MIDTERM EXAMINATION

PERSONAL DEVELOPMENT
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

Score: _______
Name: ______________________ August ____, 2019
Grade 11 – GAS Parent’s Signature: ______________

General Directions: Read and analyze each item contained in this examination. Write your answers on the space before
each number. Erasure means wrong.

I. Multiple Choice.
Directions: Read the following statements and choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your answers on the
space provided.

_____ 1. The following are elements of self EXCEPT __________.

a. Sensations b. Emotions c. Curiosity d. Body
_____ 2. No two individuals are exactly alike means ___________.
a. Twins have the same characteristics
b. You may have the same qualities as your brother, but there are certain things that only you or he can do
c. Because your characteristics are similar to your father’s, you can do what he can exactly do
d. Your mother has a fair skin complexion and so you inherited this physical characteristic
_____ 3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a teenager who is aware of his or her strengths?
a. Shy b. Competent c. Dependable d. Emotionally mature
_____ 4. Which statement is NOT true about becoming more aware of oneself?
a. You become more appreciative of yourself. b. You become dependent to others.
c. You value relationships with others. d. You learn that respect to self and others is important.
_____ 5. By knowing yourself more, you ___________.
a. Can better cope with the demands of life b. May be influenced by your peers
c. Find it more difficult to change your habits d. Tend to easily give up
_____ 6. Which is NOT true about personal observations about yourself?
a. You need to pause for a while. b. You have to reflect on your thoughts and feelings.
c. You need to think of how others see you. d. You should examine the decisions you make.
_____ 7. Listening to the feedback of others is important because ________.
a. It is difficult to describe who you really are b. It allows you to validate your perception about yourself
c. Their ideas are better than yours d. You cannot trust your own judgment about yourself
_____ 8. Negative criticisms are helpful if you ________.
a. Accepts them constructively b. Consult your counselor or a trusted friend about them
c. Become smart in identifying the validity of d. All of the above
criticism
_____ 9. You may further develop your knowledge and skills through _______________.
a. Effective time management b. Stress management programs
c. Effective study habits d. All of the above
_____ 10. Which is not a characteristic of cognitive development during adolescence?
a. Tendency to ask a lot of questions b. Tendency to question parents’ style of upbringing
c. Tendency to look for deeper meanings d. All of the above
_____ 11. Emotional maturity is achieved during ________.
a. Puberty b. End of adolescence
c. Adulthood d. Early adolescence
_____ 12. Which DOES NOT relate to control emotional maturity?
a. Acting impulsively b. Expressing emotions in a socially acceptable manner
c. Thinking critically before making any decisions d. Remaining composed despite annoyance
_____ 13. Adolescents tend to participate more in social gatherings. What does this statement mean?
a. Social competence of teenagers is enhanced b. Teenagers become confident in their talents and
abilities
c. Social insights of teenagers improved d. All of the above
_____ 14. Which statement indicates that post conventional reasoning among adolescents is achieved?
a. They begin to question their parents’ moral beliefs b. They consult their peers about certain acceptable
standards
c. They can stand for what they believe is right d. They conform to the standards for their peers
_____ 15. What would adolescents likely suffer from when they act upon someone’s request or demand even though it goes against
their principles or moral beliefs?
a. Self-blame b. Self-condemnation
c. Self-devaluation d. Self-assurance
_____ 16. Psychologists believe that our thoughts influence our feelings and behaviors. Which of the following best illustrates this
statement?
a. My parents love me, so I feel frustrated when they do not allow me to attend parties.
b. Coming late to class means that I should wake up earlier next time.
c. When the teacher calls my attention because I am talkative, it means that she is concerned with my personal growth.
d. If I fail in quiz, then I should study harder next time.
_____ 17. Which statement illustrates emotional stability?
a. You can evade certain situations b. You can express emotions in a socially acceptable
manner.
c. You can confront people. d. You can ignore the person who hurt you.
_____ 18. Which statement best describes the developmental tasks of adolescents?
a. They follow a sequential order b. Rapid growth is experienced by adolescents
c. Girls mature faster than boys d. Boys differ from girls in terms of developmental tasks
_____ 19. The ability to accept one’s body and the ability to think more responsibly of one’s body are developmental tasks during
which stage?
a. Middle adolescence b. Early adolescence
c. Late adolescence d. Puberty
_____ 20. Which is NOT true about middle adolescence?
a. You achieve feminine or masculine social role. b. It is from age 13 to 16 years
c. You put away your childish ways d. You become more independent
_____ 21. Which statement shows that you become more adept in social settings?
a. You are able to make new friends. b. You are capable of establishing intimate relationships
c. You find support from others d. All of the above.
_____ 22. Which is a characteristic of the adolescents of today?
a. Having an “instant” culture b. Tech-savvy
c. Being materialistic d. All of the above
_____ 23. Because of modern technology, teenagers can easily access information. Which of the following illustrates the
possible negative side effects of modern technology?
a. Access to pornography b. Limited social interaction
c. Instant relationships d. All of the above
_____ 24. How does today’s generation differ from older generations?
a. Style of living b. Courtship rituals c. Values/belief systems d. All of the above
