Thomas Tutorials

Date : NEET - 2016 TEST ID: 05

Time : 03:00:00 PCB Marks : 720

1. If 𝑓 = 𝑥 2 , then the relative error in 𝑓 is c) Upper part of the body continues to be in the
a) 2∆𝑥 b) ∆𝑥 2 c) ∆𝑥 d) state of motion whereas the lower part of
∆𝑥 2
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 the body in contact with seat remains at rest
2. A screw gauge gives the following reading d) Nothing can be said due to insufficient data
when used to measure the diameter of a wire 7. If a block slides down a plane inclined at 30°
Main scale reading : 0 𝑚𝑚 with horizontal, then the coefficient of friction
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions between the block and inclined plane is
Given that 1 𝑚𝑚 on main scale corresponds to a) b) 1 c) 1 d) 1
0.5
100 divisions on the circular scale. 3 2 3
The diameter of wire from the above data is 8. A cubical vessel of height 1 m is full of water.
a) 0.52 𝑐𝑚 b) 0.052 𝑐𝑚c) 0.026 𝑐𝑚d) 0.005 𝑐𝑚 what is the amount of work done in pumping
3. A man wants to reach point 𝐵 on the opposite water out of the vessel?(Take g=10𝑚𝑠 −2 )
bank of a river flowing at a speed as shown in a) 1250 J b) 5000 J c) 1000 J d) 2500 J
figure. What minimum speed relative to water 9. Two particles of masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 are
should the man have so that he can reach point connected by a rigid massless rod of length 𝑟 to
𝐵? In which direction should be swim? constitute a dumb-bell which is free to move in
the plane. The moment of inertia of the dumb-
bell about an axis perpendicular to the plane
passing through the centre of mass is
𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑟 2
a) b) 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑟 2
𝑚1 + 𝑚2
𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑟 2
a) 𝑢 2 b) 𝑢/ 2 c) 2u d) 𝑢/2 c) d) 𝑚1 − 𝑚2 𝑟 2
𝑚1 − 𝑚2
4. A stone is tied to one end of a string 50 𝑐𝑚 long
10. What is the toque of the force
is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
speed. If the stone makes 10 revolutions in 𝐅 = (2𝐢 − 3𝐣 + 4𝐤) N acting at the point
20 𝑠, what is the magnitude of acceleration of 𝐫 = (3𝐢 + 2𝐣 + 3𝐤) m about the origin?
the stone a) −17𝐢 + 6𝐣 + 13𝐤 b) −6𝐢 + 6𝐣 − 12𝐤
a) 493 𝑐𝑚/𝑠 2 b) 720 𝑐𝑚/𝑠 2 c) 17𝐢 − 6𝐣 − 13𝐤 d) 6𝐢 − 6𝐣 + 12𝐤
c) 860 𝑐𝑚/𝑠 2 d) 990 𝑐𝑚/𝑠 2 11. The diagram showing the variation of
5. Neglecting the air resistance, the time of flight gravitational potential of earth with distance
of a projectile is determined by from the centre of earth is
a) 𝑈𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 a) V b) V
b) 𝑈𝑕𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 R R
2 2 O O
c) 𝑈 = 𝑈𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 + 𝑈𝑕𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 r r
2 2 1/2
d) 𝑈 = 𝑈 𝑈𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 + 𝑈𝑕𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙
6. When a train stops suddenly, passengers in the
c) V d) V
running train feel an instant jerk in the
forward direction because O
R R
O
a) The back of seat suddenly pushes the r r
passengers forward
b) Inertia of rest stops the train and takes the
body forward 12. A copper wire of negligible mass, 1 m length

