IBPS Clerk 2019 - Mains Paper

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude

1.Critical reading is a demanding process. To read critically, you must slow down your reading and,
with pencil in hand, perform specific operations on the text. Mark up the text with your reactions,
conclusions, and questions. When you read, become an active participant. This paragraph best
supports the statement that
A. critical reading is a slow, dull, but essential process
B. the best critical reading happens at critical times in a person’s life.
C. readers should get in the habit of questioning the truth of what they read.
D. critical reading requires thoughtful and careful attention.

2.It is well known that the world urgently needs adequate distribution of food, so that everyone gets
enough. Adequate distribution of medicine is just as urgent. Medical expertise and medical supplies
need to be redistributed throughout the world so that people in emerging nations will have proper
medical care. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. the majority of the people in the world have never been seen by a doctor.
B. food production in emerging nations has slowed during the past several years.
C. most of the world’s doctors are selfish about giving time and money to the poor.
D. many people who live in emerging nations are not receiving proper medical care.

3.In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice cream. But
that isn’t the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined with a much bigger selection
of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice
cream store owners. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods.
B. ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream.
C. ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item.
D. low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream.

4.Originating in the 1920s, the Pyramid scheme is one of the oldest con games going. Honest people
are often pulled in, thinking the scheme is a legitimate investment enterprise. The first customer to
“fall for” the Pyramid scheme will actually make big money and will therefore persuade friends and
relatives to join also. The chain then continues with the con artist who originated the scheme
pocketing, rather than investing, the money. Finally, the pyramid collapses, but by that time, the
scam artist will usually have moved out of town, leaving no forwarding address. This paragraph best
supports the statement that
A. it is fairly easy to spot a Pyramid scheme in the making.
B. the first customer of a Pyramid scheme is the most gullible.
C. the people who set up Pyramid schemes are able to fool honest people.
D. the Pyramid scheme had its heyday in the 1920s, but it’s making a comeback

5.Forest fires feed on decades-long accumulations of debris and leap from the tops of young trees
into the branches of mature trees. Fires that jump from treetop to treetop can be devastating. In old-
growth forests, however, the shade of mature trees keeps thickets of small trees from sprouting, and
the lower branches of mature trees are too high to catch the flames. This paragraph best supports
the statement that
A. forest fire damage is reduced in old-growth forests.
B. small trees should be cut down to prevent forest fires.
C. mature trees should be thinned out to prevent forest fires.
 D. forest fires do the most damage in old growth forests.

6.One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an
anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this
renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological insights into both male
and female characters are amazing even today. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. Shakespeare’s characters are more interesting than fictional characters today.
B. people today are interested in Shakespeare’s work because of the characters.
C. academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare’s work.
D. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.

7.The criminal justice system needs to change. The system could be more just if it allowed victims
the opportunity to confront the person who has harmed them. Also, mediation between victims and
their offenders would give the offenders a chance to apologize for the harm they have done. This
paragraph best supports the statement that victims of a crime should
A. learn to forgive their offenders.
B. have the right to confront their offenders.
C. learn the art of mediation.
D. insist that their offenders be punished.

8.Most Reality TV centers on two common motivators: fame and money. The shows transform
waitresses, hairdressers, investment bankers, counselors, and teachers, to name a few, from obscure
figures to household names. A lucky few successfully parlay their fifteen minutes of fame into
celebrity. The luckiest stars of Reality TV also reap huge financial rewards for acts including eating
large insects, marrying someone they barely know, and revealing their innermost thoughts to
millions of people. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. the stars of Reality TV are interested in being rich and famous
B. Reality TV is the best thing that has happened to network television in a long time.
C. for Reality TV stars, fame will last only as long as their particular television show.
D. traditional dramas and sitcoms are being replaced by Reality TV programming at an alarming
rate.

9.In the 1966 Supreme Court decision Miranda v. Arizona, the court held that before the police can
obtain statements from a person subjected to an interrogation, the person must be given a Miranda
warning. This warning means that a person must be told that he or she has the right to remain silent
during the police interrogation. Violation of this right means that any statement that the person
makes is not admissible in a court hearing. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. police who do not warn persons of their Miranda rights are guilty of a crime.
B. a Miranda warning must be given before a police interrogation can begin.
C. the police may no longer interrogate persons suspected of a crime unless a lawyer is present.
D. the 1966 Supreme Court decision in Miranda should be reversed.

