
0 (a) 1.8 101 J (b) 1.8 10 J
1 0 (c) 1.0 10 1 J (d) 1.8 10 2 J
(c) (d) 41. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a
0 0 0
34. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is fundamental frequency f in air. If half of the length is dipped
(a) always less than one vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air
(b) always equal to one column will be
(c) always more than one 3f
(a) (b) 2f
(d) equal to or less than one 2
35. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the f
(c) f (d)
surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the 2
surface of the earth. When both ‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller 42. Which of the following waves have the maximum
than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is wavelength ?
correct? (a) Infrared rays (b) UV rays
h (c) Radio waves (d) X – rays
3h
(a) d = (b) d = 43. In an p-n-p transistor working as a common base amplifier
2 2
(c) d = h (d) d =2 h current gain is 0.96 and emitter current is 7.2 mA. The base
36. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to current is
(a) mean kinetic energy per unit volume (a) 0.2 mA (b) 0.29 mA
(b) half of mean kinetic energy per unti volume (c) 0.35 mA (d) 0.4 mA
(c) two third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume 44. The forward biasd diode is
(d) one third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume –2V +2V
(a)
37. Transformer is based upon the principle of
(a) self induction (b) mutual induction
(b) –4V –3V
(c) eddy current (d) None of these
38. A spherical ball of iron of radius 2 mm is falling through a
column of glycerine. If densities of glycerine and iron are (c) 3V 5V
respectively 1.3 × 103 kg/m3 and 8 × 103 kg/m3, for glycerine
= 0.83 Nm–2 sec, then the terminal velocity is (d) 0V –2V
(a) 0.7 m/s (b) 0.07 m/s
(c) 0.007 m/s (d) 0.0007 m/s 45. In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction reverse biasing results
39. The time taken by light to pass through 4 mm thick glass in
slab of refractive index 1.5 will be (velocity of light in air = (a) leakage current
3 × 108 m/s) (b) the current barrier across junction increases
(a) 8 × 10–11 s (b) 2 × 10–11 s (c) no flow of current
(c) 8 × 10–8 s (d) 8 × 10–8 s (d) large current
EBD_7208
MT-10 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

V2t 9. (d) In (a), at the same time particle has two positions which
1. (d) Heat produced, H . When voltage is halved, is not possible. In (b), particle has two velocities at the
R
the heat produced becomes one fourth. Hence time same time. In (c), speed is negative which is not
taken to heat the water becomes four times. possible.
4 3 10. (c) Minimum excitation energy will be difference between

2. (c) V r ; ground level energy (n = 1) & first excited state (n = 2)
3
V r
100 3 100 3 1% 3% Now, E1 13.6 eV
V r
13.6
3. (d) Here effective spring factor, keff = 2 k ; E2 eV 3.4 eV
22
1 2k Difference = – 3.4 + 13.6 = 10.2 eV
Frequency of oscillation, f ; when one
2 m
spring is removed, then spring factor = k ; 11. (c) The arrangement forms Wheatstone bridge as shown
below :
1 k f It is balanced because C4
C3
New frequency of oscillation f
2 m 2 C2
C4 C3
4. (c) We shall apply conservation of angular momentum; 1 C5
C1 C5
that is
C1
So, we can neglect C2.
I1 1 I2 2
Now C4 & C3 are in series, C1 & C5 are in series so
2 2
mv1r1 mv2 r2 1r1 2 r2 their resultant capacitance of each combination =
4 4 16
2 F
44 (0.8) 2 2 (1) 2 4 4 8
2 44 0.8 0.8 = 28.16 radian/sec These combinations are in parallel, so, total capacitance
=2+2= 4 F
5. (d) x = a + bt2 = 15 + 3t2
1
dx
v t 3s = 6 × 3 = 18cm/s
12. (d) h mv2 hv K.E.
v= = 3 × 2t = 6t 2
dt
4 1
n 2 K.E.
6. (b) PV = 2RT
T h
2
This is equation of a straight line, if we plot , K-E
8. (c) We know that F = q v B 1
curve. The slope of this curve is which is constant.
h
F MLT 2 So, it is independent of metals used.
B [MT 1C 1 ]
qv C LT 1
Option (d) is correct.
MOCK TEST 2 MT-11
13. (a) Moment of inertia of a body is given by the expression P2

