Академический Документы
Профессиональный Документы
Культура Документы
A.Y. 2017-2018
1ST LONG EXAM
H1, Ach R
on vascular
smooth muscle
& platelets
23. A 3 year old girl has very itchy skin lesions which Answer: A
awakens her at night. The most effective Hydroxyzine - 1st gen H1-blocker, more sedation
antihistamine for the relief of itchiness is: Cetirizine - new gen, metabolite of hydroxyzine, less
A. Hydroxyzine sedation
B. Levocetirizine Levocetirizine - new gen, enantiomer of cetirizine, less
C. Cetirizine sedation
D. Loratadine Loratadine - less or non-sedating
37. TRUE
In the presence of a fixed concentration of agonist,
increasing concentrations of a reversible competitive
antagonist progressively inhibit the agonist response.
38. TRUE
Inverse agonist reduces receptor activity below basal
levels in the absence of bound ligand.
47. Demonstrates the effect of a drug as a function of Quantal-dose response: ED50, TD50 and LD50
its concentration
54. C
Increasing the rate of infusion will not increase or
decrease the t1/2. The two primary PK parameters that
are functions of half-life are (Vd) and (Cl).
55. A
Increase pKa = more basic
Weak base in an acidic medium → more ionized
form → Readily excreted/Increased clearance
59. B
Spare receptors are said to exist if the maximal drug
response is obtained at less than 100% occupation of
the receptors. The determination is usually made by
comparing the EC50 with the Kd. If the EC50 is less than
the Kd, spare receptors are said to exist.
B, C * clearance
Indomethacin - non-selective
Paracetamol - analgesic without anti-inflammatory
effect
Aspirin - oldest NSAID, AE: GI upset, bleeding
32. If one will be asked to explain the rationale for the Answer: D
medical therapy for a 67-year-old woman diagnosed with
Alzheimer’s dementia, administration of donepezil, Don Riva Gala has Alzheimer’s
rivastigmine, and galantamine is used to increase which of Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine
the following neurotransmitters?
A. Dopamine -acetylcholinesterase inhibitor so ↑Ach
B. Norepinephrine
C. Glutamate
D. Acetylcholine
B - typical
C - atypical readily dissociating
D - atypical partial D2 agonist
49. Which of the following when given in high doses can Answer: C
cause dry mouth, mydriasis, tachycardia, hot and flushed
skin and agitation? All mentioned are sympathetic effects so look for a
A. Neostigmine sympathetic / anticholinergic / adrenergic drug.
B. Nicotine
C. Atropine Neostigmine - Cholinergic (Acetylcholinesterase
D. Pralidoxime inhibitor)
Nicotine - Cholinergic
Atropine - Anticholinergic / Antimuscarinic
Pralidoxime - Cholinergic / Acetylcholinesterase
regenerator (Antidote for Atropine)
P.H., a 70 year old patient with BPH, has runny nose and Answer: B
was prescribed a decongestant with sympathomimetic
activity: Phenylephrine - Alpha 1 agonist = vasoconstricts
vessels to prevent runny nose
53. Which of the ff sympathomimetic drugs has
decongestant properties?
A. Amphetamines
B. Phenylephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Metamphetamine
54. After three doses of the drug (#53), the patient Answer: B
experienced difficulty of urination which could be due to:
A. Contraction of the trigone of the urinary bladder Urinary retention = Sympathetic
B. Contraction of the urinary bladder sphincter - Relax bladder wall (B2)
C. Relaxation of the urinary bladder sphincter - Contract sphincter (a1)
62. The main adverse effect of the answer to #60 is: Answer: C
A. Sedation
B. Acidosis ADRs of Colchicine - GI disturbance/bloody diarrhea
C. Diarrhea (most common), aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia,
D. Agranulocytosis agranulocytosis, paresthesia, vasomotor collapse
63. This agent is effective when given IV for seizure control Answer: B
but NOT when given orally:
A. Tiagabine Diazepam - anxiolytic/sedative-hypnotic
B. Diazepam - Potentiates GABA
C. Lamotrigine - Tendency to develop tolerance (also with
D. Topiramate Nitrates)
77. Allopurinol
78. Probenecid
79. Colchicine
83. Carbamazepine
84. Phenytoin
85. Phenobarbital
86. Vigabatrin
Note: Diuretic efficacy of CAIs only last for 2-3 days but
the acidosis persists as long as you are taking the drug.