10.There are no effective boundaries when it comes to pollutants. Studies have shown that toxic
insecticides that have been banned in many countries are riding the wind from countries where they
remain legal. Compounds such as DDT and toxaphene have been found in remote places like the
Yukon and other Arctic regions. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. toxic insecticides such as DDT have not been banned throughout the world.
B. more pollutants find their way into polar climates than they do into warmer areas.
C. studies have proven that many countries have ignored their own antipollution laws.
 D. DDT and toxaphene are the two most toxic insecticides in the world.

11. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is
Bindu, who is the sister of Anita related to Mahipal?
A. Niece
B. Daughter
C. Wife
D. None of these

12.Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my
grandfather.” How is the woman related to this man?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Daughter

13.Pointing to a man, a woman said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother”. How is the
woman related to the man?
A. Mother
B. Daughter
C. Sister
D. Grandmother

14. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is
your maternal uncle”. How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father?
A. Sister-in-law
B. Wife
C. Sister
D. Mother-in-law

15.How is D related to B?
A. Sister
B. Sister-in-law
C. Mother
D. Aunt

16.Rahul told Anand, “Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”.
Whom did Rahul defeat?
A. Son
B. Father
C. Brother
D. Father-in-law

17.A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady related to the
man?
A. Daughter
B. Grand daughter
C. Mother
D. Sister
18.How many females are there in the family? (Use the data if necessary from the previous question)
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. Cannot be determined

19.A is the husband of B. E is the daughter of C. A is the father of C. How is B related to E?

A. Mother
B. Grandmother
C. Aunt
D. Cousin

20.Pointing to a photograph, Vipul said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son”. How is
Vipul related to the girl in the photograph?
A. Father
B. Brother
C. Cousin
D. Data inadequate

21.If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, how can GEORGE be coded?

A. CADMNO
B. CAKNIT
C. CAKNCA
D. JAKINS

22.If in a certain code, KINDLE is coded as ELDNIK, how is EXOTIC coded in that language?
A. EXOTLC
B. CXOTIE
C. COXITE
D. CITOXE

23. If in a certain code, GAMBLE is written as FBLCKF, how FLOWER is coded in that code?
A. GKPVFQ
B. EMNXDS
C. GMPVDS
D. HNQYGT

24.If 2 x 8 = 20 ; 3 x 9 = 31 ; 5 x 8 = 44 , then 30 x 5 = ?
A. 150
B. 154
C. 158
D. 145

25. If in a certain code, TOGETHER is coded as RQEGRJCT, how is PAROLE coded in that language?
A. NCPQJG
B. NCQPJG
C. RCPQJK
D. RTCQNG
26.If % x ^ = 20 ; ^ x & = 32 ; % x & = 40 ; * x & = 72. Then what is the value of * ?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 6

27.In a code language, TAPE is written as 4825; SHART is written as 93814 and TUBE is written as
4675. Then how is BASERA written?
A. 785198
B. 789518
C. 985718
D. 758918

28.If in a certain code, NATURE is coded as MASUQE, how is FAMINE coded in that code?
A. FBMJND
B. FZMHND
C. GANIOE
D. EALIME

29. 6 : 49 :: 7 : ?
A. 64
B. 63
C. 50
D. 81

30.In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC, how is MEDICINE written in the same
code?
A. EOJDJEFM
B. EOJDEJFM
C. MFEJDJOE
D. MFEDJJOE

31.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: domicile

A. tenant
B. dwelling
C. kitchen
D. house

32.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: knowledge

A. school
B. teacher
C. textbook
D. learning

33.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: cell

A. chlorophyll
B. nucleus
C. nucleusnerve
D. human
34.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: dome
A. rounded
B. geodesic
C. governmental
D. coppery

35.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: vibration

A. motion
B. electricity
C. science
D. sound

36.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: itinerary

A. map
B. route
C. travel
D. guidebook

37.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: sustenance

A. nourishment
B. water
C. grains
D. menu

38.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: facsimile

A. picture
B. image
C. mimeograph
D. copier

39.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: town

A. residents
B. skyscrapers
C. parks
D. libraries

40.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: saddle

A. horse
B. seat
C. stirrups
D. horn

41.In a certain code, PAPER is coded as SCTGW, how is MOTHER coded in that language?
A. ORVLGW
B. PQVJGT
C. PQXJJT
D. PQXKJV

