The 25th Annual Biosciences Quiz Bee 

October 13, 2018 | UP NISMED Auditorium 

UP Molecular Biology and Biotechnology Society 

REVIEWER AND 
CONTEST GUIDE 
The  Biosciences  Quiz Bee is an annual science competition for high school students held by the UP MBBS in 
line  with  furthering  the  organization’s  mission  of  advancing  science and technology in the country, especially 
among  the  youth.  The  competition  tests  students’  theoretical  and  practical  abilities  in  six  fields  of  science: 
molecular biology and biotechnology, biology, chemistry, physics, mathematics, and earth science. 

Competition Structure 
The  Biosciences  Quiz  Bee  is  open  to  high  school  students  from Grades 9 to 12. Students must join in teams 
of  three,  and  each  school  may  send  up  to  two  teams.  The  competition  has  three  rounds:  eliminations, 
semi-finals, and finals. (A full copy of the mechanics can be found here: ​tinyurl.com/25thBiosciMechanics​). 

Elimination Round 

The elimination round is a multiple-choice written exam to be taken individually by all participants. Students 
will have 90 minutes to take the 90-question exam (15 questions per subject area). The top 24 teams will 
move on to the semi-final round. 

Semi-final Round  

The  semi-final round is a move-type exam to be taken by team. There will be 10 stations (two per subject area 
excluding  mathematics),  with  five  minutes  to  accomplish  all  the  tasks  in  each  station.  Expect  both  problem 
solving  and  practical  laboratory tasks under time pressure that will require teammates to collaborate and work 
simultaneously  in  order  to  finish  everything  in  time.  The  top  12  teams  will  proceed  to  the  final  round; 
additionally, the top 3 teams will receive bonuses for the final round. 

Final Round  

The  final  round  is  a  classic  quiz  bee  with  three  rounds:  easy,  average,  and  difficult,  to  be  answered  by team. 
Each  round  has  10  questions  covering  all  six  subject  areas,  except  for  the  difficult  round,  which  consists 
entirely of MBB questions. Questions may be multiple-choice, identification, or problem-solving. 
 Included Topics 
Molecular biology Cell structure and function, microbiology, central dogma, cancer, biotechnology, 
and biotechnology important techniques (e.g. DNA extraction, PCR, AGE, sequencing) 

Biology  Genetics, taxonomy, animal anatomy and physiology, plant anatomy  

and physiology, ecology, evolution, respiration and photosynthesis 

Chemistry Atomic theory, chemical nomenclature, reaction stoichiometry, solubility, gases,  

molecular geometry, electrochemistry, kinetics and equilibria, nuclear chemistry,  
organic chemistry, thermochemistry 

Physics kinematics, free-body diagrams and dynamics, fluid mechanics, wave mechanics,   
gravity, electromagnetism, circuits, optics 

Mathematics algebra, functions, probabilities and combinatorics, inequalities, exponents and  

logarithms, geometry, trigonometry, conics, series and sequences, differentiation,  
integration 

Earth Science rocks, minerals, the Earth (land, water, atmosphere), plate tectonics, earthquakes  
and volcanoes, astronomy, paleontology and historical geology 

Sample Questions 
Here  are  sample  questions,  many  taken  from  last  year's  edition,  to  give  you  a  feel  for  what  the  competition 
will entail. Questions akin to these may appear in the elimination, semi-final, or final rounds. 

1. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is ​directly​ involved in which process or event? 
a. Glycolysis  c. Citric acid cycle 
b. Pyruvate oxidation  d. Electron transport chain 
2. Carotenoids are described by the following ​except​:  
a. A pigment found in the chloroplast  c. Absorb excess light energy 
b. Absorb violet and blue-green light  d. None of the above 

3. Refer to the pedigree below. In a hypothetical mating between individuals III-2 and III-10 producing 
three children, what is the probability that their first child is an affected female, their second child is an 
affected male, and their third child is an unaffected male? 