Others:
Loop diuretics - hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
Thiazides - hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
Potassium-sparing diuretics - hyperchloremic
metabolic acidosis
Additional:
Thiazide with carbonic anhydrase inhibitor property -
Chlorthalidone
Other choices:
*Blockade of reuptake of NE in the PNS - can be
Cocaine. If blockade of vesicular storage - Reserpine.
*Choice D - should be enhancement of presynaptic
alpha 2 receptors (post-synaptic alpha-1 blockade is the
mechanism of alpha blockers such as Prazocin)
WATER the
pLANT (except
P!!! Hehe)
A. Heart failure
B. Mild renal impairment due to CKD
C. Hypokalemia
D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Other choices:
*choice A - nitrates will decrease systolic wall stress due
to its systemic vasodilatory property
*choice B - no direct effect in the contractility of the
heart. Its actions are mainly in smooth muscles. But
indirectly, it can cause tachycardia as compensatory
mechanism.
*choice D - coronary vasodilation but its systemic
vasodilation effect is still more prominent
33. A
Furosemide can cause hyperuricemia due to
hypovolemia-induced enhancement of uric acid
absorption in the proximal tubule
A. Verapamil 42. A
B. Diltiazem Verapamil is useful for AF.
C. Nifedipine
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
45. D
Abciximab is a GIIb/IIIa inhibitor (receptor for platelet
aggregation). Used primarily in PCI and ACS.
Indications:
*For Non-Q MI - Eptifibatide, Tirofiban
*Unstable angina - Eptifibatide, Tirofiban
*Unstable angina/non-Q wave MI patients undergoing
PCI - Abciximab, Eptifibatide
A. Decrease in CO
Decreased CO Decreased TPR
B. Decrease in TPR
C. Both Diuretics Diuretics
D. Neither Beta blockers Alpha blockers
Adrenergic blockers
CCB
ACEI
ARBs
Remember: BP = CO x TPR
CO - influenced by preload and contractility
TPR - influenced by functional constriction and/or
structural hypertrophy
55. A
Prednisone 4 0.8 I 5
Prednisolone 4 0.8 I 5
Methylprednisol 5 0.5 I 4
one
Triamcinolone 5 0 I 4
Betamethasone 25 0 L 0.75
Dexamethason 25 0 L 0.75
e
Fludrocortisone 10 125 S -
Absolute contraindications
● Previous hemorrhagic stroke
● Other stroke or CVA within 1 year
● Active internal bleeding (menses excluded)
● Suspected aortic dissection
Additional:
Buzz word for warfarin: valvular A-fib!
Buzz word for dabigatran: nonvalvular A-fib!
#MustKnowConcept
Side effects of amiodarone:
● GI: NV, anorexia, esophageal reflux, ↑LFTs
● Pulmo: chronic interstitial fibrosis, acute ARDS
● Thyroid: reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to T3,
hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism
● Cutaneous: blue gray discoloration of sun exposed skin,
photosensitivity
● Neurologic: ataxia, tremor, sleep disturbances,
peripheral neuropathy
● Ocular: corneal microdeposits, visual disturbances
Remember DIGOC-N
D - digoxin level ≥ 2 ng/mL is toxic
I - inhibits Na-K-ATPase
G - GI signs (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia)
O - output, intake and weight should be monitored
C - CNS signs (disorientation, hallucination, visual disturbances,
color aberrations)
N - narrow therapeutic index
Remember!