42. If HEATER is coded as KBDQHO, how can COOLER be coded?

 A. ALRIHV
B. FLRIHO
C. FLIRHO
D. FRLIHO

43. Study the given information and select the most appropriate term for 'save more money' 'time
and money' is coded as 'tis nim jes' 'manage money judiciously' is coded as 'lop xer nim' 'save more
time' is coded as 'jes kib dob' 'save enough judiciously' is coded as 'xer kib hix'.
A. nim hix kib
B. jes nim dob
C. nim kib dob
D. There is not enough information for figuring out code of more

44.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: knowledge

A. school
B. teacher
C. textbook
D. learning

45.40 30 3600 15 24 17 What is the sum of the two resultant number of the set of the number given
above?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 25
D. 42

46.What is the Next Number Series: 440, 360, 288, 224, __

A. 170
B. 169
C. 168
D. 171

47.Find The Essential Word of the Following Question: sustenance

A. nourishment
B. water
C. grains
D. menu

48. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be coded?

A. EDRIRL
B. DCQHQK
C. ESJFME
D. FYOBOC

49. What comes next? A D I P ?

A. V
B. Y
C. A
D. Z
50.8 9 13 11.5 18 14 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Which of the following will come in place of (D)?
A. 13.5
B. 19.5
C. 22
D. 18

English Language

51.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: Examination of a dead body?
A. Postmortem
B. Surgery
C. Operation
D. Tanning

52.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: The history of a man written by
other
A. Biography
B. Autobiography
C. History
D. Manuscript

53.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: A person who is very selective,
disgusted easily, and is hard to please
A. misanthrope
B. fastidious
C. selector
D. ambiguous

54.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: A man of odd habits.
A. Eccentric
B. Cynical
C. Introvert
D. Moody

55.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: A person who is pure and clean
A. immaculate
B. neat
C. clean
D. irrevocable

56.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: A game in which no one wins?
A. Abandoned
B. Drawn
C. Postponed
D. Obsolete

57.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: Walking in sleep
A. Somniloquism
B. Somnambulism
 C. Obsession
D. Hallucination

58.Find the Correct One Word Substitute of the following Question: A speech given at the opening
of a ceremony
A. inaugural
B. prelude
C. None of these
D. thanks

59.In each of the following questions, find the correctly spelt word. 1. Surveilance 2. Surveillance 3.
Survellance 4. Survaillance
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

60.In each of the following questions, find the correctly spelt word. 1. Countinence 2. Countenance
3. Countinance 4. Countinence
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

61. Find the correct spelt word from the alternatives given?
A. Comentary
B. Commentry
C. Commentory
D. Commentary

62.Find the correct spelt word from the alternatives given?

A. Sedantry
B. Sedentery
C. Sedentary
D. Sedantary

63.Find the mis-spelt word :

A. Annex
B. Aniversary
C. Animate
D. Animosity

64.Find out the correct spelling (A great writer)

A. Shakespear
B. Shakespeare
C. Shakspiear
D. Shakespear

65.Find the correct spelt word from the alternatives given?

 A. Desicate
B. Desiccate
C. Dessicate
D. Dessiccate

66.Find the correct spelt word from the alternatives given?

A. Acquiescence
B. Aquicence
C. Aquisence
D. Acquissence

67.Find the Correct Antonyms. MAGNANIMOUS

A. Selfish
B. Naïve
C. Generous
D. Small

68.Find the Correct Antonyms. Candid

A. silent
B. frank
C. close
D. taciturn

69.Find the Correct Antonyms. NOVEL

A. Formal
B. Ancient
C. Customary
D. Traditional

70.Find the Correct Antonyms. EPILOGUE

A. Conversation
B. Dialogue
C. Dramatic
D. Prologue

71.Find the Correct Antonyms. ENGULFED

A. Encircled
B. Grouped
C. Disfigured
D. Detached

72.Find the Correct Antonyms. DORSAL

A. Inactive
B. Ventral
C. Peripheral
D. Central

73.Find the Correct Antonyms. FILTHY

A. Stainless
 B. Shining
C. Sterilized
D. Clean

74.Find the Correct Antonyms. CONVEX

A. Flat
B. Protuberant
C. Full
D. Indented

75.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. To clear the air

A. to work hard
B. to wash properly
C. to remove tension
D. to create confusion

76.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. Hobson’s choice

A. first choice
B. beautiful choice
C. no choice at all as there is only one thing to choose from
D. to choose something carefully