 
4. Which of the following has Malphigian tubules as its excretory system?  
a. Grasshopper   c. Lobster 
b. Frog  d. Jellyfish 

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5. Which of the following is ​not​ true about secondary growth in plants? 
a. The vascular cambium causes rupture of the bark. 
b. Secondary growth occurs only in plant stems. 
c. The cork cambium produces cork cells that aid in preventing water loss. 
d. Initially, more secondary xylem cells are produced. 

6. A ladder 10 m long is leaning against a wall. If the bottom of the ladder is being pulled horizontally 
towards the wall at 2 m/s, how fast is the top of the ladder moving when the bottom of the ladder is  
6 m from the wall?  
7. The medians of a triangle have lengths of 9, 12, and 15 cm, respectively. Find the area of the triangle. 
8. A treasure hunter found a chest containing 45,000 gold coins. In selling the gold coins, she decides to sell 
50 coins on the first day, 150 coins on the second day, 250 coins on the third day, and so on. On what 
day would she run out of gold coins to sell? 
A. The 25th day 
B. The 30th day 
C. The 35th day 
D. The 40th day 
9. Denise has two bags of marbles. The first bag contains 5 blue marbles and 3 red marbles, while the 
second bag contains 3 blue marbles and 6 red marbles. She drew one marble from the first bag, and 
placed it in the second bag. She then drew a marble from the second bag. What is the probability that the 
marble she drew from the second bag is blue? 
10. From the top of a 200-m high building, the angle of depression to the bottom of a second building is 
30𝜋/6 degrees. From the same point, the angle of elevation to the top of the second building is 45𝜋/4 
degrees. Calculate the height of the second building. 
a. 200√3 m  c. 100√3 m 
b. 300√2 m  d. 300 m 
11. Which statement is ​not​ true? 
A. Eukaryotic DNA is linear while prokaryotic DNA is circular. 
B. Eukaryotic DNA is associated with proteins while prokaryotic DNA is not. 
C. Eukaryotic DNA is contained in a nucleus (excepting instances such as mitochondrial DNA).  
D. Eukaryotic DNA has telomeres while prokaryotic DNA does not. 
12. Which is ​not true​ about transcription? 
A. Like replication and translation, it has initiation, elongation, and termination stages. 
B. The template DNA is unwound and both strands are transcribed by RNA polymerase. 
C. Several transcripts can be produced from one DNA strand simultaneously. 
D. The product of transcription is mRNA that can be translated to produce a polypeptide. 
13. Identification:  Among  the  newly  discovered  small  noncoding  RNAs,  one  type  reestablishes  methylation 
patterns during gamete formation and block expression of some transposons. What is this class of RNA? 

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14. When  DNA  is  compacted  by  histones,  the  DNA  is  unable  to  interact  with  proteins  required  for  gene 
expression.  To  allow  for  these  proteins  to  act,  the  chromatin  must  constantly  alter  its  structure.  Which 
process contributes to this dynamic activity? 
a. Methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails 
b. Hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core 
c. Topoisomerase-mediated relaxation of supercoiled DNA 
d. Nucleotide excision and replacement 
15. Which is ​not​ true about agarose gel electrophoresis? 
A. Smaller DNA fragments migrate further than larger DNA fragments. 
B. Supercoiling causes DNA to migrate faster. 
C. The direction of DNA migration is from anode to cathode. 
D. Agarose gel electrophoresis can also be used with RNA samples. 
16. Which of the following is ​not true​ about galvanic cells? 
A. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode. 
B. Chemical energy is transformed into electrical energy. 
C. Reduction occurs in the cathode, while oxidation occurs at the anode. 
D. The reaction involved is spontaneous, with a positive cell potential and negative 𝛥​G​. 
17. Sodium metal reacts violently with water, yielding sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. If 1.18 g of 
sodium reacts completely, what volume of hydrogen gas is produced at standard temperature and 
pressure? (Assume that it behaves as an ideal gas. Use the following atomic weights [g/mol]: H - 1, O - 
16, Na - 23. Use ​R​ = 0.0821 L·atm·mol​-1​·K​-1​) 
18. The  reaction  scheme  below  shows  the  synthesis  of  methyl  benzoate  from  benzoic  acid.  Which  species 
acts as the ​nucleophile​?  

