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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 247
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 2:A. Offer B. attempt C. advise D. achieve
Question 2:A. Admire B. happen C. complain D. complete
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3:A. Scar B. pace C. shade D. Brave
Question 4:A. Shame B. drank C. blaze D. cable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 5: Thanks for all your help. "________________"
A. Don't mention it. B. I don't think so C. I’m sorry to hear that D. It's nice of you
Question 6: I'm sorry. I've broken a glass. "_____________"
A. Why don't you try again? B. That’s quite all right C. I can't do that D. I don't have it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: That is a rich family.
A. hard-up B. wealthy C. well-to-do D. land-owning
Question 8: These boys are mischievous.
A. well-behaved B. naughty C. fractious D. disobedient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 9: They have a good relationship.
A. harmonious B. failed C. broken D. fragile
Question 10: They have a poor relationship.
A. friendly B. difficult C. healthy D. strong
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
Question 11: Now I _____________ Havard University.
A. am attending B. attend C. was attending D. attended
Question 12: He has been selling motorcycles_________.
A. in ten years B. for ten years C. ten years ago D. since ten years
Question 13: He fell down when he _________towards the church.
A. run B. runs C. was running D. had run
Question 14: Columbus_________America more then 400 years ago.
A. he has gone B. has discovered C. had discovered D. discovered
Question 15: We _________there when our father died.
A. still lived B. lived still C. was still living D. were still living
Question 16: By Christmas, I_________for you for 6 months.
A. shall work B. Shall have been working C. have been working D. shall be working
Question 17: ___________is a family unit that consists of a father, a mother, and their children.
A. nuclear family B. single-parent family C. extended family D. big family
Question 18: We are a very _______family and support each other through any crisis.
A. old-established B. close-knit C. hard-up D. well-to-do
Question 19: Her family and friends have given her lots of _________
A. supports B. support C. supporters D. supportive
Question 20: She was brought up in a ________ family. She can’t understand the financial problem we are facing.
A. kind B. wealthy C. broke D. poor
Question 21: Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's a very _________boy.
A. stubborn B. mischievous C. spoiled D. bright
Question 22: My family consist __________five people. my parents, my two younger brothers and I.
A. of B. over C. up D. bright
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Many people today would like the traditional two-parent family back, that is to say, they want a man and a woman to
(23)____________ for life; they also think the man should support the family, and the woman should stay home with
the children. However, few families now (24)____________ in the this category. In fact, if more women decide to have
children on their own, the single-parent household may become more typical than the traditional family in many
countries. Also, couples may decide to have more children, or they might take in foster children or (25)____________ .
And because people are staying single and living longer, there may be more one-person households.
(26)____________ the other hand, some people believe that similar events happen again and again in history. if this is
true, people may go back to the traditional (27)____________ or nuclear family of the past. Others think that the only
certainty in history is change. in other words, the structure of the future family could begin to change faster and faster
and in more and more ways.
Question 23:A. Marry B. wed C. engage D. gather
Question 24:A. Belong B. crowd C. group D. fall
Question 25:A. bring up B. feel C. adapt D. adopt
Question 26:A. In B. at C. on D. for
Question 27:A. Extended B. extensive C. enlarged D. big
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”. She cleaned,
cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was usually out working all day.
He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see the children very much,
except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children all day. They,
too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do
not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the housework now? Who is going to take
care of the children?
Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife agree to do
different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always cooks dinner and
the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the husband cooks dinner on other
nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from grandparents. Now
families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to help in a regular way. More
often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with t his
kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs that pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let people with children
work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some husbands may even stop working for
a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word. they are called “househusbands”. In the USA
more and more men are becoming househusbands every year.
These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children better, and the
children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in their marriage. They, too,
may have a better understanding of each other.
Question 28: Sixty years ago, most women ____________
A. went out to work B. had no children
C. did not do much housework D. were housewives
Question 29: Nowadays, there are __________.
A. more women going out to work than before
B. more and more women staying with the children all day
C. more work outside the home than before
D. more housewives than before
Question 30: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______
A. tidying up B. cooking and washing up
C. washing and ironing D. Shopping
Question 31: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.
A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center
B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way
C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center
D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to _______________
A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
B. fathers who spend more time with their children
C. parents who work part-time
D. children who spend more time with fathers than
Question 33: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may ______
A. help families B. not happen
C. cause problems for a marriage D. not change the children at all
Question 34: This article is about ________
A. American men as househusbands B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing
Question 35: What does the companies in USA do to help parents?
A. Pay them more. B. pay for hiring babysitter.
C. allow parents to work less than the usual. D. help them to bring up their children.
The nuclear family, consisting of a mother, father, and their children, may be more an American ideal than an American
reality. Of course, the so-called traditional American family was always more varied than we had been led to believe,
reflecting the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious customs among different American groups.
The most recent government statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American families fit the
traditional mold and another third consists of married couples who either have no children or have none still living at
home. Of the final one third, about 20 percent of the total number of American households are single people, usually
women over sixty-five years of age. A small percentage, about 3 percent of the total, consists of unmarried people who
choose to live together; and the rest, about 7 percent are single, usually divorced parents, with at least one child. Today,
these varied family types are typical, and therefore, normal. Apparently, many Americans are achieving supportive
relationships in family forms other than the traditional one.
Question 36: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The traditional American family B. The nuclear family
C. The current American family D. The ideal family
Question 37: The writer implies that _____.
A. there have always been a wide variety of family arrangement in the United States
B. racial, ethnic, and religious groups have preserved the traditional family structure
C. the ideal American family is the best structure
D. fewer married couples are having children
Question 38: The word 'current' in line 7 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. typical B. present C. perfect D. traditional
Question 39: In the passage, married couples whose children have grown or who have no children represent _____.
A. 1/3 percent of households B. 20 percent of households
C. 7 percent of households D. 3 percent of households
Question 40: Who generally constitutes a one-person household?
A. A single man in his twenties B. An elderly man
C. A single woman in her late sixties D. A divorced woman
Question 41: What is nuclear family?
A. a social unit composed of two parents and one or more children.
B. a family consisting of a family nucleus and various relatives, as grandparents.
C. a family in which a parent brings up a child or children alone, without a partner
D. a hard-up family
Question 42: Unmarried people living together represent__________________.
A. 3 percent B. 20 percent C. 7 percent D. 1/3 percent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 43: I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44: We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
Question 45: "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 46: My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A. get B. to prepare C. everyone D. the family
Question 47: I prefer living in a nuclear family than a joint one.
A. living B. nuclear C. than D. one
Question 48: He comes from a large family, all of them now live in Australia.
A. comes B. large C. them D. live
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50: My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
Question 1:A. Important B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
Question 2:A. Comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable
Question 3:A. Worked B. wanted C. stopped D. cooked
Question 4:A. Serves B. hopes C. likes D. writes
Question 5: “Let's chat on line”. – “___________________”
A. Not at all. B. thank you. C. good luck. D. good idea.
Question 6: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” – “______________.”
A. Yes, I’d love to. B. Yes, so do I. C. I’m very happy. D. Yes, it is.
Question 7: She was the child of a broken marriage
A. broken B. disastrous C. happy D. failed
Question 8: She seems to have the right attitude for the job.
A. favorable B. aggressive C. positive D. responsible
Question 9: In some industrial zones, the production processes may result in serious environmental problem.
A. enormous B. little C. minor D. petty
Question 10: The government should do more to protect the environment.
A. pollute B. preserve C. damage D. harm
questions.
Question 11: Having finished her degree, __________________.
A. she started to work for an international company B. It took her 2 years to find a good job
C. the students carried out many experiments D. her job came up to her expectation.
Question 12: The United States consists of fifty states, ______ has its own government.
A. each B. each of which C. each of them D. each of that
Question 13: An endangered species is a species____ population is so small that it is in danger of extinction.
A. what B. which C. whose D. who
Question 14: Do you know the boy ______ at the party last week?
A. we talked about B. about him we talked C. we talk about him D. who we talked about him
Question 15: The exercises which we are doing ______ very difficult.
A. is B. has been C. are D. was
Question 16: The man ______ on the chair behind me kept talking during the film, ______ really annoyed me.
A. having sat/ that B. sitting/ which C. to sit/ what D. to be sitting/ who
Question 17: The _____________ friendly products are designed not to harm the natural environment.
A. environment B. environmental C. environmentally D. environmentalist
Question 18: "Excuse me. Where is the _________office of OXFAM located?"
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
Question 19: It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
Question 20: A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried
Question 21: The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. The more the beaches get crowded
Question 22: The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
If you're an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our
wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has
brought enormous (23)__________, even environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the evil ─
it's the way society chooses to use and (24)__________ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal ─ non-renewable natural
(25)__________.We (26)__________ well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later,
most of it is thrown away. A high (27)__________ of our annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this
(28)__________ about seven percent by weight of our domestic refuse.
Question 23:A. Savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits
Question 24:A. Abuse B. endanger C. store D. dispose
Question 25:A. Processes B. resources C. products D. Fuels
Question 26:A. Import B. consign C. remove D. consume
Question 27:A. Amount B. proportion C. portion D. rate
Question 28:A. Makes B. carries C. takes D. constitutes
answer to each of the questions from 29 to 33
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big news.
People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling
means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive plastic
wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging. usually paper, a box, and a bag. All
that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and
utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many
customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer
buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same
way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the
manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty the
bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them
again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for
money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again.
Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run
a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the
world's precious resources.
Question 29: What is the main topic of the passage?.
A. How to reduce garbage disposal. B. What people often understand about the term 'recycle’.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement D. How to live sensitively to the environment.
Question 30: People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT________
A. buy high-quality product. B. buy simply-wrapped things.
C. reuse cups. D. buy fewer hamburgers.
Question 31: Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away. B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time. D. Because they produce less energy.
Question 32: What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
Question 33: What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities
as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that
permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air
pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful
substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has
increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant
under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in
nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they
became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds
to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting
from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human output may be
dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased
concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater
than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration
need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much
of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide
has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon
monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution. B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 35: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _____.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 36: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air
pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process. B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants. D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 37: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _____.
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 38: The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 39: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if
_____.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 40: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
Question 41: “I will help you with the housework”, Mai said.
A. Mai promised to help me with the housework.
B. Mai asked me to help her with the housework.
C. Mai begged to help me with the housework.
D. Mai insisted on helping me with the housework.
Question 42: There is not a single corner of Hue that my friend hasn't visited.
A. My friend has visited only a single part of Hue.
B. My friend has visited every part of Hue already.
C. My friend hasn't visited most parts of Hue.
D. My friend hasn't visited any parts of Hue.
Question 43: This is the first time I have gone out for a picnic.
A. I have ever gone out for a picnic.
B. I have never gone out for a picnic before.
C. I had never gone out for a picnic before.
D. All are correct.
Question 44: The man for who the police are looking robbed the bank yesterday.
A. who B. are C. robbed D. the
Question 45: The man that you are looking for living next door.
A. The B. that C. are D. living
Question 46: It is complicated because pollution is caused by things when benefit people.
A. complicated B. because C. is caused D. when
Question 47: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
A. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.
B. He was given neither the job nor the position.
C. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
D. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.
Question 48: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
A. A waitress, who served us, was very impolite and impatient.
B. A waitress, which served us, was very impolite and impatient.
C. A waitress whom served us was very impolite and impatient.
D. A waitress, that served us, was very impolite and impatient.
Question 49: He was suspected of stealing credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 50: The girl packed the vase in polyester foam. She didn’t want it to get broken in the post.
A. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so that it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
B. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so it didn’t get broken in the post.
C. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so as it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
D. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam for it didn’t get broken in the post.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. Humorous B. educator C. organism D. contaminate
Question 2:A. Contrary B. graduate C. document D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced
differently from the rest
Question 3:A. Purity B. burning C. cure D. durable
Question 4:A. See B. seen C. sportsman D. sure
Question 5: “Mum! I’ve got 10 point on the test.” “________”
A. Good way! B. You are right C. Good job! D. Oh, hard luck!
Question 6: “Would you like me to get a taxi?” “________”
A. Yes, please, if it’s no bother. B. Well, let’s see.
C. That would be delightful. Thanks. D. Yes, I see.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 7: There is a lesson for all parents in this tragic accident.
A. boring B. mysterious C. comic D. incredible
Question 8: Are you looking for a temporary or a permanent job?
A. fleeting B. fierce C. stable D. loose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in
Question 9: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. superior B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive
Question 10: Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. inevitable B. imminent C. controversial D. absolute
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: I have a mere ________ of German.
A. smattering B. knowledge C. acquaintance D. command
Question 12: Please don't ________ a word of this to anyone else, it's highly confidential.
A. breathe B. speak C. pass D. mutter
Question 13: It’s a small lamp, so it doesn't ________ off much light.
A. cast B. give C. shed D. spend
Question 14: The fumes were so thick that he was ________ for breath.
A. suffocating B. inhaling C. gasping D. wheezing
Question 15: The storm causing flooding and landslides in Miami prompted the government to ________ hundreds
from coastal towns.
A. evacuate B. demolish C. contribute D. evaporate
Question 16: You dropped it down the stairs? You're lucky it is still in one ________!
A. whole B. piece C. entirely D. unit
Question 17: They are conducting a wide ________ of surveys throughout Viet Nam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Question 18: John paid $20 for his meal, ________ he had thought it would cost.
A. not much as B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 19: ________ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
Question 20: John ________ knowledge from many of his life experiences to his work.
A. approved B. accomplished C. appreciated D. applied
Question 21: ________, sheep were then used for wool.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production
B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
Question 22: Lorie is very thin, ________ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. unlike B. dissimilar to C. dislike D. unlikely
Question 23: It is a fact that ________ form of energy.
A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity is the most useful
C. the most useful in electricity D. electricity the most useful
Question 24: Prices of flats ________ from a few thousand to millions of dollars.
A. change B. vary C. differ D. fluctuate
Question 25: The policeman explained to us ________ get to the market.
A. how B. how could C. how we could D. how could we
Question 26: Is this the address ________ you want the package sent?
A. that B. where C. to which D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option for each of the blanks.
Owning a car has several advantages. ___________(27), you can go wherever you want, whenever you want. You
don’t have to depend on public transport, and ___________(28), you will feel more independent. ___________(29),
you are able to give lifts to friends, or carry heavy loads of shopping.
___________(30), there can be certain financial problems, especially if you live in a city. Running a car can be costly,
since you have to spend quite an amount on items___________(31) petrol, servicing the car, and repairs. You might
also have problem with parking, as every where is more and more crowded with cars. ___________(32) most people
feel that the advantages of owning a car outweigh the disadvantages.
Question 27:A. First of all B. As a result C. Generally D. Besides
Question 28:A. However B. personally C. since D. as a result
Question 29:A. In contrast B. In my opinion C. Besides D. However
Question 30:A. On the other hand B. To sum up C. Thus D. For example
Question 31:A. As B. such as C. owning to D. alike
Question 32:A. Overall B. Secondly C. Nonetheless D. Notwithstanding
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions.
Long ago prehistoric man began to domesticate a number of wild plants and animals for his own use. This not only
provided a more abundant food source but also allowed more people to live on a smaller plot of ground. We tend to
forget that all of our present-day pets, livestock, and food plants were taken from the wild and developed into the forms
we know today.
As centuries passed and human cultures evolved and blossomed, humans began to organise their knowledge of nature
into the broad field of natural history. One aspect of early natural history concerned the use of plants for drugs and
medicine. The early herbalists sometimes overworked their imaginations in this respect. For example, it was widely
believed that a plant or part of a plant that resembles an internal organ would cure ailments of that organ. Thus, an
extract made from a heartshaped leaf might be prescribed for a person suffering from heart problems.
Nevertheless, the overall contributions of these early observers provided the rudiments of our present knowledge of
drugs and their uses.
Question 33: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Cures from plants B. The beginning of natural history
C. Prehistoric man D. Early plants and animals
Question 34: Domestication of plants and animals probably occurred because of ________.
A. the need for more readily available food
B. lack of wild animals and plant
C. early man’s power as a hunter
D. the desire of prehistoric man to be nomadic
Question 35: The word “This” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. providing food for man B. man’s domestication of plants and animals
C. man’s ability to live on a small plot of land D. the earliest condition of prehistoric man
Question 36: The word “blossomed” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. produced flowers B. changed C. learned D. flourished
Question 37: An herbalist is which of the following?
A. A dreamer B. An early historian
C. Someone who uses plants in medicine D. A farmer
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many
countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of
communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are
concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there
has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such
ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones.
Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modem scanning equipment. In one case, a
traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks.
He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day,
every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his
employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very
small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they
say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use
mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only
when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future,
mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your
mobile phone too often.
Question 38: The most suitable title for the passage could be________.
A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular” B. “Mobile Phones. A Must of Our Time”
C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work” D. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”
Question 39: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because ____________.
A. they make them look more stylish B. they are indispensable in every day communications
C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Question 40: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with________,
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the resident memory
C. the arteries of the brain D. the smallest units of the brain
Question 41: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
Question 42: According to the writer, people should_____
A. never use mobile phones in all cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
Question 43: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. had a problem with memory
C. abandoned his family D. could no longer think lucidly
Question 44: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means
A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately
Question 45: Considering that we travelled right across the country, the bus ticket was surprisingly reasonable.
A. Because we were able to move right through the country, the price of the bus ticket didn't bother us.
B. The ticket for the bus, which took us from one side of the country to the other, was the cheapest that we could find.
C. The most reasonable way to go right across the country was by bus, so we bought ourselves a ticket.
D. As the bus brought us right across the country, we found the price of the ticket to be cheaper than its value to us.
Question 46: I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 47: Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.
A. a clay B. because C. it D. their survival
Question 48: Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.
A. on B. principles C. chemists D. mathematics
Question 49: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.
C. Even though joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Question 50: Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country.
Mexico does not require US citizens to do the same.
A. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does either
B. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does not, either
C. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and neither Mexico does
D. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country while Mexico does
Question 1:A. Opponent B. habitat C. contribute D. eternal
Question 2:A. Cognition B. position C. recommend D. commitment
differently from the rest
Question 3:A. Soon B. flood C. pool D. fool
Question 4:A. Center B. carry C. score D. cake
Question 5: “Have a nice weekend!” – “Thank you. ________________.”
A. Me too B. same to you C. The same to you D. The same with you
Question 6: “Could you bring me some water?” – “________________.”
A. Certainly, sir B. No, I can't C. Yes, I can D. I don't want to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in
Question 7: I could only propose a partial solution to the crisis in the company.
A. half B. halfway C. effective D. complete
Question 8: The ship went down although strenuous efforts were made to save it.
A. exhausting B. forceful C. energetic D. half-hearted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in
Question 9: You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to enter the classroom with great
confidence
A. defensive B. inadequate C. thorough D. sufficient
Question 10: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
questions.
Question 11: __________ parents of Thomas claimed that he was at____home at the time of________robbery.
A. X-X-the B. The -X- the C. The -the-the D. X – X - a
Question 12: Nowadays children would prefer history ________ in more practical ways.
A. be taught B. teach C. to be taught D. to be teaching
Question 13: The discovery was a major__________for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. break-in C. breakdown D. breakout
Question 14: I accidentally ________ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. lost touch with B. kept an eye on C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Question 15: Jane. “Do you think it's going to rain”. Mary. “________.”
A. I hope not so B. I hope not C. I don't hope so D. I don't hope either
Question 16: In the United States _______ the states but Hawaii is an island.
A. all of B. neither of C. none of D. no of
Question 17: I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of ________.
A. brain B. tongue C. mind D. memory
Question 18: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very________.
A. narrow-minded B. kind-hearted C. open-minded D. absent-minded
Question 19: It’s good idea to see your doctor regularly for ________.
A. a revision B. a check up C. an investigation D. a control
Question 20: When ________ a European, we should stick to the last name unless he suggests that we use his first
name.
A. speaking B. discussing C. talking D. addressing
Question 21: UNICEF _______supports and funds for the most disadvantaged children all over the world.
A. presents B. assists C. provides D. offers
Question 22: The doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient's life, _______ they will try their best.
A. but B. although C. despite D. however
Question 23: I am sending you my curriculum vitae__________you will have a chance to study it before our
interview.
A. so that B. because C. for D. since
If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to (24) ________ to your education or your work,
try reading more books. (25) ________ up some of the interestingly informative books and search for well - researched
materials that can help you grow.
We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV. Some people have commented
that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get information than television?" That is (26)
________ interesting point of view worth further (27) ________. Reading is a skill that is in much greater demand than
the demand for watching TV. There are no jobs that require a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral
part of many jobs.
The written word is an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in
no time, it can be communicated to many different people. Not only that, we can (28) ________ vast amounts of
information through reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in reading for two hours
than someone watching TV can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of information quickly because you are
a fast reader with good comprehension skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you will be able to
assimilate vast quantities of information.
Question 24:A. Gain B. gather C. collect D. contribute
Question 25:A. Make B. Pick C. Set D. Take
Question 26:A. A B. an C. the D. X
Question 27:A. Exploration B. explore C. explorer D. explorative
Question 28:A. Digest B. inhale C. breathe D. eat
Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because in fact most lions do come from
there but this has not always been the case. If we went back ten thousand years. we would find that there were lions
roaming vast sections of the globe. However now, unfortunately only a very small section of the lion’s former habitat
remains.
Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years since the Asiatic lions split off and
developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion was living as far west as Greece and they were found from
there, but in a band that spreads east through various countries of the Middle East, all the way to India. In museums
now, you can see Greek coins that have clear images of the Asiatic lion on them. Most of them are dated at around 500
B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic lions roaming free to thousand years ago. Over the next nineteen hundred
years the numbers of Asiatic lions in the other areas declined steadily, but it was only in the nineteenth century that
they disappeared from everywhere but in India.
The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic lion. There are now around three
hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in this sanctuary. However, despite living in a sanctuary,
which makes them safe from hunters, they still face a number of problems that threaten their survival. One of these is
the ever-present danger of disease. This is what killed more than a third of Africa’s Serengeti lions in 1994, and people
are fearful that something similar could happen in the Gir Sanctuary and kill off many of the Asiatic lions there. India’s
lions are particular vulnerable because they have a limited gene pool. The reason for this is interesting – it is because
all of them are descended from a few dozen lions that were saved by a prince who took a particular interest in them. He
was very healthy, and he managed to protect them otherwise they would probably have died out completely.
When you see the Asiatic lion in India, what you sense is enormous vitality. They are very impressive animals and you
would never guess that they this vulnerability when you look at them.
Question 29: According to the passage, ten thousand years ago,____________.
A. lions did not live in small forests B. lions came mainly from Africa
C. lions roamed much more than nowadays D. there were much more lion habitats than nowadays
Question 30: The phrase “split off” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. spotted animals B. divided
C. developed into different species D. changed the original species
Question 31: The word “vulnerable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. weak B. careless C. cautious D. easily protected
Question 32: The Asiatic lion____________.
A. was looking for food mainly in the Middle East B. was searching for food in a wide range of countries
C. was searching for food mainly in India and Africa D. was looking for food mainly in India
Question 33: According to the author, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary____________.
A. protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases B. cannot reduce the Asiatic lion’s risk of catching diseases
C. can make the Asiatic lion become weak D. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected
Question 34: The author refers to all of the following as characteristics of the Asiatic lion EXCEPT that
____________.
A. strong B. vulnerable C. vital D. impressive
Question 35: The passage is written to____________.
A. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions
B. explain why the Gir Sanctuary is the best habitat for the Asiatic lions
C. describe the developmental history of the Gir Sanctuary
D. provide an overview of the existence of the Asiatic lions
If you enjoy water sports, Hawaii is the place for you. You can go swimming all year round in the warm water. You can
go sport fishing from the shore or from a boat. If you like boats, you can go sailing, canoeing, or windsurfing. Or, you
can also try some other water sports that are especially popular in Hawaii. surfing, snorkeling and scuba diving.
Surfing is a sport which started in Hawaii many years ago. The Hawaiians called it “he’e nalu”, which means “to slide
on a wave”. If you want to try surfing, you need, first of all, to be a good swimmer. You also have to have an excellent
sense of balance. You must swim out from the beach with your surfboard under your arm. When you get to where the
waves begin to break, you wait for a calm moment. Then you try to stand up on the board. The wave will begin to rise
under you. You must try to steer the board with your feet so you stay on top of the wave. The important thing is to keep
your balance and not fall down. If you can manage this, you will have an exciting ride all the way in to the shore.
Scuba diving and snorkeling are two ways to get a close look at the beauty lying below the surface of the ocean. The
waters off the Hawaiian Islands are clean, clear and warm. They contain hundreds of kinds of colorful fish. The
undersea world is made even more colorful by the coral reefs of red, gold, white and light purple. Among these reefs
there may be larger fish or sea turtles. Scuba diving allows you to see the most interesting undersea sights. “Scuba”
means “Self- contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus”, that is, equipment for breathing and swimming around far
under water. In Hawaii, you can take special courses to learn how to scuba dive. After the courses, you can get a
certificate that will allow you to dive alone. Since it can be dangerous, proper instruction and great care are always
necessary when you are scuba diving.
If you are adventurous, you might try snorkeling instead of scuba diving. Less equipment is needed, just a face mask, a
breathing tube (snorkel) and flippers for your feet. It only takes a few minutes to learn how to snorkel. Although you
cannot dive deep into the water, you can swim with your face below the surface. Breathing through the tube, you float
on the surface, and keep yourself moving with your flippers. Even from the surface like this, there will be plenty of
color and beauty to see.
Question 36: The passage is about______________.
A. water sports around the world B. surfing
C. tourist activities in Hawaii D. water sports in Hawaii
Question 37: You can infer from the passage that______________.
A. water sports are all expensive B. you need to take a course for all water sports
C. everyone can find a way to enjoy sports in the water D. swimming in Hawaii can be dangerous
Question 38: According to the passage, surfing______________.
A. began as a sport in 1943 B. was invented by the native Hawaiians
C. requires expensive equipment D. is very dangerous
Question 39: The water around the Hawaiian Islands is______________.
A. often quite cold B. full of colorful things to see
C. usually very dark D. full of dangerous fish
Question 40: The word “this” in the second paragraph refers to______________.
A. standing on the board B. keeping balanced and not falling down
C. an exciting ride D. staying on top of the wave
Question 41: According to the passage, scuba diving______________.
A. is an ancient Hawaiian water sport B. requires special equipment and training
C. is the only way to see the fish underwater D. requires good balance
Question 42: The word “proper” in paragraph 4 refers to______________.
A. enthusiastic B. informative C. appropriate D. short and clear
Question 43: Which statement is supported by the information in the passage?
A. Snorkeling involves breathing through the tube, floating on the surface and moving with flippers
B. Snorkeling requires more expensive equipment than scuba diving
C. Snorkeling is for adventurous people
D. Snorkeling was invented in ancient times
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: He decided not to go to university and went to work in a restaurant.
A. Despite of going to university he went to work in a restaurant.
B. He went to work in a restaurant instead of going to university.
C. Instead of working in a restaurant, he went to university.
D. He decided to go to work in a restaurant because he liked it.
Question 45: Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies
A. Knowing about the internet help him invest in some computer company
B. He didn’t know much about the internet and he didn’t invest in any computer companies
C. Knowing about the internet , he would have invested in some computer companies
D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the internet
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction
Question 46: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available seat in the airport lobby.
A. The B. very C. was relaxing D. available
Question 47: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on time.
A. had B. certainly C. the D. on time
Question 48: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes,
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 49: Home schooling is apparently very successful. Many people still believe in the benefits of traditional
schooling.
A. Because home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional
schooling.
B. As long as home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional
schooling.
C. Even though home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional
schooling.
D. In spite of home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional
schooling.
Question 50: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few costumers.
A. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
D. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
Question 1:A. Express B. effort C. employ D. reduce
Question 2:A. Preference B. attraction C. advantage D. infinitive
differently from the rest.
Question 3:A. Laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
Question 4:A. Airports B. ways C. questions D. pictures
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: - Charles. “ Do you fancy going to a movie this evening ? ” - Lisa. “ ____________”
A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. B. Not at all. Go ahead.
C. Not so bad. And you ? D. That would be nice.
Question 6: - Duong. “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.” - Thomas “ __________”
A. Good Heavens ! B. That’s brilliant enough !
C. It’s okay, don’t worry D. Never mind, better job next time !
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 7: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Question 8: Many people oppose corporal punishment when educating young children though several of them are
naughty.
A. appreciate B. agree with C. are in favor of D. disapprove of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the
Question 9: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
Question 10: The people interviewed for the survey were randomly selected.
A. thoughtfully B. carefully C. indiscriminately D. carelessly
questions.
Question 11: Many applicants find a job interview__________if they are not well-prepared for it.
A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming
Question 12: He managed to win the race__________hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of
Question 13: Hardly__________when the argument began.
A. when he arrived B. he had arrived C. than he arrived D. had he arrived
Question 14: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of__________devices.
A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming C. labor-saving D. pollution-free
Question 15: By the end of the 21st century, scientists__________a cure for the common cold.
A. will find B. will have found C. will be finding D. will have been
finding
Question 16: Last Sunday was __________that we took a drive in the country.
A. so beautiful day B. such a beautiful day C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day
Question 17: Widespread forest destruction__________in this particular area.
A. must have seen B. ought to see C. could have seen D. can be seen
Question 18: The greater the demand, __________the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
Question 19: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike__________interested in them.
A. is not longer B. no longer C. no longer is D. is no longer
Question 20: He asked me __________.
A. since when I’m waiting B. how long I have been waiting
C. how long I had been waiting D. since when I waited
Question 21: __________ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 22: He still hasn’t really__________the death of his mother.
A. recovered B. got over C. cured D. treated
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (23)_________ class size is twelve
and the average is ten. We use modern methods (24)_________ teaching and learning, and the school has a language
laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work
hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (25)_________ in English as soon as you
arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (26)_________ at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (27)_________ of situations at the advanced knowledge.
You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will
develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 23:A. Maximum B. minimum C. small D. large
Question 24:A. In B. of C. on D. for
Question 25:A. test B. exam C. course D. lesson
Question 26:A. Form B. class C. grade D. course
Question 27:A. Variety B. amount C. number D. lot
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of
international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many
elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion off 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for
the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However,
during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade
(including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became
established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the
primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the
world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international
airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of
these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.
Question 28: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English. B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an international language. D. The use of English for science and technology.
Question 29: In the first paragraph, the word "emerged" is closest in meaning to ________
A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged
Question 30: In the first paragraph, the word "elements" is closest in meaning to ________
A. declaration B. features C. curiosities D. customs
Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. In 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world
except ____________.
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization
Question 33: In the second paragraph, the word "stored" is closest in meaning to____________.
A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued
Question 34: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world
today ? ____________.
A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D. 700 million
One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in 1927,
the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein,
among others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer.
Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship, hard work and triumph.
Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his
American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German - language
newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the
paper.
In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the newspaper took a
controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories of
scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today, but in Pulitzer’s time it was new and different. The
approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer ‘paper became very
famous and is still produced today.
The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to give something back to his
profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and
he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would
encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million dollars to Columbia
University so they could award prizes to great writers.
The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize is the highlight of their career.
If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a Pulitzer Prize, you can be sure they are at the top of their
profession.
Question 35: Why does the writer mention "John F. Kennedy" in line 3?
A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.
B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.
C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.
D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.
Question 36: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?
A. to encourage people to remember his name and success
B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality
C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals
D. to encourage work of the Pulitzer winners
Question 37: The word “partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to……
A. in part only B. brand new C. one and only D. very important
Question 38: According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Columbia University graduates B. journalism students
C. noted writers and composers D. most newspaper reporters
Question 39: According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader?
A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature B. He wrote stories about the war
C. He produced his own newspaper
D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue
Question 40: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage?
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student.
B. He was rich even when he was young
C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War
D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary
Question 41: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage?
A. oseph Pulitzer was the first writer to the win the prize in 1917.
B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career.
C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners.
D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors for writers.
Question 42: The gate was closed to stop the children running into the road.
A. The gate was closed so the children can’t run into the road.
B. The gate is closed so that the children don’t run into the road.
C. The gate was closed so that the children couldn’t run into the road.
D. The gate is closed so that the children couldn’t to run into the road.
Question 43: If it hadn’t been for the wind, the fire would never have spread so fast
A. Even without the wind, the fire would have spread just as fast.
B. It was the wind that caused the fire to spread at such a speed.
C. Had there been a wind, the wind would have spread even faster.
D. The force of the wind affected the way the fire spread.
Question 44: “ Don’t forget to hand in the report, Pete !” said Kate.
A. Kate reminded Pete of handing in the report.
B. Kate said that Pete Had forgotten to hand in the report.
C. Kate forgot to hand in the report to Pete.
D. Kate reminded Pete to hand in the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 45: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago , most of the roads now need to repair.
A. Because B. was built C. most of D. to repair
Question 46: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants to get
someone’s attention in class.
A. Pointing in B. impolite C. when D. to get
Question 47: If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course.
A. If B. takes a course C. take D. doing
Question 48: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Question 49: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.
A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.
B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.
C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.
D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.
Question 50: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. realistic B. oceanic C. economy D. biology
Question 2:A. Prediction B. rehearsal C. essential D. industry
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3:A. kite B. bite C. favorite D. quite
Question 4:A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following
sentences
Question 5: Mary. “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony."_____”
A. Not at all. I've finished my job B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes. It’s all right.
Question 6: - Kathy. “Make yourself at home” – Jim. “ ______”
A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
C. That’s very kind. Thank you. D. Thanks! Same to you.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 7: Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight”
A. put forward B. look up C. slow down D. turn down
Question 8: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked
Mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following
Question 9: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross
Societies in 1991.
A. treated B. dedicated C. helped D. started
Question 10: He drove so fast that I really felt my life was in danger.
A. at the target B. in accident C. at stake D. in comfort
sentences
Question 11: My father is in_______ of 30 engineers and 80 workers.
A. pressure B. leadership C. impression D. charge
Question 12: ________taken my parents’ advice, I wouldn't be a teacher now.
A. Had I B. If I hadn’t C. If I would have D. Could I have
Question 13: He is decorating his house ___________selling it.
A. in order to B. with a view to C. in order that D. so that
Question 14: On_______ he had won the first prize in the competition, he cried out with joy.
A. being told B. having told C. telling D. saying
Question 15: By the end of this March he ______here for 20 years.
A. has been living B. will live C. will have been living D. will be living
Question 16: The government is aiming___________ 50% reduction______ unemployment
A. at /of B. in/ to C. on/ at D. at /in
Question 17: I am not going to study French and__________
A. so is he B. neither is he C. he isn’t too D. either isn’t he
Question 18: Many young people in rural areas don`t want to spend their lives on the farm like______ parents.
A. weather-beaten B. up-to-date C. long-term D. wide-range
Question 19: I believe nobody survived the plane crash_________
A. did I B. didn’t they C. did they D. did he
Question 20: ________they arrived __________they were told to go back.
A. No sooner/when B. Scarcely had/when C. Scarcely/when D. Hardly/when
Question 21: Yuri Gagarin was the first person __________into space
A. has traveled B. traveling C. traveled D. to travel
Question 22: To preserve that _________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.
A. civilize B. civilization C. civility D. civil
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As recently as 1958 about half of the
public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The (23)_______of public school libraries increased
dramatically when the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, which
provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (24)
_______, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to
meet the rising cost of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (25)______ on
funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public schools tend to reflect the financial capabilities of
the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (26)________
abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (27) __________school districts in
many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are
generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and maintain books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
Question 23:A. digit B. amount C. number D. numeral
Question 24:A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. Consequently D. Nevertheless
Question 25:A. rely B. come C. go D. stay
Question 26:A. for B. with C. on D. by
Question 27:A. conflict B. converse C. contrary D. contrast
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer to each of the questions.
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R. Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly
inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then served in
World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo-Saxon and English language and literature at Oxford
University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise The Lord of the Rings were written in intervals from 1936
to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien’s responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late
1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology
and legends created by Tolkien. The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction
but also its success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot chronicles the struggle between good and evil kingdom as
they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle
Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was inhabited
by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, dwarves, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The characters and
the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern Europe. Although
readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with Tolkien’s real life
experiences in England during World War II, he denies the connection. He claims that the story began in his years as an
undergraduate student grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends about elves and their language. Tolkien
was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body or work that is still read
and enjoyed throughout the world today.
Question 28: What is one of the reasons it took Tolkien thirteen years to complete the trilogy?
A. His military service in World War II B. His duties at the university
C. His need to study more mythology D. His family responsibilities
Question 29: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. J.R.R. Tolkien’s work as a professor B. The popularity of J.R.R. Tolkien
C. All of J.R.R. Tolkien’s fantasy books D. J.R.R. Tolkien and his trilogy
Question 30: What does the word ‘trilogy’ mean?
A. A group of three literary works B. An unrelated group of books
C. A specific type of fantasy novel D. A long novel
Question 31: According to the passage when did The Lord of the Rings trilogy become popular with young people?
A. After World War II B. In the late 1960s C. Between 1936 and 1946 D. In 1892
Question 32: The following sentence could be added to paragraph 2. Where would it best fit into this paragraph?
“Once the ring is found by hobbit, a wizard selects a group to take the ring to the volcano where it was forged
and destroy it.”
A. After the sentence that ends with “heroic epic”
B. After the sentence that ends with “fantasy world”
C. After the sentence that ends with “rule the world”
D. After the sentence that ends with “monster, wizards, and some humans”
Question 33: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. During World War II B. When he was a student
C. When he was a professor D. During World War I
Question 34: What can we assume is true about Tolkien?
A. He enjoyed studying mythology and folklore. B. He spent most of his life in the military.
C. He wrote the trilogy about his real life experiences. D. He lived in Greece.
Question 35: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?'
A. People dominated Middle Earth. B. Middle Earth was based on European folktales
C. The good and evil kingdoms fought for power. D. Middle Earth was a fictional world.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classical and medieval
worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the
nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud was a
distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silent reading have revealed that
it became the usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As the number of readers
increased, the number of potential listeners declined and thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As
reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such
public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be used for
information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as newspapers was in some way
mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old
shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and
periodicals for a specialised readership on the other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use reading
skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological changes
in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.
Question 36: Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because ______.
A. people relied on reading for entertainment B. silent reading had not been discovered
C. there were few places available for private reading D. few people could read to themselves
Question 37: The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______”.
A. for everybody’s use B. most preferable
C. attracting attention D. widely used
Question 38: The development of silent reading during the last century indicated ______.
A. an increase in the average age of readers B. an increase in the number of books
C. a change in the nature of reading D. a change in the status of literate people
Question 39: Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of ______.
A. the decreasing need to read aloud B. the development of libraries
C. the increase in literacy D. the decreasing number of listeners
Question 40: The phrase “a specialized readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______”.
A. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge
B. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge
C. a reading volume for particular professionals
D. a status for readers specializ
Question 41: The phrase “oral reader” in the last paragraph mostly means “a person who ______”. ed in mass media
A. is good at public speaking B. takes part in an audition
C. practices reading to an audience D. is interested in spoken language
Question 42: All of the following might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old shared literacy culture
EXCEPT ______.
A. the inappropriate reading skills B. the specialized readership
C. the diversity of reading materials D. the printed mass media
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the first
sentences of each of the following questions
Question 43: He did not remember the meeting. He went out for a coffee with his friends then.
A. Not remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
B. Not to remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
C. Not remembered the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
D. Not remembering the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
Question 44: It would have been a perfect paper except for some mistakes
A. It was a perfect paper B. The word was spelt perfectly
C. The paper had some mistakes D. The teacher did not accept the paper
Question 45: It’s waste of time to try to explain anything to Tony.
A. Tony should be given explanation B. It’s not worthy trying to explain anything to Tony
C. To save time, explain it to Tony D. It’s well worth trying to explain things to Tony
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the questions
Question 46: By the time Robert will finish writing the first draft of his paper, most of the other students will have
completed their final draft
A. will finish B. writing C. most D. their
Question 47: The team leader demanded from his team members a serious attitude towards work, a good team spirit,
and that they work hard
A. team leader B. his team members C. attitude towards work D. and that they work
hard
Question 48: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner
A. Each B. cars C. quickly D. their
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the semtence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: eople should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.
A. People should both cut down the trees and throw rubbish in the park
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should throw rubbish and cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park
Question 50: The team reached the top of the mountain. The team spent a night there.
A. The team had not only reached the top of the mountain, but they spend a night there as well.
B. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there
C. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there as well
D. The team both reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in
each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. geographical B. environmental C. agricultural D. biological
Question 2:A. ordinary B. decompose C. emphasis D. calendar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 3:A. traveled B. stared C. landed D. seemed
Question 4:A. effective B. eradicate C. enthusiastic D. effort
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following
sentences
Question 5: Cynthia. “Hi, Victor. Do you think it’s possible for us to have a talk sometime today?" Victor. “I’d love to,
but______."
A. it's pretty tight schedule today. B. I'm pretty tight schedule today.
C. it has a pretty tight schedule today. D. I’ve got a pretty tight schedule today.
Question 6: John. “What time did the meeting end?'' Laura. “_______."
A. As soon as possible. B. For half an hour. C. In a minute. D. Just before lunch.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 7: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. strongly condemned B. publicly said C. openly criticized D. publicly supported
Question 8: Names of the people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. reveal B. cover C. presume D. conserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined
part in each of the following questions.
Question 9: We decided to pay for the car on the installment plan.
A. cash and carry B. monthly payment C. credit card D. piece by piece
Question 10: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
A. altogether B. specifically C. thoroughly D. considerably
Question 11: Make sure you ______ up the data on your computer, because you might get a virus.
A. back B. store C. save D. copy
Question 12: That's no excuse! You know you ______ this report by today.
A. can’t have finished B. must have finished C. may not have finished D. should have finished
Question 13: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ____ town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful Midwestern small
C. Midwestern beautiful small D. beautiful small Midwestern
Question 14: I was tired when you saw me because I____for the exam.
A. studied B. have been studying C. had been studying D. would study
Question 15: The______ on the kitchen table.
A. grocery is B. grocery are C. groceries is D. groceries are
Question 16: This winter wasn’t_______ as difficult as last winter.
A. almost B. nearly C. closely D. just
Question 17: _____ we understand his reasons, we cannot accept his behaviour.
A. As if B. What if C. Even if D. Only if
Question 18: His speech was careful and______, but his words seemed to make no sense.
A. distinctive B. distinction C. distinct D. distinguish
Question 19: Tom. “Is there anything interesting _____ the paper today?" Anna. “Well, there’s an unusual picture____
the back page ”
A. on – on B. in – on C. in – in D. on - in
Question 20: Mrs. Davies asked me to tell you that she would like ___ by Friday at the latest.
A. the orders sent B. sending the orders C. sent the orders D. that you sent
Question 21: It's ___ unique opportunity to see African wildlife in its natural environment.
A. the B. no article C. a D. an
Question 22: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach_____ our disappointment.
A. came down with B. made up for C. got through to D. faced up to
Question 23: The book would have been perfect_____ the ending.
A. it hadn’t been for B. hadn’t it been for C. it had not been for D. had it not been
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28.
A surprising number of popular spectator sports, for example football or baseball, (24)______ in Europe or the USA in
the nineteenth century. This did not happen by chance. It was the (25) ______ of changes in the way people lived in
those places at that time. Until then, more people lived In the country than in towns. They worked in small groups and
had no regular time off. All this changed with the growth of factories and industry in the nineteenth century, first in
Europe and (26) ______. In the USA. For the first time, most people began to live in towns, and they found themselves
with regular free time. They had more leisure time than ever before. This resulted in the need for organized
entertainment. Suitable games developed or were invented, typically team games, in which the crowd could (27)
______ sides and become involved. This gave people some of the entertainment they need in their free time. The recent
explosion in TV, with the introduction of satellite and cable channels, has caused an increase in (28) ______ for sports
as entertainment. The money TV has broughtto games such as football, tennis and baseball means that spectator sports
will certainly go on playing an important part in our lives.
Question 24:A. started B. stemmed C. appeared D. came
Question 25:A. result B. cause C. reason D. effect
Question 26:A. lately B. next C. second D. then
Question 27:A. choose B. take C. select D. decide
Question 28:A. requirement B. need C. request D. demand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and
experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account
the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child.
After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their
total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability.
We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these
aspects of learning. In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the
opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the
personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate
effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs;
sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some
formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills
they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the
child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 29: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to_______.
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
C. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
Question 30: As it can be inferred from the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching?
A. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own.
B. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development.
C. Formal class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library.
D. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class.
Question 31: The phrase "held back” in paragraph 1 means________.
A. forced to study in lower classes B. prevented from advancing
C. made to lag behind D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 32: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.
B. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils.
C. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching.
D. Children, in general, develop at different rates.
Question 33: In paragraph 1, “streaming pupils"________.
A. will help the pupils learn best
B. is quite discouraging
C. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
D. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
Question 34: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is_____.
A. questioning B. objective C. critical D. approving
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities.
B. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full.
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class.
D. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer.
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years. Never before
have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all of the Internet’s advantages,
however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for creative solutions. Among
the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous security concerns, the most crucial is
speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet. In 1996,
over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet doubles. The rapid growth
has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to keep up with the demand.
Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass through many routing computers before the information can be
obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and
Tokyo in order to obtain the required information. Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable. Service
also tends to be worse when the Internet is busiest - during the business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also
when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this problem. In 1995,
a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known as Internet II. Internet II is a
smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it is more specialized, fewer users are allowed
access. Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are creating their own
“Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company. In theory, fewer users
should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large national and international companies whose
branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount of security. Since only
company employees have access to the information on the Intranet, their information is protected from competitors.
While there is little doubt that the Internet will eventually be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic
community have taken their own steps toward making more practical global networks.
Question 36: In the passage, which of the following ts NOT true of the Internet?
A. It has become increasingly less popular. B. It has created a sense of financial security
C. It tends to be unreliable D. It is sometimes too slow to access
Question 37: As it can be inferred from the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?
A. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet
B. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
C. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access
D. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
Question 38: The word "analogue" in paragraph 5 most nearly means_____.
A. solution B. alternative C. similarity D. use
Question 39: The word “harness" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. block B. steal C. utilize D. disguise
Question 40: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.
Question 41: All of the following are advantages of business “Intranets” mentioned in the passage
EXCEPT__________
A. they move data faster.
B. they share information with other company branches.
C. they provide a higher level of security.
D. they are cheaper than other alternatives.
Question 42: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. Fewer academic communities need to create their own Internet systems.
B. An Internet system with fewer users would be quicker.
C. The technology used by Internet creators is too complex for computer owners to understand.
D. Companies who develop their own Intranets are limiting their information data base.
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1990?
A. The Internet was a secure means to gain information.
B. Internet data proved to be impractical.
C. The Internet experienced enormous growth rates.
D. Few people were using the Internet.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 44: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days. Jasmine."
A. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days' rest.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. Jasmine's doctor told that she should rest for a few days.
D. It is the doctor's recommendation that Jasmine should take a short rest.
Question 45: He is an authority on primitive religion.
A. He has official permission to practise primitive religion.
B. He is famous for his vast knowledge of primitive religion.
C. He has authority over the people who practise primitive religion.
D. He has a great influence on the people who practise primitive religion.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: After the police had tried unsuccessfully to determine to who the car belonged, they towed it to the
station.
A. the police B. unsuccessfully C. who D. it to
Question 47: Those who had already purchased tickets were instructed to go to gate first immediately.
A. Those B. had already purchased C. gate first D. immediately
Question 48: For thousands of years, man has created sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs and flowers and
using them for perfumes or medicine.
A. man B. sweet-smelling C. using them D. or
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 49: He failed his driving test the first time. As a result, he took it again.
A. He failed his driving test the first time and so he therefore took it again.
B. He failed his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.
C. He failed his driving test the first time which he took it again.
D. Failing his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.
Question 50: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
A. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
C. You'd better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
D. I'll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
Question 1:A. marriage B. response C. maintain D. believe
Question 2:A. obedient B. decision C. mischievous D. biologist
Question 3:A. carpet B. school C. facial D. contact
Question 4:A. takes B. develops C. volumes D. laughs
Question 5: “ What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” -“ “
A.You are telling a lie. B. I don’t like your saying
C. Thank you very much. I’m afraid D. Thank you for your compliment.
Question 6: Kate. “Thank you for the lovely present. ” – Peter. “ ____________ ”
A. I’m pleased you like it B. Not at all C. Go ahead D. come on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in the following questions
Question 7. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Question 8. In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation.
A. irresponsible B. discourteous C. insecure D. informal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in the following questions
Question 9. Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. encounter C. happen D. clean
Question 10. It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated.
A. significant B. unclear C. evident D. frank
questions
Question 11. The marathon, first staged in 1896, ______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of
victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
A. commemorates B. commemorated C. was commemorated D. commemorating
Question 12. Football is thought ___________ in the world.
A. to have played the most popular sport B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport D. to have been the most po pular sport
Question 13. The number of unemployed people __________ recently.
A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase
Question 14. I believe that he was concerned __________ all those matters which his wife mentioned.
A. upon B. over C. above D. with
Question 15. I ________ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments.
A. carry on B. go on C. put on D. get on
Question 16. Can you tell me who is responsible _____________ checking passports are?
A. to B. in C. for D. about
Question 17. When my father was young, he ______ get up early to do the gardening.
A. used to B. was used to C. got used to D. use to
Question 18. The preparation_________ by the time the guest_________
A. have finished- arrived B. had been finished- arrived
C. had finished-were arriving D. have been finished- were arrived
Question 19. If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she__________it.
A. wouldn't have accepted B. would have accepted
C. would accept D. wouldn't accept
Question 20. Jack asked his sister ______.
A. where would she go the following day B. where you will go tomorrow
C. where you have gone tomorrow D. where she would go the following day
Question 21. The mother told her son _______ so impolitely
A. didn't behave B. to behave C. not behave D. not to behave
Question 22. Eugenie Clark has a wide __________ about cultures of many countries in the world
A. known B. knowing C. knowledge D. know
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Personal space is a term that refers (23) ………. the distance we like to keep between ourselves and other people.
When (24) …………. we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If a business
colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move (25) ………. Some interesting (26)
……….. have been done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people get up and leave the building; others use
different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people develop new skills for
dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on crowded trains try not to look at
strangers; they avoid skin contact, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People use newspapers (27) …….. a
barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they
are not looking into anyone’s eyes.
Question 23:A. from B. about C. to D. for
Question 24:A. people B. anyone C. someone D. nobody
Question 25:A. up B. away C. on D. in
Question 26:A. survey B. questionnaires C. research D. studies
Question 27:A. like B. alike C. as D. such as
to each of the questions below.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little
thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been
writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much
longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today there are
spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human
child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk. a normal human being cannot be
prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and
useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems
never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing has over
speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking
makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
Question 28. We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ______.
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
Question 29. The author of the passage argues that ______.
A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form
Question 30. According to the passage, writing ______.
A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
Question 31. Normal human beings ______.
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn t o write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write
Question 32. Learning to write is ______.
A. easy B. too difficult C. not easy D. very easy
Question 33. In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of _______.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write D. people who speak many languages
Question 34. In the author’s judgment, ______.
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
Question 35. The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means ______.
A. “rudiments” B. “skill” C. “domination” D. “benefit”
Read the following andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world's universities, came from very
inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth.
Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of
England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New Word were
determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this
support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds
for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was
in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the
present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne, died from
tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only
half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what
he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today's standard, but it was more than
the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to serving
as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did
expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three
Question 36. The main idea of this passage is that ______________.
A. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard is one of the world's most prestigious universities.
Question 37. The passage indicates that Harvard is _______________
A. one of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America
Question 38. It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts colony were
________
A. rather rich B. Rather well educated
C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic
Question 39. The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to _______________
A. son B. university graduates
C. Oxford and Cambridge universities D. educational opportunities
Question 40. The "pounds" in the second paragraph are probably ______________
A. units of money B. college students C. types of books D. school campuses
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 42. The passage implies that __________________.
A. Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
B. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early ears
Question 43. They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.
A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman
B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack
C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.
D. It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.
Question 44. "I'm sorry. I didn’t do the homework." said the boy.
A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.
B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.
C. The boy denied not doing the homework.
D. The boy refused to do the homework.
Question 45. You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Question 46: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating equipment,
and to sample population.
A. basic elements B. are C. tabulating D. and to sample
Question 47: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.
A. why B. did Mathew look C. so embarrassed D. saw
Question 48: Higher education is very importance to national economies and it is also a source of trained and educated
personnel for the whole country
A. importance B. economies C. educated D. the whole country
Question 49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If only he had been able to finish his book.
B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
Question 50. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word having different stress from the others in
Question 1:A. Rapidly B. comfortably C. fluently D. necessarily
Question 2:A. politician B. genetics C. artificial D. controversial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.
Question 3:A. accurate B. account C. accept D. accuse
Question 4:A. talks B. takes C. decides D. completes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
Question 5. - “ Has an annoucement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?” - “___________________.”
A. Not yet B. Yes, it was C. I don’t think that D. Sorry, I don’t
Question 6. - “ I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.” - “___________________.”
A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in the meaning to the
underlined word(s) in ecah of the following questions.
Question 7. I’m sorry to say that it seems you’ve been shirking your responsibilities.
A. going along B. standing up to C. taking on D. refraining from
Question 8. She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet.
A. suspicious B. unqualified C. negative D. imperfect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 9. It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.
A. approximately B. comparatively C. nearly D. essentially
Question 10. You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.
A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. upset her in what she is doing
C. get involved in what she is doing D. make her comply with your orders
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11. Since he failed his exam, he had to_________for it again.
A. pass B. make C. take D. sit
Question 12. Is there_________at all I can help?
A. everything B. anything C. something D. one thing
Question 13. Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as_________as possible.
A. economizing B. econimic C. economical D. economically
Question 14. Only when you grow up, _________the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 15. My brother left his job last week because he did not have any_________to travel.
A. position B. chance C. ability D. location
Question 16. John paid $2 for his meal, _________he had thought it would cost.
A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 17. It is very important for a film or a company to keep_________the changes in the market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
Question 18. I’m sure you’ll have no_________the exam.
A. difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of
passing
Question 19. I_________this letter around for days without looking at it.
A. carry B. must carry C. have been carrying D. am carrying
Question 20. Vietnam’s rice export this year will decrease_________about 10%, compared with that of last year.
A. with B. at C. by D. on
Question 21. I won’t change my mind_________what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
Question 22. My car isn’t_________. It’s always letting me down.
A. believable B. reliable C. colorable D. conceivable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
The warming of the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, fatories and power (23)_________.
Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows the sunshine in but stop
the Earth heart (24) _________getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call (25) _________the Green
House effect.
Because of this effect, the Earth is getting warmer all the time. This (26) _________in temperature will cause big
changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (27) _________the poles will melt.
Question 23:A. companies B. factories C. sites D. stations
Question 24:A. from B. up C. against D. away
Question 25:A. is B. be C. it D. them
Question 26:A. raise B. rise C. drop D. fall
Question 27:A. covering B. covers C. covered D. cover
Read the following passage and mark the letters A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is
harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful
and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the
individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer
than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure
out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many
other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability,
or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and
tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines
mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing
tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are
chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats,
many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with
supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating
food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets.
Question 28. The topic of this passage is______________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 29. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ______________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 30. The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
Question 31. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
Question 32. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 33. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. overly active B. unusually low activity C. excited D. inquisitive
Question 34. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with
the infant's______________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys
thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the
rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and
hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may
indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over
and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect
intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which
are.usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly
specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the
text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create
empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-
image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to
name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a
shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or
sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the
speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh
sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.
A. The function of the voice in performance B. Communication styles
C. The connection between voice and personality D. The production of speech
Question 36. What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings
over and above the words chosen" ?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Question 37. The word "Here" in line 9 refers to……………
A. At interpersonal levels B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
Question 38. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" ?
A. As examples of public performance B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Question 39. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's………
A. general physical health B. Personality C. registered D. obtained
Question 40. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide…………
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Question 41. The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to……………
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
Question 42. According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest inmeaning to each of
the following question.
Question 43. I got the impression that the boys were not enjoying themselves.
