HR Final

1.
_____ is the means through which managers ensure that employees' activities and outputs are
congruent with the organization's goals.
A. Performance standardization
B. Performance budgeting
C. Performance management
D. Performance indicator
E. Performance dampener
2. The process through which an organization gets information on how closely an employee's
actual performance meets his or her performance plan is known as _____.
A. performance appraisal
B. job analysis
C. performance feedback
D. ability analysis
E. achievement discrepancy
3. The performance effectiveness of employees is provided to them during the _____ process.
A. performance appraisal
B. achievement discrepancy
C. job rotation
D. ability analysis
E. performance feedback
4. The process of performance management begins with:

A. developing employee goals, behavior, and actions to achieve outcomes.
B. defining performance outcomes for company division and department.
C. providing consequences for performance results.
D. identifying the improvements needed.
E. providing support and ongoing performance discussions.
5. Rick is the vice president of the Human Resources team. He designs a new performance
management process. He completes the first step and moves on to the next step of developing
employee goals and actions to achieve the outcomes. Which of the following is he likely to do
next to create an effective performance management process?
A. He will define performance outcomes for divisions and departments.
B. He will evaluate performance.
C. He will identify improvements needed.
D. He will provide support and ongoing performance discussions.
E. He will provide consequences for performance results.
6. Which of the following is an example of using performance management to fulfill an

administrative purpose?
A. Define the results, behaviors, and, to some extent, employee characteristics that are
necessary.
B. Develop employees who are effective at their jobs.
C. Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay raises, promotions,

retention-termination, layoffs, and recognition of individual performance.
D. Identify employees' strengths and weaknesses, link employees to appropriate

training and development activities.
E. Confront employees with their performance weaknesses.

7. As the CEO of Blue Corp., George makes it a point to meet new hires at all levels of his
organization. He explains the goals of the company and emphasizes on the importance of an
individual employee's role in the larger picture. This initiative of George focuses on the _____ of
performance management.
A. strategic purpose
B. administrative purpose
C. developmental purpose
D. statistical purpose
E. validity purpose
8. _____ is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job performance that
is consistent with an organization's strategy, goals, and culture.
A. Specificity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Strategic congruence
E. Acceptability
9. Globo Analytics Inc., a data analysis company, has modified its performance management
system. Apart from training employees on their specific tasks, the trainers and managers help
the employees become more aware of the overall goals of the company and how their
individual performances influence the broader goals of the company. As a result of this,
employees' performances have become more consistent with the organization's strategies,
goals, and culture. This initiative of Globo focused on the _____ criterion of performance
management.
A. consistency
B. strategic congruence
C. social
D. acceptability
E. risk avoidance
10. Prometheus Corp. is a large-scale manufacturer of consumer electronic gadgets. As part of its
performance management system, Prometheus measures the amount each employee
contributes to the profits of the company, and they are either held accountable or rewarded
based on their contributions. With regard to performance measurement, under which of the
following terms would contribution to profits be categorized?
A. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
B. Critical success factors (CSFs)
C. Non-performing assets (NPAs)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
E. Behavioral Observation Scales (BOSs)
11. Which performance management evaluation criterion reflects the extent to which a
performance measure assesses all the relevant—and only the relevant—aspects of
performance?
A. Reliability
B. Strategic congruence
C. Acceptability
D. Specificity
E. Validity
12. Whittaker Publishing Corp. is a publishing company that wants to hire more technical experts to
handle the software requirements in the publishing process. However, the test given to the
programmers assesses not only their technical knowledge, but also their communication skills,
language abilities, and understanding of client services. The test conducted by Whittaker
Publishing Corp. is _____.
A. high on reliability
B. low on strategic congruence

C. high on specificity
D. high on acceptability
E. low on validity
13. A performance measure is said to be contaminated when:
A. it does not measure all aspects of performance.
B. it evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance.
C. it is a subjective supervisory measure of job performance.
D. it is not reliable over time.
E. the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job performance is
maximized.
14. A software company assesses its developers more on their client support skills rather than their
development skills. Which of the following terms would best describe the software company's
performance management process?
A. Deficient
B. Contaminated
C. Unreliable
D. Inconsistent
E. Unspecified
15. Elle Inc. is a firm that holds frequent reviews and feedback sessions for its employees. It
demands that the same person should review the employees of a team to ensure that the
performance evaluation is consistent; tests—retests are conducted periodically to make sure
the evaluation is consistent. These two steps taken by Elle focus on the _____ of performance
management.
A. reliability
B. strategic congruence
C. specificity
D. acceptability
E. validity
16. The consistency in the ratings given by two different individuals who evaluate an employee's
performance is known as _____ reliability.
A. internal consistency
B. interrater
C. inter-method
D. test-retest
E. parallel-forms
17. A measure that results in drastically different ratings over time lacks _____ reliability.
A. internal consistency
B. interrater
C. parallel-forms
D. test-retest
E. inter-method
18. Which of the following statements best defines the acceptability of a performance measure?
A. It is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job

performance that is consistent with the organization's strategy, goals, and culture.
B. It is the extent to which a performance measure gives detailed guidance to

employees about what is expected of them and in what ways they are unsuitable for
the job.
C. It is the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the relevant—and only
the relevant—aspects of job performance.
D. It is the extent to which a performance measure is free from random error.
E. It is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed to be satisfactory or

adequate by those who use it.
19. The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is
expected of them is called _____.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. specificity
D. acceptability
E. strategic congruence
20. Which of the following approaches to measuring performance uses some overall assessment of
an individual's performance or worth and seeks to develop some ranking of the individuals
within a work group?
A. The results approach
B. The attribute approach
C. The comparative approach
D. The consequential approach
E. The behavioral approach
21. Which of the following is a comparative approach to ranking that consists of a manager looking
at a list of employees, deciding who the best employee is, and crossing that person's name off
the list?
A. Simple ranking
B. Alternation ranking
C. Reverse ranking
D. Elimination by aspect
E. Forced distribution
22. The ranking technique that requires certain percentages of employees to be categorized into
predetermined categories or groups based on their performance is known as _____.
A. forced distribution
B. high/low ranking system
C. paired comparison
D. alternation ranking
E. simple ranking
23. The _____ method requires managers to compare every employee with every other employee
in the work group, giving an employee a score of every time he/she is considered the higher
performer.
A. partner measurement
B. probability distribution
C. forced distribution
D. paired comparison
E. alternation ranking
24. Jason is a manager at Eros Corp. He needs to perform an evaluation of his subordinates. He does
this by pairing each of his subordinates with every other subordinate in the same group, and
then selects the higher performer between the two. At the end of the process, he calculates the
number of times a subordinate has been the higher performer in a match-up. Which type of
performance management system does Jason employ to perform the evaluation?
A. Probability distribution
B. Simple ranking
C. Forced distribution
D. Paired comparison
E. Scanlon plans
25. Roundel Inc. is a company that sells automobile tires. The company is projecting an increase in
sales in the next twelve months, and is looking to fill the senior positions through internal
recruiting to meet this demand. The company is evaluating the individual performances and
seeking to develop some ranking of the individuals within a work group to identify the best
performer. Which of the following approaches is the company using?
A. The results approach
C. The comparative approach
D. The behavioral approach
E. The quality approach
26. The _____ approach to performance management focuses on the extent to which individuals
have certain characteristics or traits believed desirable for the company's success.
A. results
B. quality
C. behavioral
D. comparative
E. attribute
27. Which of the following attribute approaches to performance management is most commonly
used?
A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales

B. Mixed standard scales
C. Behavior observation scales
D. Graphic rating scales
E. Simple ranking scales
28. Teknikal Inc. decides to implement a new performance management system. It consists of a list
of five traits used to evaluate all the employees. The manager considers one employee at a
time; and on a continuum with different points, circles the number that signifies how much of a
particular trait the individual has. Which type of performance management system is Teknikal
Inc. using?
A. Probability distribution
B. Simple ranking
C. Forced distribution
D. Paired comparison
E. Graphics rating scale
29. In the graphic rating scale, the rater:
A. defines performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors associated with

different levels of performance.
B. defines the relevant performance dimensions and then develops statements

representing good, average, and poor performances along each dimension.
C. considers one employee at a time, circling the number that signifies how much of
that trait the individual has.
D. identifies and provides descriptions of competencies that are common for an entire
occupation, organization, job family, or a specific job.
E. compares every employee with every other employee in the work group, giving an
employee a score of every time he or she is considered the higher performer.
30. In which performance technique are managers given a total of three statements of performance
per dimension and asked to indicate whether the employee's performance is above (+), at (), or
below (-) the statements?
A. Behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. Forced distribution scale
C. Behavior observation scale
D. Graphic rating scale
E. Mixed-standard scale
31. Which of the following is true regarding the attribute approach to performance management?
A. There is usually a high congruence between the techniques used in this approach
and the company's strategy.
B. The methods usually have clearer performance standards due to which different
raters provide similar ratings and rankings.
C. It is easy to develop and is generalizable across organizations and strategies.
D. It provides specific guidance and feedback to employees.
E. The ratings from this approach are easily accepted by employees during feedback.
32. Which of the following approaches would be worst suited to provide managers with the specific
guidance required to correct an employee's performance deficiencies?
A. The quality approach
B. The comparative approach
C. The behavioral approach
D. The attribute approach
E. The results approach

33. Which performance management technique initially involves the identification of a large
number of critical incidents, followed by the classification of these incidents into performance
dimensions, and finally ranking these incidents into levels of performance?
A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B. Graphic rating scales
C. Comparative rating scales
D. Organizational behavior modification
E. Competency models
34. The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with
which the employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the _____.
A. simple ranking method
B. behavioral observation scale
C. graphic rating scale
D. organizational behavior modification method
E. forced distribution scale
35. Which of the following is true regarding behavioral approaches to performance measurement?
A. They link the company's strategy to the specific behavior necessary to implement
that strategy.
B. They adopt a very subjective approach to evaluating human behavior at the

workplace.
C. They result in techniques that have a low degree of validity and acceptability.
D. They assume that there are multiple best ways to do the job.
E. Despite substantial investments in training, the techniques are not strong enough to
be reliable.
36. The _____ approach assumes that subjectivity can be eliminated from the measurement process
and that outcomes are the closest indicator of one's contribution to organizational
effectiveness.
A. behavior
B. results
C. attribute
D. quality
E. comparative
37. Which of the following is a means of measuring and feeding back productivity information to
personnel with the main goal of motivating employees to higher levels of productivity?
A. Projective tests
B. Productivity measurement and evaluation system
C. Assessment centers
D. Critical incidents
E. Multi-criteria decision analysis
38. Which of the following is the first step in the Productivity Measurement and Evaluation System
(ProMES)?
A. The staff defines indicators of the products to measure how well the products are
being generated.
B. The management develops a feedback system that provides employees and work
groups with information about their specific level of performance.
C. People in the organization identify the set of activities or objectives the

organization expects to accomplish.
D. The employee and manager identify what the employee can do to capitalize on
performance strengths.
E. The staff establishes the contingencies between the amount of the indicators and
the level of evaluation associated with that amount.
39. Which of the following is true about the results approach to performance management?
A. The results approach relies primarily on a combination of the attribute and results
approaches to performance measurement.
B. The results approach virtually eliminates problems of leniency, central tendency,

and strictness.
C. The techniques of the results approach usually have very little congruence with the
company's strategy.
D. The results approach is usually highly unacceptable to both managers and

employees.
E. The results approach minimizes subjectivity, relying on objective, quantifiable

indicators of performance.
40. A performance management system designed with a strong quality orientation can be expected
to:
A. emphasize an assessment of system factors in the measurement system, but not of

the person factors.
B. emphasize that managers' and employees' work separately to solve performance

problems.
C. involve only the external customers in setting standards and measuring

performances.
D. use multiple sources to evaluate person and system factors.
E. emphasize an assessment of person factors in the measurement system, but not of

the system factors.
41. _____ refers to practices participated in by employees from all levels of the company that focus
on continuous improvement of business processes.
A. Quality circle
B. Muda
C. Kaizen
D. Root cause analysis
E. Business process reengineering
42. Which of the following statistical process quality control techniques helps identify the
redundancies in procedures that increase manufacturing or service time?
A. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B. Control charts
C. Pareto charts
D. Process-flow analysis
E. Histograms
43. A _____ is a quality control technique that lists causes of a problem in decreasing order of
importance.
A. cause-and-effect diagram
B. control chart
C. Pareto chart
D. process-flow analysis
E. histogram
44. Which quality control technique is useful for understanding the amount of variance between an
outcome and the expected value or average outcome?
A. A control chart
B. A histogram
C. A cause-and-effect diagram
D. A process-flow analysis
E. A Pareto chart
45. Which of the following observations is true about scattergrams?
A. They help in identifying the most important cause of a problem.
B. They are useful for understanding the amount of variance between an outcome and
the expected value or average outcome.
C. They help employees determine whether the relationship between two variables
or events is positive, negative, or zero.
D. They assume that that the majority of problems are the result of a small number of
causes.
E. They are useful for identifying redundancy in processes that increase manufacturing
or service time.
46. Which of the following is true about the quality approach to performance measurement?
A. The quality approach techniques usually have very little strategic congruence.
B. The quality approach has very low acceptability.
C. The quality approach does not advocate the evaluation of personal traits.
D. The quality approach adopts a systems-oriented focus.
E. The quality approach relies primarily on a combination of the comparative and

results approaches to performance measurement.
47. Both the comparative and the attribute approaches to performance measurement are _____.
A. high on strategic congruence
B. very low on specificity
C. low on acceptability
D. high on reliability
E. very high on validity
48. Which of the following approaches to performance measurement minimizes contamination and
deficiency?
A. The comparative approach
C. The behavioral approach
D. The results approach
E. The quality approach
49. _____ are the most frequently used source of performance information.
A. Peers
B. Managers
C. Subordinates
D. Employees themselves
E. Customers
50. Which of the following is true of peers as the source for performance information?
A. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and often have the most
opportunity to observe the employee in day-to-day activities.
B. Peer evaluations give employees power over their managers, thus putting the
manager in a difficult situation.
C. Peers are comfortable providing evaluations for both administrative and

developmental purposes.
D. Peers have the ability to discard the fact that they may be friends with the ratee in
order to provide an unbiased rating.
E. Peers give feedback that is strongly related to performance and to employee
perceptions of the accuracy of the appraisal.
51. The appraisals that involve collecting subordinates' evaluations of manager's behavior or skills
are known as _____.
A. -degree feedback
B. screening interviews
C. peer review
D. Kaizen
E. upward feedback
52. Which of the following is a disadvantage of subordinate evaluations?
A. Subordinates tend to focus only on aspects of their manager's performance that are
measured, neglecting those that are not.
B. Subordinates do not have adequate opportunity to observe a manager's

interactions and behavior.
C. Subordinates have the potential for friendship to bias ratings.
D. Subordinates have power over their managers, thus putting the managers in a
difficult situation.
E. Subordinates find the situation of being both rater and ratee uncomfortable when
the evaluations are made for administrative decisions.
53. The _____ technique consists of having multiple raters above, equal to, and below the manager
providing input into a manager's evaluation.
A. employee integrity testing
B. background check
C. degree appraisal
D. upward feedback
E. performance appraisal
54. Which of the following rater errors is based on stereotypes the rater has about how individuals
with certain characteristics are expected to perform?
A. Horns
B. Similar to me
C. Halo
D. Contrast
E. Central tendency
55. A competent employee receives lower-than-deserved ratings because of a few outstanding

