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Set No.

68

1. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new
road that will pass through loose or heterogenous strata, auger borings should be
made on the proposed alignment at an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m

2. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended
from the centerline of the bridge at least
a) 100 to 200 m upstream only
b) 100 to 200 m downstream only
c) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d) 300 m upstream and downstream

3. Profile along the centerline of the river channel should be extended from the
centerline of the bridge by at least
a) 100 to 200 m upstream only
b) 100 to 200 m downstream only
c) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d) 300 m upstream and downstream

4. To find the time of flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can
be done by transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the
proportion of 1:1.5. The length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this
rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of the rectangle, which is the:
a) square root of the square of width (W) plus half of
b) square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c) square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d) 3.0 W

5. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without
undue reduction in speed is called:
a) critical length of grade for design
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient
Set No. 68

6. In practice, K – factor is used to convert average annual daily traffic to the 30th
highest annual hourly volume (DHV) and is defined as:
a) DHV/AADT
b) DDHV/ (DxAADT)
c) V/PHF
d) L/A

7. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the


terms “BK” and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say
that:
a) BK means new survey stationing
b) AH means old survey stationing corrected
c) BK means old survey stationing corrected;
AH, new survey stationing
d) Both a and b

8. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of
the following is not used to allow such movement?
a) expansion joints
b) rockers
c) sliding plates
d) rollers

9. For service load design of bridges, the flexural stress in the extreme fiber stress in
compression, fc (in MPa), is:
a) 0.30 f’c
b) 0.40 f’c
c) 0.45 f’c
d) 0.50 f’c

10. The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:
a) 15.24/(L+38); where L=portion of the span loaded for maximum
b) 50/(L+125)
c) 30%
d) 50%

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Set No. 68

11. When considering wind or earthquake forces either acting alone or in combination
with vertical loads, all allowable stresses and soil-bearing value for working stress
design may be increased by:
a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 3/4

12. In foundation design, the allowable load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing
the ultimate bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 1 to 2
d) 2 to 3

13. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the
water surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a) freeboard
b) headwater depth
c) trailwater depth
d) scour depth

14. Culvert flow under entrance control is synonymous with flow under:
a) outlet control
b) inlet control
c) submerged outlet
d) normal depth greater than barrel height

15. For creeks in urban and rural areas and not subject to overbank flows, a minimum
easement to be provided measured from the edge of the existing bank or the
improved bank should be:
a) 3.0 m
b) 4.0 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 20.0 m

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Set No. 68

16. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the
range of:
a) 0.2 – 0.5 1/m2
b) 0.2 – 0.7 1/m2
c) 0.15 – 0.7 1/m2
d) 0.15 – 0.5 1/m2

17. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:
a) Over saturation with water
b) Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c) Dry soil
d) Cold weather

18. What is the accepted proportion mixture of lime to be added to the soil aggregate
(dry soil), in a Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)?
a) 2 to 10 mass percent
b) 4 to 15 mass percent
c) 3 to 18 mass percent
d) 3 to 12 mass percent

19. What is the accepted proportion mixture of cement to be added to the soil aggregate
(dry soil) in a Portland Cement Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 204)?
a) 4 to 20 mass percent
b) 6 to 10 mass percent
c) 5 to 12 mass percent
d) 3 to 12 mass percent

20. What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the
materials and efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor
will use?
a) about 500 sq.m.
b) about 400 sq.m.
c) about 100 sq.m.
d) about 600 sq.m.

21. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate
subbase course?
a) ± 20 mm
b) ± 10 mm
c) ± 30 mm
d) ± 15 mm
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Set No. 68

22. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate
base course?
a) ± 20 mm
b) ± 15 mm
c) ± 25 mm
d) ± 10 mm

23. What should the condition of the tack coat be before the next course is applied?
a) wet
b) sticky
c) plastic
d) dry

24. Concrete mix not place within minutes from the time ingredients were
charged into the mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a) 90
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15

25. What is the minimum allowable/required atmospheric temperature in the application


of Item 305 bituminous material?
a) 5 OC
b) 10 OC
c) 12 OC
d) 15 OC

26. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before
patching using cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a) ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b) prevent pumping
c) minimize spalling
d) prevent faulting

27. Repainting of steel bridges is an activity under:


a) special maintenance
b) preventive maintenance
c) routine maintenance
d) periodic maintenance

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Set No. 68

28. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to
make them denser and grow straight?
a) pruning
b) grafting
c) felling
d) budding
29. The equivalent physical measurement used in the determination of the cost of
maintenance of our national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:
a) lane kilometer
b) equivalent kilometer unit
c) equivalent maintenance kilometer
d) standard kilometer unit

30. The maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and
shrubs should be left uncut is:
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 400 mm

31. Concrete class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall
maintain a slump between:
a) 5 and 10 cm
b) 10 and 20 cm
c) 20 and 30 cm
d) 30 and 40 cm

32. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a
minimum period of how many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7

33. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject
to manual dropping by not more than _ and where no other special tools
and means are used.
a) 3.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 1.5 m
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Set No. 68

34. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a) 2000 kg
b) 1500 kg
c) 1800 kg
d) 1700 kg

35. What is the allowable minimum penetration of piles in firm material?


a) 4.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3.0 m
d) 2.0 m

36. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction
from its location shown in the approved plans?
a) 75 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm

37. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone,
other schemes are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Water jets
b) Pilot holes
c) Both jet and holes
d) Square hole

38. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments
that have an indication of scouring and erosion?
a) Shotcreting
b) Underpinning
c) Riveting
d) Plastering

39. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair
work starts, with exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion on thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking

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Set No. 68

40. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?


a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson

41. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span
of 8 meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

42. What do you call the additional support on steel sheet piles to support embankment
of the abutment of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase load safety
factor against overturning?
a) Dead man
b) Pile
c) Bridge panel
d) Cross bracing

43. A project is about to be started, but the as-staked plan shows a reduction in length or
shortening of the proposed structure. What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Issue Notice to Proceed and disregard the as-staked survey
b) Proceed with work, reflect the underrun in the as-built plan
c) Suspend work and request for review if redesign is needed
d) Recheck the as-staked plan

44. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:


a) Pick and shovel
b) Ripper
c) Road grader
d) Bulldozer

45. You are assigned as a new Project Engineer on an almost completed spillway
project and you found out per field survey that the spillway elevation is lower by
one meter. What should you do?
a) Accept the project as is
b) Require the contractor to redo the spillway
c) Install corresponding ogee
d) Reprimand the former Project Engineer

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Set No. 68

46. Which of the following structures is constructed parallel to the flow of the river?
a) Spurdike
b) Revetment
c) Mini dam
d) Groin

47. Dams are hydraulic structures constructed to:


a) Increase conveyance capacity of the river
b) Arrest scouring on meandering river sections
c) Protect river banks from heavy run-off
d) Retard flood runoff and minimize effect of flash floods

48. Which of the following complements as a regulating flood control structure:


a) main canal
b) weir or control gate
c) drainage lateral
d) groin and spurdike
49. In embankment works, which of the following is undertaken first?
a) Clearing and grubbing
b) Excavation of core trench
c) As-stake survey works
d) Construction of the impervious fill

50. Before actual construction of a dam is started, which of the following should be
secured first?
a) Maintenance of access road
b) Delivery of construction materials
c) Stripping of ground surface
d) Installation of safety requirements

51. If the void ratio (e) of a soil is 1, the porosity (n) is equal to:
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %

52. What is the apparatus used in determining the consistency of a liquid asphalt?
a) penetrometer
b) Viscometer
c) Thermometer
d) viscometric meter
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Set No. 68

53. Which of the following is not a quality test for cement?


a) Compressive strength
b) Loss of ignition
c) Soundness
d) California Bearing Ratio

54. What Kind of joint is required to be constructed when there is an interruption of


more than 30 minutes in the concreting operations of a road pavement?
a) longitudinal
b) transverse expansion
c) transverse contraction
d) transverse construction

55. Which of the following project documents attests that the materials incorporated
into the project works corresponds to the quantity accomplished and conform with
specifications?
a) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance
b) Quality Control Program
c) Notice to Proceed
d) Statement of Work Accomplished

56. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if their
average strength is equal to:
a) at least 85% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c
b) at least 75% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
c) at least 85% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
d) at least 75% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c

57. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a


concrete pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a) 40 mm (1½ inches)
b) 50 mm (2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2½ inches)
d) 75 mm (3 inches)

58. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average
strength of all sets of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the
specified strength and when no individual strength test result is deficient by more
than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550 psi

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Set No. 68

59. For a compacted pavement, what does the stability value in the Marshall test
measure?
a) cohesion resistance
b) resistance to displacement
c) diametric distortion
d) skid resistance

60. If the required thickness of Item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and
compacted in layer (s).
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Uniform
61. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non-plastic, what Atterberg limit test can
be performed.
a) Plastic limit
b) Liquid limit
c) Shrinkage limit
d) Both a and b

62. The plasticity Index (PI) required for Item 201, Aggregate Base Course materials,
should not be greater than:
a) 8 %
b) 12 %
c) 6 %
d) 9 %

63. When the grading test results of the three (3) stockpiles are not in accordance with
Item 201 requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a) Replace the three (3) stockpiles with quality Item 201 materials
b) Blend the three (3) stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the
specified grading
c) Allow the use of the materials provided corresponding deduction in payment
will be affected
d) Increase the thickness of Item 201

64. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the
following criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) Drainage facilities is well - maintained
b) Location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) Existing base course is stable
d) Flood-prone road section

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Set No. 68

65. After three weeks of completion, the asphalt overlay exhibited reflection cracking.
What will you recommend to correct the said defect?
a) apply seal coat
b) apply additional bituminous mix
c) redo the construction of the asphalt overlay
d) apply cover aggregates

66. Soil classification is determined by:


a) Atterberg limits tests
b) Sieve analysis test
c) Hydrometer test
d) a and b

67. The Item No. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement in the DPWH Standard
Specification is:
a) 200
b) 201
c) 310
d) 311

68. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for Item 311 (Portland
Cement Concrete Pavement) is:
a) 500 psi
b) 550 psi
c) 3000 psi
d) 3,500 psi

69. To protect portland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently
hardened, the contractor should be required to have at all times any of the following
materials with the exception of:
a) metal form or wood planks
b) burlaps or cotton mats
c) plastic sheeting material
d) plastic water stops

70. The minimum testing requirement of concrete for Item 405 is the compressive
strength test on concrete cylinder samples consisting of a set of 3 concrete cylinder
samples to represent not more than:
a) 50 m3 of concrete
b) 75 m3 of concrete
c) 100 m3 of concrete
d) 125 m3 of concrete
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Set No. 68

71. What is the minimum cement content (40 kg/bag) per cubic meter of class B
concrete?
a) 8 bags
b) 9 bags
c) 9.5 bags
d) 11 bags

72. In laying stone components of Item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap) each stone
should be:
a) Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b) Pitched to line along the beds and joints
c) Laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm

73. What is Item 506 in the DPWH Standard Specification?


a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Stone masonry
d) Riprap and grouted riprap

74. In the DPWH Standard Specifications, what is the Item no. of Embankment?
a) 100
b) 102
c) 104
d) 106

75. What is the required minimum field density for embankment materials?
a) 85 %
b) 90 %
c) 95 %
d) 100 %

76. Who supervises the work and tests employed in project implementation?
a) Project Inspector
b) Contractor’s Engineer
c) Materials Engineer
d) Project Engineer

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Set No. 68

77. Who recommends actions to resolve problems during field implementation of a


project?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Resident Engineer

78. Who gives orders to equipment operators, labor foremen and supply controllers in
the work operations at the project site?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer

79. In PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is


called:
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) Reduction

80. Which of the following need not be resorted to when compressing the duration of a
project?
a) Use of two-shift work force
b) Use of advanced construction technology
c) Use of additional equipment
d) Use of additional materials

81. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment


oriented), which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-Way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

82. In a PERT/CPM network, this is the sequence of activities in the project that
comprises the longest time duration from start to finish:
a) Early Finish
b) Late Finish
c) Critical Path
d) Zero Slack
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Set No. 68

83. In project monitoring of a river channel, which of the following is the origin station
(Sta. 0+000) of a river?
a) at the river bank
b) at the uppermost station
c) at the confluence station
d) at the mouth of the river

84. If a contractor continues to disregard agreed project plans and specifications, what
rec ommendation should you prepare?
a) Contract suspension
b) Termination of contract
c) Rescission of contract
d) Blacklisting of contractor

85. The catch-up schedule reflects:


a) Financial expenditures
b) Accomplishment-duration relationship
c) The advance accomplishment
d) Preliminary engineering activities

86. For reference in the preparation of catch-up plans the following are the prevailing
weather conditions in the Philippines with the exception of:
a) Two pronounced seasons, dry from November to April, wet during
the rest of the year
b) No dry season, with a very pronounced maximum rainfall from
November to January
c) Dry and rainy season is equally distributed throughout the year
d) Rainfall more or less distributed throughout the year

87. If a project is started more than 8 months after the bidding, the contractor is entitled to
claim for:
a) Bonus
b) Additional advance payment
c) Price adjustment
d) Extra work order

88. After the final inspection of a reported 100% accomplished project, before a certificate
of final inspection is issued, which of the following should be conducted in the field:
a) Emergency Conference
b) Exit Conference
c) Pre-construction Conference
d) Turn-over Ceremony

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Set No. 68

89. In an inspection report, aside from the findings, which is the most important item to
be included?
a) duration of inspection
b) members of the inspectorate team
c) copy of the memorandum to inspectorate team
d) recommendation of possible actions to be undertaken
90. A logbook contains the following data with the exception of:
a) activities done during the day
b) materials delivered and used for the day
c) the day’s weather condition
d) survey data

91. What formula is used in computing price escalation?


a) No loss – no gain formula
b) Economic Formula
c) Parametric Formula
d) Parabolic Formula

92. Where do we base and reckon the computation of contract price escalation of a
project that is awarded thru public bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Effectivity of the contract
c) Date of approval of the contract
d) Date of bidding

93. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price escalation of a
project that is awarded thru simplified bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Date of bidding
c) Approval of the contract
d) None of the above

94. What is the allowable variance from the original unit price, so that a contract will be
entitled to contract price escalation?
a) Less than 2 %
b) Less than 5 %
c) More than 5 %
d) Less than 3 %

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Set No. 68

95. The government may rescind the contract work if there is:
a) Delay in the payment of contractor’s claim for billing
b) Existing right-of-way problem
c) Undue delay attributable solely to the contractor
d) Adverse peace and order conditions

96. From the time of project was bid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many
calendar days is required for a project to be entitled to contract priced adjustment?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
d) 150
97. Under which of the following conditions must a change order not be issued?
a) Where there is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items
b) Where there is reclassification of item of works
c) Where the aggregate cost has increased and is limited to 25 % of the original
cost
d) Where there is increase in cost in construction materials
98. Which of the following is not considered a Variation Order?
a) Change Order
b) Extra Work Order
c) Resume Order
d) Supplemental Agreement

99. A project with delays due to reasons beyond the control of the contractor may be
granted a time extension if the affected works, as shown in the PERT/CPM diagram,
are:
a) dummy activities
b) critical activities
c) non-critical activities
d) hammock activities

100. If after fifty (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on
schedule no additional retention should be made otherwise the progress payment
should be imposed a retention rate of:
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 20 %

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Set No. 82
1. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be
less than what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the
AASHTO method?
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 98%
d) 100%

3. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:


a) Establish a smooth riding surface.
b) Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway.
c) Provide boundary line for the two lanes.
d) Plant grass for sodding.

5. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular


base, what liquid asphalt is applied?
a) seal coat
b) tack coat
c) prime coat
d) epoxy coat

7. The process of maintaining sufficient moisture and favorable temperature in concrete


is called:
a) consolidation
b) shrinkage
c) curing
d) evaporation

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Set No. 82

8. A supplemental agreement may be entered into when the aggregate amount of the
variation order:
a) exceeds 25 % but less than 100 % of the escalated original contract price
b) does not exceed 25 % of the escalated original contract price
c) exceeds 100 % of the escalated original contract price
d) is limited to 25 % of the escalated original contract price

9. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a


project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

10. How often can progress payment be requested by a contractor?


a) once a month
b) twice a month
c) as soon as an item of work is completed
d) as often as he desires

11. The Atterberg Limit Tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no.
a) 4 (4.75 mm)
b) 16 (1.18 mm)
c) 40 (0.425 mm)
d) 200 (0.075 mm)

12. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:


a) Sieve Analysis Test
b) Hydrometer Test
c) Plastic Limit Test
d) Liquid Limit Test

13. What is the single vertical datum to which elevation for all infrastructure projects
should be referred to?
a) Mean Sea Level
b) 10.47 m below mean Sea Level
c) 10.00 below mean Lower Low Water
d) Mean Lower Low Water

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Set No. 82

15. How many core samples should be taken for thickness determination of a 2-
kilometer, 2-lane concrete road pavement?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

16. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a
minimum thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

17. What is Item 504 in the DPWH Standard Specification?


a) Structural Concrete
b) Prestressed Concrete
c) Riprap and Grouted Riprap
d) Stone Masonry

18. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is:


a) blacklisted by the agency
b) required to pay liquidated damages
c) allowed to submit bids
d) disallowed to submit bids

19. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for tie bars of a PCCP?
a) plain square bars
b) plain round bars
c) deformed square bars
d) deformed round bars

20. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly
set concrete pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

21. Proper storage of cement especially for big quantities stored at the jobsite must
satisfy the following requirement with the exception of:
a) flooring of warehouse should be well above the ground
b) cement sacks should be stacked close together
c) warehouse doors and windows should be closed except when cement is taken
out for use
d) warehouse should be located in an elevated place
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Set No. 82

22. After a typhoon, a dam measuring 250 meters suffered a 40-meter breach equivalent
to P4.8 million. You found out that it is impossible to close the gap before the onset
of rainy months, which may result in total collapse of the dam. If you are the new
Project Engineer, what will you do?
a) risk 3-shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment
b) suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c) armor the breached section with gabion-mattress and spurdike, to utilize gap as
diversion channel
d) introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

23. What is the method of measurement for determining the depth of a river channel?
a) pacing
b) sounding
c) leveling
d) traversing

24. Which of the following is not a flood prevention/mitigation measure?


a) channel improvement
b) dikes
c) spillways
d) reclamation

25. Which of the following is not a function of a groin?


a) it decreases the flow velocity
b) it regulates the flow direction
c) it stabilizes the mountain grade
d) it decreases the scouring effect

26. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5.0 m., that is built across or
spanning a river or waterway?
a) bridge (any type)
b) culvert (pipe or box)
c) viaduct
d) chute

27. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?


a) drainage ditch
b) retaining wall
c) lateral Works
d) pier resting on piles

28. The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:
a) river protection works
b) coastal protection works
c) slope protection works
d) erosion control works
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Set No. 82

29. In a CPM diagram, these are points in time representing the start or completion of
particular activities:
a) activities
b) connectors
c) events
d) dummies

30. In a PERT/CPM network, what is the latest allowable point in time that any event can
occur, and still be on schedule for the scheduled completion of a project?
a) early start
b) early finish
c) late start
d) late finish

31. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an


accomplishment of 95 % or more, which of the following is issued?
a) final inspection certificate
b) acceptance certificate
c) punch list
d) turnover certificate

33. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:


a) volume
b) weight
c) quantity
d) density

34. The amount withheld by the agency equivalent to 10 % of the amount due to a
contractor is referred to as:
a) seed money
b) withholding tax
c) retention money
d) contractor tax

35. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the
design will generally require:
a) spread foundations
b) raft foundations
c) pile foundations
d) caisson foundations

5
Set No. 82

37. What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and
history in the implementation of a project from start to completion?
a) Blue Book
b) History Book
c) Log Book
d) Statement of Work Accomplished (SWA)

40. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following
criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) drainage facilities is well-maintained
b) location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) existing base course is stable
d) flood-prone road section

41. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means:


a) a deductive distance
b) an additive (plus) distance
c) no increase in distance
d) the road length

42. Which of the following modifies specific work items relative to increases/decreases in
the quantities provided for in the original contract?
a) extra work order
b) change order
c) resume order
d) suspension order

6
Set No. 82

43. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of:
a) 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b) 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c) 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d) 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load

44. The following reasons may cause the granting of contract time extension with the
exception of one:
a) exceptionally adverse climate conditions
b) excusable failure of contractor to provide equipment and manpower
c) causes beyond the control of contractor
d) causes of which government is not directly responsible

45. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for item:
a) 306
b) 308
c) 310
d) 311

46. Which of the following documents is not necessary at the project site?
a) Bill of Quantities
b) Plans
c) General Specifications
d) Feasibility Study

7
Set No. 82

50. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a) AADT
b) 30th highest hourly volume
c) service flow
d) highest 15 minute volume

53. Gravity loads usually refer to dead load and live load. Which of the following is not
included in this classification?
a) weight of all permanent components
b) architectural components
c) occupants, furnitures, etc.
d) wind load

54. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods
given below with the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
d) Cantilever Method

55. Which of the following is not a flood damage mitigation measure?


a) reduction of peak flow by reservoirs
b) confinement of the flow by levees, floodwalls
c) flood plain management
d) highway drainage

56. For curve alignment of an internal open waterways (rectangular channel), the wall
height must be at least 0.30 m above the super-elevated water surface for velocities
of 10 meter/second or less. This means that if the super-elevated water level is at
elevation 44.30 m., the top of the channel wall will be at least at elevation:
a) 44.0 m
b) 44.3 m
c) 44.6 m
d) 44.9 m

8
Set No. 82
57. Since highways cross many natural drainage channels, provision of cross drainage
as given below is necessary. The one not falling under cross drainage is:
a) culverts
b) bridges
c) dips
d) ditches

58. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist
condition and saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

59. What is the most appropriate filling material if you encounter unsuitable roadway
foundation?
a) fine aggregates
b) coarse aggregates
c) broken concrete
d) granular materials

60. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported
by a truck mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not
exceed:
a) 15 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 20 minutes

62. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement
by providing additional and adequate thickness over it?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

63. In riprapping, masonry works and concrete slope protection on side slope, revetment,
etc. Which of the following are provided to serve as water outlet and lateral pressure
reliever on the structure?
a) cut-off wall
b) berm
c) weephole
d) gravel filter