A. The boys impressed me that they were not enjoying themselves.
B. The boys didn’t seem to be enjoying themselves.
C. The boys seemed not to enjoying themselves.
D. It seemed to me the boys were enjoying themselves.
Question 44. The children ran to the field to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.
A. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the filed.
B. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the filed.
C. When the children ran to the filed, the dragon went.
D. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the filed.
Question 45. The boy became so confused and worried that he left home.
A. The boy became too confused and worried to leave home.
B. So confued and worried that the boy left home.
C. So confused and worried, the boy left home.
D. The boy was not confused and worried enough to leave home.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions
Question 46: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly where the
choices are located.
A. doing B. about which C. to attend D. the choices
Question 47: It is a good idea to be careful in buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons who may come to
your door.
A. It is B. to be C. or purchasing D. from salespersons
Question 48: In that age of computers, it is difficult to imagine how tedious work of accountants and clerks must have
been in the past.
A. that age B. it is C. work D. have been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 49. Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house.
A. Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house.
B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house.
C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house.
D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house.
Question 50. She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at 9.00.
A. She has been listening to the radio at 7.30.
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30.
C. She has been listening to the radio after 7.30.
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions:
Question 1:A. Compulsory B. certificate C. significant D. category
Question 2:A. history B. confide C. result D. suggest
Question 3:A. economy B. society C. necessity D. facility
Question 4:A. technology B. chores C. schooling D. chemistry
Question 3:A. economy B. society C. necessity D. facility
Question 4:A. technology B. chores C. schooling D. chemistry
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Peter and Bob are talking about the plan for tonight.
Peter. “_________________.” Bob. “I’d love to. Thank you.”
A. Would you like to go to the new coffee shop with me? B. What would you do if you can afford a new car?
C. Would you like a cake? D. Why do you spend so much time playing games?
Question 6. Two people are talking on the phone.
A. “Could I speak to Alex, please?” B. “___________________.”
A. Can I take the message? B. I’m sorry. Alex is not in.
C. Just a moment. I’m coming. D. This is Joe speaking.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 7. My younger brothers are obedient most of the time, but they are quite mischievous sometimes.
A. Naughty B. hard-working C. well-behaved D. disruptive
Question 8. You should not wear casual clothes to the interview. The first impression is very important.
A. New B. informal C. neat D. formal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 9. In daily communication, you should know how to interpret other people’s body language.
A. Understand B. answer C. respond D. notice
Question 10. The purpose of this survey is to determine students’ attitudes toward love and marriage.
A. Find out B. develop C. concern D. build
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11. The state school system is free for all students and _______ by the government.
A. Is paid for B. is paying for C. pays for D. is being pay for
Question 12. Jane got married_______ Peter two years ago, but now they have split
A. As B. with C. for D. to
Question 13. The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading
A. Take care of B. get away C. look after D. stay away from
Question 14. Whenever I have problems, Jane is always very dependable. She never ______.
A. Turns up B. let me down C. turns me off D. turns out
Question 15. Students are expected to write their homework slowly and _______.
A. Careless B. carefully C. carelessly D. careful
Question 16. During the interview, you should try to ____ a good impression on your interview.
A. Create B. have C. give D. try
Question 17. An academic year in Vietnam is divided _____ two terms
A. In B. into C. within D. from
Question 18. Global warming is obviously _______ a worrying influence on the climate worldwide
A. Having B. making C. giving D. taking
Question 19. He wanted to know whose car I borrowed _____
A. Yesterday B. the last evening C. last night D. the previous night
Question 20. The man to _______ we have just talked is the Director General
A. Who B. that C. whom D. 0
Question 21. Though built in 1946, computers were sold ______ for the first time in the 1950s
A. Commercial B. commercialise C. commercially D. commerce
Question 22. ______hard, you will get good results in the coming examination.
A. Should you work B. unless you work C. if you will work D. if work
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process. You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way (23)_______depends on
having a coding system that is understood by both sender and (24)_______, and an agreed convention about signaling the
beginning and end of the message. In speech, the coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one
person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to mention. In fact, the signals (25)_______ in conversation and meetings are often
(26)_______. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence, a sharp intake of breath may signal the
desire to interrupt, catching the chairman’s eye may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a debate, a clenched fist
may indicate anger. When (27)_______ visual signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed.
Question 23:A. Exchange B. Interchange C. Communication D. Correspondence
Question 24:A. Announcer B. Receiver C. Messenger D. Transmitter
Question 25:A. That people use B. Are used C. Using D. Being used
Question 26:A. Informal B. non-verbal C. verbal D. formal
Question 27:A. their B. These C. This D. That
the questions from 28 to 34.
Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight
stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the
thirteen original colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky has
joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the
admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and halfdollars were produced with sixteen
stars.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the
coins from A798 on were issued with only thirteen stars-one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one
variety of the A828 half cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only A2 stars, but this
is the result of a die break and is not a true error.
Question 28. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities
C. The star as national symbol of the United States D. Colonial stamps and coins
Question 29. The word “their” in line 1 refers to _______
A. Coins B. features C. colonies D. stars
Question 30. The word “bore” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. Carried B. drilled C. symbolized D. cost
Question 31. The expression “Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange that _______
A. Silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
D. No silver coins were issued until 1794
Question 32. Which of the following can be inferred about the order in which Kentucky, Tennessee, and Vermont joined the
Union?
A. Vermont joined after Tennessee and Kentucky. B. Kentucky joined before Tennessee and Vermont.
C. Tennessee joined Vermont and Kentucky. D. Vermont and Kentucky joined at the same time.
Question 33. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin?
A. Half cent B. Half-dollar C. Half dime D. Half nickel
Question 34. Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. There was a change in design policy. B. There were twelve states at the time.
C. The mint made a mistake. D. Tennessee had left the Union.
the questions.
Who talks more – men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However, linguist Deborah Tannen, who has the
studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal –
talk more – in private situations, where they use conversation as the “glue” to hold relationship together. But, she says, men talk
more in public situations, where they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see
these difference even in children. Little girls often play with one ‘best friend’ and their play includes a lot of conversation. Little
boys often play games in groups, their play usually involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal
skills, while boys are often better at mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference. Researchers studied conversation between
children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk very differently to their sons than they do to their
daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls. Specifically, when parents talk with their
daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially with
daughters than with sons.
Question 35. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Women talk more than men on the whole B. Women’s talking is a stereotype
C. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public D. Little boys and little girls have different ways of playing
Question 36. Which word is similar in meaning to the word “glue”?
A. Games B. sticky substance C. rope D. means
Question 37. Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word “verbal”?
A. Deriving from verbs B. Connected with use of spoken language
C. Using very loud noise D. Being very talkative
Question 38. The word “they” refers to ______.
A. Situations B. Men C. Men and women D. Women
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Men and women have different styles of talking, which may begin in childhood.
B. According to Deborah Tannen, the belief that women talk more is party right but most wrong.
C. Women talk more in some situations while men talk in others
D. Men are more sociable than women
Question 40. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents.
B. Parents do not much about sadness with their sons.
C. Study at Emory University can help to explain the differences between communication styles of boy and girls.
D. An Emory University study found than parent talk more with their daughters than with their sons.
Question 41. Which word can best replace the word “startling”?
A. Beginning B. annoying C. surprising D. interesting
Question 42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the passage?
A. Parents give more love to their daughters than to their sons
B. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do
C. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters
D. Boys don’t like showing emotions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 43. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady said she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady told the man that she would call the police he didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
Question 44. He last has his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He didn’t have any test on his eyes ten months before.
C. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
D. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.
Question 45. He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.
A. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.
B. He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.
C. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.
D. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn’t survive the operation.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 46: If you take the train, it would be much more convenient
A. If B. the train C. would be D. much
Question 47: Some of his favourite subjects at school are Maths, English and Geographical.
A. Some B. subjects C. are D. Geographical
Question 48: Could you tell me how can I get to the city library, please?
A. Could B. me C. how can I get D. the city
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pairs of sentences in the
Question 49. They were rich; they didn’t have a happy family, though.
A. Although they were rich, but they didn’t have a happy family.
B. Rich though they were, they didn’t have a happy family.
C. They were rich although they didn’t have a happy family.
D. However they were rich, they didn’t have a happy family.
Question 50. One student failed because he completely ignored the instruction on the paper. The
instructions appeared on the top of every page.
A. One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing on the top of every page on the paper.
B. Even though one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every paper, he failed.
C. One student failed to ignore the instructions printed on the top of every page of paper.
D. No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed on the top of every page of the paper, he failed.
Question 1:A. represented B. biography C. indirectly D. entertainment
Question 2:A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
Question 3:A. Educate B. eliminate C. certificate D. dedicate
Question 4:A. Initiate B. substantial C. indicate D. particular
Question 5. Jim invited Helen to visit his gardens.
- Helen. "I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!" - Jim. “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I've always ____.”
A. had green fingers B. let nature take its course
C. made it down on my luck D. drawn the short straw
Question 6. Mrs. Skate’s in a fashion store. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following
exchange.
- Mrs. Skate. “How can this dress can be so expensive?” - The shop assistant. “________.”
A. Yes, it’s the most expensive B. You’re paying for the brand
C. What an expensive dress D. That’s a good idea
Question 7. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.
A. lost control of B. got in touch with C. made room for D. put in charge of
Question 8. Constant correction of speaking ‘errors’ by a teacher is often counter- productive, as student may become
afraid to speak at all.
A. desolate B. fruitless C. barren D. effective
Question 9. Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house.
A. stabilize B. alter C. increase D. diminish
Question 10. You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.
A. keeps going B. keeps taking things C. keeps changing her mood D. keeps testing
questions.
Question 11. We should participate in the movements ______ the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized to conserve C. organized conserving D. which organize to conserve
Question 12. ______ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know ______ exact number of them.
A. A/the B. The/an C. The/the D. A/an
Question 13. John forgot ______ his ticket so he was not allowed ______ the club.
A. brought/enter B. bring/entering C. bringing/to enter D. to bring/to enter
Question 14. Snow and rain ______ of nature.
A. are phenomena B. is phenomena C. is phenomenon D. are phenomenon
Question 15. Her outgoing character contrasts ______ with that of her sister.
A. thoroughly B. fully C. sharply D. coolly
Question 16. It turned out that we ______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn’t B. should have C. mustn’t D. needn’t have
Question 17. When I was a child, I loved to splash through the ______ after rain.
A. pools B. puddles C. ponds D. rivers
Question 18. Learning Spanish isn’t so difficult once you ______.
A. get away with it B. get off it C. get down to it D. get on it
Question 19. Staying in a hotel costs ______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. twice as much as B. as much as twice C. twice more than D. twice as
Question 20. Please don’t ______ a word of this to anyone else, it’s highly confidential.
A. speak B. pass C. mutter D. breathe
Question 21. In spite of his abilities, Peter has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitiveness D. repetitive
Question 22. I wish you ______ me a new one instead of having it ______ as you did.
A. had given/repaired B. gave/to repair
C. would give/to repair D. had given/to be repaired
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
LETTER TO THE EDITOR
The Prime Minister's comments yesterday on education spending miss the point, as the secondary education system
also needs a major overhaul. Firstly, the system only views the weakest learners as having special needs. The brightest
and most conscientious students are not encouraged to develop to their full (23)_____.
Secondly, there's too much testing and not enough learning. My fifteen-year-old daughter, for example, has just spent
the last month or so (24)_____ for exams. These aren't even real, important exams, as her GCSEs will be next year.
They're just mock exams. Is the work she's been doing really going to make her more knowledgeable about her
subjects, or will she forget it all tomorrow? I suspect the (25)_____. Thirdly, the standard (26)_____ doesn't give
students any tuition in developing practical work-related, living and social skills, or in skills necessary for higher
education. How many students entering university have the first idea what the difference is between plagiarising
someone else's work and (27)_____ good use of someone else's ideas? Shouldn't they have been taught this at school?
How many of them are really able to go about selfstudy skill that's essential at university because there are no teachers
to tell you what to do - in an efficient way? Indeed, hoe many students graduate from university totally unable to spell
even simple English words correctly? The system is letting our children down.
Question 23:A. plan B. fame C. potential D. achievement
Question 24:A. Reading B. lecturing C. cheating D. cramming
Question 25:A. latter B. frontier C. later D. latest
Question 26:A. timetable B. curriculum C. lecture D. seminar
Question 27:A. having B. taking C. making D. creating
answer to each of the questions.
Lead poisoning in children is a major health concern. Both low and high doses of paint can have serious effects.
Children exposed to high doses of lead often suffer permanent nerve damage, mental retardation, blindness, and even
death. Low doses of lead can lead to mild mental retardation, short attention spans, distractibility, poor academic
performance, and behavioral problems.
This is not a new concern. As early as 1904, lead poisoning in children was linked to lead- based paint. Microscopic
lead particles from paint are absorbed into the bloodstream when children ingest flakes of chipped paint, plaster, or
paint dust from sanding. Lead can also enter the body through household dust, nailbiting, thumb sucking, or chewing
on toys and other objects painted with lead-based paint. Although American paint companies today must comply with
strict regulations regarding the amount of lead used in their paint, this source of lead poisoning is still the most
common and most dangerous. Children living in older, dilapidated houses are particularly at risk.
Question 28. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. problems with household paint B. major health concern for children
C. lead poisoning in children D. lead paint in order homes
Question 29. The phrase "exposed to" in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. in contact with B. familiar with C. displaying D. conducting
Question 30. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. Paint companies can no longer use lead in their paint.
B. Paint companies must limit the amount of lead used in their paint.
C. Paint companies aren't required to limit the amount of lead used in their paint.
D. Paint companies have always followed restrictions regarding the amount of lead used in their paint.
Question 31. The word "ingest" could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. inhale B. invest C. inject D. eat
Question 32. The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. unpainted B. decorated C. broken down D. poorly painted
Question 33. According to the passage, what is the most common source of lead poisoning in children?
A. household dust B. lead-based paint C. painted toys D. dilapidated houses
Question 34. What does the author imply in the final sentence of the passage?
A. Old homes were painted with lead – based paint.
B. Lead-based paint chips off more easily than newer paints.
C. Poor people did not comply with the regulations
D. Old homes need to be rebuilt in order to be safe for children.
Political and family values within society have impacted upon the modern family structure. Traditionally, it has been
the man’s role to be the breadwinner for the family- providing the funds to pay for food and shelter.
However, due to the many new and unique responsibilities placed upon families, in numerous cases both men and
women- fathers and mothers- have had to enter the workforce. Generally, the reasons for both being involved in the
workforce revolve around the need to add to the family’s current financial base. To a lesser extent, the need to interact
with “adults” in a stimulating work environment is another popular reason. Whatever their reasons, for many families,
the decision for father and mother to go out of home and join the labour force has led to a number of side effects within
the home which, in turn, impact upon their performance as employees.
Many researchers agree that attitudes towards work are carried over into family life. This spillover can be positive or
negative. Positive spillover refers to the spread of satisfaction and positive stimulation at work resulting in high levels
of energy and satisfaction at home. If the amount of research is to be taken as an indication, it would seem that positive
spillover is not a dominant occurrence in the workplace with most research focusing on the effects of negative
spillover. Often pointing out the incompatible nature of work and family life, the research focuses on problems and
conflict at work which has the effect of draining and preoccupying the individual, making it difficult for him or her to
participate fully in family life.
Social scientists have devised a number of theories in an attempt to explain the work-family dynamic. Compensation
theory is one which has been widely used. It assumes that the relationship between work and family is negative by
pointing out that high involvement in one sphere- invariably the work sphere- leads to low involvement in the other. As
an individual advances within a career, demands typically fluctuate from moderate to more demanding and if the
advancing worker has younger children, this shift in work responsibilities will usually manifest itself in the form of
less time spent with the family. Researchers subscribing to this theory point out that the drain on family time is
significantly related to work-family conflict with an escalation in conflict, as the number of families increase.
Question 35. What is the main focus of this passage?
A. Roles of husbands in a family
B. Relationships between family and job satisfaction
C. Positive attitude to work
D. Relationships between work itself and job satisfaction
Question 36. The main reason fathers and mothers join the workforce is ____________.
A. they want to escape the boring environment of home
B. they need the mature interaction that goes on between adults
C. they want to be able to retire comfortably
D. they need extra money
Question 37. The word “draining” is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. waste B. empty
C. make somebody weaker D. make somebody stronger
Question 38. The word "it" in the third paragraph refers to __________.
A. family life B. family life
C. spillover D. Compensation theory
Question 39. The following are the reasons why the fathers and mothers both go to work EXCEPT ________.
A. the need to work to earn money B. the need to interact with “adults” in a stimulating work
C. the need to show the ability of working D. the need to add to the family’s current financial base
Question 40. The following are true EXCEPT ___________.
A. On the past, man earned money to provide the funds to pay for food and shelter for his family
B. The modern family structure has been affected by political and family values
C. The spread of satisfaction and positive stimulation at work result in high levels of energy and satisfaction at home
D. the advancing worker who has younger children spends more time with the family
Question 41. The word “breadwinner” is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. earner B. bread maker C. winner D. bread
Question 42. According to the passage, positive spillover ______________.
A. is only a positive attitude toward work
B. is the conflict at work
C. refers to the spread of satisfaction at work resulting in high levels of satisfaction at home
D. assumes that the relationship between work and family is negative
Question 43. I whispered as I didn't want anybody to hear our conversation.
A. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation, I whispered.
B. So as not to hear our conversation, I whispered.
C. Because I whispered, anybody heard our conversation.
D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn't be heard.
Question 44. Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.
A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.
B. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
C. Although she didn't read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Not having read the reference books, she couldn't finish the test.
Question 45. My advice is that you get straight to the point in the next report.
A. If I were you, I would go straight to the bush in the next report.
B. If I were you, I would beat around the bush in the next report.
C. If I were you, I would not beat around the bush in the next report.
D. If I were you, I would not point out the next report.
Question 46: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter
their eating habits.
A. have raised B. rapidly C. that D. their eating habits
Question 47: Having finished his term paper before the deadline, it was delivered to the professor before the class.
A. Having finished B. before the C. it was delivered D. professor before
Question 48: Since vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack of most of them.
A. are B. in a C. variety of D. lack of
Question 49. Jack has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.
A. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.
B. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.
C. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.
D. Jack has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas
Question 50. Tim graduated with a good degree. He joined the ranks of the unemployed.
A. Tim joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.
B. If Tim graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.
C. Though Tim graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
D. That Tim graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed
Question 1:A. polite B. roommate C. diverse D. apply
Question 2:A. Interfere B. athletics C. agrarian D. available
Question 3:A. Volunteer B. Trust C. fuss D. Judge
Question 4:A. Houses B. services C. passages D. techniques
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3:A. Volunteer B. Trust C. fuss D. Judge
Question 4:A. Houses B. services C. passages D. techniques
Question 05. Tung. “Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you.” Tuan. “ ___________”
A. Really? B. Do you like them?
C. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn’t it? D. I’m glad you like them.
Question 06. Lan. “Would you say the Great Wall is among the seven man-made wonders of the world?”
Trang. “___________”
A. That’s the least I could do. B. Do you think so, too?
C. There’s no doubt about that. D. It was created by ancient Chinese people, wasn’t it?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 07. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prizes.
A. difficulty B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 08. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the
future.
A. express disapproval of B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. resolve a conflict over
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 09. Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.
A. a person who bakes bread every morning B. a bakery-owner
C. a person who delivers bread to make money D. a person who goes out to work to earn money
Question 10. Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. a beloved member B. a bad and embarrassing member
C. the only child D. the eldest child
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11. On hearing that she failed the entrance exam, Trang couldn’t help _______ into tears.
A. bursting B. burst C. to bursting D. to burst
Question 12. Arranging flowers_______ among my mother’s hobbies.
A. is B. are C. were D. have been
Question 13. She didn’t enjoy her first year at college because she failed to _______ her new friends.
A. come in for B. look down on C. go down with D. get on with
Question 14. Peter has a separate room for his musical _______.
A. instruments B. equipment C. tools D. facilities
Question 15. We have just visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage _______ in Bac Ninh Province.
A. located B. locating C. which locates D. to locate
Question 16. Most people believe that school days are the _______ days of their life.
A. better B. best C. more best D. good
Question 17. My aunt gave me a _______ hat on my 16th birthday.
A. nice yellow new cotton B. new nice cotton yellow
C. new nice yellow cotton D. nice new yellow cotton
Question 18. The interviewer asked me what experience _______for the job.
A. do you get B. did I get C. I got D. you got
Question 19. He is a good team leader who always acts _______ in case of emergency.
A. decisively B. decisive C. decision D. decide
Question 20. They have just set off. They _______ on their way there.
A. can’t be B. must have been C. should have been D. must be
Question 21. Vietnamese students are forced to take _______ entrance examination before being admitted to _______
college or university.
A. an/the B. an/ a C. the/ the D. Ø/ a
Question 22. Today, the old couple has their family and friends_______ their golden wedding anniversary.
A. attend B. to attend C. attended D. attending
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate thecorrect word or
Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of industry (23)__________the
environment and people were starting to think seriously about ways of protecting the environment. One man who was
particularly affected by this subject was Gerard Morgan-Grenville. As Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living
as a gardener, he noticed signs of the damage that was being done to the countryside around him. It wasn't long before
Morgan-Grenville decided that he had to do something about this situation. He felt that if people could be shown a better
way of living then maybe they would be interested enough to try to protect their (24)__________environment.
Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (25)__________would prove what was happening to our surroundings and
what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville created the Centre for Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village
in Wales.
The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology which (26)__________no
harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did initially was to explore and demonstrate a wide range of
techniques and to point out which ones had the least destructive results on the world around us. (27) __________CAT
provides information and advice to people all over Britain and all over the world. If more and more individuals are informed
about how much damage our modern lifestyle is causing to the planet, maybe more of them would be prepared to look for
practical solutions to environmental problems.
Question 23:A. for B. to C. with D. on
Question 24:A. worthless B. valueless C. precious D. priceless
Question 25:A. that B. he C. it D. this
Question 26:A. gets B. makes C. plays D. does
Question 27:A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
The difference between the nuclear family and the extended family is that a nuclear family refers to a single basic family unit
of parents and their children, whereas the extended family refers to their relatives such as grandparents, in-laws, aunts and
uncles, etc. In many cultures, and particularly indigenous societies, the latter is the most common basic form of social
organization.
A nuclear family is limited, according to Kristy Jackson of Colorado State University, to one or two parents (e.g. a father and
mother) and their own child, or children, living together in a single house or other dwellings. In anthropology, they only
must be related in this fashion; there is no upper or lower limit on the number of children in a nuclear family.
The extended family is a much more nebulous term, but in essence refers to kin or relations not covered by the above
definition. In historical Europe and Asia as well as in Middle Eastern, African, and South American Aboriginal cultures,
extended family groups were typically the most basic unit of social organization. The term can differ in specific cultural
settings, but generally includes people related in age or by lineage. Anthropologically, the term “extended family” refers to
such a group living together in a household, often with three generations living together (grandparents, parents, and children)
and headed in patriarchal societies by the eldest man or by some other chosen leadership figure. However, in common
parlance, the term “extended family” is often used by people simply to refer to their cousins, aunts, uncles, and so on, even
though they are not living together in a single group.
Historically, most people in the world have lived in extended family groupings rather than in nuclear families. This was even
true in Europe and in the early United States, where multiple generations often lived together for economic reasons. During
the 20th century, average income rose high enough that living apart as nuclear families became a viable option for the vast
majority of the American population. In contrast, many indigenous societies and residents of developing countries continue
to have multiple generations living in the same household. The rise of the nuclear family in the modern West does not
necessarily mean that family arrangements have stabilized, either. The rapid growth in single-parent households, for
instance, also represents a substantial change in the traditional nuclear family. More couples are also choosing not to have
children at all.
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The dominance of nuclear families over extended ones
B. The dominance of extended families over nuclear ones
C. A distinction between nuclear families and extended ones
D. The changes of family types over times
Question 29. The word “the latter” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. family unit B. relatives
C. the nuclear family D. the extended family
Question 30. Historically, extended families were the most basic unit of social organization in all
of the following places EXCEPT _____..
A. The Middle East B. Asia C. North America D. Europe
Question 31. The word “patriarchal” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ruled or controlled by men B. equal for both men and women
C. simple with no rules and laws D. modern with advanced facilities
Question 32. According to the passage, single-parent households ________.
A. are not defined by anthropologists B. are the existing trend of family arrangement
C. are included in the term “nuclear family” D. are on the decrease
Question 33. The word “viable” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ________.
A. impossible B. possible C. explainable D. fashionable
Question 34. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Since the 20th century, more and more American couples have lived in extended families because of the financial
burdens.
B. Nuclear families are the most basic form of social organization all over the world.
C. The popularity of nuclear families in western countries helps to stabilize family arrangement.
D. Traditional nuclear families have changed a lot over times.
Question 35. What can be inferred from the reading passage?
A. Indigenous communities have been completely eradicated all over the world.
B. In the future, all extended families will be replaced by nuclear ones.
C. Anthropology is a science concerning human race and its development.
D. Couples with no children can’t be defined as families.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate thecorrect answer to
The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so changeable. It's the national talking point, and most
people watch at least one daily weather forecast. Most of the viewers imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive
at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home.
In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know tomorrow's
weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist.
Every morning, after a weather forecaster arrives at the TV studios, his/her first task of the day is to collect the latest data
from the National Meteorological Office. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar
pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to
translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final
broadcast is then carefully planned. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next a “story board” is
drawn up which lays out the script word for word.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather report is screened after the news, which can
vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available, which means that he/she has to be
thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available.
What makes weather forecasting more complicated is that it has to be a live broadcast and cannot be prerecorded. Live
shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for
every weather forecaster is getting the following day's predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual
occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately.
These days, a weather forecaster's job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental
conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include the pollen count for hay fever sufferers. Some
also include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is
certainly far more sophisticated than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It's a job for professionals
who can cope with stressful and challenging conditions.
Question 36. The passage is mainly about _________.
A. weather forecast in England B. a weather forecaster’s job
C. the most widely watched TV programme
D. the competition between weather forecast and other TV programmes
Question 37. The word “bulletin” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. show B. advertisement C. report D.
forecast
Question 38. In Britain, people's attitude to the weather_________.
A. is a national problem B. depends on the prediction being
for a sunny or rainy day
C. is quite neglectful D. makes it a top discussion topic
Question 39. What does the word “this” in paragraph 5 refer to?
A. the weather forecaster's worry B. the complication of a live broadcast
C. giving a forecast that doesn't come true D. an accurate prediction
Question 40. Creating a weather report is complex because_________.
A. the information includes unreliable predictions B. radar pictures are technical
C. maps have to be drawn D. a lot of data has to be interpreted
Question 41. Weather forecasters have to know the material well because_________.
A. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast
B. they sometimes need to change it to meet the time limitation
C. the broadcast is pre-recorded D. they don’t make the bulletins by themselves
Question 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. British people are concerned with weather because it affects their economy.
B. Weather forecasting is among demanding jobs.
C. TV reporters need to learn by heart what to say.
D. To become a weather forecaster, you must graduate from a prestigious university.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. She didn’t understand the benefits of volunteering until she joined this club.
A. Not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of volunteering.
B. It was not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of volunteering.
C. Not until did she join this club, she understood the benefits of volunteering.
D. Not until she joined this club that she understood the benefits of volunteering.
Question 44. He didn’t prepare well for his GCSE examination and he regrets it now.
A. Unless he had prepared well for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now.
B. But for his ill preparation for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now.
C. If it hadn’t been for his good preparation for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now.
D. If he had prepared well for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t have regretted it now.
Question 45. People believe that Chinese people invented paper.
A. Paper is believed to have been invented by Chinese people. B. Paper is believed to be invented by Chinese people.
C. It was believed that Chinese people invent paper. D. Chinese people are believed to invent paper.
Question 46: Children are expected to make the right thing both at school and at home.
A. to make B. the C. are expected D. both
Question 47: We will have a fund-raising dinner at Rex Hotel tonight.
A. at B. will have C. a D. fund-raising
Question 48: It was on 12th April, 1961 when the first human, a Soviet cosmonaut, flew into space.
A. a Soviet cosmonaut B. when C. flew D. into space
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences.
Question 49. Alternative sources of energy have environmental advantages. It’s not easy to make full use of them.
A. Because alternative sources of energy have environmental advantages, it’s not easy to make full use of them.
B. Alternative sources of energy have environmental advantages, so it’s not easy to make full use of them.
C. Despite their environmental advantages, it’s not easy to make full use of alternative sources of energy.
D. Although alternative sources of energy have environmental advantages, but it’s not easy to make full use of them.
Question 50. Human beings have destroyed the environment for a long time. They are now paying a high price for this.
A. Because having destroyed the environment for a long time, human beings are now paying a high price for this.
B. Having destroyed the environment for a long time, human beings are now paying a high price for this.
C. On destroying the environment for a long time, they are now paying a high price for this.
D. After being destroyed for a long time, the environment is now paying a high price.
Question 01.A. occur B. prefer C. apply D. Surface
Question 02.A. dramatic B. employee C. musician D. Entertain
Question 03: A. extended B. skipped C. looked D. Watched
Question 04. A. suggest B. support C. summer D. survive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 05. Bill. “ Let’s stop for a drink.” - Bruce. “ ___________”
A. Long time no see. B. Nice to meet you. C. Sorry, we’ve got little time. D. You’ve
welcome.
Question 06. Jack. “I’m going to take a five-day trip to Rome.” - Jill. “_________”
A. No, of course not. B. Have a good time. C. The same to you D. Yes, let’s.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 07. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese school.
A. depended B. optional C. obligatory D. required
Question 08. I am sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.
A. very scared B.very bored C.very idle D. very busy
Question 09. Yes, we went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day B. every other day C. every tow days D. every second day
Question 10. The government has passed laws to protect wildlife from commercial trade.
A. enforced B. enabled C. ensured D. enacted
questions.
Question 11. County legislators called for an update of the safety ___________ for the DRCY Power Plant.
A. regulate B. regulative C. regulatory D. regulations
Question 12. She has two brothers, ___________ are engineers.
A. whom both B. both who C. both of whom D. both whom
Question 13. It was so foggy that driver couldn’t ___________ the traffic signs.
A. break out B. make out C. keep out D. take out
Question 14. In most_____developed countries, up to 50% of ______population enters higher education at some time
in their lives.
A. the –a B. the – Φ C. Φ – the D. Φ- Φ
Question 15. ______her inexperience, her failure to secure the contract was not surprising.
A. By virtue of B. With regard to C. In view of D. In recognition of
Question 16. George wouldn’t have met Mary ___________ to his brother’s graduation party.
A. has not gone B. had not gone C. had he not gone D. if he shouldn’t
have gone
Question 17. It was found that he lacked the ___________ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.
A. obligation B. engagement C. commitment D. persuasion.
Question 18. ___________, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
Question 19. Mr. Pike _________ English at your school for 20 years before he retired last year.
A. was teaching B. has been teaching C. is teaching D. had been teaching
Question 20. She has just bought _________.
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 21. “ Jenny’s always wanted to get to get to the top of her career, _________?” “Yes, she’s an ambitious
girl”.
A. isn’t she B. hasn’t her C. has she D. hasn’t she
Question 22. Not only _________ the exam but she also got a scholarship.
A. she passes B. has she passed C. she has passed D. did she pass
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In this world of diversity,
(23) ________ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the old days, it was not much a problem to do
the task because there were not so many diverse learning areas to choose from.
Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to
think about. Most higher learning usually led to a financially successful life. (24) ________, the cost of education was
not so high.
Today’s world is entirely different from the things (25) ________ have just been described. The job market is
constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26) ________. Meanwhile, most teenagers have difficulty
in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career talks and studentcounseling workshops
to guide and help teenagers (27) ________ what course to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain
instruments such as surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning
styles of the students.
Question 23. A. spoke B. told C. talk D. Called
Question 24. A. acted B. done C. worked D. Made
Question 25.A. Since B. In spite C. Because D. Instead
Question 26. A. manage B. get C. reach D. Find
Question 27. A. greatful B. happy C. agreeable D. Approving
Living things include both the visible world of animals, plants, and fungi as well as the invisible world of bacteria and
viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered. Organisms have an enormously complex organization. We're
all familiar with the intricate systems of the basic unit of life, the cell. Life can also "work." Living creatures can take
in energy from the environment. This energy, in the form of food, is transformed to maintain metabolic processes and
for survival. Life grows and develops. This means more than just replicating or getting larger in size. Living organisms
also have the ability to rebuild and repair themselves when injured. Life can reproduce. Think about the last time you
accidentally stubbed your toe. Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and respond to the
demands placed on it by the environment. There are three basic types of adaptations that can occur in higher
organisms.
Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say you live near sea level and you travel
to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience difficulty breathing and an increase in heart rate as a result of the
change in altitude. These symptoms go away when you go back down to sea level. Body-related changes occur as a
result of prolonged changes in the environment. Using there previous example, if you were to stay in the mountainous
area for a long time, you would notice that your heart rate would begin to slow down and you would begin to breath
normally. These changes are also reversible. Genotypic changes (caused by genetic mutation) take place within the
genetic makeup of the organism and are not reversible. An example would be the development of resistance to
pesticides by insects and spiders.
Question 28. In what way is life organized?
A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D. Problematic
Question 29. Which of the following is NOT a feature of life?
A. Getting a job B. Giving birth
C. Getting larger and left- repairing D. Reacting to the environment
Question 30. What is the energy for living things called?
A. Food B. Metabolic process C. Green energy D. Environment
Question 31. You see life respond most clearly when you_______.
A. intentionally hurt yourself B. move part of your body due to threat
C. look at your toe D. feel hurt
Question 32. Which type of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the environment?
A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More human
Question 33. What does the word “reversible” in the passage mean?
A. Changeable B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular
Question 34. Which type of adaption is permanent?
A. Body-related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D. Environmental
For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means on endless party on a sunny beach in
Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach in Florida, a city with permanent population of around 36.000, more than
half a million university students arrive during the month of March to play and party, making it the number one spring
break destination in the United States A weeklong drinking binge is not for everyone, however and a growing number
of American university students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them, joining or leading a group of
volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to alleviate problems such as poverty, homelessness, or
environmental damage makes spring break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about.
During one spring break students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in 15 alternative spring break"
trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United States and five international trips. One group of
JMU students travelled to Bogalusa, Louisiana to help rebuild homes damaged by Hurricane Katrina. Another group
traveled to Mississippi to organize creative activities for children living in homeless shelter. One group of students did
go to exhausting physical labor such Florida. but not to lie on the sand. They performed as maintaining hiker rails and
destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem.
Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While most university students
have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, students volunteers are able to help people now. On the
other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous. Students often sleep on he floor of a school or church, or
spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals and transportation, which is much less
than some their peers spend to travel to more traditional spring break hotspots
Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United States. Students cite
a number of reasons for participating. Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize and meet new friends. Others want
to exercise their beliefs about peoples obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better place. Whatever their
reasons, these students have discovered something that gives them rich rewards along with a break from school work.
Question 35. How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring break?
A. Around 500.000 B. Around 10.000 C. Around 36.000 D. Around 50.000
Question 36. The article is mainly about___________.
A. sleeping on the floor or camping in tents. B. alternative spring break trips
C. drinking problems among university students D. spring break in Florida and Mexico
Question 37. The word “ binge” in the second paragraph probably means ___.
A. having very little alcohol B. refusing to do something
C. studying for too long D. doing too much of something.
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring break trips try to
help solve?
A. Alcoholism B. Environmental damage
C. Poverty D. Homelessness
Question 39. Which of the following gives the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. One group of JMU students worked on homes damaged by a hurricane.
B. Some students work to help the environment on alternative spring break trips.
C. Children living in homeless shelters enjoy creative activities.
D. University students do may different types of work on alternative spring break trips.
Question 40. The article implies that university students ____
A. many take fewer alternative spring break trips in the future.
B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people.
C. complain about the accommodations on alternative spring break trips.
D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips.
Question 41. The word “ them” in paragraph 4 refers to ______
A. degrees B. projects C. people D. students
Question 42. Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in alternative spring break trips?
A. The hope of earning more money B. A personal opinion that
people must help other people.
C. A desire to travel to glamorous places D. A wish to get away from
family and friends.
Question 43. For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids.
A. Doctors would rather give advice about colds than about fluids.
B. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds.
C. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks.
D. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.
Question 44. If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If he were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 45. I haven't gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It's ten years I haven't gone to the cinema.
B. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.
C. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema.
D. The last time I went to the cinema was ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 46. While working as a travel agency, my elder brother specialized in arranging tours of the Mekong Delta
for foreign tourists.
A. a travel agency B. While C. specialized in D. tours of
Question 47. A lot of athletic and non-athletic extracurricular activities are available in Vietnamese highschools, either
public and private.
A. available in B. non- athletic C. either public and private D. A lot of
Question 48. In a restaurant, if we want to call the water, we can raise our hand and wave it slight to signal that we
need assistance.
A. slight to signal B. if we C. assistance D. wave it
Question 49. I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn’t drop in.
A. Not knowing that you were at home, but I still dropped in.
B. I didn’t know you were at home although I didn’t drop in
C. Not knowing that you were at home, I didn’t drop in.
D. If I knew that you were at home, I would drop in.
Question 50. My sisters used to get on with each other. Now they hardly speak.
A. My sisters were once close, but they rarely speak to each other now.
B. My sisters do not speak to each other much, but they are good friends.
C. My sisters rarely speak because they have never liked each other.
D. Because they have never got on, my sisters do not speak to each other.
Question 1: A. Document B. development C. improvement D. Environment
Question 2:A. Comfortable B. Dynasty C. literature D. Engineering
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. Exhaust B. exam C. exact D. Excellent
Question 4:A. Command B. community C. complete D. common
Question 05. Peter and Mary are friends. They have just finished lunch in a restaurant.
Mary. The food is great. I'll get the bill. Peter. _________.
A. Yes, speak to you soon B. No, this is on me. C. I'm afraid he is not here. D. Don't mention it.
Question 06. Sue is phoning Mr. Black but his secretary tells her that he is on vacation.
Ann. May I leave a message for Mr. Black, please? Secretary. ___________.
A. He is taking a message now. B. Yes, I'll make sure he gets it.
C. I'm afraid he is not here. D. No, you can't tell him.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 07. Most of the guests at the dinner party chose to dress elegantly, but one man wore jeans and a T-shirt; he
was later identified as a high school teacher.
A. unsophisticatedly B. decently C. gaudily D. gracefully
Question 08. He revealed his intentions of leaving the company to the manager during the office dinner party.
A. concealed B. disclosed C. misled D. influenced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 09. When posed with a complicated mathematical equation, some students seek the assistance of a teacher.
A. solved B. presented C. informed D. spaced
Question 10. At the advent of his speech, he told a joke but the audience failed to laugh.
A. creation B. end C. climax D. commencement
Question 11. I was very sad when the vet said he'd have to ________ Gertie, our lapdog.
A. put down B. feel up to C. pull through D. wear off
Question 12. She worked here for a while then _________ afternoon she just quit and left.
A. an B. the C. one D. Ø
Question 13. Dawn's thinking of setting ________ a social club for local disabled people.
A. out B. up C. off D. in
Question 14. The disadvantaged should be cared for by _______.
A. the wealth B. wealth C. wealthier D. the wealthy
Question 15. DNA tests ________ accepted in court eases.
A. were used B. are known C. will have D. have been
Question 16. We like ________ policies.
A. American recent economic B. economic recent American
C. recent American economic D. recent economic American
Question 17. Why not ________ the meeting until Thursday morning?
A. postpone B. postponing C. you postpone D. do you postpone
Question 18. You're 18! You ________ to be able to look after yourself by now.
A. are advisable B. expect C. suppose D. are supposed
Question 19. We've had _________ problems with our new computer that we had to send it back to the shop.
A. enough B. so C. such D. too
Question 20. Mr. Putin won a fourth term as Russia's president, picking up more than three- quarters of the vote with
_________ of more than 67 percent.
A. an output B. an outcome C. a turnup D. a turnout
Question 21. It is said that a drizzle on the Phap Van - Cau Gie Expressway caused poor______ and slippery road
surface, leading to the vehicles, traveling at high speed, unable to respond safely.
A. view B. vision C. visibility D. visionary
Question 22. His work ________ new ground in the treatment of cancer. It is now giving many cancer victims hope of
complete recovery.
A. uncovered B. found C. broke D. dug
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
WILLIAM THE HERO!
Brave William Baldock, who is six years old, is a hero after helping his mother when she fell downstairs. William
quickly rang for an ambulance when he discovered his mother had broken her leg. In spite of being frightened, he (23)
________ the emergency services what had happened and answered all the questions they asked him. He also
telephoned his father at work, and then his grandmother, to explain what he had (24) _________. While waiting for
these people to come, William looked after his 18-month-old sister. When ambulance man Steve Lyn went to the
house, he was amazed. 'It's great that a young boy of six knew the right number to dial, and was able to give us the
correct information. (25) ________ of William's quick thinking, we were able to (26) ________ there immediately."
Mrs. Baldock left hospital yesterday, very (27) ________ to both William and the ambulance service.
Question 23. A. making B. taking C. giving D. Having
Question 24. A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore
Question 25. A. when B. that C. what D. Where
Question 26. A. Competition B. competitively C. competitive D. Compete
Question 27. A. apply B. study C. decide D. Employ
A large number of inventions require years of arduous research and development before they are perfected. For
instance, Thomas Edison had to make more than 1,000 attempts to invent the incandescent light bulb before he finally
succeeded. History is replete with numerous other examples of people trying, yet failing to make inventions before
they eventually succeeded. Yet some inventions have come about not through hard work but simply by accident.
In most cases, when someone unintentionally invented something, the inventor was attempting to create something
else. For example, in the 1930s, chemist Roy Plunkett was attempting to make a new substance that could be used to
refrigerate items. He mixed some chemicals together. Then, he put them into a pressurized container and cooled the
mixture. By the time his experiment was complete, he had a new invention. It was not a new substance that could be
used for refrigeration though. Instead, he had invented Teflon, which is today most commonly used to make nonstick
pots and pans. Similarly, decades earlier, John Pemberton was a pharmacist in Atlanta, Georgia. He was attempting to
create a tonic that people could use whenever they had headaches. While he was not successful in that endeavor, he
managed to invent Coca -Cola, the world - famous carbonated soft drink.
Scientists have also made crucial discoveries by accident when they were conducting experiments. In 1928, Alexander
Fleming discovered penicillin, an antibiotic, in this manner. He discovered some mold growing in a dish with some
bacteria. He noticed that the bacteria seemed to be avoiding the mold. When he investigated further, he determined
some of the many useful properties of penicillin, which has saved millions of lives over the past few decades.
Likewise, in 1946, scientist Percy Spencer was conducting an experiment with microwaves. He had a candy bar in his
pocket, and he noticed that it suddenly melted. He investigated and learned the reason why that had happened. Soon
afterward, he built a device that could utilize microwaves to heat food. the microwave oven.
Question 28. In paragraph 1, the word arduous is closest in meaning to _______.
A. constant B. tough C. specific D. detailed
Question 29. Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. History's Most Important Inventions B. Accidental Inventions and Discoveries
C. You Don't Always Get What You Want D. How to Become a Great Inventor
Question 30. What does the author imply about penicillin?
A. It is an invaluable medical supply. B. Mold combines with bacteria to make it.
C. Some people are not affected by it. D. Doctors seldom use it nowadays.
Question 31. In paragraph 2, the word endeavor is closest in meaning to _______.
A. request B. attempt C. research D. dream
Question 32. The author uses Alexander Fleming as an example of ________.
A. a person who made an accidental scientific discovery B. one of the most famous inventors in history
C. someone who became a millionaire from his invention D. a man who dedicated his life to medical science
Question 33. Who was John Pemberton?
A. The person who made Teflon B. The creator of Coca-Cola
C. The man who discovered penicillin D. The inventor of the microwave
Question 34. What does the author say about Teflon?
A. It is used for kitchenware nowadays. B. It was created many years before Coca-Cola.
C. The man who made it was a pharmacist. D. People first used it as a refrigeration device.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
How is the news different from entertainment? Most people would answer that news is real but entertainment is fiction.
However, if we think more carefully about the news, it becomes clear that the news is not always real. The news does
not show us all the events of the day, but stories from a small number of chosen events. The creation of news stories is
subject to specific constraints, much like the creation of works of fiction. There are many constraints, but three of the
most important ones are. commercialism, story formulas, and sources. Newspapers, radio, and TV stations are
businesses, all of which are rivals for audiences and advertising revenue. The amount of time that the average TV
station spends on news broadcasts has grown steadily over the last fifty years - largely because news is relatively cheap
to produce, yet sells plenty of advertising. Some news broadcasts are themselves becoming advertisements. For
example, during one week in 1996 when the American CBS network was airing a movie about the sinking of the
Titanic, CBS news ran nine stories about that event (which had happened 84 years before). The ABC network is owned
by Disney Studios, and frequently runs news stories about Mickey Mouse. Furthermore, the profit motive drives news
organizations to pay more attention to stories likely to generate a large audience, and to shy away from stories that may
be important but dull. This pressure to be entertaining has produced shorter, simpler stories. more focus on celebrities
than people of substance, more focus on gossip than on news, and more focus on dramatic events than on nuanced
issues.
As busy people under relentless pressure to produce, journalists cannot spend days agonizing over the best way to
present stories. Instead, they depend upon certain story formulas, which they can reuse again and again. One example
is known as the inverted pyramid. In this formula, the journalist puts the most important information at the beginning
of the story, than adds the next most important, and so on. The inverted pyramid originates from the age of the
telegraph, the idea being that if the line went dead halfway through the story, the journalist would know that the most
crucial information had at least been relayed. Modern journalists still value the formula for a similar reason. Their
editors will cut stories if they are too long. Another formula involves reducing a complicated story into a simple
conflict. The best example is "horse race" election coverage. Thorough explication of the issues and the candidates'
views is forbiddingly complex. Journalists therefore concentrate more on who is winning in the opinion polls, and
whether the underdog can catch up in the numbers than on politicians' campaign goals.
Sources are another constraint on what journalists cover and how they cover it. The dominant sources for news are
public information officers in businesses and government offices. The majority of such officers try to establish
themselves as experts who are qualified to feed information to journalists. How do journalists know who is an expert?
In general, they don't. They use sources not on the basis of actual expertise, but on the appearance of expertise and the
willingness to share it. All the major news organizations use some of the same sources (many of them anonymous), so
the same types of stories always receive attention. Over time, the journalists may even become close friends with their
sources, and they stop searching for alternative points of view. The result tends to be narrow, homogenized coverage of
the same kind.
Question 35. The word relayed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. sent B. gathered C. known D. chosen
Question 36. Why does the author mention Mickey Mouse in paragraph 2?
A. To indicate that ABC shows entertaining news stories
B. To give an example of news stories that are also advertisements
C. To contrast ABC's style with that of CBS D. To give an example of news content that is not serious
Question 37. According to the passage, which of the following tends to lead to homogenized coverage?
A. Journalists' becoming friends with their sources B. Journalists' use of experts as sources
C. Journalists' search for alternative points of view D. Journalists' using government officials as sources
Question 38. According to paragraph 3, an advantage of the inverted pyramid formula for journalists is that ________.
A. it makes a story more likely to attract the attention of the audience
B. it makes a story more likely to be cut by the editor
C. if a story is cut by the editor, only the less crucial information will be lost
D. it makes a story simpler and easier to understand
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true?
A. One effect of commercialism is news stories with more complex content.
B. Some news broadcasts are shown without advertisements.
C. The ABC network owns Disney Studios.
D. More time is devoted to news on TV now than 50 years ago.
Question 40. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to _________.
A. journalists B. organizations C. experts D. sources
Question 41. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentences "Thorough
explication of the issues.... than on politicians' campaign goals. " in the passage?
A. Journalists focus on poll numbers instead of campaign issues because it is easier.
B. Journalists are more interested in issues and candidates' views, but viewers are more interested in who is winning.
C. During an election campaign, journalists mainly concentrate on "horse race" coverage.
D. Candidates' views and how they are explained by journalists can have a big effect on poll numbers.
Question 42. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author of the passage thinks _______.
A. that most people don't pay enough attention to the news
B. that watching or reading the news is extremely boring
C. that most news stories are false
D. that most people don't realize how different news is from reality
Question 43. "Why don't you take extra classes in English if you want to become a tourist guide?" said my friend.
A. My friend advised me to take extra classes in English only if I wanted to become a tourist guide.
B. In my friend's opinion, I will never become a tourist guide if I don't take extra classes in English.
C. In my friend's opinion, taking extra classes in English is necessary if I wanted to become a tourist guide.
D. My friend suggested I take extra classes in English if I wanted to become a tourist guide.
Question 44. He smokes too much; perhaps that's why he can't get rid of his cough.
A. If he didn't smoke so much, he may get rid of his cough.
B. If he smoked less, he might be able to get rid of his cough.
C. If he smoked so much, he couldn't get rid of his cough. D. If he does not smoke, he may not have his cough.
Question 45. There is no point in your phoning Jane - she's away.
A. Jane is very difficult to phone - she's always away.
B. Don't spend your valuable time phoning Jane -- she's out.
C. You waste your time if you insist on phoning Jane - she's away.
D. It would be a waste of time phoning Jane - she's away.
Mark, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Her weigh has increased remarkably since she began receiving treatment.
A. Her B. receiving C. weigh D. remarkably
Question 47. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel is expected to change their reservations and
proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. proceed to C. is D. to change
Question 48. The University of Kentucky has held this prestigious title until 1989, when it was granted to the
University of Georgia.
A. was granted B. it C. has held D. to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is best made up from the prompts.
Question 49. They/ not answer/phone/ this morning, so/ must/ out/.
A. They hasn't answered the phone this morning so they must have been out.
B. They didn't answer the phone this morning so they must be out.
C. They didn't answer the phone this morning so they must have gone out.
D. They hasn't answered the phone this morning so they must go out.
Question 50. Darwin/ who/ be/ famous/ English/ scientist/ develop/theory/ evolution/.
A. Darwin who was the famous English scientist develops the theory for evolution.
B. Darwin, who is a famous English scientist, has developed a theory on evolution.
C. Darwin, who was a famous English scientist, developed the theory of evolution .
D. Darwin who is a famous English scientist developed a theory of evolution.
ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 01
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
Question 1: A. tiny B. island C. river D. wind
Question 2: A. removed B. washed C. hoped D. missed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. escape B. before C. enough D. welfare
Question 4: A. determine B. encounter C. consonant D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 5: You mustn’t have seen Linda , for she has left for Australia for almost 2 months.
A. mustn’t have seen B. for C. for D. almost
Question 6: It was the invention of the assembly line instead than the increase in the average pay of workers that
allowed automobiles to be purchased by so many in the early years of the twentieth century.
A. instead B. purchased C. so D. twentieth century
Question 7: For thousands of years, man has created sweet–smelling substances from wood, herbs, and flowers and
using them for perfume or medicine.
A. man B. sweet–smelling C. using them D. or
Question 8: If you have an old blanket, ________ it along so that we have something to sit on at the beach.
A. bring B. go C. put D. keep
Question 9: Measures must be taken to stop nuclear waste being ________ at sea.
A. dropped B. left C. dumped D. stored
Question 10: The water park we went to yesterday was fantastic, but the entrance________ was a bit expensive.
A. fare B. cost C. expense D. fee
Question 11: The couple were finally________ by the landlord after not paying rent for six months.
A. demolished B. evicted C. rejected D. evacuated
Question 12: I couldn’t believe it when Marcy accused me of ________ in her relationship with Joe.
A. intervening B. interacting C. interfering D. intercepting
Question 13: Do you believe in that old ________ about not walking under a ledder?
A. curse B. misfortune C. uncertainty D. superstition
Question 14: My brother together with my parents________ going to meet my relatives at the airport this afternoon.
A. are B. were C. is D. was
Question 15: If I had attended the party last night, I________ able to go to work today.
A. won’t be B. am not C. wouldn’t have been D. wouldn’t be
Question 16: The food being cooked in the kitchen was giving________ a wonderful smell.
A. up B. off C. round D. over
Question 17: Her parents insisted that she ________ until she ________ her degree.
A. stayed / finished B. would stay / finished C. stayed / had finished D. stay / finished
Question 18: Computers make it________ for people to store information and perform their work.
A. easily B. much easier C. much more easily D. at ease
Question 19: I'm going to an interview. I hope I’ll get the job. Please________ for me.
A. keep your fingers B. hold your fingers crossed
C. hold your fingers D. keep your fingers crossed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom: “I won the gold medal in the race.” You: “________________”
A. Cheers! All the best. B. That’s all right. Don’t mention it.
C. Well done! I knew you could do it. D. Good luck! Better luck next time.
Question 21: Tom: “________ the film we watched last night?” Mary: “It is very interesting.”
A. How do you think of B. What is your opinion about
C. How about your thoughts on D. What about your feelings with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word (s) in the following question.
Question 22: Developments in micro–technology– computers and telecommunication are bound to have a huge
influence on various aspects of our lives.
A. rarely B. somehow C. uncertain D. likely
Question 23: The kidneys play a vital role in maintaining health by removing impurities from the bloodstream.
A. viable B. vivid C. trivial D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Before the match, the team has been stretching to prevent injury.
A. Conversely B. In advance C. Beginning with D. Prior to
Question 25: The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.
A. define B. confirm C. support D. complain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 26: I will take up golf this year.
A. I will begin to play golf this year. B. I will build a golf court this year.
C. I will enter a golf competition this year. D. I will stop playing golf this year.
Question 27: I didn’t know that Joe had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him up.
A. If I had known that Joe had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
B. Provided that I had woken Joe up, I would know that he had to get up early
C. Much as Joe had been woken up, he would have to get up early.
D. Unless I had known that Joe had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
Question 28: John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years.
A. Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently.
B. Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently.
C. Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could not have spoken Chinese fluently.
D. John could not speak Chinese fluently if he had not lived in China for ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The jeans are over there. I told you about them last week.
A. The jeans about whom I told you about last week are over there.
B. The jeans which I told you about them last week are over there.
C. The jeans which I told you about last week are over there.
D. The jeans about that I told you about last week are over there.
Question 30: The government plans to help poorer countries. It plans to cancel all third world debt.
A. The government plans to help poorer countries so that it cancels all third world debt.
B. The government plans to help poorer countries by cancelling all third world debt.
C. The government plans to cancel all third world debt in case it helps poorer countries.
D. The government plans to help poorer countries with a view to cancelling all third world debt.
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
for each of the blanks.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The schools
teach a (31)__________ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach
anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future
employee to know. But very few students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas
in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate
with people and to (32)__________ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will both understand what you are
driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough by itself. You must have something to say in the first place. The
effectiveness of your job depends (33)__________ your ability to make other people understand your work as they do
on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one’s thoughts is one skill that the school can really teach. The foundations for (34 )__________ in
expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear for language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in
brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the (35)__________ of verbal expression. If you do not lay these
foundations during your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
Question 31: A. large B. great C. far D. deal
Question 32: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
Question 33: A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much
Question 34: A. method B. skill C. way D. pattern
Question 35: A. habit B. routine C. trend D. hobby
to each question.
Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living creature, especially human
beings, have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said
about a bizarre animal that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but can live
without eating for long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered supremely edible by gourmets?
For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted on its diet of mud. It is
adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats.
Common in cool water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to suck up mud or sand and digest
whatever nutrients are present.
Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish – brown to sand – color and nearly white.
One form even has vivid purple tentacles. Usually the creatures are cucumber – shaped – hence their name – and
because they are typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combined with flexibility, enables them to squeeze into crevices
where they are safe from predators and ocean currents.
Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent
and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods so that the marine organisms that
provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they would devour all the food available in
a short time and would probably starve themselves out of existence.
But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. It major enemies are fish and crabs,
when attacked; it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The
sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attacked or even touched; it will do the same if surrounding
water temperature is too high or if the water becomes too polluted.
A. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name B. What makes the sea cucumber unusual
C. How to identify the sea cucumber D. Places where the sea cucumber can be found
Question 37: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to….
A. odd B. marine C. simple D. rare
Question 38: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?
A. It helps them to digest their food.
B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.
C. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.