24. (b) K P 2 Km
n 2m
I mi r i 2
as K is made four times P will become two times.
i 1
u + u/5 6
This is the sum of product of mass of each particle and 25. (c) fapparent = f = f =1.2f
square of its distance from the axis. Naturally if u 5
distribution of mass changes, value of r will change & wavelength remains constant (unchanged) in this case.
hence I will change.
26. (b) Photoelectric effect is based on law of conservation
14. (d) 0.1% of 1 kg = 0.001 kg of energy
From the formula, E mc 2 27. (b) Choke coil is a device having high inductance and
negligible resistance. It is used to control current in ac
circuits and the power loss in a circuit containing choke
Energy released = 0.001 (3 108 )2 joules coil is least.
= 9 1016 10 3
9 1013 J 28. (b) After 3 sec its velocity
3k x. 2k v2 u 2 2gh 0 2 9.8 25
15. (c)
[Here is coefficient of linear expansion so 1 1
K.E = mv 2 = 3 2 9.8 25 = 75 × 9.8 = 748 J.
coefficient of cubical expansion = 3 & coefficient 2 2
of superfacial expansion = 2 ] 29. (b) Since no external torque action gymnast, so angular
momentum (L = I ) is conserved. After pulling her
3
x 1.5 arms & legs, the angular velocity increases but moment
2 of inertia of gymnast, decreases in, such a way that
16. (b) When a bus suddenly take a turn, the passengers are angular momentum remains constant.
thrown outwards because of inertia of motion. µ0 I I
0
30. (a) B
17. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is equal to 2r 2 4 r
emerging angle. 32. (d) Ability of the eye to see object at all distance is called
accommodation. This is the power of the eye to change
QR is horizontal.
the focal length of eye lens so that it can focus rays
18. (a) Charge on the tin nucleus = n.Q coming from different distances.
= (1 6 × 10–19 × 50) C = 8 × 10–18 C 33. (c) The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium
of permittivity and permeability 0 is equal to
This charge is supposed to be concentrated at its
1
centre. Hence, potential on the surface, .
0 0
1 q 9 109 8 10 18
V= = 1 1 × 107 V 34. (d) As displacement distance, therefore, the ratio is
4 0
r = 6.6 10 15
equal to or less than one.
19. (d) One faraday charge is required to losing about
electrolysis of one gram equivalent of a body. Now 2h
35. (d) Variation of g with altitude is, g h g1 ;
using this information in the relation, R
m ZQ d
variation of g with depth is, g d g1
R
E
E ZF F Equating g h and g d , we get d = 2h
Z
21. (c) The horizontal velocity of the stone will be the same
as that of the train. In this way, the horizontal motion 2/3(½ m N v 2rm s )
36. (c) P= where m is mass of molecule
will be uniform. The vertical motion will be controlled V
by the force of gravity. Hence it is accelerated motion. of gas, N is number of molecules in gas & v rms is root
The resultant motion is a parabolic trajectory.
mean squar velocity of the molecule.
EBD_7208
MT-12 PHYSICS
37. (b) Transformer is based upon the principle of mutual 41. (c)
induction. Current is induced in the secondary coil due
/2
to change in current in primary coil of the transformer.
2 r2( 0 )g
38. (b) Terminal velocity, v 0
9
2 (2 10 3 ) 2 (8 1.3) 103 9.8 From the figure it is clear that in both the cases
= = 0.07 ms–1
9 0.83 wavelength is same. So, frequency of fundamental
tone will also be same. Hence the answer will be (c).
3 108
39. (b) Velocity of light in glass = = 2 108 m / sec 42. (c) Radio waves are low frequency electro-magnetic waves.
1.5 So, their wavelength will be comparatively large.
distance 4 10 3 11
43. (b) For common base
Time taken = = = 2 10 sec
velocity 2 108 Ic
Current gain = 0.96
Ie
40. (d) Surface tension of solution
Ic I e 0.96 0.96 7.2 6.912
12
(T) = 30 10 N/m Ib Ie Ic 7.2 6.912
Radius of the soap bubble (r) = 5 cm = 0.05 m 0.288 0.29 mA
44. (d) 0V –2V It can be sketched as