77.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. Frame a Person

A. make him appear guilty
B. befool
C. ask him to sit idle
D. flatter somebody

78.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. To get along

A. to manage to
B. to go with
C. to leave
D. work helplessly

79.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. To look blue

A. to be annoyed
B. to look sad
C. to feel happy
D. to look sick

80.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. to find fault with

A. to find fault with
B. to be very angry
C. to criticise others
D. to victimize someone

81.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. He threw cold water over the project that the secretary had
prepared
A. rejected
 B. encouraged
C. cleared
D. discouraged

82.Find the Correct Idioms and Phrases. Never take up a fool’s errand.
A. to go with a message
B. one who takes a message
C. a useless undertaking
D. an observation

83.Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: A French woman P : committed
suicide Q : where she had put up R : who had come to Calcutta S : by jumping from the first floor
balcony of the hotel The Proper sequence should be:
A. PRQS
B. QSRP
C. RPSQ
D. SRQP

84. Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: People P : at his dispensary Q :
went to him R : of all professions S : for medicine and treatment The Proper sequence should be:
A. QPRS
B. RPQS
C. RQSP
D. QRPS

85.Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: When he P : did not know Q : he
was nervous and R : heard the hue and cry at midnight S : what to do The Proper sequence should
be:
A. RQPS
B. QSPR
C. SQPR
D. PQRS

86. Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: I read an advertisement that
said P : posh, air-conditioned Q : gentleman of taste R : are available for S : fully furnished rooms
The Proper sequence should be:
A. PQRS
B. PSRQ
C. PSQR
D. SRPQ

87.Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: It has been established that P :
Einstein was Q : although a great scientist R : weak in arithmetic S : right from his school days The
Proper sequence should be:
A. SRPQ
B. QPRS
C. QPSR
D. RQPS
88.Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: The national unity of a free
people P : to make it impracticable Q : for there to be an arbitrary administration R : depends upon a
sufficiently even balance of political power S : against a revolutionary opposition that is
irreconcilably opposed to it The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRPS
B. QRSP
C. RPQS
D. RSPQ

89.Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: If you need help P : promptly and
politely Q : ask for attendants R : to help our customers S : who have instructions The Proper
sequence should be:
A. SQPR
B. QPSR
C. QSRP
D. SQRP

90.Find the Correct Order of the Words of the Following Question: Then P : it struck me Q : of
course R : suitable it was S : how eminently The Proper sequence should be:
A. SPQR
B. QSRP
C. PSRQ
D. QPSR

Quantitative Aptitude

91.The paint in a certain container is sufficient to paint an area equals to 5.875m2. How many
bricks of dimensions 12.5 cm* 10 cm* 7.5 cm can be painted out of this container?
A. 1200
B. 234
C. 100
D. 245

92.The ratio of the dimensions of two cylindrical drums are as follows. Radii - 4:7 Heights - 21:8
Find the ratio of their volumes.
A. 2:3
B. 3:2
C. 6:7
D. 7:6

93.The radii of two cones are equal. If their slant height are in the ratio 3:2. Then the ratio of their
curved surface areas are
A. 2:3
B. 1:2
C. 3:2
D. None of these

94.What will be the effect on the volume of a right circular cone if the radius and height increase by
20%?
 A. 2 times increase
B. 3 times increase
C. 4 times increase
D. 8 times increase

95.Find the volume, If the surface area of a cube is 2400 sq.cm.

A. 4800 cu.cm
B. 8000 cu.cm
C. 400 cu.cm.
D. 20 cu.cm

96.Given: Surface area of cube: 56 m2 Find its volume.