HyPOkalemia facilitates digoxin toxicity
HyPERkalemia reduces digoxin toxicity
51. A 4 y/o has persistent mild asthma and mild allergic Answer: D
rhinitis. Which of the following drugs can be given singly
for the control of both conditions? Montelukast:
A. non-sedating H1 blocker -Leukotriene Antagonist
B. ICS by oral inhalat -inhibits binding of LTD4 to cys-LT1 receptors
C. Nasal steroid -Indications: Alternative controller medications for mild
D. Montelukast asthma and allergic rhinitis
58. This fixed dose formulation can be given once daily Answer: A
to patients with COPD or emphysema for sustained
bronchodilation: Salbutamol + ipratropium bromide: relief of asthma
A. Salbutamol + ipratropium attacks and COPD; sustained bronchodilation
B. Motelukast + levocetirizine
C. Formoterol + budesonide LABA + ICS: for asthma control
D. Tiotropium + indacaterol
ICS prevents downregulation of beta-2 agonist receptor
59 - 62 59-62
A. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand Drugs that DECREASE CO:
B. Increased myocardial oxygen supply Diuretics
C. Both A and B Beta blockers
D. Decreased infarct size
DRUGS THAT DECREASE TPR:
Diuretics
Alpha-blockers
Adrenergic blockers
Ca channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin-II receptor blockers
CCBs:
DHP: high vascular selectivity more on peripheral and
coronary vasodilation
59. Beta blocker Non-DHP: greater inhibitory effect on myocardial cells
Answer: A
66 - 69 CCBs:
A. Acts on imidazoline receptors Dihydropyridines (-dipines): blocks DHP receptors,
B. Decreases cardiac output by decreasing heart peripheral and coronary vasodilation; AE: headache and
rate ankle edema
C. Direct arterial dilation Non-dihydropyridine: therapeutic activity resemble those
D. Blocks dihydropyridine receptors of beta-blockers; AE: LV depression and bradycardia
Answer: D
80. A 59 year old female with new onset palpitation and Answer: A
a 24 hour Holter monitoring with frequent premature
ventricular contractions
82-84 Answer: D
A. Furosemide
B. Eplerenone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Acetazolamide
82. 28 year old male, mountain climber, was given
unrecalled diuretic developed paresthesia and loss of
appetite
84. 20 year old male on this diuretic for almost 2 weeks Answer: A
developed vertigo and hearing problems
85 - 88 Beta-blockers:
A. Labetalol Non-cardioselective: Propano,Carteo,Nado,Sota,Timo
B. Prazosin Cardioselective: Acebuto, Ateno, Betaxo, Bisopro,
C. Esmolol Metopro, Esmo
D. Carteolol Vasodilatory, non-selective: Labeta, Pindo, Carvedi
Vasodilatory, selective: Celipro, Nebivo
93-95
A. If item #1 is greater than item #2
B. If item #2 is greater than item #1
C. If item #1 is equal to item #2
93. INC serum potassium Answer: C
1. Triamterene K sparing diuretics:
2. Amiloride 1. Block Na channels: Amiloride and Triamterene
2. MR antagonist: Spironolactone and Eplerenone
Answer: D
3. If the patient has liver failure, which should be
avoided? All aminoglycosides are excreted renally
a. Amikacin ALL penicillins are excreted renally except ampicillin and
b. Cefuroxime oxacillin (rb) nafcillin (hb) ANO
c. Ampicillin ALL cephs are excreted renally except cefixime (rb),
d. Chloramphenicol cefoperazone ceftriaxone (rb)
A. Tetracycline
B. Macrolides
C. Aminoglycosides
D. lincosamide
Isoniazid resistance
inhA: low level resistance (cross resistance with
ethionamide)
katG: high level resistance (can still use
ethionamide)
ahpC: protects from free radicals; encodes
something that sequesters free radicals
kasA:
Rifampicin resistance
rpoB: reduces affinity for drug
Pyrazinamide resistance
Impaired uptake of the drug
pncA: impair conversion of pyrazinamide to its
active form
Ethambutol
emB: encodes arabinosyl transferase
Streptomycin
rpsL: mutation in s12 protein
Rrs: alters binding site in 16s rRNA (ribosomal
binding site)
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampicin
D. streptomycin
Answer: B
22. A 55 year old male newly diagnosed smear (+) TB
was started on medication. After 3 weeks, he ZE: associated with hyperuricemia. GOUT FLARE!
consulted at UST OPD with severe pain in the big toe. It is metabolized by xanthine oxidase. The one that
Blood tests show very high uric acid level. Which of makes uric acid.. Related to that pathway.. Xanthine
the following drugs most likely caused his symptoms? oxidase is inhibited by allopurinol.