Since, the bubble has two spherical surface,
Immobile ions
hence, A 2 surface area = 2 × 4 r 2
– +
P – + N
A 0V – +
Therefore, surface energy = T ×
depletion
layer –2V
= 30 × 10–2 × 2 × [4 (0.05)2] = 1.8 × 10–2 J
45. (a) Leakage current is the name given to the reverse current
Mock Test-3
1. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly 8. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in
proportional to internal energy and the work done in a closed cyclic process,
(a) the initial velocity then
(b) the initial acceleration (a) W = 0 (b) Q = W = 0
(c) the square of initial velocity (c) E = 0 (d) Q = 0
(d) square of initial acceleration 9. The moment of inertia of disc about a tangent axis in its
2. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having combination plane is
of convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a 3MR 2
MR 2
concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens (a) (b)
combination in diopter is 4 2
5 2 7 MR 2
(a) + 1.5 (b) – 1.5 (c) MR (d)
(c) + 6.67 (d) – 6.67 4 4
3. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure below the 10. The angles which the vector A 3iˆ 6jˆ 2kˆ makes with
distance covered by the body in the last two seconds of its the co-ordinate axes are
motion is what fraction of the total distance travelled by it 3 4 1
in all the seven seconds? (a) cos 1 , cos 1 , cos 1
7 7 7
13 16 12
(b) cos , cos , cos
10 7 7 7
B C 14 15 13
8 (c) cos , cos , cos
7 7 7
6 (d) None of these
velocity
4 11. How many electrons make up a charge of 20 µC?
(in ms–1)
2 A D (a) 1.25 × 1014 (b) 2.23 × 1014
(c) 3.25 × 10 14 (d) 5.25 × 1014
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Time (in sec) 12. Two masses A and B each of mass M are fixed together by
a massless spring. A force acts on the mass B as shown in
1 1 2 1 fig. At the instant the mass A has acceleration ‘a’. What is
(a) (b) (c) (d) the acceleration of mass B ?
2 4 3 3
4. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 km h –1. If A B F
the resultant velocity of boat is10 km h–1 , then the velocity (a) (F/M) – a (b) a
of the river is (c) – a (d) (F/M)
(a) 12.8 km h–1 (b) 6 km h–1 13. When sound waves travel from air to water, which one of
(c) 8 km h –1 (d) 10 km h–1 the following remains constant?
5. The effective acceleration of a body when thrown upwards (a) Time period (b) Frequency
with acceleration a is (c) Velocity (d) Wavelength
(a) (g + a) (b) (a – g) 14. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their volumes increased
(c) g2 + a2) (d) (g – a2/g) from V to 2V under isothermal conditions. The increase in
6. Which one of the following statements is false ? internal energy
(a) A vector has only magnitude, whereas a scalar has (a) will be same in both A and B
both magnitude and direction (b) will be zero in both the gases
(b) Distance is a scalar quantity but displacement is a (c) of B will be more than that of A
vector quantity (d) of A will be more than that of B
(c) Momentum, force and torque are vector quantities 15. What is the effective capacitance between points X and Y?
(d) Mass, speed and energy are scalar quantities
C1 = 6µF
7. Out of the following pair , which one does NOT have
identical dimensions
(a) impulse and momentum C3 = 6µF C3 = 20µF C2 = 6µF
(b) angular momentum and planck’s constant X Y
A C B D
(c) work and torque C4 = 6µF
(d) moment of inertia and moment of a force
EBD_7208
MT-14 PHYSICS
(a) 24 F (b) 18 F 23. An open U-tube contains mercury. When 11.2 cm of water
(c) 12 F (d) 6 F is poured into one of the arms of the tube, how high does
16. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another the mercury rise in the other arm from its initial level?
particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both of (a) 0.56 cm (b) 1.35 cm
them have the same momentum but different kinetic energies (c) 0.41 cm (d) 2.32 cm
are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then 24. A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross-section 1
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends. The temperature of the
wire is altered from 40ºC to 20ºC. Coefficient of linear
E1 m1
(c) E (d) E1 > E2 expansion for steel = 1.1 × 10–5/ºC and Y for steel is 2.0 ×
2 m2 1011 N/m2. The change in tension of the wire is
17. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as (a) 2.2 × 106 newton (b) 16 newton
shown here. The force is in N and x in m. The work done by (c) 8 newton (d) 44 newton
the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is 25. The fastest mode of transfer of heat is
(a) conduction (b) convection
F(N) (c) radiation (d) None of these
26. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig associated with
B
(i)
3 (ii)
2
1 H
x(m)
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 18.0 J (b) 13.5 J (a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic substance
(c) 9.0 J (d) 4.5 J (b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic substance
18. If a spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping the fraction (c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
of its total energy associated with rotational energy is (d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
27. The pressure P of an ideal gas and its mean K.E. per unit
3 2
(a) (b) volume are related as
5 7
E
(a) P (b) P = E
2 3 2
(c) (d)
5 7 3E 2E
(c) P (d) P
19. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric 2 3
field due to these charges through the surfaces S is 28. A body cools from 50.0°C to 48°C in 5s. How long will it take
to cool from 40.0°C to 39°C? Assume the temperature of
(a) 3q/ 0 surroundings to be 30.0°C and Newton's law of cooling to
+q –q be valid.
(b) 2q/ 0 (a) 2.5 s (b) 10 s
(c) q/ (c) 20 s (d) 5 s
0
+q 29. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to two charges
(d) zero (A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of the following
20. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the spectrum of statements is correct ?
(a) infrared rays (b) ultraviolet rays