A. 9 m3
B. 16 m3
C. 27 m3
D. 81 m3

97.Find the surface of the cuboid if two cubes of each 20cm edge are joined end-to-end?
A. 1000cm2
B. 2000cm2
C. 1600cm2
D. 4000cm2

98.Two solid spheres of metal having radius 1.5cm and 2cm are molten and the cast into one big
sphere. If the radius of the sphere is x, then find x3 ?
A. 11.375 cu.cm
B. 12.08 cu.cm
C. 13.89 cu.cm
D. none of these

99.What will be the curved surface area of cone , if its diameter and vertical length are 100 cm and
25 cm respectively?
A. 8776.3cm2
B. 2214.2cm2
C. 1432.8cm2
D. 1242.9cm2

100.The diameter of two cones are equal. If their slant height are in the ratio 15:11 . Then the ratio
of their curved surface areas are
A. 15:11
B. 2:1
C. 3:5
D. 1:3

101.Reema got the average of 16 numbers as 38.8. While checking the inputs, the teacher realized
that there were some mistakes in the entry of four number. What she entered? The correct entry 44
52 25 33 12 18 17 66 If the entries had been made correctly, what would have been the answer?
A. 34.36
B. 35.22
 C. 42.18
D. 43.24

102.16 children are to be divided into two groups A and B of 10 and 6 children. The average percent
marks obtained by the children of group A is 75 and the average percent marks of all the 16 children
is 76. What is the average percent marks of children of group B?
A. 77 1/3
B. 77 2/3
C. 75 1/3
D. 75 2/3

103.The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. The largest of these numbers is

A. 20
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24

104.What is average of 7 runs, 9 runs, 11 runs, …., 27 runs, 29 runs and 31 runs?
A. 15
B. 16
C. 16.5
D. 19

105.In an examination, a pupil’s average marks were 63 per paper. If he had obtained 20 more
marks for his Geography paper and 2 more marks for his History paper, his average per paper would
have been 65, How many papers were there in the examination?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

106.The average mark of a class of twenty students is 64. If three students whose marks are 32,28
and 34 are removed , then find the approximate average mark of the remaining students of the class.
A. 71
B. 74
C. 57
D. 70

107.Find the average of first 40 natural numbers?

A. 800
B. 810
C. 820
D. 830

108.Find average of natural numbers from 1 to 67?

A. 33.5
B. 34
C. 50
D. 67
109.The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of 7
technicians is Rs. 12000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers
in the workshop is:
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24

110. In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother doest not
agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His
mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are them are correct in their
estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arun?
A. 65 kgs
B. 67 kgs
C. 69 lgs
D. 70 kgs

111.The speed of a swimmer along the water current is 15 kmph. Water current is 2.5 kmph. Find
his speed against the current.
A. 8.5 km/h
B. 9 km/h
C. 10 km/h
D. 12.5 km/h

112.The time taken by swimmer to swim upstream is 4 hours more than the time he takes to swim
downstream. He swims at a speed of 10 km/hr in still water. The stream is flowing gently at 2 km/hr.
What is the swimming distance one side?
A. 20 km
B. 72 km
C. 80 km
D. 96 km

113. If Madhuri is asked to swim 24 km along the stream and 36 km against the stream, she will
take 6 hrs 30 minutes. While, if the distances upstream and downstream are exchanged, she will
take 6 hrs. Find the speed of the stream.
A. 2 km/hr
B. 3 km/hr
C. 4 km/hr
D. 6 km/hr

114.A boatman row3/4km against the water current in11.25minutes. Find his speed in still water.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

115.A boatman rows his boat 48 km upstream and same distance downstream. The boat takes 12
hrs and 8 hrs to go upstream and downstream respectively. Find the speed of the boat in stagnant
water and the speed of the stream respectively.
 A. 4 km/hr ; 3 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr ; 1 km/hr
C. 6 km/hr ; 4 km/hr
D. 12 km/hr ; 6 km/hr

116.A fisherman can row in still water at 5 kmph. The speed of the water is 1 kmph. He takes 1 hour
to row to a place and reach the shore back. How far is the place from the shore?
A. . 2.4 km
B. 2.5 km
C. 3 km
D. 3.6 km

117.Given: Speed of stream = 5 m/s 9 Distance between points A and B = 6 km Total time taken =
11 hours 20 Find the speed of boat in still water.
A. 11 km/h
B. 22 km/h
C. 33 km/h
D. 44 km/h

118. Pramod's home and school are separated by a river. It takes him one hour to row to the school
and come back. The river runs at a speed of 2.4 km/hr. Pramod's speed in still water is 12 km/hr.
How far is the school from Pramod's home?
A. 3.6 km
B. 4.8 km
C. 5.76 km
D. 6.25 km