_____ 25. Which is the most important building block of responsibility?
a. Self-regulation b. Self-esteem c. Self-control d. Self-discipline
_____ 26. Which of the following behaviors DO NOT illustrate accountability?
a. Blaming others b. Coming prepared to class
c. Studying your lessons every day d. Doing your part on an assigned group project
_____ 27. What is your ability to understand how others feel called?
a. Sympathy b. Conscience c. Accountability d. Empathy
_____ 28. Why do some teenagers run away from home?
a. They feel unhappy at home b. They think that their parents cannot understand them
c. Running away is a way to get what they want d. All of the above
_____ 29. DOH data on HIV indicate that the most number of persons infected are ______.
a. Adults b. Teenagers c. Males d. Females
_____ 30. Which is NOT a characteristic of computer game addicts?
a. Neglect time orientation b. Enjoying eating while playing computer games
c. Prefer to stay in the computer d. Forget to take a bath or brush their teeth
_____ 31. Which is a characteristic symptom of a marked diminished in interest or pleasure in all activities of the day?
a. Anxiety b. Social disorder c. Drug abuse d. Depression
_____ 32. Common causes of suicide include ________.
a. Self-blame b. Hopelessness c. Low self-esteem d. All of the above
_____ 33. Which is considered as one of the most difficult challenges during adolescence?
a. Finding friends who can positively influence your b. Proving yourself to your parents
behaviors
c. Successfully forming your identity d. Becoming academically successful
_____ 34. Rejection during adolescence is inevitable. What is likely result of this if rejection is not properly handled?
a. Low self-esteem b. Depression
c. Negative attitudes toward self d. All of the above
_____ 35. Neglect of responsibilities is one of the behavioral manifestations of stress. Which of the following illustrates neglect of
responsibility?
a. Sleeping too little b. Eating less nutritious food
c. Not doing your homework d. Becoming easily irritated
_____ 36. What happens when adolescents fail to master self-control?
a. They are likely to engage in risky behaviors b. They may not be able to express their ideas well.
c. They can negatively influence others. d. They may not be able to pursue a career.
_____ 37. Which is NOT an emotional symptom of stress?
a. Irritation b. Moodiness c. Depression d. Computer gaming
_____ 38. Which is essential in successfully coping with stress?
a. Attitude b. Skills c. Knowledge d. Behavior
_____ 39. When you manage your time well, you may _______.
a. Experience more stress b. Be able to handle your stress better
c. Encounter more challenges d. Experience irritation
_____ 40. What should you do to become more motivated in your studies?
a. Clarify your goals. b. Manage your time well.
c. Deal with your stressors d. Establish effective study habits
_____ 41. What do you usually feel when you face personal and academic pressure?
a. Overwhelmed b. Excited c. Happy d. Curious
_____ 42. Sufficient amounts of _______ is produced by the brain when you perform deep breathing exercises.
a. Energy b. Carbon dioxide c. Oxygen d. Gas
_____ 43. Which is NOT considered as a strategy to relax your muscles?
a. Getting a massage b. Taking a nap c. Talking a hot shower d. Running
_____ 44. When do you achieve catharsis?
a. When you cry b. When you talk to someone
c. When you release pent-up emotions d. All of the above
_____ 45. Which is NOT an executive function of the brain?
a. Monitoring higher-order thinking b. Recognizing objects
c. Directing problem solving d. Regulating the excess of the emotional system
_____ 46. What part of the brain DOES NOT participate in the control of body movement?
a. Occipital lobe b. Cerebellum c. Motor cortex d. All of the above
_____ 47. What comprises the brain stem?
a. Hindbrain b. Right hemisphere c. Left hemisphere d. None of the above
_____ 48. What is the part of the brain that is responsible for alertness?
a. Thalamus b. Hypothalamus c. Reticular activating d. Amygdala
system
_____ 49. What is the function of the limbic system?
a. Generating b. Monitoring c. Storing memory of d. Monitoring vital
emotions impulses automatic movements body functions
_____ 50. What is neurogenesis?
a. Production of brain b. Generation of c. Death of brain parts d. Production of blood
cells new neurons cells
_____ 51. Where is the emotional element of a memory stored?
a. Thalamus b. Amygdala c. Cerebrum d. Hippocampus
_____ 52. The cerebellum _________.
a. Participates in b. Coordinates c. Is a highly organized d. All of the above
automatic movement brain structure
movements
_____ 53. Which refers to your state or condition that is free from mental or emotional disorders?
a. Physical well-being b. Emotional health
c. Mental health problems d. Physical balance
_____ 54. Which is NOT considered a form of mental disorder?
a. Anxiety b. Depression c. Laziness d. Personality
_____ 55. Which means “split mind”?
a. Schizophrenia b. Perception c. Abnormality d. Illness
_____ 56. Which is characterized by an excessive emotionality and attention seeking behaviors?
a. Anti-social b. Histrionic c. Narcissistic d. Avoidant
_____ 57. Which type of personality disorder is characterized by perfectionism and preoccupation with cleanliness?
a. Dependent b. Obsessive c. Narcissistic d. Avoidant
_____ 58. Which is sometimes referred as pathological because individuals can no longer control their Internet use?
a. Computer Addiction b. Drug addiction c. Drug dependence d. Drug abuse
_____ 59. Which disorder is characterized by individuals displaying deviant behaviors, being oversensitive or insensitive, rigid,
and self-centered, or having extravagant illusions?
a. Drug dependency b. Conduct addiction c. Personality disorder d. Computer disorder
_____ 60. Which type of mental disorder is characterized by excessive fear and anxiety and related behavioral disturbance?
a. Depressive disorder b. Anxiety disorder
c. Bipolar disorder d. Addiction