(c) microwaves (d) -rays A
B
21. The transformer voltage induced in the secondary coil of a
transformer is mainly due to
(a) a varying electric field (a) A is +ve and B –ve; |A| > |B|
(b) a varying magnetic field (b) A is –ve and B +ve; |A| = |B| :
(c) the vibrations of the primary coil (c) Both are +ve but A > B
(d) the iron core of the transformer (d) Both are –ve but A > B
22. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards 30. The equation of plane wave is given by
from the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected
at an angle of 45°with the vertical, the escape velocity will be x
y 2sin 200t
15
(a) 11 2 km/s (b) 22 km/s
where displacement y is given in cm and time t in second,
11 then the velocity of the wave is
(c) 11 km/s (d) km / s
2 (a) 3000 cm/sec (b) 200 cm/sec
MOCK TEST 3 MT-15
(c) 150 cm/sec (d) 2 cm /sec 38. Main function of the RF amplifiers in a superheterodyne
31. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 volt. When short-circuited receiver is to
it gives a current of 3 ampere. The internal resistance of the (a) amplify signal
cell is (b) reject unwanted signal
(a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) discriminate against image frequency signal and IF-
(c) 0.5 ohm (d) (1/4.5) ohm signal
32. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet (d) All the above
39. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 W, 220 V and
(a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
1000 W, 220 V respectively. The resistnace of heater is
(b) do not exist
(a) equal to that of fan
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of bar magnet (b) lesser than that of fan
(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of magnet (c) greater than that of fan
33. Five resistances have been connected as shown in the (d) zero
figure. The effective resistance between A and B is 40. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of
1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction
4 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of
A B the wire. The force on the wire is
(a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N
(c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N
(a) 14/3 (b) 20/3 41. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced
(c) 14 (d) 21 by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 W. The number of
34. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment photons emitted, on the average, by the source per second
with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is replaced by X– is
rays, then the observed pattern will reveal, (a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
(a) that the central maximum is narrower (c) 5 × 1014 (d) 5 × 1015
(b) more number of fringes 42. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, the one
(c) less number of fringes which lies wholly in the ultraviolet region is
(d) no diffraction pattern (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
35. Which one is possible?
43. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the
19 16 1
(a) 7N + 0 n1 7N 1H earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E0. Its potential
32 35 4 energy is
(b) 16 S + 1H1 17Cl 2 He (a) –E0 (b) 1.5 E0
(c) 16 1 14 1 0 (c) 2E0 (d) E0
8O 0n 7N 3 1H 2 1
44. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one
(d) 1 H 1 1H 1 2 He
4 is reverse biased ?
36. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves +10 V
in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of
its side. A magnetic induction B constant in (a) R
x x x x x x +5 V
x x x x
x x x x
x x vx B –12 V R
x x x
x x x x x (b)
x x x x x x –5 V
time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane R
of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the (c)
loop is –10 V
+5 V
Bl v
(a) clockwise R
R
(d)
Bl v
(b) anti-clockwise
R 45. Which of the following gates will have an output of 1?
2 Bl v 1 0
(c) anti clockwise
R 1 1
A B
(d) zero
0 0
37. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air,
1 0
(a) its wavelength decreases
C D
(b) its wavelength increases
(c) its frequency decreases (a) D (b) A
(d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes. (c) B (d) C
EBD_7208
MT-16 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) As v2 – u2 = 2as 9. (c)
0 – u2 = 2as
u2
stopping distance , s =
2a
R
2. (b) f1 = + 40 cm (for convex lens)
= 0.4 m
f2 = – 25 cm (for concave lens)
= – 0.25 m Moment of inertia of a disc about a diameter
Focal length (f) of the combination 1 1 1 1
= MR 2 MR 2 [ Ix I y Iz MR 2 ]
1 1 1 1 1 0.25 0.4 2 2 4 2
f f1 f2 0.40 0.25 0.40 0.25 Applying theorem of parallel axis.
0.15 1 5
1.5 dioptre. Iz MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
0.1 4 4
1
P 1.5 dioptre 3iˆ bjˆ 2kˆ 3ˆ 6ˆ 2 ˆ
f 10. (b) Â i j k . If , and are
9 36 4 7 7 7
3. (b) Distance in last two second
angles made by A with coordinate axes, then
1
= × 10 × 2 = 10 m. 3 6 2
2 cos , cos and cos .
7 7 7
1
Total distance = × 10 × (6 + 2) = 40 m. 11. (a) Charge on an electron
2
19 coulomb
1.6 10
4. (b) vr vR – vB2
2
10 2
82
6 km h –1
6
20 10
5. (b) Effective acceleration of a body = [a – g]. No. of electrons required = 19
1.6 10
6. (a) Vector has both magnitude and direction so, statement
(a) is wrong. 20
= 1013 1.25 1014
2 1. 6
7. (d) Moment of inertia, I = Mr
12. (a) Let T be the tension in the string. Equation of motion
[I] = [ ML2 ]
of A is; T = Ma .... (i). If a' is the acceleration of B, the
Moment of force, = r F equation of motion of B can be written as
2
M a' = F – T = F – Ma
= [ L][ MLT ] [ML2T 2
]
a' = (F/M) – a
8. (c) In a cyclic process, the initial state coincides with the 13. (b) When sound travels from one medium to another its
final state. Hence, the change in internal energy is speed changes due to change in wavelength. Its
zero, as it depends only on the initial and final states. frequency remains constant.
But Q & W are non-zero during a cycle process.
MOCK TEST 3 MT-17
14. (b) Under isothermal conditions, there is no change in 17. (b)