119. A child swims in still water at 4.5 km/hr. The river is flowing at a rate of 1.5 km/hr. Find the
average speed of the child if he swims same distance upstream and downstream.
A. 3 km/hr
B. 3.5 km/hr
C. 4 km/hr
D. 6 km/hr

120.Give: Speed of boat in still water = 9 kmph Speed of water current = 1.5 kmph Find the time
taken by the boat to go 105 km downstream and come back
A. 16 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 24 hours

121. 3 varieties of wheat were mixed at a warehouse. The rate of Type 1 wheat was Rs. 145/ Kg and
rate of Type 2 wheat was Rs. 20 per kg more than Type 1. The quantities of 3 varieties of wheat were
in the ratio 2:1:3 respectively. The mix was finally sold at the rate of Rs. 180 per kg. Find the price of
3rd type of wheat?
A. Rs. 196.58
B. Rs. 208.33
C. Rs. 210
D. Rs. 215.67
122. A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The second
contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres
of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?
A. 4 litres, 8 litres
B. 6 litres, 6 litres
C. 5 litres, 7 litres
D. 7 litres, 5 litres

123.A restaurant prepares a mocktail by mixing three types of juices A, B and C in the ratio 4:3:5. It
decides to change the recipe and 24 L of this mocktail is replaced by juice C. The ratio of juices in
this new recipe is now 12 : 9 : 19. What is the initial quantity of the mocktail prepared?
A. 240 litre
B. 480 litre
C. 500 litre
D. . 625 litre

124.A pitcher contains a mixture of alcohol and water. The percentage of alcohol in the mix is 18%.
The bartender decides to replace 6 Litres of the mix with mineral water and the mix now contains
15% alcohol only. Find the capacity of the pitcher.
A. 25 Litres
B. 30 Litres
C. 36 Litres
D. 45 Litres

125.Three vessels contain a milk mixture 30 litre each. When put in a big vessel, they result into a
mixture of milk and water in the ratio 2:1. If the ratio is to be reversed to make it 1: 2, how much
more water should be added to the mix?
A. 20L
B. 40L
C. 90L
D. 100L

126.The drink for children has juice and water in the ratio 5:2 while the drink for adults has them in
ratio 7:4. If both the mixes are poured in a jug, find the final ratio of water to juice in the jug.
A. 8:35
B. 25:52
C. 35:8
D. 52:25

127.A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the
mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half
syrup?
A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/7

128. How many kilogram of sugar costing Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar costing
Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per kg?
 A. 36 kg
B. 42 kg
C. 54 kg
D. 63 kg

129.A body massage oil mix contains 60 litres of Oil A with some litres of Oil B. The rate of Oil A is
Rs. 32 per litre while the rate of Oil B is 9 Rs/litre less than Oil A. A shopkeeper sells this oil mix at
Rs. 28/ litre. How much Oil B should be mixed in the mixture to ensure that there is no profit, no loss
in the whole process?
A. 24 litres
B. 36 litres
C. 48 litres
D. 50 litres

130.A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another containing
19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The quantity of whisky
replaced is:
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 2/5
D. 2/5

131. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

A. 21
B. 17
C. 14
D. 3

132.FIND ODD MAN OUT:

A. Cuba
B. Canada
C. Norway
D. Denmark

133.4, 9, 256, 529, 573 which of these does not belong to the group
A. 256
B. 573
C. 529
D. 9

134.FIND ODD MAN OUT:

A. Platinum
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Bronze

135. FIND ODD MAN OUT:

A. Yak
B. Okapi
 C. Cape Buffalo
D. Bear

136.Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers. 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
A. 47
B. 63
C. 32
D. 83

137.Pick the odd one out 1. Manipur 2. Sikkim 3. Lakshadweep 4. Maharashtra

A. Manipur
B. Sikkim
C. Lakshadweep
D. Maharashtra

138.Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers. 582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617,
600
A. 634
B. 611
C. 605
D. 600

139. FIND ODD MAN OUT:

A. Surprise
B. Daze
C. Stun
D. Excite

140.FIND ODD MAN OUT:

A. Lucknow
B. Itanagar
C. Imphal
D. Amritsar

General/ Financial Awareness

141.

Which of the following summarizes the cash movements during a specified period?

A. Trading account
B. Profit & Loss account
C. Receipts & Payments account
D. Balance Sheet

142.