A. Streptomycin
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampicin
B: rifampicin
C: Ethambutol
D. FQ
26. A 70 y/o patient in the ICU with sepsis has growth Answer: D
of Enterobacter sp. In the blood culture. Which of the
following antibiotics has good activity against the said Enterobacter drugs: 4-AC
organism? 1. 4th gen cephalosporins
2. Aztreonam
A. Ceftazidime 3. Carbapenems
B. Vancomycin
C. Ampicillin-sulbactam A: 3rd gen ceph
D. Ciprofloxacin B: only covers gram positive aerobes and anaerobes (only
c. difficile)
C. wala among pens active
D. FQ
Inducers: SCRAP GP
Sulfonylureas
Carbamazepine
Rifampin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbital
A. Aztreonam
B. Vancomycin
C. Meropenem
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
40. Although PPIs have a very short half life, their acid Answer: D
suppression effect lasts for 24 hours because of this
reason:
44. Ondansetron
45. Scopolamine
46. Metoclopramide
11. A 55-year old man, who was about to leave for ac Answer: C
vacation trip to Central Africa started a treatment with
mefloquine. Which of the following plasmodial cells can Mefloquine is only active for blood schizonts
be effectively killed by the drug? (erythrocytic stages) of all 4 species of malaria with no
A. P. vivax hypnozoites activity against hypnozoites and gametocytes
B. P. malariae tissue schizonts
C. P. malariae blood schizonts
D. P. falciparum gametocytes
20. A 28 y/o HIV (+) patient who is being treated with Answer: A
multiple drugs, develops breast hypertrophy, central
adiposity, and insulin resistance. If these changes are NRTIs can produce a potentially fatal syndrome of lactic
related to his drug treatment, this drug belongs to which acidosis, severe hepatomegaly with hepatic necrosis
group of antiretroviral drugs?
A. NRTIs *Not entirely sure why NRTIs ang sagot
B. NNRTIs
C. Entry Inhibitors
D. Protease Inhibitors
21. A 35 y/o HIV (+) male patient presents with anorexia, Answer: C
nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain and epigastric
tenderness suggestive of acute pancreatitis. Which of Didanosine is associated with dose dependent
the following antiretroviral drugs has the the patient pancreatitis (especially when given with Stavudine,
most likely been taking? Zalcitabine, Ribavirin and Hydroxyurea - avoid)
A. Saquinavir
B. Emtricitabine Efavirenz - neural tube defects and CNS toxicity
C. Didanosine Saquinavir (and Ritonavir) - prolongation of QT interval
D. Efavirenz Emtricitabine - hyperpigmentation; *with propylene
glycol - avoid in young children and women)
33. The most appropriate drug to give for this patient‟s Answer: C
Clostridium difficile colitis is:
A. Daptomycin Metronidazole - DOC for Clostridium difficile colitis
B. Linezolid Vancomycin can also be given but must be given orally
C. Metronidazole
D. Co-trimoxazole Daptomycin - VRSA and enterococci; MRSA (cannot be
given for pneumonia b/c of inactivation by lung
surfactants)
36. T.L., 20 y/o with leukemia and on her 3rd cycle of Answer: C
chemotherapy is suspected of having febrile
neutropenia. The most appropriate monotherapy for her
is:
A. Aztreonam
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Meropenem
D. Vancomycin
51. One of the following drugs crosses the blood brain Answer: D
barrier thus causing CNS manifestations:
A. Rabeprazole GIT drugs that cross BBB:
B. Domperidone Diphenoxylate (anti-diarrheal: opioid agonist)
C. Colloidal bismuth Metoclopramide (prokinetic: dopamine receptor
D. Diphenoxylate antagonist)
Second-line therapy
Proton Pump Inhibitors
Bismuth subsalicylate
Tetracycline
Metronidazole
6 to 8 hours
Stimulant laxatives
1 to 3 days
Bulk-forming laxatives
Surfactant laxatives
Lactulose
65. The reason for no. 64 is the higher level of the Answer: B
following patients with severe malaria:
A. Plasma albumins
B. Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein
C. Presence of active metabolite
D. Slow hepatobiliary elimination
66. This drug‟s plasma half-life varies with the urinary Answer: D
pH being longer in alkaline urine:
A. Ivermectin
B. Albendazole
C. Praziquantel
D. Diethylcarbamazine
70. mebendazole
71. Pyrantel pamoate
72. Ivermectin
73. praziquantel
81. macrolides
82. cephalexin
83. chloramphenicol
84. ceftriaxone
94. A
Chloramphenicol - Dose-related anemia, Gray baby
syndrome, Aplastic anemia
95. C
Linezolid - thrombocytopenia, optic and peripheral
neuropathy, lactic acidosis, serotonin syndrome
TOXICITY BEAR
Duration of LONGER so
action and Half- LESS
life FREQUENCY
OF ADMIN
“MSC 5H”
27. To lessen her labor pains, you gave single IV dose Answer: C
of meperidine. Which of the following effects on the
neonate is expected?