D. It makes them attractive to fish
Question 39: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber’s ability to…
A. squeeze into crevices B. devour all available food in a short time
C. suck up mud or sand D. live at a low metabolic rate
Question 40: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses
A. the reproduction of sea cucumbers B. the food sources of sea cucumbers
C. the eating habits of sea cucumbers D. threats to sea cucumbers’ existence
Question 41: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to…
A. grows again B. grabs C. gets rid of D. uses as a weapon
Question 42: Which of the following would NOT cause a sea cucumber to release its internal organs into the water?
A. A touch B. food C. unusually warm water D. pollution
to each question.
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of a computer.
Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal
more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that
by stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even
dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail.
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific information about the event
stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject
to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a
particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a
variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic
capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain
cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that
another way, improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
Question 43: Compared with a computer, human memory is...................
A. more complex B. more limited C. less dependable D. less durable
Question 44: The word “that” refers to............................
A. the computer B. the efficiency C. the sophistication D. the memory
Question 45: According the passage, researchers have concluded that......................
A. the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed
B. the physical basis for memory is clear
C. different points of view are valuable
D. human memory is inefficient
Question 46: How did Penfield stimulate dreams and other minor events from the past?
A. By surgery B. By electric stimulation
C. By repetition D. By chemical stimulation
Question 47: The word “elicit” is closest in meaning to...........................
A. prove B. prevent C. Cause D. reject
Question 48: According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain........................
A. can be understood by the examining the physiology
B. is stimulated by patterns of activity
C. has a limited combination of relationship
D. is not influenced by repetition
Question 49: The word “bonds” means….......................
A. promises B. agreements C. connections D. responsibilities
Question 50: All of the following are true of a memory trace EXCEPT that............................
A. it is probably made by structural changes in the brain
B. it is able to be observed
C. it is a theoretical construct
D. it is related to the degree of recall
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 262( ĐỀ SỐ 04)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
Question 1: A. shrug B. once C. console D. result
Question 2: A. thread B. breath C. break D. tread
Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of
Question 3: A. considerate B. cooperate C. knowledgeable D. inhabitant
Question 4: A. dedicate B. cosmonaut C. undertake D. gravity
Question 5: The two coaches collided, but luckily no one was wounded.
A. collided B. but C. luckily D. wounded
Question 6: By itself, technology can be either good nor bad, depends on how people use it.
A. By B. can be C. nor D. depends
Question 7: Having watered the flowers in the rooms, she went on watering those in the kitchen.
A. Having watered B. in the C. watering D. those
Question 8: We don’t want my father to know about the trip. Please, don’t give us________
A. off B. in C. on D. away
Question 9: You should at least ________an effort to find the boy’s address if you don’t want to lose your last hope.
A. make B. work C. put D. do
Question 10: If only I ________my temper at the party last night!
A. wouldn’t have lost B. wouldn’t lose C. hadn’t lost D. didn’t lose
Question 11: One of ________days I’m going to give him a piece of my mind.
A. our B. those C. these D. the
Question 12: “Why did you ride your bike today?” “It’s more ________than driving my car”
A. economical B. economic C. economy D. economically
Question 13: - “ I understand you have been reading all the boys’ letters. Since when? “ - “ Since they ________to me
about their weekend plans.”
A. laid B. have laid C. have lied D. lied
Question 14: What about ________for us? It might be quite interesting, I suppose.
A. to have some of them working B. making some of them work
C. having some of them work D. to make some of them work
Question 15: Scientists say that mass ________can cause fast environmental pollution.
A. production B. productive C. productively D. product
Question 16: We are going to build a fence around the field with (a)n ________to breedingsheep and cattle.
A. goal B. view C. reason D. outlook
Question 17: The ASEAN countries are going to________a resolution to establish a free trade zone.
A. take B. pass C. bring D. order
Question 18: Mrs. Finkelstein demanded that the heater ________immediately. Her apartment was freezing.
A. be repaired B. repaired C. should be repair D. would be repaired
Question 19: I can’t give you the answer on the ________; I’ll have to think about it for a few days.
A. place B. minute C. scene D. spot
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the
Question 20: Hoang: “Let’s go to my place for a coffee." Nam: “________”
A. Done! B. It’s fine. C. Can’t be better. D. Sounds great.
Question 21: Jack: “I think the food in the restaurant is really delicious.” Janny: “________”
A. Neither do I B. You can say that again C. You’re welcome. D. That's why I am here
Question 22: The sophisticated design of the vase made it a valuable piece or her collection
A. functional B. simple C. accurate D. complex
Question 23: Having spent all my money on tuition, I’m not affluent enough even to go to the cinema.
A. arrogant B. wealthy C. afraid D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 24: Students are expected to be quiet and compliant in the classroom.
A. recalcitrant B. obedient C. compatible D. friendly
Question 25: After many years of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved
world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.
A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding
Question 26: The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.
A. It is reported that James wins the first prize. B. It is reported that James to be awarded the first prize.
C. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize. D. The first prize is reported to award to James.
Question 27: It is possible that we won’t have to take an entrance exam this year.
A. Perhaps we don’t have to take an entrance exam this year.
B. We mustn’t take an entrance exam this year.
C. We mightn’t take an entrance exam this year.
D. It is very likely that we will take an entrance exam this year.
Question 28: In spite of his tiredness, Joe managed to finish his work.
A. Although he is tired, Joe managed to finish his work.
B. Joe managed to finish his work but he was tired
C. Despite he was tired, Joe managed to finish his work.
D. Tired as he seemed to be, Joe managed to finish his work.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 29: We breathe much polluted air. We get weaker
A. Much polluted air is breathed as we get weaker
B. The more polluted air we breathe, the weaker we get
C. The weaker we get, the more polluted air we breathe
D. Polluted air is responsible for out bad health.
Question 30: We missed class several times. This was the cause of our poor grades.
A. Having missed class several times, our poor grades were anticipated.
B. Having missed class several times, our poor grades were anticipated.
C. We received poor grades missing class several time.
D. Receiving poor grades, we missed class several times.
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for
each of the blanks.
I live on the first floor of a house that has been (31) _______ into three flats. Five months ago, a couple moved into the
flat above and since then my life has been a nightmare. They get up at 6 a.m and make a terrible noise. They listen to the
radio at top (32) _______, talk loudly and stamp on the floor. In the evening they play the same record on their stereo
over and over again. It’s beginning to (33) _______ me mad. I’ve tried turning my own stereo up to (34) _______ out the
noise but I like peace and quiet and find loud music stressful. I tried to talking to them but it hasn’t done any good. I
realize I should live and (35) _______ live , but I have begun to have quite irrational revenge fantasies about them – like
switching off their electricity or deliberately making a lot of noise late at night when I know they are asleep. What on
earth can I do?
Question 31: A. changed B. converted C. adapted D. remade
Question 32: A. power B. volume C. pitch D. intensity
Question 33: A. drive B. force C. turn D. put
Question 34: A. wipe B. sound C. deafen D. drown
Question 35: A. let B. make C. have D. be
Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each for the questions.
Telecommuting-substituting the computer for the trip to the job-has been hailed as a solution to all kinds of problems
related to office work. For workers, it promises freedom from the office, less time wasted in traffic, and help with child-
care conflicts. For management, telecommuting helps keep high performers on board, minimizes tardiness and
absenteeism by eliminating commutes, allows periods of solitude for high-concentration tasks, and provides scheduling
flexibility. In some areas, such as Southern California and Seattle, Washington, local governments are encouraging
companies to start telecommuting programs in order to reduce rush-hour congestion and improve air quality, but these
benefits do not come easily. Making a telecommuting program work requires careful planning and an understanding of
the differences between telecommuting realities and popular images.
Many workers are seduced by rosy illusions of life as a telecommuter. A computer programmer from New York City
moves to the tranquil Adirondack Mountains and stays in contact with her office via computer. A manager comes into his
Office three days a week and works at home the other two. An accountant stays home to care for child; she hooks up her
telephone modem connections and does office work between calls to the doctor.
These are powerful images, but they are a limited reflection of reality. Telecommuting workers soon learn that it is
almost impossible to concentrate on work and care for a young child at the same time. Before a certain age, young
children cannot recognize, much less respect, the necessary boundaries between work and family. Additional child
support is necessary if the parent is to get any work done.
Management, too, must separate the myth from the reality. Although the media has paid a great deal of attention to
telecommuting, in most cases it is the employee’s situation, not the availability of technology, that precipitates a
telecommuting arrangement.
That is partly why, despite the widespread press coverage, the number of companies with work-at-home programs or
policy guidelines remains small.
Question 36: What is the main subject of the passage?
A. Business management policies B. Commuting to work
C. Extending the workplace by means of telecommutingk D. Telecommuting for child-care purposes
Question 37: According to the passage, what is the most important tool for a telecommuter to work at home?
A. telephone B. a camera C. a smart phone D. a computer
Question 38: The word “hailed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. welcomed B. communicated C. considered D. arranged
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for office employees?
A. Being restricted to the office B. Incurring expenses for lunches and clothing
C. Taking care of sick children D. Driving in heavy traffic
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for employers that is potentially solved by
telecommuting?
A. Employees’ lateness for work B. Employees’ absence from work
C. Employees’ need for time to work intensively alone D. Employees’ conflicts with second jobs
Question 41: Which of the following does the author mention as a possible disadvantage of telecommuting?
A. Small children cannot understand the boundaries of work and play.
B. Computer technology is not advanced enough to accommodate the needs of every situation.
C. Electrical malfunctions can destroy a project.
D. The worker often does not have all the needed resources at home.
Question 42: Which of the following is an example of telecommuting as described in the passage?
A. A scientist in a laboratory developing plans for a space station
B. A technical writer sending via computer documents created at home
C. A computer technician repairing an office computer network
D. A teacher directing computer-assisted learning in a private school.
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on televisions. Most of them imagine that the presenter
does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home.
In fact, this imagine is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know
tomorrow’s weather is the result of a hard day’s work by the presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist.
Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the days is to collect the latest data from the national
Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute information about weather conditions throughout the day,
both in Britain and around the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar
pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to
translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and word which viewers can easily understand.
The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides
what to say and in what order to say it. Next, a “story board” is drawn up which lay out the script word for word. What
make a weather forecast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are
required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the correct order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather report is screened after the news, which
can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn’t always know how much time is available, which means that he/ she
has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available.
Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be pre- recorded. Live
shows are very nerve- racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect
for every weather forecaster is getting the following day’s predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them this is not an
unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately.
The weather is a national obsession in Britain, Perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s the national talking point, and
most people watch at least one daily bulletin. It can be mortifying for a weather man or woman who has predicted rain
for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine. These days, a weather forecaster’s job is even more complicated
because they are replied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather
forecast has to include the pollen count for hay fever sufferers. Some also include reports on ultraviolet radiation
intensity to help people avoid sunburn.
The job of the weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map and describing weather
conditions. It’s a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding conditions.
Question 43: What perception do most people have a weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications. B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They always tell the truth . D. They work very short hours.
Question 44: Meteorologists get their forecasting information from
A. The TV studio B. The country’ s main weather centre
C. Satellite and radar information D. Their office
Question 45: The phrase up- to- the- minute in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. Very brief B. Very short C. ( the) most recent D. Fashionable
Question 46: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. So that the visual are sequenced correctly
B. So that the script is visible to the presenter
C. Because the script has to be written on a story board
D. Because electric maps are used
Question 47: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. The length of the report may have to change
B. The forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast
C. The content of the report may have to change
D. The broadcast is pre-recorded
Question 48: What does this in paragraph 6 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry B. Reading the weather ‘live’
C. Giving a forecast that doesn’t come true D. An accurate prediction
Question 49: The word mortifying in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. embarrassing B. enjoyable C. deceitful D. frightening
Question 50: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A. do experiments to determine the pollen count. B. simply point at maps and describe weather conditions.
C. cope with professionals. D. be able to cope under pressure.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 263 (ĐỀ SỐ 05)
differently from others.
Question 1: A. stopped B. laughed C. realized D. produced
Question 2: A. cool B. food C. boom D. took
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. psychology B. speculate C. pedestrian D. preservative
Question 4: A. consistent B. advocate C. apparent D. admission
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen.
A. Several B. apparent C. man's mind D. to listen
Question 6: Lara is a very bright student who learns quickly and do all her course work very well.
A. very bright B. who learns C. do all D. work
Question 7: After being questioned for a few minutes, John finally admitted to steal his friend’s money.
A. being B. admitted C. steal D. friend’s
Question 8: He told his sister that he ________ to run away from home.
A. intends B. is intending C. has intended D. intended
Question 9: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her ________ because of her poor eyesight.
A. up B. back C. over D. down
Question 10: They live in a ________ of Oxford, and come into town by bus every day.
A. suburb B. area C. centre D. countryside
Question 11: George didn’t attend school for six weeks as he had to stay in hospital where he was ________ for
pneumonia.
A. fixed B. treated C. relieved D. mended
Question 12: You look tired. Why don’t we ________ and have a good rest?
A. call its name B. call on C. call it a day D. call off
Question 13: ________ of the students in our class could solve this math problem.
A. Not B. Neither C. Not much D. None
Question 14: You mustn’t ________ these difficult exercises; do them all.
A. leave off B. leave behind C. leave for D. leave out
Question 15: Water pollution is often caused by industrial ________ from factories.
A. fuels B. waste C. gases D. rain
Question 16: ________ becoming more and more common in children.
A. The diabetes B. The diabetes are C. Diabetes is D. Diabetes are
Question 17: The marathon was postponed ________ the heavy rain.
A. due to B. because C. despite D. when
Question 18: She built a high wall round her garden ________
A. in order that her fruit not be stolen B. to enable people not taking her fruit
C. so that her fruit would be stolen D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen
Question 19: I enjoy swimming, but ________ I avoid crowded pools.
A. on the contrary B. on the face of it C. as a rule D. in a nutshell
Question 20: Joanne: “You should have flown with the earlier flight!” Alex: “___________”
A. Why not? B. Yes. I did.
C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that. D. It was fully booked.
Question 21: Stephanie: “Huong, this is Nick.” Huong: “___________”
A. Really? B. Nice to meet you C. An honour D. My dear
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s).
Question 22: The environment was nourishing to the young girl’s developing personality.
A. beneficial B. harmful C. cheap D. good
Question 23: The birthday gift Bet’s grandmother gave her is irreplaceable.
A. Possible to replace B. Unable to buy
C. Impossible to find another D. Quite easily found
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 24: The governor issued a statement in an attempt to negate the accusations against him.
A. disapprove B. admit C. have no effect D. deny
Question 25: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. pay all attention to D. express interest to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: If only I had taken his advice
A. I wish I followed his advice B. I wish I have taken his advice
C. I regret not having taken his advice D. I regret not to take his advice
Question 27: James blamed his younger brother for the damage.
A. James punished his younger brother for the damage.
B. James was responsible for his younger brother’s damge.
C. James said his younger brother had caused the damage.
D. James blamed the damage for his younger brother.
Question 28: If only you had told me the truth about the theft.
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft.
B. Only if you had told me the truth about the theft.
C. Had you told me the truth, there wouldn’t have been the theft.
D. You only told me the truth if there was a theft.
questions.
Question 29: Alex bought the big house. He wanted to open a restaurant
A. Alex bought the big house although he wanted to open a restaurant
B. Alex bought the big house with a view to opening a restaurant
C. Alex bought the big house in order to want to open a restaurant
D. Alex bought the house as long as he wanted to open a restaurant
Question 30: Chemical engineers earn a BC degree. Chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job with a BC.
A. Whether they earn a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.
B. If they earn a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job
C. To have a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job
D. Since earning a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often (31 )________ small
grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. In this way even
very hard rocks are worn away by the wind. When particles of rocks or soil became loosened(tơi ra) in any way, running
water carries them down the (32)________ Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.
Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very (33 )________ of its
soil. The roots of plants help to (34)________ the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on grasslands runs away more
slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands (35)________ to slow down erosion.
Question 31: A. holds up B. picks up C. cleans out D. carries out
Question 32: A. hillsides B. borders C. topside D. topsoil
Question 33: A. few B. much C. little D. large
Question 34: A. stay B. store C. hold D. back
Question 35: A. help B. assess C. facilitate D. aid
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or near extinction
has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300.
By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by
poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is
an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well
as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world /s ecosystem. International laws protecting animals must be
enacted to ensure their survival-and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to
circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to
help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This
money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols o protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal
extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself
will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
A. The Bengal tiger B. International boycotts.
C. Endangered species D. Problems with industrialization
Question 37: Which of the following could best replace the word 'case' as used in paragraph 2?
A. Act B. Situation C. Contrast D. Trade
Question 38: The word 'poachers' as used in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Illegal hunters B. Enterprising researchers
C. Concerned scientists D. Trained hunters
Question 39: What does the word 'this' in paragraph 2 refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction. D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 40: Which of the following could best replace the word ‘allocated’ in paragraph 3?
A. Set aside B. Combined C. Organized D. Taken off
Question 41: What does the term 'international boycott' in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Buying and selling of animal products overseas.
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. A global increase in animal survival.
D. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks.
Question 42: Which of the folỉowing best describes the author's attitude?
A. Forgiving B. Concerned C. Vindictive D. Surprised
each of the questions. Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a
scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested exploring
the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that was quite remarkable was his design
for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to his. Earlier
diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air inside
the bell ran low. Halley's bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that
enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five
feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in
and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then
covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the
divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made
Halley's bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from
a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead
barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breath the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move
around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and
a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
Question 43: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley's
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer
C. many different interests D. invention of the diving bell
Question 44: Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley's work as an astronomer B. Haley's many different interests
C. Halley's invention of a contraption for diving D. Halley's experiences as a diver
Question 45: Halley's bell was better than its predecessors because it
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
Question 46: The expression ran low in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. moved slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
Question 47: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley's bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
Question 48: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley's bell
A. was wider at the bottom than at the top B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed D. could hold more than one diver
Question 49: The word its in paragraph 4 refers to
A. improvement B. Halley's bell C. source of air D. a lead barrel
Question 50: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. astronomy B. recreation C. oceanography D. physiology
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 264(ĐỀ SỐ 06)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.
Question 1: A. pleasure B. treasure C. leap D. head
Question 2: A. children B. schedule C. watch D. match
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of
Question 3: A. hopeful B. compose C. eject D. admire
Question 4: A. community B. characterize C. negotiate D. identity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: TheQuestion master tells you three things, and you have to say which are the odd one out.
A. tells B. and you C. are D. out
Question 6: Have I to tell them that you have come?
A. Have I to B. them C. that D. have come
Question 7: Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or injure.
A. relearn B. to use C. bodies D. injure
Question 8: Nobody took any________of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated water.
A. information B. attention C. sight D. notice
Question 9: Tom was very emharrassed – it was ________mistake !
A. a so stupid B. so stupid C. a such stupid D. such a stupid
Question 10: She had ________free time after she retired than previously.
A. much B. more C. most D. many
Question 11: Thieves broke ________their house while they were on holiday.
A. down B. into C. off D. up
Question 12: Because Mark needed to pass the exam, he made studying a priority________watching his favorite
television show.
A. with B. over C. about D. above
Question 13: The new building will be________than our present premises.
A. by far the most spacious B. far more spacious C. much more spaciously D. not so much spacious
Question 14: Many of the children in the area were clearly________and suffering from various diseases.
A. undernourished B. underprivileged C. overrated D. overestimated
Question 15: Mr. Smith is a ________person; he never spares a penny.
A. arrogant B. vain C. mean D. impulsive
Question 16: Success factors include being prepare to________sacrifices and knowing what your strengths are.
A. do B. make C. create D. have
Question 17: It has never ________my mind that Jane might be a notorious liar.
A. passed B. entered C. crossed D. reached
Question 18: Theoretical knowledge is no substitution ________experience.
A. for B. to C. in D. with
Question 19: Most young children people in the Western would have ________to a decent education.
A. entrance B. reach C. access D. opportunity
Question 20: Nicole: “It was wonderful evening. Thank you so much for your meal.” Pitt: “_____________”
A. Yes, it’s really good B. All right C. I’m glad you enjoyed it D. No, it’s very kind of you
Question 21: Hue: “Sorry to keep you waiting.” John: “_____________”
A. No problem. B. Don’t mention it. C. You’re welcome D. I’m glad you apologized
Question 22: Fallout from nuclear power station damaged in the tsunami may endanger the vegetation .
A. stimulate B. harm C. Inhibit D. benefit
Question 23: The Egyptians used a primitive form of distillation to extract the essential oils from plants
A. fill B. remove C. insert D. express
Question 24: The vaccine provides longer immunity against flu.
A. protection B. safety C. effect D. fighting
Question 25: Intermarriages between the noble families were very popular in the part.
A. honorable B. hatred C. acquainted D. familiar
Question 26: He put on a mask to avoid being recognized by his friends.
A. He put on a mask to prevent his friends recognise him
B. He put on a mask for fear that his friends might recognise him
. C. He put on a mask so that his friends would recognize him
D. He put on a mask because he doesn’t want his friends to recognize him
Question 27: It rained heavily, so the football match was cancelled
A. The match was cancelled because of the heavy rain.
B. If it didn’t rain, the match wouldn’t be cancelled.
C. Despite the heavy rain the match was cancelled
D. If it hadn’t been for the heavy rain, the match wouldn’t be cancelled.
Question 28: Monica won’t tell lie for any reason
A. There’s no reason for Monica to tell lies B. On no account will Monica tell lies
C. Monica rarely tells lies for any reason D. Never has Monica told lies for any reason
Question 29: The Chinese bicycle is $100. The Japanese one is $250.
A. The Chinese bicycle is more expensive than the Japanese one.
B. The Japanese bicycle is more expensive than the Chinese one.
C. The Japanese bicycle costs less than the Chinese one.
D. The Chinese bicycle has the same price as the Japanese one.
Question 30: Tom wore so many warm clothes. This was not necessary.
A. Tom did not need to wear so many warm clothes.
B. Tom needn’t wear so many warm clothes.
C. Tom needn’t have worn so many warm clothes.
D. Tom wore so many warm clothes which was not necessary.
for each of the blanks. WHAT’S IN IT FOR ME
Students and jobseekers are keen to get onto the course or into the workplace of their choice hope that voluntary work
will help them stand out from the crowd. This chance to (31)________experience-personally and professionally-is high
on the wish list of young people. A survey carried out last year revealed that young and old alike said volunteering had
improved their lives, particularly those (32)________in conservation or heritage work. Businesses recognize its
importance and get to raise their profile in the community, while staff get a break from their daily routine to develop
“soft skill”, (33)________initiative and decision-making. One volunteering organization is conduct another survey to
find out if volunteering does make a difference in the workplace, or if it is something businesses do simply to improve
their (34)________Not only are business-sponsored placements becoming more common, the government is also
investing money and aiming to (35)________volunteers. The push is clear to make volunteering as attractive as possible
to everyone. And the more people who participate, the more act fulfils its direction of making the world a better place.
Question 31: A. gain B. achieve C. collect D. win
Question 32: A. committed B. associated C. connected D. involved
Question 33: A. such B. such and such C. such like D. such as
Question 34: A. representation B. image C. look D. figure
Question 35: A. recruit B. claim C. bring D. enter
Every year about two million people visit Mount Rushmore, were the faces of four U.S presidents were carved in granite
by sculptor Gutzon Borglum and his son, the late Lincoln Borglum. The creation of the Mount Rushmore monument
Line took 14 years – from 1927 to 1941 – and nearly a million dollars. There were times when money was difficult to
come by and many people were jobless. To move more than 400,000 tons of rock, Borglum hired laid-off workers from
the closed-down mines in the Black Hills area. He taught these men to dynamite, drill, carve, and finish the granite as
they were hanging in midair in his specially devised chairs, which had many safety features. Borglum was proud of the
fact that no workers were killed or severely injured during the years of blasting and carving.
During the carving, many changes in original design had to be made to keep the carved heads free of large fissures that
were uncovered. However, not all the cracks could be avoided, so Borglum concocted a mixture of granite dust, white
lead, and linseed oil to fill them.
Every winter, water from melting snows gets into the fissures and expands as it freezes, making the fissures bigger.
Consequently, every autumn maintenance work is done to refill the cracks. The repairers swing out in space over a 500-
foot drop and fix the monument with the same mixture that Borglum used to preserve this national monument for future
generations.
Question 36: This passage is mainly about _________
A. the visitors to the Mount Rushmore monument
B. the faces at the Mount Rushmore monument
C. the sculptor of the Mount Rushmore monument
D. the creation of the Mount Rushmore monument
Question 37: According to the passage, Borglum’s son _________
A. is dead B. was a president
C. did maintenance work D. spent a million dollars.
Question 38: The word ‘which’ is paragraph 1 refers to _________
A. granite B. these man C. chairs D. features
Question 39: The men who Borglum hired were _________
A. trained sculptors B. laid-off stone masons
C. Black Hills volunteers D. unemployed miners
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that _________
A. the heads are not as originally planned B. the workers made mistakes when blasting
C. the cracks caused serious injuries D. the designs had large fissures in them
Question 41: Borglum’s mixture for filling cracks was _________
A. very expensive B. bought at the Black Hills mines
C. invented D. uncovered during carving
Question 42: Today, Mount Rushmore needs to be _________
A. protected from air pollution B. polished for tourists
C. restored during the winter D. repaired periodically
In the late 1960’s, many people in North America turned their attention to environmental problems and new steel-and-
glass skyscrapers were widely criticized. Ecologists pointed out that a cluster of tall buildings in a city often
overburdens public transportation and parking lot capacities.
Skyscrapers are also lavish consumers, and waster, of electric power. In one recent year, the addition of 17 million square
feet of skyscraper office space in New York City raised the peak daily demand for electricity by 120,-000 kilowatts-
enough to supply the entire city of Albany, New York, for a day.
Glass-walled skyscrapers can be especially wasteful. The heat loss (or gain) through a wall of half-inch plate glass is
more than ten times that through a typical masonry wall filled with insulation board. To lessen the strain on heating and
air-conditioning equipment, builders of skyscrapers have begun to use double glazed panels of glass, and reflective
glasses coated with silver or gold mirror films that reduce glare as well as heat gain. However, mirror-walled skyscrapers
raise the temperature of the surrounding air and affect neighboring buildings.
Skyscrapers put a severe strain on a city’s sanitation facilities, too. If fully occupied, the two World Trade Center towers
in New York City would alone generate 2.25 million gallons of raw sewage each year-as much as a city the size of
Stamford, Connecticut, which has a population of more than 109,000.
Skyscrapers also interfere with television reception, block bird flyways, and obstruct air traffic. In Boston, in the late
1960’s some people even feared that shadows from skyscrapers would kill the grass on Boston Common.
Still, people continue to build skyscrapers for all the reasons that they have always built them – personal ambition, civic
pride, and the desire of owners to have the largest possible amount of rentable space.
Question 43: The main purpose of the passage is to _________
A. compare skyscrapers with other modern structures.
B. describe skyscrapers and their effects on the environment.
C. advocate the use of masonry in the construction of skyscrapers.
D. illustrate some architectural designs of skyscrapers.
Question 44: According to the passage, the attitude of many people in North America towards skyscrapers could be best
described as _________
A. unemotional B. skeptical C. critical D. bitter
Question 45: The word “overburden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________
A. overwhelm B. overload C. overachieve D. overcome
Question 46: According to the passage, what is one disadvantage of skyscrapers that have mirrored walls?
A. The exterior surrounding air is heated. B. The windows must be cleaned daily.
C. Construction time is increased. D. Extra air-conditioning equipment is needed.
Question 47: According to the passage, in the late 1960’s some residents of Boston were concerned with which aspect of
skyscrapers?
A. The noise from their construction B. The removal of trees from building sites
C. The harmful effects on the city’s grass D. The high cost of rentable office space
Question 48: The author raises issues that would most concern which of the following groups?
A. Electricians B. Environmentalists C. Aviators D. Teachers
Question 49: In which paragraph does the author compare the energy consumption of skyscrapers with that of a city?
A. paragraph 2 B. paragraph 3 C. paragraph 4 D. paragraph 5
Question 50: According to the passage, all of the following are mentioned as reasons for building skyscrapers EXCEPT
A. people’s strong desire to build high. B. people’s pride for their towns or cities
C. the greed of the owners to have more place for lease D. the need to accommodate more people.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 265 (ĐỀ SỐ 07)
Question1: A. stretch B. natural C. ancient D. question
Question2: A. decent B. recent C. celebrate D. even
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
Question3: A. marvelous B. courageous C. delicious D. religious
Question4: A. milkmaid B. rival C. title D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question5: Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual labors.
A. Many B. rural areas C. composed of D. labors
Question6: During the school year, I am not allowed to watch television when I have finished my homewok.
A. During B. to watch C. when D. homework
Question7: We have postponed to tell anyone the news until after Christmas.
A. have B. to tell C. the D. until after
Question8: The maid ________the beds every morning.
A. has B. does C. takes D. makes
Question9: Turn on the radio. I want to listen to the news________
A. report B. crash C. board D. turning
Question10: I have returned ________books I borrowed to the library.
A. all of B. most of C. all the D. all most
Question11: The plumber couldn’t remember where he’d left the box ________he kept his tools.
A. for whom B. in what C. in which D. of which
Question12: The discovery was a major ________for researchers in the field of space exploration.
A. breakdown B. breakthrough C. break-in D. Outbreak
Question13: Jane’s very modest, always ________her success.
A. pushing back B. playing down C. keeping down D. turning around
Question14: The sales assistant talked me ________buying a bottle of perfume for my wife.
A. to B. into C. onto D. over to
Question15: We don’t have to pay for the food. Everything is on the ________today.
A. house B. place C. home D. business
Question16: ________the heavy rain, the ship couldn’t reach its destination on time.
A. Because of B. In spite of C. In case of D. But for
Question17: The stones have ________buried in the sand for a thousand years.
A. lied B. lying C. laid D. lain
Question18: James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ________.
A. sensible B. insensible C. sensitive D. senseless
Question19: The students were made ________their essays.
A. rewriting B. to rewriting C. rewrite D. to rewrite
Question20: “ Would you like ti have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?” “____________”
A. I’m afraid not. B. Yes, please. C. Never mind. D. Anything will do.
Question21: A: “How many people do you want to invite to your graduation party?” B: “____________”
A. The most, the best. B. The more, the merrier. C. The many, the merrier. D. The more, the more happily.
Question22: I used to meet him regularly on Fifth Avenue.
A. one time B. in one occasion
C. once in a blue moon D. normally
Question23: According to a local newspaper, within a year the party had drastically overhauled its structure.
A. devalued B. established C. appreciated D. improved
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
Question24: The father has lost his job, so we'll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Question25: I couldn’t help laughing when he fell in the pool with all his clothes on; it was so funny!
A. couldn't assist B. couldn't resist C. couldn't face D. couldn’t stand
Question26: They haven’t finished the final test yet
A. The final test hasn’t been finished yet. B. They are not doing the final test
C. The final test will never be finished D. The final test has just been started
Question27: I advise you to send her a postcard
A. Her postcard should be sent to you. B. You’d rather I sent her a postcard
C. You’d better send her a postcard D. I am advised to send you her postcard.
Question28: If I lived in the city, I would go to the cinema every Saturday.
A. I live in the city, but I don’t go to the cinema every Saturday.
B. I don’t live in the city, but I go to the cinema every Saturday.
C. I live in the city, so I go to the cinema every Saturday.
D. I don’t live in the city; that’s why I can’t go to the cinema every Saturday.
questions.
Question29: Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer. We are overusing resources and disregarding the riches
of nature.
A. The diversity of life on Earth gets poorer every day because of our overuse of resources and disregard for the
riches of nature
B. Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer, leading to overusing resources and disregarding the riches of
nature.
C. Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer, in return for overusing resources and disregarding the riches of
nature.
D. Although we are overusing resources and disregarding the riches of nature, the diversity of life on Earth gets
poorer every day.
Question30: Many people criticized me yesterday. I objected to this.
A. I objected to many people criticized me yesterday. B. I objected to many people being criticized yesterday.
C. I did not approve of many people criticized yesterday. D. I objected to being criticized by many people yesterday.
each of the blanks.
It is a well-known fact that Japanese people have a longer life expectancy than the population of most other
countries. A (31)________report shows that the Japanese also expect to remain healthier for longer. Scientists are trying
to work out what keeps elderly Japanese people so healthy, and whether there is a lesson to be learnt from their lifestyles.
Should we (32)________any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before breakfast? Is there
some secret(33)________in the Japanese diet that is particularly beneficial for the human body? Although the prospect of
a longer , healthier life is a good thing for the individual, it can actually create a social problem. The number of people
over the age of 65 in the population has doubled in the last 50 years and that has increased pension and medical costs.
Japan could soon be (34)________an economic problem: there are more elderly people who need to be looked after. And
relatively fewer younger people working and paying taxes to support them. One solution could be to
(35)________retirement age from 65 to 70 . After all, the elderly have a great deal to contribute. If they continue to be
active in society, younger generations will have the chance to learns more from their wisdom and experience.
Question31: A. late B. recent C. morden D. contemporary
Question32: A. do B. make C. set D. give
Question33: A. ingredient B. component C. portion D. helping
Question34: A. facing B. meeting C. adopting D. encountering
Question35: A. put B. move C. rise D. raise
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Edward Patrick Francis “Eddie” Eagan (April 26, 1897-June 14, 1967), was an amateur boxing star of the early
1920s. He was born into a poor family in Denver, Colorado. His father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only a
year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign
languages.
Inspired by Frank Merriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an education for
himself as well as an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. Army
as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and, while studying there, won
the U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and
received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his Master’s Degree in 1928.
While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing championship.
Eagan won his first Olympic gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium.
Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the
sport just three weeks before the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of the four-man
bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus he became the only athlete to win gold medals at
both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
Eagan was a member of the first group of athletes inducted into the U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame in 1983. Eagan
became a respected attorney, serving as an assistant district attorney for southern New York and as chairman of the New
York State Athletic Commission (1945-51). He married soap heiress. Margaret Colgate and attained the rank of
lieutenant colonel during World War II. He died at the age of 70, in Rye, New York.
Question36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Eagan’s life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.
B. Eagan’s life shows that military experience makes athletes great.
C. Eagan’s life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.
D. Eagan’s life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports.
Question37: According to the passage, how did Eagan’s mother earn a living?
A. Renting rooms to immigrants B. Teaching foreign languages
C. Doing laundry and cleaning D. Writing fiction for women’s magazines
Question38: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?
A. A teacher at Yale B. A fictional character
C. A student at Oxford D. A bobsledder at the Olympics
Question39: The word “artillery” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. large weapons such as cannons B. small weapons such as pistols
C. shoulder weapons such as rifles D. tension weapons such as crossbows
Question40: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT ………
A. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title.
C. British amateur boxing championship D. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
Question41: According to the passage, where were the 1920 Olympic Games held?
A. In Antwerp, Belgium B. In Paris, France
C. In London, England D. In Lake Placid, New York
Question42: According to the passage, what special honor did Eagan receive in 1983?
A. He was inducted into U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame.
B. He was promoted to lieutenant colonel in the U.S. Army.
C. He received a gold medal in four-man bobsledding
D. He was appointed assistant district attorney for Southern New York.
What makes it rain? Rain falls from clouds for the same reason anything falls to Earth. The Earth’s gravity pulls it.
But every cloud is made of water droplets or ice crystals. Why doesn’t rain or snow fall constantly from all clouds? The
droplets or ice crystals in clouds are exceedingly small. The effect of gravity on them is minute. Air currents move and
lift droplets so that the net downward displacement is zero, even though the droplets are in constant motion.
Droplets and ice crystals behave somewhat like dust in the air made visible in a shaft of sunlight. To the casual
observer, dust seems to act in a totally random fashion moving about chaotically without fixed direction. But in fact
dust particles are much larger than water droplets and they finally fall. The cloud droplet of average size is only 1/2500
inch in diameter. It is so small that it would take sixteen hours to fall half a mile in perfectly still air, and it does not fall
out of moving air at all. Only when the droplet grows to a diameter of 1/125 inch or larger can it fall from the cloud. The
average raindrop contains a million times as much water as a tiny cloud droplet. The growth of a cloud droplet to a size
large enough to fall out is the cause of rain and other forms of precipitation. This important growth process is called
“coalescence”.
Question43: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The mechanics of rain. B. The climate of North America.
C. How gravity affects agriculture. D. Types of clouds.
Question44: Which of the following best replaces the word “minute” in paragraph 1?
A. second B. tiny C. slow D. predictable
Question45: What does “in constant motion” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. moving all the time B. always having feeling
C. never changing D. falling down easily
Question46: Why don’t all ice crystals in clouds immediately fall to the Earth?
A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.
B. The effect of gravity at high altitude is random.
C. They are kept aloft by air currents.
D. The heat from the Sun’s rays melts them.
Question47: What are water droplets?
A. They are ice crystals. B. They are small drops of dew.
C. They are watery fruits. D. They are animals living on ice.
Question48: What can be inferred about drops of water larger than 1/125 inch in diameter?
A. They never occur.
B. They are not affected by the force of gravity.
C. In still air they would fall to the ground.
D. In moving air they fall at a speed of thirty-two miles per hour.
Question49: What is the diameter of the average cloud droplet?
A. 1/16 inch B. 1/125 inch
C. 1/2500 inch D. one millionth of an inch
Question50: What is an example of precipitation?
A. rain B. lightening C. wind D. thunder
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 266( SỐ 08)
Question 1: A. treasure B. jealous C. clean D. cleanse
Question 2: A. launch B. fortnight C. haughty D. draughty
Question 3: A. tomorrow B. spectator C. accomplish D. overwhelm
Question 4: A. mausoleum B. coincide C. petroleum D. employee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: It is generally believed that high level of carbon emissions lead to climate change.
A. generally believed B. high level C. emissions D. to
Question 6: I was in disguise when I met them ; as the result, of course they didn’t recognise me.
A. in disguise B. as the result C. of course D. recognise
Question 7: I was discouraged to swim when I put my feet in the ice-cold water.
A. to swim B. put C. in D. ice-cold
Question 8: You’d better go to bed early, ________?
A. hadn’t you B. wouldn’t you C. didn’t you D. don’t you
Question 9: ________by his parents at an early age, Paul took to stealing.
A. Be abandoned B. Abandoned C. Having abandoned D. Abandoning
Question 10: I wonder if I ________some question for our survey
A. might ask you B. would ask you C. am able to ask D. shall ask you
Question 11: “I’ve been working with this puzzle for two hours.” “It must be a hard one _____.”
A. solve B. solved C. to solve D. solving
Question 12: Don’t worry –it’s________natural to lose your temper sometimes.
A. bitterly B. downright C. perfectly D. highly
Question 13: When he came ________all that money, he thought he would lose his mind.
A. into B. up C. round D. down
Question 14: ________you need is a good holiday.
A. What B. Why C. Which D. How
Question 15: Burglars tend to________away from buildings which are securely locked.
A. go B. shy C. move D. walk
Question 16: Contrary to expectations, South Korea________to the semi-finals of the 2002 Word Cup.
A. protected B. provided C. proclaimed D. progressed
Question 17: Jeff, the security guard at the factory, ________this robbery ________on his shift last night.
A. was wishing-hasn’t been occurring B. had wished-shoudn’t occur
C. wishes-hadn’t occurred D. wished-occurred
Question 18: ________lectures at your university?
A. haven’t students got to have attended B. needn’t students have attended
C. mustn’t students attended D. don’t students have to attend
Question 19: We went into town ________some new clothes.
A. with buying B. to have bought C. for buying D. to buy
Question 20: Nam: “How about meeting for a coffee next week?” Hai: “____________”
A. Good idea. Let’s do that B. No, thanks. C. Thank you. D. Well-done
Question 21: Laurence : “I don’t think Tim should go” Alex: ““____________”
A. Why not? He’s old enough B. Areyou ? Well, I’m not C. Should he then? D. No, he wouldn’t
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s).
Question 22: Water supply to the city and several adjacent areas remains affected by the earthquake.
A. remote B. surrounding C. suburban D. neighboring
Question 23: Computers in classrooms can have a positive impact on a child’s educational experience
A. considerable B. beneficial C. major D. harmful
Question 24: Though they were almost identical, a slight difference was noticeable.
A. similarity B. variety C. distinction D. diversity
Question 25: Reading a daily newspaper will make you aware of what is going on in the world.
A. knowledgeable about B. ignorant about C. dependent on D. blind to
Question 26: My father hasn’t smoked for two years.
A. My father started smoking two years ago. B. It’s two years since my father started smoking
C. My father gave up smoking two years ago. D. The first time my father smoked was two years ago.
Question 27: The weather is not nice today, so we will not go to the park.
A. If the weather were nice today, we’d go to the park.
B. We wouldn’t go to the park if the weather were so nice today
C. We would go to the park even if the weather were not nice today
D. The weather is bad today, but we will still go to the park
Question 28: Workers are not allowed to use the office phone for personal calls.
A. They don’t let workers use the office phone.
B. Workers are not permitted to use the office phone for personal purpose.
C. The office phone is supposed to be used by workers only.
D. They don’t allow workers to make phone calls personally.
Question 29: My parents like eating at home. They like eating out even more.
A. My parents prefer eating out to eating at home. B. My parents prefer to eat at home to eating out.
C. My parents would rather eating at home than eating out. D. My parents would rather eat at home than eat out.
Question 30: Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday. This made me surprised
A. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday, that made me surprised.
B. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday, which made me surprised.
C. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday which made me surprised.
D. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday when made me surprised.
If you’re interested in having the trip of a lifetime, but also doing something useful at the same time, then why
not try joining a Greenforce expedition as a volunteer. Greenforce, which was (31)________in 1997, is an international
research agency that gathers information about the wildlife and natural habitats in various parts of the world. There is a
qualified biologist in (32)________of each team of volunteers and these carry out surveys all year round in some of the
world’s remotest and most beautiful places. Volunteers come from all walks of life. The minimum age is 18 years, but
there is no upper age limit. No previous experience is necessary as Greenforce provides location training in animal
identification and survey methods. You’ll need to be somebody who enjoys the outdoor life, however, as working in
remote (33)________can be challenging. You’ll also need to be passionate about wildlife and prepared to learn a lot
about the place you visit. Each expedition lasts for ten weeks, and training begins in the UK with a residential weekend
where you can get a (34)________of expedition life and meet up with some of your team mates, as well as learning
about first-aid and basic survival skills. Each volunteer (35) )________£2,550 towards the cost of the expedition, but
past volunteers say it is worth every penny.
Question 31: A. brought about B. put on C. set up D. got off
Question 32: A. head B. guide C. lead D. charge
Question 33: A. residences B. positions C. resorts D. locations
Question 34: A. touch B. drop C. trial D. taste
Question 35: A. contributes B. affords C. agrees D. combines
Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that regulate the mechanisms by which the
body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with minerals, which are inorganic in their makeup.
Although in general the naming of vitamins followed the alphabetical order of their identification, the nomenclature of
individual substances may appear to be somewhat random and disorganized. Among the 13 vitamins known today, five
are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but not all vitamins, they must be
supplemented in the daily diet. Although each vitamin has its specific designation and cannot be replaced by another
compound, a lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one vitamin in a diet
is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result.
The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a balanced diet that
includes a variety of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the compounds. Some people take vitamin
supplements, predominantly in the form of tablets. The vitamins in such supplements are equivalent to those in food, but
an adult who maintains a balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recommended
only to correct an existing deficiency due to unbalanced diet, to provide vitamins known to be lacking in a restricted
diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical treatment. Specifically, caution must be exercised with fat-soluble
substances, such as vitamins A and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard over a
period of time.
Question 36: According to the passage, vitamins are
A. food particles B. essential nutrients C. miscellaneous substances D. major food groups
Question 37: How many vitamins must be derived from nourishment?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 13
Question 38: The author implies that foods
A. supply some but not all necessary vitamins B. should be fortified with all vitamins
C. are equivalent in vitamin content D. supplement some but not all necessary vitamins
Question 39: The phrase “daily diet” is closest in meaning to
A. weight loss or gain B. sufficient quantities C. nourishment intake D. vitamin tablets
Question 40: A continual lack of one vitamin in a person’s diet is
A. contagious B. desirable C. preposterous D. dangerous
Question 41: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. A varied diet needs to be supplemented with vitamins. B. An inclusive diet can provide all necessary vitamins.
C. Vitamins cannot be consistently obtained from food. D. Vitamins should come from capsules in purified form.
A. Adopting vitamins to control weight B. The individual’s diet for optimum health
C. Vitamin categorization and medical application D. The place of vitamins in nutrition
Geothermal energy is natural heat from the interior of the Earth that is converted to heat buildings and generate
electricity. The idea of harnessing Earth’s internal heat is not new. As early as 1904 , geothermal power was used in Italy
. Today, Earth’s natural internal heat is being used to generate electricity in 21 countries , including Russia, Japan, New
Zealand, Iceland, Mexico, Ethiopia, Guatemala, EI Salvador, the Philippines, and the United States .Total worldwide
production is approaching 9,000 MW (equivalent to nine large modern coal-burning or nuclear power plants)-double
the amount in 1980 .Some 40 million people today receive their electricity from geothermal energy at a cost competitive
with that of other energy sources. In EI Salvador , geothermal energy is supplying 30% of the total electric energy used.
However, at the global level, geothermal energy supplies less than 0,15%of the total energy supply.
Geothermal energy may be considered a nonrenewable energy source when rates of extraction are greater than
rates of natural replenishment. However, geothermal energy has its origin in the natural heat production within Earth ,
and only a small fraction of the vast total resource base is being utilized today. Although most geothermal energy
production involves the tapping of high heat sources, people are also using the low-temperature geothermal energy of
groundwater in some applications.
Geothermal Systems
The average heat flow from the interior of the Earth is very low, about 0,06% W/m 2.This amount is trivial
compared with the 177 W/m2from solar heat at the surface in the United States. However, in some areas, heat flow is
sufficiently high to be useful for producing energy . For the most part, areas of high heat flow are associated with plate
tectonic boundaries. Oceanic ridge systems (divergent plate boundaries) and areas where mountains are being uplifted
and volcanic island arcs are forming (convergent plate boundaries) are areas where this natural heat flow is anomalously
high. One such region is located in the western, United States, where recent tectonic and volcanic activity has occurred.
On the basis of geological criteria, several types of hot geothermal systems (with temperatures greater than about
800C , or 1760F)have been defined, and the resource base is larger than that of fossil fuels and nuclear energy combined.
A common system for energy development is hydrothermal convection, characterized by the circulation of steam and /
or hot water that transfers heat from depths to the surface.
Geothermal Energy and the Environment
The environmental impact of geothermal energy may not be as extensive as that of other sources of energy , but
it can be considerable. When geothermal energy is developed at a particular site, environmental problems include on-
site noise, emissions of gas, and disturbance of the land at drilling sites, disposal sites, roads and pipelines, and power
plants. Development of geothermal energy does not require large-scale transportation of raw materials or refining of
chemicals, as development of fossil fuels does. Furthermore, geothermal energy does not produce the atmospheric
pollutants associated with burning fossil fuels or the radioactive waste associated with nuclear energy. However,
geothermal development often does produce considerable thermal pollution from hot waste-waters, which may be saline
or highly corrosive, producing disposal and treatment problem.
Geothermal power is not very popular in some locations among some people. For instance, geothermal energy
has been produced for years on the island of Hawaii, where active volcanic processes provide abundant near surface
heat. There is controversy, however, over further exploration and development .Native Hawaiians and others have
argued that the exploration and development of geothermal energy degrade the tropical forest as developers construct
roads, build facilities , and drill wells.
In addition, religious and cultural issues in Hawaii relate to the use of geothermal energy. For example, some
people are offended by using the “breath and water of Pele” ( the volcano goddess) to make electricity. This issue points
out the importance of being sensitive to the values and cultures of the people where development is planned.
Future of Geothermal energy
At present, geothermal energy supplies only a small fraction of the electrical energy produced in the United
States. However, if developed, known geothermal resources in the United States could produce about 20,000 MW
which is about 10% of the electricity needed for the western states. Geohydrothermal resources not yet discovered could
conservatively provide four times that amounts (approximately 10% of total U.S electric capacity). About equivalent to
the electricity produced from water power today.
Question 43: What is true about geothermal energy production worldwide?
A. Because it is a new idea, very few countries are geothermal energy sources
B. Only countries in the Southern Hemisphere are using geothermal energy on a large scale
C. Until the cost of geothermal energy becomes competitive, it will not be used globally
D. Geothermal energy is already being used in a number of nations, but it is not yet a major source of power
Question 44: The word "approaching" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. hardly B. mostly C. nearly D. briefly
Question 45: The word "that" in the passage refers to
A. electricity B. cost C. energy D. people
Question 46: In paragraph 2, the author states that geothermal energy is considered a nonrenewable resource because
A. The production of geothermal energy is a natural process B. Geothermal energy comes from the Earth
C. We are not using very much geothermal energy now
D. We could use more geothermal energy than is naturally replaced
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, the heat flow necessary for the production of geothermal energy
A. Is like solar heat on the Earth’s surface B. Happens near tectonic plate boundaries
C. Must always be artificially increased D. May be impractical because of its location
Question 48: The word considerable in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. large B. dangerous C. steady D. unexpected
Question 49: In paragraph 5, the author mentions the atmospheric pollution and waste products for fossil fuel and
nuclear power
A. To introduce the discussion of pollution caused by geothermal energy development and production
B. To contrast pollution caused by fossil fuels and nuclear power with pollution caused by geothermal production
C. To argue that geothermal production does not cause pollution like other sources of energy do
D. To discourage the use of raw materials and chemicals in the production of energy because of pollution
Question 50: According to paragraph 6, the production of geothermal energy in Hawaii is controversial for all of the
following reason EXCEPT
A. The volcanoes in Hawaii could be disrupted by the rapid release of geothermal energy
B. The rainforest might be damaged during the construction of the geothermal energy plant
C. The native people are concerned that geothermal energy is disrespectful to their cultural traditions
D. Some Hawaiians oppose using geothermal energy because of their religious beliefs.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 267( - SỐ 09)
differently from others.
Question 1: A. barred B. car C. charter D. back
Question 2: A. disastrous B. association C. devastate D. cause
Question 3: A. justice B. diverse C. women D. public
Question 4: A. establish B. domestic C. activity D. education
Question 5: Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt,play and resting together.
A. Killer whales B. to wander C. clusters D. resting
Question 6: Prior to an extermination programe early in the last century, alive wolves roamed across nearly all of North
America.
A. Prior to B. early C. alive D. nearly
Question 7: The remains of Homo erectus, an extinct species of early man, was first discovered on the island of Java by
Dutch physician Eugene Debois.
A. an B. early man C. species D. was
Question 8: Can you _________ me to your parents when you next see him.
A. excuse B. remind C. remember D. forget
Question 9: Some people believe that books are _________ species, fighting for survival in competition with TV, film,
the Internet and CD.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endangered D. dangerously
Question 10: Take _________ of the chance to do some sightseeing while you are here.
A. exploit B. advantage C. benefit D. profit
Question 11: Mary was surprised when her guests_________ late for the party.
A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up
Question 12: Liam was born in Ireland, but his brother _________
A. was B. didn’t either C. wasn’t D. was neither
Question 13: The body of a fish is quite different from _________ a land animal.
A. body B. one of C. that of D. those of
Question 14: A man whom people cannot trust will have _________ friends.
A. little B. few C. a few D. a lot
Question 15: She asked for _________ these apples.
A. some more B. any more C. any more of D. some more of
Question 16: They went from one shop to _________ to buy gifts for their mother.
A. each other B. other C. the rest D. another
Question 17: A: “How _________ is your house from here?” B: “It’s about two hours by taxi.”
A. far B. long C. much D. many
Question 18: _________ rapid population increases and industrial growth, some groups of people have been able to live
in harmony with the planet.
A. although B. In spite C. Despite D. While
Question 19: Neither Canada nor Mexico requires that citizens of the United States _________ passports.
A. has B. have C. having D. will have
Question 20: A: “I have passed my driving test.” B: “_____________”
A. No worries B. Good luck C. Bad luck D. Congratulations
Question 21: A: Anything else? B: __________________
A. Right now. B. Not today, thanks. C. No, it isn’t. D. Not at all.
Question 22: The change in population distribution was barely noticeable to the demographers conducting the study.
A. often B. hardly C. never D. softly
Question 23: The cake was heavenly so I asked for more.
A. terrible B. edible C. in the sky D. cheap
Question 24: The same questions repeated over and over soon made them weary.
A. suspicious B. tired C. worried D. annoyed
Question 25: Jim's decided to buy a phonograph even though they are now redundant.
A. old-fashioned B. reproduced C. unnecessary D. expensive
Question 26: The way he kept clicking his fingers was very irritating.
A. How he clicked his fingers made me irritated.
B. I found it irritating to keep on clicking his fingers.
C. I was very irritated by the way he kept clicking his fingers.
D. His clicking fingers made me irritated.
Question 27: You can try as hard as you like but you won’t succeed.
A. However hard you try, you won’t succeed.
B. You can hardly try as you like, but you won’t succeed
C. You won’t succeed because you can’t try as hard.
D. Although you won’t succeed, you can try as hard as you like.
Question 28: If we had lost the map, we would never have found our way.
A. We will find our way unless we lose the map.
B. We didn’t lose our way because we didn’t lose the map.
C. We would have lost our way provided we had lost the map.
D. Supposing we lose the map, we would not find our way.
questions.
Question 29: Our car broke down. We missed our plane because of this.
A. It was due to the car broke down that we missed our plane.
B. It was because the car broke down that we missed our plane.
C. It is the car broke down that we missed our plane.
D. It is due to the car that broke down that we missed our plane.
Question 30: I don’t know what to do about this problem. It is a pity!
A. I wish I know what to do about this problem.
B. I wish I can solve this problem.
C. I wish I could know what to do about this problem.
D. I wish I knew what to do about this problem.
for each of the blanks.
Education was not formally integrated into the European Union policy portfolio until the 1993 Maastricht Treaty,
although the first Community legislation with an impact on the education sector was adopted as long as the 1960s. These
early (31)____________ dealt with mutual recognition of qualifications. Achieving recognition by one member state of a
qualification obtained in another was an important pre-condition for implementing the free movement of workers.
Citizens of EU (32)____________ who are students now enjoy the same rights to access to higher education in all
member states as they do in their home country, provided that they have the relevant qualifications for entry. Growing
numbers of student (33)____________ activities have been developed, of which the oldest and most famous is 1987
Erasmus program. By recognizing course credits, Erasmus (34)____________ university students to study for one year
in a different member state. A separate program, Leonardo, gives young school leavers, students and graduates the
chance to receive educational training.
Few EU initiatives enjoy (35)____________ wholehearted and widespread political support as these higher
education programs. The key issue for future initiatives is to build on this success without being over- ambitious.
Unfortunately, these programs are becoming very expensive, and this is now the primary areas of concern.
Question 31: A. rules B. directors C. laws D. policies
Question 32: A. provinces B. countries C. organizations D. agencies
Question 33: A. exchange B. change C. trade D. replace
Question 34: A. admits B. submits C. offers D. allows
Question 35: A. so a B. such a C. so D. such
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management scholars trace the
beginning of modern management thought back to the early 1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick
Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques
of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing the work of operating
employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his
philosophy and methods “scientific management’. At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity,
but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast
to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12
children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth,
hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their
1949 book called “Cheaper by the Dozen”.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras and
special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth
spelled backwards) – basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been
used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can
get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service. However, use of work
analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five work dimensions are considered: physical,
psychological, social, cultural, and power.
Question 36: The word “which” in the passage refers to
A. scientific management B. Philosophy C. productivity D. time and motion study
Question 37: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. workers welcomed the application of scientific management
B. Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms
C. by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the workplace
D. workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.
Question 38: According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate waste motion by
A. using special tools such as cameras and clocks
B. using stop watches
C. applying scientific management principles
D. watching his children do their chores
Question 39: The word “motions” is closest in meaning to
A. stop watches B. habits C. actions D. special tools
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of scientific management were often
misunderstood?
A. Lines 1-5 B. Lines 6-10 C. Lines 11-15 D. Lines 16-20
Question 41: The word “ dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
A. sizes B. extents C. aspects D. standards
Question 42: All of the following are true except
A. scientific management was concerned with productivity.
B. the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.
C. Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
D. analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the dimensions are considered.
Perhaps better known than the Cullinan Diamond is the Hope Diamond, a valuable and blue gem with a
background of more than 300 years as a world traveler.The 112-carat blue stone later became the Hope Diamond was
mined in India sometime before the middle of the seventeenth century and was first known to be owned by Shah Jahan,
who built the Taj Mahal in memory of his beloved wife. From India, the celebrated blue stone has changed hands often,
moving from location to location in distant corners of the world.