In which of the following interim dividend is treated?

A. In profit and Loss account

 B. In profit and Loss appropriation account
C. On the asset side of the Balance Sheet
D. In trading account

143.

Balance sheets are prepared

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Annually

144.

Which of the following is an example of operating expense?

A. Purchasing operating equipment

B. Purchasing a vehicle
C. Purchasing cleaning services
D. buying a compute

145.

The sales income (Credit and Cash) of a business during a given period is called

A. Transactions
B. Sales returns
C. Turnover
D. Purchase returns

146.

If a business pays rent in advance for 12 months, it will be treated as:

A. Prepaid expenses of business

B. Long term liability of business
C. Fixed assets of business
D. Current liability of business

147.

The liabilities that are payable in more than a year and are not be liquidated from current
assets

A. Current liabilities
B. Fixed liabilities
C. Contingent liabilities
D. All of the above

148.
In case of fixed capital accounts, other transactions such as Drawings and Profit etc. are
recorded in
a separate account that is called

A. Fixed Capital Account

B. Current Account
C. Fluctuating Capital Account
D. Floating Capital Account

149.

Budgeting is difficult to apply in the following cases

A. Products subjected to rapid changes

B. Job order manufacturing
C. Uncertain market conditions
D. All of the above

150.

Goods of Rs. 1,000 purchased from Mr. “A” were recorded in sales book. The rectification
of this error will:

A. Increase the gross profit

B. Reduce the gross profit
C. Have no effect on gross Profit
D. None of the given options

151.

Money spent to acquire or upgrade physical assets is known as:

A. Revenue expense
B. Capital Expense
C. Administrative Expense
D. Operating Expense

152.

A current ratio of ______ and above indicates that the availability of sufficient net working
capital and the ability of the firm to meet current liabilities.

A. 1.33:1
B. 1.44:1
C. 1.55:1
D. 1.66:1

153.

An amount of Rs. 200 received from Mr. "P" but credited to Mr. "Q" would affect:
 A. Accounts of P & Q
B. Only Cash Account
C. Only P’s account
D. Only Q’s account

154.

The allocation of the cost of a tangible plant asset to expense in the periods, in which
services are received from the asset, is termed as:

A. Appreciation
B. Depreciation
C. Fluctuation
D. None of the given options

155.

Credit sales appear on the __________ side of the Debtors control account.

A. Left side or credit

B. Left side or debit
C. Right side or debit
D. Right side or credit

156.

The statement of changes in equity basically shows the movement of:

A. share capital during the year

B. Capital reserves during the year
C. Revenue Reserves during the year
D. All of the given options

157.

Which of the following is NOT a financial statement?

A. Audit report
B. Balance sheet
C. Income statement
D. Cash flow statement

158.

Which of the following is NOT a function of bank reconciliation statement?

A. To check for errors in balance sheet

B. To update omitted entries into the cash book
C. To update omitted entries into the bank statement
D. To reconcile the difference in bank statement and cash book
159.

Any expense that gives benefit for a period of less than twelve months is called ________.

A. Capital Expense
B. Revenue Expense
C. Revenue Receipt
D. Deferred Expense

160.

The following is (are) the type(s) of Journal

A. Purchase journal
B. Sales journal
C. Cash journal
D. All of the above

161.

The process of entering all transactions from the journal to ledger is called

A. Posting
B. Entry
C. Accounting
D. None of the above

162.

Which of the following documents contains rules and regulations for internal management
of the company?

A. Memorandum of Association
B. Articles of Association
C. Prospectus
D. Statutory Declaration

163.

Balance sheet is a statement of

A. Assets
B. Liability
C. Capital
D. All of the above

164.

Depreciable value of an asset is equal to:

A. Cost + scrap value

 B. Cost + market price
C. Cost – scrap value
D. None of the given options

165.

-The long term assets that have no physical existence but are rights that have value is
known as

A. Current assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Intangible assets
D. Investments

166.

Following is (are) the characteristic(s) of a budget

A. It outlines projected activities

B. Expressions are made in quantitative terms
C. It is for a fixed period
D. All of the above

167.

Real accounts records

A. Dealings with creditors or debtors

B. Dealings in commodities
C. Gains and losses
D. All of the above

168.

What type of expenses are paid out of Gross Profit?