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 and cross-sectional area 10−6 is kept on a the container will be
smooth horizontal table with one end fixed. A 𝑇1 𝑇2 (𝑝1 𝑉1 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 ) 𝑝1 𝑉1 𝑇1 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 𝑇2
a) b)
ball of mass 1 kg is attached to the other end. 𝑝1 𝑉1 𝑇2 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 𝑇1 𝑝1 𝑉1 + 𝑝2 𝑉2
The wire and the ball are rotated with an 𝑝1 𝑉1 𝑇2 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 𝑇1 𝑇1 𝑇2 (𝑝1 𝑉1 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 )
c) d)
angular velocity 20 rad 𝑠 −1 . If the elongation in 𝑝1 𝑉1 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 𝑝1 𝑉1 𝑇1 + 𝑝2 𝑉2 𝑇2
the wire is 10−3 m, then the Young’s modulus is 18. The value of molar specific heat at constant
11 −2 pressure for one mole of triatomic gas
a) 4 × 10 Nm b) 6 × 1011 Nm−2
(triangular arrangement) at temperature
c) 8 × 1011 Nm−2 d) 10 × 1011 Nm−2 𝑇𝐾is (𝑅 = universal gas constant)
13. A vessel whose bottom has round holes with a) b) 2 c) 5 d)
3𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 4𝑅
diameter of 1 mm is filled with water. 7 2
Assuming that surface tension acts only at 19. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice
holes, then the maximum height to which the those of earth. The period of oscillation of
water can be filled in vessel without leakage is pendulum on this planet will be
(Surface tension of water is 75 × 10−3 Nm−1 If it is a second’s pendulum on earth
and g = 10 ms−2 ) a) 1 b) c) d) 1
𝑠 2 2𝑠 2𝑠 𝑠
a) 3 cm b) 0.3 cm c) 3 mm d) 3 m 2 2
14. Surface tension of a liquid is due to 20. A clock which keeps correct time at 20℃, is
a) Gravitational force between molecules subjected to 40℃. If coefficient of linear
b) Electrical force between molecules expansion of the pendulum is 12 × 10−6 /℃.
c) Adhesive force between molecules How much will it gain or loose in time
d) Cohesive force between molecules a) 10.3 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦 b) 20.6 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦
15. The amount of heat energy radiated by a c) 5𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦 d) 20 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠/𝑑𝑎𝑦
metal at temperature 𝑇 is 𝐸. when the 21. If two waves having amplitudes 2𝐴 and 𝐴 and
temperature is increased to 3T, energy same frequency and velocity, propagate in the
radiated is same direction in the same phase, the resulting
amplitude will be
a) 81𝐸 b) 9𝐸 c) 3𝐸 d) 27𝐸
a) 3𝐴 b) 5𝐴 c) 2𝐴 d) 𝐴
16. The temperature-entropy diagram of a
reversible engine cycle is given in the figure. 22. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge
Its efficiency is distribution with charge density varying
5 𝑟
0 as𝜌 𝑟 = 𝜌0 4
− 𝑅 upto 𝑟 = 𝑅, and 𝜌 𝑟 = 0
for 𝑟 > 𝑅, where 𝑟 is the distance from the
origin. The electric field at a distance 𝑟(𝑟 < 𝑅)
2R0
VT
12 V2 from the origin is given by
𝜌0 𝑟 5 𝑟 4𝜋𝜌0 𝑟 5 𝑟
a) − b) −
0
500 ΩT 4𝜀0 4 𝑅 3𝜀0 3 𝑅
𝜌0 𝑟 5 𝑟 4𝜌0 𝑟 5 𝑟
c) − d) −
4𝜀0 3 𝑅 3𝜀0 4 𝑅
S0 I2 23. A wooden block performs SHM on a
S
frictionless surface with frequency v0 . The
a) 1/2 b) 1/4 c) 1/3 d) 2/3 block carries a charge +𝒬 on its surface. If now
17. An insulated container of gas has two a uniform electric field E is switched on as
chambers separated by an insulating partition. shown, then the SHM of the block will be
One of the chambers has volume 𝑉1 and
contains ideal gas at pressure 𝑝1 and
temperature 𝑇1 . The other chamber has a) of the same frequency and with shifted mean
volume 𝑉2 and contains ideal gas at pressure position
𝑝2 and temperature 𝑇2 . If the partition is b) of the same frequency and with same mean
removed without doing any work on the gas, position
the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in c) of changed frequency and with shifted mean

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 position Then, the value of relative permeability is
d) of changed frequency and with same mean highest for the point
position 1.5
R S
24. There are 10 condensers each of capacity 5 μF.

B (Tesla)
1.0
The radio between maximum and minimum Q

capacities obtained from these condenses will 0.5

P
be O
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
a) 25 : 5 b) 40 : 1 c) 60 : 3 d) 100 : 1
H ( 103A/m)
25. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero
a) 𝑃 b) 𝑄 c) 𝑅 d) 𝑆
deflection. If the batteries A and B have
31. A conducting rod 𝐴𝐶 of length 4𝑙 is rotated
negligible internal resistance, the value of the
resistor R will be about a point 𝑂 in a uniform magnetic field 𝐵
500 Ω
directed into the paper. 𝐴𝑂 = 𝑙 and 𝑂𝐶 = 3𝑙.
G Then
× × × × ×  ×
B
A 2V × × O × × ×
A C
12 V B R × × × × × ×