Prepared by:

JOMAR M. NARVAS
Teacher II

Noted by:

DANILO L. LEUTERIO
Principal III

2>1+1
“The whole is greater than the sum of its parts.”
-Gestalt
 MIDTERM EXAMINATION
PERSONAL DEVELOPMENT
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

TABLE OF SPECIFICATION

No. of Days
Learning Competencies No. of Items Item Placement
Taught
Explain that knowing oneself can make a person accept
his/her strengths and limitations and dealing with others
better (EsP-PD11/12KO-Ia-1.1)
6 9 1–9
Share his/her unique characteristics, habits, and
experiences
(EsP-PD11/12KO-Ia-1.2)
Discuss the relationship among physiological, cognitive,
psychological, spiritual, and social development to
understand his/her thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
(EsP-PD11/12DWP-Ib-2.1)

Evaluate his/her own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors 5 8 10 – 17

(EsP-PD11/12DWP-Ib-2.2)

Show the connections between thoughts, feelings, and

behaviors in actual life situations (EsP-PD11/12DWP-Ic-
2.3)
Classify various developmental tasks according to
developmental stage (EsP-PD11/12DS-Ic-3.1)

Evaluate one’s development in comparison with persons

6 10 18 - 27
of the same age group (EsP-PD11/12DS-Id-3.2)

List ways to become a responsible adolescent prepared

for adult life (EsP-PD11/12DS-Id-3.3)
Discuss that facing the challenges during adolescence
may able to clarify and manage the demands of teen
years (EsP-PD11/12CA-Id-4.1)

Express his/her feelings on the expectations of the

significant people around him/her (parents, siblings, 5 7 28 - 34
friends, teachers, community leaders) (EsP-
PD11/12CA-Ie-4.2)

Make affirmations that help one become more lovable

and capable as an adolescent (EsP-PD11/12CA-Ie-4.3)
Discuss that understanding stress and its sources during
adolescence may help in identifying ways to cope and
have a healthful life (EsP-PD11/12CS-If-5.1)

Identify sources of one’s stress and illustrate the effect of 4 6 35 – 40

stress on one’s system (EsP-PD11/12CS-If-5.2)

Demonstrate personal ways of coping with stress for

healthful living (EsP-PD11/12CS-Ig-5.3)
Discuss that understanding the left and right brain may
help in improving one’s learning (EsP-PD11/12PM-Ig-
6.1)
Explore two types of mind-mapping techniques, each 6 12 41 – 52
suited to right brain- or left brain-dominant thinking styles
(EsP-PD11/12PM-Ig-h-6.2)

Make a plan to improve learning using left and right brain

through mind-mapping activities (EsP-PD11/12PM-Ih-
6.3)
Interpret the concepts of mental health and psychological
well-being in everyday observations about mental health
problems during adolescence (EsP-PD11/12MHWB-Ih-
7.1)

Identify his/her own vulnerabilities (EsP-

PD11/12MHWB-Ii-7.2) 4 7 53 - 60

Make a mind map on ways of achieving psychological

well-being (EsP-PD11/12MHWB-Ii-7.3)

Create a plan to stay mentally healthy during

adolescence (EsP-PD11/12MHWB-Ii-7.4)
TOTAL 32 days 60 items 60

Prepared by:

JOMAR M. NARVAS
Teacher II

Noted by:

DANILO L. LEUTERIO
Principal III
 MIDTERM EXAMINATION
PHILIPPINE POLITICS AND GOVERNANCE
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

Name: ____________________________Grade 12 - GAS Date: ____________ Score: _______