A. General Expenses
B. Financial Expenses
C. Selling Expenses
D. All of the given options

169.

The assets that can be converted into cash within a short period (i.e. 1 year or less) are
known as

A. Current assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Intangible assets
D. Investments
170.

Current ratio =

A. Quick assets / Current liabilities

B. Current assets / Current liabilities
C. Debt. / Equity
D. Current assets / Equity

171.

Which of the following subsidiary book(s) is (are) maintained for debtors control account?

A. Sales Day Book

B. Sales Return
C. Debtors Ledger
D. All of the given options

172.

The ratios that refer to the ability of the firm to meet the short term obligations out of its
short term resources

A. Liquidity ratio
B. Leverage ratios
C. Activity ratios
D. Profitability ratios

173.

Which one of the following is NOT true about Capital Expenditure?

A. Creates future benefits

B. Incurred to acquire fixed assets
C. Incurred to increase the economic life of existing fixed assets
D. Reduce the profit of the concern

174.

Which of the following entry will be recorded when the Bad Debts are recovered?

A. Cash(Dr.) & Bad Debts recovered(Cr)

B. A/C Receivable(Dr.) & Bad Debts recovered(Cr.)
C. Bad debts recovered(Dr.) and Profit & Loss(Cr.)
D. Provision for doubtful debts(Dr.) & Cash(Cr.)

175.

Which of the following asset is, generally, NOT depreciated?

A. Factory Buildings
 B. Office Equipment
C. Plant & Machinery
D. Land

176.

If Assets = Rs. 99,500 and Owner's equity = Rs. 50,500 then Liabilities = ?

A. Rs. 49,000
B. Rs. 55,000
C. Rs. 125,000
D. Rs. 115,700

177.

Interest on loan paid by business is an example of :

A. Revenue expense
B. Income
C. Asset
D. Return outward

178.

Sale of goods to Amir is wrongly debited to Umair A/c instead of Amir A/c. Both
are debtors of business, this is an example of:

A. Error of Omission
B. Error of Commission
C. Error of Principle
D. Error of Original entry

179.

Commercial Accounting is based on:

A. Single entry book keeping

B. Double entry book keeping
C. Both single and double entry book keeping
D. Cash basis of book keeping

180.

The debts, which are to be repaid within a short period (year or less) are known as

A. Current liabilities
B. Fixed liabilities
C. Contingent liabilities
D. All of the above

181.
Which of the following is quoted company?

A. Private Limited Company

B. Public Limited Company
C. Listed company
D. Non Listed Company

182.

In cost of goods sold statement the ‘cost of goods manufactured’ is equal to:

A. Total factory cost + Opening work in process – Ending work in process

B. Total factory cost + Opening work in process + Ending work in process
C. Total factory cost - Opening work in process + Ending work in process
D. Ending work in process +Total factory cost – Opening work in process WRONG ANSWER

183.

The following is a statement showing the financial status of the company at any given time

A. Trading account
B. Profit and Loss statements
C. Balance sheet
D. cash Book

184.

When Capital is increased by an amount, it is recorded on the:

A. Left or credit side of the account

B. Right or debit side of the account
C. Left or debit side of the account
D. Right or credit side of the account

185.

Which of the following will be debited, if cash is drawn by Proprietor?

A. Proprietor’s drawings
B. Proprietor’s cash
C. Proprietor’s capita
D. Out flows

186.

The net income calculated in the income statement for the accounting period is reported
on:

A. Bank Statement
B. Statement of retained earnings
C. Statement of cash flows
 D. None of the given options

187.

Which of the following is NOT an item of a Balance Sheet?

A. Accounts Receivable
B. Accounts Payable
C. Sales Revenue
D. Marketable Securities

188.

Which of the following shows summary of a company's financial position at a specific date?

A. Profit & Loss Account

B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Balance Sheet
D. Income & Expenditure Account

189.

Which of the following financial statement summarizes the profitability of an organization

for a particular period?

A. Balance Sheet
B. Trading and Profit & Loss account
C. Cash Flow Statement
D. Statement of Retained Earnings

190.

Which of the following financial statement is helpful for the investors and creditors
to assess the cash and non cash aspects of operating, investing and financing transactions
on an entity’s financial position?

A. Balance Sheet
B. Income Statement
C. Statement of cash flows
D. Statement of changes in equity