In the middle of the seventeenth century, a trader from France named Jean Baptiste Tavernier acquired the large
blue diamond, which was rumored to have been illegally removed from a temple Tavemier returned to France with the
big blue gem, where the stone was purchased by the Sun King Louis XIV. Louis XIV had it cut down from 112 to 67
carats to make its shape symmetrical and to maximize its sparkle. The newly cut diamond, still huge by any standards,
was passed down through the royal family of France, until it arrived in the hands of Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette.
During the French Revolution, Louis XVI and his wife met their fate on the guillotine in 1793, and the big blue diamond
disappeared from public sight.
The diamond somehow managed to get from France to England, where banker Henry Hope purchased it from a
gem dealer early in the nineteenth century. The huge blue stone was cut into a 45 .5-carat oval, and at this point it took on
the name by which it is known today. The diamond stayed in the Hope family for around a century, when deep
indebtedness brought on by a serious gambling habit on the part of one of Henry Hope's heirs forced the sale of the
diamond.
From England, the Hope Diamond may have made its way into the hands of the Sultan of Turkey; whatever route
it took to get there, it eventually went on to the United States when American Evelyn Walsh McLean purchased it in
1911. Mrs. McLean certainly enjoyed showing the diamond off guests in her home were sometimes astounded to notice
the huge stone embellishing the neck of Mrs . McLean’s Great Dane as the huge pet trotted around the grounds of her
Washington, D.C. home. The Hope Diamond later became the property of jeweler Harry Winston, who presented the
stunning 45.5- carat piece to the Smithsonian in 1958. The Hope Diamond is now taking a well-earned rest following its
rigorous travel itinerary and is on display at the Smithsonian Institution in Washington, D.C., where it has been since
1958.
Question 43: The paragraph preceding the passage most likely discussed
A. why gems are considered valuable B. how the Hope Diamond was mined
C. a diamond other than the Hope Diamond D. methods for mining diamonds
Question 44: The main idea of this passage is that the Hope Diamond
A. came from India B. has moved around a lot
C. has been cut several times D. now resides in the Smithsonian
Question 45: The pronoun "it" in the passage refers to
A. its shape B. the newly cut diamond
C. the royal family D. the French Revolution
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is not certain
A. who bought the Hope Diamond in England
B. who sold the Hope Diamond in England
C. how the Hope Diamond went from France to England
D. how big the Hope Diamond was in the nineteenth century
Question 47: It can be determined from the passage that Henry Hope most likely had how many carats cut off the Hope
Diamond?
A. 21.5 B. 45 C. 66.5 D. 67
Question 48: According to the passage, Mrs. McLean
A. donated the Hope Diamond to the Smithsonian
B. let her dog wear the Hope Diamond
C. purchased the Hope Diamond from the French
D. had the Hope Diamond cut to its present size of 45.5 carats
Question 49: Which country is NOT mentioned in the passage as a place where the Hope Diamond spent some time?
A. India B. France C. England D. Denmark
Question 50: Where in the passage does the author describe what happened to the royal French owners of the diamond?
A. Lines 7-8 B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-14 D. Lines 15-16
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 268 ( SỐ 10)
Question 1: A. bury B. fury C. pure D. secure
Question 2: A. sodium B. solid C. solitude D. solvent
Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of
Question 3: A. submissive B. deductive C. attentive D. relative
Question 4: A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 5: We should also take into account a fact that unemployment causes poverty.
A. also B. a C. that D. causes
Question 6: Whoever said this he must have been a liar because it is something that even a child knows to be true.
A. he must B. something C. that D. be true
Question 7: Your brother spoke in a more interesting way, even though he mentioned less details.
A. in a more B. way C. even D. less
Question 8: New tax cut is designed to make life easier for _________
A. all of poor B. most the poor C. the poor people D. the poor
Question 9: I’m sure you'll have no _________the exam.
A. difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of passing
Question 10: The safe _________of nuclear waste is a major international problem
A. disposal B. abandon C. display D. sale
Question 11: I’m afraid we can only afford to pay you a _________sum for your services.
A. nominal B. titular C. complete D. calculated
Question 12: If you don’t decrease the speed soon, you may not be able to stop_________
A. shortly B. at times C. on time D. in time
Question 13: He hasn’t tried it himself . He would like to , _________
A. although B. though C. even though D. despite
Question 14: She said that she _________to have a baby.
A. was going B. is going C. has gone D. will go
Question 15: Safety experts are trying to establish the _________of yesterday’s train crash.
A. creation B. reason C. grounds D. cause
Question 16: At the moment we’re holding on to our shares but _________in value, we would probably sell them.
A. if they were rise B. for them to rise C. unless they rose D. were they to rise
Question 17: No one should be exempt _________prosecution if they have committed a crime.
A. of B. about C. against D. from
Question 18: The ………..of food during that long winter left many families in despair.
A. scarcity B. availability C. variety D. abundance
Question 19: Peter: “Did you enjoy roller coaster ride?” Kate: “No! It was_________experience of life.”
A. The most terrifying B. far more terrifying C. the most terrified D. A most terrified
Question 20: Teacher: “It’s so far away. How do you get to school?” Boy: “_________”
A. I have no idea. B. In my neighbour’s van. C. Nothing special. D. About 7 kilometers, I think
Question 21: Host: “I’m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.” Guest: “_________”
A. It’s mine. I came late B. It’s not your fault
C. I’ll do better next time D. Fine, thanks
word (s) in the following Question .
Question 22: As all of us cannot be available today , let’s put off the discussion till later.
A. absent for the event B. scheduled for the event
C. arranged for the event D. appointed for the event
Question 23: When the rent increased from 200to200to400 a month, they protested against such a tremendous increase.
A. slight B. difficult C. huge D. numerous
Question 24: If you build a structure next to this river, you must be sure it is safe against floods.
A. hut B. sentence C. pattern D. building
Question 25: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art D. a large work of art
Question 26: He didn’t hurry so he missed the plane.
A. If he hurried he wouldn’t miss the plane. B. If he had hurried he might catch the plane.
C. If he had hurried he could have caught the plane. D. He didn’t miss the plane because he hurried.
Question 27: They are building a new school in the village.
A. A new school has been built in the village.
B. The building of a new school in the village has just finished.
C. A new school is built in the village.
D. A new school is being built in the village.
Question 28: This conference wouldn’t have been possible without your organization
A. If you didn’t organize, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
B. If it had been for your organization, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
C. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
D. It’s possible that your organization made this conference impossible.
Question 29: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it was an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 30: I understand why you detest her. I’ve finally met her.
A. I understand why you don’t like her due to I’ve lastly met her.
B. Now that I have finally met her, I understand why you hate her.
C. I met her and I know your feeling.
D. Since I finally met her, I understand why you like her.
Tourism is the fastest-growing industry in the world. As well as bringing prosperity to an area, however, it can also
destroy the qualities which (31)________visitors in the first place. If it is not carefully controlled, tourism can also create
problems for local people, as is shown by various examples from around the world. When Phuket in Thailand first
became a popular tourist (32)________, people there were unable to cope with the increase in rubbish that 2 million
visitors a year produce and a huge incinerator had to be built in the countryside to deal with it. New hotels at Goa in
India caused a huge increase in water consumption, (33)________many local people to walk considerable distances to
get clean water. And Egypt’s desert landscapes are being destroyed by the litter (34 )________by tourists. Moving sands
are difficult to clean, and the white desert to the west of the Nile Valley may be permanently affected. It’s encouraging,
therefore, to read about the efforts of certain tour companies who are organising environmental holidays in some of the
worst hit areas. Regular tours now go to places (35)________the Himalayas and Atlas mountains in North Africa with
the aim of combining a bit of sightseeing with the chance to help clear up some of the mess left by previous visitors.
Question 31: A. convinced B. persuaded C. attracted D. appealed
Question 32: A. position B. destination C. terminus D. departure
Question 33: A. encouraging B. making C. forcing D. urging
Question 34: A. dropped B. sunk C. lowered D. fallen
Question 35: A. as well as B. as for C. such as D. so as to
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.
Children learn to construct language from those around them. Until about the age of three, children tend to learn to
develop their language by modeling the speech of their parents, but from that time on, peers have a growing influence as
models for language development in children. It is easy to observe that, when adults and older children interact with
younger children, they tend to modify their language to improve children communication with younger children, and this
modified language is called caretaker speech.
Caretaker speech is used often quite unconsciously; few people actually study how to modify language when
speaking to young children but, instead, without thinking, find ways to reduce the complexity of language in order to
communicate effectively with young children. A caretaker will unconsciously speak in one way with adults and in a very
different way with young children. Caretaker speech tends to be slower speech with short, simple words and sentences
which are said in a higher-pitched voice with exaggerated inflections and many repetitions of essential information. It is
not limited to what is commonly called baby talk, which generally refers to the use of simplified, repeated syllable
expressions, such as ma-ma, boo-boo, bye-bye, wa-wa, but also includes the simplified sentence structures repeated in
sing-song inflections. Examples of these are expressions such as “ say bye-bye” or “where’s da-da?”
Caretaker speech serves the very important function of allowing young children to acquire language more easily.
The higher-pitched voice and the exaggerated inflections tend to focus the small child on what the caretaker is saying, the
simplified words and sentences make it easier for the small child to begin to comprehended, and the repetitions reinforce
the child’s developing understanding. Then, as a child’s speech develops, caretakers tend to adjust their language in the
response to the improved language skills, again quite unconsciously. Parents and older children regularly adjust their
speed to a level that is slightly above that of a younger child; without studied recognition of what they are doing, these
caretakers will speak in one way to a one-year-ago and in a progressively more complex way as the child reaches the age
of two or three.
An important point to note is that the function covered by caretaker speech, that of assisting a child to acquire
language in small and simple steps, is an unconsciously used but extremely important part of the process of language
acquisition and as such is quite universal. It is not merely a device used by English-speaking parents. Studying cultures
where children do not acquire language through caretaker speech is difficult because such cultures are not difficult to
find. The question of why caretaker speech is universal is not clear understood; instead proponents on either side of the
nature vs. nature debate argue over whether caretaker speech is a natural function or a learned one. Those who believe
that caretaker speech is a natural and inherent function in humans believe that it is human nature for children to acquire
language and for those around them to encourage their language acquisition naturally; the presence of a child is itself a
natural stimulus that increases the rate of caretaker speech develops through nurturing rather than nature argue that a
person who is attempting to communicate with a child will learn by trying out different ways of communicating to
determine which is the most effective from the reactions to the communication attempts; apparent might, for example,
learn to use speech with exaggerated inflections with a small child because the exaggerated inflections do a better job of
attracting the child’s attention than do more subtle inflections. Whether caretaker speech results from nature or nurture, it
does play an important and universal role in child language acquisition.
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, children over the age of three ………
A. Learn little language from those around them
B. Are no longer influenced by the language of their parents
C. Are influenced more and more by those closer to their own age
D. First begin to respond to caretaker speech
Question 37: The word “modeling” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by………
A. demonstrating B. mimicking C. building D. designing
Question 38: It can be inferred from part.2 that people generally seem………….
A. To be able to adapt their language to the level of a child’s language without thinking consciously about it
B. Quite aware of the use of caretaker speech
C. To have difficulty using caretaker speech
D. To use caretaker speech conscious by reducing the complexity of their language
Question 39: All of the following are mentioned in par.3 as characteristics of caretaker speech EXCEPT………..
A. Overemphasized inflections B. The use of rhyming sounds
C. The tendency to repeat oneself D. The use of easier words and structures
Question 40: It is indicated in paragraph 3 that parents tend to…………
A. Speak in basically the same way to a one-year-old and a three-year-old
B. Use language that is far above the language level of a child
C. Speak in a progressively less complex way as a child matures
D. Modify their speech according to the language development of a child
Question 41: The word “reaches” in paragraph 3 could best replaced by ……….
A. holds on to B. takes charge of C. arrives at D. extends out to
Question 42: The word “that” in par.4 refers to………….
A. an important point B. the function C. caretaker speech D. a child
Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult
to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable.
Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause
hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by product of our advancing technology
causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore,
always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises
instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat
and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in
functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist
even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same way that
we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than
an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to
the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America’s number one
nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise
as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal
problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and
anxiety increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as
the way that we interact with each other.
Question 43: Which of the following is the author’s main point?
A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 44: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. Unwanted sound B. A by-product of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm D. Congestion
Question 45: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. It causes hearing loss. B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
C. It is unwanted D. People become accustomed to it
Question 46: The word "congested" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by …………..
A. hazardous B. polluted C. crowded D. rushed
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye…………….
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
Question 48: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to……..
A. annoyance B. disease C. damage D. danger
Question 49: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to…………
A. the noise B. the quality of life C. advancing technology D. a by-product
Question 50: With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?
A. Noise is not a serious problem today B. Noise is America’s number one problem
C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society D. Noise is a complex problem
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 269 (SỐ 11)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from others.
Question 1: A. sorry B. correct C. commit D. corrupt
Question 2: A. dessert B. dissolve C. possess D. assist
Question 3: A. physical B. musical C. possible D. domestic
Question 4: A. alive B. ancient C. central D. vacant
Question 5: I’d like to see him in my office the moment he will arrive.
A. to see B. in C. office D. will arrive
Question 6: She wishes we didn't send her the candy yesterday because she's on a diet
A. didn't send B. candy C. because D. on a
Question 7: You needn’t give me any more advices because, from now on, I can cope with it on my own.
A. needn't B. advices C. now on D. with it
Question 8: The press puts ________on the police forces who were unable to cope with the crowd of savage hooligans.
A. blame B. charge C. fault D. guilt
Question 9: Can you hear the wind? It’s blowing a ________!
A. drizzle B. gale C. breeze D. gust
Question 10: Our team was losing but we managed to ________ the score
A. get B. notice C. even D. have
Question 11: My mother told me to ________for an electrician when her fan was out of order.
A. send B. write C. rent D. turn
Question 12: I ________this letter around for days without looking at it.
A. carry B. must carry C. have been carrying D. am carrying
Question 13: We bought our father a beautiful set of golf ________for his birthday.
A. racquets B. bats C. clubs D. shoes
Question 14: My son dropped ________college and joined the army.
A. away from B. out of C. off D. by
Question 15: We ________with a swim in the lake.
A. gave in B. took up C. got out D. cooled off
Question 16: The summer course in English ________conversation, grammar and listening classes.
A. contains B. concludes C. consists D. comprises
Question 17: According to a recent survey, most people are________their neighbors.
A. acquaintance with B. on good terms with C. on good relationships with D. in
relation to
Question 18: My________was right. The result of the game was exactly what I said it would be.
A. expectation B. prediction C. prospect D. outlook
Question 19: Unemployment is on the rise again, which means that good jobs are ________
A. far and away B. far from it C. as far as they go D. few and far between
Question 20: Mai: “We’re going to have a few friends over on Wednesday and I’d love you to come.”
A. Not Wednesday again.
B. Sorry. I’ve already made plans for Wednesday.
C. I’m busy on Wednesday.
D. Can I come another day?
Question 21: Alice: “Well, the chicken is delicious.” Nike: “________”
A. I cooked it. B. The chicken is mine.
C. Thank you. I’m glad you like it. D. You’re go nice.
Question 22: Harry displays enthusiasm whenever he is posed with a problem.
A. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness
Question 23: The Civil War created feverish manufacturing activity to supply crucial material, especially in the North.
A. extremely rapid B. slow C. very dangerous D. understandable
Question 24: Earthquakes are regarded as one of most devastating forces known to man.
A. terrifying B. mysterious C. fascinating D. destructive
Question 25: The recycling of aluminum converses ninety percent of the energy needed to make new metal.
A. cleaning B. crushing C. reselling D. reprocessing
Question 26: The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected.
A. The concert was as good as we had thought.
B. We expected the concert to be worse.
C. We thought the concert would be much better.
D. The concert was thought to be good.
Question 27: Please don’t ask her to the party.
A. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party.
C. Please don’t ask her about the party. D. You ask her to the party, don’t you?
Question 28: She broke down the moment she heard the news.
A. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news.
B. On hearing the news, she broke down.
C. She broke her leg when hearing the news.
D. When she heard the news, she was sick.
questions.
Question 29: Sam was all ready to leave the office. The phone rang.
A. Sam was on the point of leaving the office when the phone rang.
B. Sam was bound to leave the office when the phone rang.
C. Sam was about to leave the office then the phone rang.
D. Sam was leaving the office as soon as the phone rang.
Question 30: She keeps disagreeing with her boss. She’s likely to lose her job.
A. When she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she may get sacked from her job.
B. Although she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she’s in danger of being fired from her job.
C. She may have lost her job if she keeps disagreeing with her boss.
D. If she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she’s in danger of getting dismissed from her job.
each of the blanks.
TRAVEL TIPS
Travelling abroad is getting easier and easier for young people nowadays. If you take the time to talk to travel (31)
________and shop around, some really good deals can be found. Eurorail and Interail are two travel cards which allow
people aged 20 or under, unlimited travel in Europe, mainly by train. It’s quite a good idea to plan your route before you
set off. Most young travelers stay on campsites or in youth (32) ________, as they are quite cheap. Unbelievable bargains
can be found by making last-minute bookings for charter flights. Remember to check in with your luggage two hours
before (33) ________for international flights. But don’t take too much with you or you won’t be able to carry it to the bus
or taxi that will take you to your hotel. It is advisable to carry traveler’s (34) ________rather than cash, and keep them in
a money belt around your waist. Look after your passport and tickets carefully. If disaster strikes and all your valuables
are stolen, contact your nearest (35) ________ there they’ll help you with all the paperwork and make sure you get home
safely.
Question 31: A. officers B. agents C. guides D. representatives
Question 32: A. hostels B. villas C. hotels D. apartments
Question 33: A. lift-out B. lifting C. take-off D. departing
Question 34: A. cheques B. receipts C. bills D. notes
Question 35: A. council B. bureau C. ambassador D. embassy
Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among them
is his moving “I Have A Dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called,
was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather, the Reverend A.D.
Williams, purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The Reverend Williams,
an eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many people’s lives centered around the church.
He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the
education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community
gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the
second of three children, and he attended all-black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor,
however. Auburn Avenue was the main artery through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize
achievement for Atlanta’s black people. It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors,
lawyers, and other black-owner, black-operated businesses, and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the
district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice
that was a seemingly insurmountable barrier that kept black Atlanta from mingling with whites.
Question 36: What is this passage mainly about?
A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King’s childhood
C. Martin Luther King’s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up in
Question 37: The word “gathering” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. picking B. learning C. exciting D. meeting
Question 38: According to the author, King was influenced by
A. community spirit. B. black lawyers. C. his mother D. his speeches
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. achievement B. neighborhood C. segregation D. services
Question 40: According to the author, blacks in King’s neighborhood were involved in all the following businesses and
services EXCEPT.
A. dentistry B. medicine C. law D. banking
Question 41: The word “tailors” in paragraph 2 describes people who are associated with which of the following trades?
A. flower arranging B. shoe making C. garment making D. book binding
Question 42: According to the author, M.L.
A. had a difficult childhood B. was a good musician as a child.
C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta.
There is substantial evidence that students going off to college have changed over the years. For one thing, studies
show that they are emotionally closer to their parents and their parents to them. One thing that means is that they depend
on each other more for happiness. It puts a burden on children for parents to use their children as vehicles for their own
happiness- although today’s young people seem complicit in this arrangement, perhaps because they’ve known no other
way-even if it creates anxiety in the children. That’s one reason parents like to be involved in their children’s college
experiences, and colleges have had to devise novel ways of getting parents off campus when they transport their kids to
school.
There’s also evidence that students today seem to be choosing schools with reference to proximity to home. The
closer a student is to home, the easier it is to bring the laundry home and to land in your old bed with tea and sympathy
when you have the sniffles. And the easier it is for parents to visit you at university whenever the mood strikes. The
amount of visiting parents do is far more than in generations past.
But in a real sense, students don’t really leave their parents behind. Their parents go to college right along with
them - in their front pockets. That is, the parents are a speed dial away by cell phone. This, of course, significantly reduces
independence. A student doesn’t get the chance to solve minor problems on his own - he just calls Mom or Dad. A student
has initial problems getting along with a roommate? A roommate doesn’t do laundry as often as the other roommate
wishes? A student gets a C grade on her first paper? Instead of absorbing the negative information and figuring out how to
resolve the problem or how to do better, the call gets made to home, where Mom or Dad solves the problem, often by
calling the school administration. This kind of behavior is, sadly, commonplace today and is a mark of the lack of coping
skills among students because all the lumps and bumps have been taken out of life for them until now.
In addition to being tethered to parents, incoming freshmen are now very heavily connected by cell phone to
classmates from high school, who are presumably at other colleges. So there isn’t the great impetus to mix and venture
forth to meet new people, to get out of one’s comfort zone, to get drawn into new experiences, that has traditionally
marked the beginning of freshman year. The laws of physics still apply, and it is difficult to be meeting new people and
seeking novel experiences while you are talking to your old pals.
Question 43: The provision of mobile phones for children, according to the author, _________.
A. reduces children’s dependence on their parents B. increases positive control by parents
C. decreases parental interference D. increases children’s dependence
Question 44: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that children and their parents _________.
A. emotionally need each other B. only temporarily depend on each other
C. emotionally and physically depend on each other D. eternally depend on each other
Question 45: The author remarks that students nowadays tend to _________.
A. refuse to go to a college that is far from home B. go to college to satisfy their parents’ wish
C. choose an institution that is close to their home D. choose a foreign institution rather than a domestic one
Question 46: Parents like to be involved in their children’s college experiences because
A. they are worried about the school’s carelessness B. the school often neglects their children
C. they are afraid of being deprived of happiness D. they find their children a source of happiness
Question 47: The word “vehicles” in the first paragraph may be replaced by _________.
A. means B. methods C. ways D. instruments
Question 48: Colleges have had to devise ways of getting parents off campus because _________.
A. children want complete freedom from their parents’ control
B. the colleges want to keep parents in the dark about their activities
C. parents tend to get more involved in their children’s schoolwork
D. teachers themselves do not want to share information with the parents
Question 49: By quoting the laws of physics, the author implies that _________.
A. one should study physics whenever possible B. one should never forget old relationships
C. one should only care about new relationships D. one should build more relationships
Question 50: “Cutting the Apron Strings”, the title of the passage, can be interpreted as _________.
A. parting with old relationships B. being financially independent
C. standing on your own feet D. looking for your own devices
Question 1: A. cholera B. character C. charcoal D. mechanic
Question 2: A. apple B. any C. applicant D. absent
Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of the
Question 3: A. expression B. vegetable C. instruction D. promotion
Question 4: A. discard B. suspect C. accuse D. sentence
Question 5: Had I been interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it.
A. Had I B. in C. try to learn D. about
Question 6: Tim is different from John in that the first is smart and the latter rather unintelligent.
A. from B. the first C. and D. latter rather
Question 7: Because the high risk of the fire during the drought, the officials ordered that no outside fire of any sort could
be set.
A. Because B. during C. ordered D. be set
Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word from the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D)
choose the one that best completes the sentence.
Question 8: A pet could_________a very special purpose in our life, as a companion.
A. build B. define C. serve D. form
Question 9: What _________at 10 o’clock last night?
A. have you done B. were you doing C. have you been doing D. had you done
Question 10: Their army invaded the neighbouring country’s _________
A. territory B. region C. site D. district
Question 11: Greg has, to all intents and _________, finished his degree course, with the exception of his final
dissertation.
A. reasons B. purposes C. aims D. proposals
Question 12: At _________time did I ever promise you a pay rise.
A. some B. all C. any D. no
Question 13: The young man objects _________to do all the work himself.
A. to being asked B. to asking C. being asked D. on being asked
Question 14: A young tourist has been declared _________after he got lost in the mountains last Monday
A. absent B. deserter C. vanished D. missing
Question 15: She got the highest marks in all the tests, which was not surprising because she was always the most
_________student.
A. industrial B. industry C. industrialized D. industrious
Question 16: Tristan felt _________to help Louise, because he had received so much assistance from her in the past.
A. necessary B. impressed C. voluntary D. obliged
Question 17: Young children need nutritious food if they are to grow up _________.
A. strong and healthy B. strongly and healthily C. strongly and health D. strong and healthily
Question 18: The woman looked _________the photos carefully to identify the pickpocket, but there were so many that it
was soon hard to distinguish one_________another.
A. at-of B. in-onto C. for-with D. over-from
Question 19: Derek was wearing _________at the party.
A. the most ridiculous wide, yellow, silk tie B. very ridiculous wide, yellow, silk tie
C. a tie, yellow, wide and ridiculous D. a yellow, silk ridiculous tie
Question 20: Mike : “I still can’t get used to it” Jane: “_________”
A. You’re hopeless. B. You’re welcome.
C. It was nice of you. D. Sounds easy enough.
Question 21: Jack accidentally spilt coffee over Jenny’s dress in a buffet.Jack: “Forgive me. I’m terribly sorry about the
dress.”Janny: “_________”
A. I see what you mean. B. That’s quite all right.
C. You’re welcome. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 22: In about one-third of all cases of hepatitis B, it is unknown how the patient contracted the virus
A. .became smaller with B. Spread
C. got rid of D. became infected with
Question 23: If we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes, speaking a language other than ours, and
carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we understood his thoughts.
A. improper B. familiar C. outdoor D. formal
Question 24: It has rained so much, the ground is now saturated with water.
A. drained B. soaked C. empty of D. absorbed
Question 25: The two scientists are contemporaries. Both of them are in their late 40s.
A. familiar with each other B. equally capable
C. defeated to each other D. living in the same time period
Question 26: That smoking has a bad effect on our health has been proved.
A. That smoking, which has bad effect on our health, has been proved.
B. It has been proved that smoking is harmful for our health.
C. Smoking badly affects our health is true.
D. That bad effect of smoking on our health has been proved.
Question 27: It’s the first time I’ve been to a flower show.
A. I haven’t been to a flower show for years. B. It’s the first time I’ve seen so many flowers.
C. I haven’t been to a flower show before. D. This is the first flower show I know.
Question 28: His comment bears little relation to the topic
A. His comment is close to the topic B. His comment is directly to the point.
C. His comment and the topic are not the same. D. What he said is irrelevant to the topic.
questions.
Question 29: Alex bought the big house. He wanted to open a restaurant
A. Alex bought the big house although he wanted to open a restaurant.
B. Alex bought the big house with a view to opening a restaurant.
C. Alex bought the big house in order to want to open a restaurant.
D. Alex bought the house as long as he wanted to open a restaurant.
Question 30: The artist attempted to vivify the painting. The artist added people dressed in bright colors in the
foreground.
A. Vivifying the painting, the artist added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.
B. The artist attempted to vivify the painting because he added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.
C. The artist attempted to vivify the painting by adding people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.
D. Whereas the artist attempted to vivify the painting, he added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.
Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that you think
fits best. THE VIDEO LOGGERS
One rather unlike word that has recently entered the language is “blog”, a shortened form of “web log”. A blog is a diary
on the Internet by the person writing it – the “blogger” – who presumably expect other people to read it. Modern
technology is being used to (31)________new life into such an old-fashioned form as the personal journal. And now, as
the technology behind video camera is making them easier to use, we have the video log, or “vlog”. Vlogging does not
require (32)________sophisticated equipment: a digital video camera, a high-speed Internet connection and a host are all
that is needed. Vloggers can put anything that takes their fancy onto their personal web site. Some vloggers have no
ambition (33)________than to show films they have shot while on holiday in exotic places. However, vlogs can also serve
more ambitious purposes. For instance, amateur film-makers who want to make a (34 )________for themselves might
publish their work on the Internet, eager to receive advice or criticism. And increasingly, vlogs are being used to publicize
political and social issues that are not noteworthy enough to earn coverage by the mass media. It is still too early to predict
whether vlogging will ever (35)________off in a major way or if it is just a passing fad, but its potential is only now
becoming apparent.
Question 31: A. add B. inhale C. insert D. breathe
Question 32: A. absolutely B. highly C. utterly D. largely
Question 33: A. except B. other C. rather D. apart
Question 34: A. name B. fame C. publicity D. promotion
Question 35: A. fly B. take C. show D. make
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as
choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists
who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they
are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are
several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.
Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the
problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of
each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative
importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest
number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique
advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits
people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people
can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a
large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question “What
will I do after graduation?” A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree,
or travel abroad for a year.
A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is
important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often
involve a different decision from short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the
question above to “What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?”
A. A tool to assist in making complex decisions. B. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions.
C. Research on how people make decisions. D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making.
Question 37: The word “essential” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. introductory B. changeable C. beneficial D. fundamental
Question 38: Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?
A. Listing the consequences of each solution B. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution.
C. Deciding which consequences are most important. D. Writing down all possible solutions.
Question 39: According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that.
A. has the fewest variables to consider B. uses the most decision worksheets
C. has the most points assigned to it D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people
Question 40: The author states in paragraph 3 that “On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds
at once” to explain that
A. most decisions involve seven steps B. human mental capacity has limitations
C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions
D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice.
Question 41: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Proponents (para.1) B. Optimal (para.1)
C. Variables (para.3) D. Long-range goals (para.4)
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. worksheet B. problem C. distinction D. decision
The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the United States since 1900.
On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the “ horseless carriages”. It was opening day and the first
opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to large crowd; however, the black-tie audience treated the
occasion more as a social affair than as sales extravaganza. It was also on the first day of this show that William Mckinley
became the first U.S Present to ride in a car.
The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs to Germany. Nikolaus Otto built the
first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876. Then, German engineer Karl Benz built what are regarded as the
first modern automobiles in the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered the merchandising of the automobile. The
auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public excited about automotive products.
By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire car population of the United
States at that time. In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn carriages provided the prime
means of personal transportation. Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United States in 1900, and only a quarter
of those were gasoline powered. The rest ran on steam or electricity.
After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show’s audience favored electric cars because they were quiet.
The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from streamers, and the gasoline-powered cars produced smelly fumes.
The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto industry in 1895, offered a fragrant additive
designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that is burned. Many of the 1900 models were cumbersome – the Gas mobile,
the Franklin, and the Orient, for example, steered with a tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel. None of them
was equipped with an automatic starter.
These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable. They were basically toys of the
well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton University and later President of the United States,
predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and the poor. However, among the exhibitors at the
1900 show was a young engineer named Henry Ford. The cars he exhibited at the 1900 show apparently attracted no
special notice. But before the end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile industry with his Model T Ford.
The Model T, first produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a steamlined method of production – the
assembly line. Its lower costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from 1,000 dollars to 1,500 dollars, or roughly 14,000 dollars to 21,000 in
today’s prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than 300 dollars , and soon the price would drop even further. “I
will build cars for the multiudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 43: The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show primarily as a(n)
A. formal social occasion B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices.
C. opportunity to learn how to drive. D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers.
Question 44: According to the passage, who developed the first modern car ?
A. Karl Benz B. Nikolaus Otto C. William McKinley D. Henry Ford
Question 45: Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900 ?
A. 4,000 B. 8,000 C. 10 million D. An unknown number
Question 46: Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline powered?
A. 32 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
Question 47: According to the passage, people at the 1900 National Automobile Show favored cars powered by
A. electricity B. naphtha C. gasoline D. steam
Question 48: The purpose of the additive mentioned in paragraph 4 was to
A. increase the speed of cars B. make engines run more efficiently
C. hide strong smells D. make cars look better
Question 49: The word well-to-do in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. good condition B. rich C. obedient children D. good-natured people
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather than with a steering
wheel ?
A. a Franklin B. a Duryea C. an Orient D. a Gasmobile
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 271( SỐ 13)
Question 1: A. flown B. brown C. crown D. frown
Question 2: A. swear B. spear C. hare D. bear
Question 3: A. machine B. memory C. ceiling D. cottage
Question 4: A. attack B. forever C. supply D. military
Question 5: A schedule of the day’s events can obtain at the front desk.
A. A schedule B. day’s C. obtain D. the front desk
Question 6: Medical research indicates that large amount of histamine can be responsible for colds, hay fever, and other
respiratory reactions.
A. amount B. can C. colds D. respiratory
Question 7: A lot of ancient paintings and sculptures can be found in this museum but there are a few works of Hugo
because he is relatively unknown in this country.
A. ancient B. sculptures C. a few D. he is
Question 8: Almost one hundred people have died as a direct result of food _______ in the capital.
A. lacking B. shortage C. desire D. famine
Question 9: By _______ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.
A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making
Question 10: Although this is far from certain, the _______ age of the universe is about 4.6 billion years.
A. approximate B. general C. near D. rough
Question 11: I got some bread at a _______.
A. jewelry B. boutique C. bakery D. drugstore
Question 12: The salary they offered me exceeded my wildlest _______!
A. expecting B. expectations C. expect D. expectant
Question 13: Michael was a terrible _______ , he was even afraid to stay at home alone.
A. culprit B. boaster C. fiance' D. coward
Question 14: Because she is so voluble, she has no trouble meeting new people or talking ________ a crowd
A. on behalf of B. in favour of C. in front of D. in aid of
Question 15: _______ , it would have been a super weekend.
A. If it were nice weather B. But for the weather
C. If the weather hadn’t been nice D. Had it been the weather
Question 16: We have invested _______ sums of money in improving our equipment.
A. expanding B. even more greater C. ever- increasing D. large amounts of
Question 17: It took my sister some time to get used to living on an island, but _______ she began to like it.
A. initially B. instantly C. eventually D. constantly
Question 18: I _______ the result tomorrow. As soon as I hear, I_______ you.
A. am going to know/will tell B. will know/tell C. will know/tell D. am going to know/tell
Question 19: My parents don’t like politics, and ______
A. I don’t neither B. neither do I C. so do I D. I don’t, too
Question 20: "Good bye, Susie!" “___________”
A. So so B. The same C. Yeah D. So long
Question 21: Jack: “I think listening to music while learning is good.” Janny: “_______”
A. Sorry, but I am not in agreement with you B. I'm sorry I couldn't agree more.
C. Me neither D. I don't agree. You can say that again.
Question 22: Physical and mental strength must be the decisive factors in the success of any sportsmen.
A. main B. unimportant C. initiative D. last
Question 23: Ten prisoners were released last week after their 5-year imprisonment.
A. killed B. arrested C. freed D. jailed
Question 24: Every time he opens his mouth, he immedieately regrets what he said. He's always putting his foot in his
mouth.
A. speaking indirectly B. making a mistake
C. doing things in the wrong order D. saying embarrassing things
Question 25: Petra had to abandon the idea of completing her university degree in two years instead of four.
A. return to often B. give up C. approve of D. transform quickly
Question 26: We don’t care whether Nick leaves or stays
A. We don’t want Nick to leave or stay
B. Whether Nick leaves or stays is important to us
C. We don’t know whether Nick wants to leave or stay
D. It makes no difference to us whether Nick leaves or stays
Question 27: Tim never considered the possibility of studying abroad
A. Tim never thought he couldn’t study abroad
B. It occurred to Tim that he would think of studying abroad
C. It never crossed Tim’s mind that he could study abroad
D. There was no possibility of Tim studying abroad
Question 28: Please don’t say things like that.
A. Stop saying things like that. B. I wish you wouldn’t say things like that.
C. I would rather not say things like that. D. You mightn’t say things like that.
Question 29: We never eat candy or ice cream. We do drink soda
A. Although we never eat candy or ice cream, we do drink soda
B. Because we never eat candy or ice cream, we drink soda
C. We never eat candy or ice cream if we do drink soda
D. We never eat candy or ice cream and drink soda
Question 30: She didn’t want to leave the room. She was afraid that she would miss the beginning of the film.
A. She didn’t want to leave the room because she missed the beginning of the film.
B. She didn’t want to leave the room for fear that missing the beginning of the film
C. She didn’t want to leave the room for fear of missing the beginning of the film
D. She didn’t want to leave the room so that she would miss the beginning of the film
Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that you think
fits best. CRITICISM
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be
(31) _______ of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something
negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (32) _______ to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let
the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your target and let constructive criticism have a positive (33)
_______ on your work. If someone says you’re totally lacking in talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If,
however, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (34) _______
their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work. There are many famous novelists who
made a complete mess of their first novel - or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before
they could get it published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (35)
_______ well if you persevere(in/ at/ with: kiên nhẫn) and stay positive.
Question 31: A. clever B. aware C. kept in mind D. intelligent
Question 32: A. thought B. decision C. idea D. mind
Question 33: A. effect B. change C. affect D. result
Question 34: A. reckon B. consider C. cautious D. remember
Question 35: A. get out B. carry out C. turn out D. bring out
The pain of a migraine headache can virtually disable a person who suffers from it. Millions and millions of people
suffer from migraines, although many of them do not even recognize that a migraine is different from a regular headache.
A migraine is not at all the same as a normal headache, and it seems to have a very physical cause.
One symptom of a migraine is a precursor, which is a visual aura before an attack. Yet only about a third of patients
actually experience that, and it is therefore not a requirement in the diagnosis. Other symptoms include increased pain
when a person moves, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. Scientists now believe that migraines are caused, not by
abnormal blood vessels as previously believed, but instead by a unique electrical disorder of brain cells. Physicians used
to treat migraines with medicine to constrict blood vessels because of the belief that dilated blood vessels were the cause.
The new research has been enhanced by imaging devices that allow scientists to watch patients' brains during an
attack. The results show that sufferers have abnormally excitable neurons, or brain nerve cells. Prior to the attack, the
neurons suddenly fire off electrical pulses at the back of the brain, which ripple like waves on a lake after a stone hits the
water. They ripple across the top and then the back of the brain, ultimately affecting the brain stem where the pain centers
are located. The pain then generates possibly from the brain stem itself or from blood vessels inflamed by the rapidly
changing blood flow, or perhaps from both.
Scientists have experimented by applying a powerful magnet to stimulate the neurons and discovered that some
people's brains react differently than others'. When stimulation was applied to the brains of people who had suffered
migraines, they saw the initial aura, and some actually suffered migraines. When the same stimulation was applied to the
brains of people who had never suffered migraines, they realized no effect and the neurons showed no change.
Scientists and doctors continue to work on the research in an attempt to find the perfect treatment. It is considered
important to treat migraines because it is believed that prolonged untreated attacks could cause physical changes in the
brain leading to chronic pain.
Question 36: The author implies that a migraine
A. is just a strong headache. B. can be treated with regular aspirin.
C. is caused by the same things that cause a headache D. has a specific scientific cause, unlike a headache.
Question 37: The word “it “ in paragraph 1 refers to
A. pain B. migraine C. person D. suffering
Question 38: The prior treatment for migraines included medicine that
A. eliminated any pain. B. tightened blood vessels C. eliminated the aura. D. eliminated stress.
Question 39: The word enhanced in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. hindered B. augmented C. described D. studied
Question 40: The new research indicates that the neurons in the brain of migraine sufferers
A. have more electrical charge than those of people who do not suffer migraines.
B. tend to fire in an unusual pattern when a migraine begins.
C. do not react.
D. have no effect on migraines
Question 41: According to the passage, now that scientists know that unusual neurons in certain people are the cause of
migraines, they
A. know all they need to know about the cause of migraines.
B. have developed medicine to permanently reverse the neurons' charge.
C. still do not know exactly what causes the pain.
D. know that the defective neurons reside in the brain stem.
Question 42: The best title for this passage would be what?
A. Imaging As a Means of Studying Migraines
B. How Migraines and Headaches are Different
C. New Evidence of How Migraines Are Formed
D. New Treatments for Migraines
Line Europeans who arrived in the Americas, the first American Indians were immigrants. Because Indians were
nomadic hunters and gatherers, they probably arrived in search of new hunting grounds from Asia when they crossed the
ice-covered Bering Strait to Alaska. Anthropologists estimate that the entire Indian population north of Mexico was
slightly greater than 1,020,000 when the first settlers arrived from Europe. Although Native Americans belonged to one
geographic race, their cultures and languages were only marginally similar, and by and large, they had different ways of
life. Nomadic migrations required Indians to construct shelters that did not need to be transported, but could be easily
erected from the materials found in their new location.
Eastern Woodland Indian tribes lived in bark-covered wigwams that were shaped like cones or domes. The frame for
the hut was made of young trees firmly driven into the ground, and then bent overhead to tie together with bark fibers or
strings of animal hides. Sheets and slabs of bark were attached to the frame to construct the roof and walls, leaving an
opening to serve as a door and to allow smoke to escape. The Iroquois in north eastern regions built longhouses that were
more spacious than wigwams because five to a dozen families lived under one roof. During the winter, they plastered
clay to the poles of the frame to protect the inhabitants from wind and rain.
Pueblo Indians who lived in the southwest portion of the United States in northern Arizona and New Mexico
constructed elaborate housing with several stories and many rooms. Each family unit had only one room, and their
ancestors dug shelters in the walls of cliffs and canyons. The ground story of a Pueblo dwelling had no doors or windows
in order to prevent enemies from entering. The next level was set back the width of one room, and the row of rooms above
it was set back once again, giving their houses the appearance of a terrace Pueblos used ladders to climb to the upper
levels and pulled them in when all family members returned for the night.
Indians living in deserts used sandstone and clay as construction materials. Those who lived in the valleys of rivers
even made bricks of clay with wood chips to add strength and to prevent the clay from cracking. To make roofs, Pueblos
tied logs together to make rafters and laid them across the two outside walls. On top of the rafters, layers of tree branches,
sticks, grass, and brush created a solid roof to preclude the water from leaking inside. Pueblo dwellings were dark because
windows were often not large enough to allow much light.
A. Different Indian tribes B. Types of households among Indians
C. Types of shelters built by Indians D. Different Indian cultures
Question 44: The word “marginally” is closest in meaning to
A. markedly B. minimally C. temporarily D. tentatively
Question 45: The phrase “by and large” is closest in meaning to
A. mostly B. conversely C. occasionally D. notably
Question 46: The author of the passage implies that Indians
A. carried their construction materials to new locations B. lived in settlements, similar to the Europeans
C. liked the climate in the Southwest D. constructed shelters every time a tribe moved
Question 47: The author of the passage implies that Eastern Indians
A. constructed huts without roofs
B. planted trees to harvest crops
C. made fires inside their huts
D. used sheets and blankets as bedding
Question 48: The phrase “under one roof” is closest in meaning to
A. in separate sections B. in several shelters C. comfortably D. together
Question 49: What was the main difference between the dwelling of Pueblo and Woodland Indians?
A. The Pueblos lived in permanent structures, but the Woodland Indians lived in transient shelters.
B. The Pueblos used wood in their constructions, but the Woodland Indians relied mostly on animal hides.
C. The Woodland Indians lived on flat ground, but the Pueblos lived in canyons.
D. The Woodland Indians built small shelters, but the Pueblo rooms were large.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Pueblo dwellings were designed to protect inhabitants from
A. attacks by enemies and cold winters
B. attacks by enemies and against rain water
C. wind storms and water from rain
D. wild animals, cold winters, and desert sands.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.
Question 1: A. what B. where C. why D. who
Question 2: A. laughter B. bought C. brought D. fought
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each
Question 3: A. artificial B. inhabitant C. mausoleum D. integration
Question 4: A. energy B. applicable C. household D. appliance
Question 5: Most of the guests turned up two hours early, that took us by surprise.
A. of the B. up C. that D. by
Question 6: When I got to the cinema Jack had been waiting for me.
A. to B. the C. had been D. for
Question 7: All applications ask for your address, telephone number and the title of the job for whom you are applying.
A. ask for B. and C. the title D. for whom
Question 8: Lan: “I can’t understand how you missed the exit.” Mai: “Well, it was so dark that ___________”
A. we could see hardly the road signs B. we could see the road signs hardly
C. hardly could we see the road signs D. we could hardly see the road signs
Question 9: As we waited on the pavement, a black Mercedes _________beside us.
A. pulled up B. pulled down C. pulled off D. pulled through
Question 10: Ann had to use my ruler because she had left _________at home.
A. her B. she C. herself D. hers
Question 11: We took the children to the _________park last weekend. They really enjoyed going on all the rides.
A. wildlife B. amusement C. national D. entertainment
Question 12: _________did Janet accept the job.
A. Only because it was interested work B. The work was interesting
C. Only because it was interesting work D. Because it was interesting work
Question 13: As the sea level is getting _________many areas of land will no longer exist.
A. high B. the higher C. higher and higher D. the highest
Question 14: I’ll lend you some money _________I get paid.
A. until B. as soon as C. whenever D. while
Question 15: “Did Susan have a chance to _________you?” “Oh, yes, she called me up last night”
A. call contacts with B. keep in touch for C. get in touch with D. find contacts for
Question 16: Not only _________, it also performs an essential function in the reproduction of the plant.
A. the flower is looking beautiful B. does the flower look beautiful
C. the beautiful flower D. the flower looks beautiful
Question 17: When I rang the bell, her husband ____ the door.
A. received B. responded C. replied D. answered
Question 18: _________without animals and plants?
A. What would life on earth be like B. How would life on earth be for
C. What will life on earth be like D. How will life on earth be like
Question 19: He wanted to get to the town centre but he got _________the wrong bus and ended up at the station.
A. in B. out of C. off D. on
Question 20: Ann: “How well you are playing!” Peter: “_________”
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words. B. I think so. I’m proud of myself.
C. Thank you so much. I’m always the best. D. Many thanks. That’s a nice compliment.
Question 21: A: “Thanks for helping me out.” B: “_________”
A. It’s kind of you to say so. B. That’s right. C. You bet. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 22: The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease.
A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. reparable
Question 23: Charles W. Eliot, the president of Harvard in 1869, initiated a system under which most required courses
were dropped in favor of elective courses.
A. initial B. compulsory C. optional D. necessary
Question 24: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 25: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. readily C. happily D. traditionally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 26: If Janet had checked her purse, she wouldn’t have forgotten her license at home.
A. Janet forgot her purse and her license.
B. Janet forgot her license but not her purse.
C. Janet forgot her purse but not her license.
D. Janet forgot neither her license nor her purse.
Question 27: She reminded her daughters of theirs table manners.
A. She wanted her daughters to be more polite while eating.
B. She wanted her daughters to leave the dinner table.
C. She wanted her daughters to eat a little more slowly.
D. She wanted her daughters to remember all meal time.
Question 28: We hoped Rick would tell us what his new house was like.
A. We wanted to know the directions to Rick’s new house.
B. We wanted Rick to describe his new house for us.
C. We wanted Rick to tell us if he liked his new house.
D. We wanted Rick to tell us the price of his new house.
questions.
Question 29: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 30: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (31) _ ______. All we really
know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things
so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (32) _______ certain signs, called letters,
which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (33) ___ ____
spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express
these thoughts in words that appeal powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what
we call literary (34) _______. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which
sing like music, and which by their position and association can (35) _______ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to
choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
Question 31: A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend
Question 32: A. at B. upon C. with D. about
Question 33: A. if B. however C. whether D. though
Question 34: A. prose B. work C. form D. style
Question 35: A. take B. send C. break D. move
The problem of cardiac arrest has become a major problem these days. A lot of patients have acute pain after
suffering from a stroke. There are plenty of medicines, surgical methods developed in the field of medicine to treat such
cardiac problems. These solutions are time consuming and costly. In the process of rehabilitation, the medicines also have
a lot of side effects on the human body and take time to give relief. Therefore, a lot of people go for alternative therapies
that help in rehabilitation of patients who suffer from cardiac stroke. The alternative therapies help in relieving pain, stress
and make the body healthy and fit through exercise, yoga as well as meditation.
Those who have the cardiac complaint have to take a good care of their diet. Also, they must look after their
regular exercise in order to stay fit and make sure that they do not take undue stress. These are some of the precautions
that you need to take while you are in the process of rehabilitation. The cardiac rehabilitation can be carried out at the
rehabilitation centers as well as at the residence of the patients. Once the patient learns all the exercise and techniques of
meditation and understands what diet he or she should include in their meals as the instructions of the doctor’s and
dieticians, then it is possible to accomplish the rehabilitation process at home with little guidance and monitoring. But the
best results are seen at the center, where the program is given to a group of patients together.
The alternative therapies used for cardiac rehabilitation are stress management, physical exercises and diet. Stress
management is very much essential in the rehabilitation process because it has a lot of effects on the patient’s body. A lot
of relaxation techniques are taught to the patients that helps them in stress management, among them meditation is one of
the main focuses.
The various rehabilitation programs also give you information on how to have a stress free lifestyle. The patients
are supported and encouraged to discuss their problems with the counselor or fellow patients. This helps them to vent
their feelings and feel comforted. Breathing exercises are also of great help for the patients who are undergoing cardiac
rehabilitation.
In addition to stress management, physical exercises are also given a lot of importance in the rehabilitation
program. The patients are asked to perform various forms of physical exercise which are suitable to them depending on
their age and the severity of their problems. These activities include activities like walking, jogging, cycling, and some
other sports like badminton, tennis etc., to maintain their health and keep their muscles, bones, and body tissues in a good
state. Cardio exercise in a gymnasium is also encouraged. This helps in strengthening the muscles and managing weight.
The diet of these patients also needs to be looked upon very carefully. Such people should stay away from alcohol
and tobacco consumption in order to improve their health. Make sure that their meals include plenty of organic foodstuffs
as well as fruits and juices. Do not include junk and oily foodstuffs in your diet because they are very difficult to digest.
The intake of calories should also be done at required level. It is a significant fact that the patients have to understand and
work accordingly.
Question 36: What does the passage primarily discuss?
A. Medical treatment of cardiac arrest B. Alternative therapies in the treatment of cardiac arrest
C. The rehabilitation process of cardiac arrest D. Alcohol and tobacco consumption in cardiac patients’ diet
Question 37: All of the following are mentioned as the negative aspects of medical treatment EXCEPT
A. causing acute pains B. costing a lot of money
C. having side effects on people’s body D. prolonging over a long period of time
Question 38: The word “undue” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. regular B. daily C. excessive D. severe
Question 39: Which is one of the main areas focused in the stress management program?
A. Relaxation B. Breathing
C. Meditation D. Weight management
Question 40: According to the passage, what do people with cardiac arrest need to do to have a stress-free life?
A. They need to meditate on their problems
B. They need to talk to others about their problems.
C. They need to stop worrying about their problems.
D. They need to deal with their problems.
Question 41: The author mentions gymnasium in the passage to imply that
A. gymnasium is an ideal place for doing cardio exercise.
B. gymnasium is also a good place for doing cardio exercise
C. gymnasium is the place for doing cardio exercise when it rains.
D. gymnasium is the only place for doing cardio exercise.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. It is of vital important that patients of cardiac arrest understand and follow the instructions from doctors and
dieticians
B. Managing stress is considered the most important therapy in rehabilitation programs.
C. The cardiac rehabilitation carried out at home of the patients is less effective than in the rehabilitation center.
D. Patients of cardiac arrest perform different forms of physical exercise based on their age and their health condition.
each of the questions. ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased academic and financial
pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t seem to be greater now
than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much less now than they did a
generation ago - a full 10 hours a week less. Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears that
academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When the time savings and
lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s. And
though there are now full-time students working to pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are
held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more. They appear to be
studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems hard to imagine that students feeling
increased financial pressures would respond by taking more leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time, then, it doesn’t look as though academic or financial pressures are
greater now than a generation ago. The time- use data don't speak directly to social pressures, and it may well be that these
have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either socializing with friends or
playing on the Computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on Computer, would seem to have become the major focus
of campus life. It is hard to tell what kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
Question 43: Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are ______.
A. much greater than the past B. not greater than the past
C. getting ever greater D. more diversified
Question 44: The study’s conclusion that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based on ______.
A. how students spend their time B. what students achieve with greater load
C. how students work through college D. what college demands from students
Question 45: Students get higher grades as ______.
A. students study much harder B. academic workload appears less demanding
C. academic workload appears more attractive D. college’s facilities are much better
Question 46: All factors considered, college now seems ______.
A. ever more expensive B. more costly
C. much more expensive D. less expensive
Question 47: The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with ______.
A. headline B. biggest importance C. primary theme D. central activity
Question 48: According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for pay ______.
A. shows that students are financially pressured B. is not an indication of pressures
C. does not change students’ campus life D. indicates that students are academically pressured
Question 49: Ạccording to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that ______.
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem B. they cannot find extra jobs
C. academic work disinterests them D. they are active with extra-curricular activities
Question 50: The word “Academics” in the title mostly means ______.
A. college students and tutors B. professors and research students
C. students’ workload in college D. graduate students’ workload

Question 1: A. attach B. alternative C. attendance D. again
Question 2: A. illegal B. islander C. inflation D. intervention
Question 3: A. scientific B. biology C. geography D. activity
Question 4: A. passionate B. magnetic C. luxurious D. majority
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Hardly had we arrived at the hotel, that there was a power cut.
A. had we B. at C. that D. a
Question 6: Not until the office phoned me had I found out about the meeting.
A. Not B. phoned C. had I found D. about
Question 7: I tried to convince him several times but I failed because he was unwilling to consider what I have said.
A. him B. failed C. to consider D. have said
From the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the sentence.
Question 8: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ______ man.
A. well-educated B. well-educate C. well-educational D. well- education
Question 9: My brother has been getting so ______ with me recently - I've no idea what's the matter with him.
A. nervous B. irritable C. envious D. unkind
Question 10: If you have a ______ to make about the food, I am willing to listen.
A. dislike B. complaint C. trouble D. discontent
Question 11: They say that a friend in ______ is a friend indeed.
A. need B. lack C. wish D. miss
Question 12: Michael was ______ with anger when he saw his car had been scratched.
A. filled B. fixed C. loaded D. stored
Question 13: Never before ______ in an earnest attempt to resolve their differences.
A. have the leaders of those two countries met B. the leaders of these two countries have met
C. have the leaders the two countries meet D. met the leaders of the two countries
Question 14: I’m sure you’ll find someone to ______ friends with at the summer camp.
A. create B. set C. join D. make
Question 15: Looking after a pet can take ______ quite a lot of time.
A. on B. over C. in D. up
Question 16: One of the men was lying on the ground after ______ down by a piece of rock.
A. knocking B. being knocked C. knocking him D. was knocked
Question 17: Solar energy is considered as one kind of ______ fuels.
A. various B. alternative C. replacing D. changing
Question 18: I had no problems on the test, except for question 36, which I found really______
A. rough B. upset C. tough D. strict
Question 19: ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. With B. In C. At D. On
Question 20: Lan: "That millions of people attended General Vo Nguyen Giap's funeral made a special impression on
almost every foreigner."Nga: “__________”
A. My pleasure B. Me neither C. I'm afraid I can't D. I'll say
Question 21: "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different!" “________”
A. I'm afraid not B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. Anything will do
Question 22: The coach takes every opportunity to censure his players, yet he ignores every opportunity to praise them.
A. criticise B. praise C. approve of D. choose
Question 23: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.
A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full
Question 24: Workers tried to extinguished the flames. Their efforts proved futile, as piles of fabric ignited all over the
eighth floor.
A. became wet B. caught fire C. exploded D. spread
Question 25: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew two years ago.
A. new counselors B. first-year students C. new students D. young professors
Question 26: He would never agree to sell his business, even if he received a very tempting offer.
A. He wanted to sell his business although the offer was tempting.
B. He would never agree to sell his business unless the offer was tempting.
C. However tempting the offer, he would never agree to sell his business.
D. Although he’d never agree to sell his business, the offer was very tempting.
Question 27: I was shocked that John stole the car.
A. John’s stolen car was very shocking.
B. John was shocked that he could not take the car.
C. My car was stolen, and John was shocked.
D. That John stole the car shocked me.
Question 28: Scarcely had he got out of the house when it started raining.
A. He was getting out of the house when it started raining.
B. He had no sooner got out of the house when it started raining.
C. He got out of the house after it started raining.
D. It started raining right after he got out of the house.
questions.
Question 29: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend.
C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
Question 30: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.
C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that you think fits
best.
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. “Do I stay on at school and hopefully
go on to university (31) _______? Do I leave and start work or begin a training course. The decision is yours, but it may be
(32) _______ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among those who haven’t been to university, and
people who have the right skills will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (33) _______
into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will help you to get on more quickly in many
careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (34) _______ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you
are older is another possibility. In this way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (35) _______ practical
work experience.
Question 31: A. former B. past C. later D. after
Question 32: A. necessary B. important C. useful D. worth
Question 33: A. instant B. just C. straight D. direct
Question 34: A. while B. what C. where D. which
Question 35: A. doing B. getting C. making D. taking
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania
Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a
contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in Ireland, was the winner. His bid
for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The
work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol
Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction
continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was
habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six
rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint gave the
building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President
James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes
were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so
dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing
dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5million
dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a pro.4 gram to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts
Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.
The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40
corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large solarium, a broadcasting
room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the
White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of park like land and
overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves.
Question 36: The word “contest” is closest in meaning to
A. hearing B. concourse C. competition D. computation
Question 37: What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction?
A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners. B. It did not adhere to the original estimate.
C. It was not included in the architectural design. D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.
Question 38: The word “grounds” is closest in meaning to
A. high ground B. several lots C. site D. hills
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. George Washington often used the White House steps
B. George Washington contributed to the White House design
C. George Washington never lived in the White House
D. The White House was excluded from the city planning
Question 40: The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued
A. up to 1800 B. after 1800 C. until 1814 D. until 1792
Question 41: What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph?
A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.
B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.
D. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.
Question 42: The passage mentions all of the following White House premises EXCEPT
A. hallways B. kitchen C. medical offices D. storage rooms
In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for
use per person. Primitive people in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive
off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they
could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off a more intensive heat than
wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4 th
century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations
undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams,
domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all
commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the
beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although
in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated
source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and,
therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to
manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on
the scene.
By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial
and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16
percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number
of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy
converted to electricity. The energy derived from nonrenewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location
and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public
transportation, the age of nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.
A. Applications of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical overview of energy rates
Question 44: The phrase “per person” is closest in meaning to
A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day
Question 45: The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to
A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge
Question 46: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combinations
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. not always easy to locate
Question 47: The phrase “the latter” refers to
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
Question 48: The word “They” refers to
A. coal and wood B. main sources of fuel
C. natural gas and oil D. industrializing countries
Question 49: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy. B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution. D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 50: According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced because
A. they need to be transported B. they are not efficient
C. their use is centralized D. their supply is limited
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. favour B. harbor C. flour D. vapor
Question 2: A. bull B. dull C. full D. put
Question 3: A. harbor B. mature C. enable D. container
Question 4: A. domestic B. applicant C. wilderness D. heritage
following question.
Question 5: From the monitoring of earthquake waves it is evidence that the Earth’s outer core is liquid, whereas the
inner core is solid.
A. From B. earthquake C. evidence D. whereas
Question 6: In nowadays, commercial breakeries use complex, automated machines, but the basic principles of baking
have changed little for thousands of years.
A. In nowadays B. of baking C. little D. for thousands
Question 7: Philosopher Theodore A. Langerman was interested in the fields of literary and music.
A. Philosopher B. interested C. literary D. music
From the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D), choose the one that best completes the sentence.
Question 8: It seems our application has been refused _______
A. point blank B. bull ‘s eye C. carte blanche D. about- face
Question 9: A product, _______, will be highly desired by many, as customers are misguided to ignore the products’
downsides.
A. when is promoted well B. when promoted well
C. if it promoted well D. if promoting well
Question 10: I don’t think it's fair to _______a comparison between the two sisters.
A. do B. strike C. draw D. take
Question 11: _______I love you, I can’t let you do whatever you like.
A. Much as B. Whatever C. Whether D. Despite
Question 12: I think you need a holiday to_______your batteries.
A. get back B. recharge C. take up D. change
Question 13: When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were ______.
A. weather- beaten B. horrifying C. apprehensive D. panic- stricken
Question 14: Making mistakes is all _______of growing up.
A. chalk and cheese B. from top to bottom C. part and parcel D. odds and ends
Question 15: I've asked Mike_______not to leave his car in front of my gates, but he always forgets.
A. time and again B. at times C. in the nick of time D. on time
Question 16: There was a sudden _______and we ran for cover.
A. downpour B. fallout C. outburst D. outbreak
Question 17: What would be the _______qualification in your own country ?
A. equivalent B. same C. similar D. corresponded
Question 18: The children can get to school ten minutes earlier if they take a short_______ through the park.
A. link B. cut C. pass D. path
Question 19: The offer of a place at university is not to be _______ at.
A. sneezed B. shrugged C. winked D. coughed
Question 20: Annie: ‘Do you prefer traveling by plane or by train? Peter: '_______'
A. I don't really use either. B. No, not at all. C. Sometimes. D. It terrifies me.
Question 21: Tom: "What would you like to do at the weekend?" Lisa: “_______”
A. I like to do a lot B. I'd like to see a football match.
C. I can't stand it D. I don't like to see a football match.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 22: Teachers must enforce certain rules in the classroom to ensure the safety and fair- treatment of all students.
A. impose B. obtain C. overlook D. derive
Question 23: Proximity to the court house makes an office building more valuable.
A. interest in B. nearness to C. similarity to D. usefulness for
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24: Video cameras attached to sea turtles and sharks reveal an underwater world hidden to humans.
A. exposed B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. earlier than a particular moment B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something D. as long as expected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.
A. It’s very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.
B. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.
C. No one other than their mother can separate Simon and Mike.
D. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.
Question 27: You can cancel your ticket with a full refund only if you do so one week before your scheduled departure.
A. In order to get all the money you’ve paid for the ticket back , the cancellation has to be done seven days prior to
your plane’s scheduled take-off.
B. When you purchase a ticket for a flight , it’s impossible to get a refund on it in advance of the date that your flight
will be leaving.
C. You can apply for a full refund for your ticket within a week if you’ve had a change of plans and can’t make the
flight.
D. When a flight has been cancelled by the airlines, you must asks for a full refund within one week of the date of
departure.
Question 28: This medicine will relieve the pain, but it will not cure everything.
A. Although this medicine will relieve the pain, but it cannot cure everything.
B. Only if this medicine works as a painkiller, it will cure everything.
C. While relieve the pain, this medicine will not cure everything.
D. Although this medicine will bring some pain relief, it will not work miracles.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
Question 29: Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world. It's in the Himalayas.
A. Mt. Everest, the highest mountain in the world, is in the Himalayas.
B. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, it's in the Himalayas.
C. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, is in the Himalayas.
D. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, in the Himalayas.
Question 30: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
D. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
The quality of life these days is something most of us take for (31) _______It takes some radically different experience to
bring this fact home to people. In my case, it was spending three weeks aboard a yacht with twelve other people,
competing in a major sailing race. (32) _______I was officially a guest, it was made clear to me from the start that there
was to be no room for passengers, and that I’d have to (33) _______my weight.
For the first few nights, none of us was able to sleep for more than a couple of hours at a time before being rudely
awoken by an aggressive command. Then we’d do physically exhausting work in total darkness. Every few minutes we’d
be completely soaked to the (34) _______by a large wave we couldn’t see coming. I shared sleeping quarters with six
other women, with barely enough room to stretch my legs. Soon I found myself (35) _______for my comfortable sheets
back home, a hot chocolate and a warm bath.
Question 31: A. given B. accepted C. granted D. read
Question 32: A. Although B. However C. But D. Therefore
Question 33: A. offer B. move C. use D. pull
Question 34: A. flesh B. skin C. bones D. tones
Question 35: A. desiring B. yearning C. dreaming D. craving
Puerto Rico, a Caribbean island rich in history and remarkable natural beauty, has a cuisine all its own.
Immigration to the island has helped to shape its cuisine, with people from all over the world making various
contributions to it. However, before the arrival of these immigrants, the island of Puerto Rico was already known as
Borikén and was inhabited by the Taíno people. Taíno cuisine included such foods as rodents with sweet chili peppers,
fresh shellfish, yams, and fish fried in corn oil.
(1) Many aspects of Taíno cuisine continue today in Puerto Rican cooking, but it has been heavily influenced by the
Spanish, who invaded Puerto Rico in 1508, and Africans, who were initially brought to Puerto Rico to work as slaves.
(2)Taíno cooking styles were mixed with ideas brought by the Spanish and Africans to create new dishes. (3) Africans also
added to the island’s food culture by introducing powerful, contrasting tastes in dishes like piñon–plantains layered in
ground beef. In fact, much of the food Puerto Rico is now famous for—plantains, coffee, sugarcane, coconuts, and
oranges—was actually imported by foreigners to the island. (4)
A common assumption many people make about Puerto Rican food is that it is very spicy. It’s true that chili peppers
are popular; ajícaballero in particular is a very hot chili pepper that Puerto Ricans enjoy. However, milder tastes are
popular too, such as sofrito. The 25 base of many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from chopped onions,
garlic, green bell peppers, sweet chili peppers, oregano, cilantro, and a handful of other spices. It is fried in oil and then
added to other dishes.
Question 36: Who lived in Puerto Rico first?
A. the Taíno people B. the Africans C. the Spanish D. the Americans
Question 37: What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Taíno dishes are important in Puerto Rican cooking.
B. Puerto Rican cooking has had many influences.
C. Food that has been imported by foreigners isn’t really Puerto Rican.
D. American foods have probably had the most influence.
Question 38: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to _______
A. immigration B. Puerto Rican cuisine
C. Caribbean history D. the island’s natural beauty
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Many people think Puerto Rican food is spicy. B. Puerto Rican cuisine uses a lot of chili peppers.
C. Sofrito is an extremely spicy type of food. D. Ají caballero is a type of chili pepper.
Question 40: How is sofrito used?
A. It is eaten before meals. B. It is added to other dishes.
C. It is used when foods are too spicy. D. It is eaten as a main dish.
Question 41: Look at the four numbers (1), (2), (3), and (4) in paragraph 2 that indicate where this sentence can be added
to the passage. Where would the sentence fit best? The Spanish extended food choices by bringing cattle, pigs, 15 goats,
and sheep to the island.
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4)
Question 42: The word "cuisine" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________
A. kind of cake B. kind of food C. style of cooking D. way of living
each for the question
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back
and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible - for example, by providing the opportunity for the
child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact,
underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child
clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for food, to
sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he
slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly
for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made
before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first
spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child
beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This
might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to
read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or
without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents learn
more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can
share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good
examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be especially strict in
money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In
general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's
own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in parental
teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that
"Example is better than precept". If they are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children may grow
confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to
some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a
dangerous disillusion.
Question 43: The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children _________
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics
C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
Question 44: Learning to wait for things is successfully taught_________
A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children
Question 45: The encouragement of children to achieve new skills_________
A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate
Question 46: Parental controls and discipline _________
A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child's happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible
Question 47: The practice of the rule "Example is better than precept" _________
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
Question 48: In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the_________in helping the child in
trouble.
A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery
Question 49: The phrase 'conforming to' in the 2nd paragraph means _________
A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
Question 50: Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may _________
A. result in their children's wrong behaviour B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children's mind
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 275( - SỐ 17)
Question 1: A. decent B. recent C. celebrate D. even
Question 2: A. begged B. canned C. booked D. buttoned
Question 3: A. possible B. excellent C. industrial D. attitude
Question 4: A. prohibit B. discover C. determine D. interrupt
Question 5: Trung wishes that he can have a chance to visit Singapore.
A. that B. can C. a chance D. visit
Question 6: The manager told me you could give me an information about the new toys you will be selling in the new
year.
A. The manager B. an information C. new toys D. in the new year
Question 7: Chocolate is prepared by a complexity process of cleaning, blending, and roasting cocoa beans, which must
be ground and mixed with sugar.
A. a complexity B. blending C. which D. mixed with
Question 8: It is imperative _______ towards a solution to global warming before the climate patterns of the world are
disrupted irreparably.
A. that the world worked B. that the world work C. the world to work D. the word would work
Question 9: I’d rather you _______ to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
Question 10: I _______ to have to inform you that your ticket is not valid.
A. regret B. sorry C. apologize D. resent
Question 11: _______ few species that live on the ground, most monkeys live in trees.
A. There are B. A C. All but D. Except for
Question 12: The effects of the anesthetic _______ after a couple of hours.
A. wiped out B. finished off C. dried up D. wore off
Question 13: These girls are heading for a _______ They get to work late and spend hours talking on the phone.
A. drop B. fall C. trip D. decrease
Question 14: I think everyone should be _______ with the way office machinery works.
A. conversant B. mindful C. answerable D. attuned
Question 15: We can’t possibly make any _______ for her, however sweetly she asks.
A. allowances B. license C. permissions D. liberties
Question 16: It’s time you _______ up your mind about what you are going to do with your life.
A. have made B. made C. make D. had made
Question 17: He was the greatest _______ of the time.
A. science B. scientist C. scientific D. scientifically
Question 18: It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to _______
A. take B. achieve C. break D. get
Question 19: It is difficult to assess grass _______ opinion on the subject of the President ‘s actions.
A. leaves B. cutting C. stems D. roots
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Henry : “ do you think they will lose ? ” Kathy : “Oh ! _______.”
A. It’s hopeless B. I don’t hope so C. I don’t hope D. I hope not
Question 21: –“If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” –“_______”
A. Well, it’s no use crying over spilt milk. B. All right. You’ll be OK soon.
C. Sorry, I can’t help. D. I’m afraid. That’s what you did.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 22: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
A. Not as friendly as before B. Not as serious as before
C. Not as sympathetic as before D. Not as childlike as before
Question 23: The newly-weds agreed to be very frugal in their shopping because they wanted to save enough money to
buy a house.
A. interested B. economical C. wasteful D. careless
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24: As a newspaper reporter she always wanted to get information at first hand.
A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly
Question 25: Swallows are among the most agile passerine birds.
A. idle B. swift C. fragile D. slow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence
given in each of the following questions.
Question 26: As I didn’t want to disappoint my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.
A. Not wanting to let down my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.
B. To my disappointment, my parents made me go to medical school.
C. My parents are no longer disappointed in me now that I have agreed to go to medical school.
D. If I didn’t agree to go to medical school, my parents would be disappointed.
Question 27: Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
A. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
B. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
C. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
D. We chose to find a place for the night once the bad weather had really begun.
Question 28: She forgot about the money until she got home.
A. Not until she got home was the money forgotten.
B. Not until she got home did she forget about the money.
C. Not until she got home did she remember about the money.
D. Not until she forgot about the money did she get home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of
sentences in each of the questions.
Question 29: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
Question 30: We stayed out all night. We wanted to watch a meteor storm.
A. We stayed out all night in order to watching a meteor storm.
B. We stayed out all night because we had been able to watch a meteor storm.
C. We stayed out all night in order for watching a meteor storm.
D. We stayed out all night so that we could watch a meteor storm.
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
LIVING A HEALTHIER LIFE
Keeping fit and healthy may seem difficult, but there are a few easy-to-follow guidelines. Firstly, a balanced diet is
absolutely essential. This (31)_______selecting food that is low in salt and sugar. Experts recommend reducing the
amount of fat in your diet, as too much can lead to heart problems. They also suggest increasing the (32 )_______of high
fiber food we eat. This comes in the form of fresh fruit, vegetables, whole meal bread and pasta. As well as being packed
with vitamins and minerals, they are delicious too. Secondly, it’s important to fit exercise into your daily (33)_______This
can be done by simply walking as much as possible and climbing stairs instead of taking the lift. Exercise is necessary to
maintain a healthy body, as well as increasing energy levels and (34)_______you feel generally fitter and happier. Finally,
staying relaxed is important for good health. Too much stress can lead to a variety of illnesses, from headaches to high
blood pressure. (35)_______possible, do things you enjoy and treat yourself occasionally. So the message is simple- enjoy
yourself but learn to respect your body too. It’s all a question of getting the balance right.
Question 31: A. contains B. means C. points D. suggests
Question 32: A. amount B. bulk C. number D. mass
Question 33: A. time B. custom C. routine D. practice
Question 34: A. providing B. doing C. making D. assisting
Question 35: A. Whenever B. Whichever C. However D. How
each for the question from 36 to 42.
Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world’s greatest masters of portraiture, was born in Antwerp and was the seventh
of twelve children. His affluent father apprenticed him to a painter when he was just a little over ten. Having become a
member of the Antwerp Guild of painters before he was nineteen, he worked in the studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several
years. In Italy, Van Dyck studied the great Venetian masters and painted flattering portraits of gorgeous ladies and haughty
nobles in gilded velvet robes with lace and pearls. While he was sought after by the aristocracy for his acclaimed loose
brushwork, his engravings and etchings also evinced his outstanding talent. Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628, he was
influenced by Rubens’s interpretation of the artistic form and produced numerous religious paintings while holding an
appointment as the court painter. During his tenure, he proved that his use of color, his sensitive elegance, and his
remarkable insight were unexcelled.
His fame preceded him to England, where he was invited by King Charles I. After years of faithful service, he was
knighted in recognition of his achievements in painting countless portraits of the king, the queen, the royal children, and
the titled nobility of England.
However, Van Dyck’s greatest piece is one of his religious works, a true masterpiece displayed in the Antwerp
gallery. This group scene exhibits his artful polish in painting the folds of fabric, the delicacy of human skin, landscape,
and other externals, and puts him above other accomplished contemporary masters. Although Charles paid Van Dyck a
salary and granted him a pension, the painter’s extravagant life-style and penchant for luxuries led him into debt, and he
died without means.
Question 36: It can be inferred from the passage that Van Dyck was raised
A. in a large and wealthy family B. in a stable and loving household
C. by his father alone D. without good work habits
Question 37: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck
A. had produced great paintings before he turned nineteen
B. had a great artistic talent even when he was young
C. joined other painters when he had little to occupy him
D. worked very hard in his youth to make a living
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that after Van Dyck left Rubens
A. he accrued considerable wealth B. he became a militant aristocrat
C. he refined his artistic tastes and skills D. he incorporated southern styles in his art
Question 39: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck’s fame had largely to do with his
A. artful portraits B. wealthy family C. elegance in clothing D. religious beliefs
Question 40: The word “acclaimed” is closest in meaning to
A. reclaimed B. recognized C. recommended D. rectified
Question 41: How did Charles I honor Van Dyck?
A. Van Dyck painted members of the royal court.
B. Van Dyck received a noble title.
C. Van Dyck was allowed to travel widely.
D. Van Dyck displayed his work in the royal palace.
Question 42: What are the reasons given for Van Dyck’s financial decline?
A. His employer’s lack of generosity B. His ill health and lack of revenue.
C. His lavish spending D. His miserly attitudes
ACID DUST
“ Calcite- containing dust particles blow into the air and combine with nitric acid in polluted air from factories to
form an entirely new particle – calcium nitrate , ” said Alexander Laskin, a senior research scientist at the Department of
Energy’s Pacific Northwest National Laboratory in Richland, Washington .These nitrates have optical and chemical
properties that are completely different from those of the originally dry dust particles . Due to this, climate models need to
be updated to reflect this chemistry. Calcite dust is common in arid areas such as Israel, where scientists collected particles
for analysis.
Working from a mountaintop, the team collected dust that had blown in from the northern shores of Egypt,
Sinai,and southern Israel. The particles had combined with air containing pollutants that came from Cairo.They analyzed
nearly 2,00 individual particles and observed the physical and chemical changes at the W.R Wiley Environmental
Sciences Laboratory.
A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is that they begin to absorb water and retain
the moisture .These wet particles can scatter and absorb sunlight-presenting climate modelers, who need to know where
the energy is going , a new wild card to deal with . Companion studies of dust samples from the Sahara and the Saudi
coast and loess from China show that the higher the calcium in the mineral , the more reactive they are in with nitric
acid .And once the particle is changed , it stays that way.
“When dust storms kick up these particles and they enter polluted areas , the particles change ,” Laskin said . “To
what extent this is happening globally, as more of the world becomes industrialized , we don’t know . But now we have
the laboratory and field evidence that shows it is definitely happening . The story is much more complicated than anybody
thought .”
Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage ?
A. There is a new particle called calcium nitrate
B. Factories are polluting the environment
C. Climate models have to be updated because of the new particle calcium nitrate.
D. Calcium nitrate has chemical properties different from other dust particles.
Question 44: Why do climate models need to be updated to reflect the chemistry of calcium nitrate ?
A. The new particles can absorb water and retain moisture.
B. The new particles can scatter and absorb sunlight.
C. To stop acid dust.
D. Both A and B.
Question 45: Do the particles react with nitric acid ?
A. No , but they continue to absorb the sun’s energy.
B. No , and the particles do not change.
C. Yes, but the changes are temporary.
D. Yes, and the changes are permanent .
Question 46: Which of the following may be true ?
A. The change of an ice age is increased. B. We may see more rainbows.
C. The greenhouse effects are increased D. Calcite dust is common in arid areas.
Question 47: Why does the passage begin with a description of the properties of calcium nitrate?
A. To give background information so the reader can understand the topic better.
B. Because calcium nitrate is the main idea.
C. They show how elements combine to create calcium nitrate .
D. To prove the existence of calcium nitrate
Question 48: The word “those ” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. Nitrates B. Properties C. Particles D. Models
Question 49: It can be inferred that the word “retain ” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. hold B. lose C. increase D. need
Question 50: In the third paragraph , what does the term “ wild card ” mean ?
A. An unknown card in a card game.
B. An unknown item in the scientists’ calculations
C. A large amount of acid dust.
D. A,B and C are incorrect .
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 276(ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 18)
Mark the letter A, B,C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
Question 1: A. teenager B. genius C. cacti D.
technique
Question 2: A. assume B. bullet C. dubious D. huge
Question 3: A. commentary B. voluntary C. compensate D. preparatory
Question 4: A. realize B. reside C. argue D. access
Question 5: The destructive force of running water depends entirely almost on the velocity of its flow.
A. destructive force B. running C. entirely almost D. of its flow
Question 6: It was suggested that he thought twice before giving up the previous job.
A. thought B. before C. giving up D. previous
Question 7: Asparagus grows well in soil that is too much salty for most crops to grow.
A. grows well B. in C. too much D. most crops
Question 8: _________, often of a religious character, were developed from fundamental African forms.
A. Ancient dancing of Egyptians B. Ancient Egyptian dancing
C. Ancient Egyptian dance D. Ancient Egyptian dances
Question 9: It suddenly dawned _________ me where I had seen her before.
A. in B. over C. to D. on
Question 10: Her excellent _________ in the exams helped her find a job.
A. notes B. reports C. marks D. degrees
Question 11: _________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.
A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole
Question 12: She _________ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. went down with B. got up with C. went through with D. got down with
Question 13: What _________ milk shake do you want strawberry, chocolate or orange”
A. taste B. kind C. flavor D. sort
Question 14: He was wearing a heavy overcoat to_________ himself against the cold.
A. conceal B. cover C. protect D. shelter
Question 15: Tony was clearly nervous; he was sitting right on the_________ of his chair.
A. outside B. edge C. tip D. border
Question 16: These buses are _________ to run every 15 minutes, but I’ve been waiting here for 25 minutes already.
A. assumed B. promised C. presumed D. supposed
Question 17: It was ten years ago _________ I last saw her.
A. when B. that C. since D. when that
Question 18: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different
as_________
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 19: I think I’ll_________ a chance and leave my flight booking till the last minute. I may get a cheaper ticket.
A. take B. make C. do D. bring
Question 20: - “ Would you mind if I borrowed your dictionary?” – “_________”
A. I’m sorry B. Not at all C. Yes, I would D. Yes, ok
Question 21: - “ I’ve never seen eyeglass frames like that. Where did you find them?” -____________
A. There’s a new optical store at the mall.
B. While I was on vacation.
C. It’s so nice that you noticed. I bought them at the mall.
D. Thanks. I got it at the mall.
Choose the word which has CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word
Question 22: He insisted on listening to the entire story.
A. part B. funny C. whole D. interesting
Question 23: Tryouts for community orchestras are frequently judged by committees.
A. Advertisements B. Performances C. Auditions D. Novelties
Question 24: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.
A. criticize yourself B. wear a backpack C. praise yourself D. check up your back
Question 25: Alaska boasts of several climates due to its lofty mountains, warm ocean currents, and frozen seas.
A. towering B. rocky C. ageless D. low
Question 26: They didn’t discover that the picture had been stolen until they came back home.
A. Until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.
B. It is not until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.
C. Not until they came back home had the picture been stolen.
D. Only after they came back home did they discover that the picture had been stolen.
Question 27: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 28: The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan.
A. Had it not been for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.
B. The manager’s generous contribution gets my plan continue.
C. But for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.
D. Should the manager contribute generously, I could continue my plan.
questions.
Question 29: “I spoke slowly. The foreigner could understand me.”
A. I spoke slowly so that the foreigner could understand me.
B. I spoke slowly in order to the foreigner could understand me.
C. I spoke slowly that the foreigner could understand me.
D. I spoke slowly to make the foreigner could understand me.
Question 30: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph.
A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.
B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her.
C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph.
D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph.
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people want to be fashionable, but they don’t want to look exactly like everybody
else. Not all clothes are (31)_________ for work or school, perhaps because they are not formal enough, or simply not
comfortable. It is easy to buy the (32)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a
little bit overweight. Very (33)_________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine,
then you have the same problem! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be (34) _________ enough for
winter. If your shoes are not waterproof and if you aren’t (35)_________ for the cold, you might look good, but feel
terrible!
Question 31: A. fitted B. suitable C. comfort D. equal
Question 32: A. false B. mistake C. wrong D. error
Question 33: A. loose B. lose C. loosened D. lost
Question 34: A. warm B. cold C. hot D. cool
Question 35: A. worn B. clothed C. dressed D. fitted
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each question.
What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions
with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is hemmed in west by the Sierra Nevada and on
the east Line by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the
west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it
cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which reaches
the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months,
evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along
the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinion pines and junipers
struggle to hold their own.
But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water.
Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes .The two largest of the
ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the
latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former. There seem to have been several periods within
the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were
undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North
American continent during those times. Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to
mid latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready
receptacles for this moisture.
Question 36: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?
A. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.
B. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province
C. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.
D. The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.
Question 37: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?
A. Snow B. Dry air
C. Winds from the west D. Access to the ocean
Question 38: The word "prevailing" is closest in meaning to
A. most frequent B. occasional C. gentle D. most dangerous
Question 39: The word "it" refers to
A. Pacific Ocean B. air C. west D. the Great Basin
Question 40: Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows?
A. To demonstrate that certain trees require a little of water
B. To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment
C. To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin
D. To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used to be
Question 41: The words "the former" refer to
A. Lake Bonneville B. Lake Lahontan C. the Great Salt Lake D. Pyramid Lake
Question 42: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about
A. desert formation B. warmer climates C. broken valleys D. wetter weather
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each question.
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing appreciation of the
importance of biological diversity, the number of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human
well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life
associated with tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in the sea even
though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet's dominant, most-distinctive feature ― the
ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far
away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two- thirds of the
Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the
ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the
ocean has fewer distinct species.
The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world's rain forests does not seem uprising,
considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the species. One scientist found many different species
of ants in just one tree from a rain forest. While every species is different from every other species, their genetic makeup
constrains them to be insects and to share similar characteristics with 750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad categories
such as phyla and classes are given more emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of life
is unquestionably the sea. Nearly every major type of plant and animal has some representation there.
To appreciate fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think small. Every spoonful of ocean
water contains life, on the order of 100 to 100,000 bacterial cells plus assorted microscopic plants and animals, including
larvae of organisms ranging from sponges and corals to starfish and clams and much more.
Question 43: Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs in the first paragraph?
A. They are approximately the same size. B. They share many similar species.
C. Most of their inhabitants require water. D. Both have many different forms of life.
Question 44: The word "bias" is closest in meaning to
A. concern B. disadvantage C. attitude D. prejudice
Question 45: The passage suggests that most rain forest species are
A. insects B. bacteria C. mammals D. birds
Question 46: The word "there" refers to
A. the sea B. the rain forests C. a tree D. the Earth's surface
Question 47: The author argues that there is more diversity of life in the sea than in the rain forests because
A. more phyla and classes of life are represented in the sea
B. there are too many insects to make meaningful distinctions
C. many insect species are too small to divide into categories
D. marine life-forms reproduce at a faster rate
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of microscopic sea life?
A. Sponges B. Coral C. Starfish D. Shrimp
Question 49: Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?
A. Ocean life is highly adaptive.
B. More attention needs to be paid to preserving ocean species and habitats.
C. Ocean life is primarily composed of plants.
D. The sea is highly resistant to the damage done by pollutants.
Question 50: The word "dominant" is closest in meaning to
A. imperious B. chief C. impotent D. strange
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 277( ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 19)
Mark the letter A, B,C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
Question 1: A. invited B. attended C. celebrated D. displayed
Question 2: A. war B. water C. warm D. bank
Question 3: A. forest B. argue C. unless D. index
Question 4: A. deposit B. aquatic C. abolish D. souvenir
Question 5: A beaver uses its strong front teeth to cut down trees and peel off its bark.
A. its B. front teeth C. peel off D. its
Question 6: The clerks who are happy to wait for their customers will get promoted soon.
A. clerks B. wait for C. customers D. get promoted
Question 7: Although lacking in calcium and vitamin A, grains have most carbohydrates than any other food.
A. Although B. in C. grains D. most
Question 8: These shoes won’t __________your trousers.
A. suit B. fit C. match D. consistent
Question 9: I can’t wear this coat to work because there are two buttons __________
A. missing B. loosing C. falling D. tearing
Question 10: The movie is__________Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways.
A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as
Question 11: I__________all members by tomorrow night.
A. will contact B. will have contacted with C. will contact with D. will have contacted
Question 12: The Internet has enabled people to __________with each other more quickly.
A. interact B. interlink C. intervene D. interconnect
Question 13: Houses in big cities are expensive because land is in__________supply.
A. brief B. slight C. little D. short
Question 14: Solar heat penetrates more deeply into water than__________
A. it is penetration into the soil B. it does into soil
C. does it into soil D. that it does into soil
Question 15: She’s got 100 percent on the exam and the other students were below 70 percent. She’s__________above
the rest.
A. head and neck B. shoulders and arms C. head and shoulders D. neck and ears
Question 16: __________orangutans live alone.
A. Near all B. Almost all C. The all D. The most
Question 17: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have__________by 2015.
A. used over B. used off C. run out D. run out of
Question 18: The poor child was in __________because his bike had been stolen.
A. floods of crying B. floods of tears C. mood of weeping D. mood of tears
Question 19: As soon as she __________home, she took off her shoes and __________her slippers.
A. had arrived/ put in B. arrived/ put over C. arrived/ put on D. had arrived/ put over
Question 20: Mr Black: “ I’d like to try on these shoes, please.” Salesgirl: “__________”
A. That’s right, sir. B. Why not? C. Me too. D. By all means, sir.
Question 21: Susan: “I had a really good weekend at my uncle’s.” Peter: “__________”
A. Oh, that’s very nice of you. B. Congratulations.
C. It’s pleasure. D. Oh, I’m glad to hear that.
Choose the word which has CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word
Question 22: Drivers who break traffic rules will be photographed.
A. destroy B. hit C. violate D. assault
Question 23: The students came up with some novel ideas for fund-raising.
A. unique B. bookish C. educational D. radical
Choose the word which has OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word
Question 24: A tangerine, which is flatter than an orange, peels and separates more readily.
A. daintly B. tastefully C. easily D. difficultly
Question 25: Catherine made a negligible effort to extend the freedoms of most Russians.
A. marginal B. ignorant C. significant D. accidental
Question 26: You are obliged to stop when the lights turn red.
A. You must stop when the lights turn red.
B. You have to stop when the lights turn red.
C. You should stop when the lights turn red.
D. You are allowed to stop when the lights turn red.
Question 27: If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn’t have been driving very fast.
A. He was driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.
B. He has been driving very fast because he doesn’t know the road was icy.
C. If only he knew the road was icy, he wouldn’t be driving very fast.
D. He had been driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.
Question 28: In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club.
A. I had no regrets about leaving the club in the end.
B. I regretted to leave the club in the end.
C. It’s a pity that I had left the club in the end.
D. I don’t regret to leave the club in the end.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of
sentences in each of the questions.
Question 29: She doesn’t have a car. She doesn’t go out in the evening.
A. If she had a car, she would go out in the evening.
B. If she had a car, she will go out in the evening.
C. If she has a car, she would go out in the evening.
D. If she had had a car, she would go out in the evening.
Question 30: What was the name of the man? You met and talked to him this morning.
A. What was the name of the man who you met and talked to him this morning?
B. What was the name of the man you met and talked to this morning?
C. What was the name of the man you met and talked to whom this morning?
D. What was the name of the man whose you met and talked to this morning?
The future of the African elephant depends on man. No (31)_________ can human beings and wild animals live in
harmony throughout vast area of the continent as was possible in days gone by, for man’s needs have increased as well as
his numbers. There are regions, such as the Congo forests and the equatorial Sudan, (32 )_________ the old relationship
may remain for a few more years or even generations, but in general it has gone. Conservation, if it is to be effective,
should be a positive, constructive policy, and it is wishful thinking to imagine otherwise, (33)_________ in the case of the
elephant. And this is not yet true of the whole of Africa, it soon will be, for the increase in the human population is almost
universal. Where human beings and wild animals find themselves in competition with each other, the animals will
(34)_________ Even if there appears to be enough room for both, man will not tolerate long a situation in which elephants
and other (35)_________ make even occasional raids on his fields of food or economic crops. For many years this has
been a major cause of conflicting interests and one of the reasons why so many elephants have been shot to control their
numbers.
Question 31: A. more B. condition C. circumstance D. longer
Question 32: A. where B. when C. how D. why
Question 33: A. certainly B. particularly C. only D. entirely
Question 34: A. win B. lose C. disappear D. fight
Question 35: A. people B. plants C. descendants D. creatures
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each question.
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the Constitutional Convention in
Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the
old Articles of Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences,
however, about what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York, four times as many as New
Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a
plan for government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation
would be based on population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that under this
plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small State Plan. It provided for equal
representation for all states in a national legislature and for a single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a
stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered out an agreement known
as the Great Compromise- actually a bundle of shrewd compromises. They decided that Congress would consist of two
houses. The larger states were granted representation based on population in the lower house, the House of
Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state
would have two senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single executive, the president.
This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success seemed within reach.
A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States
B. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise
C. The differences in population and relative power between the original states
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan
Question 37: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional Convention?
A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation
A. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
B. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
C. allowed small states to dominate large ones
D. provided for only a weak central government
Question 39: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had FEWEST people?
A. Virginia B. Delaware C. New York D. New Jersey
Question 40: The phrase “this plan” refers to
A. the Small State Plan B. a plan suggested by the national legislature
C. the Large State Plan D. a compromise plan
Question 41: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to
A. practical B. unfair C. important D. clever
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the Great Compromise?
A. There would be only one national executive.
B. The President would be elected by popular vote.
C. Each state would have two senators.
D. Congress would be divided into two bodies.
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each question.
The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and development of
new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the
consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic
research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a
weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of
society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of
making judgments about such ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct
further evolutionary development.
As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by which human traits are
made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value
judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies
and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may
far outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to curb
environmental pollution without interfering with man's constant effort to improve the quality of his life. Many scientists
believe that underlying the spectra of pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population
necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air,
water, and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate the need for
biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for
maintaining a healthy and productive planet. For although many of man's present and future problems may seem to be
essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence
of life itself.
Question 43: According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about__________.
A. the consequences of his discoveries B. his basic research
C. his manipulation of genes D. the development of new ideas
Question 44: The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment C. hereditary mechanism D. a reality
Question 45: It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering__________.
A. will change all human traits B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. may do us more harm than good
Question 46: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies B. cases of genetic deficiencies
C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms
D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
Question 47: The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. the waste products dumped into our environment B. serious environmental pollution
C. activities of surplus human population D. activities of an overpopulated society's industry
Question 48: According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work
A. with other social scientists B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes D. harder and harder
Question 49: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in paragraph 4?
A. effective techniques B. latest developments
C. harmful consequences D. useful experiments
Question 50: What is the author's purpose in this passage?
A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
B. To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society
C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
D. To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 278( ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 20)
Question 1: A. stretch B. natural C. ancient D. question
Question 2: A. land B. stable C. stab D. exam
Question 3: A. justice B. workforce C. compete D. capture
Question 4: A. hopeful B. compose C. eject D. admire
Question 5: I have never dived in a twenty-metre-deep lake before, so I’m a bit afraid of doing it.
A. in B. before C. a bit D. of doing
Question 6: You have little to boast about, haven’t you?
A. have B. little C. about D. haven't you
Question 7: Not surprisingly, poverty is a problem worth of concern in every country.
A. surprisingly B. poverty C. worth D. every country
Question 8: This story has been passed down by ________of mouth.
A. word B. phrase C. memory D. speaking
Question 9: This is ________less satisfactory than the previous offer.
A. fairly B. far C. absolutely D. distant
Question 10: It ‘s ________knowledge that the Chancellor has not been entirely discreet in his private life.
A. universal B. general C. common D. full
Question 11: The professor wasn’t ________with the current political affairs in his country after his long stay abroad.
A. present B. familiar C. knowledgeable D. actual
Question 12: You will not be successful in business if you don’t ________risks.
A. put B. get C. try D. take
Question 13: I personally don’t believe you can ________of his support.
A. count B. depend C. rely D. be sure
Question 14: You must know how to ________between what is good for you and what is not.
A. differ B. vary C. solve D. distinguish
Question 15: Paul asked Maria to ________him to the dentist’s because he didn’t want to go by himself.
A. unify B. join C. interfere D. accompany
Question 16: People are becoming ________aware of healthy eating, exercise, and relaxation, and want to incorporate
them into their daily lives.
A. hardly ever B. rather than C. more and more D. much as
Question 17: As a small boy he was used to ________in the house for an hour or two.
A. being left alone B. eaving alone C. leave alone D. be left alone
Question 18: One of the areas of multimedia that is growing quickly ________is sound.
A. yet is easily overlooked B. is easily overlooked
C. it is easily overlooked D. that is easily overlooked
Question 19: She’s so depressed. All these problem are really ________.
A. getting her down B. getting round her C. talking her on D. toning her down
Question 20: A: Shouldn't we pay before we leave? B: “________________”
A. No, I don't like to pray. B. I'm not sure. C. No, they'll bill us later. D. Yes, we should have paid.
Question 21: Bill: "I like your bike, Helen." Helen: “________________”
A. Just kidding B. I wish I could afford it.
C. Thanks, but it isn't new D. I don't wear it very often
Question 22: When she fell ill, her daughter took over the business.
A. took a chance B. took control of C. took a loss D. lost control of
Question 23: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process
heating.
A. sparing B. generation C. increase D. reformation
Question 24: In the first two decades of its existence, the cinema developed rapidly.
A. shortly B. sluggishly C. leisurely D. weakly
Question 25: I find it hard to work at home because there are too many distractions.
A. attentions B. unawareness C. unconcern D. carelessness
following sentences.
Question 26: It’s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.
A. You were supposed to finish your homework before you go to school.
B. Your homework is supposed to be finished before going to school.
C. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty.
D. Your duty finishing your homework before you go to school is necessary.
Question 27: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.
A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
C. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.
Question 28: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one took notice of what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Joan broke her right leg in the accident last week. Her parents worried a lot.
A. If Joan didn’t broke her leg last week, her parents wouldn’t worry a lot.
B. If Joan doesn’t broke her leg last week, her parents will not worry a lot.
C. Joan’s parents worried because of her broken leg.
D. The fact that Joan broke her leg made her parents worry.
Question 30: The box was too heavy. John could not move it.
A. The box was too heavy that John could not move it.
B. The box was such heavy that John could not move it.
C. The box was so heavy that John could not move it.
D. The box was heavy that John could not move it.
Many people love boats. Going out on the water on a warm summer day is a lot of (31) _______. (32) _______ , different
people like different kinds of boats. Two of the most popular kinds of boat are sailboats and speedboats. Sailboats use the
(33) _______to give them power. They only have small engines. In contrast, speedboats have large engines and go very
fast. Furthermore, speedboats are usually not as (34) _______ as sailboats. Speedboats are small so that they can go fast.
Sailboats, on the other hand, are big so that they are more comfortable. ( 35) _______, sailboats can travel into the ocean,
but this would be very dangerous in a speedboat. You can only use speedboats on rivers or lakes.
Question 31: A. funny B. fun C. funs D. funnies
Question 32: A. However B. Although C. Because D. Unless
Question 33: A. water B. speed C. weather D. wind
Question 34: A. small B. fast C. warm D. big
Question 35: A. Unfortunately B. At first C. In addition D. Except for
Read the following passage and circle A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 36 to 42
George Washington Carver showed that plant life was more than just food for animals and humans. Carver’s first
step was to analyze plant parts to find out what they were made of. He then combined these simpler isolated substances
with other substances to create new products.
The branch of chemistry that studies and finds ways to use raw materials from farm products to make industrial
products is called chemurgy. Carver was one of the first and greatest chemurgists of all time. Today the science of
chemurgy is better known as the science of synthetics. Each day people depend on and use synthetic materials made from
raw materials. All his life Carver battled against the disposal of waste materials and warned of the growing need to
develop substitutes for the natural substances being used up by humans.
Carver never cared about getting credit for the new products he created. He never tried to patent his discoveries or
get wealthy from them. He turned down many offers to leave Tuskegee Institute to become a rich scientist in private
industry. Thomas Edison, inventor of the electric light, offered him a laboratory in Detroit to carry out food research.
When the United States government made him a collaborator in the Mycology and Plant Disease Survey of the
Department of Agriculture, he accepted the position with the understanding that he wouldn’t have to leave Tuskegee. As
an authority on plant diseases – especially of the fungus variety – Carver sent hundreds of specimens to the United States
Department of Agriculture. At the peak of his career, Carver’s fame and influence were known on every continent.
Question 36: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The work and career of George Washington Carver. B. The research conducted at Tuskegee Institute
C. The progress of the science of synthetics. D. The use of plants as a source of nutrition
Question 37: The word “step” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with
A. footprint B. action C. scale D. stair
Question 38: According to the passage, chemurgical can be defined as the
A. combination of chemistry and metallurgy
B. research on chemistry of the soil
C. study of the relationship between sunlight and energy
D. development of industrial products from farm products
Question 39: The phrase “getting credit” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced with
A. taking responsibility B. earning money
C. winning praise D. advertising
Question 40: Why does the author mention Thomas Edison’s offer to Carver?
A. To illustrate one of Carver’s many opportunities
B. To portray the wealth of one of Carver’s competitors
C. To contrast Edison’s contribution with that of Carver
D. To describe Carver’s dependence on industrial support
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT discussed in the passage as work done by Carver?
A. Research on electricity B. Analysis of plant parts
C. Invention of new products D. Research on plant diseases
Question 42: One of Carver’s main concerns is most similar to which of the following present-day causes?
A. Preventive medicine B. Recycling of used materials
C. Preservation of old buildings D. Prevention of cruelty of animals.
Atomic were once thought to be fundamental pieces of matter, but they are in turn made of smaller subatomic
particles. There are three major subatomic particles neutrons, protons, and electronic. Protons and neutrons can be broken
into even smaller units, but these smaller units do not occur naturally in nature and are thought to only be produced in
manmade particle accelerators and perhaps in extreme stellar events like supernovas. The structure of an atom can best be
described as a small solar system, with the neutrons at the center and the electrons circling them in various orbits, just as
the planets circle the sun .In reality, the structure of an atom is far more complex, because the laws of physics are
fundamentally different at the atomic level than of the level of the observable word. The true nature of atomic structure
can only be expressed accurately through complex mathematical formulas .This explanation, however, is of little use to
most average people.
Protons and neutrons have nearly equal mass and size, but protons carry a positive electrical charge, while neutrons
carry no charge at all. Protons and neutrons are bound together by the strong nuclear force, one of the four basic forces in
the universe. Protons and neutrons give atoms some of their most basic properties. Elements are defined by two numbers;
their atomic number , which is equal to the number of protons they have, and their atomic weight , which is equal to total
number of their neutrons and protons. In most lighter atoms , the number of neutrons and protons is equal , and the
element is stable. In heavier atoms, however, there are more neutrons than protons , and the element is unstable,
eventually losing neutrons through radioactive decay until a neutral state is reached.
Electrons are negatively charged particles. They are bound to their atoms through electromagnetic attraction.
Opposite electrical charges attract one another, so the positive charge of the proton helps keep the negatively charged
electron in orbit around the nucleus of the atom. Electrons are different from neutrons in that they cannot be broken down
into smaller particles. They are also far smaller and lighter than neutrons and protons. An electron is about one thousandth
of the diameter of a proton and an even smaller fraction of its mass. Electrons circle the protons and neutrons at the center
of the atom in orbit. These orbits are often called electron shells. The closer the orbit is to the center of the atom, the lower
its energy is. There are seven electron shells, and each higher level can hold more electron than the previous shell.
Electrons naturally seek to occupy the lowest shell possible .So if there is space in a lower shell, an electron will drop
down to occupy that space. At temperatures higher than a few hundred degrees, electrons will gain energy and move to a
higher shell, but only momentarily. When the electrons drop back down to their natural shell, they emit light .This is why
fires and other very hot objects seem to glow.
Electrons are also primarily responsible for many of the chemical properties of atoms. Since electrons seek to
occupy the lowest electron shell possible, they will move from one atom to another if there is a space available in a lower
electron shell. For example, if there is an atom with an open space in its third shell, and it comes into contact with an atom
with electrons in its fourth shell, the first atom will take one of these electrons to complete its third shell. When this
happens, the two atoms will be chemically bonded to form a molecule. Furthermore, atoms sometimes lose electrons in
collisions with other atoms. When it happens, the radio of protons and electrons in the atom changes, and therefore, the
overall electrical charge of the atom changes as well. These atoms are called isotopes, and they have significantly different
chemical properties from their parent atoms.
Question 43: In paragraph 1, why does the author compare the structure of an atom to a solar system?
A. To provide an explanation of atomic structure that will be easily understood.
B. To show that the complex mathematical formulas used to explain atomic structure are inaccurate.
C. To show the influence of atomic structure on the world at the observable level.
D. To contrast the size of atoms with the size of objects at the observable level.
Question 44: According to paragraph 2, an atom’s atomic number is determined by
A. The sum of its protons and electrons.
B. The different in the mass of its neutrons and protons.
C. The strength of the bond between its protons and neutrons
D. The total number of protons it has.
Question 45: The word stable in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to
A. Neutral B. Unchanging C. Heavy D. Equal
Question 46: According to the information in paragraph 2, what will happen if an atom has more neutrons than protons?
A. It will not have enough of a positive electrical charge to keep its electrons in orbit.
B. Its nucleus will explode in a supernova.
C. It will slowly give off neutrons until the atom becomes stable.
D. Its extra neutrons will be converted into light energy.
Question 47: The phrase one another in paragraph 3 refers to
A. Particles B. Electrical charges C. Electrons D. Atoms
Question 48: According to paragraph 3, when does an atom produce light?
A. When it has more electrons than its electron shells can hold
B. When an electron drops back to its original electron shell
C. When an electron is transferred from one atom to another
D. When energy is added to the outermost electron shell
Question 49: According to the passage, all of the following are true of electrons EXCEPT
A. Their energy levels are fixed and unchanging.
B. They are kept in orbit by electromagnetic attraction
C. They are elementary particles and cannot be broken down
D. They are considerably smaller than neutrons or protons
Question 50: According to paragraph 4, which property of electrons is responsible for chemical bonding?
A. Their ability to break free of their atom during a collision
B. Their electromagnetic attraction to protons
C. The fact that they cannot be broken into smaller particles
D. Their tendency to occupy the lowest possible electron shell
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 279 ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from others.
Question 1: A. nasty B. hasty C. tasty D. wastage
Question 2: A. prose B. whose C. disclose D. chosen
Question 3: A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 4: A. independence B. experiment C. individual D. reputation
Question 5: Ernest Hemingway wrote The Old Man and the Sea, in addition to a number of the other work.
A. wrote B. in addition C. other D. work
Question 6: Don’t get angry with me for your failure. You are yourself to blame by it and it is nobody else’s fault.
A. get angry B. yourself C. by D. else's fault
Question 7: In my country we have to do nine core subjects and then we can choose several other.
A. to do B. core C. and then D. other
Question 8: We ________be going to France this summer, but we’re not sure yet.
A. can B. must C. would D. might
Question 9: He packed ________his job and went traveling in Nepal.
A. off B. away C. out D. in
Question 10: The jury________her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 11: Be careful! Don’t ________your drink on the table.
A. spill B. spread C. flood D. flow
Question 12: “The baby is crying! Will you ________while 1 prepare his milk?”
A. look him up B. look after him C. care about him D. make him up
Question 13: The driver________control of the vehicle and crashed into a bus.
A. lost B. missed C. failed D. dropped
Question 14: On the way the bus stopped to pick up a ________
A. customer B. rider C. pedestrian D. passenger
Question 15: I am ________tired to think about that problem at the moment.
A. simply B. nearly C. far too D. much more
Question 16: ________anything else, please ring the bell for the attendant.
A. Should you require B. You should require C. If you are requiring D. Were you to require
Question 17: Monica is ________for her ambition and determination by all of her teachers.
A. praised B. approved C. congratulated D. cheered
Question 18: They froze in ________when they saw the lion.
A. shock B. horror C. panic D. fright
Question 19: I can’t find those new socks I bought. I ________them in the store.
A. should have left B. must have left C. have left D. ought to have left
Question 20: Kelly: “I think that people are buying more than they actually need. What do you think?”Jack: ________,
especially in this time of economic crises.”
A. I don’t think so. B. I think the other way C. I don’t, either. D. I think opposite.
Question 21: Peter: "Is it important? " Tom: ________
A. not on your life B. It's a matter of life and death C. No worry, that's nothing D. It's ridiculous
Question 22: The principal objectives of ASEAN, outlined in the Bangkok Declaration (1976), were to accelerate
economic growth and promote peace and stability.
A. maintain B. predict C. speed up D. slow down
Question 23: They are going to demolish the old theater to make way for the new apartment complex.
A. pull down B. throw away C. rebuild D. decorate
Question 24: The difference between British and American English are comparatively small.
A. extremely B. relatively C. surprisingly D. straightly
Question 25: The Present is taking deliberate steps to balance the federal budget
A. thoroughly planned B. intentional C. purposeful D. accidental
Question 26: Tom would sooner do without a car than pay all that money for one.
A. Tom thinks the price is right, but he can’t afford it.
B. Tom thinks the price is too high, but he must have the car.
C. Tom is soon going to buy a car.
D. Tom would never buy a car costs so much.
Question 27: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind
B. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
C. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind
D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
Question 28: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.
A. His story was too funny to laugh.
B. His story couldn’t make us laugh.
C. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.
D. We all laughed at him for his story.
questions.
Question 29: Mike has expertise in gardening. Mike is an accomplished carpenter.
A. Beside gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter as well
B. Despite his expertise in gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter.
C. Due to his expertise in gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter.
D. Besides his expertise in gardening, Mike is also an accomplished carpenter.
Question 30: My friends are good at drawing. I am good at drawing.
A. My friends are good at drawing, and I do, too. B. Both my friends and I am good at drawing.
C. My friends are good at drawing and so I am. D. Neither my friend nor I am good at drawing.
THE BENEFITS OF JOINING A SPORTS CLUB
Everyone, old or young, should think about joining a sports club. There are many benefits of being a (31 )________of
a club. First of all, you have the opportunity not just to play your favorite sport on a regular basis, but also to improve.
Most clubs have training sessions or even professionals who (32)________lessons. Secondly, it’s a chance to meet people
who enjoying doing the same things as you so you will probably get (33)________with them and end up with a good
network of friends. Also these clubs usually have an excellent social life as they arrange parties and special occasions at
the club where you can meet to talk and eat together and generally have a good time. Many people (34)________up sports
in their early teens but it is good idea to continue as doing sport is a way of relieving stress and giving you more energy as
well as being a good break from your studies. Best of all, a lot of clubs can arrange to get tickets for top sporting events
that are hard to (35)________This means you can often get front row seats for matches and competitions in your favorite
sport, or you may even be able to see your favorite team. Well worth joining!
Question 31: A. fellow B. member C. representative D. associate
Question 32: A. offer B. present C. hand D. propose
Question 33: A. up B. on C. over D. about
Question 34: A. set B. get C. give D. put
Question 35: A. order B. book C. engage D. register
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World. Located in
modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the
Khmer Empire for the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive
ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that
archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh
water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitant’s irrigation system.
The temples and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were
annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding paddies and
farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent on the water for water crucial rice crop.
Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic system of the reservoirs and canals
broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical
labor. In addition, as the capital of Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who
resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food more quickly
and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion,
nutrient depletion, and loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With the less food available, the people of Angkor
slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia, thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the
jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.
Question 36: The passage preceding most likely discusses ________.
A. architecture of ancient Asian civilization B. religious practices of the people of Angkor
C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire D. the other six wonders of the world
Question 37: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ________.
A. was unable to supply fish for the people of Angkor B. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World
C. is an enormous body of fresh water in Asia D. became polluted due to a population explosion
Question 38: The word “seat” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. battle B. summit C. location D. chief
Question 39: The hydraulic system of reservoirs ________.
A. supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean B. helped transport the sandstone for constructing temples
C. were destroyed by nearby warrior’s tribes D. became non–functional due to overuse
Question 40: The word “artificial” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. man–made B. numerous C. natural D. insincere
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ____. .
A. reservoirs and canals B. temples and palaces C. rice paddles D. farmland
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT ________.
A. reduction of nutrients B. contamination of soil C. loss of water supply D. erosion of soil
The quest for sustainable sources of energy study the energy has led humans to study the energy potential of the sun
and the wind, as well as the immense power created by dammed rivers. The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of
potential energy. For example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000 times the energy generated
by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet, this source remains quite difficult to exploit.
But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few decades, several technologies that
can transform the ocean’s immense forces into usable electricity have been invented and introduced. Some focus on
capturing the power of the changing tides, while others rely on thermal energy created by oceans in certain tropical
regions. However, the most common and easiest-to-develop technologies are those designed to harness the power inherent
in the ocean’s waves.
There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All of them work because the movement
of the water that the waves induce creates storable energy by directly or indirectly driving a power generator. In one such
technology, the changing water levels in the ocean that are produced by waves lift a long floating tube comprised of many
sections connected by hinges. As the sections move up and down with the water, they pump a special fluid through the
tube that can be used to drive a generator. Another technique works on a similar principle, only the floating object rocks
back and forth with the motion of the water instead of up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on
the rising water from the waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the waves rush into the chamber,
they push the air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside this tunnel is a turbine connected to a power generator. The
movement of the air turns the turbine, which feeds energy into the generator.
The drawback to each of these concepts is that the they make it necessary to have many pieces of machinery linked
together. This presents a problem because the larger the device, the more vulnerable it is to damage from hazardous ocean
environments, and the more likely it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal scenery. Also, these methods demand
the construction of site-specific machines that take into consideration average local wave heights and sea conditions. Such
a requirement can be quite cost-prohibitive, because engineers must create unique power generation mechanism for each
site. In other words, the ability to get power from waves differ from region to region.
Japan, Norway, and the UK have attempted to generate energy by capturing the power of ocean waves. In northern
Scotland, the first power plan to use wave power, OSPREY ( Ocean Swell Powered Renewable Energy ), began operating
in 1995. It followed the principle of the third method described above : waves entering a partially submerged chamber
pushed air into turbines to generate electricity. The electricity was then transmitted to power collectors in the shore via
underwater cables. Unfortunately, the OSPREY plant was destroyed in a large storm, highlighting an unavoidable
difficulty associated with this kind of power generation.
The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the proper machinery is produced and
installed, the energy is free. Maintenance cost are small, and the equipment does not pose any threats of environmental
pollution. And best of all, the amounts of energy produced are enormous.
However, these theoretical advantages have yet to be fully realized. In many cases, a lack of government funding
has inhibited the technologies from advancing. For example, despite the relative abundance of proposed wave-power
devices, many have not been adequately tested, and most have been evaluated only in artificial pools where they are not
subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist in actual oceans. Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive
forces, as well as the fundamental task of determining feasible locations for collecting energy source are substantial and
will require more time to overcome.
Question 43: The phrase this source in the passage refers to
A. sun B. wind C. dammed rivers D. oceans
Question 44: The word exploit in the passage is closest meaning to
A. utilize B. declare C. contain D. determine
Question 45: Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph one ?
A. To give a current example of ocean–based energy technology
B. To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy
C. To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy
D. To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful
Question 46: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about wave–power technologies?
A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy
B. Compressed air must be present for them to work properly
C. They undertake three steps in order to collect wave power
D. They rely on the water’s motion to create electricity
Question 47: According to paragraph 5, what part did the cables play in OSPREY’s design?
A. They attached the partially submerged chamber to the sea floor
B. They generated the electricity which was then collected in turbines.
C. They conducted the electricity from the generator to the shore.
D. They provided stability during powerful ocean storms.
Question 48: The word inhibited in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. delivered B. prevented C. protected D. approved
Question 49: What can be inferred from paragraph 7 about governments?
A. They do not believe wave–energy devices can withstand ocean forces.
B. Their interests often conflict with those of the energy industries.
C. They demand much scientific research before they provide funding.
D. Their support is often essential to the success of new endeavors.
Question 50: All of these are problems associated with the collection of wave energy EXCEPT ?
A. the difficulty of finding feasible locations B. the destructive power of the ocean
C. the size of the equipment involved D. the constant changing of the tides
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 280(KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018)
Question 1: A. dream B. wear C. treat D. mean
Question 2: A. attacks B. medals C. concerns D. fingers
Question 3: A. behave B. relax C. enter D. allow
Question 4: A. disaster B. origin C. charity D. agency
Question 5: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the country; she must be on
cloud nine now.
A. extremely panicked B. obviously delighted C. incredibly optimistic D. desperately sad
Question 6: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the disaster-stricken areas.
A. uncertainty B. willingness C. awareness D. reluctance
Question 7: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. continued C. changed D. delayed
Question 8: The chairman’s thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the participants in the workshop:
A. triggered B. arose C. defined D. hosted
Question 9: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: “Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum.” - Kate: “________. It is an essential life skill.”
A. Oh, that’s a problem. B. I can’t agree with you more. C. Not at all D. You can make it.
Question 10: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: “_________.” - Mike: “It’s my pleasure.”
A. It’s too heavy. B. It’s not my duty. C. Thanks a lot, indeed. D. Welcome back.
Question 11: Only after he _________ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he loved it.
A. has left B. had left C. was leaving D. would leave
Question 12: You must not _________ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook the dish
properly.
A. quit B. skip C. leave D. hide
Question 13: If you didn’t have to leave today, I _________ you around the city.
A. have shown B. showed C. will show D. would show
Question 14: I’ve been waiting for hours. You _________ to tell me you would come late.
A. oughtn’t to have phoned B. must have phoned C. should have phoned D. needn’t have phoned
Question 15: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to _________ environmental consequences.
A. far-reaching B. far-gone C. far-off D. far-flung
Question 16: He promised _________ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. buy B. to buy C. to buying D. buying
Question 17: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good education will enable them to
_________ in the future.
A. turn up B. get on C. get out D. turn away
Question 18: The _________ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning a house
there.
A. forbidding B. competitive C. prohibitive D. inflatable
Question 19: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _________?
A. hasn’t he B. does he C. has he D. doesn’t he
Question 20: Susan has achieved great _________ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully
Question 21: After a momentary _________ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and completed the test.
A. lapse B. fault C. failure D. error
Question 22: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems _________ child abuse.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. are involving
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23) ______ tens of billions of dollars,
and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening
and closing ceremonies, athletes’ village, security, etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues (24) ______ lesser-
known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25) ______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one, an Olympic
host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and television rights.
Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games they hosted. (26)
______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and
tourism. The Olympics are also an opportunity to invest in projects (27) ______ improve the city’s quality of life, such as
new transportation systems.
Question 23: A. outnumber B. exceed C. overcharge D. surmount
Question 24: A. on B. at C. in D. for
Question 25: A. instrumental B. primary C. influential D. supplementary
Question 26: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. However
Question 27: A. which B. who C. what D. whom
each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America
people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Body language is a vital form of
communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body langauge contribute about 70 percent to our
comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body language varies in different cultrues. Take for example, eye
movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures
the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect.
Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South
Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart
only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm - or move any other part
of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world use the same
gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings,
depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many
cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another
culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America
B. Misunderstandings in communication
C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
D. Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American child is expected to
_________.
A. stand close to the person B. look directly at the person
C. raise his/her eyebrows D. point a finger at the person
Question 30: The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. enjoyment B. closeness C. strength D. agreement
Question 31: The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. misbehaved B. misunderstood C. mispronounced D. misspelled
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. an example B. making a mistake C. the country D. sticking out the tongue.
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from another culture, it is
advisable for a person _________.
A. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture B. to travel to as many countries as possible
C. to use the body language of the people from that culture
D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. posture B. gesture C. distance D. eye movement
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing the
way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the
environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have
been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they reduce
environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an alternative, non-
polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once
installed, they provide energy at no cost and with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use
noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for
heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in
summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally responsible
office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things: the need for a safe and
pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lesson the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building
materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent,
compared with other buildings of the same size.
It other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to green building
principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army housing. The site has been
completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special
non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar panels.
A larger projects is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built
with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities
will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale are spreading. Individuals, companies, and governments are
beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green buildings improve living and working
conditions and also save money in the long run.
Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
B. Successfully green building projects all over the world
C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
D. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially considered unrealistic
presumably because _________.
A. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20 th century
B. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
D. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. rays of the sun B. recycled materials C. green builders D. solar panels
Question 38: The word “insulation” in paragraph 3 mostly means _________.
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun’s rays B. devices that monitor changes in temperature
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity D. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge and the project in Vauban,
Germany?
A. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably
B. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs
C. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones
D. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating system
Question 40: The phrase “under way” in paragraph 6 mostyly means _________.
A. being notified B. being certified C. being inspected D. being launched
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economial eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE?
A. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world
B. They are more economical and produce no pollution
C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries
D. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens
Question 43: “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Thursday,” said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 44: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s
education.
A. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s education.
B. The quality of the country’s education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
C. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the country’s education.
D. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s
education.
Question 45: She wasn’t early enough to catch the bus.
A. She wasn’t late for the bus. B. She didn’t arrive late for the bus.
C. She arrived too early for the bus. D. She was too late to catch the bus.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 46: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on schoolchildren’s behaviour
and their academic performance.
A. exhausting B. into C. behaviour D. academic performance.
Question 47: Most wonders seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A. seems B. with C. new D. conditions
Question 48: It is the night of 5th November that people in Britain light bonfires and have fireworks as a national
tradition.
A. the night of 5th November B. in Britain C. fireworks D. national
Question 49: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the competition.
C. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in the competition.
Question 50: Joe has finished his frist-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-air course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 281 ( ĐỀ SỐ 15)
Question 01. A. quality B. solution C. compliment D. energy
Question 02. A. angry B. complete C. polite D. secure
Question 03. A. visits B. destroys C. believes D. depends
Question 04. A. floor B. door C. noodle D. board
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 05. Mike an Joe are talking about transport in the future.
- Mike. “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?”. - Joe. “______”.
A. I’m afraid I can’t. B. What for? There are quite a few around.
C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers. D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 06. Julie and Ann are talking about their classmate. - Julie. “______”.
- Ann. “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.”
A. Do you see him often? B. What are you thinking?
C. How did you meet him? D. He is quite good-looking, isn’t he?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 07. I think it’s impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate students’ progress.
A. stop B. extinguish C. continue D. organize
Question 08. At first, no one believed she was a pilot, but her documents lent colour to her statements.
A. provided evidence for B. got information from C. borrowed colour from D. gave no proof of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 09. The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.
A. respectable B. unacceptable C. mischievous D. satisfactory
Question 10. My parent’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.
A. influence B. discourage C. reassure D. inspire
Question 11. The energy ______ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.
A. harnessing B. is harnessed C. which harnessed D. harnessed
Question 12. We truly respected our father and always ______ by his rule.
A. submitted B. complied C. obeyed D. abode
Question 13. The architects have made ______ use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 14. Tom denied ______ part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 15. Your brother hardly talks to anyone, ______?
A. does he B. is he C. doesn’t he D. isn’t he
Question 16. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be ______ to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Question 17. You looked exhausted. I think you’ve ______ more than you can handle.
A. turned on B. taken up C. turned up D. taken on
Question 18. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she ______ a wrong choice.
A. had made B. has made C. had been making D. was making
Question 19. It ______ Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been
Question 20. If Paul ______ a job now, he wouldn’t be so unhappy.
A. has B. has had C. had D. would have
Question 21. The wine had made him a little ______ and couldn’t control his movement.
A. narrow-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted
Question 22. You need to make ______ about what course to take at university.
A. a decision B. a fortune C. a guess D. an impression
My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at
university and I was only able to work a few nights a week.
I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The (23)
______ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to
work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for
ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was (24) ______ to some benefits, including discounts.
When I eventually started, I was responsible (25) ______ the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved
demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun
even when we had to deal with customers (26) ______ got on our nerves. (27) ______, working there was a great
experience which I will never forget.
Question 23. A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel
Question 24. A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied
Question 25. A. for B. with C. in D. to
Question 26. A. which B. why C. when D. who
Question 27. A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole
American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are entertaining, but they are not true.
You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really like.
Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they study. Movies almost
never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead, movies show them eating, talking, hanging out, or
dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is true that American students have the freedom to participate in activities,
they also have academic responsibilities. In order to succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard.
Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is a wide variety of
nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and theater programs. This variety
allows students to choose what interests them. Even more important, after graduation, students’ résumés look better to
employers if they list a few extracurricular activities.
Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is true that some American
college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes. Up to 80% of them get some type of
financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income families often work part-time throughout their college years. There
is one thing that many college students have in common, but it is not something you will see in the movies. They have
parents who think higher education is a priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives.
Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way. super athletic, super intelligent, super
wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of romance and adventure because
audiences like going to movies that include these elements. Of course, real college students are not like movie characters
at all.
So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some college websites or
brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few classes. True, you may not be able to see the
same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you can be sure that there are plenty of academic
adventures going on all around you !
Question 28. The stories about college life in American movies are not ________.
A. true B. interesting C. boring D. exciting
Question 29. The phrase “academic responsibilities” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “_______ ”.
A. learning duties B. training skills C. caring professions D. teaching methods
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Learning is only part of students’ college life.
B. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students.
C. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers.
D. Not all extracurricular activities are students’ academic responsibilities.
Question 31. The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ______
A. employers B. activities C. colleges D. résumés
Question 32. The word “moderate” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “_______”.
A. not high B. unlimited C. not steady D. sensible
Question 33. Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years because_____.
A. they are not allowed to work full-time B. they want to gain experience
C. their parents force them to D. they can earn money for their expenses
Question 34. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Going to College. The Only Way to Succeed in Life B. Hollywood Movies. The Best About College Life
C. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities D. American College Life and the Movies
TRAVELING TO WORK
If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many jobs available
today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have
disadvantages.
Being an au pair is an excellent way to not only go to different countries, but to live in different places around the world
and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs lives with the families they are placed with and take of children. Many
parents include au pairs in family events and vacations, so they experience many aspects of the new culture while on the
job. However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things that
interest adults.
For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher maybe a good choice. There are
English teaching jobs in almost countries in the world. People teaching English in other countries often have a chance to
travel on the weekends around the country. One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other
English teachers, and they don’t have time to learn the country’s language. The nickname “roadie” implies that this job
involves life on the road. Roadies are people who work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can
be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events. They can also be technicians
helping band members with their instruments. International tours take a band’s crew to cities around the world, often
requiring air travel. However, the crew doesn’t get much time off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing
much besides concert venues and hotels.
Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don’t see much besides the inside of airplanes
and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often fly at no cost, and family member can sometimes fly free
as well. Its is widely thought that a flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants must deal with travel hassles, as
well as security issues. All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have the
travel bug, keep these jobs in mind for the future.
Question 35. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair?
A. experience many interesting things B. live in different places around the world.
C. experience many aspects of the new culture. D. most activities are centered around children.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Jobs with opportunities to travel. B. Disadvantages of traveling jobs.
C. Traveling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes.
Question 37. The word “glamorous” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to ________
A. skilled B. atractive C. permanent D. challenging
Question 38. How is a flight attendant’s job similar to a roadie’s?
A. Family members may not have to pay for flights. B. They must deal with travel hassles.
C. A lot of time is spent indoors. D. They provide technical support.
Question 39. The word “venue” in paragraph 4 is closet meaning to ?
A. performances B. places C. tours D. artists
Question 40. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ?
A. people B. opportunities C. careers D. disadvantages
Question 41. Which of the following is something a roadie might do?
A. set up the lights for a performance.
B. play the guitar in front of a large audience.
C. clean hotel rooms after the ban and crew have left.
D. work on the road
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that _______
A. traveling careers have more disadvantages than many other.
B. English teachers abroad don’t know the language of the country where they work.
C. it’s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks.
D. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job.
Question 43. “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager promised to be very open-minded.
B. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded.
C. The manager denied having been very open-minded.
D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded.
Question 44. They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution.
A. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution.
B. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution.
C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution.
D. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels.
Question 45. Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
A. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper.
C. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper.
D. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
Question 46. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Question 47. There were inconsiderate amounts of money wasted on large building projects.
A. inconsiderate B. amounts C. wasted D. building
Question 48. As far as I’m concerned, it was the year 2007 that Vietnam joined the World Trade Organization
A. concerned B. the year 2007 C. that D. the
Question 49. He missed the opportunity to study abroad. He didn’t realize the importance of English.
A. He hadn’t realized the importance of English until he missed the opportunity to study abroad.
B. Had he missed the opportunity to study abroad, he wouldn’t have realized the importance of English.
C. It was only after he realized the importance of English that he missed the opportunity to study abroad.
D. Not until he realized the importance of English did he miss the opportunity to study abroad.
Question 50. Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger.
B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 282- ĐỀ SỐ 20
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
At 7pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way
across a vast car park. They’re not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here for what is,
bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don’t seem to be
acquainted with anyone who’s ever been, the show’s statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen
Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the most popular live entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their lives travelling round
Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous, and it's undoubtedly hard work. The backstage
atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably
referred to as the girls' dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and
cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up,
tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is grey and mucky with rows of
dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an
unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio
system are in California, but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now
creative director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they're ready for the show's next
performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the cast start to go through their routines under Cousins’
direction. Cousins says, The aim is to make sure they're all still getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right
time - largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out
they'll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge, ‘he continues, ‘is to produce something they can sell in a number of
countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but
not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters,
because they have to do it every night.’
It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can't doubt his enthusiasm. “The only place you'll see certain
skating moves is an ice show,” he says, “because you're not allowed to do them in competition. It's not in the rules. So
the ice show world has things to offer which the competitive world just doesn't.” Cousin knows what he's talking about
because he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the
hard way that you can't put on an Olympic performance every night. “I'd be thinking, these people have paid their
money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought”, “I really can't cope. I'm not enjoying it”. The solution, he realised,
was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class Olympic skaters, some of the
movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge? Equally, it's impossible not to be swept up in the
whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.
Question 1: According to paragraph 1 the writer is surprised to see that although Holiday on Ice is popular ________ .
A. people often prefer other types of show B. most people consider it as a holiday
C. few people know someone who has seen it D. people prefer to see a film, the ballet, or the circus
Question 2: Which of the following adjectives can be used to describe the backstage area?
A. messy B. glamorous C. relaxing D. old
Question 3: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that ________ .
A. the show has been staged in many places B. many companies are involved in the production
C. the show need financial support D. it is difficult to find suitable equipment
Question 4: For Robin Cousins, the aim of the rehearsal is ________ .
A. to adjust the spotlights B. to keep in time with the music
C. to be acquainted with the stage D. to position the skaters on the ice
Question 5: It is suggested in paragraph 5 that skating in shows ________ .
A. enables skaters to visit a variety of places B. is as competitive as other forms of skating
C. allows skaters to try out a range of ideas D. is particularly well paid
Question 6: The pronoun “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ________ .
A. some live performances B. some famous skaters
C. certain ice shows D. certain skating moves
Question 7: The phrase “the hard way” in paragraph 5 most likely means ________ .
A. by working very hard B. by having expectation of others
C. through doing things again and again D. through difficult personal experience
Question 8: Which of the following is the writer’s conclusion of Holiday on Ice?
A. It is more enjoyable than Holiday on Ice. B. It is hard to know who really enjoys it.
C. It is difficult to dislike it. D. It requires more skills than Olympic ice-skating.
Question 9: My mother ________ me against staying late night after right to prepare for exams.
A. warned B. recommended C. reprimanded D. encouraged
Question 10: Cannon is telling Callie a bad news.
Cannon: “Mrs. Brown passed away yesterday.” Callie: “David has told me that ________ .”
A. God bless B. God save the Queen C. By God D. God rest her
Question 11: They ________ your money if you haven’t kept your receipt.
A. won’t refund B. didn’t refund C. no refund D. not refund
Question 12: That’s a nice coat, and the colour ________ you well.
A. suits B. couples C. matches D. fits
Question 13: Alice and Ann are preparing for their presentation at school.
Alice: “________.” Ann: “Take it easy! We still have 15 minutes.”
A. Try better. We are going to have an exam B. You can say that again
C. Nothing more to say D. Hurry up! We don’t have much time left
Question 14: Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is ________ certain.
A. by all means B. by any chance C. at any rate D. by no means
Question 15: Van Gogh suffered from depression ________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. pull through
Question 16: The hall was very crowded with over a hundred people ________ into it.
A. stuck B. packed C. pushed D. stuffed
Question 17: ________ a hotel, we looked for somewhere to have dinner.
A. Finding B. After finding C. Having found D. We found
Question 18: The move to a different environment brought about a significant ________ in my cousin’s state of mind.
A. influence B. impact C. change D. effect
Question 19: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself ________ .
A. occupation B. occupied C. occupant D. occupational
Question 20: You should ________ at least three days for the journey.
A. expect B. permit C. accept D. allow
Question 21: I don’t object to people being vegetarians, but it gets on my nerves when they’re ________ about it.
A. self-centered B. self-righteous C. self-deprecating D. self-sufficient
Question 22: After ancient Greek athletes won a race in the Olympic, they ________ a simple crown of olive leaves.
A. received B. has received C. were receiving D. have received
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that nees correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Man is superior than the animals in that he uses language to communicate
A. Man B. than C. in that D. communicate
Question 24: Abraham Lincoln’s boyhood home resembled that of many other mid-western
Pioneers, with its dirt floor, sleeping loft, and crude fireplace.
A. boyhood home B. that C. dirt floor D. crude
Question 25: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating equipment,
and to sample population.
A. basic elements B. are C. tabulating D. to sample
The human criterion for perfect vision is 20/20 for reading the standard lines on a Snellen eye chart without a hitch.
The score is determined by how well you read lines of letters of different sizes from 20 feet away. But being able to
read the bottom line on the eye chart does not approximate perfection as far as other species are concerned. Most birds
would consider us very visually handicapped. The hawk, for instance, has such sharp eyes that it can spot a dime on the
sidewalk while perched on top of the Empire State Building.
It can make fine visual distinctions because it is blessed with one million cones per square millimeter in its retina. And
in water, humans are farsighted, while the kingfisher, swooping down to spear fish, can see well in both the air and
water because it is endowed with two foveae - areas of the eye, consisting mostly of cones, that provide visual
distinctions. One fovea permits the bird, while in the air, to scan the water below with one eye at a time. This is called
monocular vision. Once it hits the water, the other fovea joins in, allowing the kingfisher to focus both eyes, like
binoculars, on its prey at the same time.
A frog’s vision is distinguished by its ability to perceive things as a constant motion picture. Known as “bug detectors”,
a highly developed set of cells in a frog’s eyes responds mainly to moving objects. So, it is said that a frog sitting in a
field of dead bugs wouldn’t see them as food and would starve. The bee has a “compound” eye, which is used for
navigation. It has 15,000 facets that divide what it sees into a pattern of dots, or mosaic. With this kind of vision, the
bee sees the sun only as a single dot, a constant point of reference. Thus, the eye is a superb navigational instrument
that constantly measures the angle of its line of flight in relation to the sun. A bee’s eye also gauges flight speed. And if
that is not enough to leave our 20/20 “perfect vision” paling into insignificance, the bee is capable of seeing something
we can’t - ultraviolet light.
Thus, what humans consider to be “perfect vision” is in fact rather limited when we look at other species. However,
there is still much to be said for the human eye. Of all the mammals, only humans and some primates can enjoy the
pleasures of color vision.
A. Limits of the human eye B. Perfection vision
C. Different eyes for different uses D. Eye variation among different species
Question 27: The phrase “without a hitch” is closet meaning to ________ .
A. unaided B. without glasses C. with little hesitation D. easily
Question 28: According to the passage, why might birds and animals consider humans very visually handicapped?
A. Hunman can’t see very well in either air or water.
B. Human eyes are not as well suited to our needs.
C. The main outstanding feature of human eyes is color vision.
D. Human eyes can’t do what their eyes can do.
Question 29: The word “that” in line 10 refers to ________ .
A. foveae B. areas of the eye C. cones D. visual distinctions
Question 30: According to the passage, “bug detectors” are useful for ________ .
A. navigation B. seeing moving objects
C. avoiding bugs when getting food D. avoiding starvation
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Kingfishers have monocular vision.
B. Bees see patterns of dots.
C. Hawks eyes consist mostly of cones that can allow it to scan with one eye at time
D. Humans are farsighted in water.
Question 32: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Eyes have developed differently in each species B. Bees have the most complex eye
C. Humans should not envy what they don’t need D. Perfect vision is not perfect
Read the and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Easter is a holiday in late March or early April, the first Sunday after the first full moon after 21 March. Many people
(33) ________ it with their family or have a short holiday/ vacation. It is also an important Christian festival. Easter
Sunday, the day of the Resurrection, is the end of Lent and the most important date in the Christian year. Many people
who do not go to church at other times go on Easter Sunday. It was once (34) ________ for people to wear new clothes
to church on this day. Women (35) ________ new hats, called Easter bonnets. Today, people sometimes make
elaborately decorated Easter bonnets for fun. A few people send Easter (36) ________ with religious symbols on them
or pictures of small chickens, lambs, rabbits and spring flowers, all traditionally associated with Easter.
The Friday before Easter Sunday is called Good Friday and is remembered as the day Christ was crucified (= hanged
on a cross to die). On Good Friday many people eat hot cross buns (= fruit buns decorated with a simple cross). The
Monday after Easter is called Easter Monday. In Britain, Good Friday and Easter Monday are both bank holidays. In
the US, each company decides for itself (37) ________ to close or remain open on those days.
Question 33: A. spend B. use C. take D. expend
Question 34: A. familiar B. common C. regular D. ordinary
Question 35: A. take on B. bore C. put on D. wore
Question 36: A. notes B. cards C. letters D. envelopes
Question 37: A. if B. whether C. why D. how
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 38: To preserve anonymity, the contributors’s names were removed.
A. conserve B. cover C. presume D. reveal
Question 39: Keeping animals in these conditions is unbelievably cruel. The farmer ought to prosecuted.
A. clever B. reasonable C. gentle D. brutal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined
Question 40: One of the aims of most Lay Organizations is to disseminate knowledge about Huntington’s disease to
local doctors, social workers and nursing homes.
A. dedicate B. compile C. condense D. disperse
Question 41: Cynthia was one edge all day about the important presentation she had to give to the local citizens
group.
A. nervous and excited B. doing well C. satisfied D. working hard
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 42: A. particularly B. photocopy C. enthusiasm D.economy
Question 43: A. computer B. property C. horizon D. imagine
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation.
Question 44: A. bushes B. wishes C. researches D. headaches
Question 45: A. tool B. spoon C. foot D. noon
ark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences.
Question 46: It’s cold outside and my leg hurts. I haven't been out for weeks.
A. I haven't been out for weeks, which makes the weather cold and my leg bad.
B. The weather is cold and my leg is bad as a result of my stay indoors for weeks.
C. What with the cold weather and my bad leg, I haven't been out for weeks.
D. What makes the weather cold and my leg bad is my stay indoors for weeks.
Question 47: Leaders are not allowed to attend festivals. Also, they are not allowed to use office cars, except for
performing assigned tasks.
A. Leaders are not allowed to attend festivals until they use office cars for performing assigned tasks.
B. Leaders are not allowed to both attend festivals and use office cars, except for performing assigned tasks.
C. Leaders are allowed to either attend festivals or use office cars, except for performing assigned tasks.
D. Leaders are allowed to neither attend festivals nor use office cars, except for performing assigned tasks.
Question 48: We missed the turning because we forgot to take the map with us.
A. Without the right map with us, we missed the turning.
B. If we were taking the map with us, we did not miss the turning.
C. Without the map with us, we missed the turning.
D. Had we taken the map with us, we would not have missed the turning.
Question 49: They rumour that she will get married to a foreign man
A. She is rumoured to get married to a foreign man.
B. She is rumoured to have got married to a foreign man.
C. It is rumoured that she would have got married to a foreign man.
D. It will be rumoured that she has got married to a foreign man.
Question 50: I’m sorry I interrupted your speech in the middle.
A. Your speech is very sorry for being interrupted in the middle.
B. I’m sorry to interrupt your speech in the middle.
C. It’s my pity to interrupt your speech in the middle.
D. I apologized for having interrupted your speech in the middle.
word(s) in each of following questions.
Question 1: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 2: We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. had a little time to play B. had a lot of time to play C. felt happy D. felt disappointed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige
Question 4: A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate
Question 5: A. decides B. combines C. lives D. appoints
Question 6: A. picture B. culture C. pure D. nature
Question 7: Mario has now ______ to the point where his English is almost fluent.
A. arrived B. approached C. advanced D. reached
Question 8: It seems that he is having a lot of difficulties, ______?
A. doesn’t it B. isn’t it C. isn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 9: If energy ______ inexpensive and unlimited, many things in the world would be different.
A. is B. will be C. were D. would be
Question 10: Opera singer Maria Callas was known for her ______ powerful voice.
A. intensity B. intensify C. intense D. intensely
Question 11: ______, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 12: Dr. Parker gave my mom a lovely ______ for spaghetti carbonara.
A. recipe B. prescription C. receipt D. paper
Question 13: My sunburnt nose made me feel rather ______ for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-confident B. self-centered C. self-conscious D. self-evident
Question 14: Why is he always ______ the subject of money?
A. bringing up B. taking up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 15: ______ that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D.Her anger was so
Question 16: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are ______.
A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work
Question 17: Do you remember Daisy? I ran ______ her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by B. down C. across D. in
Question 18: It is not ______ to be drunk in the street.
A. respecting B. respectably C. respectful D. respectable
Question 19: A salesgirl is talking to a customer in a clothes shop.
Salesgirl: “Can I help you, madam?” Customer: “______”
A. Yes, it’s in our summer sale. B. It’s very cheap.
C. No, thanks. I’m just looking D. Right. It looks a bit small
Question 20: Cairo and Roma are talking in the living room.
Cairo: “______?” Roma: “I’d rather you didn’t, if you don’t mind.”
A. Would you do me a favour B. Would you mind if I opened the door
C. Will you please open the window D. Do you mind helping me with my work
Question 21: The woman is famous not only for her beauty, intelligent but also for her hardworking.
A. not only B. intelligent C. for D. hardworking
Question 22: Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
A. world’s B. richest C. there D. been not
Question 23: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily among
the population.
A. What we know about B. are C. from spreading D. among
Question 24: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived
Question 25: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the late
nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph
Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today's Sunday funnies, appeared two years later,
in William Randolph Hearst's rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular, and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of
papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the "Yellow Kid", the first continuous comic character in the
United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The
"Yellow Kid" was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later
strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters' heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks's "Katzenjammer Kids," based on
Wilhelm Busch's Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The "Kids" strip, first published in 1897,
served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of
characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of most earlier
comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country. Though
weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the Chicago
American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of
daily newspapers around the country.
Question 26: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created. B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared. D. In alphabetical order by title.
Question 27: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT
______.
A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize life in a humorous way
Question 28: The word “incorporate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect
Question 29: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today. B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York’s first newspaper. D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
Question 30: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”
Question 31: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings. B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters. D. They provided a break from serious news stories.
A. The differences between early and modern comic strips B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories. D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.
Read the and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves
might (33) ______ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not enable us to say
with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (34) ______. On the other hand, current research has not yet proved
clear adverse effects associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (35) ______ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have
shown an association between moblie phone use and cancer. (36) ______, these studies are preliminary and the issue
needs further, long-term investigation.
Until the scientific data are more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phones for long period of time.
Don’t think that hands-free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the opposite and they
may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (37) ______ bodies are still growing may be at particular
risk.
Question 33: A. bring B. lead C. cause D. produce
Question 34: A. risky B. unhealthy C. secure D. safe
Question 35: A. on B. by C. through D. about
Question 36: A. Additionally B. However C. While D. Though
Question 37: A. whose B. that C. with D. as
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have scientific
names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity
and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for
communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking
difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about
700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66,
and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been
well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also
patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for
butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly
understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly
"personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and
tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity,
number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly
distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar
species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be
minimized.
Question 38: The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 39: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they
______.
A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 40: The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats.
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions.
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region.
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups.
Question 42: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity
EXCEPT______.
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones.
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region.
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones.
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants.
Question 43: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 44: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to ______.
A. insects B. butterflies C. patterns D. issues
Question 45: The idea “little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution” in paragraph 5 is that ______.
A. there are many other things that we don’t know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don’t know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 46: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 47: “Cigarette?”, he said. “No, thanks.”, I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Question 48: They started the meal after they had reached an agreement.
A. Reaching an agreement, they started the meal.
B. Having reached an agreement, they started the meal.
C. Having had the meal, they reached an agreement.
D. Having the meal, they reached an agreement.
Question 49: It had been snowing all day. A great many people managed to get to the end-of-term concert.
A. Very few people indeed were prevented from getting to the end-of-term concert by the heavy snow.
B. Since there had been snow all day long, it wasn’t easy for people to get to the end-of-term concert.
C. As it had been snowing heavily all day, a great many people just could not get to the end-of-term concert.
D. A lot of people did get to the end-of-term concert in spite of the snow that fell all day.
Question 50: People said that the manager would return next Monday.
A. The manger was said to have returned on Monday.
B. The manager was said to return next Monday.
C. The manager is said to return next Monday.
D. The manager is said to have returned on Monday.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 284 ( ĐỀ SỐ 2)
Question 1: He decided to buy some chocolate kept in an ________ container for his father.
A. air tighted B. tight-air C. tight aired D. airtight
Question 2: The politician tried to arouse the crowd, but most of them were ________ to his arguments.
A. closed B. indifferent C. careless D. dead
Question 3: - “Can you take the day off tomorrow?”
- “Well, I’ll have to get ________ from my boss.”
A. permission B. licence C. allowance D. permit
Question 4: I do not believe that this preposterous scheme is ________ of our serious consideration.
A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthless
Question 5: He made me ________ they had left the district.
A. to believe B. believed C. believe D. believing
Question 6: Dr. Evans has ________ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
Question 7: It’s a pity you didn’t ask because I ________ you.
A. should have helped B. could have helped C. must have helped D. would have helped
Question 8: It was difficutl to guess what her ________ to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
Question 9: The greater part of London ________ of wood, but after the great fire, wider streets and brick
houses ________.
A. have been/are built B. was/were built C. was /would be built D. had been/ were built
Question 10: Harry and Kate are talking in Harry’s office.
Kate: “May I open the window?” Harry: “________”
A. What suits you? B. You are free. C. Accommodate yourself! D. Go ahead!
Question 11: The show was very funny. They were ________ sport commentators.
A. sending up B. taking up C. looking up D. bringing up
Question 12: Maria is talking to Ann after work.
Maria: “________?” Ann: “With pleasure.”
A. Could you give me a lift B. Would you mind if I smoked
C. What do you plan to do D. Would you like a cup of tea
Question 13: The newcomer has got few friends, ________?
A. doesn’t she B. does she C. hasn’t she D. has she
Question 14: ________ more help, I could call my neighbour.
A. Needed B. Should I need C. I have needed D. I should need
Question 15: In 1864 George Pullman designed a sleeping car that eventually saw widespread use.
A. previously B. ultimately C. familiarly D. simultaneously
Question 16: Why are you so arrogant?
A. snooty B. stupid C. humble D. cunning
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 17: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 18: Pop music is not my cup of tea; I prefer classical music.
A. doesn’t suit my taste B. is not my favourite drink
B. is something I enjoy most D. is an object I don’t need
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. great B. bean C. teacher D. means
Question 20: A. removed B. approved C. beloved D. relieved
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
Question 21: A. statistical B. solidarity C. sociology D.
managerial
Question 22: A. familiar B. redundant C. customary D.
reluctant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 23: Gilbert Newton Lewis, a chemist, helped to develop the modern electron theory
of valence, a theory what explains the forces holding atoms together in molecules.
A. a B. develop C.
what D. together
Question 24: Carnegie Hall was the first building in New York designing specially for
orchestral music.
A. the B. designing
C. specially D. orchestral music
Question 25: Lady Liberty has long been a symbol of free and hope to people all over the
world, but have you ever wondered where she came from?
A. long B. a C. free
D. where she came
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as “silent”, the film has never been, in the full
sense of the word,silent. From the very beginning, music was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the
Lumiere films were shown at the first public film exhibition in the United States in February 1896, they were
accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore no special relationship to the
films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively
music to a solemn film became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to the mood
of the film.
As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would be added to the pianist in
certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras were formed. For a number of years the selection of music
for each film program rested entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the principal
qualification for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the ownership of a large personal library of
musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw the films until the night before they were to be shown (if, indeed, the
conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the musical arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry.
To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing suggestions for musical
accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began issuing with their films such indications of mood as
“pleasant”, “sad”, “lively”. The suggestions became more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing
indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show where one piece led into the
next.
Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early special scores was that composed
and arranged for D.W. Griffith’s film Birth of a Nation, which was released in 1915.
Question 26: The passage mainly discusses music that was ________.
A. performed before the showing of a film B. played during silent films
C. recorded during film exhibitions D. specifically composed for certain movie theaters
Question 27: What can be inferred that the passage about the majority of films made after 1927?
A. They were truly “silent”.
B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras.
C. They incorporated the sound of the actors’ voices.
D. They corresponded to specific musical compositions.
Question 28: It can be inferred that orchestras conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to ________.
A. be able to play many instruments B. have pleasant voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music D. be able to compose original music
Question 29: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ________ .
A. years B. hands C. pieces D. films
Question 30: According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?
A. It produced electricity. B. It distributed films.
C. It published musical arrangements. D. It made musical instruments.
Question 31: It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around ________.
A. 1896 B. 1909 C. 1915 D. 1927
Question 32: Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue sheet of the early
1900’s?
A. “Calm, peaceful” B. “Piano, violin”
C. “Key of C major” D. “Directed by D.W. Griffith’s”
Question 33: The word “scores” in paragraph 4 most likely means ________.
A. totals B. successes C. groups of musicians D. musical compositions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits, considering quality,
value and style before making a decision. (34) ________, we are easily influenced by the people around us.
There is nothing wrong with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than (35) ________ on only our own
opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long understood that groups of friends and relatives tend
to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with
(36)________ to how much money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently arrive at the
same decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (37) ________ envy or perhaps because they have shared
information about the products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on buying decisions.
When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances (38) ________ that person would buy a car of
the same brand during the next week and a half rose by 86 per cent. The researchers argued that it was not just a matter
of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than new cars. This suggested that people were not trying to
keep up with their neighbours, they were keen to learn from them. Since used cars are less reliable, a recommendation of
one can strongly influence a buying decision.
Question 34: A. What’s more B. Instead C. Unlike D. In place
Question 35: A. basing B. trusting C. supposing D. relying
Question 36: A. connection B. regard C. relation D. concern
Question 37: A. for B. as to C. out of D. about
Question 38: A. who B. whose C. that D. when
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Glass is a remarkable substance made from the simplest raw materials. It can be colored or colorless, monochrome or
polychrome, transparent, translucent, or opaque. It is lightweight impermeable to liquids, readily cleaned and reused,
durable yet fragile, and often very beautiful. Glass can be decorated in multiple ways and its optical properties are
exceptional. In all its myriad forms - as table ware, containers, in architecture and design - glass represents a major
achievement in the history of technological developments.
Since the Bronze Age about 3,000 B.C., glass has been used for making various kinds of objects. It was first made from a
mixture of silica, line and an alkali such as soda or potash, and these remained the basic ingredients of glass until the
development of lead glass in the seventeenth century. When heated, the mixture becomes soft and malleable and can be
formed by various techniques into a vast array of shapes and sizes. The homogeneous mass thus formed by melting then
cools to create glass, but in contrast to most materials formed in this way (metals, for instance), glass lacks the crystalline
structure normally associated with solids, and instead retains the random molecular structure of a liquid. In effect, as
molten glass cools, it progressively stiffens until rigid, but does so without setting up a network of interlocking crystals
customarily associated with that process. This is why glass shatters so easily when dealt a blow. Why glass deteriorates
over time, especially when exposed to moisture, and why glassware must be slowly reheated and uniformly cooled after
manufacture to release internal stresses induced by uneven cooling.
Another unusual feature of glass is the manner in which its viscosity changes as it turns from a cold substance into a hot,
ductile liquid. Unlike metals that flow or "freeze" at specific temperatures glass progressively softens as the temperature
rises, going through varying stages of malleability until it flows like a thick syrup. Each stage of malleability allows the
glass to be manipulated into various forms, by different techniques, and if suddenly cooled the object retains the shape
achieved at that point. Glass is thus amenable to a greater number of heat-forming techniques than most other materials.
Question 39: Why does the author list the characteristics of glass in paragraph 1?
A. To demonstrate how glass evolved. B. To show the versatility of glass.
C. To explain glassmaking technology. D. To explain the purpose of each component of glass.
Question 40: What does the author imply about the raw materials used to make glass?
A. They were the same for centuries. B. They are liquid.
C. They are transparent. D. They are very heavy.
Question 41: According to the passage, how is glass that has cooled and become rigid different from most other rigid
substances?
A. It has an interlocking crystal network. B. It has an unusually low melting temperature.
C. It has varying physical properties. D. It has a random molecular structure.
Question 42: The words "exposed to" in paragraph 2 most likely mean ________.
A. hardened by B. chilled with C. subjected to D. deprived of
Question 43: What must be done to release the internal stresses that build up in glass products during manufacture?
A. The glass must be reheated and evenly cooled. B. The glass must be cooled quickly.
C. The glass must be kept moist until cooled. D. The glass must be shaped to its desired form immediately.
Question 44: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. feature B. glass C. manner D. viscosity
Question 45: According to the passage, why can glass be more easily shaped into specific forms than can metals
A. It resists breaking when heated B. It has better optical properties.
C. It retains heat while its viscosity changes. D. It gradually becomes softer as its temperature rises.
Question 46: “Never borrow money from friends”, my father said.
A. My father advised me to borrow money from friends.
B. My father told me not to borrow money from friends.
C. My father suggested me that I should borrow money from friends.
D. My father advised me not to lend my friends money.
Question 47: They were exposed to biased information, so they didn’t know the true story.
A. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.
B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the true story.
C. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.
D. . If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.
Question 48: People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.
A. 13 is believed to have been an unlucky number.
B. 13 is believed to be an unlucky number.
C. It was believed that 13 was an unlucky number.
D. It is believed that 13 has been an unlucky number.
Question 49: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Question 50: We had had very salty food. We were all dying of thirst.
A. Having very salty food, we were all dying of thirst.
B. Having had very salty food, we were all dying of thirst.
C. Dying of thirst, we had very salty food.
D. Having died of thirst, we had very salty food.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 1: Prime Minister Malcolm Turnbull is trying to ________ himself with US President Donald Trump an impress
Australian voters.
A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend
Question 2: She made no ________ to her illness but only to her future plans.
A. statement B. mention C. reference D. comment
Question 3: It is difficult to assess the full ________ of the damage caused by Hurricane Sandy, one of the most destructive
storms the U.S has had in quite some time.
A. range B. extent C. amount D. quality
Question 4: Frankly, I’d rather you ________ anything about it for the time being.
A. don’t do B. hadn’t done C. didn’t do D. haven’t done
Question 5: An acrobatic aerial performance titled Vietnamese Wings by two Vietnamese artists ________ the highest prize
at the International Circus Festival Circuba 2017, held in Cuba between June 25 and July 2.
A. have won B. won C. had won D. win
Question 6: Our team could have defended the AFC U23 Championship title ________ the severe weather condition.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn’t been for D. hadn’t it been for.
Question 7: I am trying to find a ________ watch for my mother and a doll with ________ hair for my little sister.
A. water-proof/snow-white B. proofed water/white snowed
C. proof water/ white snow D. water-proofed/snow-whited
Question 8: Smith had a lucky escape. He ________.
A. would have been killed B. must have been killed
C. could have been killed D. should have been killed
Question 9: Hardly any of the paintings at the gallery were for sale, ________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. wasn’t it D. was it
Question 10: Mr.Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ________ that the matter was confidenttial.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation
Question 11: While the victory moves Vietnam, incredibly, a step nearer to the title, it sees Qatar fall at the semi-final stage
for the second ________ competitone in AFC U23 Championship.
A. successive B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 12: Peter ________ Rae and screamed “Get out of my sight”.
A. turned on B. took on C. got back D. showed off
Question 13: A salesclerk is talking to a customer in an Apple Store.
Salesclerk: “________” Customer: “Yes. I’d like to buy a MacBook Air.”
A. Do you look for something? B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excure me. Do you want to buy it? D. Can you help me buy something?
Question 14: Nadir is telling Kate about his scholarship.
Nadir: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.” Kate: “Oh, really? ________?”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
Question 15: The government must be able to prevent an deter threats to our homeland as well as detect impending danger
before attacks or incidents occur.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Question 16: Although Facebook is still relatively popular among teenagers, they don’t have the cool facter they once had.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
Question 17: Punctuality is a necessary habit in all public affairs in civilized society.
A. Being in time B. Lateness C. Being on time D. Time-keeping
Question 18: When U23 Vietnam went to the final versus U23 Uzbekistan, all the nation was walking on air.
A. extremely happy B. very disappointed C. very perplexed D. extremely light
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. support B. confide C. precede D. swallow
Question 20: A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs from the other
three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. middle B. mile C. kind D. time
Question 22: A. marbles B. classes C. teaches D. changes
Question 23: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, politics and technological institutions
if they are to preserve the environment.
A. have to make B. economic C. politics D. to preserve
Question 24: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A. suppose B. all the questions C. out D. them
Question 25: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter their
eating habits.
A. raised so rapidly B. that C. forced to D. alter their eating habits
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to trirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses, however, the
numbers are eerased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way
to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows atimuli that
is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity an duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory comes from
George A.Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of
information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or nam rather than just a letter or
number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking or classifying
similar information together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory
being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people engage in “rote
rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of
memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it
has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by
repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone
call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the
short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic
meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by rocognition or
recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory
seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the
more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choise tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of
memorization.
Question 26: Accoeding to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory. B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain. D. They enter via the nervous system.
Question 27: All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the ________.
A. STM. B. long term memory. C. sensory storage area. D. maintenance area.
Question 28: Why does the author mentions a dog’s bark?
A. To give an example of a type of memory. B. To provide a type of interruption.
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans. D. To comare another sound that is loud like a doorbell.
Question 29: The word “elaborate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. complex B. efficient C. pretty D. regular
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory. B. A meomry is kept alive through constant reprtition.
C. Cues help people to recognize information. D. Multiple choise exams are the most difficult.
Question 31: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. a pen B. a paper C. a phone number D. a person
Question 32: The author beliveves that rote rotation is ________.
A. the best way to remember something B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run D. an unnecessary interruption
Question 33: The word “cues” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests
of the questions.
The lack of printing regulations and the unenforceability of British copyright law in the American colonies made it possible
for colonial printers occasionally to act as publishers. Although they rarely undertook major publishing project because it
was difficult to sell books as cheaply as they could be imported from Europe, printers in Philadelphia did publish work that
required only small amounts of capital, paper, and type. Broadsides could be published with minimal financial risk.
Consisting of only one sheet of paper and requiring small amounts of type, broadsides involved lower investments of capital
than longer works. Furthermore, the broadside format lent itself to subjects of high, if temporary, interest, enabling them to
meet with ready sale. If the broadside printer would know this immediately, there would be no agonizing wait with large
amounts of capital tied up, books gathering dust on the shelves, and creditors impatient for payment.
In addition to broadsides, book and pamphlets, consisting mainly of political tracts, catechisms, primers, and chapbooks
were relatively inexpensive to print and to buy. Chapbook were pamphlet-sized books, usually containing popular tales,
ballads, poems, short plays, and jokes, small, both in formal and number of pages, they were generally bound simply, in
boards (a form of cardboard) or merely stitched in paper wrappers (a sewn antecedent of modern-day paperbacks).
Pamphlets and chapbooks did not require fine paper or a great deal of type to produce they could thus be printed in large,
cost-effective editions and sold cheaply.
By far, the most appealing publishing investments were to be found in small books that had proven to be steady sellers,
providing a reasonably reliable source of income for the publisher. They would not, by nature, be highly topical or political,
as such publications would prove of fleeting interest. Almanacs, annual publication that contained information on
astronomy and weather patterns arranged according to the days, week, and months of a given year, provided the perfect
steady seller because their information pertained to the locale in which they would be used.
Question 34: Which aspect of colonial printing does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Laws governing the printing industry. B. Competition among printers.
C. Types of publications produced. D. Advances in printing technology.
Question 35: According to the passage, why did colonial printers avoid major publishing projects?
A. Few colonial printers owned printing machinery that was large enough to handle major projects.
B. There was inadequat shipping available in the colonies.
C. Colonial printers could not sell their work for a competitive price.
D. Colonial printers did not have the skills necessary to undertake large publishing projects.
Question 36: Broasides could be published with little risk to colonial printers because they ________.
A. required a small financial investment and sold quickly.
B. were in great demand in European markets.
C. were more popular with colonists than chapbooks and pamphlets.
D. generally dealt with topics of long-term interest to many colonists.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. chapbooks B. tales C. jokes D. pages
Question 38: The word “appealing” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. dependable B. respectable C. enduring D. attactive
Question 39: What were “steady sellers”?
A. Printers whose incomes were quite large.
B. People who traveled from town to town selling books and pamphlets.
C. Investors who provided reliable financial support for new printers.
D. Publications whose sales were usually consistent from year to year.
Question 40: All of the following are defined in the passage EXCEPT ________.
A. broadsides B. catechisms C. chapbooks D. Almanacs
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks. The texting pigeons
Not everybody recognizes the benefits of new developments in communnicatons technology. Indeed, some people fear that
text messaging may actually be having a negative (41) ________ on your people’s communication and language skills,
especially when we hear that primary school children may be at rick of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has
texting become, however, that even pigeons have started doing it. (42) ________, in this case, it’s difficult to view the
results as anything but positive.
Twenty of the birds are about to take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (43) ________ with sensor
equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically converted into text messages and
beamed to the Internet – (44) ________ they will appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’.
The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and researchers are building a tiny
‘pigeon kit’ containing all these gadgets. Each bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, (45) ________, that is, from
the camera, which will hang around its neck.
The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map, which will provide local residents with up-to-
the-minute information on thir local air quality.
Question 41: A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 42: A. Therefore B. What’s more C. Whereas D. That is
Question 43: A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 44: A. when B. which C. where D. what
Question 45: A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
Question 46: People said they had demolished the building.
A. The building was said to have demolished. B. The building was said to have been demolishing.
C. The building was said to be demolished. D. The building was said to have been demolished.
Question 47: We arrived at the airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport, did we realize that our passports were still at home.
Question 48: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident.
A. He wasn’t driving fast enough to avoid an accident.
B. He did’t have an accident although he was driving very fast.
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. An accident happended, and it was caused by his very fast driving.
Question 49: I said to her “If you let your son do whatever he wants, you will spoil him.”
A. I said if she lets her son do whatever he wants, she will spoil him.
B. I warned her that if she let her son do whatever he wanted, she would spoil him.
C. I warned her that if she let her son do whatever she wanted, she would spoil him.
D. I told her if her son did whatever she wanted, she would spoil him.
Question 50: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeed.
A. Fried tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. Fried tried hard to start the car, and with success.
C. However hard he tried, Fried couldn’t start the car.
D. It’s hard for Fried to start the car because he never succeeded.
Question 1: A. supportive B. substantial C. compulsory D. curriculum
Question 2: A. campaigns B. wonders C. ecologists D. captions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
Question 3: A. limit B. capture C. advance D. double
Question 4: A. respectable B. affectionate C. occasional D. kindergarten
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each the following questions.
Question 5: The death rate would decrease if hygienic conditions _____ improved.
A. are B. have been C. were D. had been
Question 6: John: “The instructions were in French and I translated them into English for him.”
Anna: “You _____. He knows French.”
A. shouldn’t have translated B. can’t have translated
C. needn’t have translated D. wouldn’t have translated
Question 7: In 2006, the news agency Reuters withdrew from sale 920 pictures taken by a photographer because two
images taken in Lebanon were _____ to have been digitally manipulated.
A. believed B. suggested C. announced D. recommended
Question 8: He walked from the court a free man, having been _____ of murder.
A. unconvinced B. discharged C. liberated D. acquitted
Question 9: Everyone laughed when he _____ the teacher so well.
A. looked up B. took off C. sent off D. called up
Question 10: How did the framers put into _____ the idea of popular sovereignty expressed in the Declaration of
Independence?
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 11: You can’t wash this jacket in the washing machine – you need to get it _____.
A. dry-cleaning B. spin-dried C. spring-cleaned D. clean dried
Question 12: Candidates should never be late for the interview, ______.
A. should they B. shouldn’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 13: Ho Chi Minh City authorities opened its Lunar New Year (Tet) 2018 Flower Street on Nguyen Hue
Pedestrian Street on the evening of February 13 and people feel like _____ their time here.
A. enjoy B. to enjoy C. enjoying D. enjoyed
Question 14: Politicians _____ blame the media if they don’t win the election. They are so predictable.
A. variable B. variety C. various D. invariably
Question 15: The new political party came to the ______ after the general election.
A. fore B. back C. side D. front
Question 16: _______, dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As know as far B. As far as is known C. It is known as far D. Known as far as it is
Question 17: A high school teacher is talking to her colleague.
Teacher: “I’ve been working at this school for 35 years.” Colleague: “_______”
A. Why did you leave? B. Are you going to retire soon?C. Why had you left? D. Will you retire?
Question 18: Two university students Lando and Larry are talking while doing their practice test.
Lando: “______?” Larry: “Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t.”
A. Would you bother if I had a look at your paper B. Would you mind giving me a hand
C. Can I help you D. May I go out
Endangered species
There are three valid arguments to support the preservation of endangered species.
Aesthetic justification contends that biodiversity contributes to the quality of life because many of the endangered plants
and animals are particularly appreciated for their unique physical beauty. The aesthetic role of nature in all its diverse
forms is reflected in the art and literature of every culture attaining symbolic status in the spiritual life of many groups.
According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people need nature in all its diverse and beautiful forms as part of
the experience of the world.
Another argument that has been put forward, especially by groups in the medical and
pharmacological fields, is that of ecological self-interest. By preserving all species, we retain a balance of nature that is
ultimately beneficial to humankind. Recent research on global ecosystems has been cited as evidence that every species
contributes important or even essential functions that may be necessary to the survival of our own species. Some
advocates of the ecological argument contend that important chemical compounds derived from rare plants may contain
the key to a cure for one of the diseases currently threatening human beings. If we do not protect other species, then they
cannot protect us.
Apart from human advantage in both the aesthetic and ecological arguments, the
proponents of a moral justification contend that all species have the right to exist, a viewpoint stated in the United
Nations World Charter for Nature, created in 1982. Furthermore, if humankind views itself as the stewards of all the
creatures on Earth, then it is incumbent upon human beings to protect them, and to ensure the continued existence of all
species. Moral justification has been extended by a movement called “deep ecology,” the members of which rank the
biosphere higher than people because the continuation of life depends on this larger perspective. To carry their argument
to its logical conclusion, all choices must be made for the biosphere, not for people.
Question 19: : Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The beauty of the world B. The quality of life
C. The preservation of species D. The balance of nature
Question 20: Which of the arguments supports animal rights?
A. Aesthetic justification B. Ecological argument
C. Self-interest argument D. Moral justification
Question 21: The word “perspective” in the 3rd paragraph could best be replaced by
A. idea B. event C. truth D. view
Question 22: The word “them” in the 3rd paragraph refers to _______.
A. humankind B. stewards C. creatures D. human beings
Question 23: Where in the passage does the author explain how rare species contribute to the health of the human
species?
A. line 1-3 B. line 5-6 C. line 11-13 D. line 18-20
Question 24: According to the passage, what do we know from research on global ecosystem?
A. Nature is very diverse. B. A balance of nature is important.
C. Humans have a responsibility to nature D. Nature represents spiritual values.
Question 25: The author mentioned all of the following as justifications for the protection of endangered species
EXCEPT _______.
A. the natural compounds needed for medicines B. the intrinsic value of the beauty of nature
C. the control of pollution in the biosphere D. the right to life implied by their existence
Question 26: It can be inferred from the passage that the author ______.
A. is a member of the “deep ecology” movement B. does not agree with ecological self-interest
C. supports all of the arguments to protect species D. participated in drafting the Charter for Nature
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each
of the numbered blanks. Why read books?
Is it worth reading books, (27) _____ nowadays there are so many other forms of
entertainment? Some people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow books from a
library. They might add that television is more exciting and that viewers can relax as they watch their favourite (28)
_____. All that may be true, but books are still very popular. They encourage the reader to use his or her imagination for
a start. You can read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and then stop. Of course, it may be so (29) _____ that you
can’t stop! There are many different kinds of books, so you can choose a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (30)
_____ gives you interesting information. If you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas.
Personally, I can’t do without books, but I can (31) _____ up television easily enough. You can’t watch television at bus
stops!
Question 27: A. in B. or C. why D. since
Question 28: A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 29: A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 30: A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 31: A. pick B. look C. give D. turn
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 32: To avoid confusion, the two twins never wear the same clothes.
A. To avoid B. two twins C. wear D. same
Question 33: If one has a special medical condition such as diabetes, epilepsy, or allergy, it is advisable that they carry
some kind of identification in order to avoid being given improper medication in an emergency.
A. has B. they C. carry D. being
Question 34: To remove strains from permanent press clothing, carefully soaking in cold water before washing with a
regular detergent.
A. from B. carefully soaking C. before washing D. a
Question 35: In order to pass all exam with flying colours, you should concentrate on your study as well as take some
useful tips to reduce stress and anxiety.
A. be related B. be interested in C. pay no attention to D. express interest to
Question 36: He was found guilty of bribery. Now his reputation is under a cloud.
A. a glow of pride B. a shame C. out of reach D. open to doubt
Question 37: Polio is one of the top ten incurable diseases that modern medicine has failed to eradicate.
A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. irreparable
Question 38: Jane and Fed are both in their forties so they’re going into marriage with their eyes wide open.
A. wide awake B. with great surprise
C. fully aware of what they are doing D. with people’s admiration
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist.
In effect, a market must be created for an artist to be successful. The practice of signing and numbering individual prints
was introduced by James Abbott McNeill Whistler, the nineteenth-century artist best known for the painting of his
mother, called “Arrangement in Grey and Black”, but known to most of us as “Whistler’s Mother”. Whistler’s brother-in-
law, Sir Francis Seymour Haden, a less well-known artist, had speculated that collectors might find prints more attractive
if they knew that there were only a limited number of copies produced. By signing the work in pencil, an artist could
guarantee and personalize each print.
As soon as Whistler and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints,
their work began to increase in value. When other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded higher prices, they
began copying the procedure.
Although most prints are signed on the right-hand side in the margin below the image, the placement of the signature
is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within image, in any of the margins, or even on the
reverse side of the’print. Wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still valued above an unsigned one, even in
the same edition.
Question 39: Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistler’s Mother. B. Whistler’s Greatest Works.
C. The Practice of Signing Prints. D. Copying Limited Edition Prints.
Question 40: What made Whistler’s work more valuable?
A. His fame as an artist. B. His painting of his mother.
C. His signature on the prints. D. His brother-in-law’s prints.
Question 41: The word “speculated” in the paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _____.
A. guessed B. noticed C. denied D. announced
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. the same edition B. the image C. the reverse side D. a print
Question 43: What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Haden.