GENERAL DIRECTIONS BEFORE TAKING THE EXAMINATION

 This exam contains 20 multiple choice questions, 20 modified TRUE or FALSE questions, and 20
identification each worth 1 point. NO ERASURE!
o Write on the space provided the correct response for each question (for multiple choice).
o Write the word YES if it implies a correct statement. If it connotes a wrong statement, change
the word/ phrase of the underline word to make it into a correct statement. (for Modified TRUE
or FALSE) Make sure that your answer is clearly written. You will not receive partial credit for
any work done.
o Wrong spelling in the identification part is not a valid answer.
 This is a closed-book, closed notes examination. Cell phones are not permitted for use in any way.
 Any discussion or otherwise inappropriate communication between examinees, as well as the appearance
of any unnecessary material or cell-phone usage, will be dealt with severely. Violations may result in an
“F” for this exam, “F” for the class, suspension, or expulsion.
 This exam is worth a total of 60 points. Print your name at the top of this page in the upper left hand
corner. Good Luck!
 “Cheating is easy. Try something more challenging, like being FAITHFUL.”

EXAMINATION PROPER

[YOU HAVE 1 HOUR TO ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS]

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE.
____ 1. State is a legal concept and considered tangible. Nation is an ethnic concept and is intangible.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 2. The Philippines practiced a federal form of government. The country also has a presidential form of
government.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 3. Absolutism is a system where the rulers have unlimited control. Anarchism is a society with government,
laws, police or other authority.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 4. In Aristocracy, the privilege of social class whose members possess disproportionately large percentage
of society’s wealth, prestige and political influence. In Autocracy, the supreme political power is in the hands of
one person whose decision are unregulated.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 5. Political ideology is a set of ideal, beliefs, values, and opinions exhibiting a recurring pattern. It also
explains how society should work and offers some political and cultural blueprint for a certain social order.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 6. Democracy is a form of government by the people usually through elected representatives. Dictatorship
is a form of government by a single person with absolute control over the resources of the state.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 7. Communism is a collective ownership and an unplanned economy. Each should work to their capability
and receive according to their needs.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 8. Imperialism is a representative government, free speech, abolition of class privilege and state protection
of the individual. Liberalism is the extension of power and rule beyond established geographical boundaries.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 9. Egalitarianism is a belief where all citizens have equal rights and privileges. Fascism is an extreme right-
wing ideology where the existing social order is protected by the forcible suppression of the working class.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 10. Conservatism is governmental system where the existing institution are maintained emphasizing free
enterprise and maximum governmental intervention. Environmentalism is a government system where the
principle means of production are in public hands.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 11. Power is the ability to influence or outright control the behavior of people. It can be seen as evil or
unjust, but the exercise of power is accepted as endemic to humans as social beings.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 12. Power Over is the ability to dominate another person or a group. It usually comes from force and
threat.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 13. Power to is the ability to do something on one’s own. It can be seen from intellect, resources,
knowledge, stamina and etc.)
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 14. Power with is similar also to “power to” in that it reflects ability. The ability to work with others to get
something done by cooperation.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 15. Steven Lukes defines the concept of power by saying that “A exercise power over B when A affects B
in a manner contrary to B’s Interests.” He describes power as having three dimensions and has divided power
into three distinct ‘ faces’, each focusing on a specific aspect of power.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 16. The President of the Philippines has the power to give executive issuances, which are means to
streamline the policy and programs of an administration. There are seven issuances that the President may
issue.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 17. The President of the Philippines has the mandate of control over all the executive departments,
bureaus, and offices. This includes restructuring, reconfiguring, and appointments of their respective officials.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 18. The President of the Philippines has the authority to exercise the power of eminent domain. The power
of eminent domains means the state has the power to seize or authorize the seizure of private property for
public use with just compensation.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 19. The Vice - President may appoint officials of the Philippine government as provided by the constitution
and laws of the Philippines. Some of these appointments, however, may not need the approval of the Committee
on Appointments.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE
____ 20. The President of the Philippines, as chief legislative, has the mandate to supervise local governments
in the Philippines, despite their autonomous status as provided by Republic Act No. 7160 otherwise known as
the Local Government Code of 1991. Traditionally, this is done by the Department of the Interior and Local
Government, headed by a cabinet secretary—an alter ego of the President.
a. Both statements are TRUE c. Only the first statement is TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE d. Only the first statement is FALSE

II. IDENTIFICATION.
__________ 21. He holds the highest power during pre-colonial government of the Philippines.
__________ 22. It was the first city to be established in 1565 in the Philippines.
__________ 23. The last Spanish Governor-General in the Philippines.
__________ 24. The kind of government that President Duterte wants for the Philippines.
__________ 25. A group of persons, more or less numerous, permanently occupying a definite portion of
territory, independent of external control, and possessing a government to which a great body of inhabitants
render habitual obedience.
__________ 26. He was the first civil governor in the Philippines.
__________ 27. Under this law the Philippines were able to draft a new constitution wherein Filipinos now held
governmental positions.
__________ 28. It was established on November 1, 1897 by Gen. Emilio Aguinaldo.
__________ 29. The Commonwealth Government of the Philippines was ___________ in form under the
presidential type.
__________ 30. He was elected as president of the Congress.
__________ 31. It is the principal workplace of the Philippine President.
__________ 32. He is the head of the State and head of the Government.
__________ 33. Administrative Code of 1987.
__________ 34. Age qualification of an aspiring Philippine President.
__________ 35. He is the 7th President of the Philippines.
__________ 36. A total of individuals occupying an area or making up a whole
__________ 37. The group of people that makes a rules/laws and control the country
__________ 38. It is the area that controlled by the government
__________ 39. It is the most exclusive elements of state. Without this no state can exist.
__________ 40. It is a cultural-political community that has become conscious of its autonomy, unity and
particular interest.