× × × × × ×

2
7
𝐵𝜔𝑙
a) 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝑂 = b) 𝑉𝑂 − 𝑉𝐶 = 𝐵𝜔𝑙 2
a) 200Ω b) 100 Ω c) 500 Ω d) 1000 Ω 2 2
26. Current through wire 𝑋𝑌 of circuit shown is 9
c) 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐶 = 4 𝐵𝜔𝑙 2 d) 𝑉𝐶 − 𝑉𝑂 = 𝐵𝜔𝑙 2
1Ω X 2Ω 2
32. A 100 V, AC source of frequency 500 Hz is
1 2 connected to an L-C-R circuit with L=8.1 mH,
Y 𝐶 = 12.5 𝜇F, 𝑅 = 10 Ω all connected in series
3Ω 4Ω
as shown in figure. What is the quality factor of
circuit?
50V
a) 1 𝐴 b) 4 𝐴 c) 2 𝐴 d) 3 𝐴
27. Three resistors each of 2 𝑜𝑕𝑚 are connected
together in a triangular shape. The resistance
between any two vertices will be
a) 4/3𝑜𝑕𝑚 b) 3/4 𝑜𝑕𝑚 c) 3 𝑜𝑕𝑚 d) 6 𝑜𝑕𝑚 a) 2.02 b) 2.5434 c) 20.54 d) 200.54
28. Electrons move at right angles to a magnetic 33. An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is
field of 1.5 × 10−2 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑙𝑎 with a speed of connected to A.C. mains. The current drawn by
6 × 107 𝑚/𝑠. If the specific charge of the it is
electron is 1.7 × 1011 𝐶/𝑘𝑔, the radius of the a) 0.8 𝐴 b) 2.5 𝐴 c) 0.4 𝐴 d) 1.25 𝐴
circular path will be 34. Ground waves have wavelength
a) 2.9 𝑐𝑚 b) 3.9 𝑐𝑚 c) 2.35 𝑐𝑚 d) 3 𝑐𝑚 a) Less than 200 m b) Equal to 200 m
29. In which direction, the magnetic field on the c) More than 200 m d) All of these
axis at a distance z from the centre of the bar 35. For which of the following colour, the
magnet would be? magnifying power of a microscope will be
a) In the perpendicular direction of the maximum
magnetic moment (M) of the magnet a) White colour b) Red colour
b) In the direction of the magnetic dipole c) Violet colour d) Yellow colour
moment (M) of the magnet 36. A lens of power +2 𝑑𝑖𝑜𝑝𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠is placed in
c) Its direction depends on the magnitude of contact with a lens of power −1 𝑑𝑖𝑜𝑝𝑡𝑟𝑒. The
the magnetic moment (M) of the magnet combination will behave like
d) In the opposite direction of the magnetic a) A divergent lens of focal length 50 𝑐𝑚
dipole moment(M) of the magnet b) A convergent lens of focal length 50 𝑐𝑚
30. The basic magnetization curve for a c) A convergent lens of focal length 100 𝑐𝑚
ferromagnetic material is shown in figure. d) A divergent lens of focal length 100 𝑐𝑚
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37. If the sodium light in Young’s double slit 43. The resistance of a germanium junction diode
experiment is replaced by red light, the fringe whose 𝑉 − 𝐼 is shown in figure is (𝑉𝑘 = 0.3 𝑉)
width will I
10mA
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Remain unaffected

d) First increase, then decrease V
Vk 2.3V
38. Nuclear radii may be measured by scattering
a) b) c) d) 10
high energy electrons from nuclei. What is the 5 𝑘Ω 0.2 𝑘Ω 2.3 𝑘Ω 𝑘Ω
2.3
de-Broglie wavelength for 200 MeV electrons? 44. In earth's atmosphere, for 𝐸-layer, the virtual
a) 8.28 fm b) 7.98 fm c) 6.45 fm d) 6.20 fm height and critical frequency are
39. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of a) 80 km and 3MHz
wavelengths 400 𝑛𝑚 and 250 𝑛𝑚, the b) 90 km and 3.5 MHz
maximum velocities of the photoelectrons c) 120 km and 4.5 MHz
ejected are 𝑣 and 2𝑣 respectively. The work d) 110 km and 4 MHz
function of the metal is (𝑕 = Plank’s constant, 45. Which of the following frequencies will be
𝑐 = velocity of light in air) suitable for beyond the horizon
a) 2 𝑕𝑐 × 106 𝐽 b) 1.5 𝑕𝑐 × 106 𝐽 communication
6
c) 𝑕𝑐 × 10 𝐽 d) 0.5 𝑕𝑐 × 106 𝐽 a) 10 kHz b) 10 MHz
40. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the c) 1 GHz d) 1000 GHz
𝑘
origin by a force , where 𝑘is constant and 𝑟is 46. Which has maximum number of atoms?
𝑟
the distance of the electron from the origin. By a) 24 g of C b) 56 g of Fe
applying Bohr model to this system, the radius c) 26 g of Al d) 108 g of Ag
of the 𝑛th orbital of the electron is found to be 47. What is the volume (in litres) of oxygen
𝑟𝑛 and the kinetic energy of the electron to be required at STP to completely convert 1.5
𝑇𝑛 .Then which of the following is true? moles of sulphur into sulphur dioxide?
1 a) 11.2 b) 22.4 c) 33.6 d) 44.8
a) 𝑇𝑛 ∝ 2 , 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛2
𝑛 48. The number of 𝑑-electrons retained in Fe2+(At.
b) 𝑇𝑛 independentof𝑛, 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛 No. Fe=26) ions is
1 a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
c) 𝑇𝑛 ∝ , 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛
𝑛 49. The orbital angular momentum of an electron
1
d) 𝑇𝑛 ∝ , 𝑟𝑛 ∝ 𝑛2 in 2𝑠 orbital is
𝑛 a) 1 𝑕 b) c) 𝑕 d) 𝑕
41. Radioactive element decays to form a stable + . Zero 2
𝑑𝑁
2 2𝜋 2𝜋 2𝜋
nuclide, then the rate of decay of reactant 𝑑𝑡 50. Pauling’s electronegativity values for elements
will vary with time (𝑡) as shown in figure are useful in predicting
dN dN
a) Polarity of bonds in molecules
dt dt b) Position of elements in electromotive series
a) b) c) Coordination number
d) Dipole moment of various molecules
t t
51. Born-Haber cycle may be used to calculate
dN dN a) Electronegativity b) Mass number
dt
dt
c) Oxidation number d) Electron affinity
c) d) 52. In which of the following molecules the van
t
der Waals’ forces is likely to be the most
t
important in determining the melting and
42. Sun energy is due to
boiling point?
a) Fission of hydrogen
a) CO b) H2 S c) Br2 d) HCl
b) Fusion of hydrogen
53. Select correct statement(s)
c) Both fission and fusion
a) The standard boiling temperature is the
d) Neither fusion nor fission