colleagues who set very-high performance standards. This is an example of a _____ rater error.
A. contrast
B. distributional
C. halo
D. similar to me
E. horns
56. _____ is a rater error in which a rater gives high ratings to all employees regardless of their
performance.
A. Halo
B. Contrast
C. Central tendency
D. Leniency
E. Similar to me
57. A _____ rater error is one in which a rater gives middle or average ratings to all employees
despite their performance.
A. horns
B. leniency
C. central tendency
D. strictness
E. contrast
58. _____ rating error occurs when a rater gives an employee high ratings on all aspects of
performance because of his or her overall positive impression of the employee.
A. Contrast
B. Halo
C. Leniency
D. Similar to me
E. Central tendency
59. Brian, a psychology student, has had an overall negative impression of his psychology professor.
As a consequence, during the end of term appraisal, he rates his professor low on all
performance criteria. Which of the following rater errors has Brian committed?
A. Horns
B. Leniency
C. Central tendency
D. Contrast
E. Strictness
60. A situation in which evaluators purposefully distort a rating to achieve personal or company
goals is referred to as _____.
A. Bayesian inference
B. group dynamics
C. -degrees feedback
D. appraisal politics
E. similar to me error
61. _____ attempts to emphasize the multidimensional nature of performance and thoroughly
familiarize the raters with the actual content of various performance dimensions.
A. Performance training
B. Sensitivity training
C. Multidimensional training
D. Rater accuracy training
E. Process-flow analysis
62. _____, attended by managers, provide a way to help ensure that performance is evaluated
consistently across managers and to reduce the influence of rating errors and politics on
appraisals.
A. Calibration meetings
B. Frame-of-reference trainings
C. Multidimensional trainings
D. Rater accuracy trainings
E. Succession planning meetings
63. Which of the following is an example of a frame-of-reference training?

A. Devon focuses primarily on making managers aware of rating errors and how to
reduce them effectively.
B. Mark makes managers aware of how errors influence ratings.
C. Dan emphasizes on using the same idea of high, medium, and low performances
when making evaluations.
D. Sam stresses on having consistent standards of evaluation.
E. Jennifer focuses on eliminating politics through discussion among managers.
64. CobWeb Inc., a software firm, assesses managers based on how well they understand their
subordinates, and the factors involved in their poor performance. Which of the following
examples is the most appropriate evaluation of the input factors involved in analyzing poor
performance?
A. Lin considers if her subordinate has the necessary technical skills required for the
task.
B. Ray checks if his subordinate is emotionally able to perform at the expected level.
C. Jane looks into whether her subordinate has been given information about his
performance.
D. Will analyzes if performance consequences are given in a timely manner.
E. Sebastian checks if the job flow and procedures are logical.
65. In what legal suit would the plaintiff allege that the performance measurement system varies
according to individuals?
A. Harassment suit
B. Statutory tort
C. Unjust dismissal suit
D. Discrimination suit
E. Custody actions
CHAPTER 9 REVIEWER –HR
1. Which of the following is true of training and development?
A. Training primarily prepares employees for future positions and jobs that do not
exist as yet.
B. As training becomes more strategic, the distinction between training and

development will become clearer.
C. Development focuses primarily on helping employees' performance in their current

jobs.
D. Development is critical for talent management, particularly for those with

leadership potential.
E. Employees rely on training to improve the skills required for jobs in other places.
2. Training is different from development, in that:
A. development focuses on the present, while training focuses on the future.
B. training considers an employee's work experience more than development does.
C. development aims to prepare employees for changes, while training prepares them
for current jobs.
D. participation in training is voluntary, while that in development is required.
E. unlike development, training considers requirements of jobs that do not exist as yet.
3. Which of the following statements about training is correct?
A. It prepares employees primarily for changes in job requirements.
B. Participation in training programs is voluntary.
C. It increases an employee's ability to move into jobs that do not yet exist.
D. It makes very little use of the employees' work experiences.
E. It focuses on employees' future jobs.

4. Which of the following is true of a protean career?
A. It focuses primarily on external rewards offered by an organization.
B. Managers play the central role in guiding employees with protean careers.
C. Psychological success plays a small role in protean careers.
D. It is based on employees' self-direction.
E. It has very little implication on employee development.
5. Which of the following statements is true of psychological success?
A. Psychological success limits achievement to work-related goals.
B. Psychological success is determined primarily by the signals a company gives to its

employees.
C. Promotion and salary increase are prime factors that determine psychological
success.
D. Psychological success is the greater focus of those pursuing protean careers.
E. Factors such as family and good health are not a part of psychological success.
6. Which of the following is true of different career patterns?
A. An expert career pattern involves a lifelong commitment to a field or specialization.
B. A traditional career pattern involves movement across many disciplines.
C. Career patterns involving movement across disciplines are on the decline.
D. A traditional career pattern does not follow any hierarchy.
E. A spiral career pattern involves limited movement across fields or occupations.
7. Which of the following best describes traditional careers?

A. They are boundaryless.
B. They follow a nonlinear path.
C. They consist of movements that follow a spiral pattern.
D. They consist of career moves across different fields.
E. They consist of a series of steps in a linear hierarchy.
8. _____ career patterns involve a lifelong commitment to a field or specialization.
A. Nonlinear
B. Boundaryless
C. Spiral
D. Flexible
E. Expert
9. Career patterns involving movement across specializations or disciplines are called _____ career
patterns.
A. linear
B. spiral
C. expert
D. traditional
E. specialized
10. Which of the following is true of a boundaryless career pattern?
A. This pattern is on the decline and is likely to disappear soon.
B. It largely consists of expert career patterns that involve years of specialization.

C. It does not encourage movement across fields or different occupations.
D. It is influenced by personal or family demands.
E. It involves identifying more with the employer than with the job.
11. The _____ is used to retain and motivate employees by identifying and meeting their
development needs.
A. talent management system
B. development planning system
C. knowledge management system
D. information management system
E. client management system
12. Which of the following psychological tests helps employees identify their occupational and job
preferences?
A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. Big-Five Locater
C. Dissociative Experiences Scale
D. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
E. Rorschach test
13. The _____ identifies employees' preferences for working in different types of environments.
A. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
B. Big Five Locater
C. Attribute Hierarchy Model
D. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

E. Self-Directed Search
14. Which of the following is the first step in the development planning system?
A. Reality check
B. Self-assessment
C. Goal setting
D. Action planning
E. Employee appraisal
15. When an employee is in the self-assessment step, the company's responsibility is to:
A. communicate where the employee fits in the plans of the company.
B. ensure that the goal is specific and measurable.
C. provide appraisal information to identify strengths and weaknesses.
D. identify resources to help employees reach their goals.
E. conduct performance evaluation.
16. During the self-assessment step in the career management process, an employee:
A. forms a timetable to reach his or her goals.
B. identifies the opportunities and needs to improve.
C. identifies what needs are realistic to develop.
D. identifies goal and method to determine goal progress.
E. ensures that his or her goal is specific, measureable, and attainable.
17. A company communicates performance evaluation to its employees during the _____ step in
the career management process.
A. succession planning
B. self-assessment
C. reality check
D. goal setting
E. action planning
18. Which of the following occurs during reality check in the career management process?
A. Employees identify the steps and a timetable required to reach their goals.
B. Companies ensure that employees' goals are attainable and relevant.
C. Companies communicate where employees fit in long-range plans of the

company.
D. Companies provide employees information on their strengths and weaknesses.
E. Employees identify opportunities and needs to improve.
19. Which of the following happens during goal-setting in the career management process?
A. Employees identify the steps and timetable to reach their goals.
B. Companies identify the resources that employees need to reach their goals.
C. Companies provide assessment information to identify interests and values of the

employees.
D. Companies ensure that employees' goals are specific and measurable.
E. Employees identify opportunities and needs to improve.
20. In a career management process, when employees identify the steps and a timetable to reach
their goals, the company must:
A. provide assessment information to identify interests and values.