III. MODIFIED TRUE or FALSE.

__________ 41. Decision –making power is the ability to control or influence in an open and direct way.
__________ 42. Agenda-setting Power is the power to shape desires.
__________ 43. In Agenda-setting power, it is not just about decision making, it is about preventing decisions
being made or reducing the choices which can be made.
__________ 44. Ideological Power seeks to identify “the means though which power influences, shapes and
determines conceptions of necessities, possibilities and strategies of challenge in situation of conflict.”
__________ 45. Legitimate Power emanates from an official position held by someone, be it an organization,
bureaucracy or government and etc.
__________ 46. A state is a stable community of people formed in the basis of a common language, territory,
economic life, ethnicity and/or psychological make-up manifested in a common culture.
__________ 47. State is a cultural-political community that has become conscious of its autonomy, unity and
particular interest.
__________ 48. A state is the means of rule over a defined or “sovereign” territory. It is comprised of an
executive, a bureaucracy, courts and other institutions.
__________ 49. The nation has four elements-population, territory, government, and sovereignty.
__________ 50. Possession of a definite territory is essential for the State but not for a Nation.
__________ 51. The first governor-general of the Spanish colonized Philippines was Miguel Lopez de Legazpi.
__________ 52. The Commonwealth government was used as a preparation for the Philippines self-governance
after an effective twenty-year transition.
__________ 53. KKK was organized by Andres Bonifacio with a group of Filipino patriots.
__________ 54. The Commonwealth Government was established on November 1, 1897 by Gen. Emilio
Aguinaldo
__________ 55. Judge William H. Taft was the first civil governor in the Philippines.
__________ 56. Acts of the President which relate to particular aspects of governmental operations in
pursuance of his duties as the administrative head shall be promulgated in administrative orders.
__________ 57. Acts of the President providing for rules of a general or permanent character in implementation
or execution of constitutional or statutory powers shall be promulgated in executive orders.
__________ 58. Acts of the President fixing a date or declaring a status or condition of public moment or
interest, upon the existence of which the operation of a specific law or regulation is made to depend, shall be
promulgated in proclamations which shall have the force of an executive order.
__________ 59. Acts of the President on matters of administrative detail, or of subordinate or temporary
interest which only concern a particular officer or government shall be embodied in memorandum orders.
__________ 60. Acts and commands of the President in his capacity as commander-in-chief of the Armed
Forces of the Philippines shall be issued as general or special orders.

Prepared by: Noted by:

JOMAR M. NARVAS DANILO L. LEUTERIO

Teacher II Principal III

“Ignorantia Legis Neminem Excusat”

 MIDTERM EXAMINATION
PHILIPPINE POLITICS AND GOVERNANCE
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

TABLE OF SPECIFICATION

No. of Days
Learning Competencies No. of Items Item Placement
Taught
Identify the basic tenets of major political ideologies
(i.e., liberalism, socialism, conservatism, etc.)
(HUMSS_PG12- Ib-c-6)

Differentiate the political ideologies (HUMSS_PG12-Ib-

6 10 1 – 10
c-7)

Examine the relationship between political ideologies

and configurations of political communities
(HUMSS_PG12-Ib-c-8)
Define power (HUMSS_PG12-Id-11)

Recognize the nature, dimensions, types, and

consequences of power (HUMSS_PG12-Id-12)
6 10 11 – 15 , 41 - 45
Analyze the nature, dimensions, types, deployments,
and consequences of power (HUMSS_PG12-Id-13)

Assess how power is exercised in different situations

(HUMSS_PG12-Id-14)
Define nation and state (HUMSS_PG12-Ie-15)

Differentiate nation from state (HUMSS_PG12-Ie-16)

Explain meanings of globalization (HUMSS_PG12-Ie- 6 10 36 – 40, 46 - 50

17)

Evaluate how globalization influences nation-states

(HUMSS_PG12-Ie-18)
Relate the evolution of Philippine politics and
governance (HUMSS_PG12-If-g-19)
Describe the different stages in the evolution of the
Philippine politics and governance (HUMSS_PG12-If-g-
20)

Analyze the evolution of Philippine (HUMSS_PG12- If-g-

21)
8 15 21 – 30, 51 - 55
Assess the effects of the colonial experience on
Philippine politics and governance (HUMSS_PG12-If-g-
22)

Appraise the influence of prior stages of Philippine

political developments on contemporary Philippine
politics (HUMSS_PG12-If-g-23)
Explain the roles and powers of the Philippine president
(HUMSS_PG12-Ih-24) 6 10 31 – 35, 56 – 60
Analyze how contemporary Philippine presidents
exercised their powers (HUMSS_PG12-Ih-25)

Critique the Philippine presidents’ exercise of power

(HUMSS_PG12-Ih-26)
Discuss the roles and responsibilities of the Philippine
Senate and the House of Representatives
(HUMSS_PG12-Ii-27)

Assess the performance of the Philippine Congress

(HUMSS_PG12-Ii-28)
4 5 16 - 20
Appraise the impact of Congress’s performance on
Philippine development (HUMSS_PG12-Ii-29)

Articulate a position or advocacy to a Philippine legislator

through a formal correspondence (HUMSS_PG12-Ii-30)
TOTAL 36 days 60 items 60

Prepared by:

JOMAR M. NARVAS
Teacher II

Noted by:

DANILO L. LEUTERIO
Principal III
 MIDTERM EXAMINATION
PHILIPPINE POLITICS AND GOVERNANCE
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

ANSWER’S KEY

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE 51. YES

1. A 52. TEN YEARS
2. D 53. YES
3. C 54. BIAK NA BATO
4. A 55. YES
5. A 56. YES
6. A 57. YES
7. D 58. YES
8. B 59. YES
9. A 60. YES
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. A
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. A
II. IDENTIFICATION
21. DATU
22. CEBU CITY
23. GEN. DIEGO DELOS RIOS
24. FEDERAL GOVERNMENT
25. STATE
26. JUDGE WILLIAM H. TAFT
27. TYDINGS-MCDUFFIE LAW
28. BIAK NA BATO
29. REPUBLICAN
30. DR. PEDRO PATERNO
31. MALACANANG
32. PRESIDENT
33. EXECUTIVE ORDER NO. 292
34. 40
35. RAMON MAGSAYSAY
36. PEOPLE
37. GOVERNMENT
38. TERRITORY
39. SOVEREIGNTY
40. STATE
III. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE
41. YES
42. IDEOLOGICAL POWER
43. YES
44. YES
45. YES
46. NATION
47. YES
48. YES
49. STATE
50. YES
 FIRST QUARTERLY EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

Name: ____________________________Grade 7 - MABAIT Date: ____________ Score: _______

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Read the questions carefully. Encircle the letter of your BEST answer for
each question.

1. Why a solution is considered a homogeneous mixture?

a. It is usually liquid c. it contains a solute and solvent
b. It can be dilute or concentrated d. its components are distributed evenly
2. All of the following describes a solution EXCEPT _________.
a. Clear c. cannot pass through filter paper
b. Homogeneous d. can be separated by physical means
3. A solution is prepared by mixing 20 g of sodium chloride in 80 g of water. What are the concentrations of the solute
and solvent in % by mass?
a. Solute: 10%, Solvent 90% c. Solute: 30%, Solvent 70%
b. Solute: 20%, Solvent 80% d. Solute: 40%, Solvent 60%
4. Which of these actions will cause more sugar to dissolve in a saturated sugar solution?
I. By stirring vigorously
II. By cooling the solution
III. By heating the solution
a. I only b. I and III only c. II only d. I and II only
5. What is the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a fixed amount of solvent at a given temperature?
a. Dilution b. Dissolution c. Percent by mass d. Solubility
6. How many grams of glucose (C12H22O11) are needed to prepare 400 mL of a 5% glucose solution?
a. 10 g b. 5 g c. 20 g d. 14 g
7. What is the percentage concentration in the following solution: 2g sucrose in 80 grams water?
a. 2.4% b. 4.4% c. 2.5% d. 97.6%
8. All of the following affects the solubility of a solid in a liquid EXCEPT ________.
a. Pressure b. stirring c. surface area d. temperature
9. A gaseous material has a strong smell, evaporates quickly, particularly boils at 33.34 °C and melts at -77.73°C.
This material can be classified as _________.
a. Metal b. mixture c. pure substance d. solution
10. Iron is a solid, hard metallic element that is used as a construction material for building houses. It boils at 2862 °C.
Oxygen is a gaseous, nonmetallic element that we use for breathing. Its boiling temperature is at -183 °C. When
iron is exposed in the air, it reacts with oxygen. This process produces rust, which has a chemical name ferric oxide
and boils at 1987 °C. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the materials mentioned above?
a. Rust or ferric oxide is a solution
b. Rust or ferric oxide is a substance
c. The materials does not boil at a particular temperature
d. The resulting product of the reaction between iron and oxygen is a mixture
11. Oliver is experimenting about the possible product of reaction of a magnesium (Mg) metal with hydrochloric acid
(HCl). He dissolved the metal with the acid in a closed container and observed that it produced a gaseous
substance and he predicted that the gas formed was Hydrogen (H). He further tested the gaseous material by
burning it using a match stick. The reaction produced a popping sound and a water droplet. What was the gas really
made of?
a. Chlorine b. hydrogen c. unknown mixture d. magnesium
12. Which of the substances in item number thirteen (13) can be separated further?
a. Chlorine b. magnesium c. hydrochloric acid d. magnesium
13. A pinch of bread was placed inside a test-tube and heated until it became blackish in color and released some gas.
Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE according to the given information?
 I. Bread is a solution
II. Bread is composed of only one substance
III. Bread is made up of solid and gaseous substances
IV. Bread is consist of mixtures of different substances
a. I only b. II and III c. II only d. III and IV
14. Water boils at 100°C and pure ethanol at 78°C. Which of the statements are TRUE about water and ethanol?
I. Water and ethanol are pure substances
II. Water and ethanol can be boiled at either 100°C or 78°C
III. Water and ethanol have specific temperature at which they would start to boil
IV. Water and ethanol can be identified according to temperature at which they boil
a. I only b. I, II and IV c. III only d. I, III and IV
15. Oliver heated a liquid in a casserole. He forgot to turn off the stove right away and all the liquid was gone. But he
noticed that there were some solid materials that settled at the surface of the casserole. What can be inferred from
this observation?
a. The liquid was a pure substance
b. The liquid was composed of a single material
c. The liquid was a mixture with dissolved solid material
d. The liquid material was a pure substance because it evaporated
16. Sodium chloride dissolves in water very well. Which is NOT TRUE in the following statements?
a. Water is a pure substance
b. Sodium chloride is a pure substance
c. Dissolving sodium chloride with water produces a mixture
d. Dissolving sodium chloride with water produces a new substance
17. Distillation is a process by which water purifying stations use to make pure and drinkable water. This process uses
heat to evaporate only the liquid water and leaves some heavy substances or other impurities. What idea can be
drawn from this information?
a. Distillation is not the only way to purify water
b. The water that water stations purify is 100% pure
c. Water is always drinkable because it only contains minerals
d. Distillation is a process that can be used to separate impurities in water
18. Which of the following lists of materials are composed of mixtures?
a. Vinegar, 70% alcohol, carbon c. oxygen, sodium chloride, water
b. Blood, calamansi juice, air d. carbon dioxide, bleach, oil
19. Which of the following substances is an element?
a. Air b. Iron c. Salt d. Sugar
20. A black, crystalline solid forms a purple vapor when it is heated. Which of the following substances is this?
a. Copper sulphate b. iodine c. phosphorus d. sulfur
21. Nonmetals are brittle and are normally used as insulators. Which of the following pairs of elements are nonmetals?
a. K and Na b. S and I c. Sn and Pb d. Ca and Zn
22. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Which element does NOT exhibit this property?
a. Aluminum b. chromium c. sulfur d. tungsten
23. Copper, aluminum and gold are metals. Which INCORRECTLY describes a metal?
a. Metals are ductile c. metals are good insulators
b. Metals are malleable d. metals are good conductors of heat
24. Sulfur, carbon and phosphorus are nonmetals. Which of the following BEST distinguishes a nonmetal from a metal?
a. Its homogeneity b. its boiling point c. its brittleness d. its ductility
25. The main component of sand is:
a. Aluminum b. calcium oxide c. hydrochloric acid d. silica
26. At sea level, an odorless and colorless liquid A boils at a range of 100°C to 105°C. What inference can be drawn
from this observation?
a. It is a metal b. It is a pure substance c. It is a nonmetal d. It is a mixture
27. Which of the following materials can be a source of natural acid-base indicator?
a. Sodium chloride b. China rose c. calamansi juice d. vinegar
28. Noel is using a blue litmus paper to identify acidic and basic mixtures. Which possible mixture/s could turn his litmus
paper to red?
I. Mango juice II. Saliva
III. 100% water IV. Liquid sosa
a. I only b. I and II c. II and III d. II and IV
29. Which of the following mixtures WILL NOT change the color of red litmus paper?
a. Bleach b. detergent c. drain cleaner d. vinegar
 30. Plant extract is either acidic or basic in nature. If a plant extract is acidic, which of the following pairs of
characteristics will be observed?
a. Tastes bitter, changes blue litmus paper to red
b. Tastes sour, changes red litmus paper to blue
c. Taste sour turns blue litmus paper to red
d. Taste bitter, turns red litmus paper to blue
31. Which of the following sets of PH values is acidic?
a. 1, 7, 8.5 b. 4.5, 3, 0 c. 7.5, 8, 9.5 d. 0, 8, 11
32. The following statements about acids are true EXCEPT ___________.
a. Acids turn litmus paper to red
b. Acids improve the strength of metals
c. Acids have pH values lower than 7
d. Acids neutralize bases
33. Hydrochloric acid, commonly known as muriatic acid, is a corrosive substance. What particular material or materials
will it damage?
I. Plastic II. Paper
III. Iron IV. Copper
a. I only b. II and III c. II only d. III and IV
34. A drain cleaner like liquid sosa contains large amount of sodium hydroxide, commonly known as lye. It is a very
strong base. What is its pH value?
a. 1 b. 8 c. 9 d. 13
35. Which of the following materials contains acidic mixture?
a. Fruit drinks b. chlorinated water c. detergent powder d. shampoo
36. An example of strong acid is ____________
a. Laundry detergent b. lemon juice c. muriatic acid d. vinegar
37. Which of the following group of substances consists of nonmetallic elements?
a. Zinc, copper and gold c. sugar, carbon, naphthalene
b. calcium chloride, lead oxide, sodium bicarbonate d. Oxygen, carbon, sulfur
38. Aluminum is passed into mills and rolled to produce foil to wrap food. Which of the following statements is/are
TRUE about the property of aluminum based on the following information?
I. It can be hammered into thin sheets
II. It can be rolled thinly
III. It can be drawn into wires.
IV. It allows electricity to pass through a material.
a. III only b. IV only c. I and III d. III and IV
39. Which is TRUE of nonmetals?
a. They have varying boiling points c. they are good conductors
b. They are used as insulators d. they have high melting points
40. Some metals like silver and gold are used in making jewelry. What property of these metals is considered for this
purpose?
a. It is explosive c. it is malleable
b. It is corrosive d. it is shiny