9
Set No. 82

65. In patching works using cold mix (Emulsified Asphalt SS-1 Aggregate Mix), what
color of the mix indicates that it is ready for application?
a) dark brown
b) grayish
c) black
d) blue-white

66. The presence of excessive amount of sulfuric and alkalic materials in water used in
reinforced concrete construction will result to?
a) increase in volume of mix
b) early hardening of concrete
c) corrosion of steel reinforcement
d) whitening of finished surface of concrete

67. What can be done on corners of concrete hollow block walls where no reinforced
concrete column or wall stiffener is required/specified to join them?
a) chipping
b) interlocking
c) epoxy binding
d) bracing

68. What do you call the road near or abutting a bridge?


a) embankment
b) approach
c) abutment
d) apron

69. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles
that should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

70. Which of the following is not included in the types of bridge foundations?
a) spread footing
b) caisson
c) piles
d) bearing shelf

10
Set No. 82

71. Which of the following is not categorized as a type of steel deck used on bridges?
a) steel jack arches
b) open panel
c) stiffened steel
d) close through panel

73. Driving heads of piles are provided to:


a) ensure lateral support to the pile
b) provide a driving surface normal to the pile
c) avoid swaying
d) splice piles

74. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?


a) impervious fill
b) random fill
c) outlet protection works
d) distribution canal

75. Which of the following is not a component of an economic evaluation of flood control
projects?
a) determination of flood discharges
b) determination of estimated amount of damage
c) subsurface investigation
d) economic impact evaluation

76. The particle size distribution of coarse-grained soil is determined by:


a) sieve analysis
b) hydrometer analysis
c) shaking test
d) stripping test

77. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a) 0.5 meter long
b) 1.0 meter long
c) 1.5 meter long
d) 2.0 meter long
78. Under Item 310, the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry
aggregate should be between:
a) 4% to 8%
b) 5% to 8%
c) 3% to 5%
d) 5% to 7%

11
Set No. 82

80. The depth of weakened plane joints should not be less than:
a) 45 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 75 mm

81. Unless otherwise indicated in the plans, mortar for masonry walls should be
composed of one part Portland Cement and:
a) 1 part fine aggregates by volume
b) 1” part fine aggregates by volume
c) 2 parts fine aggregates by volume
d) 2” parts fine aggregates by volume

82. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut
to a depth of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

83. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the resident
engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor’s Engineer

84. Who assists the Project Engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field
operations?
a) Contractor’s Engineer
b) Project Inspector
c) Materials Engineer
d) Resident Engineer

85. The bar chart is also called a:


a) Precedence diagram
b) Gantt chart
c) CPM diagram
d) PERT chart

12
Set No. 82

86. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?


a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) rainy months pre-determined in the area

87. Which of the following is not a construction safety procedure?


a) The sides of deep excavations must be properly shored
b) All openings above ground level must be guarded
c) Operators and mechanics must be required to log-in when operating equipment
d) Workers engaged in clearing must be protected from hazardous plants

88. How much percentage is withheld on the general items until the final acceptance of
the project?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

89. Defective works in a project should be brought to the attention of the contractor by
the resident engineer thru:
a) logbook entry
b) progress billing deduction
c) inspection report
d) site instruction

90. The following are basic documents needed as reference in an assessment of a


project with the exception of:
a) Program of Works
b) Statement of Work Accomplished
c) Certificate of Availability of Funds
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

91. Settlement of right-of-way problems should be done


a) during the construction work
b) after the construction work
c) before the construction work
d) before equipment and manpower mobilization

92. When will the Certificate of Final Inspection be issued?


a) after the supervision team has conducted final inspection
b) after the inter-bureau committee has conducted inspection
c) after the contractor has submitted the final completion request
d) after the one-year warranty period

13
Set No. 82

94. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?


a) Density test
b) Core Boring test
c) California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test
d) Dynamic Cone Penetromenter test

95. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m.
How many Grading and Plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum
testing requirement?
a) 3
b) 5 or 25
c) 7
d) 9

96. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75% (which is 5% less than the minimum
requirement) can still be used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the
following are considered except one:
a) adequate compaction is applied during construction
b) increase the thickness requirement of base course
c) the design is only intended for a barangay road project
d) the foundation contains unsuitable materials

97. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by


an extra work is equivalent to 75% but only 65% is covered under the approved
original contract. Up to what level of progress billing would you allow?
a) up to the total 75% accomplishment
b) below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c) up to the documented value not more than 50%
d) up to the documented value not more than 65%

14
Set No. 82

99. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for sides of
concrete beams and girders, the minimum time before forms and supports are
removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

100. What do you call the method of determining stream discharge by measuring the
cross-sectional area of the stream and its velocity with a current meter?
a) Velocity-Area Method
b) Float Velocity Method
c) Direct Volumetric Method
d) Indirect Method

15
Set No. 85

2. A set of revised drawings shows a grade separation structure at railroad crossing with cross
sections of the railroad taken at 20 m interval and extended at least 50m from both sides of the
centerline. Does the 50m extension conform with survey/design requirements?
a) Yes, 50 m is in order
b) No, it should be 100 m both sides
c) No, it should be 200 m both sides
d) No, 100 m left side and 200 m right side

3. Depth of exploration for a highway project with light cut and fill where there are no special
problems should extend to a maximum depth of:
a) 1.0 m below bottom of subbase
b) 1.5 m below the proposed subgrade
c) 2.0 m below the proposed subgrade
d) 3.0 m below the proposed subgrade

4. For a bridge project, spacing of borings should be made at a minimum of:


a) One deep boring per abutment and pier
b) Two deep borings per abutment and per pier
c) Two deep borings per abutment and an additional one per pier
d) Three deep borings per abutment and pier
Set No. 85

8. The general principles of design of bridges depend on many factors. These may be broadly
unified under the following with the exception of:
a) Selection of site
b) Water discharge
c) Design of bridge
d) Bank protection

10. er bridge design procedures, the design method to be used for columns should preferably be:
a) Service load design
P
b) Working stress design
c) Load factor (ultimate strength) design
d) Both a and b

11. Every building will be designed for lateral seismic forces. As a minimum, the design base shear
(V=ZICW/Rw) will be applied to the structure as a whole and be distributed to the various levels
of the structure. The factor Z (seismicity of the site) as used in the Philippines is:
a) less than 0.2 for Zone 1
b) 0.2 for Zone 2
c) 0.3 for Zone 3
d) 0.4 for Zone 4

2
Set No. 85

14. The minimum distance of extended compaction of road embankment material from the edge of
the designed width should be:
a) 2.00 m
b) 3.00 m
c) 0.50 m
d) 1.00

15. Normally within how many hours can sawing of joints commence given that concrete has
hardened sufficiently?
a) 36
b) 72
c) 12
d) 24

18. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at:


a) top of slope
b) bottom of slope
c) middle of slope
d) any part of the slope

3
Set No. 85

19. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?


a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d) Just enough to put the pipe

20. What will you do if there is evidence of discrepancies on the actual elevation from those
shown in the Plans?
a) Conduct Pre-construction Survey
b) Conduct Parcellary Survey
c) Conduct Geotechnical Survey
d) Conduct Boring Test

21. What is the difference between the Net Volume Suitable Materials Embankment and Net
Volume of Suitable Materials from Excavation?
a) Free haul volume
b) Overhaul volume
c) Unsuitable materials
d) Surplus materials

23. What do you call the collapse of earth and side slope due to slope failure and natural calamity
like earthquake?
a) Denudation
b) Gully erosion
c) Landslide
d) Scouring

4
Set No. 85

25. What do you call the portion of earth or base course the portion of earth or base course
materials left unleveled by a road grader during longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging
26. Resurfacing of unpaved shoulder that has settled or been eroded by traffic and water is an
activity under:
a) preventive maintenance
b) routing maintenance
c) periodic maintenance
d) special maintenance

30. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period
of how many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7

5
Set No. 85

42. Which of the following is not a measure against mudflow?


a) Sabo dams
b ) Retarding basins
c) Cut-off channels
d ) Groundsills

7
Set No. 85

43. You are to recommend measures to minimize inundation on the landside of an overflowing
river. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Reduce the flood inflow to the area by constructing spillways and retarding basins
b) Regulate the land use in the area
c) Install drainage facilities like pumping stations
d) Introduce dredging works

45. During construction of a flood control dam, the proposed spillway was overcut by one meter.
What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Cover the section with excavated materials
b) Continue work and disregard the overcut
c) Suspend work and request for design analysis
d) Blame and blacklist the contractor

46. What kind of cut-off channel is being constructed to carry 10% of a river discharge, and
which subsequently develops capacity of up to 40%?
a) Diversion channel
b) Pilot channel
c) River channel
d) Open channel

47. A proposed flood control project has a mini-hydro electric power component. However, the
area is already being serviced by the National Power Corporation. Which of the following
will be the best action to take?
a) implement all work components
b) locate to other service areas needing power
c) delete the mini-hydro power component
d) abort the implementation of the flood control project

8
Set No. 85

50. The flow curve obtained when the liquid test results are plotted on a semi-log scale is in the
form of a/an:
a) Parabola
b) Straight line
c) Hyperbola
d) Arc

52. A series of almost parallel cracks running longitudinally along bituminous pavement surfaces
is caused by:
a) Volume change of expansive clay subgrade
b) Cyclical weakening of pavement edge
c) Differential settlement between cut and fill
d) All of the above

53. During the curing period, the exposed surfaces of normal cement concrete should be kept
continuously moist for at least:
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

9
Set No. 85

57. How many set/s of in-situ density tests is required in a 1500 square meter compacted
aggregate subbase course?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
58. If the designed thickness of aggregate subbase course is 200 mm, in how many layers may
the material be spread and compacted?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

60. Verification of in-placed Items 200 and 201 materials were conducted thru test pitting. As
Project Inspector, what would you do to best determine whether Item 201 was incorporated in
the project?
a) Determine its soil texture
b) Scrutinize project reports/logbooks
c) Determine the maximum size of aggregates in-place
d) Verify delivery receipts

10
Set No. 85

61. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m. bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 oC lower
than the required compaction temperature of the submitted Job-Mix Formula. As resident
engineer of the project, what decision should you take?
a) allow the spreading and compaction of the material delivered
b) advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only
c) reject the delivered material
d) adjust the job-mix formula

62. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will
have a high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a) Job-Mix formula
b) Marshall Stability Test
c) Immersion-Compression Stability Test
d) Plant-Mix Design

63. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids, it is usually caused by the
following with the exception of:
a) rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b) too much coarse aggregates
c) too little binder
d) too much fine aggregates

64. If permitted by the Engineer, additional water may be added to the batch concrete materials in
truck mixers for portland cement concrete pavements. Additional mixing may be performed
to increase the slump to meet the specified requirement provided that the water-cement ratio
is not exceeded and that the said operations are performed within minutes after the
initial mixing operation.
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90

65. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in
any one location longer than:
a) 10 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 30 seconds

11
Set No. 85

67. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for floor slabs, the
minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 28 days

68. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for concrete walls, the
minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

71. Which Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is not preferable for bituminous mixture in
accordance with the Immersion-Compression Stability Test?
a) 50 %
b) 70 %
c) 75 %
d) 80 %

12
Set No. 85

72. Lumber is considered well-seasoned when its moisture content is between:


a) 5 to 11 %
b ) 12 to 18 %
c) 19 to 25 %
d ) 26 to 32 %

73. In case of emergency, e.g. earthquake, typhoons, or volcanic eruption, what report should a
Project Engineer submit?
a) Executive Report
b) Periodic Report
c) Exception Report
d) Accomplishment Report

74. Who decides on all the questions which arise as to the interpretation of plans and
specifications in the field execution of the project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Materials Engineer
c) Resident Engineer
d) Project Engineer

75. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the Project Engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor’s Engineer

76. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the contract time duration of the project is represented by:
a) Dummy Activities
b) Float
c) Critical Path
d) End event

13
Set No. 85

80. In terms of percentage, how much higher in strength is a well-consolidated concrete


compared to a concrete not thoroughly consolidated?
a) 5 to 10 percent
b ) 10 to 15 percent
c) 15 to 20 percent
d ) 20 to 25 percent

81. During the test run, a mini dam was observed to have a high probability of overtopping due to
increase in river discharge capacity brought about by massive deforestation. Which of the
following is the most logical recommendation?
a) acceptance and keep information to yourself
b) increase in height of dam
c) armoring of the upstream pacing
d) redesign/reconstruction of the spillway structure

83. Concerning delayed project implementation, which of the following is not the fault of the
contractor?
a) delayed preparation of contract documents
b) faulty construction method
c) defective construction equipment
d) undersized construction materials delivered

14
Set No. 85

84. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a) Penalty by way of additional bond
b) Confiscation of surety bond
c) Liquidated damages
d) Withhold progress billing

86. In embankment works involving a 300-meter hauling distance, what is the most efficient
equipment mix?
a) one bulldozer, one payloader, one compactor and one dump truck
b) One bulldozer, one payloader, one grader, and two dump trucks
c) One bulldozer, one payloader, one grader, one compactor and three dump trucks
d) One bulldozer, one payloader and five dump trucks

87. If a project is abandoned by the contractor due to peace and order problems, what
recommendation should immediately be submitted?
a) Rescission of Contract
b) Termination of Contract
c) Contract Suspension
d) Blacklisting of Contractor

88. An Extra Work Order may be issued if:


a) There are additional works necessary but were not included as items of works in the
original contract
b ) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 25% of the original contract
cost
c) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
d ) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 100% of the original contract
cost

15
Set No. 85

90. Which does not fall under the condition when a change order can be issued?
a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b ) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original
contract
d ) There is reclassification of an existing item due to latent conditions which were not
known at the time of bidding

91. A change order may be issued when:


a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b ) The aggregate cost exceeds 25% of the original contract cost
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original
contract
d ) The quantity overruns or underruns in a unit price contract is not more than 15% of the
estimates per major pay item and 25% per minor pay item

92. S elect one not covered by conditions where an extra work order may be issued:
a) Where there are additional works needed for the completion of the project which were
not included as items of work in the original contract
b ) Where there are subsurface or latent physical conditions at the site differing materially
from those indicated in the contract beyond the limit of the change order
c) Where there are unknown physical conditions at the site of an unusual nature beyond the
limits of change order inherent in the work
d ) Where the additional works necessary for the completion of the project is beyond the
limits and the general scope of the project

94. After the issuance of the “Punch List” during the pre-final inspection, what is the time
duration imposed to complete the project without penalties?
a) one month
b) two months
c) three months
d) four months

16
Set No. 85

95. A djustment of contract price of a project may be authorized if:


a) the awarded contract price is below the government estimate
b) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased artificially in the locality
c) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased, due to acts of the
government
d) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased, due to multiple handling

96. Advance payment shall be repaid by deducting from a contractor’s periodic progress
payments an amount equivalent to:
a) 10 %
b) 15 %
c) 20 %
d) 25 %

97. The contract time may be suspended once the project reaches an accomplishment of:
a) 80 %
b) 85 %
c) 90 %
d) 95 %

99. Rivers, esteros and navigating canals, not subject to overbank flows should have a minimum
easement measured from the edge of the existing bank or the improved bank of:
a) 4.5 m
b) 5.5 m
c) 20.0 m
d) 40.0 m

100. What does scoured depth refer to?


a) Total change in elevation of works
b) Total depth of water from surface to a scoured bed level
c) Depth of scour
d) Backwater depth

17
Set No. 86

5. Gradients are categorized into four as listed below. Which of the following is also known as
design gradient?
a) minimum gradient
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient
Set No. 86

10. In general, the minimum concrete cover for primary reinforcement of concrete not exposed to
weather or in contact with the ground should be:
a) 25 mm
b) 38 mm
c) 51 mm
d) 76 mm
11. A given reinforced concrete girder may be subject at one time to positive span moments and at
another to negative span moments. To withstand both types of moments, the girder must be
designed such that tensile steel must be furnished at:
a) the top only
b) the bottom only
c) both the top and bottom
d) the support only

2
Set No. 86

13. F or drainage mains and outfalls, the discharge should be computed by the use of:
a) Rational Formula
b) Talbot’s Formula
c) Manning Equation for Discharge
d) Synthetic Unit Hydrographs

14. The maximum spacing of manholes for circular conduits should be:
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 50 m
d) 150 m

3
Set No. 86

24. The water from the pavement surface is removed by providing which of the following to the
pavement?
a) weep hole
b) drain hole
c) cross drain
d) camber or cross slope

4
Set No. 86

25. What is the method used in constructing an embankment over a low swampy ground that
cannot support the mass of truck loads and other hauling equipment?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

26. What do you call the portion of earth or base course materials left unleveled by a road grader
during longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging

29. Vegetation control along highways should be undertaken from the outer edge of the shoulder
to:
a) Outer edge of side ditch lined canal
b) Center of side ditch
c) Outer edge of shoulder only
d) Road-right-of-way limit

5
Set No. 86

40. Which of the following is not included in the exploration of foundation strata?
a) Driving test rods
b ) Boring with auger
c) Drilling test hole
d ) Nuclear density test

41. What is the usual measure undertaken to stop a river from changing its path?
a) shore protection works
b ) river training works
c) bank seat
d ) wing wall

7
Set No. 86

43. What is the allowable minimum thickness of bedding material beneath a concrete pipe?
a) 50 mm
b) 60 mm
c) 70 mm
d) 100 mm

44. Which of the following is not a result of river mouth improvement works?
a) Easier navigation
b) Ensuring easy maintenance in the future
c) Giving natural balance to the river
d) Fast river bed deposition

45. What do you call the limit of drainage of a river system?


a) Service area
b) Project area
c) Drainage area
d) Confluence area

46. What do you call the total covering area of a river system?
a) River basin
b) Drainage area
c) Service area
d) Flooded area

47. Which of the following factors does not affect the stability of an embankment?
a) Active earth pressure
b) Translatory slide
c) Lateral forces
d) Wind load

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Set No. 86

51. When the average thickness of the concrete pavement per lot is deficient by 5 mm, payment
for the lot should be:
a) 100 %
b) Adjusted to 95%
c) Adjusted to 90%
d) Adjusted to 85%

52. Soil will have greater strength if its particles are:


a) Uniformly graded
b) Well-graded
c) One-sized
d) Gap-graded

53. Clay can be made plastic by:


a) air-drying
b) adjusting its water content
c) Continuous rolling
d) pulverizing

9
Set No. 86

56. Ordinarily, what is the absolute volume of cement in a concrete mix?


a) 7 to 14 percent
b) 15 to 20 percent
c) 21 to 25 percent
d) 26 to 32 percent

59. If 95% of a soil passes the No. 200 mm sieve, its particle size distribution is best determined
by:
a) Hydrometer Analysis
b) Sieve Analysis
c) Combination of a and b
d) Atterberg Limit Test

60. In Item 200 – Aggregate Subbase Course, the fraction passing the 0.425 mm (No. 40) sieve
should have a liquid limit not greater than:
a) 25 %
b) 35 %
c) 40 %
d) 50 %

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Set No. 86

63. A rehabilitation of asphalt pavement is undertaken by a District Office. Per approved


program of work, Item 201 was included in the pay items. However, during construction, the
Materials Engineer certified that the existing base course material is still of good quality. As
project/resident engineer, what is the best recommendation?
a) Remove and replace the existing base course material as required in the approved
program of work
b ) Provide additional Item 201 materials for correction purposes and prepare corresponding
change order
c) Deduct from payment due to the contractor the corresponding amount equivalent to the
total volume of Item 201 that was not incorporated into the works
d ) b and c

11
Set No. 86

69. The depth and width of weakened plane joints should not be more and
of corrugations during brooming operation of a concrete pavement should not be
more than:
a) 2.5 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively
b) 2.0 mm and 1.0 mm, respectively
c) 1.0 mm and 3.0 mm, respectively
d) 3.0 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively

70. What class of structural concrete is generally used for footings, pedestals, massive pier shafts,
pipe bedding, and gravity walls?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

71. What class of structural concrete is generally used for reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast
piles, cribbing and for filler in steel grid floors?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

12
Set No. 86

73. What is Item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specification?


a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Riprap and grouted riprap
d) Stone masonry

74. Rock used in gabions shall consists of hard, durable rock pieces that will not deteriorate when
submerged in water or exposed to severe weather condition, and should be uniformly graded
in sizes ranging from:
a) 50 mm to 100 mm
b ) 101 mm to 200 mm
c) 201 mm to 300 mm
d ) 301 mm to 400 mm

75. In laying the stone components of Item 506 (Stone Masonry), the exposed faces of the
individual stones should be:
a) Perpendicular to the faces of the walls
b) Parallel to the faces of the walls
c) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 100 mm

77. Who has the full power and authority to supply to the contractor, during the progress of
works, additional plans and instructions?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

13
Set No. 86

78. Who has the authority to reject questionable materials or suspend the work until it is refereed
and decided upon by the project engineer?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer

80. Which of the following scheduling features does not describe the bar chart?
a) Shows start and end dates of activities
b) Indicates estimated duration of each activity
c) Allows comparison of actual and planned progress
d) Identifies activity relationship

83. Being a Project Inspector, you are asked to monitor the on-going construction of a revetment.
Which of the following should have the highest elevation?
a) Normal water level
b) Maximum experienced flood level
c) Existing bank level
d) Headwall level

14
Set No. 86

84. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
a) seed money
b) progress payment
c) mobilization costs
d) representation costs

89. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment
of 95% or more, which of the following is issued?
a) Final Inspection Certificate
b) Acceptance Certificate
c) Punch List
d) Turnover Certificate

15
Set No. 86

90. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a) Bar Charts
b) Executive Summary
c) Weather Charts
d) Photographs

91. The procurement process for the opening of bids up to the award of contract shall not exceed:
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

16
Set No. 86

98. A variation orders may be in the form of the following except:


a) Extra Work Order
b) Change Order
c) Supplemental Agreement
d) None of the above

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Set No. 87

53. The water content at which the soil passes from a plastic state to a liquid state is
called:
a) 40 mm (1 1/2 inches)
b) 50 mm (2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2 1/2 inches)
d) 75 mm (3 inches)

10
Set No. 87

63. The Plasticity Index requirement for Aggregate Base Course should not be greater
than:
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 10

11

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