B. communicate performance evaluation.
C. identify resources needed by employees to reach their goals.
D. commit to help employees reach their goals.
E. ensure that the goals are specific, relevant, and timely.
21. _____ refers to the information employees receive about how the company evaluates their skills
and knowledge and where they fit into the company's plans.
A. Job specification
B. Reality check
C. Job description
D. Action plan
E. Self-report
22. _____ refers to the process of employees developing short- and long-term development
objectives.
A. Succession planning
B. Self-assessment
C. Reality check
D. Goal setting
E. Action planning
23. _____ involve lectures by business experts, adventure learning, and meetings with customers.
A. Personality tests
B. Action plans
C. Focus interviews
D. Formal education programs
E. Reality checks
24. _____ involves collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their
behavior, communication style, or skills.
A. Assessment
B. Job specification
C. Job description
D. Negotiation
E. Reimbursement
25. Which of the following assessments is based on Carl Jung's personality type theory?
A. The Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
B. The Myers-Briggs Type Inventory
C. The Big Five personality test
D. The Rorschach inkblot test
E. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire
26. The _____ is based on a theory that emphasizes that we have a fundamental personality type
that shapes and influences how we understand the world, process information, and socialize.
A. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
B. Myers-Briggs Type Inventory
C. Big Five Personality Test
D. Rorschach inkblot test
E. Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

27. Which of the following tests can be used to determine the personality type that best suits an
employee out of the personality types available?
B. The Myers-Briggs Type Inventory
C. The Big Five Personality Test
D. The Rorschach inkblot test
28. IsaK Corp. is an event management company. In order to allot tasks that are more compatible
with the personality of individual employees, it conducts a test that rates them on the scales of
introversion or extroversion; sensing or intuition; judging or perceiving; thinking or feeling.
Which of the following tests is IsaK using to assess employees?
B. The Rorschach inkblot test
C. The Big Five Personality Test
D. The Myers-Briggs Type Inventory
29. Selena uses the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory to assess her personality type. If she scores highest
in introversion, intuition, thinking, and perceiving, her personality type would be _____.
A. IIPT
B. INTP
C. NIFP
D. NTJP
E. FNJP
30. The items in the Myer-Briggs Type Inventory that focus on individuals' preferences for
information gathering will score the individuals based on _____.
A. judging versus perception
B. thinking versus feeling
C. introversion versus extroversion
D. sensing versus intuition
E. internal versus external locus of control
31. The items in the Myer-Briggs Type Inventory that focus on individuals' preferences for energy
will score the individuals based on _____.
32. The items in the Myer-Briggs Type Inventory that focus on individuals' preferences for lifestyle
will score the individuals based on _____.
33. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory, individuals who are _____ tend to be serious,
quiet, practical, orderly, and logical.
A. introverted, intuitive, feeling, and perceiving (INFPs)
B. introverted, sensing, thinking, and judging (ISTJs)
C. extroverted, intuitive, feeling, and perceiving (ENFPs)
D. extroverted, sensing, thinking, and perceiving (ESTPs)
E. extroverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving (ESFPs)
34. Which of the following is true of a typical assessment center?
A. It has one rater who is responsible for assessing all employees' performances.
B. It is usually an on-site location where people can be assessed while at work.
C. It is primarily used to check if an employee has the basic technical skills required for
a job.
D. Usually a single comprehensive test is conducted that tests employees on different

skills.
E. Multiple assessors evaluate performance on a number of exercises.
35. In a(n) _____, a team of five to seven employees is assigned a problem and must work together
to solve it within a certain time period.
A. interview
B. in-basket simulation
C. role-play
D. focused interview
E. leaderless group discussion
36. Which of the following is an exercise used in assessment centers where employees answer
questions about their work, personal experiences, and skill strengths and weaknesses?
A. A leaderless group discussion

B. An in-basket simulation
C. A role-play
D. An interview
E. A focus-group discussion
37. A(n) _____ is a simulation of the administrative tasks of the manager's job.
A. leaderless group discussion
B. in-basket
C. role-play
D. interview
E. focus-group discussion
38. Dev, a team leader, manages a team of project leads. He conducts an exercise for his
subordinates; they are asked to pick documents that resemble those found on his desk and
decide how they would respond to them. This exercise is an example of a(n) _____.
A. focus group discussion
B. role-play
C. interview
D. in-basket
E. leaderless group discussion
39. _____ refers to participants taking the part of a manager or other employee.
A. Focus group discussion
B. Role-play
C. Interview
D. Job enlargement
E. Leaderless group discussion
40. Which of the following would be most appropriate to help employees understand the situations
that managers face and the decisions that they have to make?
A. Interviews
B. Leaderless group discussions
C. Focus group discussions
D. Personality tests
E. Role-plays
41. Which of the following tests is used to determine if employees can get along with others and
their tolerance for ambiguity?
A. Cognitive ability test
B. Technical skills test
C. Personality test
D. Interest test
E. Aptitude test
42. The process through which an organization gets information on how well an employee is doing
his or her job is known as _____.
A. job analysis
B. performance appraisal
C. job evaluation
D. job performance
E. talent management
43. _____ is a performance appraisal process for managers that is based on subordinates'
evaluations.
A. Mentor feedback
B. Peer feedback
C. -degree feedback
D. Upward feedback
E. Intrinsic feedback
44. In _____, employees' behaviors or skills are evaluated not only by subordinates but by their
peers, customers, bosses, and by themselves.
A. paired comparisons systems
B. intrinsic feedback systems
C. -degree feedback systems
D. upward feedback systems
E. mentor feedback systems
45. _____ refer to the relationships, problems, demands, tasks, and other features that employees
face in their jobs.
A. Job specifications
B. Job evaluations
C. Job designs
D. Job redesigns
E. Job experiences
46. Which of the following is true about how job experiences affect development?
A. Job experiences that are seen as negative stressors challenge employees to

stimulate learning.
B. Job challenges viewed as positive stressors create high levels of harmful stress for
employees.
C. All job demands, including obstacles, are related to learning.
D. Obstacles and job demands related to creating change are more likely to lead to
negative stress.
E. The closer the previous job experience is to a new job, the greater the learning.
47. _____ gives employees a series of job assignments in various functional areas of the company or
movement among jobs in a single functional area or department.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job design
C. Job evaluation
D. Job rotation
E. Job specification
48. Which of the following practices best helps employees gain an overall appreciation of the
company's goals?
A. Job rotation
B. Job analysis
C. Job designing
D. Job evaluation
E. Job specification
49. Which of the following is true of job rotations?

A. A long-term perspective may be created of problems and solutions.
B. Productivity losses may be experienced by the department that is gaining an

employee.
C. Frequent rotation may result in employee satisfaction and motivation.
D. Employees develop functional specialties when they are rotated frequently.
E. Employees who are rotated frequently receive more challenging assignments.
50. The movement of an employee to a different job assignment in a different area of the company
is known as a(n) _____.
A. internship
B. promotion
C. transfer
D. externship
E. sabbatical
51. Which of the following is true of employees' movements across an organization?
A. A transfer always includes a raise in pay and position.
B. A promotion usually does not include a raise in pay or responsibility.
C. A transfer usually includes an increase in responsibility and authority.
D. A promotion usually occurs across different departments of the organization.
E. A downward move may involve a move to another position at the same level.
52. A lateral demotion involves a:
A. raise in responsibility without a change in position.

B. raise in responsibility without a change in authority.
C. movement to higher position in a different area.
D. movement to a lower position for cross-functional experience.
E. movement to another position at the same level.
53. _____ are advancements into positions with greater challenges, more responsibility, and more
authority than in the previous job.
A. Sabbaticals
B. Internships
C. Externships
D. Promotions
E. Transfers
54. A leave of absence from the company for personal reflection, renewal, and skill development is
called a(n) _____.
A. externship
B. apprenticeship
C. internship
D. retirement
E. sabbatical
55. _____ is an interpersonal relationship that is used to develop employees.
A. Internships
B. Apprenticeships
C. Externships
D. Training
E. Mentoring
56. A(n) _____ is an experienced, productive senior employee who helps develop a less experienced
employee.
A. apprentice
B. intern
C. trainee
D. mentor
E. protégé
57. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the formal mentoring program?
A. It does not ensure access to mentors for all employees.
B. Gender and race can act as an obstacle in making mentors accessible to employees.
C. Participants in the mentoring relationship do not know what is expected of them.
D. Mentors may not be able to provide counseling and coaching in an artificially

created relationship.
E. It does not encourage mentors and protégés spend time discussing personalities
and backgrounds.
58. Which of the following is true of mentoring?
A. Participants in a mentoring relationship are unaware of what is expected of them.
B. Employees who have low needs for power are most likely to seek a mentor.
C. Socializing new hires is not a function included in mentoring programs.
D. Mentoring relationships can also develop as part of a planned company effort.
E. Employees who have high needs for achievement are less likely to seek a mentor.
59. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful formal mentoring program?
A. Formal mentoring and protégé participation is mandatory.
B. The purpose of the program is not specified; activities and programs to complete
are developed as the relationship grows.
C. Mentor and protégés are encouraged to pursue the relationship beyond the formal
period.
D. The mentor-protégé matching process limits the ability of informal relationships

to develop.
E. The length of the program is not specified and is usually indefinite.
60. Black Inc. introduced a formal mentoring program for its employees. Which of the following is
necessary to make the program a success?
A. Protégés are encouraged to contact one another to discuss problems and share
achievements.
B. The purpose of the program is not specified; activities and programs to complete
are developed as the relationship grows.
C. Formal mentoring and protégé participation is made mandatory.
D. The mentor-protégé matching process limits the ability of informal relationships to

develop.
E. The length of the program is not be specified.
61. A mentor provides psychosocial support when he or she:
A. creates an outlet for the protégé to talk about anxieties.
B. protects and sponsors the protégé.
C. provides higher rates of promotion to the protégé.
D. provides coaching and exposure to the protégé.

E. creates challenges to help the protégé learn new things.
62. In Space-In Inc., Tina is the mentor for a new hire, Tom. Tina provides career support when she:
A. provides positive regard and acceptance to Tom.
B. acts as a role model to Tom.
C. plays the role of a friend to Tom.
D. provides exposure and visibility to Tom.
E. creates an outlet for Tom to talk about his anxieties.
63. A peer or manager who works with an employee to motivate him, help him develop skills, and
provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a(n) _____.
A. apprentice
B. coach
C. protégé
D. ward
E. trainer
64. _____ refers to the process of identifying and tracking high-potential employees.
A. Career management
B. Talent management
C. Action planning
D. Resource planning
E. Succession planning
Chapter 10
Employee Separation and Retention
28. The employment-at-will doctrine:
A. has become more influential in recent years.
B. has more legal consequences in voluntary turnover than in involuntary turnover.
C. implies that a person may leave an organization at will despite an existing contract.
D. allows employers to discharge people at will without sufficient reasons for the discharge.
E. states that in the absence of a specific contract, either party could sever the employment.
Employment-at-will doctrine states that in the absence of a specific contract, either an employer or
employee could sever the employment relationship at any time. The severing of this relationship
could be for "good cause," "no cause," or even "bad cause."
29. With respect to employee termination, a _____ suit typically attempts to establish that the
termination either violated an implied covenant or violated public policy.
A. discrimination
B. forgery
C. encroachment
D. unethical practice
E. wrongful discharge
A wrongful discharge suit typically attempts to establish that the discharge either (1) violated an
implied contract or covenant (that is, the employer acted unfairly) or (2) violated public policy (that
is, the employee was terminated because he or she refused to do something illegal, unethical, or
unsafe).
30. Which of the following acts would be considered grounds for a wrongful discharge suit involving a
violation of public policy?
A. Allen is terminated because he does something illegal.
B. Pete is terminated because he does something unethical.
C. Alice is refused employment because she has a criminal record.
D. Rhea is terminated because she refuses to do something unsafe.
E. Geller is refused employment on account of lack of credentials.
A wrongful discharge suit typically attempts to establish that the discharge either (1) violated an
implied contract or covenant (that is, the employer acted unfairly) or (2) violated public policy (that
is, the employee was terminated because he or she refused to do something illegal, unethical, or
unsafe). Wrongful discharge suits can also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person
discharged is a member of a protected group.
31. A wrongful discharge suit can be filed as a _____ when the person discharged is a member of a
protected group.
A. violation of an implied contract
B. covenant
C. violation of a public policy
D. civil rights infringement
E. violation of employment-at-will
Wrongful discharge suits can also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person discharged is a
member of a protected group. The number of such "protected groups" is large, however, and
includes, racial minorities, women, older workers (over 40 years of age), homosexuals, disabled
workers (including the obese), whistle-blowers, people who have filed workers compensation
claims, and if one counts reverse discrimination claims—Caucasians.
32. Julie's boss, Ben, believes that women are not capable of making top-level decisions. Julie's
decisions are often sidelined by those of Ben's. When Julie confronts Ben, he terminates her
employment. Which of the following is the most appropriate suit that will help Julie?
A. A retaliation lawsuit
B. A forgery lawsuit
C. A reverse discrimination suit
D. A public policy violation lawsuit
E. A civil infringement lawsuit
member of a protected group. In this case Julie is a woman, which makes her a part of a protected
group.
33. Which of the following groups is most likely to file a suit based on reverse discrimination claims?
A. Racial minorities
B. Homosexuals
C. Older workers
D. Women
E. Caucasians
member of a protected group. The number of such "protected groups" is large, however, and
includes, racial minorities, women, older workers (over 40 years of age), homosexuals, disabled
workers (including the obese), whistle-blowers, people who have filed workers compensation
claims, and if one counts reverse discrimination claims—Caucasians.
34. Brian, a Hispanic employee, is a constant low performer. Mark, his boss, is frustrated and is unable
to discharge him due to HR policies. As a consequence, Mark gives Brian low-level work
assignments as well as subjects him to other forms of undesirable treatment. If Brian leaves the
organization, the mentioned actions can expose Mark to a possible ____.
A. retaliation lawsuit
B. forgery lawsuit
C. reverse discrimination suit
D. public policy violation lawsuit
E. civil infringement lawsuit
A frustrated supervisor, who, unable to discharge an employee because of HR, may resort to
punishing him in other ways, such as giving the person a low-level work assignment, a downsized
office, or some other form of undesirable treatment. This could lead to a subsequent "retaliation"
lawsuit.
35. Organizations that introduce _____ systems where low performers are systematically identified and,
where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick improvement gains.
A. forced distributions rating
B. voluntary distribution rating
C. self-rating
D. peer-rating
E. micromanagement
The costs associated with letting poor performers stay on within the organization cannot be
discounted. Organizations that introduce forced distributions rating systems where low performers
are systematically identified and, where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick
improvement gains in the range of 40%.
36. _____ refers to the judgment that people make with respect to the results received relative to the
results received by other people with whom they identify (referent others).
A. Structural fairness
B. Outcome fairness
C. Procedural fairness
D. Process fairness
E. Task fairness
Outcome fairness is the judgment that people make with respect to the outcomes received relative
to the outcomes received by other people with whom they identify. Clearly, a situation where one
person is losing his or her job while others are not is conducive to perceptions of outcome
unfairness on the part of the discharged employee.
37. A company decides to let go of some employees due to a financial crisis. Jane loses her job, while
her colleagues with similar performance ratings and productivity retain their jobs. Jane's judgment
of her loss when compared to her colleagues' is a perception of _____.
A. structural unfairness
B. process unfairness
C. procedural unfairness
D. outcome unfairness
E. task unfairness
Outcome fairness is the judgment that people make with respect to the outcomes received relative
to the outcomes received by other people with whom they identify. Clearly, a situation where one
person is losing his or her job while others are not is conducive to perceptions of outcome
unfairness on the part of the discharged employee.
38. _____ focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the outcomes received.
A. Outcome justice
B. Interactional justice
C. Procedural justice
D. Result justice
E. Input justice
Procedural justice deals with how a decision was made. It focuses specifically on the methods used
to determine the outcomes received.
39. _____ justice refers to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented.
A. Outcome
B. Interactional
C. Procedural
D. Result
E. Functional
Whereas procedural justice deals with how a decision was made, interactional justice refers to the
interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented. Explanation, social sensitivity,
consideration, and empathy are the four determinants of interactional justice.
40. _____ deals with how a decision was made.
A. Outcome justice
B. Interactional justice
C. Procedural justice
D. Result justice
E. Input justice
Procedural justice deals with how a decision was made. It focuses specifically on the methods used
to determine the outcomes received.
41. Consistency, bias suppression, information accuracy, correctability, representativeness, and
ethicality are the six determinants of _____.
A. perceptual justice
B. interactional justice
C. procedural justice
D. outcome justice
E. income justice
Procedural justice is a concept of justice focusing on the methods used to determine the outcomes
received. Even given all the negative ramifications of being dismissed from one's job, the person
being dismissed may accept the decision with minimum anger if the procedures used to arrive at
the decision are consistent, unbiased, accurate, correctable, representative, and ethical.
42. Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is applied by
a person who has no vested interest in the outcome?
A. Bias suppression
B. Correctability
C. Representativeness
D. Ethicality
E. Consistency
Bias suppression is a determinant of procedural justice. It states that the procedures are applied by
a person who has no vested interest in the outcome and no prior prejudices regarding the
individual.
Refer To: Table 10.1

43. Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that procedures are applied by
someone who has no prior prejudices regarding the individual involved in the discussion?
A. Representativeness
B. Correctability
C. Bias suppression
D. Accuracy
E. Consistency
Bias suppression is a determinant of procedural justice. It states that the procedures are applied by
a person who has no vested interest in the outcome and no prior prejudices regarding the
individual.
44. Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure has built-in
safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions?
A. Bias suppression
B. Correctability
D. Ethicality
E. Consistency
received. Correctability, one of the determinants of procedural justice, requires that the procedure
has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions.
45. Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is informed
by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers, owners) affected by the
decision?
A. Bias suppression
B. Correctability
D. Ethicality
E. Consistency
received. Representativeness, one of the determinants of procedural justice, requires that the
procedure is informed by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers,
owners) affected by the decision.

46. Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is consistent
with prevailing moral standards in terms of invasion of privacy or deception?
A. Bias suppression
B. Correctability
D. Ethicality
E. Consistency
received. Ethicality, one of the determinants of procedural justice, requires that the procedure is
consistent with prevailing moral standards as they pertain to issues like invasion of privacy or
deception.

47. Explanation, consideration, social sensitivity, and empathy are key determinants of _____.
A. perceptual justice
B. interactional justice
C. procedural justice
D. outcome justice
E. task justice
Interactional justice is a concept of justice referring to the interpersonal nature of how the
outcomes were implemented. When the decision for termination is explained well and
implemented in a fashion that is socially sensitive, considerate, and empathetic, this helps defuse
some of the resentment that might come about from a decision to discharge an employee.

48. Which of the following determinants of interactional justice requires emphasis on the different
aspects of procedural fairness that justify the decision?
A. Social sensitivity
B. Explanation
C. Consideration
D. Empathy
E. Consistency
Interactional justice is a concept of justice referring to the interpersonal nature of how the
outcomes were implemented. Explanation, one of the determinants of interactional justice, requires
emphasis on the different aspects of procedural fairness that justify the decision.
49. Alternative dispute resolution is a method of resolving disputes that:
A. involves extensive legislation.
B. does not rely on the legal system.
C. excludes outside parties.
D. does not involve binding arbitration.
E. involves only the appealing party.
Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is a method of resolving disputes that does not rely on the
legal system. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceeds through the four stages of open door
policy, peer review, mediation, and arbitration.
50. Which of the following is true of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)?
A. ADR relies on the legal system to resolve matters that cannot be handled internally.
B. Resolution through an ADR system is expensive as it involves high costs in terms of legal fee.
C. In ADR systems, there is a possibility of arbitrators, who wish to do more business, leaning in
favor of those paying them.
D. ADR is more effective than employee assistance programs in dealing with issues related to drug
or alcohol abuse.
E. ADR is designed to resolve issues internally and does not engage outsiders to enter the
discussion.
.
51. Which of the following should be the first step to take as a progressive discipline measure?
A. Temporary suspension
B. Unofficial verbal warning
C. Last chance notification
D. Threat of suspension
E. Termination
Punitive measures should be taken in steps of increasing magnitude, and only after having been
clearly documented. This may start with an unofficial warning for the first offense, followed by a
written reprimand for additional offenses.
53. Which of the following steps in progressive discipline involves the right to go to arbitration?
A. Unofficial verbal warning
B. Official written warning
C. Temporary suspension
D. Threat of suspension
E. Termination
Termination (with the right to go to arbitration) is the last step to take in progressive discipline. The
step to take before that is temporary suspension and a last chance notification.
54. Which of the following is the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution?
A. Arbitration
B. Open-door policy
C. Peer review
D. Mediation
E. Legal support
Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is a method of resolving disputes that does not rely on the
legal system. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceeds through the four stages of open door
policy, peer review, mediation, and arbitration.
AACSB: Analytic
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 10-02 List the major elements that contribute to perceptions of justice and how to apply these in organizational
contexts involving discipline and dismissal.
Topic: Managing Involuntary Turnover
55. In an alternative dispute resolution method, the stage during which the two people involved in the
conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement without any third parties involved is known as _____.
A. peer review
B. arbitration
C. open-door policy
D. mediation
E. legal support
In an alternative dispute resolution method, the two people involved in the conflict (employee and
supervisor) attempt to arrive at a settlement together during the open-door policy stage. If none
can be reached, they proceed to the peer review stage.

56. During the _____ stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of representatives from
the organization that are at the same level of those people in the dispute hears the case and
attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement.
A. peer review
B. arbitration
C. open-door policy
D. mediation
E. legal support
During the peer review stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of representatives
from the organization that are at the same level of those people in the dispute hears the case and
attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement.
57. Which of the following happens in the mediation stage of an alternative dispute resolution?
A. The two people in conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement together.
B. A panel composed of representatives from the same level hears the case.
C. A neutral third party hears the case via a nonbinding process.
D. A professional arbitrator hears the case and resolves it unilaterally.
E. The judiciary system steps in to resolve the dispute based on the suit filed.
In the mediation stage of alternative dispute resolution, a neutral third party from outside the
organization hears the case and, via a nonbinding process, tries to help the disputants arrive at a
settlement. If none can be reached, the parties proceed to arbitration.
58. Organizational programs that attempt to ameliorate problems encountered by workers who are
drug dependent, alcoholic, or psychologically troubled are referred to as _____ programs.
A. employee assistance
B. alternative dispute resolution
C. health benefits
D. health insurance
E. aided workers'
Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are employer programs that attempt to ameliorate problems
encountered by workers who are drug dependent, alcoholic, or psychologically troubled. The key
to the effectiveness of an EAP is striking the right balance between collecting information that can
be used to promote employee health on the one hand and the employee's right to privacy on the
other.
59. What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition from one job to
another?
A. Outplacement
B. Transition
C. Relocation
D. Displacement
E. Transfer
Outplacement counseling is aimed at helping people realize that losing a job is not the end of the
world and that other opportunities exist. It tries to help dismissed employees manage the transition
from one job to another.
AACSB: Analytic
60. Which of the following statements is accurate about voluntary turnover?
A. It is initiated by the employer.
B. It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.
C. It typically involves legal aspects that have repercussions for the organization.
D. It gives the employee no choice in deciding his or her stay in the organization.
E. It can lead to the loss of highly valued employees to competitors.
Voluntary turnover is the turnover initiated by employees (often whom the organization would
prefer to keep). It requires the organization to focus on preventing employees who are highly
valued by the organization from leaving (and perhaps even joining the competition).
61. When it comes to complex jobs, the fact that the worst and best performers tend to leave more
frequently than those at the average suggests a _____ relationship between past performance and
future turnover.
A. horizontal
B. nonlinear
C. diagonal
D. circular
E. curvilinear
When it comes to complex jobs, there seems to be a curvilinear relationship between past
performance and future turnover, in the sense that the worst and best performers tend to leave
more frequently than those at the average.
62. Which of the following best describes job withdrawal?
A. It refers to employers discharging employees from jobs that are to be outsourced.
B. It is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation.
C. It refers to retracting a job offer after initial confirmation.
D. It refers to voluntary turnover initiated by employees an organization would like to retain.
E. It involves a set of actions showcased by the company to discourage its employees from
working.
Job withdrawal is the set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation.
The behaviors are grouped into three categories: behavior change, physical job withdrawal, and
psychological job withdrawal.
63. Which of the following suggests that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors in succession
to avoid their work situation?
A. Efficiency wage theory
B. Equity theory
C. Progression of withdrawal theory
D. Two-factor theory
E. Motivation theory
The progression of withdrawal theory states that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors in
succession to avoid their work situation. For example, someone who is dissatisfied with the job or
organization might not be able to just jump to another job right away but will instead either
disengage temporarily (through absenteeism or tardiness) or psychologically (through lower job
involvement and organizational commitment) until the right opportunity comes along.
64. Which of the following is true of whistle-blowers?
A. They are satisfied employees.
B. They are capable of bringing about internal change.
C. They avoid taking their issue to external constituencies.
D. They avoid making the grievance public.
E. They resort to the government to address the grievance.
Whistle blowing involves making grievances public by going to the media or government. Whistle-
blowers are often dissatisfied individuals who cannot bring about internal change and, out of a
sense of commitment or frustration, take their concerns to external constituencies.
65. An employee who engages in absenteeism is displaying job dissatisfaction through _____.
A. behavioral change
B. psychological withdrawal
C. physical withdrawal
D. whistle-blowing
E. arbitration
If the job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may be able to solve the problem by
leaving the job. Another way of physically removing oneself from the dissatisfying work short of
quitting altogether is to be absent.
66. Lately, Laura has been performing low in her job. Although she is physically present at her
workplace, her mind is constantly engaged with thoughts of a better job. Which of the following
behaviors does Laura express?
A. Physical withdrawal
B. Psychological withdrawal
C. Internal change
D. Whistle-blowing
E. Behavioral change
When dissatisfied employees are unable to change their situation or remove themselves physically
from their jobs, they may psychologically disengage themselves from their jobs. Although they are
physically on the job, their minds may be somewhere else.
67. _____ is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.
A. Job enlargement
B. Job enrichment
C. Job involvement
D. Job recognition
E. Job satisfaction
Job involvement is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs. People who are
uninvolved with their jobs consider their work an unimportant aspect of their lives.
68. The degree to which an employee identifies with an organization and is willing to put forth effort
on its behalf is called _____.
A. job satisfaction
B. organizational enlargement
C. organizational commitment
D. job engagement
E. job involvement
Organizational commitment is the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization
and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf. Individuals who feel they have been unjustly treated
by their employer often respond by reducing their level of commitment and are often looking for
the first good chance to quit their jobs.
69. Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are:
A. what drive employees who create organizational changes.
B. forms of psychological disengagement.
C. examples of physical job withdrawal.
D. examples of physiological job withdrawal.
E. forms of behavioral changes aimed to change policies.
The psychological disengagement can take several forms. First, if the primary dissatisfaction has to
do with the job itself, the employee may display a very low level of job involvement. A second form
of psychological disengagement, which can occur when the dissatisfaction is with the employer as a
whole, is a low level of organizational commitment.
70. _____ can be identified as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that one's job fulfills
or allows the fulfillment of one's important job values.
A. Job enrichment
B. Job enlargement
C. Job commitment
D. Job involvement
E. Job satisfaction
Job satisfaction is defined as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that one's job
fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values. The three important aspects of job
satisfaction are values, importance of individual views, and perception.
71. Job satisfaction is a function of _____, which can be defined as what a person consciously or
unconsciously desires to obtain.
A. perception
B. appreciation
C. contentment
D. appraisal
E. values
Job satisfaction is a function of values, defined as "what a person consciously or unconsciously

desires to obtain." Different employees have different views of which values are important, and this
is critical in determining the nature and degree of their job satisfaction.
72. Negative affectivity is primarily influenced by:
A. availability of social support.
B. disposition of individuals.
C. organizational roles.
D. work environment.
E. pay and benefits.
Negative affectivity is a dispositional dimension that reflects pervasive individual differences in

satisfaction with any and all aspects of life. Individuals who are high in negative affectivity report
higher levels of aversive mood states, including anger, contempt, disgust, guilt, fear, and
nervousness across all contexts (work and nonwork).
73. Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is _____.
A. job transfer
B. job rotation
C. job evaluation
D. job enlargement
E. job enrichment
Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is job enrichment. Many job enrichment
programs provide increased opportunities for workers to have input into important organizational
decisions that involve their work, and this has been routinely found to reduce role conflict and
ambiguity.
74. Mathew, a production manager, conducts an employee satisfaction survey. The survey reveals high
levels of dissatisfaction among the employees in the packing unit who complain about repetitive
tasks. In response to this, he adopts an intervention that explicitly focuses on reducing job
dissatisfaction due to impoverished or boring tasks. This intervention is an example of _____.
A. job enrichment
B. team building
C. prosocial motivation
D. job rotation
E. work complication
One of the major interventions aimed at reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is
job enrichment. Job enrichment is directed at jobs that are "impoverished" or boring because of
their repetitive nature or low scope.
75. _____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another over the
course of time.
A. Job involvement
B. Job enrichment
C. Job engagement
D. Job enlargement
E. Job rotation
Job rotation is the process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another
over the course of time. The job assignments may be in various functional areas of the company or
movement may be between jobs in a single functional area or department.
76. The degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other people is called
_____.
A. job enrichment
B. team building
C. prosocial motivation
D. job rotation
E. work involvement
The most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction is the degree to which it is
meaningfully related to core values of the worker. The term prosocial motivation is often used
explicitly to capture the degree to which people are motivated to help other people. When people
believe that their work has an important impact on other people, they are much more willing to
work longer hours.
AACSB: Analytic
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 10-03 Specify the relationship between job satisfaction and various forms of job withdrawal; and identify the major
sources of job satisfaction in work contexts.
Topic: Managing Voluntary Turnover
77. Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to reduce dissatisfaction
through _____.
A. behavior modification
B. a supportive environment
C. progressive discipline measures
D. third party negotiations
E. alternative dispute resolution
Because a supportive environment reduces dissatisfaction, many organizations foster team building
both on and off the job (such as via softball or bowling leagues). The idea is that group
cohesiveness and support for individual group members will be increased through exposure and
joint efforts.
78. Which of the following is the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction?
A. An employee's salary and the benefits that come along with the work he or she does
B. The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the worker
C. The extrinsic rewards associated with the work and the organization
D. A positive work environment and social support
E. The non-monetary benefits received by the employee in terms of self esteem and goal
satisfaction
By far, the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction is the degree to which
it is meaningfully related to core values of the worker. Prosocial motivation is the degree to which
people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other people.
79. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a flexible work policy in an organization?
A. It fails to attract potential job applicants.
B. It causes reduction in organizational citizenship behaviors.
C. It increases absenteeism.
D. It results in lower levels of employee commitment to the organization.
E. It creates difficulties for managers in terms of scheduling work and reporting requirements.
The flexible work policy programs create some headaches for managers in terms of scheduling
work and reporting requirements. In terms of downside, in addition to scheduling headaches, some
are concerned that face-to-face interaction is critical for innovation.
80. The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's job satisfaction are:
A. subordinates and supervisors.
B. supervisors and customers.
C. co-workers and subordinates.
D. supervisors and co-workers.
E. subordinates and customers.
The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction are co-workers and
supervisors. A person may be satisfied with her supervisor and co-workers for one of two reasons.
First, she may have many of the same values, attitudes, and philosophies that the co-workers and
supervisors have. Second, people may be satisfied with their supervisor and co-workers because
they provide support that helps them achieve their own goals.
81. With regard to supervision, employee satisfaction is likely to be highest when:
A. they share different values and personalities.
B. employees are micromanaged.
C. managers focus more on supervising than their own work.
D. employees take up supervision as an informal responsibility.
E. employees get the support needed to achieve their goal.
People may be satisfied with their supervisor and co-workers because they provide support that
helps them achieve their own goals. Social support means the degree to which the person is
surrounded by other people who are sympathetic and caring. Considerable research indicates that
social support is a strong predictor of job satisfaction and lower employee turnover.
82. _____ is the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people who are sympathetic and
caring.
A. Organization culture
B. Homogeneous environment
C. Organizational support
D. Social support
E. Organizational network
Social support means the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people who are
sympathetic and caring. Social support is a strong predictor of job satisfaction and lower employee
turnover.
83. Which of the following is likely to happen when a high performing employee who enjoys autonomy
is micromanaged by a manager?
A. Positive employee reaction toward the supervisor micromanaging him or her
B. Decreased frustration of the employee who is being watched over
C. Increased opportunity for the employee to make independent decisions
D. Decreased satisfaction in the employee toward her job and performance
E. Increased performance of the manager who is spending time micromanaging
If employees values their autonomy and like to make their own decisions at work, then those
employees are likely to react negatively to a supervisor who is constantly micromanaging them and
looking over their shoulders. Overly close supervision is a common source of dissatisfaction for
many employees, and worse yet, it also reduces the performance of managers whose time might
be better spent paying attention to their own work.
84. Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on _____.
A. observations of employees
B. reports by co-workers
C. workers' self-reports
D. behavioral measures
E. workers' performance reports
Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on workers' self-reports. There is a vast amount of
data on the reliability and validity of many existing scales as well as a wealth of data from
companies that have used these scales, allowing for comparisons across firms.
85. The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on _____.
A. the work itself
B. co-workers
C. promotions
D. supervision
E. benefits
The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on these more specific dimensions (pay levels,
benefits, pay structure, and pay raises); thus this measure gives a more detailed view of exactly
what aspects of pay are most or least satisfying.
86. Which of the following facets is measured by both the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) and the Pay
Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ)?
A. Job satisfaction
B. Supervision
C. Tasks involved in a job
D. Job description
E. Pay
The Job Descriptive Index (JDI) emphasizes various facets of satisfaction: pay, the work itself,
supervision, co-workers, and promotions. Although the JDI assesses satisfaction with pay, it does
not break pay up into different dimensions. The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on
these more specific dimensions (pay levels, benefits, pay structure, and pay raises); thus this
measure gives a more detailed view of exactly what aspects of pay are most or least satisfying.
87. Where the main concern is _____, the key in measuring satisfaction is making sure that the scores on
whatever measures taken truly relate to turnover among valued people.
A. training
B. retention
C. selection
D. productivity
E. quality
There is no end to the number of satisfaction facets that we might want to measure, but the key in
operational contexts, where the main concern is retention, is making sure that scores on whatever
measures taken truly relate to voluntary turnover among valued people. Satisfaction with co-
workers might be low, but if this aspect of satisfaction is not too central to employees, it may not
translate into voluntary turnover.
88. Beta Inc., a publishing firm, implements pay-for-performance raises. This is likely to lead to:
A. satisfaction among low performers.
B. high involuntary turnover.
C. dissatisfaction among high performers.
D. operational problems due to high performers leaving.
E. low performers being motivated to perform better.

In an organization that bases raises on performance, low performers might report being dissatisfied
with raises, but this may not reflect any operational problem. Indeed, the whole strategic purpose
of many pay-for-performance plans is to create this type of dissatisfaction among low performers
to motivate them to higher levels of performance.
89. Employee survey research allows the company to monitor trends over time and thus prevent
problems, before they happen, in the area of _____.
A. dissatisfaction among low performers
B. voluntary turnover
C. involuntary turnover
D. low productivity
E. low quality
Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of satisfaction are assessed, a
systematic, ongoing program of employee survey research should be a prominent part of any
human resource strategy for a number of reasons. It allows the company to monitor trends over
time and thus prevent problems in the area of voluntary turnover before they happen and provides
a means of empirically assessing the impact of changes in policy or personnel on worker attitudes.
90. _____ interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering systematic concerns
that are driving retention problems.
A. Technical
B. Retaining
C. Exit
D. Mock
E. Screening
Exit interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering systematic concerns
that are driving retention problems. If properly conducted, an exit interview can reveal the reasons
why people are leaving, and perhaps even set the stage for their later return.
91. Which of the following is true of employees terminating employment based on voluntary turnover?
A. They include those who work too many hours as well as those who do not get enough work
hours.
B. They include only those working on an hourly-wage basis and not the salaried ones.
C. Those who work on an hourly basis usually tend to leave due to working too many hours.
D. Those employees who are salaried usually tend to leave due to lack of enough work hours.
E. They exclude those that do not get enough work.
There are two distinct groups of people who are leaving their jobs—one set of workers who cannot
get enough hours and a second set of workers who are working too many hours. This may seem
ironic and counter-intuitive, but in some ways it actually makes sense given the way work is
increasing structured around two distinct classes of workers—hourly and salaried.

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1.

4. The process of performance management begins with:

B. defining performance outcomes for company division and department.

C. providing consequences for performance results.

D. identifying the improvements needed.

E. providing support and ongoing performance discussions.

A. He will define performance outcomes for divisions and departments.

B. He will evaluate performance.

C. He will identify improvements needed.

D. He will provide support and ongoing performance discussions.

E. He will provide consequences for performance results.

6. Which of the following is an example of using performance management to fulfill an

B. Develop employees who are effective at their jobs.

C. Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay raises, promotions,

D. Identify employees' strengths and weaknesses, link employees to appropriate

E. Confront employees with their performance weaknesses.

A. Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B. Critical success factors (CSFs)

C. Non-performing assets (NPAs)

D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

E. Behavioral Observation Scales (BOSs)

B. low on strategic congruence

13. A performance measure is said to be contaminated when:

A. it does not measure all aspects of performance.

B. it evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance.

C. it is a subjective supervisory measure of job performance.

D. it is not reliable over time.

A. It is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job

B. It is the extent to which a performance measure gives detailed guidance to

D. It is the extent to which a performance measure is free from random error.

E. It is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed to be satisfactory or

A. The results approach

B. The attribute approach

C. The comparative approach

D. The consequential approach

E. The behavioral approach

B. high/low ranking system

A. The results approach

B. The attribute approach

C. The comparative approach

D. The behavioral approach

E. The quality approach

A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales

C. Behavior observation scales

D. Graphic rating scales

E. Simple ranking scales

E. Graphics rating scale

29. In the graphic rating scale, the rater:

A. defines performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors associated with

B. defines the relevant performance dimensions and then develops statements

A. Behaviorally anchored rating scale

B. Forced distribution scale

C. Behavior observation scale

D. Graphic rating scale

C. It is easy to develop and is generalizable across organizations and strategies.

D. It provides specific guidance and feedback to employees.

A. The quality approach

B. The comparative approach

C. The behavioral approach

D. The attribute approach

E. The results approach

A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales

B. Graphic rating scales