 
A. Benzoic acid  C. Sulfuric acid (H​2​SO​4​) 
B. Methanol (CH​3​OH)  D. Methyl benzoate 
19. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container: CO(​g​) + Fe​3​O​4​(​s)​ ⇌ CO​2​(​g​) + 3 FeO(​s​). Which 
of the following will cause the equilibrium to shift to the left? 
A. Adding NaOH(​s​) to react with CO​2​(​g)​   C. Adding a platinum-palladium catalyst 
B. Adding more FeO(​s)​ to the system  D. Adding a CO-adsorbing material 
20. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point? 
a. N-pentane  c. 1-pentanol 
b. Dimethylpropane  d. Isopentane 
21. Isko remains on Earth while Iska travels aboard a spacecraft at 85.0% the speed of light. When Iska has 
travelled 4.01 ⨉ 10​16​ m to Proxima Centauri, how much ​more​ time (in s) has passed for Isko than for 
Iska? Express your answer to three significant figures, and use ​c​ = 3 ⨉ 10​8​ m/s. 

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22. An object is placed in front of a converging lens at a distance less than the focal length of the lens. Which 
of the following correctly describes the image formed? 
a. Real, inverted, reduced  c. Virtual, inverted, magnified  
b. Real, inverted, magnified  d. Virtual, upright, magnified 
23. Coherent sources A and B emit electromagnetic waves with wavelength 400 nm. Point P is 600 nm from 
A and 800 nm from B. What is the phase difference between these two waves? 
a. 45°  c. 180° 
b. 90°  d. 360° 
24. Consider the circuit diagram to the right. If the ammeter reads 
3 A in the direction shown, what is the magnitude of the 
unknown emf 𝜀 of the battery in volts? Assume that all 
components are ideal. 
 
25. A child throws a ball from the top of a cliff with a speed of 18 
m/s. If the tower is 12 meters high, what is the speed of the 
ball just as it is about to hit the ground?  
a. 1.5 m/s  c. 0 m/s 
b. 23.65 m/s  d. 21.6 m/s 
26. Identification: What is a hanging wall block that has moved down between two normal faults?  
27. J. Hutton’s Theory of Uniformitarianism in geology assumes that… 
a. The geological features and processes observed in the present day are resultant of a series of 
catastrophic events in earth’s early history. 
b. The angles between corresponding faces on crystals are the same for all specimens of the same 
mineral. 
c. The geological processes that continue to shape the earth at the present day are resultant of the same 
continuous and uniform processes that shaped earth in its early history. 
d. In the light of the development of earth’s geological processes, ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. 
28. The natives of dwarf planet Nimbb want to measure the circumference of their planet. Inspired by the 
tale of the earthling Eratosthenes, they erect two 10.0-m tall poles on the planet, the first on the equator 
and the second exactly 352 km due north of the first. At noon, the first pole casts no shadow while the 
second casts a shadow 1.50 m long. What is the approximate circumference of planet Nimbb? Express 
your answer to three significant figures. 
29. Identification: This soil horizon is characterized by significant leaching of clay, iron, and aluminum oxides 
into the horizon below, resulting in the retention of sand- to silt-sized particles composed of resistant 
minerals such as quartz. 
30. Which of the following does ​not​ provide evidence for continental drift? 
A. Matching coastline (continental shelf) such as those of South America and Africa 
B. Extensive ancient glaciation in areas such as India, South America, and southern Africa 
C. High earthquake activity along plate boundaries 
D. Matching fossil distributions and geological features across different continents   
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 Answer Key 
1. D  11. B  21. 1.41 ⨉ 10​8​ s 
2. D  12. B  22. D 
3. zero  13. piRNA  23. C 
4. A  14. A  24. 15.0 V 
5. B  15. C  25. B 
6. 1.5 m/s  16. A  26. Graben 
7. 72 cm​2  17. 0.575 L  27. C 
8. B  18. B  28. 14,900 km 
9. 29/80  19. D  29. E horizon 
10. A  20. B  30. C 
 

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