internal energy. F(N)
C1 6 F
A B
C3 C5 6 F 3
15. (d) X A Y 2
6 F 20 F C2
C4 1 C
6 F
x(m)
0
Equivalent circuit 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Work done = area under F-x graph
6 F C2 = area of trapezium OABC
C1 6 F
6F 1
(3 6) (3) = 13.5 J
X 6F F Y 2
C3 18. (b) Total kinetic energy of a rolling ball
6 F K.E. = linear K.E. + rotational K.E.
6 F C4
K.E. = 1 mv 2 1
I 2
2 2
C1 C2
Here, C 1 1 2 2 v2
3 C4 = mv 2 mr .
Hence, no charge will flow through 20 F 2 2 5 r2
C1 C2 5 2 7
= mv 2 mv 2
10 10
X Y Fraction of total energy associated with rotational
1
C3 C4 mv 2
C' kinetic energy = 5
7
mv 2
X Y 10
1 10 2
=
C '' 5 7 7
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series. 19. (d) Net charge inside the surface is zero. So, flux through
Hence, C ' = 3 F, C '' = 3 F the surface is zero.
C ' and C '' are in parallel. 3
20. (c) Microwave region wavelength 10 m to 1m
Hence net capacitance = C ' + C '' = 3 + 3
=6 F 22. (c) ve 2 gR
The escape velocity is independent of the angle at
p2 which the body is projected.
16. (b) E
2m
23. (c) mercury
water
or, E1 p12 p22 x
, E2 2x x
2m1 2m2
B A
p12 p22
or, m1 , m2
2 E1 2 E2 At point A and B pressure will be same. So pressure at
A = P + h 1 1g
m1 pressure at B = P + h 2 2g
m1 m2 1 P + h 1 1g = P + h 2 2g
m2
or, 11.2 × 1 × g = 2x × 13.6 × g
p12 E2 11.2
E2 or, x = = 0.41 cm
1 1 [ p1 p2 ] 2 13.6
E1P22 E1
24. (d) F = Y A t = (2.0 × 1011) (10–6) (1.1 × 10–5) (20) = 44
or, E2 > E1 newton
EBD_7208
MT-18 PHYSICS
25. (c) Radiation is the fastest mode of transfer of heat. f = B × A = B × L2 = constant
26. (c) The loop (i) is for soft iron and the loop (ii) is for steel d
in fig. zero
dt
1 2 2 1 2 2 37. (c) When the ray enters a glass slab from air, its frequency
27. (d) P v v E remains unchanged.
3 3 2 3
Since glass slab in an optically denser medium, the
28. (b) Rate of cooling temperature difference velocity of light decreases and therefore we can
between system and surrounding. conclude that the wavelength decreases.
As the temperature difference is halved, so the rate of ( = )
cooling will also be halved
39. (b) As R V2/P or
R 1/P, so resistance of heater is less
29. (a) A is positive as electric lines are coming out of it. B is than that of fan.
negative as electric lines are entering into it.
40. (b) F = Bi l = 2 ×1.2 × 0.5 = 1.2 N
30. (a) x 41. (d) Since p = nh
y 2 sin 200 t
15
3
p 2 10
n 34
x h 6.6 10 6 1014
= 2 sin 200 t
15
5 1015
Comparing it with the equation of a wave,
42. (a) The range of wavelengths of the lines of Lyman series
y a sin( t kx) varies from 912 A° to 1216 A°.
43. (c) P.E. = 2T.E.
200 ;k P.E. = 2E0
15
In case of circular motion of satellite around the earth
200 15 / planets revolving around sun/electrons revolving in
v= 3000 cm / sec
k circular orbit P.E. = 2 T.E. and |K.E.| = |T.E.|].
44. (d) Positive terminal is at lower potential (0V) and negative
31. (c) r = E / I = 1.5 / 3 = 0.5 ohm.
terminal is at higher potential 5V.
33. (a) The wheatstone bridge is balanced, when P/Q = R/S,
45. (d) (A) is a NAND gate so output is 1 1 1 0
3 4
In this case , so bridge is balanced & 7
4 8 (B) is a NOR gate so output is 0 1 1 0
resistance is not effective)
(C) is a NAND gate so output is 0 1 0 1
34. (d) For diffraction pattern to be observed, the dimension
of slit should be comparable to the wavelength of light. (D) is a XOR gate so output is 0 0 0
35. (c) By law of lepton numbers, mass number and atomic
number is to be conserved on both sides. 0
36. (d) Since the magnetic field is uniform the flux f through 1
the square loop at any time t is constant, because 1
Mock Test-4
1. A force is given by F = at + bt2,
where t is time, the R
dimensions of a and b are respectively 8. If for a gas, 0.67 , this gas is made up of molecules
CV
(a) [M L T–4] and [M L T–1]
(b) [M L T–1] and [M L T0] which are
(c) [M L T–3] and [M L T–4] (a) diatomic
(d) [M L T–3] and [M L T0] (b) mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules
2. Which of the following time-displacement graph is not (c) monoatomic
possible in nature? (d) polyatomic
t t 9. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The coeficient of
linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What will be the percentage
increase in length?
(a) (b)
(a) 0.01% (b) 0.1%
s s (c) 1% (d) 10%
t t 10. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a along the
horizontal so that a block of mass M pressing against it
(c) (d) does not fall. The coefficient of friction between block and
s s the board is
3. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time a
period T. The time taken in 3/8th oscillation is
M
3 5
(a) T (b) T
8 8
5 7
(c) T (d) T a g
12 12 (a) (b)
4. The angular velocity of a body changes from 1 to 2 g a
without applying torque but by changing moment of inertia. a g
The ratio of initial radius of gyration to the final radius of (c) (d)
g a
gyration is
11. What should be the minimum value of refractive index of
(a) : (b) 2 2
2 1 2 : 1 the material of the prism for the reflections to take place as
shown in the figure?
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1/ 2 :1/ 1
5. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons
each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron of aluminium, then 45º
emission of electron will
(a) depend upon the density of the surface
(b) possible
(c) not possible
(d) None of these
6. If a capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is connected in series with (a) 1.7 (b) 1.4
an inductor of inductance L, then the angular frequency (c) 1.2 (d) 2.7
will be 12. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are
(a) circular, anti-clockwise
1 L
(a) (b) (b) circular, clockwise
LC C (c) radial, inwards
(c) LC (d) LC (d) radial, outwards
7. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the 13. A gun fires two bullets at 60º and 30º with horizontal. The
ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of bullets strike at some horizontal distance. The ratio of
drift speed of electrons in A and B is maximum height for the two bullets is in the ratio of
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
EBD_7208
MT-20 PHYSICS
14. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance 23. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 and gives full
of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are connected to a load of 4000 scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. To convert it to an
Ohm the voltage across the load is ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt (c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt (a) 10 m resistance is to be conncected in parallel to the
15. The radius vector, drawn from the sun to a planet, sweeps galvanometer
out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This is the (b) 10 m esistance is to be connected in series with the
statement of galvanometer