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 temperature at which the vapour pressure of c) Its molecular formula is Pb2 O3
the substance is 1 bar d) It decomposes into PbO and O2
b) The normal boiling temperature is the 63. Which of the following compounds are not
temperature at which the vapour pressure of arranged on order of decreasing reactivity
the substance is 1 atm towards electrophilic substitution?
Substances for which 𝑇 > 𝑇𝑐 and 𝑝 > 𝑝𝑐 are a) Fluorobenzene >chlorobenzene > bromo
c)
called super critical fluids benzene
d) All the above are correct statements b) Phenol>𝑛-propyl benzene> benzoic acid>
54. At 27℃ one mole of an ideal gas is Chlorotoluene >𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎-nitrotoluene>2-
c)
compressed isothermally and reversible chloro-4-nitro toluene
from a pressure of 2 atm to 10 atm. The d) Benzoic acid> phenol>𝑛-propyl benzene
value of ∆𝐸 and q are (R=2 cal) 64. Propyne on passing through red hot iron
a) 0, -965.84 cal tube gives
b) -965.84 cal, -865.58 cal
c) +865.58 cal, -865.58 cal
a) b)
d) +965.84 cal, +865.58 cal
55. The heat atomisation of PH3 (g) is 228 kcal per
mol and that of P2 H4 (g)is 335 kcal per mol. The d) None of these
energy of P − P bond is
a) 102 kcal/mol b) 31 kcal/mol c)
c) 26 kcal/mol d) 204 kcal/mol
56. p𝐾𝑎 of acetic acid is 4.74. The
65. Which reacts with ammoniacal AgNO3 ?
concentration of CH3 COONa is 0.01 M. The a) Propyne b) 2-butyne
pH of CH3 COONa is c) 1,3-butadiene d) Pentene
a) 3.37 b) 4.37 c) 4.74 d) 0.474
66. Chief source of water and soil pollution is
57. The oxidation number of Xe in XeF4 and XeO2 a) Mining
is b) Thermal power plant
a) +6 b) +4 c) +1 d) +3 c) Agro-industry
58. The oxidation state of two sulphur atoms in d) All of these
H2 S2 O8 67. Doping of silicon (Si) with boron (B) leads to
a) −6 b) −2 c) +6 d) −4 a) 𝑛 −type semiconductor
59. Which of the following metal evolves hydrogen b) 𝑝 −type semiconductor
on reacting with cold dilute HNO3 ? c) Metal
a) Fe b) Cu c) Al d) Mg d) Insulator
60. Which property of Na2 S2 O3 makes it useful in 68. Electrons in a paramagnetic compound are
photography? a) Shared b) Unpaired
a) Photochemical property c) Donated d) Paired
b) Complex formation property 69. Which of the following is not a colligative
c) Oxidising agent property?
d) Reducing agent a) Optical activity
61. AlCl3 is b) Osmotic pressure
a) Anhydrous and ionic c) Depression of freezing point
b) Covalent and basic d) Elevation of boiling point
c) Anhydrous and covalent 70. Which of the following solution highest boiling
d) Co-ordinate and acidic point?
62. Which of the following is the correct statement a) 0.1 M urea b) 0.1 M sucrose
for red lead? c) 0.1 M 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3 d) 0.1 M 𝐴𝑙(𝑁𝑂3 )3
a) It is an active form of lead 71. 3 F electricity was passed through an aqueous
b) It decomposes into Pb and CO2 solution of iron (II) bromide. The weight of

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 iron metal (at. Wt. = 56) deposited at the b) Predominantly 1-butene
cathode (in g) is c) Predominantly 2-butene
a) 65 b) 84 c) 112 d) 168 d) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
72. For the reaction system 82. When ethylene glycol is heated with a mixture
2NO g + O2 g → 2NO2 g if the volume of of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated
the reaction vessel is reduced to one-third of H2 SO4 , it produces
its original volume, what will be the order of COOH
the reaction? a) | b) CO2 + H2
a) Diminished to one fourth of its initial value COOH
b) Diminished to one twenty seven of its initial CH2 ONO2 CH2 ONO2
value c) | d) |
c) Increase to twenty seven times of its initial CH2 ONO2 CH2 OH
value 83. CH3 CH3
d) Increase to four times of its initial value ||
73. With increase in temperature, rate of reaction Conc .H 2 SO 4
In the reaction Ph − C − C − Ph 𝐴
a) increases The product 𝐴 is
b) decreases ||
c) Remains same OH OH
d) May increase or decrease
74. Which of the following is a wrong statements CH3 CH3
for physisorption? a) | | b)
a) It is a reversible reaction Ph − C = C − Ph
b) Reaction requires an energy of activation CH3 O CH3 O
c) The value of adsorption enthalpy is low | || |||
d) It generally occurs at a low temperature c) Ph − C − C − CH3 d) Ph − C − C − Ph
75. Which of the following is a carbonate ore? | |
a) Pyrolusite b) Diaspore Ph CH3
c) Cassiterite d) Malachite 84. The acetophenone can be converted to
76. Purpose of smelting of an ore is ethylbenzene by reaction with
a) To oxidize it a) LiAlH4 b) H2 NOH
b) To remove vaporisation impurities c) Pd BaSO4 − H2 d) Zn − Hg/HCl
c) To reduce it 85. Choose the incorrect comparision(s)
d) To obtain an alloy
77. How many bonding electron pairs are there in
white phosphorus ? a)
a) 6 b) 12 c) 4 d) 8
78. German silver alloy contains
a) Zinc, silver and copper CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 > CH3 3 N
b)
b) Nickel ,silver and copper (basicity in aqueous medium)
c) Germanium ,silver and copper
d) Zinc, nickel and copper c)
79. Two of the constituents of German silver are
a) Ag + Cu b) Ag + Zn c) Cu + Zn d) Cu + Sn
80. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required
for complete precipitation of chloride ions d)
(basicity in aqueous
present in 30 mL of 0.01 M solution of
medium)
Cr H2 O 5 Cl Cl2 , as silver chloride is close to
86. Nitration of aniline also gives 𝑚-nitro aniline in
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
strong acidic medium because
81. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane
In electrophilic substitution reaction amino
results in the formation of a)
group is 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑎 directive
a) Predominantly 2-butyne
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 Inspite of substituents nitro group always are retained on the parent sporophytes for
b)
goes to 𝑚-position variable periods
c) In strong acidic medium aniline aniline IV. The development of the zygotes into young
present as anilinium ion embryos takes place within the female
d) None of the above gametophytes
87. Main constituent of plants is V. This event is a precursor to the seed habit
a) Cellulos b) c) d) considered an important step in evolution
Starch Fructose Lipids
e a) I, II and III
88. Which is not an example of copolymer? b) II, IV and V
a) SAN b) ABS c) Saran d) PVC c) III, IV and V
89. Condensation product of caprolactum is d) I, II, III, IV and V
a) Nylon-6 b) Nylon-66 98. Male Anopheles does not transmit malarial
c) Nylon-60 d) Nylon-6,10 parasite because
90. a) It catches fever
b) It is too small to carry parasite
The compound is used as c) The parasite is killed in its stomach
a) Antiseptic b) Antibiotic d) It does not drink blood
c) Analgesic d) Pesticide 99. In which of the following organisms, self-
91. Where labelling is done/pasted on herbarium fertilization is seen?
sheet? a) Fish b) Roundworm
a) Lower RHS b) Lower LHS c) Earthworm d) Liver fluke
c) Upper RHS d) Upper LHS 100. Which one of the following is the most effective
92. Which one of the category contain the least in Ascaris infection?
similar characteristic to one another? a) Chloroquinine b) Cinchona
a) Class b) Order c) Family d) Division c) Colchicum d) Oil of Chenopodium
93. The first phylogenetic system of plant 101. Three floral diagrams are given here. Their
classification was proposed by respective families are assigned in the answer
a) Engler b) Engler and Prantl key. Find out the families to which these
c) Eicher d) Bentham and diagrams belong to
Hooker
94. An eukaryote, which causes disease comes
under
a) Moneran b) Fungus
c) Virus d) None of these
95. Black stem rust of wheat is caused by
a) b) Protozo c) d)
Fungi Algae Bacteria
a
96. Transfusion tissue is present in the leaves of
a) 𝐷𝑟𝑦𝑜𝑝𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑠 b) 𝐶𝑦𝑐𝑎𝑠 a) A-Liliaceae B- b) A-Asteraceae B-
c) 𝑃𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑠 d) Both (b) and (c) Asteraceae C- Solanaceae C-
97. Consider the following statement regarding Solanaceae Brassicaceae
heterospory c) A-Asteraceae B- d) A-Poaceae B-
I. Genera like 𝑆𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑎 and 𝑆𝑎𝑙𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑎 which Solanaceae C- Solanaceae C-
produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) Poaceae Asteraceae
and micro (small) spores, are known as 102. Which of the following represents the male
heterosporous reproductive organ in a flower?
II. The megaspores and microspores germinate a) Androecium b) Stamen
and give rise to female and male gametophyte c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
respectively 103. Double fertilization occurs among
III. The female gametophytes in these plants a) Algae b) Bryophytes

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 c) Angiosperms d) Gymnosperms b) Non- homologous chromosomes
104. Number of carpels is Sida cordifolia is always c) Both (a) and (b)
a) Equal to the number of styles d) Centric and acentric chromosomes
b) Equal to the number of locules 115. Study the following statements
c) Double the number of styles I. Most minerals must enter the roots by active
d) Half the number of locules absorption into cytoplasm and epidermal cells
105. Early wood is formed in dicot plant during II. Ions are absorbed by both passive and
a) Spring season active transport
b) Winter season III. Active absorption does not require energy
c) Autumn season IV. Active uptake of ions is responsible for
d) Summer season osmosis
106. I. Parenchyma tissue II. Collenchyma tissue Choose the correct option in reference to the
III. Sclerenchyma tissue statements given above
Which of the above tissues are found in the a) I and II are correct and III and IV are
ground tissue system? incorrect
a) I and II b) II and III b) I, II and IV are correct and III is incorrect
c) I and III d) I, II and III c) I, II, III and IV
107. Epimysium, perimysium and endomysium are d) I, III and II are correct IV is incorrect
found in 116. In the given schematic diagram, pathway of
a) Nerve b) Blood vessel water movement inside the root is shown from
c) Striated muscle d) Uterus soil to xylem. Identify the tissue involved in the
108. Life period of mammalian erythrocytes is steps 𝐴-𝐶 and choose the correct option
a) 120 days b) 180 days accordingly
c) 140 days d) 220 days
109. The largest subunit of prokaryotic ribosomes
is
a) 30S b) 40S c) 50S d) 60S
110. The haploid content of human DNA is a) A-Hypodermis, B- b) A-Cortex, B-
a) 3.2 × 109 bp b) 3.3 × 109 kbp Medullary rays, C- Pericycle, C-
c) 4.6 × 106 bp d) 48502bp Metaxylem Metaxylem
111. Select the correct graph which shows the c) A-Pericycle, B- d) A-Hypodermis, B-
relationship between the rate of an enzymatic Cortex, C-Metaxylem Cortex, C-Vascular
activity and substrate concentration tissues
a) b) c) d) 117. After heavy rain fall with poor drainage, laves
of many plants wilt due to
a) Root rot
b) Poor aeration
c) High salt concentration
112. …….. is the most abundant protein in whole of d) Low soil temperature
the biosphere 118. The deficiency of this micronutrient
a) b) c) d) RUBISC results in little leaf disease.
Collagen Trypsin Insulin
O a) Copper b) Zinc c) Boron d) Iron
113. In plant cell has 12 chromosomes at the 119. About 98% of the mass of every living
end of mitosis. How many chromosomes organism is composed of just six element
would it have in the G2 -phase of its next including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen,
cell cycle? oxygen and
a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24 a) Phosphorus and sulphur
114. Which type of chromosomes segregate b) Sulphur and magnesium
when a cell undergoes meiosis? c) Magn0esium and sodium
a) Homologous chromosomes d) Calcium and phosphorus

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120. In a CAM-plant, the concentration of organic 129. State wheather the given statements are true
acid or false
a) Increases during the b) Decreases or I. Respiration in humans is an active process
day increases during the II. Diaphragm helps in generating the pressure
day gradient in the lungs
c) Increases during d) Decreases during Choose the correct option
night any time a) I – True, II – False b) I – True, II – True
121. The first product of CO2 fixation in C4 pathway c) I – False, II – True d) I – False, II – False
is 130. Blood is a medium to transport O2 and CO2 .
a) Acitic acid b) RuBP About …A… per cent of O2 is transported by
c) PGA d) Inorganic acid …B… in the blood and the remaining …C… per
122. The process by which ATP is produced in the cent of O2 is carried in a dissolved state
inner membrane of a mitochondrion, the through the …D…
electron transport system transfers protons Select the right options for A, B, C and D to the
from the inner compartment to the outer, as complete the given statement
the protons flow back to the inner a) A-50, B-RBC, C-50, D-plasma
compartment, the energy of their movement is b) A-97, B-RBC, C-3, D-plasma
used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP is c) A-90, B-RBC, C-10, D-plasma
a) Chemiosmosis b) Phosphorylation d) A-80, B-RBC, C-20, D-plasma
c) Glycolysis d) Fermentation 131. Identify the correct labelling for 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷
123. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately and choose the correct option accordingly
termed as
a) Catabolic b) Parabolic
c) Amphibolic d) Anabolic
124. Richmond-Lang effect is concerned with
a) Delay in senescence
b) Breaking dormancy
c) Suppression of apical dominance
d) Cell elongation
125. The deteriorative processes in plants that a) A-Sinoauricular node, B-Atrioventricular
naturally terminate their functional life, are node, C-Bundle of His, D-Purkinje fibre
collectively called b) A-Sinoauricular node, B-Atrioventricular
a) Wilting b) Abscission node, C-Purkinje fibre, D-Bundle of His
c) Plasmolysis d) Senescence c) A-Purkinje fibre, B-Atrioventricular node, C-
126. Which hormone (PGR) encounters the apical Bundle of His, D-Sinoauricular node
dominance induced by auxin? d) A-Purkinje fibre, B-Bundle of His, C-Sino
a) IAA b) Cytokinin auricular node, D-Atriventricular node
c) C2 H4 d) NAA 132. Which of the following is a cell fragment?
127. Lipids, Which can be found in oil based salad a) Blood platelets b) Bone cells
dressings and ice cream, during digestion are c) Lymphocytes d) Leucocytes
splitted into 133. The first step in the urine formation is the
a) Fattyacids and glycerol filtration of the blood, which is carried by the
b) Glyceroland amino acids …A... and is called …B… . On an average …C… .
c) Glucose and fatty acids mL of blood is filtered by kidneys per minute,
d) Glucose and amino acids which constitutes …D… of the blood pumped
128. The absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.
monoglycerides takes place by the Choose the correct options for the blanks A to
a) Lymph vessels within the villi D to complete the given NCERT statement
b) Wall of the stomach A-glomerulus; B-filtration, C-800-900, D –
a) 1
c) Colon 4
th
d) Capillaries within the villi
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 A-glomerulus; B-filtration, C-1100-1200, D – (Langerhans)
b) 1 α – cells secrete 𝐴
5
th
β – cells secrete 𝐵
A-glomerulus; B-filtration, C-1100-1300, D – γ – cells secrete 𝐶
c) 1
6
th δ – cells secrete 𝐷
A-glomerulus; B-filtration, C-1100-1500, D – a) A-Glucagon, B-Insulin, C-Gastrin, D-
d) 1 Somatostatin
5
th
b) A-Insulin, B-Glucagon, C-Gastrin, D-
134. Which of the following is not an excretory
Somatostatin
organ?
c) A-Insulin, B-Glucagon, C-Somatostatin, D-
a) Liver b) Book lungs Gastrin
c) Kidney d) Hepatopancreas
d) A-Glucagon, B-Insulin, C-Somatostatin, D-
135. Consider the following statements Gastrin
I. Flame cells are excretory structures in
143. Which of the following is hermaphrodite?
flatworms.
a) Ant b) Aphids
II. Green glands are excretory organs in c) Earthworm d) Cockroach
annelids.
144. Who worked on embryological aspects and
III.Columns of Bertini are the conical popularized the use of embryological
projections of renal pelvis into renal medulla
characters in taxonomy?
between the renal pyramids.
a) P. Guha b) P. Maheshwari
a) I and II correct b) II and III incorrect c) Ivanovosky d) D. Graaf
c) I and III correct d) I, II and III correct
145. Identify the type of flower 𝐴 and 𝐵
136. The region at the ends of the A-band of two
adjoining sarcomeres is called
a) H-zone b) Z-band c) I-band d) M-zone
137. Which muscle component is the smallest
among the given options?
a) Muscle fibre b) Myofibril
c) Actin d) Sarcomere
138. The muscle band that remains unchanged
during contraction and relaxation of the
skeletal muscle is
a) I b) H c) A d) A-line
139. In dark adaptation, a) A-Cleistogamous; B-Chasmogamous
a) Only cones are involved b) A-Homogamous; B-Heterogamous
b) Only rods are involved c) A-Chasmogamous; B-Cleistogamous
d) A-Heterogamous; B-Homogamous
c) Both (a) and (b)
146. Long silky hairs on cob of maize are
d) Neither rods nor cones are involved
a) Anthers b) Style
140. Ependymal cells
c) Stigma d) Both (b) and (c)
a) Ciliated cells
147. These processes are necessary for the
b) Type of epithelial cells
complete development of male gametophyte
c) Lines the cavities of the central nervous
from pollen mother cell.
system
a) One meiotic and two mitotic division
d) All of the above
b) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell
141. Intracellular receptors are mostly
division
a) Cytoplasmic receptors
c) two meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell
b) Membrane receptors
division
c) Nuclear receptors
d) two meiotic cell division
d) ER receptors
148. The polar body of human ovum is formed
142. Choose the correct option for A to D
a) Before birth
Types of cells Hormones