II. FILL in the BLANKS. Fill in the paragraph using the words from the word bank. Write the
correct answers on the blanks.

An (41) __________ is a pure substance that is made up of only one kind of atom. A (42) __________ is a pure
substance containing two or more elements that are (43) __________ combined.

A mixture is made up of two or more substances that are (44) __________ combined. A (45) __________ mixture is
uniformly mixed. A (46) __________ is an example of this mixture. A (47) __________ mixture is not uniformly mixed. It has
two or more distinct phases of matter visible in the mixture.

Solutions that contain water as a solvent are (48) __________. The substance being broken down in a solution is the
(49) __________. A solid substance completely dissolved in a liquid solvent is considered (50) __________, whereas a liquid
substance not dissolved in a liquid solvent is considered (51) __________ (52) __________ refers to the amount of solute
present in a solution.

Solutions are considered (53) __________ if they taste sour and can corrode metals. They are (54) __________ if
they taste bitter and feel slippery. The scale that can measure the strength of such solutions is known as (55) __________. A
substance is considered acidic if the pH strength is (56) __________ than 7, whereas a basic substance has a pH level (57)
__________ than 7.
 The property used to separate a mixture of sand and iron filings is (58) __________. The technique used to separate
the components of a mixture based on boiling point is called (59) __________. The spinning machine used to separate the
components of a mixture based on densities is a (60) __________.

WORD BANK
HOMOGENEOUS SOLUTION pH LESS
PHYSICALLY HETEROGENEOUS BASIC GREATER
MAGNETIC
CHEMICALLY AQUEOUS ACIDIC
SEPARATION
COMPOUND SOLVENT CONCENTRATION VAPORIZATION
ELEMENT SOLUBLE INSOLUBLE CENTRIFUGE

Prepared by:

JOMAR M. NARVAS
Teacher II

Noted by:

DANILO L. LEUTERIO
Principal III

2>1+1
“The whole is greater than the sum of its parts.”
-Gestalt
 FIRST QUARTERLY EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
S.Y. 2019 – 2020

TABLE OF SPECIFICATION

No. of Days
Learning Competencies No. of Items Item Placement
Taught
Investigate properties of unsaturated or saturated
solutions; (S7MT-Ic-2)
7 10 1 – 7, 41 - 43
Investigate properties of unsaturated or saturated
solutions; (S7MT-Ic-2)
Express concentrations of solutions quantitatively by
preparing different concentrations of mixtures according
to uses and availability of materials; (S7MT-Id-3)
9 15 8 – 17, 48 - 52
Express concentrations of solutions quantitatively by
preparing different concentrations of mixtures according
to uses and availability of materials; (S7MT-Id-3)
Distinguish mixtures from substances based on a set of
properties; (S7MT-Ie-f-4)
8 12 18 – 25, 44 - 47
Recognize that substances are classified into elements
and compounds; (S7MT-Ig-h-5)
Investigate properties of acidic and basic mixtures using
8 13 26 – 33, 53 - 57
natural indicators; and (S7MT-Ii-6)
Describe some properties of metals and non-metals such
as luster, malleability, ductility, and conductivity. 6 10 34 – 40, 58 - 60
(S7MT-Ij-7)
TOTAL 38 days 60 items 60

Prepared by:

JOMAR M. NARVAS
Teacher II

Noted by:

DANILO L. LEUTERIO
Principal III