(a) Kepler’s first law (b) Kepler’s second aw (c) 0.1 resistance is to be connected in parallel to the
(c) Newton’s first law (d) Kepler’s third law galvanometer
16. The path difference between the two waves : (d) 0.1 resistance is to be connected in series with the
galvanometer
2 x
y1 a1 sin t 24. A uniform rod of mass m, length , area of cross-section A
has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged vertically, elongation
2 x under its own weight will be
and y 2 a 2 sin t will be mg 2mg mg mgY
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2AY AY AY A
(a) (b) 25. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is
2 adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective
2 and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of
(c) (d) lenses are
2 2
17. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a (a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm
certain atom. Which transition shown represents the (c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm
emission of a photon with the most energy? 26. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a
tube. Then
n 4 (a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger
n 3
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till
n 2 the sizes are interchanged
(c) air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble
till the sizes become equal
n 1 (d) there is no flow of air.
I II III IV 27. An object undergoing SHM takes 0.5 s to travel from one
(a) IV (b) III (c) II (d) I point of zero velocity to the next such point. The distance
18. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves is between those points is 50 cm. The period, frequency and
given by the direction of amplitude of the motion is
(a) 1s, 1Hz, 25 cm (b) 2s, 1Hz, 50 cm
(a) Vector E (b) Vector B (c) 1s, 2Hz, 25 cm (d) 2s, 2Hz, 50 cm
(c) Vector ( E B ) (d) None of these 28. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident normally on
19. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s collides with a a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width of the principal maximum
stationary body of mass 5 kg. After collision both bodies stick on a screen distant 50 cm will be
to each other, velocity of the bodies after collision will be (a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m
(c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312 m
3 18 9 20 29. In a p-type semi-conductor germanium is doped with
(a) m/s (b) m/s (b) m/s (d) m/s
10 3 20 3 (a) aluminium (b) boron
20. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) attract each (c) gallium (d) all of these
other with a force inversely proportional to the square of 30. The table given below represents the truth table for which
the distance between them. If the particles are initially held of the following combinations of logic gates?
at rest and then released, the centre of mass will
A B Y
(a) move towards m1 (b) move towards m2
0 0 1
(c) remain at rest (d) Nothing can be said
0 1 0
21. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16ºC is 474 m/sec.
1 0 1
The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen molecule at 127ºC is
1 1 0
(a) 1603 (b) 1896 (c) 2230.59 (d) 2730
22. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require (a) A
B Y
two sources which emit radiation
(a) of the same frequency A
(b) B Y
(b) of different wavelengths
(c) of the same frequency and having a definite phase (c)
A
B Y
relationship
(d) of nearly the same frequency (d) None of these
MOCK TEST 4 MT-21
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17(b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (c) [at] = [F] amd [bt2] = [F] 10. (d) Force on M = Mg
[a] = [MLT–3] and [b] = [MLT–4] Reaction force = Ma
2. (b) At a particular time, two values of displacement are not force of friction = R .Ma
possible. Ma
T
3. (c) Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s. Time to
4
1
complete th vibration from extreme position is
8
obtained from
a 2 T
y a cos t a cos t or t s
2 T 6
So time to complete 3/8th oscillation
Mg
T T 5T
= Force of friction will balance the weight. So
4 6 12
4. (c) 1 1 : 2 2 or M K12 1 : M K 2 2 2 g
Ma Mg ;
a.
K1 2 11. (b) From the figure, it is clear that angle of incidence on
K2 1 the reflecting surface is 45°. So, critical angle for
5. (c) Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. The energy of glass air interface should be 45°.
two photons can not be added at the moment Now, from the formula
photons collide with electron all its energy will be 1 1
dissipated or wasted as this energy is not sufficient sin C sin45
to knock it out.
Hence emmission of electron is not possible. 2 1. 4
6. (a) In case of L-C circuit, angular frequency of oscillation 12. (c) For a single negative point charge, electric lines of
1 force are radial and inwards.
LC 13. (b) The bullets are fired at the same initial speed
7. (a) Current flowing through the conductor, H u 2 sin 2 60º 2g sin 2 60º
I = n e v A. Hence H 2g 2
u sin 2 30º sin 2 30º
2
4 nevd1 (1) vd1 4 4 16
or . ( 3 / 2)2 3
1 2 vd2 1 1
nev d 2 (2) (1/ 2) 3 1
R 3 14. (d) Total resistance of the circuit
8. (c) Since 6.7 CV R, h ence gas is = 4000 + 400 = 4400
CV 2
monoatomic. V 440
Current flowing i 0.1 amp.
5 3 R 4400
9. (b) T 10 100 10
Voltage across load = R i
= 4000 × 0.1 = 400 volt.
3
100% 10 100 16. (c) Phase difference =
1
10 0.1% Path diff phase diff .
2 2
EBD_7208
MT-22 PHYSICS
Also f0 + fe = 20 ( final image is at infinity)
1 1
17. (b) E = Rhc 9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, f0 = 18 cm
n 12 n 22
26. (a) Let pressure outside be P0
E will be maximum for the transition for which
2T
1 1 P1 ( in smaller bubble ) P0
is maximum. Here n 2 is the higher r
n1 2 n 22
2T
energy level. P2 ( in bigger bubble ) P0 ( R > r)
R
1 1 P1 P2
Clearly, is maximum for the third
n1 2 n 22 hence air moves from smaller bubble to bigger bubble.
transition, i.e. 2 1 . I transition represents the 27. (a) Given : T/2 = 0.5 s
absorption of energy. T = 1s
18. (c) Vector ( E B ) 1 1
Frequency, f = 1Hz
19. (d) Velocity after the collision T 1
If A is the amplitude, then
10 10 5 0 100 20
= = m / sec . 2A = 50 cm A = 25 cm.
15 15 3
20. (c) The centre of mass remains at rest because force of 28. (a) Width of central maximum
attraction is mutual. No external force is acting. 2 D 2 6250 10 10
0.5
3R 289 3RT a 4
2 10
21. (c) v oxg . vrms =
32 M 6 3
3125 10 m 312.5 10 cm.
3R 400
vH so vH = 2230.59 m/sec
2
22. (c) For the observation of interference phenomenon, the
two source must be coherent & must have same sin = 2a
frequency.
sin = a
23. (a) G = 15 , ig = 4 mA, i = 6 A
Required shunt, a o sin = 0
–
3 sin = a
ig 4 10
S G = 15
3 Intensity
i ig 6 4 10 sin = –2a
D
4 10 3
= 15 = 0.01
5.996
= 10m (in parallel) Screen position of various minima for Fraunhoffer
F F mg diffraction pattern of a single slit of width a.

24. (c) Y 29. (d) In a p-type semic-onductor germanium is doped with
A YA YA
trivalent element. All the elements, like aluminium,
f0 boron & gallium are trivalent. So, the correct
25. (a) 9, f0 9f e
fe alternative is (d).
Mock Test-5
1. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers The work done (in joule) in taking a charge Q coulomb once
23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are along the loop is
(a) 5, 1, 2 (b) 5, 1, 5 (a) QV (b) 2QV
(c) 5, 5, 2 (d) 4, 4, 2 (c) QV/2 (d) zero
8. What is the acceleration of a projectile at its heighest point
2. If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 300%, the
(a) maximum (b) minimum
momentum of the particle will increase by
(c) zero (d) g
(a) 20% (b) 200% 9. A sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge density.
(c) 100% (d) 50% The electric potential at a point (r < R) is
3. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and (a) due to the charge inside a sphere of radius r only
of negligible mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium. (b) due to the entire charge of the sphere
The angle should be (c) due to the charge in the spherical shell of inner and
outer radii r and R, only
(d) independent of r
10. A ray of light passes through four transparent media with
refractive indices 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in the figure.
The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD
2m is parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have
m m D
(a) 0° (b) 30°
C
(c) 45° (d) 60° B
4. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain height.
Assuming that the acceleration due to gravity remain the
A
same throughout the motion, its displacements in three
successive half second intervals are S1, S2 and S3 then (a) 1 = 2 (b) 2 = 3
(a) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 5 : 9 (c) 3 = 4 (d) 4 = 1
(b) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5 11. The meniscus of a liquid contained in one of the limbs of a
(c) S1 : S2 : S3 = 9 : 2 : 3 narrow U-tube is held in an electromagnet with the meniscus
in line with the field. The liquid is seen to rise. This indicates
(d) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 1 : 1
that the liquid is
5. The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
(a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(a) zero (b) unity (c) diamagnetic (d) non-magnetic
(c) infinity (d) between 0 and 1 12. Under a constant torque the angular momentum of a body
6. A transformer is employed to changes from A to 4A in 4 second. The torque on the body
(a) convert A.C. into D.C. will be
(b) convert D.C. into A.C. 1 4 3
(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage (a) 1A (b) A (c) A (d) A
4 3 4
(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage 13. The kinetic theory of gases
7. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the (a) explains the behaviour of an ideal gas
closed loop shown in the fig, an e.m.f. V volt is induced in (b) describes the motion of a single atom or molecule
the loop. (c) relates the temperature of the gas with K.E. of atoms of
the gas
(d) all of the above
14. An electric bulb marked 40 W and 200V, is used in a circuit of
supply voltage 100V. Now its power is
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W (c) 40 W (d) 100 W
EBD_7208
MT-24 PHYSICS
15. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes 23. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I
and 4 I are superimposed. The maximum and minimum
g
(where g = the acceleration due to gravity on the surface possible intensities in the resulting beam are
9 (a) 5I and I (b) 5I and 3I
of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is (c) 9I and I (d) 9I and 3I
R 24. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second
(a) (b) R / 2 (c) 2 R (d) 2 R orbit, one gets the
2
16. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to B along (a) second line of Lyman series
ACB and is brought back to A along BDA as shown in the PV (b) second line of Paschen series
diagram. The net work done during the complete cycle is (c) second line of Balmer series
given by the area (d) first line of Pfund series
P 25. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to the direction
B of motion of electron. As a result, the electron moves in a
P2 circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of electron is
C
doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be
P1 D (a) 2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm (c) 4.0 cm (d) 1.0 cm
A
26. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light
A B V 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2 m, then
(a) P1ACBP2P1 (b) ACBB'A'A (a) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial
(c) ACBDA (d) ADBB'A'A number
17. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and the other (b) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial
coming with equal speed of 4 m/s. If they sound their energy
whistles each of frequency 240 Hz, the number of beats heard (c) number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
by man (velocity of sound in air = 320 m/s) will be equal to (d) each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
(a) 12 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 6 27. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within i. If is
18. When a wave travels in a medium the particles displacement the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the
is given by the equation y = 0.03 sin (2t – 0.01x), where x curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in
and y are in seconds. The wavelength of the wave is units of voltmeter will be
(a) 200 m (b) 100 m (c) 20 m (d) 10 m B
19. The value of current I in the circuit shown in figure is
C A
R2= 5
q
(a) (b)
3V R1= 5 R3= 5 2 0 3
q 1 q
(c) (d)
R4= 5 0 2 0
(a) 1.8 A (b) 0.8 A 28. Two flat circular coils have a common center, but their planes
(c) 0.2 A (d) 1.6 A are at right angles to each other. The inner coil has 150 turns
20. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of and radius of cm. The outer coil has 400 turns and a radius
electromagnetic wave are oriented along of 2 cm. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic induction
(a) the same direction and in phase at the common centers of the coils when a current of 200 mA
(b) the same direction but have a phase difference of 90º is sent through each of them is
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase (a) 10–3 Wb/m2 (b) 2 × 10–3 Wb/m2
(d) mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase (c) 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2 (d) 7 × 10–3 Wb/m2
difference of 90º 29. Optical fibres transmit light along its axis, by the process of
21. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the (a) total internal reflection
hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral
(b) refraction
temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is
(a) Tn = 2Ti (b) Tn = Ti – T (c) interference
(c) Tn = Ti + T (d) Tn = Ti/2 (d) diffraction
22. Let E a be the electric field due to a dipole in its axial plane 30. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the flow of
current across the junction is mainly due to
distant and Eq be the field in the equatorial plane distant ',
then the relation between Ea and Eq will be (a) diffusion of charges
(a) E a 4E q (b) E q 2E a (b) drift of charges
(c) depends on the nature of material
(c) E a 2E q (d) E q 3E a
(d) both drift and diffusion of charges
MOCK TEST 5 MT-25
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (a) Number of significant figures in 23.023= 5
Number of significant figures in 0.0003 = 1 1 2 3 4
Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 r1 r2 i
=2 r2 R
Q
2. (c) New K.E., E' = 4E i1 P r1
p 2 mE and p 2 mE
p 2m 4E
2
p 2mE Applying Snell's law at Q,
p' 2 sin r1 3
1 2 1 on substrating 1 in both sides.]
p 3 sin r2 ...(2)
2
pp Again applying Snell's law at R
100 (2 1) 100 100%
p sin r2
3 4
3. (c) If T is the tension in the string , Then 4 sin i ...(3)
3
T = mg (For outer masses)
Multiplying (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
2T cos 2 mg (For inner mass) µ4 = µ1
Eliminating T, we get If the emergent ray is parallel to incident ray after
2(mg ) cos 2 mg travelling a number of parallel interfaces then the
refractive index of the first and the last medium is always
or cos 1/ 2 45 same.
2 11. (b) Paramagnetic liquid tends to flow from region of weaker
1 1
4. (b) S1 = g , S1 + S2 = g(1)2 magnetic fields to stronger magnetic fields.
2 2
dL 4A A 3
12. (d) Torque = A
2 dt 4 4
1 3 [dL is change in angular momentum]
g = S + S2 + S3
2 2 13. (d) All the given phenomena are explained by kinetic
5. (c) Bulk Modulus theory of gases.
14. (a) Resistance of bulb
Pressure Pressure
= =
Volume Strain 0 V2 200 200
= 1000
Bulk Modulus = P 40
[As liquid is uncompressible, V = 0] V2 100 100
New power = 10W .
W W R 1000
7. (a) V W QV
Q Q
g' R2
8. (d) Acceleration is the same everywhere equal to 'g'. 15. (d) We know that
g ( R h) 2
9. (a) Due to the charge inside a sphere of radius r only.
10. (d) Applying Snell's law at P, 2
g /9 R R 1
1 sin i µ2 g R h R h 3
µ2 ...(1)
sin r1 µ1 h = 2R
16. (c) Work done = Area under curve ACBDA
EBD_7208
MT-26 PHYSICS
17. (d) The apparent frquency of sound of both the trains 22. (c) We know that for short dipole,
will be changed.
2p
The apparent frequency of sound of train coming in field at axial point, E a
d3
320
= 240 × p
320 4 and field at equatorial point, E q
d3
240 × 320
= 243 So, E a 2E q
316
For apparent frequency of train going away 23. (c) Let I1 = I and I2 = 4I
2 2 2
320 I max I1 I2 I 4I 3 I 9I
= 240 × 237
320+4
2 2
When these sounds are heard simultaneously beat is I min I1 I2 I 4I I
listened.
No. of beats per sec = 243 – 237 = 6. 24. (c) When the electron jumps from any orbit to second
orbit, then wavelength of line obtained belongs to
18. (a) y = 0.03 sin (2t 0.01x) is equation of a progressive Balmer series.
wave.
Comparing it with the standard form of equation mv
25. (c) r or r v
y = a sin ( t – kx) qB
= 2 ; k = 0.01 As v is doubled, the radius also becomes double. Hence
2 radius = 2 × 2 = 4 cm
k= 0.01 26. (a) Power no. of electrons emitted (N)
1 1
2 P 2
N
= 200 m. r r2
0.01
19. (b) Three 5 resistors are in series. Their total resistance q
27. (d) Since total A B C
= 15 . Now it is in parallel with 5 resistor, so total 0
resistance, where q is the total charge.
1 1 1 3 1 4 As shown in the figure, flux associated with the curved
surface B is = B
R 5 15 15 15
Let us assume flux linked with the plane surfaces A and
15 C be
R
4 A= C= '
Therefore,
V 3 3 4
I 0.8A q
R 15 / 4 15 2 ' B 2 '
20. (c) The direction of oscillations of E and B fields are 0
perpendicular to each other as well as to the direction 1 q
'
of propagation. So, electromagnetic waves are 2 0
transverse in nature.
The electric and magnetic fields oscillate in same phase. 0 In
28. (a) B Add vectorially..
Ti Tc 2 a
21. (d) Since Tn =Neutral temperature 29. (a) The side-wall of optical fibre provides total internal
2
reflection of beam of light incident on it.
Ti
Ti 0 30. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the flow of current
Tn
2 2 is due to drifting of minority charge carriers across the
[Tc = 0°C = temperature of cold junction] junction.