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 b) After birth c) Usual nucleotide is d) Usual nucleotide is
c) During birth added to 3’ end of added to 5’ end of
d) Both (a) and (b) hnRNA hnRNA
149. Hormone, which is responsible for contraction 159. The difference between 𝐻𝑜𝑚𝑜𝑠𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑠 and the
of uterus is 𝐻𝑜𝑚𝑜𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑠 was
a) Vasopressin b) Oxytocin a) Homo sapiens originated in Africa, while
c) Thyrotropin d) Gonadotropin Homo erectus originated in Asia
150. Parturition is the process of b) Homo erectus were much smaller in size
a) Child birth than Homo sapiens
b) Fusion of gametes c) Homo erectus stayed in Africa, while Homo
c) Both (a) and (b) sapiens did not
d) Releasing of gametes d) The size of the brain of Homo erectus was
151. Male’s testes are contained in the scrotal sacs smaller than that of Homo sapiens
because 160. Which of the following is an example of an
a) Other organs do not make space of the testes ancestral homology?
in the abdominal cavity a) Almost all modern b) The first birds and
b) Testes in the abdomen will hamper reptiles, birds and all their descendant
maturation of sperms mammals have species have
c) It provides temperature that is slightly forelimbs, a trait feathers, a trait that
lower than body temperature required for they also share with is unknown in any
formation of functional sperms contemporary other group
d) It facilitates ejaculation amphibians
152. A national level approach to build up a c) Humans and many d) All of the above
reproductively healthy society was taken up in insect species have
our country in: eyes
a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1980s d) 1990s 161. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found
153. MTP helps in between
a) Unwanted b) Unsafe sex a) Two light chains
pregnancy b) Two heavy chains
c) Failure of d) All of the above c) One heavy and one light chain
contraceptive d) Either between two light chains or between
154. A hereditary, disease, which is never passed on one heavy and one light chain depending
from father to son is upon the nature of antigen
a) X-chromosomal linked disease 162. Charas and ganja generally taken by
b) Autosomal linked disease a) Inhalation b) Oral ingestion
c) Y-chromosomal linked disease c) Both (a) and (b) d) Injection
d) None of the above 163. The synthetic drugs structually similar to
155. Monosomy and trisomy are respectively adrenaline are
a) 𝑛 − 1, 𝑛 + 2 b) 2𝑛 + 2, 2𝑛 + 1 a) Amphetamines b) Barbituratess
c) 2𝑛 − 1, 2𝑛 + 1 d) 𝑛 − 2, 2𝑛 + 1 c) Halluncinogens d) Nicotinic derivatives
156. When a dihybrid cross is fit into a Punnett 164. Which one of the following mollusca groups is
square with 16 boxes, the maximum number primarily used in the pearl formation?
of different phenotypes available, are a) Monoplacophorans
a) 8 b) 4 c) 2 d) 16 b) Cephalopods
157. Stop or non-sense codons are c) Gastropods
a) Two in number b) Three in number d) Pelecypods
c) Four in number d) One in number 165. The totipotency of a cell refers to the
158. In capping an a) Flowering in a b) Development of
a) Unusual nucleotide b) Unusual nucleotide culture medium fruit from a flower
is added to 5’ end of is added to 3’ end of in a culture medium
hnRNA hnRNA c) Development of an d) Development of all
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 organ from a cell in tissues of all kinds aircraft.
culture medium from a cell in a III. The lake water turned green and stinky.
culture medium IV. Phytoplankton populations in the lake
166. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in declined initially thereby greatly reducing
biogas production is photosynthesis.
a) Hydrilla Which two of the above were the main causes
b) Solanum nigrum of fish mortality in the lake?
c) Eichhornia crassipes a) b) III andc) d)
II and III I and III I and II
d) Parthenium Hysterophorus IV
167. Which bacteria are utilized in gobar gas plant? 174. Diapause is
a) Methanogens a) Stage of development
b) Nitrifying bacteria b) Stage of suspended development
c) Ammonifying bacteria c) Stage of delayed morphology
d) Denitrifying bacteria d) Rapid developmental stage
168. Identify the correct match for the given 175. Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are
diagram I. autotrophs
II. heterotrophs
III. saprotrophs
IV. chemoautotrophs
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and IV c) II and III d) I and III
a) Electrophoresis – Migration of undigested 176. The organisms which physically and
and digested set of DNA fragments chemically breaks the complex dead organic
b) Bioreactor – Raw materials are biologically remains are known as
converted into specific products a) Scavangers b) Decomposers
c) Microinjection – Technique of introducing c) Both (a) and (b) d) Parasites
foreign genes into a host cell 177. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the
d) Gene cloning – Technique of obtaining Parliament in the year
identical copies of a particular DNA segment a) 1996 b) 1992 c) 2002 d) 2000
169. EFB stands for 178. Siberian cranes are regular visitors of
a) European Federation of Biotechnology a) Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
b) Eurasian Federation of Biotechnology b) Lalbagh, Bangaluru
c) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology c) Vedanthgol sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
d) Ethiopian Federation of Biotechnology d) Jim Corbett national park, Uttarakhand
170. Which of the following is used in genetic 179. Effect of pollution is observed first on
engineering? a) Microorganisms b) Food crop
a) Plastid b) Plasmid c) Green vegetation d) Herbivores
c) Mitochondria d) ER 180. Given diagram represent two devices𝐴 and 𝐵
171. Which of the following is a plasmid? used to control air pollution. Identify them
a) pBR322 b) Bam HI c) Sal I d) Eco RI
172. Genetically engineered human insulin, humulin
was launched by American drug company on
a) 5th July 1998 b) 5th July 1993
c) 5 July 1973
th d) 5th July 1983
173. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality
of fishes within a few days. Consider the a) A-Bag filter; B-Scrubber
following reasons for this b) A-Scrubber; B-Electrostatic precipitator
I. Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizers were c) A-Scrubber; B-Bag filter
used in the crops in the vicinity. d) A-Electrostatic precipitator; B-Bag filter
II. The area was sprayed with DDT by an

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