A. Seizures
B. Hypotension
C. Respiratory depression
D. Beat-to-beat variability
“HATTS”
G2-M Phase:
Vincas
Taxanes
Bleomycin
Match the antineoplastic with its MOA: IRInotecan causes DIARRHEA (Iri ka ng iri kasi may
A. Topoisomerase II inhibitor diarrhea ka)
B. Bifunctional alkylator Topotecan causes Myelosuppression
C. Topoisomerase I inhibitor
D. Microtubulin inhibitor
43. Topotecan
DLT: Myelosuppression
Procarbazine Dacarbazine
Oral (PrOcarbazine) IV
“Nahihilo in DACAR”
Match the most appropriate antineoplastic agent for CAMeL = Cytarabine for AML
the following sets of patients:
A. Tamoxifen
B. Cytarabine
C. 5-FU
D. Rituximab
48. 62 year old female with breast mass, L s/p radical Answer: A
mastectomy with LN dissection
Histopathology: ductal adenocarcinoma of the breast, *Remember: Rituximab is for Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
ER positive, PR positive
Match the patient with the most likely anti- Raloxifene is an SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR
osteoplastic drug that he/she is taking: MODULATOR (SERM)
A. Teriparatide - AGONIST in Bone
B. Alendronate - ANTAGONIST in breast and uterus
C. Zoledronic acid
D. Raloxifene Effect on estrogen causes hypercoagulable state
*Also note other estrogenic/anti-estrogenic drugs that
49. A 52 year old female with postmenopausal cause this: DES, Tamoxifen
osteoporosis complained of calf tenderness and
venous duplex scan showed blood clot.
Match the following mechanism of action with the Thioamides block Tyrosine Peroxidase (TPO) which
antithyroid agent: block:
A. PTU - Oxidation
B. Saturated solution of KI - Organification/Iodination
C. Lithium - Coupling/Conjugation
D. Isothiocyanate
56-60: Answer: B
A 48 year old woman experiencing hot flushes was Raloxifene may aggravate the patient‟s symptoms of
noted to have low bone mineral density on DEXA hot flushes.
scan. Her mother suffered hip fracture at the age of
55. She is afraid of suffering the same fate as her Bisphosphonates are indicated to TREAT and
mom. What drug is the most appropriate to give? PREVENT postmenopausal osteoporosis (note that she
Make a prescription good for 2 months is 48 y/o). Consider also that Teriparatide is given
second-line to Bisphosphonates. Kung papipiliin ka
A. Raloxifene without any restrictions (such as S/E, contraindications),
B. Alendronate Bisphosphonates would be a safe choice.
C. Teriparatide
(TESTMANSHIP: Doon sa exam, clue na hindi simple
arithmetic ang computation ng Teriparatide)
Answer: B
8. Which of these antibiotics, if given to her, can
cause eight nerve toxicity? Vancomycin – limited studies but not mentioned in
A. Vancomycin handout (may cause ototoxicity)
B. Gentamicin Gentamicin – aminoglycoside – eight nerve toxicity
C. Erythromycin (vestibulo and ototoxicity)
D. Co-trimoxazole Erythromycin – safe in pregnancy
Co-trimoxazole – Sulfamethoxazole – part of
sulfonamides class which may cause neonatal
jaundice/hemolytic anemia; Trimethoprim – fetal
abnormality (1st tri), safe (2nd and 3rd tri)
At 38th week of gestation, a 30 year old woman gave birth to a healthy term baby boy with BW=2.7kg.
Three days later, the infant developed signs and symptoms of sepsis. Empiric antibiotic therapy was
started.