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black”.
C. It was not one of Whistler’s best paintings.
D. It was a completely new method of painting.
Question 44: The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefers a signed print EXCEPT _____.
A. it guarantees the print’s authenticity B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints _____.
A. as an accounting procedure B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it D. at the same place on earth of the prints
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 46: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying.
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
D. The lecturer’s book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
Question 47: When I had finished the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
A. Finishing the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
B. Having finished the report, i went out for a cup of coffee.
C. Going out for a cup of coffee, I finished my report.
D. To finish the report, I went out for a cup of coffee.
Question 48: People believe that the weather is changing dramatically.
A. The weather is believed to be changing dramatically.
B. The weather is believed to have changed dramatically.
C. The weather is believed to change dramatically.
D. The weather is believed to have been changing dramatically.
Question 49: “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair.
B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.
C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin’s hair cut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut.
Question 50: The plane had taken off. Paul realized he was on the wrong flight.
A. Hardly had Paul realized he was on the wrong flight when the plane took off.
B. It was not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
C. Not until the plane had taken off, did Paul realize he was on the wrong flight.
D. No sooner had the plane taken off than Paul had realized he was on the wrong flight
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 287- ĐỀ SỐ
Question 1: Experts say that another outbreak of flu epidemic is on the cards.
A. likely to happen B. unlikely to occur C. to be prevented D. on the increase
Question 2: We have known each other long enough that I will forgive you this discourtesy.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 3: Ms. Black and Ms. White are talking about Mr. Brown’s upcoming retirement.
Ms. Black: “Mr. Brown is going to retire next month.” Ms. White: “_______”.
A. Oh, I have no idea. B. You don't say!
C. Right, you'd probably be the next. D. Congratulations!
Question 4: Mandy has got a bad news. She is talking to Mano about it.
Mandy: “_..........................” Mano: "Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I've broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind.
C. I couldn't keep my mind on work. D. I didn't get the vacant position.
Question 5: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that over two hundred
people away.
A. would turn B. would have turned C. would have to be turned D. had been turned
Question 6: Students should never to violence to solve any problems.
A. exert B. resolve C. resort D. recourse
Question 7: The novelty of married life seems to if the couple involved don't have ways to renew their love.
A. turn out B. do without C. fade in D. wear off
Question 8: Tom was serious when he said he wanted to be an actor when he grew up. We at him. We hurt his
feelings.
A. needn’t have laughed B. couldn’t have laughed C. shouldn’t have laughed D. mustn’t have laughed
Question 9: It never_________my head that such great Bulgarian rose festivals would be held in Hanoi, our capital city.
A. struck B. dawned C. occurred D. entered
Question 10: Only one of the people ______ was qualified for the job.
A. interviewed B. interviewing C. to interview D. who interviewing
Question 11: After one hour’s performance of many famous singers heating up My Dinh Stadium, out .
A. Park Hang-seo and his disciples came B. did Park Hang-seo and his disciples come
C. came Park Hang-seo and his disciples D. be Park Hang-seo and his disciples coming
Question 12: With all due respect, I think your comments are .
A. short-sighted B. far-sighted C. single-minded D. single -handed
Question 13: It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
Question 14: Internet Service is the latest mode of ............which helps us get required information directly through
computers by opening the site.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative D. communicator
Question 15: Despite all the evidence, he wouldn’t admit that he was in the .
A. fault B. error C. wrong D. slip
Question 16: I don’t suppose there is anything wrong with this sentence, ?
A. is there B. isn't there C. do I D. don't I
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new restaurant going for
several months with limited revenue.
A. should be considered B. ability C. for several D. with limited revenue
Question 18: I think we have sufficient enough information to write the report.
A. sufficient enough B. information C. write D. the report
Question 19: Energy research, medicinal, tourism, and copper are important to the economy of Butte, Montana.
A. medicinal B. copper C. to D. economy
other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. supports B. computer C. machines D. armchairs
Question 21: A. famous B. nervous C. loud D. serious
position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 22: A. entrance B. handle C. demand D. measure
Question 23: A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 24: The 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake, measured 9.1 on the Richter scale, occurring on 26 December wiped
out a large number of residential coastal areas.
A. eradicated B. paid off C. bumped off D. gave up
Question 25: The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to determine the
psychological effects of using drugs.
A. refined B. extensive C. prevalent D. tentative
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or anything else that is included in
one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with intangible forms of property.
Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps,
films, plays, television shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and all other forms of
intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership of
the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a tangible object. However, the
authors of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make
and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations
that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received from the copyright owner,
who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music maybe played by anyone after it is
published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle
applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not
become copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting or a musical work. Almost all artistic work
created before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another person
means passing it off as one’s own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin plagiarus, which means “abductor”. Piracy
may be an act of one person, but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who reproduce copyrighted material and sell
it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations have made piracy easy and anyone can duplicate a
motion picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically anyone to copy
movies and television programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as copying a book. Large companies
zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand names, protected by a trademark.
A. Legal rights of property owners. B. Legal ownership of creative work.
C. Examples of copyright piracy. D. Copying creating work for profit.
Question 27: The word “principle” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. crucial point B. cardinal role C. fundamental rule D. formidable force
Question 28: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if .
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 30: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission .
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Question 31: The phrase “infringing upon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. impinging upon B. inducting for C. violating D. abhorring
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to .
A. ideas B. names C. titles D. performances
Question 33: According to the passage, copyright law is .
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored
C. frequently debated D. zealously enforced
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly cherished goal. Like
competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains nearly all of each
individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member. There is an interlocking identity of
individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary cooperation is characteristic of
many modem societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation
itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration.
Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige, or
power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.
In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the shared work. The attitudes
of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves
common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in
reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term
antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.
Question 34: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often.
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation.
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict.
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes.
Question 35: The word “cherished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
Question 36: Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate.
B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills.
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved.
D. It was confined to prehistoric times.
Question 37: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation.
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds.
C. To get rewards for themselves.
D. To defeat a common enemy.
Question 38: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth
paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades.
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow.
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party.
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?
A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
Question 40: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. involuntary B. poorly planned C. inefficient D. easily broken
Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for years. However,
few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever
study of the so- called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and genuine sixth sense.
The study involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes (41) so they could
not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. Time and time again
the results showed that the children who could not see were able to tell when they were being stared at. In a total of
more than 18, 000 trials (42) _____ worldwide, the children correctly sensed when they were being watched almost
70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting the children who were being
watched outside the room, (43) from the starters by the windows. This was done just in case there was some
pretending going on with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not. This prevented the possibility
of sounds being transmitted between the children. The results, (44) less impressive, were more or less the
same. Dr. Sheldrake, the biologist (45) designed the study, believes that the results are convincing enough
to find out through further experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually came about.
Question 41: A. shaded B. covered C. masked D. wrapped
Question 42: A. worked over B. carried out C. carried on D. worked through
Question 43: A. parted B. separated C. split D. divided
Question 44: A. though B. however C. even D. quite
Question 45: A. which B. whose C. who D. whom
Question 46: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 47: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
D. Her notice was given in order for her to start her new job in January.
Question 48: He might have forgotten the place you’d arranged to meet at.
A. Perhaps he didn’t remember where you were going to meet.
B. You planned to meet him at a place that he’d forgotten about
C. He didn’t remember meeting you at that time.
D. He couldn’t remember where the meeting place was.
Question 49: They recommend that the hotel should be redecorated.
A. The hotel should be recommended to be redecorated.
B. The hotel is recommended to be redecorated.
C. The hotel is recommended to have redecorated.
D. The hotel was recommended to be redecorated.
Question 50: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 1: Your drink cost $40, you gave me a $50 note and here is your________.
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 2: People can become very________ when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.
A. single-minded B. bad-tempered C. even-tempered D. even-handed
Question 3: Jasmine, ________,grows only in warm places.
A. is a vine plant with fragrant flowers B. a vine plant with fragrant flowers
C. that is a vine plant with fragrant flowers D. a vine plant with fragrant flowers it is
Question 4: Our car________because it’s not where it’s normally parked in the parking lot.
A. should have been stolen B. would have been stolen
C. must have been stolen D. need have been stolen
Question 5: Though we were________after hard-working days, we tried to help our parents redecorate the house to
welcome Tet.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 6: At the 2015 Women in the World Summit, Hilary Clinton asserted that “________cultural codes, religious
beliefs and structural biases have to be changed”.
A. deep-seated B. deep-seating C. seated-deep D. seating-deep
Question 7: It’s important that we________this message________to young people.
A. go/over B. get/down C. get/over D. go/for
Question 8: Miss Diligent did nine hour’s________ studying a day for het exam.
A. heavy B. solid C. powerful D. big
th
Question 9: “At the start of the 19 century, the highest-________newspaper in the United Kingdom was The Morning
Post, which sold around 4,000 copies per day.”
A. distribution B. coverage C. circulation D. sales
Question 10: Marketing this new product will be expansive, but________it will be worth the money we spend on it.
A. at long last B. down the years C. in the event D. in the long run
Question 11: Laura start a conversation with Maya-Jane’s sister.
Laura: “You must be Jane’s sister. Glad to meet you.” Maya: “________”
A. I am, either. B. So I am. I’m glad C. What do you do? D. Me too.
Question 12: The boys ________ that they had broken the window, but I’m sure they did.
A. refused B. denied C. objected D. reject
Question 13: Lien was walking her dogs in the park, she met Lan accidentally.
Lan: “How lovely you pets are!” Lien: “________”
A. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too
Question 14: If our team________U23Uzbekistan in the final match, we________the champion now.
A. have defeated/ would be B. defeats/ will be
C. defeated/ would be D. had defeated/ would be
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 15: Transplanting organs such hearts and kidneys had proved easier than transplanting muscles.
A. such B. proved C. easier D. muscles
Question 16: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-tipped mountains more than a mile beneath sea level.
A. On B. is hundreds of C. more than D. beneath sea level
Question 17: Paint must bestirred and sometimes dilution before it is applied.
A. must B. bestirred C. dilution D. applied
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following question from 18 to 25.
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used
grown larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular muscles,
they grow. Those that are never used dimish. By examining a man’s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he
doesn’t. We may even be able to guess his profession or his reaction. Enthusiasts of the “body-building” cult make use of
the principle of use and disuse to “build” their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is
demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this
kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a famer from a bank teller by looking
at their hands alone. The famer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller’s hands are
relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world, progressively better
during their lifetime as result of living in that world. Humans, through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a
skin color which equips them better to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little
sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized
under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight.
If a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what little
sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is “used”,
and fades to white when it is not.
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 19: The phrase “wither away” in bold is closest in meaning to________.
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 20: The word “Those” in bold refers to________.
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 21: According to the passage, men who body build________
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 22: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building________.
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefic
Question 23: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables organisms to________.
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
Question 24: The author suggests that melanin________.
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climates
C. helps protect fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
Question 25: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of________.
A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer.
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs from the other
three in the pronunciation in each of the following.
Question 26: A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 27: A. attained B. resolved C. disused D. decreased
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following.
Question 28: A. flourish B. season C. product D. today
Question 29: A. attitude B. infamously C. geneticist D. socialist
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
THE HOSTORY OF WRITING
The development of writing (30)________ a huge difference to the world and might see it as the beginning of the media.
Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been discovered in China (31)________date from around
4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of “picture writing” developed in the area around Mesopotamia (modern-day
Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first (32)________
alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters and it is estimated that it lasted for
1000 years. The first two signs were called “aleph” and “beth”, which in Greek became “alpha” and “beta”, which gave us
the modern word “alphabet”.
The modern European alphabet is based on the Greek and spead (33)________other European countries under the Romans.
A number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and the letter J and V were unknown to
people in Shakespeare’s time.
If we (34)________the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts. The Romans used to write quaesto at the
end of a sentence in order to show that it was a Question. They started to write Qo in place of the whole word, and the put
the Q above the o. In the end, that became the question mark “?”
Question 30: A. did B. had C. made D. took
Question 31: A. where B. that C. who D. when
Question 32: A. true B. accurate C. exact D. precise
Question 33: A. to B. in C. with D. for
Question 34: A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
ENGLISH SEVENTH MEETING “SAN ANDREAS FAULT”
The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the Earth’s crust, one of which support
most of the North American continent, and the other of which underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor or
the Pacific Ocean. The fault originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an irregular
line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about two hundred more miles before angling off into
the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and a small ponds dot the
landscape. Its western side always move north in relation to its eastern side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault
and the length of time it has active are matters of conjecture, but it has been estimated that, during the past fifteen million
years, coastal California along the San Andreas Fault has moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect
to the North American plate. Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is intermittent and
variable. Some segments of the fault do not have move at all for long periods of time, building up tremendous pressure that
must be released. For this reason, tremors are not unusual along the San Andreas Fault, some of which are classified as
major earthquakes. Also for this reason, small tremors are interpreted as safe, since they are understood to be pressure that
releases without causing much damage.
It is worth nothing that the San Andreas Fault passes uncomfortable close to several major
metropolitan areas, including Los Angeles and San Francisco, in addition, the San Andreas Fault has created smaller fault
systems, many of which underlie the smaller towns and cities along the California coast. For this reason, Californians have
long anticipated the recurrence of what they refer to as “the Big One”, a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes that
would measure near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a quake world
wreak devastating effects on the life and property in the region. Unfortunately, as pressure continues to build along the fault,
the likelihood of such an earthquake increases substantially.
Question 35: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To describe the San Andreas Fault. B. To give a definition of a fault.
C. To explain the reason for tremors and earthquakes. D. To classify different kinds of faults.
Question 36: How does the author define the San Andreas Fault?
A. A plate that underlies the North American continent. B. A crack in the Earth’s crust between two plates.
C. Occasional tremors and earthquakes. D. Intense pressure that builds up.
Question 37: The word originates in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by________.
A. gets wider B. changes direction C. begins D. disappears
Question 38: In which direction does the western side of the fault move?
A. West B. East C. North D. South
Question 39: The word its in the paragraph 1 refer to ________.
A. San Francisco B. ocean C. coast D. fault
Question 40: Along the San Andreas Fault, tremors are________.
A. small and insignificant B. rare, but disastrous
C. frequent events D. very unpredictable
Question 41: The phrase “the Big One” refers to which of the following?
A. A serious earthquake B. The San Andreas Fault
C. The river scale D. California
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 42: The Chernobyl disaster occurred on 26 April 1986 when the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant near Pripyat, a
town in northern Ukraine, went off.
A. demolished B. ran C. developed D. exploded
Question 43: Prior to its evacuation Chernobyl was inhabited by 16,000 people but is now populated only by Zone
administrative personnel and a number of residents who refused to leave their homes or subsequently returned.
A. after B. while C. when D. before
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 44: The Democratic Party now have 59.9% of the votes, so they’re home and dry.
A. returning home B. safe and successful C. disappointed D. at risk of losing
Question 45: Having served in the White House for 34 years and assisted 8 presidents, Eugene Allen experienced crucial
moment in American history during his time here.
A. unimportant B. special C. diverse D. complex
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the
Question 46: Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays don’t have time to relax. They don’t have time to meet up
with their families.
A. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax nor to meet up with their families.
B. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax or to meet up with their families.
C. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time either to relax or to meet up with their families.
D. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time not only to relax but also to meet up with their families.
Question 47: The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closets in meaning to each of the
Question 48: Father said “Albert, if you break your promise, nobody will respect you.”
A. Father said that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
B. Father warned Albert that if he broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
C. Father told that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
D. Father said to Albert if he breaks his promise, nobody will respect him.
Question 49: People say that products are sold in this market at suitable prices.
A. Products are said to be selling in this market at suitable prices.
B. Products are said to have sold in this market at suitable prices.
C. This market is said to have sold products at suitable prices.
D. This market is said to sell products at suitable prices.
Question 50: We couldn’t have been to go to the final match without the coach’s flexible strategies.
A. We could have been able to go to the final match with the coach’s flexible strategies.
B. If we could be able to go to the final match, the coach would have flexible strategies.
C. If we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match, we would have had the coach’s flexible strategies.
D. Had it not been for the coach’s flexible strategies, we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to (1) ________ to your education or your work, try
reading more books. Pick (2) ________ some of the interestingly informative books and search for well-researched materials
that can help you grow.
We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV. Some people have commented that
this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get information than television?" That is an interesting point of
view worth further (3) ________. Reading is a skill that is in much to watch TV but reading is an integral part of many jobs.
The written word is an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in no time,
it can be communicated to many different people. Not only that, we can (5) ________ vast amounts of information through
reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in reading for two hours than someone watching TV
can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of information quickly because you are a fast reader with good
comprehension skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you will be able to assimilate vast quantities of
information.
Question 1: A. gain B. gather C. collect D. contribute
Question 2: A. on B. up C. over D. out
Question 3: A. explore B. exploration C. explorer D. explorative
Question 4: A. that B. who C. when D. whom
Question 5: A. digest B. inhale C. breathe D. eat
Question 6: In The Sociology of Science, ________ a classic, Robert Merton discusses cultural, economic and social forces
that contributed to the development of modern science.
A. now considering B. now considered C. which considers D. which considered
Question 7: Why are you so late? You ________ here two hours ago.
A. must have been B. would haven been C. should have been D. need have been
Question 8: The child can hardly understand what they are discussing, ________?
A. can he B. can't he C. are they D. aren't they
Question 9: I accidentally ________ my ex and his girlfriend when I was walking along a street yesterday.
A. lost touch with B. kept an eye on C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Question 10: Jane and Mary are going out.
Jane: "It's going to rain". Mary: "________."
A. I hope not so B. I hope not C. I don't hope so D. I don't hope either
Question 11: ________ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The stars as small C. As the small stars D. Despite of the small stars
Question 12: The patient could not be saved unless there ________ a suitable organ donor.
A. had been B. would be C. were D. is
Question 13: He said it was an accident but I know he did it on ________.
A. aim B. purpose C. goal D. reason
Question 14: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very ________.
A. narrow-minded B. kind-hearted C. open-minded D. absent-minded
Question 15: $507, $707. Let's ________ the difference and say $607.
A. avoid B. split C. agree D. decrease
Question 16: When ________ a European, we should stick to the last name unless he suggests that we use his first name.
A. speaking B. discussing C. talking D. addressing
Question 17: Jordan and Jim are in a pub.
- Jordan: "________" - Jim: "No, thanks."
A. Would you want another drink? B. Would you care for another drink?
C. Can you help me with this? D. Come in, please!
Question 18: By the year 2021, 6% of all US jobs ________ by robots, report says.
A. will eliminate B. will have been eliminated
C. will be eliminating D. will have eliminated
Question 19: We are big fans of Rafael Nadal and Roger Federer, so not a match of theirs ________.
A. we had missed B. did we miss C. we didn't miss D. we missed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know without analysis the difference between a number of objects
and a smaller number. In his book "The Natural History of Selboure" (1786), the naturalist Gilbert White tells how he
surreptitiously removed one egg a day from a plover's nest, and how the mother laid another egg each day to make up for the
missing one. He noted that other species of birds ignore the absence of a single egg but abandon their nest if more than one egg
has been removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain type of wasp always provides five - never four, never six -
caterpillars for each of their eggs so that their young have something to eat when the eggs hatch. Research has also shown that
both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between odd and even numbers of food pieces.
These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that creatures other than humans can actually count. They also
point to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions with the correct number of banks, or to horses that seem
to solve arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the proper number of times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to survival as a species - as in the case of the eggs - or survival
as individuals - as in the case of food. There is no transfer to other situations of from concrete reality to the abstract notion of
numbers. Animals can "count" only when the objects are present and only when the numbers involved are small - not more
than seven or eight. In lab experiments, animals trained to "count" one kind of object were unable to count any other type. The
object, not the numbers, are what interest them. Animals' admittedly remarkable achievements simply do not amount to
evidence of counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined by the genes of successive generations, or the
results of clever, careful conditioning by trainers.
Question 20: The word "they" refer to ________.
A. numbers B. animals C. achievementsD. genes
Question 21: According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of animals'
intuitive awareness of quantities?
A. When asked by its trainer how old it is, a monkey holds up five fingers.
B. A lion follows one antelope instead of the herd of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a single prey.
C. When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the kitten.
D. A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box containing one piece.
Question 22: The word "surreptitiously" is closest in meaning to ________.
A. stubbornly B. secretly C. quickly D. occasionally
Question 23: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
B. Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers.
C. Although animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.
D. Animals cannot "count" more than one kind of object.
Question 24: Where in the passage does the author mention research that support his own view of animals' inability to count?
A. Line 2-4 B. Line 8-9 C. Line 10-11 D. Line 17-18
Question 25: Why does the author refer to Gilbert White's book in line 2?
A. To contradict the idea that animals can count.
B. To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities.
C. To show how attitudes have changed since 1786.
D. To indicate that more research is needed in this field.
Question 26: The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some ways EXCEPT ________.
A. caterpillars B. mice C. plovers D. wasps
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 27: A. heard B. early C. learn D. near
Question 28: A. theaters B. authors C. clothes D. shifts
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 29: A. component B. habitat C. contribute D. eternal
Question 30: A. museum B. location C. recommend D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 31: Africa's farmland is rapidly becoming barren and incapable of sustaining the continent's already hungry
population, according to a report.
A. poor B. fruitful C. arid D. desert
Question 32: Recent archaeological studies have shown that the first inhabitants of Russell Caverns were Paleo Indians, who
used the most rudimentary tools and objects for their survival.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
Question 33: The Australian Open is a tennis tournament held annually over the last fortnight of January in Melbourne,
Australia.
A. two days B. four days C. two weeks D. two months
Question 34: One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is difficulty in determining whether
or not an action had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 35: For thousands of years, man has used rocks as main materials for building
houses, made fences, pavements or even roofs for houses.
A. man B. rocks C. made D. roofs
Question 36: I think I can reach your requirements so I am writing to apply for the position
of English-speaking local guide.
A. reach B. am writing C. to apply D. position
Question 37: According to statistics, the number of young people who actively uses
Instagram and and Snapchat has increased sharply in recent years.
A. the number B. who actively uses C. has increased D. in recent years
American music, in most of its various forms, can be traced back to the music of the earliest African-Americans. Even
though these Americans came here under the worst of circumstances, they still brought with them traditions, and developed
new traditions of their own, that have grown into what is recognized around the world today as American music.
Musicians, like other artists, are usually quick to give credit where credit is due. Just as a writer quotes his sources, a
musician credits those musicians who inspired him. In the case of the early African-Americans, that is not always easy. Many
of the slaves who brought musical traditions from Africa will never be known by name. No one wrote their history. Many of
the slaves who sang work songs in the fields will never be known by name. No one wrote their history either.
However, there is a lot that we do know.
The first well-recognized form of African-American music was spirituals. Spirituals are religious songs. They are songs that
tell a story or express emotions. Spirituals have a strong rhythm. They are often sung by a group, sometimes with a leader who
sings a line or two alone and a chorus that sings the refrain. Spirituals originated in the Southern United States. Spirituals sung
by slaves often expressed the hope for freedom that was so important in their lives. Well know spirituals include "Go Down
Moses", "Deep River" and "Swing Low Sweet Chariot".
After slavery ended, spirituals began to spread to other parts of the United States. Harry Thacker Burleigh was one of the
first singers to perform spirituals on stage in a concert. Marian Anderson, well known for her classical singing, helped
spirituals to gain a wider audience too. Spirituals influenced the development of another well-known form of American music -
the blues.
The blues were a more individual style of music than spirituals. Blues were often sung solo, and sometimes they were
accompanied by guitar music. As the name suggests, the blues were often about sadness and facing troubles. However, the
blues could also be funny, positive, and even defiant. One blues singer, loved for her strong, beautiful voice, was Bessie Smith.
Another early blues musician was W.C.Handy. Handy was not only a musician, he also wrote music, promoted concerts, and
published blues songs.
During the time that the blues were spreading across the country, another style of music was also quickly gaining in
popularity. Ragtime was energetic music with a complicated, syncopated beat. Often played on the piano, ragtime was the
latest and most sophisticated in American popular music. The best-known ragtime musician was probably Scott Joplin, who
wrote many hit ragtime pieces for the piano including "Maple Leaf Rag".
Eventually, elements from all of these forms of music and more came back together. In their own kind of melting pot,
African rhythms, slave work songs, spirituals, blues, ragtime, and other influences recombined to form the beginnings of that
truly American art form - jazz. In the late 1800's jazz was just beginning, but not long after the turn of the century, it would be
the most popular American music. It would go on from there to worldwide popularity. Jazz would branch out into many forms,
and it would influence future styles of American music.
Many musicians today credit earlier musicians such as Scott Joplin or Bessie Smith with inspiring their music. It's a shame
that they can't also name the earliest African-Americans who really began the traditions that led to the American music of
today.
Question 38: According to the passage, who introduced the early form of American music?
A. American natives B. Harry Thacker Burleigh
C. Slaves from Africa D. People from the South of the United States.
Question 39: Which type of music is often involved with piano accompaniment?
A. spirituals B. ragtime C. blues D. jazz
Question 40: What is NOT true when talking about blues?
A. They could be amusing and optimistic.
B. A well-known blues musicians was Scott Joplin.
C. They gained popularity near the time ragtime became popular.
D. They were a more individual style of music than spirituals.
Question 41: When did jazz become the most popular American music?
A. Sometime in the early 20th century. B. When elements from other American music combined.
C. After the hit "Maple Leaf Rag" was written. D. In the late 1800s.
Question 42: Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith were ________.
A. famous ragtime musicians B. people who really began the American musical traditions
C. artists who inspired many musicians today D. songwriters who wrote blues songs
Question 43: What is the closet meaning to the word "chorus" used in the passage?
A. A group of singers that sing together. B. The main part of a song.
C. An accompanying singer. D. None of the above.
Question 44: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. today's musicians B. Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith
C. the musicians' music D. the names of the earliest African-American singers
Question 45: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Today's style of American music is mostly influenced by African-rooted songs.
B. It is hard to exactly recognize the people who started the American musical tradition.
C. Spirituals, blues and ragtime are the major components that formed jazz.
D. American's music history was built by several famous musicians.
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: Joe does a lot of exercise. He's still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe's still very fat
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he's vey fat.
C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he's very fat.
D. Joe's very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Question 47: Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country. Mexico does not require US
citizens to do the same.
A. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does, either.
B. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does not, either.
C. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and neither Mexico does.
D. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country while Mexico does.
Question 48: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom" said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blame Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 49: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a shooting at their school on Valentine's Day.
A. They couldn't go on holiday as planned as a result of shooting at their school on Valentine's Day.
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a shooting tool place at their school on
Valentine's Day.
C. A shooting at their school on Valentine's day almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a shooting at their school on Valentine's Day forced their holiday plans to nothing.
Question 50: She finished her driving lesson. Her father allowed her to use his car.
A. Having finished her driving lesson, her father allowed her to use his car.
B. Having finished her driving lesson, she was allowed to use her father's car.
C. To be allowed to use her father's car, she tried to finish her driving lesson.
D. Being allowed to use her father's car, she tried to finish her driving lesson.
Question 1: “Remember to phone me when you arrive at the airport, ________?”
A. won’t you B. will you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 2: We should participate in Tree–Planting Campaigns ________ our city greener, fresher
A. organizing to make B. organized making C. organized to make D. which organize to make
Question 3: Certificates provide proof of your________.
A. qualifications B. diplomas C. ambitions D. qualities
Question 4: She passed me on the street without speaking. She________ me.
A. mustn’t see B. can’t have seen C. can’t see D. mustn’t have seen
Question 5: Onion crisis is ________to arise in India. This demand-supply imbalance has resulted from the
government’s inability to preserve the crop for non-harvesting seasons.
A. reputed B. known C. foreseen D. bound
Question 6: ________ interested in Curling, I would try to learn more about this sport
A. Were I B. If I am C. Should I D. I was
Question 7: I’m not sure my brother will ever get married because he hates the feeling of being ________.
A. tied in B. tied down C. tied up D. tied in with
Question 8: I don’t understand what these results ________.
A. significant B. significance C. signify D. significantly
Question 9: What ________can be drawn from the experiment of two American physicists, Clinton Davisson and Lester
Germer?
A. conclusion B. attention C. contrast D. inference
Question 10: It seems that the thief took ________of the open window and got inside that way
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
Question 11: Emma is clling to Mrs. White’s home.
Ema: “Hello, may I speak to Mrs. White, please?” Call receiver: “________.”
A. Of course, not B. Yes, please C. Hold on, please D. Wait here
Question 12: If you are an independent traveler, we can arrange ________a tour.
A. well-known B. tailor-made C. ready-made D. well-kept
Question 13: There has been a widespread ________about whether North Korea has successfully
A. gossip B. challenge C. doubt D. rumour
Question 14: Lucia wants to borrow his friend’s bike.
Lucia: “Is it all right if I use your bike?” Friend: “________.”
A. I don’t want to use your bike B. Sure, go ahead
C. Sorry, no, I won’t do it D. Please accept it with may best wishes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word of phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.ROBOTS
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine (15) ________would
do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (16) ________by robots, why not
boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors. And they came up against
a major difficulty. That si, houwork is actually very complex. It hat never been one job, it has always been many. A factory
robot (17) ________one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A
housework robot, on the other hand, has to do severa different types of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (18)
________all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (19) ________, there have been
some developments recently. Sensosrs are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the
technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software-the programs that will operate the machine.
Question 15: A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 16:`A. succeeded B. managed C. made D. given
Question 17: A. carries over B. carryes out C. carries off D.carries away
Question 18: A. from B. with C. by D. for
Question 19: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover
other three tin the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. candidates B. caves C. methods D. novels
Question 21: A. chemistry B. children C. schooling D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three tin the
Question 22: A. political B. furniture C. yesterday D. ambulance
Question 23: A. humorous B. educator C. organism D. contaminate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicat the correct answer to
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But
passengers can increase their chaneces of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should rad and
listen to safety instrucstion before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on
your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your blet operates. During
takeoffs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off, you should locate the nearest exit and
an alternative exit and count the row of seats beween you and the exits so that you can reach them in the dark if necessary. In
the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down
until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face
whit napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly
as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they
are fully infated , and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground,
you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and smoke near the wreckage.
A. Procedures for evacuation aircraft. B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.
C. Airline industry accident statistics. D. Safety instrucstions in air travel.
Question 25: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instruction ________.
A. if smoke is in the cabin B. in an emergency C. before locating the exits D. before take-off
Question 26: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor ________.
A. especially during landings B. throughout the flight.
C. only if an accident is possible D. during take-offs and landings
Question 27: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off?
A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them B. The nearest one.
C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat D. The ones that can be found in the dark
Question 28: The word “them” in bold refers to ________.
A. seats B. row C. exits D. feet
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that peole are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they ________.
A. don’t smoke in or near a plance B. read airline safety statistics
C. wear a safety belt D. keep their heads low
Question 30: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ________
A. ask questions about safety B. locate the nearest exit
C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
Question 31: The word “inflated” in bold is closest in meaning to ________.
A. expanded B. lifted C. assembled D. increased
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your anwer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 32: The mountain climbers proceeded forward on their long trk up the side of the mountain.
A. The B. proceeded forward C. on D. side
Question 33: The nests of most bird species are strategic placed to camouflage them against preators.
A. most B. species C. strategic D. against
Question 34: Rocks have forming, wearing away and re-forming ever since the Earth took shape
A. have forming B. wearing away C. ever since D. took
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your anwer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 35: Today, Amur leopard, one of the world’s most endangered wild cats, is found only in the Amur River basin of eastern
Russia, having already gone extinct from China and the Korean Peninsula.
A. died for B. died from C. died of D. died out
Question 36: The students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out.
A. got very good marks B. got a lot of marks
C. got higher marks than someone D. got the most marks of all
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very differcent types of
flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates ad rays, relatives of the rharks, have become flat in what
might be called the obivious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form grat “wings”. They look as though they
have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely, fish such sas plaice, sole, and
halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a
vertical direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as
swimming surfaces, which undulat through the water as they move. Therefore, when their ancestors migrate to the
seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking
down into the sand and was effectively useless – In evolution this problem was soleved by the lower eye “moving”
around the other side. We see this process off moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It
starts life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a
strange asymmetrical twisted fashion,, so that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an
old Picasso – like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on left, and others on
either side.
Question 37: The passage is mainly concerned with ________.
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish
Question 38: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that ________.
A. become asymmetrical B. appear to fly
C. have spread hrizontally D. resemble sharks
Question 39: According to the passage, fish such as plaice ________.
A. have difficulties in swimming B. live near the surface
C. have distorted heads D. have poor eyesight
Question 40: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. similarly B. alternatively C. inversely D. contrarily
Question 41: The word “this” refers to________
A. the migration of the ancestors B. the practice of lying on one side
C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful
Question 42: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is ________.
A. average B. weak C. excellent D. variable
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is ________.
A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger
word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 44: We do not know precisely what caused the destruction of Sodom an Gomorrah, the cities on the Jordan
River planin in the southern region of the land of Canaan
A. casually B. flexibly C. wrongly D. informally
Question 45: South Korea carried out a simulated attack on North Korea’s nuclear test site in a huge show of force in
response to Pyongyang’s detonation of what it claims is a hydrogen bomb.
A. put up B. put in C. put off D. put on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
Question 46: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel. I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 47: The child gave some instructions. I don’t understand any of them
A. The instructions the child gave are not understanding to me.
B. It was the instructions the child gave that confused me.
C. It hasn’t been clear to me about the instructions given by the child.
D. I’m fiding it difficult to figure out what the child required according to his instructions.
Question 48: You should have made your children do housework as soon as they were able to do so.
A. It was essential to make your children do housework as soon as they were able to do so but you didn’t.
B. You didn’t make your children do housework as they were able to do so
C. You should make your children do housework as soon as they are able to do so
D. You made your children do housework but they weren’t able to do so.
Question 49: When the birth rate is high, the expectation of life is low
A. The birth rate and the expectation of life are high and low respectively.
B. The higher the birth rate, the lower the expectation of life
C. The birth rat is as high sa the expectation of life.
D. The high rate of giving birth dends on the low rate of expectation of life.
Question 50: Richard said “Thanks, Bob. You were very kind to me yesterday”.
A. Richard thanked to Bob as he had been very kind to him the day before
B. Richard thanked to Bob as he had been very kind to him yesterday.
C. Richard thanked Bob for he had been very kind to him the day before.
D. Richard said thanks to Bob as he was very kind to him yesterday.
differently from that of others in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. subsidy B. substantial C.undergraduate D.drugstore
Question 2:A.preface B.gazelle C.surface D. flamingo
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicated the word that differs from the other three in the
Question3:A. interestingly B. surprisingly C. provincially D. annoyingly
Question 4:A. mislead B. cover C. correct D. involve
question.
Question 5: Jane is very ________ about her career.
A. single-handed B. single-minded C. fresh-face D. bare-faced
Question 6: Light ________ are small planes with seats for no more than about six passengers.
A. airplane B. airship C.aircraft D.aircrafts
Question 7: A: How much is this car?
B: 15.000 dollars. My uncle paid for it by ________.
A. cash B. credit C. installments D.hire purchase
Question 8: She's certainly a ________writer; she has written quite a few books this year.
A. fruitful B. prolific C. fertile D.successful
Question 9:Husha and Honish are talking about Trishie after watching her music performance.
Husha: ‘Trishie's the best singer in our school."
Honish: “________"
A.Yes, please B.I couldn't agree with you more.
C. That's OK! D. Yea. tell me about it.
Question 10: They were accused of treating the country's flag with________ .
A. respect B.irrespect C. disrespect D. non-respect
Question11: What measures have been________ to control traffic jam at rush hours?
A. imagined B. taken C. done D. carried
Question 12: A teacher is talking to the principal about their school plan.
The teacher. “Why are the renovations being delayed?" The principal. “________"
A. Yes, but it should be changed B. We must get a permit first
C. It was delayed over two hours D. The building really needs renovating
Question 13:“I can‘t remember us ever________ ," replied the stranger.
A. being met B.to have met C.having met D.to meet
Question 14: If Mr. David________ at the meeting, he would make a speech.
A.were B.hadbeen C.was D.hasbeen
Question 15:________the food before. Tom didn't want to eat it again.
A.Having eaten B. To eat C. Eaten D.Eating
Question 16: Leave it in the oven until it________ brown
A. turns B. colours C.changes D.cooks
Question 17:________? Your eyes are red.
A.Did you cry B.Have you been cried C.Were you crying D.Have you been crying
Question 18:After seeing the film Memoir of a Geisha, ________.
A.the book was read by many people B.the book made many people want to read it
C.many people wanted to read the book D.the reading of the book interested people
It's often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do
the minimum of work because they‘re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano
practice because it‘s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or have to be
bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you're older.
Over the years, I‘ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in History and English.
It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying. so there was no reason to be late – I was the one frowning and
drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra
five minutes. It was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn‘t frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a
pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I
got was entirely personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy is that. although
some pans have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were young. It has learnt to think
independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another. What you lose in the rust department, you
gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance. when you’re older, you get less frustrated. Experience has told you
that, if you‘re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you'll get the hang of it. The
confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means that if you can't, say, build a chair
instantly, you don‘t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with
application, eventually get there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who could explain why
certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten, I could never grasp, was magical.
Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I‘d played for my school exams, with just as little
comprehension of what the composer intended as I‘d had all those years before. But soon. complex emotions that I
never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 19:It is implied in paragraph 1 that________.
A.young learners are usually lazy in their class B.teachers should give young learners less homework
C.young learners often lack a good motivation for learning D.parents should encourage young learners to study
more
Question 20:The writer's main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, ________
A.they cannot learn as well as younger learners B.they have a more positive attitude towards learning
C.they tend to learn less as they are discouraged D.they get more impatient With their teachers
Question 21:While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised________.
A.to have more time to learn B.o be able to learn more quickly
C.to feel learning more enjoyable D.to get on better With the tutor
Question 22:In paragraph 3. the word “rusty" means________.
A.not as good as it used to be through lack of practice B.impatient because of having nothing to do
C.covered with rust and not as good as it used to be D.staying alive and becoming more active
Question 23:The phrase “get there" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to “________ "
A.have the things you have long desired B.achieve your aim with hard work
C.arrive at an intended place with difficulty D.receive a school or college degree
Question 24:All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT________.
A.experience in doing other things can help one's learning
B.young people usually feel less patient than adults
C.adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
D.adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
Question25:It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process because adult
learners________.
A.pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B.have become more patient than younger learners
C.are less worried about learning than younger learners
D.are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
Question26:It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you________.
A.should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
B.find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
C.can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
D.are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Working mothers
Because an increasing number of people are opting to work outside the traditional office, notebook PCs are becoming
more and more popular. However, you should know that notebook PCs aren't foreveryone. As you (27)________ up the
pros and cons of your desktop PC with a new system, you should bear (28)________ mind that you may get better profit
for your money by investing in a faster, more powerful desktop PC.
Portability comes at a price. Leave your laptop unattended for any length of time in any sort of public place and you will
quickly discover that it has been stolen. You could even lose it without any intentional neglect on your area; laptops
(and all the business and personal information they contain) are easy (29)________ for skilled thieves. So, yes, there are
definitely serious security issues. Also, if you are prone to tossing your laptop around as you do your purse, workout bag
or umbrella, you'll probably break it before you get your money's worth. Guarantees are getting better and longer, but
they still won‘t cover a simple slip, let alone (30)________carelessness. So, before you (3l)________ out to get yourself
the latest technological appliance, think long and hard as to whether a notebook PC is really suitable for you.
Question 27:A. measure B. weigh C.even D.count
Question 28:A.on B. in C. over D. of
Question 29:A.aims B.objects C.targets D.goals
Question 30:A.usual B.normal C.regular D.habitual
Question 31:A.rush B.speed C.move D.walk
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question32:If carefully doing. the experiment will be successful.
A.If B.doing C.will D.successful
Question 33:The new computer chip is the smallest one than has ever beendeveloped
A.the smallest B.than C.ever been D.developed
Question 34:Although this car appearsto be manufactured by a different company,it has the same body style, size, and
perform as that one.
A.appears B.to be C.different D.perform
Scientists have developed a new bionic computer chip that can be mated with human
cells to combat disease. The tiny device, smaller and thinner than a strand of hair, combines a healthy human cell with
an electronic circuitry chip. Doctors can control the activity of the cell by controlling the chip with a computer.
It has long been established that cell members become permeable when exposed to
electrical impulses. Researchers have conducted genetic research for years with a trial-and-error process of bombarding
cells with electricity in an attempt to introduce foreign substances such as new drug treatments or genetic material. They
were unable to apply a particular level of voltage for a particular purpose. With the new invention, the computer sends
electrical impulses to the chip, which triggers the physicians to open a cell‘s pores with control.
Researchers hope that eventually they will be able to develop more advanced chips
whereby they can choose a particular voltage to activate particular tissues, whether they be muscle, bone, brain, or
others. They believe that they will be able to implant multiple chips into a person to deal with one problem or more than
one problem.
Question 35:The word “strand" in the second sentence is closest in meaning to ________.
A.chip B.type C.color D.thread
Question 36:The author implies that scientists are excited about the new technology because ________.
A.it is possible to kill cancer with a single jolt.
B.It is less expensive than current techniques.
C.It allows them to be able to shock cells for the first time.
D.it is more precise than previous techniques
Question 37:The word “eventually" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
A.in the future B.especially C.possibly D.finally
Question 38:The author implies that up to now. the point of applying electric impulse to cells was to________.
A.open their walls to introduce medication B.kill them
C.combine cells D.stop growth
Question 39:The author states that scientists previously were aware that________.
A.electric impulses could affect cells
B.electric charges could harm a person
C.cells interact with each other through electrical charges
D.they could control cells with a separate compute
Question 40:The word they in the first sentences of the third paragraph refers to________.
A.chips B.tissues C.voltages D.researchers
Question 41:The author indicates that it is expected doctors will be able to ________.
A.place more than one chip in a single person
B.place one large chip in a person to control multiple problems
C.place a chip directly inside a cell
D.place a chip inside a strand of hair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicated the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
Question 42:One of the fundamentals of education. mathematics is taught from the earliest grades in school.
A.basics B.understandings C.needs D.points
Question 43:In 1969, the Beatles officially broke up after playing together as a band for more than a decade.
A.separated B.united C.worked together D.cooperated
Question 44:One of our group's main goals is to discourage the use of chemical fertilizers.
A.prevent B.encourage C.avoiding D.expect
Question 45:Many people lost out when the new regulations were enforced.
A.were at an advantage B.were at a disadvantage
C.lost their jobs D.became fainted
Question 46:You need not have washed the sheets. The hotel staff does the cleaning.
A.it is good that you washed the sheets.
B. It was not necessary to wash the sheets, even though you did.
C.it was necessary to wash the sheets. but you did not do it.
D.t was necessary to wash the sheets. and you did not do it.
Question 47:You'd better take the keys. It‘s possible I‘ll come home late.
A.You’d better take the keys as 1 possibly come home late.
B.You‘d better take the keys in case 1 come home late.
C.P" probably come home late so that you‘d better take the keys.
D. if i come home late, you'd better take the keys.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicated the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48:He was annoyed because his secretary came late to work.
A.His secretary came late to work made him annoyed.
B.His secretary‘s coming late to work made him annoying.
C.He objected to his secretary’s coming late to work.
D.He objected to that his secretary came to work late.
Question 49:“I don’t think Janet will win this time" – said Tony.
A.Tony wondered if Janet would win this time.
B.Tony believed that Janet would win that time.
C.Tony doubted whether Janet would win that time.
D.Tony suggested that Janet should try to win that time.
Question 50:l have learnt never to take sides in any arguments between my close friends
A.I support neither side in my close friends‘ arguments B.I don’t encourage my close friends to argue
C.If i support one side in arguments, the other will be upset. D. I don't support any of my close friends.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 292-ĐỀ SỐ 19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that diffiers from the other three in the position
of primary strees in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. criteria B. mechanize C. industry D. elephant
Question 2: A. peninsula B. professional C. curriculum D. auditorium
Question 3: A. understated B. washed C. produced D. confessed
Question 4: A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. Eliminate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5: She was much less ________ than her sister.
A. industrial B. undustrious C. industry D. industrialized
Question 6: You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. back off D. put aside
Question 7: This cloth ________ very thin.
A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles
Question 8: At 4 o’clock Mr. Hutchinson still had some ________ to do in the garden.
A. works B. jobs C. effort D. task
Question 9: People demand higher wages because prices are ________ all the time.
A. rising B. progressing C. growing D. exceeding
Question 10: Next week when there ________ a full moon, the ocean tides will be higher.
A. will be B. will have been C. is being D. is
Question 11: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ________.
A. more fifty dollars B. one other fifty dollars
C. the same amount also D. another fifty
Question 12: I didn’t know you were asleep. Otherwise, I ________ so much noise when I came in.
A. didn’t make B. wouldn’t have made C. won’t make D. don’t make
Question 13: Rico is seeing his close friend – Rosa off at the railway station.
Rosa: “Ok. I must be going now. I’ll be in touch.” Rico: “________”
A. Right. See you B. Ok. I’ll ring you. C. I must be going, too D. No, you can’t go now.
Question 14: The room looks very dark. You ________ it blue
A. should have painted B. must have painted C. need have painted D. would have painted
Question 15: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
Shop assistant: “________?” Customer: “Ok, thanks. I am just looking.”
A. Can I help you? We’ve got some new shoes. B. Which tie do you want, the blue one or the pink one?
C. Why don’t you like this type of T shirt? D. Do you want to have a look?
Question 16: Would you mind ________ to make personal calls?
A. not using office phone B. not to use office phone
C. not use office phone D. don’t use office phone
Question 17: I ________ my Mum by cooking dinners for her.
A. cheered up B. looked up C. waited for D. felt like
Question 18: She has seldom received letters from her former students lately, ________?
of the question from 19 to 25.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the US. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a way to exercise, to enjoy
the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause. Though serious runners may spend months
training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to
beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and excrcise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may
be pushed in astrollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college
campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest footrace in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco every spring. This
race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be
80.000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners
who compete to win and who might finish in as little as 35 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours
to finish. In the back of the race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men
who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long line and who
were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long white gown and the groom
wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually married at some point along the
route.
Question 19: The main purpose of this passage is to ________.
A. encourage people to exercise B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume D. give reasons for the popularity of foot races
Question 20: Which of following is NOT implied by author?
A. Foot races appeal to a variety of people. B. Walkers can compete for prizes.
C. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization. D. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
Question 21: The word “beat” as used in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incline B. overturn C. outdo D. undermine
Question 22: In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter footraces?
Question 23: The word “costumes” as used in paragraph 2 most likely refers to ________.
A. outfits B. uniforms C. cloaks D. suits
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners were participating in a wedding D. Some runners were serious abot winning
Question 25: Which of following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. chronological order B. specific to general C. cause and result D. statement and example
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
School lunch
Research has shown that over half the childrn in Britain who take their own lunches to school do not eat (26) ________ in
the middle of the day. In Britain, schools have to (27) ________ meals at lunchtime. Children can choose to bring their own
food or have lunch at the school canteen.
One shocking finding of the research is that school meals are much healthier than lunches prepared by parents. There are
strict (28) ________ for the preparation of school meals, which have to include one (29) ________ of fruit and one of
vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and starchy food like break or pasta. Lunchboxes examined by researchers
contained sweet drinks, crisps and chocolate bars. Children consume twice as much sugar as they should at lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding (30) ________ why the percentage of overweight in Britain has increased
in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government can’t criticize parents, but it can remind them of the nutritional value of
milk, fruit and vegetables. Small changes in their children’s diet can affect their future health. Children can easily develop
bad eating habits at this age, and parents are the only ones who can prevent it.
Question 26: A. appropriately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
Question 27: A. give B. provide C. make D. do
Question 28: A. standards B. procedures C. conditions D. ways
Question 29: A. piece B. portion C. bowl D. kilo
Question 30: A. of B. about C. at D. on
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: I invited 20 people to my party, some of them are my former classmates.
A. invited B. to C. them D. former
Question 32: They received such a good advice from their teachers that they all studied very well.
A. They B. a good advice C. all D. well
Question 33: Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a profusion of vivid
colors.
A. among B. in nature C. its D. fan out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the question from 34 to 41.
Overpopulation, the situatuon of having large numbers of people with too few reources and too little space, is closely
associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources, or from both.
Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of people can be supported
on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other resources the land can provide. In countries
where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of
land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small
amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe, overpopulation generally is
not considered a major caus of poverty. These countries produce large quantities of food through mechanized farming,
which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production
provides enough food to support the high densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural productivity. Bangladesh,
for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1, 147 persons per sq km. A large majority of the
people of Bangladesh engage in low – productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country’s extremely high level
of poverty. Some of the smalleer countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population
densities as well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and there
fore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less than 30 persons
per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also have infertile land,
and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The
United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s
wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor families
because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies commonly sanction the value
of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide little or no support, financial or political, for
family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons,
developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.
(From “Poverty” by Thomas J. Corbett)
Question 34: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraoh 1?
A. Overpopulation B. Population density C. Simple farming D. Poverty
Question 35: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. skilled labor C. Farming methods D. Land area
Question 36: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ________.
A. people B. densities C. resources D. countries
Question 37: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ________.
A. there is lack of mechanization B. there are small numbers of laborers
C. there is an abundance of resources D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 38: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ________.
A. its population density only B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 39: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is losest in meaning to ________.
A. escape from B. look into C. give up D. participate in
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countris, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 41: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences.
B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty.
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
D. Poverty in Developing Countries.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
Question 42: Are you certain that you are cut out for that kind of job?
A. are determined to take B. don’t want to take
C. are offered D. have the necessary
skills for
Question 43: His physical conditions were no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impotence C. hindrance D. impossibility
Question 44: I’d love to come, but I am snowed under at the moment.
A. am busy B. have free time C. have a bad cold D. am on the move
Question 45: Ill-gotten wealth is disgusting.
A. admiring B. distasteful C. worthless D. admirable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence best combines each pair of sentences in the
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
Question 47: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake
A. The coffee was not very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake
B. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake
D. The coffee was so hot that it didn’t keep us awake.
Question 48: Without your help, I couldn’t have succeeded.
A. You didn’t help me and I didn’t succeed
B. I succeeded even you didn’t help me
C. In spite of your help, I wasn’t successful.
D. I was successful due to your help.
Question 49: Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. When ever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
B. I always thinks of Lucty, my youngest sister
C. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister
D. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy.
Question 50: “I didn’t take your money” he said to her.
A. He doubted whether she had taken his money. B. He denied talking her money
C. He admitted taking her money D. He warned her to take his money
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that diffiers from the other three in the
position of primary strees in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. criteria B. mechanize C. industry D. elephant
Question 2: A. peninsula B. professional C. curriculum D. auditorium
Question 3: A. understated B. washed C. produced D. confessed
Question 4: A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5: She was much less ________ than her sister.
A. industrial B. undustrious C. industry D. industrialized
Question 6: You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. back off D. put aside
Question 7: This cloth ________ very thin.
A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles
Question 8: At 4 o’clock Mr. Hutchinson still had some ________ to do in the garden.
A. works B. jobs C. effort D. task
Question 9: People demand higher wages because prices are ________ all the time.
A. rising B. progressing C. growing D. exceeding
Question 10: Next week when there ________ a full moon, the ocean tides will be higher.
A. will be B. will have been C. is being D. is
Question 11: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ________.
A. more fifty dollars B. one other fifty dollars
C. the same amount also D. another fifty
Question 12: I didn’t know you were asleep. Otherwise, I ________ so much noise when I came in.
A. didn’t make B. wouldn’t have made C. won’t make D. don’t make
Question 13: Rico is seeing his close friend – Rosa off at the railway station.
Rosa: “Ok. I must be going now. I’ll be in touch.” Rico: “________”
A. Right. See you B. Ok. I’ll ring you.
C. I must be going, too D. No, you can’t go now.
Question 14: The room looks very dark. You ________ it blue
A. should have painted B. must have painted C. need have painted D. would have painted
Question 15: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
Shop assistant: “________?” Customer: “Ok, thanks. I am just looking.”
A. Can I help you? We’ve got some new shoes. B. Which tie do you want, the blue one or the pink one?
C. Why don’t you like this type of T shirt? D. Do you want to have a look?
Question 16: Would you mind ________ to make personal calls?
A. not using office phone B. not to use office phone
C. not use office phone D. don’t use office phone
Question 17: I ________ my Mum by cooking dinners for her.
A. cheered up B. looked up C. waited for D. felt like
Question 18: She has seldom received letters from her former students lately, ________?
each of the question from 19 to 25.
Foot racing is a popular activity in the US. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a way to exercise, to
enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good cause. Though serious runners may spend
months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an
effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun and excrcise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year
(who may be pushed in astrollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on
college campuses, through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest footrace in the world is the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco every spring. This
race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at the Pacific Ocean. There may
be 80.000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious
runners who compete to win and who might finish in as little as 35 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take
several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was
a group of men who dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a
long line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long
white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually
married at some point along the route.
Question 19: The main purpose of this passage is to ________.
A. encourage people to exercise B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume D. give reasons for the popularity of foot races
Question 20: Which of following is NOT implied by author?
A. Foot races appeal to a variety of people. B. Walkers can compete for prizes.
C. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization. D. Running is a good
way to strengthen the heart.
Question 21: The word “beat” as used in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incline B. overturn C. outdo D. undermine
Question 22: In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter footraces?
Question 23: The word “costumes” as used in paragraph 2 most likely refers to ________.
A. outfits B. uniforms C. cloaks D. suits
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners were participating in a wedding D. Some runners were serious abot winning
Question 25: Which of following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. chronological order B. specific to general C. cause and result D. statement and example
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
School lunch
Research has shown that over half the childrn in Britain who take their own lunches to school do not eat (26) ________
in the middle of the day. In Britain, schools have to (27) ________ meals at lunchtime. Children can choose to bring their
own food or have lunch at the school canteen.
One shocking finding of the research is that school meals are much healthier than lunches prepared by parents. There are
strict (28) ________ for the preparation of school meals, which have to include one (29) ________ of fruit and one of
vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and starchy food like break or pasta. Lunchboxes examined by researchers
contained sweet drinks, crisps and chocolate bars. Children consume twice as much sugar as they should at lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding (30) ________ why the percentage of overweight in Britain has
increased in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government can’t criticize parents, but it can remind them of the
nutritional value of milk, fruit and vegetables. Small changes in their children’s diet can affect their future health.
Children can easily develop bad eating habits at this age, and parents are the only ones who can prevent it.
Question 26: A. appropriately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
Question 27: A. give B. provide C. make D. do
Question 28: A. standards B. procedures C. conditions D. ways
Question 29: A. piece B. portion C. bowl D. kilo
Question 30: A. of B. about C. at D. on
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 31: I invited 20 people to my party, some of them are my former classmates.
A. invited B. to C. them D. Former
Question 32: They received such a good advice from their teachers that they all studied very well.
A. They B. a good advice C. all D. well
Question 33: Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a profusion of
vivid colors.
A. among B. in nature C. its D. fan out
each of the question from 34 to 41.
Overpopulation, the situatuon of having large numbers of people with too few reources and too little space, is closely
associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources, or from both.
Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of people can be
supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other resources the land can
provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and
gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence
activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe, overpopulation generally is
not considered a major caus of poverty. These countries produce large quantities of food through mechanized farming,
which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production
provides enough food to support the high densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural productivity.
Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1, 147 persons per sq km. A large
majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low – productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country’s
extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smalleer countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and
Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-
tech industries, however, and there fore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less than 30 persons
per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also have infertile land,
and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor.
The United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s
wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor families
because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies commonly sanction the
value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide little or no support, financial or
political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these
reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.
Question 34: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraoh 1?
A. Overpopulation B. Population density C. Simple farming D. Poverty
Question 35: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. skilled labor C. Farming methods D. Land area
Question 36: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ________.
A. people B. densities C. resources D. countries
Question 37: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ________.
A. there is lack of mechanization B. there are small numbers of laborers
C. there is an abundance of resources D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 38: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ________.
A. its population density only B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 39: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is losest in meaning to ________.
A. escape from B. look into C. give up D. participate in
Question 40: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countris, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 41: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences. B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty.
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem D. Poverty in Developing Countries.
Question 42: Are you certain that you are cut out for that kind of job?
A. are determined to take B. don’t want to take C. are offered D. have the necessary skills
for
Question 43: His physical conditions were no impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. help B. impotence C. hindrance D. impossibility
Question 44: I’d love to come, but I am snowed under at the moment.
A. am busy B. have free time C. have a bad cold D. am on the move
Question 45: Ill-gotten wealth is disgusting.
A. admiring B. distasteful C. worthless D. admirable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
Question 47: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake
A. The coffee was not very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake
B. We were kept awake because the coffee was strong.
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake
D. The coffee was so hot that it didn’t keep us awake.
Question 48: Without your help, I couldn’t have succeeded.
A. You didn’t help me and I didn’t succeed
B. I succeeded even you didn’t help me
C. In spite of your help, I wasn’t successful.
D. I was successful due to your help.
Question 49: Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. When ever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
B. I always thinks of Lucty, my youngest sister
C. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister
D. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy.
Question 50: “I didn’t take your money” he said to her.
A. He doubted whether she had taken his money.
B. He denied talking her money
C. He admitted taking her money
D. He warned her to take his money
Question 1: A: Do you mind if we schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock? B: Well, actually, I ________ earlier
A. will prefer it B. would prefer it to be C. am preferring D. should prefer it will be
Question 2: This statue is a lifelike ________ of Christ Jesus.
A. presentation B. presenting C. representation D. representative
Question 3: The house was empty when I arrived. They ________.
A. must have gone to bed B. should have gone to bed C. would have gone to bed D. need have gone to bed
Question 4: My brother had his camera ________ from his car in the office car-park.
A. lost B. robbed C. missed D. stolen
Question 5: He lost in the election because he is a weak and ________ leader.
A. undeciding B. undecided C. undecisive D. indecisive
Question 6: All his plans for starting his own business fell ________.
A. in B. through C. down D. away
Question 7: If the bride’s father ________ the car for the wrong time, she ________ at the church by now.
A. hadn’t booked/would have been B. didn’t book/would have been
C. hadn’t booked/would be D. hadn’t booked/had been
Question 8: Luca is at Noi Bai Airport. She wants to exchange some money, she is talking to Paula – a clerk at a
currency exchange kiosk.
Luca: “I’d like to change some money.” Paula: “________”
A. Five tens, please B. Which currency?
C. You haven’t signed it. D. What’s your account number?
Question 9: John will never buy you a drink – he’s far too ________.
A. tight-fisted B. pig-headed C. highly-strung D. easy - going
Question 10: Mrs. Wheaton is shopping in Trang Tien Plaza. She is talking to a salesgirl.
Mrs. Wheaton: “Can I have a look at that pullover, please?” Salesgirl: “________”.
A. It’s much cheaper B. Which one? This one? C. Sorry, it is out of stock. D. Can I help you?
Question 11: The electrician rarely makes mistake, ________?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. will he D. wouldn’t he?
Question 12: We ________ today and I got into trouble because I hadn’t done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 13: Study much harder ________.
A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam
C. or you won’t pass the exam D. and you pass the exam
Question 14: We intend to ________ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of
Question 15: Income from dancing is unstable so Giang popper also works as a director, performance event organizer,
coach and dance instructor at home.
A. from B. unstable C. works D. performance
Question 16: MPs have urged the UK government to launch a major publicity campaign to help people protect
themselves against online crime.
A. have urged B. to launch C. campaign D. protect themselves against
Question 17: Little House on the Prairie, a successful televion program, was adapted from a series of book by a women
whose life was similar to that of the character called by name Laura.
A. series B. whose C. that of D. by name
each of the question.
Rachek Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns
Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife
Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor
until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around US, which provided a fascinating look beneath
the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a
poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1, 000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent
discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm
was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill
birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against
Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work vindicated a 1963 report of
the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
Question 18: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work _________.
A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
C. as a researcher D. as a writer
Question 19: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. Zoology B. Literature C. History D. Oceanography
Question 20: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________.
A. 29 B. 26 C. 34 D. 45
Question 21: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind ________.
A. became more popular than her other books B. was outdated
C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies
Question 22: Which of the following was not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around
Us?
A. Printed matter B. Talks with experts
C. Letters from scientists D. A research expedition
Question 23: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. irresponsible B. unnecessary C. continuous D. limited
Question 24: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily ________.
A. a discussion of hazards insects pose to the food supply
B. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical in dustry
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
Question 25: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”?
A. offensive B. logical C. deceptive D. faulty
Question 26: A. nourish B. flourish C. courageous D. courage
Question 27: A. promises B. likes C. houses D. doses
Question 28: A. captain B. belong C. respect D. avoid
Question 29: A. popularity B. personality C. hospitality D. apprentice
Set in the red desert of central Australia is the mining town of Coober Pedy. At first
sight, the town looks similar to many other such communities, but Coober Pedy is different. Sixty per cent of its
population of 4,000 people lives underground. There are today about 800 underground houses as well as shops, hotels
and even churches in the town and the surrounding hills. Once a site has been chosen, special tunneling machines are
(30) ________ in to ceate passage and rooms in the sandstone. Rock pillars are left to support the roof, and door and
windows are cut into the front. Houses are of all shapes and (31) ________, the largest having twenty rooms, and some
even have their own swimming poll.
Living underground may sound strange but in fact it has a number of advantages. In
summer, the temperature outside the houses it remains a steady 25C all year round. Many people say that living
underground makes they fell very secure. There is no problem with noise from the neighbours and the houses are not
affected. By the fierce dust storms that regularly sweep (33) ________ the area. And of course, if your family (34)
________ or lots of friends come to stay, you can always dig another room.
Question 30: A. brought B. entered C. placed D. worked
Question 31: A. sizes B. areas C. volumes D. numbers
Question 32: A. strongly B. heavily C. extremely D. sharply
Question 33: A. through B. over C. across D. off
Question 34: A. grows B. rises C. stretches D. explodes
Animation traditionally in done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an
object, each slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one
to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will
produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation,
because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the
final sequences of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the objects in the
pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information.
Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism
involves computer techniques from three-dimensional transfofmation, shading, nad curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along
with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a
single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest quality images possible,
expensive film recorders are used. The computer computer the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and
sends this information to the recorder, which captures it in film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large
magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When
the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the
entire sequence dose not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputer, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This
approach can be very expensive and time – consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with
simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution,
realistic-looking images.
Question 35: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production procession B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost D. The role of the artist
Question 36: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the
________.
A. first frame B. middle frames
C. last frame D. entire sequences of frame
Question 37: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. formulas B. objects C. numbers D. database
Question 38: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to ________.
A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images D. create new frames
Question 39: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech animation are determined by
________.
A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations
Question 40: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers
Question 41: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolutions images. D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
Question 42: Adversely affected by the Embargo act of 1808 western farmers directed their anger at the British.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 43: Microscopic organisms settle to the seafloor and accumulate in marine mud.
A. grow up B. build up C. spread out D. break apart
Question 44: Certain types of bacteria that grow on decomposing plants produce a shimmering luminescence, an eerie
light called “foxfire”.
A. strange B. dim C. steady D. familiar
Question 45: Rooftop green space in cities also helps mitigate what scientists call the urban heat island effect.
A. intensify B. cause C. prevent D. weaken
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence best combines each pair of sentences in
Question 46: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the
original.
A. It was hard for the ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for the experts.
B. It in obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully. C. It was almost
impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic to one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.
Question 47: He failed to enter college for two consecutive years. He was finally able to attend FPT Arena University.
A. Because he failed to enter college for two consecutive years, he was finally able to attend FPT Arena University.
B. Failing to enter college for two consecutive years prevented him from attending FPT Arena University.
C. Not being admitted to college for two consecutive years, he was finally able to enter FPT Arena University.
D. Being finally able to attend FPT Arena University., he faile to enter college for two consecutive year
Question 48: “Don’t make nois, girls!” said Dean.
A. The Dean asked the girls to make noise.
B. The Dean didn’t allowed the girls to make noise
C. The Dean told the girls not to make noise
D. The Dean required the girl to be noisy.
Question 49: The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was inposed.
A. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed
B. It in the speed limit that reduces steadily the number of accidents.
C. The imposing of speed limit has resulted from the number of accidents.
D. The have been few accidents than before since they used the speed limit.
Question 50: It was wrong of you to criticize your son before his friends left.
A. If you had criticzed your son after his friends had left, he wouldn’t be so upset now.
B. Your son must have been embarrassed when you criticized him in front of his friend.
C. You should have delayed criticizing your son until after his friends had gone.
D. You must be careful not to embarrass your son when he is with his friends.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronounciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
Question 2: A. embraced B. enforced C. composed D. approached
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that diffeers from the other three in the
Question 3: A. environment B. philosophy C. medicine D. attenuate
Question 4: A. technology B. audience C. territory D. commerce
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the followingquestions.
Question 5: St. Catherine’s Monastery Library in Egypt is the first in the world ________ in the sixth century.
A. to be built B. built C. to built D. to have built
Question 6: Today’s weather will be a ________ of yesterday.
A. continuing B. continuation C. continuity D. continual
Question 7: The ________ polluted atmosphere in some industrial regions is called “smog”
A. much B. largely C. fully D. heavily
Question 8: Too many factories dispose ________ their waste by pumping it into rivers and the sea.
A. out B. of C. away D. off
Question 9: He was so mean that he could not bear to ________ the smallest sum of money for the charity appeal.
A. part with B. pay off C. give in D. let out
Question 10: Judie performed very well in writing lesson. Her teacher is paying her a compliment.
Teacher: “Judie, you’ve written a much better essay this time.” Judie: “________.”
A. Writing? Why? B. Thank you. It’s really encouraging.
C. Youre welcome. D. What did you say? I’m so shy.
Question 11: ________ gene in the human genome were more comletely understood, many human diseases could be
cured or prevented.
A. Each B. Since each C. If each D. Were each
Question 12: Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has hardly any raw materials, ________
A. does it B. doesn’t it C. has it D. hasn’t it
Question 13: Although the patient’s condition is serious, she seems to be out of ________ .
A. place B. control C. danger D. order
Question 14: Yuki and Hana are having a free afternoon. Yuki is inviting Hana to see a new movie with him.
Yuki: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this afternoon?” Hana: : ________.”
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid B. I feel very bored C. You’re welcome D. That would be great
Question 15: They appreciate ________ this information.
A. to have B. having C. have D. to have had
Question 16: The sports event was ________ and successfully organized.
A. good preparation B. good job C. well-done D. well-prepared
Question 17: The child who was caught ________ wasmade to stand in the corner of the classroom.
A. behaving B. misbehave C. misbehavior D. msbehaving
Question 18: They are conducting a wide ________ of surveys throughout Vietnam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 19: What were the key elements of American foreign policy prior to World War II?
A. before B. during C. after D. despite
Question 20: The flowerig pebble is a plant that looks like a stone and grows in arid areas.
A. deserted B. damp C. dry D. barren
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined
Question 21: Woman lierated from child care can pursue their own interest.
A. separated from B. burdened with C. having fun with D. freed from
Question 22: Excessive amounts of lead in the air can decrease a child’s intelligence.
A. boom B. diminish C. abate D. swamp
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are slightly more than todders.
This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counter-productive if she isn’t ready. Wise
parents will have a (23) ________ attitude and take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of
(24) ________ toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good mterial available for young children,
and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range of videos, (25)
________ can reinfore and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are (26) ________ valuable in helping to
increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad review as far as cildren are concerned, mainly because too
many spend too much time watching programs not intended for ther age group. Too many television programs induce
an incurious, uncritical attitude that is going to make learning much more difficult. However, (27) ________ viewing
of programs designed for young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book seeing it serialised on
television, so children will pounce on books which feature their favourite television characters, and videos can add a
new dimension to a story known from a book.
Question 23: A. cheerful B. contented C. relaxed D. hopeful
Question 24: A. bright B. thrilling C. energetic D. stimulating
Question 25: A. who B. why C. when D. which
Question 26: A. properly B. worthily C. perfectly D. equally
Question 27: A. cautious B. choice C. approved D. discriminating
Mark the following passage and make the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the question.
Composers today use a wider variety of sounds than ever before, including many that
were once considered undesirable noises. Composer Edgard Varese (1883-1965) called thus the “liberation of sound…
the right to make music with any and all sounds.” Electronic music, for example – made with the aid of computers,
synthesizers, and electronic instruments – may include sounds that in the past would not have been considered musical.
Enviromental sounds, such as thunder, and electronically generated hisses and blips
can be recorded, manipulated, and then incorporated into a musical composition. But composers also draw novel
sounds from voices and non-electronic instruments. Singers may be asked to scream, laugh, groan, sneeze, or to sing
phonetic sounds rather than words. Wind and string players may lap or scrape their instruments. A brass or woodwind
player may hum while playing, to produce two pitches at once; a pianist may reach inside the piano to pluck a string
and then run a metal blade along it. In the music of the Western world, the greatest expansion and experimentation
have involved percussion instruments, which outnumber strings and winds in many recent compositions. Traditional
persussion instruments are struck with new types of beaters; and instruments that used to be couriered unconventional
in Western music – tom-toms, bongos, slapsticks, maracas – are widely used.
In the search for novel sounds, increased use has been made in Western music of
Microtones. Non-Western music typically divides and intervals between two pitches more finely than Western music
does, thereby producing a greater number of distinct tones or micro tones, within the same interval. Composers such
as Krzysztof Penderecki create sound that borders on electronic noise through tone clusters – closely spaced tones
played together and heard as a mass, block, or band of sound. The directional aspect of sound has taken on new
importance as well Loudspeakers or groups of instruments may be placed at opposite ends of the stage, in the balcony,
or at the back and sides of the auditorium. Because standard music notation makes no provision for many of these
innovations, recent music scores may contain graph like diagrams, new note shapes and symbols, and novel ways of
arranging notation on the page.
Question 28: The word “wider” in line 1 is closet in meaning to ________.
A. more impressive B. more distinctive C. more controversial D. more extensive
Question 29: The passage suggests that Edgard Varese is an example of a composer who ________ .
A. criticized electronic music as too noise like
B. modified sonic of the electronic instrumets he used in his music
C. believed that any sound could be used in music
D. wrote music with enviromental themes
Question 30: The word “it” in line 11 refers to ________.
A. piano B. string C. blade D. music
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following types of instruments has played a role in much of the
innovation in Western music?
A. String B. Percussion C. Woodwind D. Brass
Question 32: The word “thereby” in line 18 is closet in meaning to ________.
A. in return for B. in spite of C. by the way D. by this means
Question 33: According to the passage, Krzysztof Pederecki is known for which of the following practices?
A. Using tones that are clumpled together B. Combining traditional and nontraditional
instruments
C. Seating musicians in unusual areas of an auditorium D. Playing Western music for non-Western audiences
Question 34:According to the passage,which of the following would be considered traditional elements of Western
music ?
A. Microtones B. Tom-toms and bongs C. Pianos D. Hisses
Question 35: In paragraph 3, the author mentions diagrams as an example of a new way to ________.
A. chart the history of innovation in musical notation B. explain the logic of standard musical notation
C. design and develop electronic instruments D. indicate how particular sounds should be produced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
An air pollutnt is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such
quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible
definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the
fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled – a far cry from the
extensive list of harmful subtances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of
various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be
considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and notrigen oxides, are found
in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they
became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds
to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature’s output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting
from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as as city. In such a region, human output may
be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased
concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater
than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration
need not be large for a subtance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerial value tells us little until we know how much of
an increase this represents over ther concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide
has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon
monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
A. The economic impact of air pollution. B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 37: The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 38: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the defiition of air pollution will continue to change D. a subtance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 39: The word “These” in the second paragraph is closet in meaning to ________.
A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 40: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air
pollution ?
A. They function as part of a purification process B. They occur in greater quantities than oher pollutants
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 41: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions ________.
A. can be dawrfed by nature’s output of pollutants B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 42: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if
________.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on our answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 43: Alike oxygen, which is chemically changed by our bodies into carbon dioxide, nitrogen is merely
exhaled back into the air.
A. alike B. chemically C. merely D. into
Question 44: Working like a police officier means earning a good salary, excellent retirement benefits, and great health
insurance for you and your family.
A. working like B. means C. earning D. benefits
Question 45: Lasers are of great value in areas such as communication, industry, medicines and scientific research.
A. lasers B. of C. industry D. medicines
Mark the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 46: I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary story stories with Janet around. She’ a bit unstable and could
get hysterical.
A. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because she only laughs instead of
getting scared.
B. Janet has trouble keeping her emtions under control, especially when she is told frightening stories.
C. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but we should avoid
scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so let’s not tell
frightening stories in her presence.
Question 47: They were suspected to have robbed the bank. The police have investigated them for days.
A. Suspected to have robbed the bank, they have been investigated for days.
B. Suspecting to have robbed the bank, they have been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have robbed the bank, they have been investigated for days.
D. They have investigated for days, suspected to have robbed the bank.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Had I known how crowded it’s be, I’d have never moved to Madrid.
A. I moved to Madrid only because I was unaware of how many people were there.
B. Since it was so crowded in Madrid, I decided that I would never move there.
C. In the end, Madrid turned out to be far more crowded than I’d thought before moving there.
D. I would have had a better time living in Madrid if only there hadn’t been so many people.
Question 49: Their parents gave them permission to get married.
A. “You must get married”, their parents told them.
B. “You ought to get married”, their parents told them.
C. “I give you permission to get married”, their parents told them.
D. “You may get married”, their parents told them.
Question 50: After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her to.
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
B. Once the operation was over, her recovery was as fast as it could be expected.
C. To our great surprise, she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.
Question 1: A. economics B. inspection C. regulation D. individual
Question 2: A. colony B. assistant C. possible D. holiday
Question 3: A. voyage B. village C. passage D. massage
Question 4: A. fool B. boot C. foot D. cool
Question 5: Several businesses would stand to lose a great deal of money if open trade agreements ________ followed.
A. are not being B. were not being C. had not been D. have not been
Question 6: The professor scheduled two student appointments for the same time. He was so ________.
A. open – minded B. kind – hearted C. narrow – minded D. absent – minded
Question 7: What chemical is this? It’s ________ a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 8: It’s time I ________ thinking about that essay.
A. got down to B. got off C. got on D. got down with
Question 9: On ________ he had won the scholarship to Harvard University, he jumped for joy.
A. he was told B. having told C. telling D. being told
Question 10: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday, ________?
A. wasn’t she B. didn’t you C. didn’t I D. wasn’t it
Question 11: Mary invites Malik to her birthday party but Malik refuses to come.
Malik: “I’m sorry. I won’t be able to come.” Mary: “________”.
A. Great B. Oh, that’s annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds
like fun
Question 12: I think you are ________ your time looking for a job in this town. There’s not much to do here.
A. losing B. spending C. wasting D. missing
Question 13: Gene got his book ________ by a subsidy publisher.
A. to publish B. publishing C. to be published D. published
Question 14: A good friend is ________ will stand by you when you are in trouble.
A. the one is B. a person that C. people who D. who
Question 15: On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she came ________ again.
A. up B. round C. over D. to come up with
Question 16: Two friends are having a conversation in a restaurant.
Peter: “________” Jane: “All right. Suit yourself.”
A. I don’t want to eat anything. I am on a diet. B. I haven’t been to such a nice place with you for a
while.
C. Can you help me choose the main course? D. What is your favourite starter?
Question 17: We missed the ferry yesterday morning. It ________ by the time we arrived at the pier.
A. already went B. was already going C. had already gone D. has already gone
Question 18: I had a ________, which I couldn’t explain, that something terrible was going to happen.
A. feeling B. view C. sense D. thought
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
A. Almost B. the C. confusing D. unclear
Question 20: The Netherland, with much of its land lying lower than sea level, have system of dikes and canals for
controlling water.
A. much B. lying C. have D. controlling
Question 21: With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team won the trophy five times.
A. over B. final match C. won D. five times
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite
technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for
scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their
mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication
among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable
human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and make direct observations by means of instruments that are
lowered into the ocean, from samples take from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct
observations of the ocean floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and
even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photography from vantage points above the surface of more than seven
miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control
in order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important for ocean study are
data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil
slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the temperature and the
color of the ocean's surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents from laboratories on dry land.
Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By
creating a model of the ocean's movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of
the ocean on the environment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or
even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively.
Some of humankind's most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help
of observations made possible by this new technology.
Question 22: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Communication among drivers. B. Technological advances in oceanography
C. Direct observation of the ocean floor. D. Undersea vehicles.
Question 23: The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. nervous B. confused C. slow moving D. very weak
Question 24: This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon ________.
A. the limitations of diving equipment B. radios that divers use to communicate
C. controlling currents and the weather D. vehicles as well as divers
Question 25: Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because ________.
A. the pressure affected their speech organs B. the vehicles they used have not been perfected
C. they did not pronounce clearly D. the water destroyed their speech organs
Question 26: Undersea vehicles ________.
A. are too small for a man to fit inside B. are very slow to respond
C. have the same limitation that divers have D. make direct observations of the ocean floor
Question 27: How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. By operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater. B. By operators outside the vehicle on ship.
C. By operators outside the vehicle on a driving platform. D. By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on
shore.
Question 28: Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. B. Cloud formations over the ocean.
C. Presence of oil slicks. D. The location of sea ice.
Question 29: The words ‘those” refers to ________.
A. ships B. vehicles C. problems D. computers
After two decades of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the United
States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial increase in enrollment in
recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since 1990, the number of people
receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend
of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue.
There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that many
graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall Street, or in
other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry-level management jobs are going to students
graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those holding MBA degrees. Students
have asked the question, “Is an MBA degree really what I need to be best prepared for getting a good job?” The second
major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business
needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling to meet the new demands.
Question 30: What is the main focus of this passage?
A. Jobs on Wall Street. B. Types of graduate degrees.
C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools. D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy.
Question 31: The word “plush” in line 8 most probably means ________.
A. legal B. satisfactory C. fancy D. dependable
Question 32: Which of the following business schools has NOT shown a decrease in enrollment?
A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale
Question 33: Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street?
A. a center for international affairs B. a major financial center.
C. a shopping district. D. a neighborhood in New York.
Question 34: According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollment?
A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession.
B. low salary and foreign competition.
C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs.
D. declining population and economic prosperity.
Question 35: The word “struggling” as used in the last sentence is closest in meaning to ________.
A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving
Question 36: The phrase “trend of” in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. reluctance of B. drawback to C. movement toward D. extraction from
phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 51 to 60.
Throughout history, women have had responsiblity for healing the sick. However, it is only in ccomparative recent times
that they have been allowed to train as doctors at medical schools in Britain. Yet in that short time, they have (37)
________ an enormous contribution to modern medicine.
The first female doctors were nuns (38) ________ gave advice about diseases and (39) _______ and prepared medicnes.
In ancient Rome, women healers were considered skillful and respected. In Britain, for centuries, male doctors were
suspicious of women who pratised medicine (40) ________ and in 1512 a law was passed making it illegal for them to
do so. Women coulnd’t study medicine at universities (41) ________ the 19th century and they only began to gain
equality with male doctors in the 20th century.
Question 37: A. caused B. done C. had D. made
Question 38: A. they B. who C. whose D. which
Question 39: A. injured B. painful C. injures D. wounded
Question 40: A. profession B. professional C. professionally D. unprofessional
Question 41: A. until B. in C. from D. since
Question 42: They were not prepared for the humid heat of the tropical forest.
A. arid B. watery C. soaked D. moist
Question 43: Many California mining towns prospered until the gold ran out and prospectors moved on to new areas,
leaving boom towns to become ghost towns.
A. declined B. assembled C. employed D. thrived
Question 44: The young team received widespread support throughout the country.
A. narrow B. limited C. popular D. scattered
Question 45: Suddenly, in the twinkling of an eye, her whole life had been turned upside down.
A. very quickly B. gradually
C. over a long period of time D. unfortunately
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 46: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion house.
A. Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house.
B. Ann works for a famous fashion house, so she always keeps up with the latest fashions.
C. Not working for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions.
D. Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions
Question 47: Put your coat on. You will get cold.
A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.
B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.
C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.
D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.
Question 48: Not until after I’d given my report did I realize I hadn’t mentioned all of the points I’d wanted to.
A. In my report, I’d intended to bring up more points than I actually did, though I only noticed this after I’d finished.
B. I had carefully planned all the points I would be mentioning in my report, but in the end I forgot some of them.
C. My report turned out not very well as I was unable to bring up all the points I had been planning to.
D. Once the report had finished, it was pointed out to me that I hadn’t brought up all the topics that I should have.
Question 49: The sooner we solve the problem with controlling weapons, the better it will be for all.
A. If we could solve the problem with controlling weapons, the better it will be for all.
B. If would be better for all if we can solve the problem with controlling weapons soon.
C. If all are better, we can solve the problem with controlling weapons.
D. If we can solve the problem with controlling weapons soon, it will be better for all.
Question 50: My friend told me, “If I were you, I would give up smoking.”
A. My friend advised me to give up smoking.
B. My friend warned me to give up smoking.
C. My friend prohibited me from giving up smoking.
D. My friend suggested giving up smoking.
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Fruit and vegetables should be carefully washed whether eaten fresh or cook.
A. carefully B. whether C. fresh D. cook
Question 2: She had to leave because she didn't see eyes to eyes with her boss.
A. to leave B. because C. didn't D. eyes to eyes
Question 3: With the development of the Internet and the World Wide Web, businessmen do not hardly have as much
traveling as they used to.
A. development of B. businessmen C. hardly have D. they used to
Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress.
Question 4: A. accompany B. comfortable C. interview D. dynamism
Question 5: A. effectivenessB. satisfaction C. accountancy D. appropriate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three.
Question 6: A. mouths B. cloths C. booths D. months
Question 7: A. retain B. mountain C. painting D. chain
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks. THE FAMILY
Statesmen define a family as "a group of individuals having a common dwelling and related by blood adoption or
marriage, (8)_________ includes common-law relationships". Most people are born into one of these groups and will
live their lives as a family in such a group. Although the definition of a family may not change, (9)_________
relationship of people to each other within the family group changes as society changes. More and more wives are
taking paying jobs, and, as a result, the roles of husband, wife and children are changing. Today, men expect to work for
pay for about 40 years of their lives, and, in today's marriages (10)_________ which both spouses have paying jobs,
women can expect to work for about 30 to 35 years of their lives. This means that man must learn to do their share of
family tasks such as caring for the children and daily (11)_________. Children, too, especially adolescents, have to
(12)_________ with the members of their family in sharing household tasks. The widespread acceptance of
contraception has meant that having children is as matter of choice, not an automatic result of marriage. Marriage itself
has become a choice. As alternatives such as common-law relationship and single-parent families have become socially
acceptable, women will become more independent
Question 8: A. which B. that C. what D. it
Question 9: A. a B. any C. some D. the
Question 10: A. in B. for C. with D. to
Question 11: A. home B. family C. house D. household
Question 12: A. carry B. deal C. cooperate D. combine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Question 13: It’s nice I am now in Hoi An Ancient Town again. This is the second time I______ there.
A. will be B. would be C. was D. have been
Question 14: Realizing he got lost, he started to ________help.
A. call for B. call at C. go for D. go to
Question 15: He told everyone that he had flu, but in fact, he had just ________a cold.
A. come up with B. come down with C. gone in for D. made up for
Question 16: Never has she behaved like that before, ________?
A. hasn’t she B. has she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 17: If these prisoners attempted to escape from prison, ________ immediately.
A. they would be caught B. they would catch C. they will be caught D. they will have caught
Question 18: You should stop working too hard ________you’ll get sick.
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
Question 19: Although she was ________, she agreed to give me a hand with the clean-up.
A. tiredness B. tired C. tiring D. tiresome
Question 20: Create a new ________ and put all your files into it.
A. directory B. direction C. director D. directing
Question 21: Applicants must hold a(n)- ________ driving licence.
A. artificial B. faithful C. false D. valid
Question 22: As the drug took ________ the patient became unconscious.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
Question 23: You’re very quiet today. What have you got on your ________?
A. spirit B. attention C. mind D. brain
Question 24: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne’s new blouse.
Diana: “That blouse suits you perfectly” Anne: “ “
A. Never mind B. Don’t mention it C. Thank you D. You’re welcome
Question 25: Ballot invites a friend to her new apartment. She is offering him some drink.
Ballot: “More coffee? Anybody? ” Friend: “________”
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid B. I’d love to C. Yes, please D. It’s right, I think
Question 26: I don’t have time to argue with this self - ________ women.
A. controlled B. dominated C. opinionated D. liked
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of
desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is
to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert
pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating
effects. No most skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North
American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed
running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and
ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of
their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and
Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning
hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-
baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 27: The title for this passage could be .
A. “Desert Plants” B. “Life Underground”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
Question 28: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means.
A. the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own
B. collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants
C. very small living things that cause infectious diseases in people, animals and plants
D. the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants
Question 29: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as ____________.
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D. very few large animals are found in the desert.
Question 30: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the followings EXCEPT ___________.
A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat C. most-skinned animals D. many large animals
Question 31: According to the passage, creatures in the desert .
A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 32: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that ____________.
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
C. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees D. they live in an accommodating environment
Question 33: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means .
A. places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young
B. holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in
C. structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept
D. places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found
In 1988, Canadian athlete Ben Johnson set a new world record for the 100 metres sprint and set the Seoul Olympics
alight. Just a few days later, he was stripped of his medal and banned from competing after having failed a drug test,
highlighting what has since become an international problem - drug use in sport.
Those involved in sports face enormous pressure to excel in competition, all the more so as their careers are relatively
short. By the time most sportspeople are in their forties, they are already considered to be past their prime, and as a
result they need to earn their money as quickly as possible. In such a high-pressure environment, success has to come
quickly and increasingly often drugs are playing a prominent role.
There are a number of specific effects that sportspeople are aiming to achieve by taking performance- enhancing drugs.
Caffeine and cocaine are commonly used as stimulants, getting the body ready for the mass expenditure of energy
required. In addition, there are those who are looking to build their body strength and turn to the use of anabolic
steroids. Having worked so hard and needing to unwind, sportspeople may misuse other drugs as a relaxant in that it can
help them cope with stress or boost their own confidence. Alcohol is commonly used for this purpose, but for
sportspeople something more direct is often required, and this has led to an increase in the use of beta-blockers
specifically to steady nerves.
Increasingly accurate drug testing is leading companies and suppliers to ever-more creative ways of avoiding detection,
and there are a range of banned substances that are still taken by sportspeople in order to disguise the use of other, more
potent drugs. Diuretics is a good example of this: in addition to allowing the body to lose excess weight, they are used
to hide other substances.
Drugs or not, the working life of the average sportsperson is hard and often painful. Either through training or on the
field, injuries are common and can lead to the use of narcotics simply to mask the pain. There are examples of champion
motorcyclists taking local anaesthetics to hide the pain of a crash that should have seen them taken straight to hospital,
and though this is not directly banned, use is carefully monitored.
Drug testing has since become an accepted feature of most major sporting events, and as soon as a new drug is detected
and the user is banned from competitive sport, then a new drug is developed which evades detection. Inevitably, this
makes testing for such banned substances even more stringent, and has in recent years highlighted a new and disturbing
problem - the unreliability of drug tests.
Recent allegations of drug use have seen sportspeople in court attempt to overthrow decisions against them, claiming
that they were unaware they had taken anything on the banned list. A test recently carried out saw three non-athletes
given dietary substances that were not on the banned list, and the two who didn’t take exercise tested negative.
However, the third person, who exercised regularly, tested positive. This, of course, has left the testing of sportspeople
in a very difficult position. Careers can be prematurely ended by false allegations of drug abuse, yet by not punishing
those who test positive, the door would be open for anyone who wanted to take drugs.
The issue is becoming increasingly clouded as different schools of opinion are making themselves heared. There are
some that argue that if the substance is not directly dangerous to the user, then it should not be banned, claiming that it
is just another part of training and can be compared to eating the correct diet. Ron Clarke, a supporter of limited drug
use in sport, commented that some drugs should be accepted as ‘they just level the playing field’. He defended his
opinion by pointing out that some competitors have a natural advantage. Athletes born high above sea level or who
work out in high altitudes actually produce more red blood cells, a condition which other athletes can only achieve by
drug taking.
Others claim that drug use shouldn’t be allowed because it contravenes the whole idea of fairly competing in a sporting
event, adding that the drugs available to a wealthy American athlete, for example, would be far superior to those
available to a struggling Nigerian competitor.
Governing bodies of the myriad of sporting worlds are trying to set some standards for competitors, but as drug
companies become more adept at disguising illegal substances, the procedure is an endless race with no winner. In the
face of an overwhelming drug and supplement market, one thing is certain - drugs will probably be a significant factor
for a long time to come.
Question 34: Which drugs are used for the preparation of the mass energy consumption?
A. Caffeine and cocaine B. Alcohol, beta blockers C. Diuretics D. Narcotics
Question 35: What is the phrase “this purpose” in paragraph 3 means?
A. confidence B. sports people C. relaxant D. stress increase
Question 36: these statements are TRUE except for .
A. Making the wrong judgment on potent drug abuse can destroy ones career
B. By tolerating violating cases, there will be fewer people taking on drugs.
C. Some people argue that these drugs are not actually detrimental to users’ health and therefore they should not be
banned.
D. One third of the people participating in the test with dietary substances received positive results.
Question 37: Why are sportspeople under such pressure to succeed quickly?
A. Because their careers are relatively short. B. Because they want to earn a lot of money
C. Because they have other concerns in their lives D. Because their rivals are aggressive
Question 38: What does Ron Clarke claim drugs can balance?
A. drugs B. prize C. field D. advantage
Question 39: The word “contravenes” is closest in meaning to .
A. go against B. take over C. put off D. stand for
Question 40: of drug use have serious side effects on sportspeople even if they are subsequently proved wrong.
A. Decisions B. Comments C. Allegations D. Attitudes
Question 41: The text is mainly about .
A. a running controversy B. allegations of drug use
C. different usages of drug D. how to avoid detection
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 42: To work with your partner on this dialogue, sit in chairs that are face to face or in ones that are adjacent
so that you can communicate easily.
A. next to each other B. away from the door C. far from each other D. behind each other
Question 43: 1 have heard anecdotal evidence that vitamin E helps cut heal faster, but I have never read any research
that supports that.
A. scientific proof B. personal reports C. individual observation D. oral stories
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Question 44: We’ll have to call the barbecue off. It’s going to rain.
A. delay B. cancel C. plan D. compensate for
Question 45: I admire people with a lot of inner strength.
A. full B. mental C. limited D. indisputable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences.
Question 46: I had to do my homework. I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
A. Because I was busy doing my homework, I could not help my mother with the washing-up.
B. It was impossible for me to do my homework although my mother helped me with the washing-up.
C. I could not help my mother with the washing-up until I finished my homework.
D. I could not do my homework because I had to help my mother with the washing-up.
Question 47: We arrived at the cinema. Then we realized our tickets were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our tickets were still at home than we arrived at the cinema.
B. Not until we arrived at the cinema that we realized that our tickets were still at home.
C. Only after we arrived at the cinema did we realize that our tickets were at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the cinema than we realized that our tickets were still at home
Question 48: “You must wear the seat belt when driving!” she said to him.
A. She told him to wear the seat belt when he drove. B. She confirmed that he wore the seat belt when driving.
C. She complained that he wore the seat belt as he drove. D. She encouraged him to wear the seat belt when driving.
Question 49: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
A. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
C. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
Question 50: The gardens are open each day for visitors to enjoy the flower displays.
A. In order to enjoy the flowers each day, visitors open their own displays.
B. There are too many flower displays for visitors to enjoy each day.
C. As long as visitors enjoy the flower displays, the gardens are still open each day.
D. The gardens are open each day so that visitors can enjoy the flower displays.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 297 (Đề thi thử THPT QG Chuyên ĐH Vinh – lần 3)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. preparation B. susceptible C. experiment D. genetically
Question 2: A. hesitate B. excessive C. saturate D. restrict
Question 3: Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top
attractions.
A. Ha Long Bay was recognized twice by the UNESCO, and as a consequence it remains one of the country’s top
attractions.
B. Ha Long Bay, the global heritage which was recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top
attractions.
C. Ha Long Bay, is the global heritage and was recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top
attractions.
D. It is Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top
attractions.
Question 4: “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor.
A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor. B. Nam admired the
novel idea for the farewell party.
C. Nam thought over the novel idea for the farewell party.
D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party.
Question 5: We should have our school’s swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because it is looking dirty.
A. Our school’s swimming pool should be cleaned regularly because of its dirtiness.
B. We should clean our school’s swimming pool at the beginning of the summer because it is looking dirty.
C. We had better get our school swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because of its dirtiness.
D. Due to the impurity of our school swimming pool, we should have someone clean it as soon as possible.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of
the blanks
Women are much healthier when they (6) ______ it easy, reveals a new survey. Those who work long hours are more likely
than men to (7) ______ in unhealthy behavior such as eating snacks, smoking and drinking caffeine. (Long hours have no
such impact on men). One positive benefit of long hours for both sexes, however, is that alcohol (8) ______ is reduced.
The study (9) ______ by the Economic and Social Research Council is part of a wider study by psychologists from the
University of Leeds into the effects of stress on eating. “Stress causes people to (10) ______ for unhealthy high fat and high–
sugar snacks in preference to healthier food choice” says researcher Dr. Daryl of the University of Leeds.
Question 6: A. make B. feel C. take D. get
Question 7: A. indulge B. interest C. develop D. participate
Question 8: A. beverage B. consumption C. expenditure D. sales
Question 9: A. funding B. which funds C. funded D. which funded
Question 10: A. choose B. select C. decide D. opt
Question 11: When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other are immutable and
will never alter.
A. constantly B. alterable C. unchangeable D. everlasting
Question 12: That the genetic differences make one race superior to another is nothing but a tall story.
A. cynical B. unbelievable C. untrue D. exaggeration
Question 13: A. certainly B. marvelous C. counseling D. persuasive
Question 14: A. represent B. systematic C. detrimental D. fulfillment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 15: Golf wear has become a very lucrative business for both the manufacturers and golf stars.
A. unprofitable B. impoverished C. inexpensive D. unfavorable
Question 16: Unless you get your information from a credible website, you should doubt the veracity of the facts until you
have confirmed them else where.
A. inexactness B. falsehoodness C. unaccuracy D. unfairness
of the questions.
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an
international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration.
The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and
natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or
iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been
buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed “ art
glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully chosen color combinations and
innovative techniques.
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile Galle
(1846–1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843–1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing
a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a
brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued
throughout the mid–1920’s.It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had
been present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant–garde group of architects and designers,
Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of the
movement–that function should determine form–was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from should
be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design concept, coupled
with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste
which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast, stark
outline and complex textural surfaces.
Question 17: What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
A. Design elements in the Art Nouveau style B. The popularity of the Art Nouveau style
C. Production techniques for art glass D. Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style
Question 18: The word “one” refers to______.
A. century. B. development. C. style. D. coloration.
Question 19: Para.1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient buried glass______.
A. The distortion of the glass B. The appearance of the glass surface
C. The shapes of the glass objects D. The size of the glass objects
Question 20: The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest in meaning to______.
A. surpassed B. inclined C. expressed D. applied
Question 21: What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form”?
A. A useful object should not be attractive.
B. The purpose of an object should influence its form.
C. The design of an object is considered more significant than its function.
D. The form of an object should not include decorative elements.
Question 22: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was that it______.
A. clearly distinguished between art and design
B. appealed to people who liked complex painted designs
C. reflected a common desire to break from the past
D. was easily interpreted by the general public
Question 23: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?
A. Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.
B. It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.
C. It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War.
D. It was not attractive to architects all designers.
Question 24: According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include ______.
A. a flowered design. B. bright colors. C. modern symbols. D. a textured surface.
Question 25: Ensoleill and Sunny are talking about Ted’s accident last week. Ensoleill: “A motor bike knocked Ted down”.
Sunny: “ ____________”
A. What it is now? B. What a motor bike! C. How terrific! D. Poor Ted !
Question 26: Mary and her friend, Ensoleill, are in a coffee shop. Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice–cream or Caramen
with jam?” Ensoleill: “______________”.
A. I like eating them all. B. Yes, I’d love two.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good.
Question 27: High–level sport people must maintain a high level of fitness ______ run the risk of suffering injuries that
cause permanent damage.
A. or else B. besides C. unless D. on account of
Question 28: Many students prefer ______ assessment as an alternative to exams
A. continuing B. continued C. continual D. continuous
Question 29: British Leyland is aiming to push ______ its share of UK car sale to 25% over the next two years.
A. on B. up C. through D. out
Question 30: The press thought the sale manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just ______.
A. turned it down B. called it off C. spoke it out D. laughed it off
Question 31: Just as you arrived, I ______ ready to go out.
A. have got B. was getting C. would get D. have been getting
Question 32: Your sister has lost an awful lot of weight. She must have been on a diet, ______?
A. mustn’t she B. needn’t she C. haven’t she D. hasn’t she
Question 33: You should accept the Nokia mobile phone as a 16–birthday present from your parents delightedly. Don’t
______.
A. look gift horse in the mouth B. buy it through the nose
C. pull my leg D. take it for granted
Question 34: ______ irritating they are, you shouldn’t lose temper with small children.
A. No matter how much B. As much as C. However D. Although
Question 35: There are ______ that not only governments but also individuals should join hand to tackle.
A. too numerous environmental problems B. such a lot of environmental problems
C. so fewer environmental problems D. such many environmental problems
Question 36: If I weren’t afraid of travelling by air, I ______ to go to American by ship, which took me much longer time.
A. I hadn’t had B. I wouldn’t have had C. I shouldn’t have had D. I wouldn’t have
Question 37: He built up a successful business but it was all done ______ of his health.
A. at the price B. by the expense C. at all cost D. at the expense
Question 38: ______ is over your head is just an exaggeration because you have well prepared for it over the years.
A. This entrance exam B. What this entrance exam
C. That this entrance exam D. It is this entrance exam
Mark the letter A, B , C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 39: It is unclear which agency will be responsible for cleaning the canal if it will become polluted again in the near
future.
A. which agency B. responsible C. if it will become D. polluted
Question 40: Perfume tends to be lost its flavor when it has not been properly sealed.
A. Perfume B. tends to be lost C. when it D. properly sealed
Question 41: Water environment in the world–renowned Ha Long bay has been under tremendous pressure from the socio–
economic activities in the area.
A. Water environment B. has been C. pressure from D. socio–economic activities
of the questions.
According to anthropologists, people in preindustrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20 hours per week doing
the work necessary for life. Modern comparisons of the amount of work performed per week, however, begin with the
Industrial Revolution (1760–1840) when 10– to 12–hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with
extensive time devoted to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end of
the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half–day holiday. The half
holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870's, but did not become common in the United States until the
1920's.
In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per week to just under 50
hours by the start of the 1930' s. In 1914, Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9 to 8. In 1926
he announced that henceforth his factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism
from other firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers.
The Depression years of the 1930's brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work around; the
workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a
weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the 8–hour day, 5–day workweek has been the standard
in the United States. Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for example,
German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5–hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain won a 37–hour
week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6– to a 5–day workweek and has set a national target of 1,800
work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per
worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France.
Question 42: Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century______.
A. remained constant B. decreased slightly
C. decreased significantly D. increased significantly
Question 43: The "idea" mentioned in line 15 refers to______.
A. the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse.
B. the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories.
C. the reduction in the cost of automobiles. D. the 60–hour workweek.
Question 44: Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938?
A. To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek.
B. To discourage workers from asking for increased wages.
C. To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek.
D. To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers.
Question 45: What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United States
during the 1930's?
A. Several people sometimes shared a single job.
B. Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United States.
C. Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.
D. The United States government instituted a 35–hour workweek.
A. Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution.
B. Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week.
C. Changes that have occurred in the number of hours that people work per week.
D. A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries.
Question 47: The word "henceforth" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
A. for a brief period. B. from that time on. C. in the end. D. on occasion.
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence that the length of the workweek has been declining
since the nineteenth century?
A. Henry Ford. B. German metalworkers.
C. The half–day holiday. D. United States Steel and Westinghouse.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I accepted the new job after all. It is making me feel exhausted.
A. Perhaps I shouldn’t have accepted this new job, as it’s making me feel exhausted.
B. Perhaps it would have been better if I hadn’t agreed to this new job since it is so boring.
C. It is of deep regret that I didn’t turn down the job offer due to its hardship and long hour work.
D. If it had not been for my acceptance the new job offer, I wouldn’t have felt exhausted.
Question 50: Since 1970, the United Nations has been celebrating April 22 nd as Earth Day. It attracts millions of people
worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
A. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22 nd as Earth Day because it attracts millions of people worldwide to
join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
B. The UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day, which millions of people worldwide are attracted to join in it to
promote public awareness of environmental protection.
C. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22 nd as Earth Day, which attracts millions of people worldwide to join
in to promote public awareness of environmental protection.
D. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22 nd as Earth Day so that more people join in to promote public
awareness of environmental protection.
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 298- ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 02
Question1: A. follows B. titles C. writers D. snacks
Question2: A. terror B. lecturer C. occur D. factor
Question3: A. secure B. prepare C. equal D. progress
Question4: A. endangered B. relevant C. quantity D. mineral
Question5: John used to working in Leeds, but his company had him transfer to a better position in London.
A. working B. but C. transfer D. better
Question6: All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators driven by steam turbines.
A. All almost B. industrial use C. from D. driven
Question7: This recipe, is an old family secret, is an especially important part of our holiday celebrations.
A. is an B. especially C. part D. celebrations
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question8: Managers claim we are in desperate_________of greater investment in our industries.
A. requirement B. excess C. need D. lack
Question9: I’m not lazy but I think we have _________public holidays. We ought to have more.
A. too little B. too few C. rather a few D. fairly little
Question10: Only after I explained it to him _________the problem.
A. he understood B. he did understood C. did he understand D. did he understood
Question11: There were one or two _________voices, although the majority were in favor of the proposal.
A. acclaiming B. clamoring C. refuting D. dissenting
Question12: It is a sad fact that in our country, along with most other countries in the world, the environment is
still_________
A. under attack B. under danger C. being endangering D. facing extinction
Question13: The company managed to _________its best workers and kept its rival from stealing them.
A. promote B. employ C. retain D. consider
Question14: It was a _________that the driver survived the crash. His car was completely damaged.
A. misted B. miracle C. secret D. strange
Question15: I woke up late for my interview because I _________about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.
A. worried B. had been worrying C. have been worrying D. had worried
Question16: This is _________less satisfactory than the previous offer.
A. fairly B. far C. absolutely D. distant
Question17: I’m afraid my youngest son has never been particularly quick on the _________
A. upshot B. upturn C. upkeep D. uptake
Question18: Many people think that the advantages of living in a city _________the disadvantages
A. outweigh B. outnumber C. outgrow D. outrun
Question19: I will always be _________to my tutor for his help.
A. invaluable B. impoverished C. indebted D. priceless
Question20: Cynthia: "Hi, Victor. Do you think it's possible for us to have a talk sometime today?" Victor: "I'd love to,
but_________"
A. I've got a pretty tight schedule today. B. I'm fine now
C. is tomorrow OK. D. I'm pretty tight schedule today.
Question21: – Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!” – David: “__________________”
A. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so. B. Really? They are.
C. Can you say it again? D. I love them, too.
Question22: I glanced at the article, but I haven't read it yet.
A. stared B. had swift look C. glimpsed D. had furtive look
Question23: Mr, Mora told his son, “Stop fighting with your sister. If you don’t behave, you will have to go to bed
right now.”
A. stop immediately B. slow down C. act incorrectly D. act correctly
Question24: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.
A. have the right to refuse B. are refused the right to
C. are given the right to D. have the obligation to
Question25: She came to the meeting late on purpose so she would miss the introductory speech.
A. aiming at B. intentionally C. reasonably D. with a goal
Question26: David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.
A. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.
B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.
C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.
D. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.
Question27: They don’t let anyone enter the area.
A. Nobody is let to enter the area. B. Nobody is allowed to enter the area
C. Nobody is allowed entering the area. D. The area is not allowed entering.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the
Question28: The local residents have protested against the plan to build a textile factory in their neighborhood.
However, the building work will go ahead.
A. The construction of the textile factory has been stopped by the protests from the local residents.
B. The textile factory will be built as planned despite the local residents' protests.
C. Protests from the local residents have prevented the construction of the textile factory.
D. Due to protests from the locals, the textile factory construction will not go ahead as planned.
Question29: "The blouse is too loose. You'd better ask your tailor to take it in."
A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.
B. You'd better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.
C. The blouse is lost as you didn't ask your tailor to take it in.
D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.
Question30: Jane is too short. She can’t apply for the job.
A. Jane is short of money, so she can’t apply for the job
B. Jane could apply for the job if she were taller.
C. If Jane could apply for the job, she wouldn’t be short.
D. Jane would be taller if she could apply for the job
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35
A recent (31)_______ of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the field of second
language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those considering a language course. One suggestion is that
you access whether you are likely to be successful (32)_______ learning a language. Did you enjoy studying language
at school, for example? Do you have enough time to learn a language ? The major cost will be your own time and effort.
Therefore, you must make sure that course on offer leads to a recognized qualification. Also, be realistic in your
(33)_______. If you don’t set achievable aims, you are more likely to give up. Don’t be deceived into thinking that the
most expensive courses are the best. Shop around to get the best possible value for money. You should also bear in your
mind that the quicker you learn a language, the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to
teach herself German by enrolling on a crash course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound knowledge of
teaching methodology her chances of (34)_______ progress were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She
feels her biggest mistake was not to follow up her first experience. "I think the teacher’s role is important. It's so nice to
have somebody give you a/an (35)_______”.
Question31: A. volume B. issue C. printing D. version
Question32: A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question33: A. sights B. object C. recognized D. goals
Question34: A. making B. achieving C. gaining D. doing
Question35: A. hand B. encouragement C. help D. aid
each for the question.
Tides are the periodic rise and fall of the Earth’s waters that are caused by the Moon’s and Sun’s forces of gravity
acting on the Earth .It is important to distinguish natural tidal phenomena from huge tsunamis , with the latter being
caused by earthquakes and undersea volcanic eruptions.
The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides. At the location on the Earth closest to the Moon, it exerts a
powerful gravitational pull on the water. The resulting rise in the water produces higher tides. The water on the side of
the Earth farthest away from the Moon also gets pulled by this lunar gravity, but not as strongly. The Earth itself has its
own gravitational force that is constantly pulling waters downward, which is why the oceans do not simply bulge out
toward the Moon. Ordinary tides usually feature high and low waters alternating in relation to the Earth’s rotation. Most
shores around the world have high waters and two low waters for each day, which last about 24 hours and 50 minutes.
The difference in height between the high water and low water is called the range of tide, and it can be quite dramatic in
narrower bays .Canada’s bays of Fundy , for example , commonly experiences the world’s most extreme tidal ranges ,
with daily differences of the 16 meters.
Two other types of tides are influenced by the Sun, which is much farther away from the Earth and exerts less
than half of the Moon’s gravitational force. When the Sun, the Moon and the Earth are directly in line, the solar and
lunar gravitational forces add up to produce higher spring tides. The range of spring tides is intensified, with higher
water marks and lower low water marks. However, when the Moon is in the first or third quarter, it is at a 90–degree
angle with the Sun in relation to the Earth .The opposing solar and lunar forces partially cancel each other out, and the
result is a lower tide. This is called a neap tide, which comes twice a month and has lower high water marks and higher
low water marks. The range of neap tides is minimum.
Some tides do not occur over water at all. The solid body of the Earth has slight elasticity, so lunar and solar
gravity cause it to stretch very subtly. These changes in the Earth’s shape, although imperceptible to humans, are
known as Earth tides. Another tidal phenomenon, atmospheric tides, is caused by the Sun’s heating of the Earth’s
atmosphere. Like ordinary tides, they usually occur over 12–hour periods.
Question36: Why does the author mention tsunamis in the passage?
A. To explain that not all tides are caused by gravity.
B. To give an example of an extreme tidal phenomenon.
C. To show that they are not related to natural tides.
D. To suggest that more categories for tides area needed.
Question37: The word exerts in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. mixes with B. bring into use C. infers from D. connects with
Question38: What can be inferred about Canada’s Bay of Fundy ?
A. It may experience tsunamis because of its extreme tides.
B. It may have a longer tide cycle because of its wide variations.
C. It may be very narrow because it has wide tidal variations.
D. It may be influenced more by gravity than other places.
Question39: The word imperceptible in the last paragraph could best be replace by
A. not noticeable B. difficult to explain C. not generally D. not able to be said
Question40: What is true about the Moon’s gravitational force?
A. It pulls water on the far side of the Earth more strongly.
B. It is more than twice as powerful as that of the Sun.
C. It has reduced gravity when it is lined up with the Sun and the Earth.
D. Its force is strongest when it is located at 90 degrees to the Earth.
Question41: Besides ordinary tides, how many other types of tide are mentioned in the passage ?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
Question42: Which of the following does not relate to Ordinary Tides ?
A. Receiving greatest influence from the Moon
B. Influenced by the Sun’s position relative to the Moon.
C. Taking turns the higher and lower water relating to the Earth’s rotation
D. Having the striking range of tide in narrower bays
Charles Lindbergh was born in Detroit, Michigan, in 1902 but was raised on a farm in Minnesota, where his
father was elected to the U.S. Congress in 1907. From then on, he spent his boyhood alternately in Washington, D.C.
Detroit, and Little Falls, Minnesota. Because Lindbergh exhibited exceptional mechanical talent, in 1921 he was
admitted to the University of Wisconsing to study engineering. However, the young man was seeking more challenging
endeavors, and two years later he became a stunt pilot who performed feats at county fairs and public assemblies. This
unusual and dangerous undertaking paid off handsomely in the sense that it allowed him to gain a diverse and well–
rounded experience in aeronautics. He particularly delighted in what he called “wing–walking” and parachute jumping.
After a year of training as a military cadet, Lindbergh completed his program at the Brooks and Kelly airfields at
the top of his class and earned the rank of captain. Robertson Aircraft Corporation of St. Louis, Missouri, offered him
employment as a mail pilot to run the routes between St. Louis and Chicago, and Lindbergh retained his position with
the company until 1927. During this period, he set out to win the Raymond B. Orteig prize of $25,000 to be awarded to
the first pilot to fly nonstop from New York to Paris. This ambition would irreversibly change his life and accord him a
prominent place in the history of aviation.
Embarking on the greatest adventure of his time, Lindbergh left Roosevelt Field at 7:52 A.M. on May 20, 1927,
and landed at Le Bourget Field at 5:24 P.M. the next day. Fearing that he would be unknown when he arrived,
Lindbergh carried letters of introduction to dignitaries in Paris, but when his plane came to a stop, he was overwhelmed
by tremendous welcoming crowds. He was decorated in France, Great Britain, and Belgium, and President Coolidge
sent a specially designated cruiser, the Memphis, to bring him back, His accomplishments in aeronautics brought him
more medals and awards than had ever been received by any other person in private life.
Question43: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A Benchmark Adventure in Aeronautics B. The Early Life of Charles Lindbergh
C. Groundbreaking Events in Aviation D. Charles Lindbergh’s Explorations
Question44: According to the passage, Lindbergh did not complete his degree because he
A. opted for the life of an exhibition pilot B. pursued training in the military
C. was seeking a sedentary life–style D. set out to win recognition
Question45: The word “handsomely” is closest in meaning to
A. honorably B. handily C. well D. in time
Question46: The word “undertaking ” refers to…
A. studying at the university B. exhibiting mechanical talents
C. seeking challenging endeavors D. performing feats
Question47: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh’s job with Robertson Aircraft Corporation.
A. required regular intercity flights B. was not intended as long–term employment
C. required him to perform dangerous flights D. necessitated his running long distances
Question48: According to the passage, how old was Lindbergh when he carried out his challenging flight?
A. Twenty–one B. Twenty–three C. Twenty–four D. Twenty–five
Question49: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh did not anticipate becoming a
A. pilot B. celebrity C. mail carrier D. army captain
Question50: A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss
A. the development of commercial and military aviation
B. the reaction of the government to Lindbergh’s flight
C. the effect of instant celebrity on Lindbergh
D. Lindbergh’s aircraft and engine modifications

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