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MCQ Categories in each Chapter

Typeset by Disha DTP Team

For further information about the books from DISHA,

2. Units and Measurements 5-16

3. Motion in a Straight Line 17-34

4. Motion in a Plane 35-54

5. Laws of Motion 55-74

6. Work, Energy and Power 75-94

7. System of Particles and Rotational Motion 95-114

9. Mechanical Properties of Solids 131-142

10. Mechanical Properties of Fluids 143-160

11. Thermal Properties of Matter 161-176

12. Thermodynamics 177-194

13. Kinetic Theory 195-208

14. Oscillations 209-228

15. Waves 229-246

16. Electric Charges and Fields 247-264

17. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 265-282

18. Current Electricity 283-302

20. Magnetism and Matter 323-336

21. Electromagnetic Induction 337-350

22. Alternating Current 351-368

23. Electromagnetic Waves 369-378

24. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 379-398

25. Wave Optics 399-416

26. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 417-430

27. Atoms 431-442

28. Nuclei 443-458

29. Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices

30. Communication Systems 475-486

Mock Test - 1 MT-1-6

Mock Test - 2 MT-7-12

Mock Test - 3 MT-13-18

Mock Test - 4 MT-19-22

Mock Test - 5 MT-23-26

DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

28. (b) Name of the Achievement in

MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS

FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. One yard in SI unit is equal to

70. (b) 71. (a) LT –2

M M The maximum percentage error in g

F MLT 2 = kg–1 s2 A = M–1 T2 A

(A) Decreasing acceleration (1) a

trains moving with same speed in opposite directions have

A B (a) equal to that of wind

(b) double that of wind

(c) 2gH nu 2 n 2 (d) gH n 2 u2

v (v 2 v 1) = v12 v 22 2 v1v 2 cos 90 v 1 v2

N(j) For ball Q

FACT/ DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. The resultant of A 0 will be equal to

64. For the figure, which of the following is correct? Az

(d) (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

circular path and angular velocity vector is perpendicular

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS A 3iˆ 4 ˆj

64. (c) By the triangle law of vector addition C A B

V12 sin 2 30 V22 V2

ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS so, Py = 0.

v= v x2 v 2y (8t ) 2 (6t )2 10t

96. (c) A = Axiˆ Ayjˆ Azkˆ displacement vector

r .v 0 112. (c) According to pythagorus theorem

Magnitude of v 4a 2 t 2 4b2 t 2 Vrm

u 2 sin 2 138. (c) Given, = 2 rad s–1, r = 2 m, t = s

136. (c) It has only tangential velocity vT & radial acceleration