Answer: B
10. The reason for the above dose adjustment is:
A. Deficient drug metabolyzing enzyme Ampicillin/Penicillins are cleared through tubular
activity secretion in the kidneys. Neonates have diminished
B. Diminished renal fx renal function (low RBF, GFR and tubular function).
C. Immaturity of the neonatal liver Specifically, tubular function is immature at birth
D. Expanded ECF volume and adult value is achieved by 1 year old.
MUSCLE
Increase protein synthesis (AA transport &
ribosomal protein synthesis)
Increase glycogen synthesis (glucose transport)
Induces glycogen synthase
Inhibits glycogen phosphorylase
ADIPOSE TISSUE
Increase TG storage
Increase TG synthesis
Increase glycerol synthesis
Stimulate lipoprotein lipase (LIPOGENESIS)
Inhibits intracellular lipase (LIPOLYSIS)
Answer: D
22. This uncommon AE of metformin is seen in
patients with renal insufficiency who received Biguanides are contraindicated in patients with
iodinated contrast agent for imaging procedure: renal disease, alcoholism, hepatic disease, or
A. Osmotic diarrhea conditions predisposing to tissue anoxia (eg,
B. Nausea and vomit chronic cardiopulmonary dysfunction) because of
C. Severe B12 deficiency the increased risk of lactic acidosis induced by
D. Lactic acidosis these drugs (Katzung).
Answer: A
28. A 60 year old diabetic female on gliclazide
complained of hypoglycemic episodes in between her Gliclazide – sulfonylurea
meals. You decided to shift her to Sitagliptin because Sitagliptin – DPP4 inh (inc glucose-mediated
of this pharmacodynamics action of the drug. insulin secretion – no glucose, no insulin release, no
A. Glucose dependent stimulation of insulin fasting hypoglycemia)
secretion
B. Decreases threshold for glucose excretion
through the kidneys
C. Stimulates appetite center in the
hypothalamus
D. Inhibits glucagon secretion by the A cells
of pancreas
Answer: C
38. This cyclic 9 amino acid peptide synthesized in
the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus, Verbatim in handout
when synthesized in low doses, produces slow
generalized uterine contractions with full relaxation
in between:
A. PGE1
B. Ergonovine
C. Oxytocin
D. Bromocriptine
Answer: C
42. This anti estrogen inhibits aromaization of
androgen to estradiol: A. GnRH inhibitor
A. Leuprolide B. SERM
B. Tamoxifen C. Aromatase inhibitor
C. Anastrazole D. Synthetic progestin
D. Medroxy progesterone
Answer: D
52. An unconscious patient who comes in having
ingested 40 tablets of a benzodiazepine should be Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine
given toxicity. Desferoxamine is for iron poisoning ,
A. Desferoxamine EDTA for lead, Penicillamine is for copper
B. Penicillamine poisoning as it is usually used in the treatment of
C. EDTA Wilson’s Disease
D. Flumazenil
54. The most consistent risk factor for adverse drug Answer: D
reactions in the elderly is the
A. Dose of drug taken Doctor Quison specifically emphasized that the
B. Protein binding of drugs number of drugs taken is the most consistent risk
C. Type of drug taken factor for adverse drug reactions that is why it is
D. Number of drugs taken imperative that polypharmacy should be avoided.
56. A 45 year old male with low sperm count can be Answer: C
given this drug to stimulate spermatogenesis:
A. Dutasteride Menotropin is used to stimulate spermatogenesis in
B. Clomiphene males with isolated gonadotropin deficiency.
C. Menotropin
D. GnRH analog
59-62. Match the drug responsible for the following case scenarios of adverse drug reaction:
A. Acarbose
B. Pioglitazone
C. Liraglutide
D. Glibenclamide
59. A 70 year old diabetic female with dilated Answer: B (keyword: dilated cardiomyopathy)
cardiomyopathy developed pulmonary congestion
61. A 55 year old male complained of abdominal Answer: A (keyword: abdominal bloating and
bloating and flatulence flatulence)
71-75. Match the DOSE LIMITING TOXICITY with the corresponding antineoplastic drug
A. Myelosuppression
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Neurotoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity
TRUE OR FALSE
Write A if the statement is correct and B if the statement is incorrect
Answer: B
102. The toxic metabolite, NAPQUI is produced in
the kidneys NAPQI is produced in the liver. NSAID toxicity is
attributed to the Cytochrome p450 system,
remember Patho
103-106. The following are physiologic changes in the elderly (>70 years old) that may alter their drug
handling:
Answer: B
106. Capacity of liver to metabolize all drugs decline
with age NOT ALL DRUGS, SOME drugs lang, and for the
aforementioned some drugs, refer page 3 of your
Geria handout.
107-110. Reasons for the high incidence of adverse drug reactions in elderly patients: